Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 27 Nov 2020 Shift 2)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

______ was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly of India.

  1. ((a))

    Vallabhbhai Patel

  2. ((b))

    BR Ambedkar

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel.

  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
  • He was also known as Desh Ratna and Ajatshatru.
  • He was the first President of Independent India (1950-62).
  • He was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
  • B. R . Ambedkar:
  • He is responsible for changing the working hours from 14 hours every day to 8 hours.
  • He is known as the 'Father of the Indian Constitution' as he was the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.
  • He was the first Law Minister of independent India.
  • He called Article 32 the soul and heart of the constitution.
  • The Constitution Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 29 August 1947.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
  • He is popularly known as the Iron Man of India.
  • The Statue of Unity is built in dedication to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • He was India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and first Home Minister.
  • Since 2014, October 31 is being celebrated as ''National Unity Day'' to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • He was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly of India.
  • J. L. Nehru:
  • He was the First Prime Minister of India
  • He built institutions such as IIT and AIIMS
  • Nehru was elected as the president of the Lahore session of INC on 29 December 1929 and introduced a successful resolution calling for Swaraj.
  • He was Second Individual Satyagrahi.
  • He was the chairman of the Union Power Committee and Union Constitution Committee.
2

Which of the following is NOT a term used to denote couplets of a 'ghazal'?

  1. ((a))

    Makta/Maqta

  2. ((b))

    Matla

  3. ((c))

    Maand/Mand

  4. ((d))

    Misra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Maand/Mand

The correct answer is Maand/Mand.

  • Ghazal is a well-known poetic genre of Arabic literature.
  • According to the rules of Urdu ghazal, it is mandatory to have malta and maqta in the ghazal, or else ghazal is considered incomplete.
  • Matlaa- The first sher in a ghazal is called the 'matlaa'. 
  • Both lines of the matla must contain the "Qaafiyaa" and "Radif".
  • The matlaa sets the rhythm and refrain pattern.
  • Makta/Maqta  - The last couplet of the ghazal is called the mantra. 
  • In Makta, the poet's name or surname remains.
  • Radif - The rhymes of Kafia and the words or words that come after it are called "Radif".
  • Kafia changes but "Radif" does not change. Its form remains as it is.
  • Some of the major "Ghazalakars" are - Mirza Asadullah Khan "Ghalib", Mir Takhi "Mir", Firaq Gorakhpuri, Faiz Ahmed Faiz, Dushyant Kumar, Rahat Indori, Nida Fazli etc.
3

The Gulbenkian Prize for Humanity 2020 was awarded to ______.

  1. ((a))

    Jamie Margolin

  2. ((b))

    Yara Shahidi

  3. ((c))

    Greta Thunberg

  4. ((d))

    Malala Yousafzai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Greta Thunberg

The correct answer is Greta Thunberg

  • She is a Swedish Environmental activist.
  • She was awarded the Gulbenkian Prize for Humanity 2020 with prize money of 1 million Euros.
  • She plans to donate her 1 million euro ($1.14 million) prize to organizations focused on the environment and climate change.
  • The prize was founded in 1956 and is a part of the Calouste Gulbenkian Foundation

The foundation is a Portuguese philanthropic institute which is dedicated to the promotion of charity, arts, education, and science. Miss Thunberg is the first person to receive the prize for humanity.

Additional Information

  • She was also awarded the International Children's Peace Prize 2019.
  • Earlier, in April 2020, after winning the Human Act Award, she donated the $100,000 prize money to UNICEF.
  • The 17-year-old has also been named Time Magazine's 2019 Person of the Year, and won Amnesty International’s top human rights prize.
4

Graham Reid is the chief coach of Indian men's ______ team as of August 2020.

  1. ((a))

    cricket

  2. ((b))

    football

  3. ((c))

    hockey

  4. ((d))

    basketball

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

hockey

  • Graham Reid, Olympic medal-winning former Australian international, took the charge of India men's hockey team's preparations for FIH Men's Series Final Bhubaneswar, Odisha 2019.
  • He was also part of the Australian squad that won back-to-back Champions Trophy titles in 1984, 1985 and 1989, 1990.
5

The Economic Survey ______ introduced the concept of ‘Thalinomics’ in an attempt to relate economics to a plate of food.

  1. ((a))

    2019-20

  2. ((b))

    2018-19

  3. ((c))

    2017-18

  4. ((d))

    2016-17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2019-20

The correct answer is 2019-20.

  • The Economic Survey 2019-20 introduced the concept of ‘Thalinomics’ in an attempt to relate economics to a plate of food.
  • According to the survey, “Thalinomics: the economics of a plate of food in India” is an attempt to figure out how much a meal costs in India.
  • The 2019-20 Economic Survey has found that veg thalis became 29% more affordable compared to 2006-07, while non-veg thalis became 18% more affordable.

Highlights of 2020-21 Economic Survey

  • The Economic Survey has predicted a GDP growth of 11% for the upcoming financial year 2021-22.
  • The survey also forecast a V-shaped recovery of the economy.
  • The GDP is projected to contract by a record 7.7% in the current fiscal ending March 31, 2021.
  • Earlier, the International Monetary Fund projected an impressive 11.5% growth rate for India in 2021, making the country the only major economy of the world to register double-digit growth this year amid the pandemic.

 

Extra Information:

  • The annual Economic Survey is usually presented a day before the presentation of the annual budget. It serves as the official report of the economy.
  • It was first presented in 1950-51 and submitted in the Lok Sabha along with the Union Budget until 1964.
  • In 1964, the ministry started to release the survey a day before budget day.
6

The fictional town 'Malgudi' was the setting for stories written by ______.

  1. ((a))

    Ruskin Bond

  2. ((b))

    RK Narayan

  3. ((c))

    Munshi Premchand

  4. ((d))

    Sudha Murty

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

RK Narayan

  • RK Narayan is famous for his book-Malgudi Days.
  • This book is a collection of 32 short stories. The stories take place in Malgudi, a fictional town and every story tells about the general problem faced by the common man of India in that era.
  • Indian Thought Publications published it in 1943. However, Penguin Classics re-published this book outside India in 1982.
  • This book gained so much popularity that some of the stories were televised by Shankar Nag, director and actor.
  • .He was a leading author of early Indian literature in English along with Mulk Raj Anand and Raja Rao.
  • Rasipuram Krishnaswami Iyer Narayanaswami, commonly known as R. K. Narayan.

Other books by RK Narayan

  • The Guide.
  • Swami and Friends.
  • The Bachelor of Arts.
  • The Dark Room.
  • The English Teacher.
  • Mr. Sampath.
  • Next Sunday.
  • My Dateless Diary.
  • My Days.

Additional Information

  • He served as a member of Parliament Rajya Sabha from 1986 to 1992.
  • He was honored with the Padma Vibhushan in 2001.

Key Points

AuthorsFamous Work
Ruskin BondComing Round the Mountain: In the Year of Independence ,The Room on the Roof ,The Blue Umbrella ,A flight of pigeons, A handful of Nuts,A Gallery of Rascals
Munshi PremchandGodaan ,Seva Sadan, Nirmala ,Soz-e Watan,Karmabhoomi, Gaban, Mansarovar, Idgah
Sudha MurtyHow the Sea Became Salty ,How the Onion Got Its Layers
7

Which of the following animals was associated with the 'Ashvamedha' ritual in Vedic India?

  1. ((a))

    Elephant

  2. ((b))

    Horse

  3. ((c))

    Bull

  4. ((d))

    Goat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Horse

The correct answer is Horse.

  • Ashvamedha, or the "horse sacrifice," is one of the most significant rituals of ancient India.
  • It is one of the most important royal rituals of the Vedic religion.
  • It was used by ancient Indian kings to prove their imperial sovereignty.
  • In this sacrifice, a horse accompanied by the king's warriors would be released to wander for a period of one year.
  • Other Sacrifices
  1. The lengthy series of rituals of the royal consecration, the rajasuya, emphasized royal power and endowed the king with a divine charisma, raising him, at least for the duration of the ceremony, to the status of a god. Rajasuya is famous Yajnya in Vedic Sacrifice System, done by Emperors This sacrifice is done by Chakravartin Kings i.e. Emperors only.
  2. In Vajapeya Yagna, 7 horses were tied in a chariot. The other chariots were also pressed into races and after its victory. King and his wife sit down on the victorious chariot and both travelled to a long defined place. The Chariot was welcomed by the people there gathering with the Sura of cups. Later, it was celebrated with great enthusiasm and spirit by the King and his Subject.
8

______ is a major festival of Tripura wherein the deity of livestock and wealth is worshipped.

  1. ((a))

    Lampra Puja

  2. ((b))

    Ker Puja

  3. ((c))

    Kharchi Puja

  4. ((d))

    Garia Puja

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Garia Puja

The correct answer is Garia Puja

Garia Puja Festival:

  • It is a major festival in Tripura, held on the last day of the month of Chaitra.
  • Celebrated as a harvest festival by the ethnic tribes - Tripuris and Reangs.
  • In this festival, the Garia dance is also performed.
  • A bamboo pole that symbolizes the Lord Garia, the deity of livestock and wealth, is worshipped with flowers and garland. The main ingredients with which the Garia Puja is conducted are cotton thread, rice, riccha, fowl chick, rice beer, wine, earthen pots, eggs and wine. The fowl is sacrificed before the deity and the blood of the fowl is strewn before the Lord to get his blessing.
  • This puja is held in the seventh day of the month of Baisakh (April) for 7 days

  • Lampra Puja is performed by the Noatia community of Tripura.
  • It is usually observed on occasions such as marriage, housewarming, first rice feeding ceremony, and at the beginning of all social and religious ceremonies.
  • Ker Puja is a century-old celebration observed in Tripura. Ker means 'boundary' or 'specified area' in the regional language -- 'Kokborok', spoken by the tribals.
  • The Puja is celebrated two weeks after Kharchi Puja in the Royal Palace in Agartala with financial support from the state government.
  • Ker is considered the guardian deity of Vastu Devata in Tripura since the Manikya dynasty started ruling the state and is worshipped to protect the state from the evil spirit and black magic.
  • Kharchi Puja is a famous Hindu festival that takes place in the Indian State of Tripura, in the month of July or August every year. 

During this puja, fourteen gods forming the dynasty deity of Tripuri people are worshipped. 

It is observed in Agartala in the temple premises of the fourteen gods.

StateFestivals
Manipur- Gang-Ngai. - Yaosang. - Lui-Ngai-Ni. - Heikru Hitongba. - Chumpha.
Tripura- Garia Puja - Asokastami Festival. - Neermahal Festival. - Kharchi Festival. - Pilak Festival.
Sikkim- Losoong Festival. - Indrajatra Festival. - Bhumchu. - Ram Navami. - Saga Dawa.
9

With which of the following is the term 'Vesara' associated?

  1. ((a))

    Classical music

  2. ((b))

    Tribal festival

  3. ((c))

    Folk dance

  4. ((d))

    Temple architecture

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Temple architecture

The correct answer is Temple Architecture.

Key Points

It is a hybridized style of Nagara and Dravida style of temple architecture.

  • It became popular after the mid-seventh century in the region of Karnataka, under the patronage of Chalukyas rulers.
  • Features of Vesara style:
  • Compound walls may or may not be present.
  • Gopurams may or may not be present.
  • The plan of these temples looks like a star and is thus known as a stellate plan.
  • Examples: Durga Temple (Aihole), Virupaksh Temple (Pattadkal), Keshava Temple (Somnathpur) , Halebidu.

Additional Information

  • The temple architecture in India is not the same everywhere.
  • Basically there are three styles of temple architecture in India:
  1. Nagara Style (North India)
  2. Dravida Style (South India)
  3. Vasara style (Mix of Nagara and Dravida style)
  • Nagara Style:
  1. Built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
  2. Have a tower or Shikhara.
  3. Have Grabhagriha ( A place for the idols of god and goddess).
  4. Examples: Kandariya Mahadeo temple at Khajuraho, Lakshamana temple
  • Dravida Style:
  1. Generally enclosed within a compounded wall.
  2. The entrance gateway is known as Gopuram.
  3. The shape of Temple tower known as Vimana (similar to Shikhara in Nagara style).
  4. Large water tanks are common in the temple complex.
  5. Examples: Brahadeeshwara temple, Rajarajeswara temple.
  • Vasara style:
  1. This style of temple architecture is a mix of Nagara and Dravid style.
  2. Examples: Dodda Basappa Temple, Hoysala Temple

10

The burial site at Inamgaon lies along the river ______.

  1. ((a))

    Mahi

  2. ((b))

    Subarnarekha

  3. ((c))

    Ghod

  4. ((d))

    Penner

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ghod

The correct answer is Ghod.

  • Inamagon:
  • Inamagon is situated near the Ghod river, a tributary of the river Bhima in Maharashtra.
  • Inamgaon is the post-Harappan archaeological site in Maharashtra.
  • Usually adults were buried at this site. The dead body was laid straight; with the head facing towards north.
  • Remains of wheat, barley, lentils, millets and sesame have been found from the Inamgaon site.
  • The Subarnarekha River flows through the Indian states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.
  • Mahi river rises in Madhya Pradesh and flows into Arabian Sea after flowing through the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
  • It is the river which crosses tropic of cancer twice.
  • The Penna river rises in the Nandi Hills in Karnataka, and runs through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Important sites of Harappa

SiteStateExcavated byFindings
DholaviraGujaratR.S.Bisht10-alphabet signboard, megalith burial, dams and embankments, warehouse etc
KalibanganRajasthanB.B.Lal and K.Ghoshplowed field, five altars, wells in every house, mixed cropping, cylindrical seals etc
AlamgirpurUttar PradeshY.D. SharmaPottery workshops, ceramics, terracotta structure coated with gold, evidence of cloth weaving.
11

In June 2020, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) projected a contraction of ______% for the Indian economy.

  1. ((a))

    6.25

  2. ((b))

    4.50

  3. ((c))

    2.25

  4. ((d))

    8.50

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4.50

The correct answer is 4.50.

  • The IMF in June 2020 projected a sharp contraction of 4.5% for the Indian economy.
  • The historic low as cited by IMF was due to the coronavirus pandemic that has nearly stalled all economic activities
  • IMF also said the country is expected to bounce back in 2021 with a robust 6% growth rate.
  • IMF Headquarters- Washington, D.C
12

______ was a poet and minister in the court of King Samudragupta.

  1. ((a))

    Harisena

  2. ((b))

    Banabhatta

  3. ((c))

    Vasumitra

  4. ((d))

    Kamban

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harisena

The correct answer is Harisena. 

Key Points

  • Samudra Gupta court poet and minister Harisena composed the Allahabad pillar Inscription or Prayag Prasasti.
  • The Pillar was an Asokan Pillar erected by Asoka six centuries before him.
  • This Inscription is a eulogy of Samudra Gupta and mentions the conquests of Samudra Gupta and the boundaries of the Gupta Empire.
  • As per this inscription, Samudra Gupta defeated 9 kings in the North, 12 Kings in the South, reduced all the Atavika states to vassalage.
  • Allahabad Prasasti, composed by Harishena, does not bear any date and for this reason, historians have presumed that it was composed probably before the Ashwamedha Yajna performed by Samudragupta.

Additional Information

Banbhatta

  • He was the court poet of Harsha Vardhan. (who reigned c. 606–647 CE).
  • He wrote the famous Harshcharit.
  • He also wrote Kadambari, Chandi Shatak, and Parvati Parinay.

Vasumitra

  • The Fourth Buddhist council was held around 72 AD at Kundalavana, Kashmir under the patronage of King Kanishka(Kushan dynasty)
  • It was presided by Vasumitra who was deputed by Asvagosha
  • The result of this council was that Buddhism was divided into two sects Hinayana and Mahayana.

Kamban

  • Kamban was a famous poet of the reign of Kulothunga III.
  • He composed the "Tamil Ramayan" or "Ramavataram"
13

Mahapadma Nanda ruled over the kingdom of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Kosala

  2. ((b))

    Magadha

  3. ((c))

    Vatsa

  4. ((d))

    Avanti

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Magadha

The correct answer is Magadha.

Key Points

  • The Nanda Dynasty ruled the kingdom of Magadhas in northern India from 345-321 BCE.
  • It was founded by Mahapadma Nanda, also known as Ugrasena i.e owner of a huge army, who defeated many kingdoms such as Kurus, Kalingas, and Kasis.
  • He has also been described as the “Destroyer of all the Kshatriyas” in the Puranas.
  • The Puranas call Mahapadma Ekrat i.e the sole Monarch. He seems to have overthrown all the dynasties which ruled at the time of Shisunagas. He is often described as the 'First Empire Builder of Indian History".Mahapadma Nanda was titled the "second Parshuram".
  • Mahapadma Nanda was succeeded by his eight sons.
  • Dhananada was the last one.
14

As of 2020-21, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) does NOT recommend the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for ______.

  1. ((a))

    sunflower

  2. ((b))

    groundnut

  3. ((c))

    soya bean

  4. ((d))

    linseed

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

linseed

The correct answer is linseed.

  • The government announces, Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural commodities each year in both the Crop seasons after taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • In formulating the recommendations for MSP, CACP considers a number of things like the cost of production, input-output price parity, demand, and supply, etc. 

MSP is a kind of insurance that the government provides to farmers in case of a bumper production of a crop and a fall in prices. 

The government is bound to buy the crop at MSP from farmers if the price of the crop falls critically due to excessive supply.

  • As of 2020-21, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
  • The government announces, Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural commodities each year in both the Crop seasons after taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • CACP recommends MSP for twenty-two (22) crops and Fair & Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.

15

‘The Disciple’ is an award winning film in ______ by Chaitanya Tamhane.

  1. ((a))

    Gujarati

  2. ((b))

    Marathi

  3. ((c))

    Hindi

  4. ((d))

    English

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Marathi

The correct answer is Marathi

  • The Disciple is a Marathi movie directed by Chaitanya Tamhane. Its plot is based on Indian Classical Music.
  • The Disciple won the best Best Screenplay award at Venice International Film Festival during the closing ceremony.
  • This is the second award the film got at the festival.  it was also honoured with the International Critics’ Prize awarded by FIPRESCI.
  • The Disciple was also selected as the only Indian film this year among the official selection of the 2020 Toronto International Film Festival.

Additional Information

  • The film unfolds with the story of a young musician Sharad, the disciple who has been initiated into the rites of Hindustani classical music complete with reverence and idealism.
  • Director: Chaitanya Tamhane
  • Writer: Chaitanya Tamhane
  • Stars: Aditya Modak, Arun Dravid, Sumitra Bhave
16

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    The Reserve Bank of India was set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.

  2. ((b))

    The Reserve Bank served as the central bank of Pakistan up to April 1947.

  3. ((c))

    The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in 1949.

  4. ((d))

    The Reserve Bank of India commenced operations on 1 April 1935.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Reserve Bank served as the central bank of Pakistan up to April 1947.

The correct answer is The Reserve Bank served as the central bank of Pakistan up to April 1947.

  • The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of the country.
  • It was established based on the recommendations of the "Hilton Young Commission".
  • The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (III of 1934) provides for the statutory basis of the functioning of the bank.
  • The Reserve Bank of India was established with a capital of 5 crores.
  • The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is between 1 July to 30 June while the country's fiscal year is between 1 April to 30 March.

Additional Information

  • The printing of notes in India is done by the Reserve Bank.
  • The work of minting one rupee notes and all coins is done by the Ministry of Finance.
  • The first governor of the Reserve Bank of India was "Osburn Smith" (The English).
  • The first Indian-origin governor of the Reserve Bank of India was C D Deshmukh.
17

The process of covering bare ground with a layer of organic matter in order to retain soil moisture is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    contour ploughing

  2. ((b))

    terrace farming

  3. ((c))

    mulching

  4. ((d))

    intercropping

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

mulching

The correct answer is mulching.

  • Mulching is the process of covering the bare ground with a layer of organic matter in order to retain soil moisture.

Mulching is a protective layer of a material that is spread on top of the surface of the soil.

Mulching helps in the conservation of soil moisture, improving the fertility of the soil, and reducing weed growth.

Additional Information

  • Contour ploughing is the farming practice of plowing or planting across a slope following the contours of hills and slopes.
  • These contour lines create a water break which reduces the formation of rills and gullies during times of heavy water run-off; which is a major cause of soil erosion.
  • The water break also allows more time for the water to settle into the soil.
  • In contour ploughing, the ruts made by the plough run perpendicular rather than parallel to slopes, generally resulting in furrows that curve around the land and are level.​
  • Terrace farming is a farming technique whereby “steps” known as terraces are built onto the slopes of hills and mountains.
    • This practice is mainly used on sloping lands to prevent rainfall-runoff and to reduce serious erosion.
  • Intercropping is the practice of cultivation of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field. 
  • Inter-cropping helps in increasing soil fertility and also helps in the prevention of pests and diseases to spread throughout the field.
18

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Cotton is grown in sandy loam soil.

  2. ((b))

    Loamy soil is used to make pots, toys and statues.

  3. ((c))

    Clay and loam are suitable for growing wheat, gram and paddy.

  4. ((d))

    Percolation rate of water is highest in sandy soil and least in clayey soil.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Loamy soil is used to make pots, toys and statues.

The incorrect answer is Loamy soil is used to make pots, toys and statues.

Key Points

  • Loamy soil holds plenty of moisture and is ideal for most garden plants and also drains well so that sufficient air can reach the roots.
  • Clayey soil is used to make pots, toys, and statues because clayey soils have the highest water holding capacity than loamy, sand, and silt.
  • Clay and loam are suitable for growing wheat, gram and paddy.
  • The soil that is good at retaining water and rich in organic matter is suitable for growing crops such as wheat, gram, and paddy,
  • Cotton is grown in sandy loam soil.
  • The percolation rate of water is different in different types of soil. It is highest in the sandy soil and least in the clayey soil.

Additional Information

Type of SoilCharacteristics
Alluvial SoilIt is rich in lime-potash, poor in phosphorus, and humus. Found in states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal.
Black soilsIt is found in lava-covered areas and are often referred to as regur but are popularly known as "black cotton soils" since cotton has been the most common traditional crop in areas where they are found.
Black soils are derivatives of trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa plateau.
Laterite SoilIt is rich in iron, poor in lime, phosphorus, calcium, and nitrogen. It is formed by leaching of laterite rocks. It is found in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Odisha.
Arid SoilThey are the soils of desert or semi-desert regions and color varies from red to brown. It is found in the states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab.
19

Which of the following terms is NOT associated with rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Waterfall

  2. ((b))

    Horst

  3. ((c))

    Meander

  4. ((d))

    Distributary

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Horst

The correct anwer is Horst

  • The land between two parallel faults rising to form is termed as a Block mountain or Horsts.
  • The land between two parallel faults subsiding into a depression is termed as a Graben or Rift valley.
  • The Rhine valley, the Vosges mountain in Europe and Vindhyas and Satpura are examples of Block mountain systems.
  • East African Rift, Baikal rift valley (Russia), Rhine rift valley (Germany) are examples of rift valley.

Additional Information

All other terms are related with rivers

  • A waterfall is a river or other body of water's steep fall over a rocky ledge into a plunge pool below. Waterfalls are also called cascades. Eg. Nohkalikai Waterfalls is in Meghalaya, Hebbe Waterfalls Kemmagundi, Chikmagalur District, Karnataka ,Athirapally Waterfalls Kerala.
  • Meander: It is a bend or widening curve of the river, formed as a result of erosional and depositional processes. Meanders form when water in the river erodes the banks on the outside of the river channel.
  • Sleet: Precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain.
  • Strait: Narrow stretch of sea connecting two areas of the sea.
  • Isthmus: A narrow strip of land connecting two landmasses.
20

Section ______ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a banking company incorporated in India from appointing as Director on its Board, any person who is a Director of any other banking company.

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

The correct answer is 16.

Key Points 

Section 16 in BANKING REGULATION ACT,1949

  • No banking company incorporated in India shall have as a director on its Board of Directors any person who is a director of any other banking company.
  • No banking company referred to in sub-section (1) shall have in its Board of directors, more than three directors who are directors of companies which among themselves are entitled to exercise voting rights in excess of twenty percent of all shareholders' total voting rights to that banking company.

Additional Information The Banking Regulation Act, 1949:

  • The Banking Regulation Act was passed in India in the year 1949.
  • The act regulates all the banking firms in India.
  • It came into effect on 16 March 1949 and was applicable in Jammu and Kashmir from 1956.
  • Initially, it was applicable only to the banking companies, but later, in 1965, it was applicable to cooperative banks as well, after an amendment.
21

______ is a Tamil festival wherein temple idols are taken in a procession to a water body for a ceremonial bath.

  1. ((a))

    Masi Magam

  2. ((b))

    Mopin

  3. ((c))

    Vettukad

  4. ((d))

    Khuado Kut

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Masi Magam

The correct answer is Masi Magam.

  • The festival of Masi Magam is celebrated during the Makam Nakshatra in the month of Masi in Tamil.
  • The festival of Masi Magam or Masi Makam is usually celebrated on the full moon day.
  • The procession of the idols of the temples is taken out on the day of Masi Magam.
  • They are taken to the seashore, pond, or lake for bathing.
  • Worshiping on this day gives a person the blessings of the Magh star.
  • It is a symbol of consciousness, strength, and vastness.
  • The Mopin Festival is the main festival of the Alo District of Arunachal Pradesh and it is celebrated by the Gallo tribe as the new year.
  • "Khuado Kut" is one of the major festivals of the Pait community as a thanksgiving ceremony, and it is the festival of Mizoram.
  • After all harvesting from the farm is held "during the full moon night".
  • The people of the village gather for their well-being and wishes for the next **good harvest.**​
22

Which of the following statements about bio-gas is incorrect?

  1. ((a))

    Bio-gas burns without smoke and leaves no residue.

  2. ((b))

    Biogas contains less than 1% methane.

  3. ((c))

    Bio-gas is also known as ‘gobar-gas’.

  4. ((d))

    Plant parts, vegetable waste and sewage are used in the production of bio-gas.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Biogas contains less than 1% methane.

The correct answer is Biogas contains less than 1% methane.

  • Biofuel is made from dead organic elements called biomass and can be in liquid, gaseous, or solid form.
  • Biogas is a source of energy that can be used again and again.
  • It is also used for domestic and agricultural purposes.
  • Biogas is a renewable energy source just like solar energy and wind energy.
  • Certain types of bacterial biological wastes are converted into useful biogas.
  • Methane gas is the main component of biogas.
23

'Pravasi Rojgar' is an initiative by ______, towards contributing to the need of connecting job seekers to relevant employers.

  1. ((a))

    Riteish Deshmukh

  2. ((b))

    Salman Khan

  3. ((c))

    Akshay Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Sonu Sood

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sonu Sood

The correct answer is Sonu Sood.

  • The 'Pravasi Rojgar' mobile app is available to the unemployed seeking employment.
  • Through this app, workers will be helped to find the right job opportunities in various sectors across the country.
  • Actor Sonu Sood has launched this 'Pravasi Rojgar' app, which has helped migrants reach their homes amid the Covid-19 epidemic.
  • The Pravasi Rozgar Mobile App is a free online platform to provides all the necessary information and correct links to find a job.
  • Actor Sonu Sood has also worked with Bollywood in South films. He hails from Moga, Punjab.
  • Riteish Deshmukh, Salman Khan, and Akshay Kumar are famous Bollywood actors in India.
24

The 'Digha Nikaya' is a collection of ______ discourses.

  1. ((a))

    Sikh

  2. ((b))

    Buddhist

  3. ((c))

    Jain

  4. ((d))

    Hindu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Buddhist

The correct answer is Buddhist.

Key Points

  • Digha Nikaya is a Buddhist scripture, the first of the five-strong Nikayas, in the Sutta Pitaka, which is one of the three baskets that compose the Pali Tipitaka of Buddhism.
  • Digha Nikaya which means the long collection,  a Sanskrit Dirghagama that contains 34 long suttas including doctrinal expositions, legends, and moral rules.

Additional Information

  • Buddhism started in India over 2,600 years ago as a way of life that had the potential of transforming a person.
  • It is one of the important religions of South and South-Eastern Asian countries.
  • The religion is based upon the teachings, life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam.
  • Major Buddhist Texts -
  • The Vinaya Pitaka consists of rules of conduct and discipline applicable to the monastic life of the monks and nuns.
  • The Sutta Pitaka consists of the main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha. It is divided into five Nikaya or collections:
  • Majjhima Nikaya
  • Digha Nikaya
  • Samyutta Nikaya
  • Anguttara Nikaya
  • Khuddaka Nikaya
  • The Abhidhamma Pitaka is a philosophical analysis and systematization of the teaching and scholarly activity of the monks.
  • Other important Buddhist texts include Divyavadana, Dipavamsa, Mahavamsa, Milind Panha, etc.
25

Which of the following football clubs entered into a two-year partnership with German football giants Borussia Dortmund in August 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Hyderabad FC

  2. ((b))

    Odisha FC

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru FC

  4. ((d))

    Jamshedpur FC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hyderabad FC

The correct answer is Hyderabad FC.

  • Hyderabad Football Club (HFC) has signed a two-year partnership deal with leading German Football League club Borussia Dortmund.
  • The Indian national football team is governed by the All India Football Federation.
  • The All India Football Federation (AIFF) was formed in 1937.
  • The AFC Asian Cup is an Asian football competition, organized by the Asian Football Federation.
  • PK Banerjee, Chunni Goswami, Tulsidas Balaram, Selan Manna, Bhaichung Bhutia, and Sunil Chhetri have been famous Indian footballers.

Additional Information

  • India will host the FIFA Under U-17 Women's World Cup and AFC Women's Asian Cup in 2022.
  • The period from 1951 to 1962 is considered the golden age of Indian football.
  • The Indian team won gold at the 1951 Asian Games, hosted by India.
  • India finished fourth in the 1956 Olympic Games. This was the biggest achievement of the Indian team.
26

Which of the following terms is associated with the production of honey?

  1. ((a))

    Apiculture

  2. ((b))

    Sericulture

  3. ((c))

    Horticulture

  4. ((d))

    Silviculture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Apiculture

  • Apiculture is the technique of scientific rearing of honey bees in a specially designed wooden box.
  • The essential elements for beekeeping are smoker, safety dress, moveable hive, honey extractor and hive tool.
  • Sericulture is the process of rearing of silkworms to produce raw silk.
  • Sericulture is the production of raw silk by means of raising caterpillars (larvae), those of the domesticated silkworm.
  • Silk is a continuous filament within each cocoon.

Additional Information

ApicultureThe science and art of raising honey bees
PiscicultureFish farming
AgricultureFarming
SilvicultureCultivating forest trees
VermicultureEarthworms
PomologyFruit
27

The Cauvery basin lies in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and ______.

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala

The correct answer is ​Kerala.

  • The delta portion of the Kaveri River is quite fertile. Here, black, red, laterite, alluvial, wild and mixed types of soil are found in the basin.
  • The maximum part of the basin is occupied by red soil. Alluvial soil is found in the delta part.
  • The Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Arkavati tributaries flow to the right end of the Kaveri River.
  • On the left end, rivers like Lakshmanathirtha, Kabbani, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyali, etc. join the river Kaveri.
  • A waterfall called Shivasamudram is formed on the Kaveri river which is 101 m high.
  • On the Cauvery River, there is the Krishnarajasagar Dam in Karnataka and the Mettur Dam and Cauvery Delta in Tamil Nadu.
28

Leaves of the nettle plant secrete ______ acid which causes a painful sting on touching.

  1. ((a))

    Acetic

  2. ((b))

    Ascorbic

  3. ((c))

    Oxalic

  4. ((d))

    Methanoic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Methanoic

The correct answer is Methanoic.

  • Leaves of the nettle plant secrete methanoic acid which causes a painful sting on touching.

Key Points

  • Nettle sting has methanoic acid commonly called formic acid (HCOOH).
  • The leaves and young stems of this herbaceous plant are fitted with stinging hairs tipped with formic acid and other irritants. If touched, these needle-like hairs inject the stinging acid into the skin, triggering a burning, tingling sensation and an itchy rash.

Additional Information

  • Acetic Acid:-
  • Chemical formula:- CH3COOH.
  • IUPAC name:- Ethanoic acid
  • Anhydrous Acetic acid is called Glacial Acetic acid.
  • Its crystals are obtained at a temperature slightly lower than 16.7°C.
  • Ascorbic Acid:-
  • It is commonly known as Vitamin C.
  • It is helpful for important metabolic functions like fighting bacterial infections, detoxifying reactions, and in the formation of collagen in fibrous tissue, teeth, bones, connective tissue, skin, and capillaries.
  • It is found in citric fruits like oranges and in vegetables.
  • Oxalic acid:-
  • It is an organic compound with the formula H2C2O4.
  • It is a colorless crystalline solid that forms a colorless solution in water.
29

Section ______ of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for unlawful assembly.

  1. ((a))

    159

  2. ((b))

    143

  3. ((c))

    166

  4. ((d))

    135

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

143

The correct answer is 143.

  • Section143 of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for unlawful assembly.

Key Points

  • Section 143: (Punishment)
  • Whoever is a member of an unlawful assembly, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
  • The offence under this section is cognizable, available, and non-compoundable, and it's triable by any magistrate.

Additional Information

  • Section 159: (Affray)
  • ​When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to “commit an affray”.
  • Section 166: (Public servant disobeying the law, with intent to cause injury to any person)
  • Whoever, being a public servant, knowingly diso­beys any direction of the law as to the way in which he is to conduct himself as such public servant, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely that he will, by such disobedience, cause injury to any person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
  • Section 135:
  • Abetment of desertion of soldier, sailor, or airman.—Whoever abets the desertion of any officer, soldier, 1[sailor or airman], in the Army, 2[Navy or Air Force] of the 3[Government of India], shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
30

Which of the following falls under the secondary sector of economic activities?

  1. ((a))

    Warehousing

  2. ((b))

    Banking

  3. ((c))

    Sugar factory

  4. ((d))

    Transport

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sugar factory

The correct answer is the Sugar factory.

The sugar factory falls under the secondary sector of economic activities.

Key Points

  • The secondary sector includes secondary processing of raw materials, food manufacturing, textile manufacturing, and industry.
  • The Secondary sector of the economy includes those economic sectors that create a finished, usable product: manufacturing, construction and electricity, gas & water supply.

Additional Information

  • Primary Sector Activities:-
  • Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, and mining.
  • Secondary Sector Activities:-
  • Manufacturing and construction.
  • Tertiary Sector Activities:-
  • Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc.
31

Lord Voldemort is a fictional character in a series of books by ______.

  1. ((a))

    RL Stine

  2. ((b))

    JK Rowling

  3. ((c))

    Ruskin Bond

  4. ((d))

    Roald Dahl

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

JK Rowling

The correct answer is JK Rowling.

  • Lord Voldemort is a fictional character in a series of books by JK Rowling.

Key Points

  • Lord Voldemort is a sobriquet for Tom Marvolo Riddle, a fictional character and the main antagonist in J. K. Rowling's series of Harry Potter novels.
  • Voldemort first appeared in Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone, which was published in 1997.
32

______ became king of Thanesar after the death of his father and elder brother.

  1. ((a))

    Prabhakarvardhana

  2. ((b))

    Chandragupta 1

  3. ((c))

    Harshavardhana

  4. ((d))

    Samudragupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harshavardhana

The correct answer is Harshavardhana.

Harshavardhana became king of Thanesar after the death of his father and elder brother.

Key Points

  • The year 600 CE saw the rise of emperor Harshavardhana whose biography the Harshacharita was written in Sanskrit by his courtesan Banbhatta.
  • The story of Harshavardhana's life and the accounts of the Chinese traveler Xuan Zang is mentioned in the Harshacharita.
  • Harshavardhana became the king of Thanesar after his father and elder brother died. His brother-in-law was the ruler of Kanauj and was killed by the ruler of Bengal.
  • He took over Kanauj and then avenged his brother-in-law's death by taking over Bengal.
  • He conquered both Magadha and Bengal, but his expedition in the Deccan was stopped by the Chalukyan Emperor Pulakesin II.
33

As per Section 25 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the assets in India of every banking company at the close of business on the last Friday of every quarter or, if that Friday is a public holiday, at the close of the business on the preceding working day, shall not be less than ______ of its demand and time liabilities in India.

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    50%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75%

The correct answer is 75%.

Key Points

  • The assets in India of every banking company at the close of business on the last Friday of every quarter or, if that Friday is a public holiday under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), at the close of the business on the preceding working day, shall not be less than seventy-five percent.

Additional Information

  • Every banking company shall, within one month from the end of every quarter, submit to the Reserve Bank a return in the pre­scribed form and manner of the assets and liabilities referred to in sub-section
  • as at the close of business on the last Friday of the previous quarter, or, if that Friday is a public holiday under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881) at the close of business on the preceding working day.
  • Banking Regulation Act, 1949:-
  • Banking ​means accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawal by cheque, draft, order, or other wise.
  • It was enacted on 10 March 1949 and provides a regulatory framework for commercial banks.
  • This act empowers RBI to regulate commercial banks.
34

Who was Panini?

  1. ((a))

    A Vedic sage who wrote most of the Atharva Veda

  2. ((b))

    A poet in the court of Emperor Vikramaditya VI

  3. ((c))

    A health scientist who conducted complicated surgeries

  4. ((d))

    A scholar who prepared grammar for the Sanskrit language

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A scholar who prepared grammar for the Sanskrit language

Panini

  • He was born in Shalatula on the Indus River in present-day Pakistan.
  • He was a Sanskrit grammarian and gave a comprehensive and scientific theory of phonetics, phonology, and morphology.
  • His major work involves treatise called Astadhyayi (or Astaka). It consists of eight chapters, each subdivided into quarter chapters.
  • Under Astadhyayi, he distinguished between the language of sacred texts and the usual language of communication.
  • He gave formal production rules and definitions to describe Sanskrit grammar.
  • He gave about 1700 basic elements like nouns, verbs, vowels, consonants he put them into classes.
  • Pushyamitra Shunga is a post-Mauryan king whereas the birth year of Panini is not known. Experts give dates of Panini in the 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th century which are all Pre-Mauryan.
  • Astadhyayi (or Astaka ) is Panini's major work related to Sanskrit grammar.
35

Which of the following statements about plains is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    The Indo-Gangetic plains are the most sparsely populated regions of India.

  2. ((b))

    Generally, plains are very fertile.

  3. ((c))

    Plains are large stretches of flat land.

  4. ((d))

    Some plains are formed by river deposits.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Indo-Gangetic plains are the most sparsely populated regions of India.

The incorrect statement is ​The Indo-Gangetic plains are the most sparsely populated regions of India.

Key Points

  • Indo-Gangetic Plain, also called North Indian Plain, an extensive north-central section of the Indian subcontinent, stretching westward from the combined delta of the Brahmaputra River valley and the Ganges River to the Indus River valley. The region contains the subcontinent’s richest and most densely populated areasHence, 1 statement is incorrect.
  • A flood plain or floodplain is a flat area of land next to a river or stream.
  • It stretches from the banks of the river to the outer edges of the valley. Flood plains are naturally very fertile due to the river sediment which is deposited there. This sediment is good for growing plants on the flood plain. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Plains are large stretches of flat land. They are, generally, not more than 200 meters above mean sea level. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • Plains may have been formed from flowing lava, deposited by water, ice, wind, or formed by erosion by these agents from hills and mountains. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
36

Tertiary consumers make up the ______ trophic level in the food chain.

  1. ((a))

    fourth

  2. ((b))

    first

  3. ((c))

    third

  4. ((d))

    second

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

fourth

The correct answer is fourth.

  • Tertiary consumers make up the fourth trophic level in the food chain.

Key Points

  • A tertiary consumer is an animal that obtains its nutrition by eating primary consumers and secondary consumers.
  • Tertiary consumers are carnivorous predators, although they may also be omnivores, which are animals that feed on both meat and plant material.
  • They can eat many different animals and even plants sometimes.
  • Some examples of tertiary consumers include birds of prey, big cats, and foxes.

Additional Information

  • A trophic level is a group of organisms within an ecosystem that occupy the same level in a food chain.
  • There are five main trophic levels within a food chain, each of which differs in its nutritional relationship with the primary energy source.
  • The primary energy source in any ecosystem is the Sun (although there are exceptions in deep-sea ecosystems).
37

Which of the following Indian warships arrived at the Alang ship breaking yard for dismantling in September 2020?

  1. ((a))

    INS Godavari

  2. ((b))

    INS Vishal

  3. ((c))

    INS Viraat

  4. ((d))

    INS Nilgiri

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

INS Viraat

The correct answer is INS Viraat.

  • INS Viraat Indian warships arrived at the Alang ship breaking yard for dismantling in September 2020.

Key Points

  • INS Viraat, the world's longest-serving warship that was decommissioned by the Indian Navy three years ago, has arrived at the Alang coast in Gujarat for dismantling.
  • The aircraft carrier began its final journey from the Naval Dockyard in Mumbai and reached the waters at Alang in Bhavnagar district.
  • It will be dismantled at the ship-breaking yard in Alang and then sold as scrap.
  • The warship, which was inducted into the Indian Navy in 1987, was purchased by Shree Ram Group for a sum of Rs 38.54 crore at an auction.
  • It was the second centaur-class aircraft carrier that was in service with the Indian Navy for 29 years before being decommissioned in March 2017.
  • There were proposals in the past to preserve it as a maritime museum.
  • It is the second aircraft carrier to be broken down in India.
  • In 2014, INS Vikrant was dismantled in Mumbai.
  • The aircraft carrier, in its earlier avatar, had won the Falklands War against Argentina in 1982 for the Royal British Navy.
  • It weighs about 27,800 tonnes and served in the British Navy as HMS Hermes from November 1959 to April 1984 and after refurbishment, was commissioned into the Indian Navy.
  • In the late 80s, the Indian Navy purchased it at a cost of USD 65 million and it was re-commissioned on May 12, 1987.
38

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act is deemed to have come into force on 19 September ______.

  1. ((a))

    2019

  2. ((b))

    2014

  3. ((c))

    2004

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2019

The correct answer is 2019.

  • The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act is deemed to have come into force on 19 September 2019.

Key Points

  • The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad.
  • The Bill makes all declarations of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal.
  • It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce.
  • Talaq-e-biddat refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an instant and irrevocable divorce.
39

In August 2020, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs declared the Fair and Remunerative Price of ______ per quintal for sugarcane for the marketing year starting October 2020.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 275

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 265

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 255

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 285

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 285

The correct answer is Rs. 285.

Key Points

  • The decision to increase the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the 2020-21 marketing year (October-September) was taken in the meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
  • The FRP has been fixed in line with the recommendation of the Commission of Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), a statutory body that advises the government on the pricing policy for major farm produce.
  • The FRP, which is determined under Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to sugarcane farmers.
  • Major sugarcane producing states such as Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana fix their own sugarcane price called 'state advisory prices.
40

The first train under the 'Kisan Rail' scheme announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 began transport services on ______.

  1. ((a))

    1 May 2020

  2. ((b))

    3 July 2020

  3. ((c))

    7 August 2020

  4. ((d))

    5 June 2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7 August 2020

The correct answer is 7 August 2020.

Key Points

  • Kisan Rail scheme:
  • It was announced in Budget 2020.
  • The railways began its Kisan Rail services to transport perishables from August 7, 2020.
  • The first such train, carrying vegetables and fruits, was started between Devlali in Maharashtra and Danapur in Bihar.
  • The train was flagged off via video conferencing by Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Rural Development and Panchyati Raj, Narendra Singh Tomar and Minister of Railways and Commerce and Industry, Piyush Goyal.
  • It ran for transportation of perishable commodities, through the public-private partnership (PPP) mode.
  • It helped in bringing perishable agricultural products like vegetables, fruits to the market in a short period of time, and the train with frozen containers is expected to build a seamless national cold supply chain for perishables, inclusive of fish, meat and milk.
41

Which of the following sports personalities was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in August 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Bajrang Punia

  2. ((b))

    Manika Batra

  3. ((c))

    Virat Kohli

  4. ((d))

    Deepa Malik

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Manika Batra

The correct answer is Manika Batra.

Key Points

  • Table tennis player Manika Batra, was conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award in 2020.
  • She is 'looking forward to bring more laurels' to the country.
  • Manika had a successful 2018 when she won gold in the Commonwealth Games and bronze in the Asian Games.

Additional Information

  • Manika Batra is an Indian Table Tenis Player.
  • Indian women's tennis team staged a winning show at Gold Coast Commonwealth Games as they defeated defending champions Singapore 3-1 to claim gold. India took the lead with the help of Manika Batra.
  • This is India's first-ever gold at the multi-sport event. It was only the second table tennis team gold for India at the Games with the men achieving the feat in the 2006 Melbourne edition.

Important Points

  • Important Table Tennis players in India are:
  • Sharath Kamal.
  • Naina Jaiswal.
  • Soumyajit Ghosh.
  • Anthony Amalraj.
  • Paulomi Ghata.
  • Sathiyan Gnanasekaran.
  • Neha Aggarwal.
42

Which of the following is a dance form of Haryana?

  1. ((a))

    Velakali

  2. ((b))

    Phag

  3. ((c))

    Chaiti

  4. ((d))

    Brindabani

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Phag

The correct answer is Phag.

Key Points

  • Phag dance belongs to Haryana.
  • It is a seasonal dance of the farmers, this is a mixed dance but sometimes performed by men only, usually performed in the month of Phalgun.
  • Women wear colorful traditional clothes and men display colorful turbans.
  • This form of dance is celebrated primarily in the months of February and March.
  • These are the only months when they have sowed the crop and are waiting for the harvest.
  • Other folk dances of Haryana are Phalgun dance Loor dance, Daph dance, Gugga dance, Khoria dance, Holi dance.

Additional Information

DanceState
VelakaliKerala
ChaitiOdisha
43

Under the Indian Penal Code, an attempt to commit suicide is punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to ______ or with a fine, or with both.

  1. ((a))

    3 years

  2. ((b))

    6 months

  3. ((c))

    1 year

  4. ((d))

    3 months

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 year

The correct answer is 1 year.

About the Indian penal code

  • In 1860, the Indian Penal Code was introduced into India, the brainchild of Thomas Babington Macaulay who had drafted the code during his time in Bengal in the 1830s.
  • The first to be placed on the statute book was the Indian Penal Code formulated the substantive law of crimes.
  • This was enacted in October 1860 but brought into force fifteen months later on the 1st January 1862.
  • These are death, imprisonment for life, simple and rigorous imprisonment, forfeiture of property and fine. And, section 73 provides for another type of punishment, which is solitary confinement.

Key Points

  • Section 309 in The Indian Penal Code:-
  • Attempt to commit suicide. —Whoever attempts to commit suicide and does any act towards the commission of such offence, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year.
  • On 10 December 2014, in response to a question by Vivek Gupta in the Rajya Sabha on decriminalization of suicide, the Minister of State for Home Affairs, Haribhai Chaudhary said that "it has been decided to delete Section 309 of IPC from the Statute book."
44

Which of the following archaeological sites is located outside the state of Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Amarpura

  2. ((b))

    Dholavira

  3. ((c))

    Rangpur

  4. ((d))

    Rakhigarhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rakhigarhi

The correct answer is Rakhigarhi.

Key Points

  • The site of Rakhigarhi is one of the five known biggest townships of Harappan civilization on the Indian sub-continent.
  • It is located in the Hisar district of Haryana state in India.
  • The other four are
  • Harappa, Mohenjodaro, and Ganveriwala in Pakistan and Dholavira (Gujarat) in India.
  • This site was excavated by Shri Amarendra Nath of the Archeological Survey of India.

Additional Information

  • The archaeological excavations revealed a mature Harappan phase represented by a planned township having mud-brick as well as burnt-brick houses with a proper drainage system.
  • Animal sacrificial pit lined with mud-brick and triangular and circular fire alters on the mud floor have also been excavated that signifies the ritual system of Harappans.
  • Other antiquities included blades; terracotta and shell bangles; beads of semiprecious stones, terracotta, shell and copper objects; animal figurines, toy cart frame and wheel of terracotta; bone points; inscribed steatite seals and sealings.
  • The excavations have yielded a few extended burials, which certainly belong to a very late stage, maybe the medieval times.
45

The Census of India 2011, showed an increase in population by about ______% as compared to 2001.

  1. ((a))

    23.5

  2. ((b))

    5.5

  3. ((c))

    17.5

  4. ((d))

    11.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

17.5

The correct answer is 17.5.

  • The Census of India 2011, showed an increase in population by about 17.5% as compared to 2001.
  • The Sex Ratio has risen by 10 points from 933 in 2001 to 943 in 2011.
  • The growth rate of the population in rural and urban areas is 12.18% and 31.80% respectively.
  • Bihar exhibited the highest decadal growth rate in the rural population.
  • Kerala has the highest sex ratio in India.

Important Points

Major points of the 2011 census are-

State with highest population density - Bihar

State with lowest population density - Arunanchal Pradesh

State with highest sex ratio - Kerala

State with lowest sex ratio - Haryana

State with highest literacy rate - Kerala

State with lowest literacy rate - Bihar

46

Which of the following monasteries is NOT located in Sikkim?

  1. ((a))

    Enchey

  2. ((b))

    Pemayangste

  3. ((c))

    Ralong

  4. ((d))

    Tabo

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tabo

The correct answer is Tabo.

Key Points

  • Tabo Monastery is located in the Tabo village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh, northern India.
  • It was founded in 996 CE in the Tibetan year of the Fire Ape by the Tibetan Buddhist lotsawa Rinchen Zangpo (Mahauru Ramabhadra), on behalf of the king of the western Himalayan Kingdom of Guge, Yeshe-O.
  • It is noted for being the oldest continuously operating Buddhist enclave in both India and the Himalayas.
  • A large number of frescoes displayed on its walls depict tales from the Buddhist pantheon.

Additional Information

  • There are many priceless collections of thankas (scroll paintings), manuscripts, well-preserved statues, frescos, and extensive murals which cover almost every wall.
  • The monastery is in need of refurbishing as the wooden structures are aging and the thanka scroll paintings are fading.
  • After the earthquake of 1975, the monastery was rebuilt, and in 1983 a new Du-kang or Assembly Hall was constructed. It is here that the 14th Dalai Lama held the Kalachakra ceremonies in 1983 and 1996.
  • The monastery is protected by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) as a national historic treasure of India.
47

Sodium carbonate is used ______.

  1. ((a))

    for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry

  2. ((b))

    as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries

  3. ((c))

    to make drinking water free from germs

  4. ((d))

    to remove permanent hardness of water

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

to remove permanent hardness of water

The correct answer is to remove permanent hardness of water.

  • Washing Soda:
  • It is commonly known as Na2CO3 or sodium carbonate.
  • It is used in the softening of hard water i.e it is used to remove the temporary and permanent hardness of the water.
  • It is commonly used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
  • It is also used in the manufacturing of paper, soap, textiles, paints, etc.

Other Important compounds

Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) commonly known as Baking Soda is prepared when Sodium Chloride is reacted with water along with Ammonia (NH3) and carbon dioxide.

It can be given as in the form of the equation as

 NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 ⇒ NaHCO3 + NH4Cl

Where NH4Cl is ammonium chloride.

Baking Soda is widely used for cooking etc.

When Baking Soda is mixed with mild acid like tartaric acid in presence of water or carbondioxide we get Baking Powder.

Its Chemical equation can be given as NaHCO3 + H+ ⇒ H2O + Co2 + Sodium Acid Salt

Baking Powder is used as Antacids, making bread soft etc.

48

Which of the following Acts provides for measures to deter offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts?

  1. ((a))

    The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015

  2. ((b))

    Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002

  3. ((c))

    Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988

  4. ((d))

    Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018

The correct answer is Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018.

Key Points

  • Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018:-
  • An Act to provide for measures to deter fugitive economic offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts, to preserve the sanctity of the rule of law in India, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • An FEO is defined by The Fugitive Economic Offenders (FEO) Act, 2018 as “any individual against whom a warrant for arrest in relation to a scheduled offence has been issued by any court in India, who
  • (i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or
  • (ii) abroad refusing to return to India to face criminal prosecution”.

Additional Information

  • Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015:-
  • It is an Act of the Parliament of India.
  • It aims to curb black money, or undisclosed foreign assets and income and imposes tax and penalty on such income.
  • The Act has been passed by both the Houses of Parliament.
  • Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002:-
  • An Act to prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988:-
  • It is an Act of the Parliament of India that prohibits certain types of financial transactions.
  • The act defines a 'Benami transaction as any transaction in which property is transferred to one person for a consideration paid by another person.
49

The BCCI announced ______ as the Title Sponsor of the 2020 edition of the Indian Premier League (IPL) in August 2020.

  1. ((a))

    Byju's

  2. ((b))

    Vivo

  3. ((c))

    DFL

  4. ((d))

    Dream 11

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dream 11

The correct answer is Dream 11.

Key Points

  • The IPL Governing Council has announced Dream11 as the new Title Sponsor of the 2020 edition of the Indian Premier League.
  • Dream11 (Sports Technologies Pvt. Ltd) is an Indian company based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • Dream11 replaced Chinese mobile phone company Vivo.

Additional Information

  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) announced CRED, a credit card payment platform, as its official partner for three seasons of the Indian Premier League.
  • It is a three-season partnership that will see the association run through till the 2022 season.
  • The Indian Premier League (IPL) began in the year 2008 and was founded by BCCI (Board of Control for Cricket in India).
  • It is a 20-20 cricket league which is held every year in the month of April-May.
50

World Oral Health Day is observed on ______ every year.

  1. ((a))

    18th January

  2. ((b))

    30th July

  3. ((c))

    6th May

  4. ((d))

    20th March

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20th March

The correct answer is 20th March.

Key Points

  • World Oral Health Day is celebrated on 20 March to raise awareness about oral health.
  • This day is organized by FDI World Dental Federation and is celebrated across the world.
  • This day recognizes the importance of good oral hygiene practice for adults and children.

Additional Information

  • In 2007, it was first declared and originally was first celebrated on 12 September on the birthday of FDI founder Dr. Charles Godon.
  • Until 2013, the campaign was not fully activated, and after the date was changed to 20 March to avoid conflict with the FDI World Dental Congress that was in September.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the option that is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The given figure:

<br>

Firstly, the figure is rotated by 90 degrees in the clockwise direction. Secondly, the direction of the arrows at the end of the line are reversed in figure B with respect to A.

Applying the same criteria in figure D with respect to figure C, we will first rotate the figure by 90 degrees in the clockwise direction and then we will change the direction of both the arrows. 

Hence, the option figure(4) will be the answer figure.

52

A loss of 26% gets converted into a profit of 24% when the selling price of a sanitizer bottle is increased by Rs. 185. The cost price of the article is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 370

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 365

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 350

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 345

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 370

Let the cost price of the article be X.

In the case of 26% loss, the selling price of the article would have been 0.74X.

In the case of 24% profit, the selling price of the article would have been 1.24 X.

Now,

1.24X - 0.74X = Rs. 185

0.5X = Rs.185

X = Rs. 370

Hence, the cost price of the article is Rs. 370.

53

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mistake PointsIt may seem that option 3 can be the answer also because it has 5 circle head lines whereas others have 4 circle head lines. But then what is the purpose of giving polygon figures here which are different in all options.

In the three given figures, the number of the lines above the shapes is the same as the number of the sides of the shape below.

There are five sides in the shape in the above image, but there are only four lines at the top of the shape.

Hence, option figure (1)  is different from the three images given in the option.

Alternate MethodFigure 1- The number of circle head lines above the shape is 4 and the sides of the shape are 5

Figure 2- The number of circle head lines above the shape is 4 and the sides of the shape are 4

Figure 3- The number of circle head lines above the shape is 5 and the sides of the shape are 5

Figure 4- The number of circle head lines above the shape is 4 and the sides of the shape are 4

Figure 1 is different from others.

Hence, Figure 1 is the correct answer.

54

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The given shape:

the given shape is embedded in the above figure.

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

55

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The given image: 

<br>

The answer figure should complete the diagonal, it should have two stars in the inner circle separated by the diagonal line and there should be two circular shapes with tails in which the tails should be facing away from each other.

According to these conditions, we can clearly eliminate two options figure (3) and (4) as the diagonals are incomplete  .

<br>

Also, in the option figure (1)  below, the tails of the two circular shapes are facing towards each other. Hence, we can eliminate it too.

<br>

Therefore, the following figure will complete the image.

<br>

Hence, the option figure (2) is the correct answer.

56

Read the below statements, disregarding commonly known facts, and then from the given four options, identify the Venn diagram that correctly represents the statements.

Statements:

  1. All Flasks are Strainers.
  2. All Strainers are Bowls.
  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Given statements:

  1. All Flasks are Strainers.
  2. All Strainers are Bowls.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as:

Hence, the option figure (4) is the right answer.

57

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The given shape:

The given shape embedded in the following figure:

Hence, the option (1) is the correct answer

58

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    Doe

  2. ((b))

    Fawn

  3. ((c))

    Vixen

  4. ((d))

    Queen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fawn

Doe - Female deer

Vixen - Female fox

Queen - Female

Fawn - Young deer

Hence, except for 'fawn', all other words represents female species.

Alternate approach: Except for the word 'fawn', all other words have two or more two vowels in them. 

Hence, 'fawn' is the odd one out.

59

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure that will complete the given question figure is:

     

<br>

Hence, option figure (3) is the correct answer.

60

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The given figure when unfolded is as follows:

Hence, this paper will look as the above figure when unfolded.

Hence, option figure (3) is the correct answer.

61

Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The given figure:

<br>

In the first two figures, the position of the rhombus and the rectangle at the end of the lines are opposite from each other. In the next two figures as well, the position of the rhombus and the rectangle at the end of the lines are opposite from each other.

Similarly, we need to interchange the position of the rhombus and the rectangle to get the sixth figure.

<br>

Therefore, the above image will complete the series:

<br>

Hence, the option figure (1) is the correct answer.

62

Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The given image:

<br>

In the second figure, the curved arrow is rotated by 180 degrees with respect to its position in the first figure in the clockwise direction while keeping the other shapes as it is.

In the fourth figure,  the curved arrow is rotated by 180 degrees with respect to its position in the third figure in the clockwise direction while keeping the other shapes as it is.

Similarly, we need to rotate the curved arrow shape by 180 degrees in a clockwise direction with respect to its direction in the fifth figure to get the answer.

<br>

Therefore, the above figure will complete the series.

Hence, option figure (1) is the correct answer.

63

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(7, 30, 143)

  1. ((a))

    (5, 6, 37)

  2. ((b))

    (9, 18, 83)

  3. ((c))

    (6, 9, 38)

  4. ((d))

    (8, 33, 158)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(8, 33, 158)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 3) + (2nd number × 4) + 2 = 3rd number.

Now,

(7, 30, 143)

→ (7 × 3) + (30 × 4) + 2 = 143

→ 21 + 120 + 2 = 143.

Similarly, for (8, 33, 158)

→ (8 × 3) + (33 × 4) + 2 = 143

→ 24 + 132 + 2 = 158.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

64

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Cornflakes, Cumin, Eggplant

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cornflakes are made from corns or maize that is generally eaten with milk.

Cumin seeds are used as a spice.

Eggplant (aka Brinjal) is a vegetable. 

Clearly, these three are not related to each other in any sense.

The Venn diagram is as:

Hence, option figure (1) is the correct answer.

65

Select the box (from 1, 2, 3, 4) that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper.

  1. ((a))

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. ((d))

    1 only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1, 2, 3 and 4

In a dice or a cube, each side has four adjacent faces.

<br>

In the first figure, '+' has two blank adjacent side. When we will form the box using the given paper, the dot and the circle will be the two adjacent side of '+'. The remaining two will be the blank side. Hence, the first figure is possible.

In the second figure, '+' has two adjacent sides, one is a  dot and the other is a blank side. As mentioned above, it is also possible.

In the third figure, the circle has two adjacent sides, one is a dot and the other is the blank side. Clearly, the circle will be adjacent to the dot and at least on blank side will be adjacent to the circle. Hence, this box is also possible.

The fourth figure is basically the same as the third figure except for the fact that it is rotated. Hence, the fourth figure is also possible.

Hence, 1, 2, 3, and 4 are possible.

66

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Sweater : Wool :: Chalk : ?

  1. ((a))

    Duster

  2. ((b))

    Oyster

  3. ((c))

    Limestone

  4. ((d))

    Haematite

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Limestone

Sweater is made from wool. Similarly, a chalk is made up of limestone.

Hence, Limestone is the correct answer.

67

Three of the following four figures are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

In three options, two similar figures of the same size are intersecting with each other.

 In option 1 the two images are similar/ same and  of the same size. They intersect with each other also.

In option 3 the two images( triangles) are similar/ same and  of the same size. They intersect with each other also.

In option 4 the two images (Hexagon) are similar/ same and  of the same size. They intersect with each other also.

<br>

In the above image, two images (square) of different size are inspecting with other.

Hence, option figure (2) is different from the other three.

68

Select the option that is related to the figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The given figure:

<br>

The position of the shapes in the second image with respect to the first image:

The shape in the upper left corner is flipped upside down.

The shape in the upper right corner is rotated by 90° in the clockwise direction.

The shape in the bottom left corner is rotated by 90° in the clockwise direction.

The shape in the center is rotated by 90° in the anticlockwise direction.

The shape in the bottom right corner remains as it is.

The same criteria will be followed in the fourth image with respect to the position of the shapes in the fourth image.

Hence, the above figure will complete the series.

Hence, option figure (2) is the correct answer.

69

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure series?

18, 20, 25, 37, 46, 76, 89, 145, ?

  1. ((a))

    126

  2. ((b))

    217

  3. ((c))

    162

  4. ((d))

    271

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

162

The logic is as,

Hence, the missing term is 162.

70

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

341 ÷ 11 - 15 × 8 + 100 = 51

  1. ((a))

    × and -

  2. ((b))
    • and +
  3. ((c))

    × and +

  4. ((d))
    • and ÷ 
Show Answer
Answer: ((b))
  • and +

The given equation:

341 ÷ 11 - 15 × 8 + 100 = 51

On interchanging × and -,

we get:

341 ÷ 11 × 15 - 8 + 100 = 51

⇒ 31 × 15 + 92 = 51

⇒ 557 = 51 (false)

On interchanging - and +, 

we get:

341 ÷ 11 + 15 × 8 - 100

⇒ 31 + 120 - 100 = 51

⇒ 31 + 20 = 51 (true)

On interchanging × and +,

we get:

341 ÷ 11 - 15 + 8 × 100 = 51

⇒ 31 - 15 + 800 = 51

⇒ 816 = 51 (false)

On interchanging + and ÷,

we get:

341 + 11 - 15 × 8 ÷ 100 = 51

⇒ 352 - 1.2 = 51 

⇒ 350.8 = 51(false)

Hence, we need to interchange + and - to make the equation correct.

71

Four different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol on the face opposite the face showing '%'?

  1. ((a))
  2. ((b))

    &

  3. ((c))

    @

  4. ((d))

    ± 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

&

The given figure:

<br>

In the first two figures, ±, #, @, and * are adjacent to %. Implies, these four symbols can't be opposite %. Therefore only left symbol is & is opposite to %.

Hence, '&' is on the opposite face of '%'

72

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

11 : 141 : : 17 : ?

  1. ((a))

    291

  2. ((b))

    294

  3. ((c))

    249

  4. ((d))

    219

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

219

11 x 13 - 2 = 143 - 2 = 141

Similarly, 

17 x 13 - 2 = 221 - 2 = 219

Hence, 219 will come in place of the question mark.

73

Which number that  will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

13, 13, 15, 27, 47, 67, 97, 153, ?

  1. ((a))

    325

  2. ((b))

    252

  3. ((c))

    225

  4. ((d))

    352

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

225

The logic is as,

Hence, answer is 225.

74

If EQUALITY is coded as 22832631827 and CONFIRM is coded as 2465211894, then how will RESOURCE be coded?

  1. ((a))

    922106392422

  2. ((b))

    922103629242

  3. ((c))

    921206932242

  4. ((d))

    921206923224

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

922106392422

<br>

Each letter of the word is replaced by a number to form the code. If the position value of the letter is a single digit then the position value of the number opposite it (as per the above table) is used and if the position value of the letter has two digits then the sum of the digits is used.

For example, the position value of E as per the English alphabetical series is 5 which is a single digit, hence the position value of the letter opposite E in the table is used. V is opposite E in the table and its code is 22. Hence, the code for E is 22. Also, the position value of U is 21 which is a two-digit number, hence we will find the sum of the digits. Thus, the code for U will be 3.

Using the same criteria, we get:

For EQUALITY - 22832631827 as:

E (5) → V(22) → 22

Q (17) → 1 + 7 = 8

U (21) → 2 + 1 = 3

A (1) → Z (26) → 26

L (12) → 1 + 2 = 3

I (9) → R (18) → 18

T (20) → 2 + 0 = 2

Y (23) → 2 + 5 = 7

The code for CONFIRM is coded as 2465211894

C (3) → X(24)  → 24

O (15) → 1 + 5 = 6

N (14) → 1 + 4 = 5

F (6) → U (21) → 21

I (9) → R (18) → 18

R (18) → 1 + 8 = 9 

M (13) → 1 + 3 = 4

Similarly,

R (18) → 1 + 8 = 9 

E (5) → V(22) → 22

S (19) → 1 + 9 = 10 

O (15) → 1 + 5 = 6

U  (21) → 2 + 1 = 3

R (18) → 1 + 8 = 9 

C (3) → X(24)  → 24

E (5) → V(22) → 22

Hence, the code for the word RESOURCE is 922106392422.

75

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed on the right side of it.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

If a mirror is placed along the line, then only the left and right sides of a given image will be interchanged in the mirror image while everything else will remain the same. Thus, we will get the following mirror image:

<br>

Hence, option figure (2) is the reflection of the given image.

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

If the sum of the squares of two positive numbers is 2426 and the square root of one number is 7, then the other number is:

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5

Given:

The sum of the squares of two positive numbers = 2426

The square root of one number = 7

Calculation:

Let numbers be x and y

⇒ √x = 7

⇒ x = 49

According to the question

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2426

⇒ (49)2 + y2 = 2426

⇒ y2 = 2426 - 2401

⇒ y2 = 25

∴ The other number is 5.

77

A sum invested at 8% p.a. amounts to Rs. 20,280 at the end of one year, when the interest is compounded half-yearly. what will be the compound interest (in Rs.) on the same sum for 2 years if the interest rate is the same as earlier and interest is compounded annually?

  1. ((a))

    3,260

  2. ((b))

    4,000

  3. ((c))

    2,750

  4. ((d))

    3,120

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3,120

Given:

The sum invested at 8% p.a. amounts to Rs. 20,280 at the end of one year, when the interest is compounded half-yearly.

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + R/100)nT

A = Amount, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time

n = number of times interest compounded per year

Calculation:

Let Principal be Rs P

Interest is compounded half-yearly

⇒ Rate = 8/2 = 4%

According to the question

⇒ P(1 + 4100\frac{4}{100} )2 = 20280

⇒ P(104/100)2 = 20280

⇒ P(26/25)2 = 20280

⇒ P = 20280×25×2526×26\frac{20280 × 25 × 25}{26 × 26} = 18750 Rs

Again, according to the question

⇒ Amount = 18750(1 + 8100\frac{8}{100})2

⇒ Amount = 18750×27×2725×25\frac{18750 × 27 × 27}{25 × 25} = 21870 Rs

⇒ CI = 21870 - 18750 = 3120

∴ Compound interest for 2 years at the same rate is 3120 Rs.

78

A shopkeeper marks his goods at 20% above the cost price. He sells three - fourth of the goods at the marked price and the remaining at 30% discount on the marked price. What is his gain/loss percentage?

  1. ((a))

    Gain 11%

  2. ((b))

    Loss 9%

  3. ((c))

    Loss 11%

  4. ((d))

    Gain 9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gain 11%

Given:

A shopkeeper marks his goods at 20% above the CP.

He sells three-fourth of the goods at the MP and the remaining at 30% discount on the MP.

Formula Used:

SP = MP × 100D100\frac{100-D}{100}

MP = Marked Price, SP = Selling Price, D = Discount

Calculation:

Let CP be Rs Y

⇒ MP = Y × 120100\frac{120}{100}

SP of 3/4 goods = 34\frac{3}{4} × 120100\frac{120}{100}Y = 90100\frac{90}{100}Y

SP of remaining 1/4 goods = 14\frac{1}{4} × 120100\frac{120}{100}Y × 70100\frac{70}{100} = 21100\frac{21}{100}Y

Total SP = 90100\frac{90}{100}Y + 21100\frac{21}{100}Y = 111100\frac{111}{100}Y

Gain = 111100\frac{111}{100}Y - Y = 11100\frac{11}{100}Y

⇒ % Gain = (11/100)YY\frac{(11/100)Y}{Y} × 100 = 11%

Gain is 11%.

Shortcut Trick 

Let,

Let, Total goods = 4 and Goods sold at MP = 3

So, Goods sold at DP = (4 - 3) = 1 

Now, Total CP = 4 × 100 = 400 units

Total SP = (3 × 120) + (1 × 84) = 360 + 84 = 444 units

So, Gain = (444 - 400)/400 × 100 = 44/4 = 11%

∴ His gain percentage is 11%.

79

What is the least number which when divided by 12, 21 and 35 leaves the same remainder 2?

  1. ((a))

    212

  2. ((b))

    844

  3. ((c))

    632

  4. ((d))

    422

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

422

Shortcut TrickWe can answer this question in a quick way by looking at the options.

Divisible by 12, 21, 35 means divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 7

Option 01: 212 - 2 = 210, not divisible by 4

Option 02: 844 - 2 = 842, not divisible by 5

Option 03: 632 - 2 = 630, not divisible by 4

Option 04: 422 - 2 = 420, divisible by 3, 4, 5, and 7, thus correct option.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers = 12, 21 and 35 

Remainder = 2

Concept Used:

We will find the LCM to get a number that is divisible by these numbers and then add the remainder to the LCM.

Calculation:

LCM of numbers 12, 21, and 35 = 420

⇒ Remainder = 2

Number = 420 + 2 = 422

∴ The least number which when divided by 12, 21, and 35 leaves the same remainder 2 is 422.

80

A borrows a sum of Rs.9,000 for 3 years at 5% simple interest. He lends it at simple interest to B at 7% for 3 years. What is his gain (in Rs.)?

  1. ((a))

    700

  2. ((b))

    540

  3. ((c))

    600

  4. ((d))

    450

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

540

Given:

A borrows a sum of Rs.9,000 for 3 years at 5% simple interest

He lends it at simple interest to B at 7% for 3 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

SI = Simple Interest, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time

Calculation:

According to the question

SI = (9000 × 3 × 5)/100 = 1350 Rs

A lends to B at 7% for 3 years

SI = (9000 × 7 × 3)/100 = 1890 Rs

Profit = 1890 - 1350 = 540 Rs

∴ His gain is 540 Rs.

81

What is the area of rhombus (in cm2) whose side is 10 cm and the shorter diagonal is 12 cm?

  1. ((a))

    60

  2. ((b))

    96

  3. ((c))

    48

  4. ((d))

    192

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

96

Given:

The side of rhombus is 10 cm and its diagonal is 12 cm.

Formula Used:

1. Area of triangle = s(sa)(sb)(sc)\sqrt {s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}  

Where s = semi perimeter & a, b, and c are sides of the triangle

2. Area of rhombus (ABCD) = 2 × Area of Triangle 

Calculation:

Area of Δ ABC = s(sa)(sb)(sc)\sqrt {s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}

Semi perimeter of Δ ABC (s) = (10 + 10 + 12) ÷ 2

Semi perimeter of Δ ABC (s) = 16

Area of Δ ABC = 16(1610)(1610)(1612)\sqrt {16(16-10)(16-10)(16-12)}

Area of Δ ABC = 16×6×6×4\sqrt {16 × 6 × 6 × 4}  = 48 cm2

Area of rhombus (ABCD) = 2 × Area of Triangle = 96 cm2

∴ The area of rhombus is 96 cm2.

82

A train covers 400 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 10 km/h more, it would have taken 2 hours less for the same journey. What is the speed of the train (in km/h)?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40

Shortcut Trick 

We can answer this question by looking at the options

Option 4: Initial Speed = 40 km/hr, Increased Speed = 50 km/hrInitial Time = 400/40 = 10 hrs, New Time = 400/50 = 8 hrs

The given condition is satisfied

∴ The speed of the train is 40 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance = 400 km

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let speed be x km/hr

According to the question

400x\frac{400}{x} - 400x+10\frac{400}{x+10} = 2 hours

⇒ 400 (1x\frac{1}{x} - 1x+10\frac{1}{x+10}) = 2 

⇒ 1x\frac{1}{x} - 1x+10\frac{1}{x+10} = 2400\frac{2}{400}

⇒ 10x2;+10x\frac{{10}}{{{x^{2;}} + 10x}}1200\frac{1}{200}

⇒ x2{x^2} + 10x - 2000 = 0

⇒ x2{x^2} + 50x - 40x - 2000 = 0

⇒ x(x + 50) - 40(x + 50) = 0

⇒ (x + 50) (x - 40) = 0

⇒ x = 40 or -50

But speed can not be negative

∴ The speed of the train is 40 km/hr.

83

A is 5 times as good a workman as B and is therefore able to complete a job in 52 days less than B. In how many days will they complete it working together?

  1. ((a))

    125612 \frac{5}{6}

  2. ((b))

    105610 \frac{5}{6}

  3. ((c))

    9569 \frac{5}{6}

  4. ((d))

    115611 \frac{5}{6}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

105610 \frac{5}{6}

Given:

A is 5 times as good a workman as B

A  complete a job in 52 days less than B

Formula Used:

Total work = Total efficiency × Total days

Calculation:

 The ratio of efficiency of A & B is 5 : 1

Thus, the ratio of time of A & B is 1 : 5

Let time taken by A and B be T and 5T respectively

According to the question

⇒ 5T - T = 52 days

⇒ 4T = 52 days

⇒ T = 13 days

Total work = 13 × 5 = 65 units

A and B complete the work in 65/6 days

 ∴ While working together A & B will complete the work in 105610\frac{5}{6} days.

84

The value of 5.75+57;of;284.534;of;(15.83.4)+5×2.39\frac{{5.75 + \frac{5}{7};of;28 - 4.5}}{{\frac{3}{4};of;\left( {15.8 - 3.4} \right) + 5 \times 2.39}} is:

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{-1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    0

  4. ((d))

    -1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 5.75+57;of;284.534;of;(15.83.4)+5×2.39\frac{{5.75 + \frac{5}{7};of;28 - 4.5}}{{\frac{3}{4};of;\left( {15.8 - 3.4} \right) + 5 \times 2.39}}

⇒ 5.75+204.534;of;(12.4)+5×2.39\frac{{5.75 + 20 - 4.5}}{{\frac{3}{4};of;\left( {12.4} \right) + 5 \times 2.39}}

5.75+204.59.3+5×2.39\frac{5.75 + 20 - 4.5}{9.3 + 5 \times 2.39}

25.754.59.3+11.95\frac{25.75 - 4.5}{9.3 + 11.95}

⇒ 21.2521.25\frac{21.25}{21.25} = 1

∴ Answer is 1.

85

The average of n numbers is 36. If each of 75% of the numbers is increased by 5 and each of the remaining numbers is decreased by 8, then the new average of the numbers is:

  1. ((a))

    37.75

  2. ((b))

    38.5

  3. ((c))

    36.25

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

37.75

Shortcut Trick

Average of 75% number increases by 5

Average of 25% numbers decreases by 8

By mixture and Allegation method

Thus, the overall average increases by 1.75

⇒ New average = 36 + 1.75 = 37.5

∴ The new average of the total numbers is 37.75.

Alternate Method

Given:

The average of n number is 36

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of total observations ÷ Number of observations

Calculation:

Let n be 100

According to the question

Each of 75% of the numbers is increased by 5

New average of 75% of the numbers = 36 + 5 = 41

Sum of 75% of the numbers = 75 × 41 = 3075

Again, according to the question

Remaining numbers = 100 - 75 = 25

Average of remaining numbers decrease by 8

New average = (36 - 8) = 28

Sum of remaining numbers = 25 × 28 = 700

New average of all numbers = (3075 + 700) ÷ 100

⇒ (3075 + 700) ÷ 100 = 37.75

∴ The new average of the total numbers is 37.75.

86

Three articles are bought at ₹ 200 each. One of them is sold at a loss of 12.5%. If the other two articles are sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction, then what is the profit percentage on the two articles?

  1. ((a))

    35%

  2. ((b))

    41.5%

  3. ((c))

    36.25%

  4. ((d))

    39.75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

36.25%

**Shortcut TrickThree articles are bought at ₹200 eachOne article is sold at a loss of 12.5% and the overall profit is 20%**By Mixture & Alligation method

∴ The profit percentage on the other two articles is 36.25%.

Alternate MethodGiven:

CP of each article = ₹200

Loss % on one of the articles = 12.5%

Profit % on whole transaction = 20%

Formula Used:

1. Profit = SP – CP

2. Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

3. Loss = CP – SP

4. Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

CP of three articles = 200 × 3 = ₹600

Profit on whole transaction = 600 × (20/100) = ₹120

SP of three articles = 600 + 120 = ₹720

Loss on one article = 200 × (1/8) = ₹25

Selling price = 200 – 25 = ₹175

Profit on other two articles = (720 – 175) – 400 = ₹145

Profit % on other two articles = (145 ÷ 400) × 100 = 36.25%

The profit percentage on the other two articles is 36.25%.

87

Due to 25% reduction in the price of sugar per kg. Radha is able to buy 10 kg more for ₹ 1,200. What is the original price of sugar per kg (in ₹)?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    35

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40

Shortcut TrickNew Price = 120010\frac{1200}{10} × 25100\frac{25}{100} = ₹30

Old Price = New Price × 10075\frac{100}{75} = 30 × 10075\frac{100}{75} = ₹40 

Alternate MethodGiven:

The price of sugar is reduced by 25%

Radha is able to buy 10 kg sugar more for ₹ 1,200

Concept Used:

To maintain the expenditure

Change in price of a commodity ∝ 1Consumption\frac{1}{Consumption}

Calculation:

Let the original price of sugar be ₹P

Quantity of sugar = 1200P\frac{1200}{P}

Reduced price = 10025100\frac{100 – 25}{100} × P = 34\frac{3}{4}P

Increased quantity of sugar = 1200(3/4)P\frac{1200}{(3/4)P} = 1600P\frac{1600}{P}

According to question

(1600/P) – (1200/P) = 10

⇒ 10P = 400

⇒ P = ₹40

  The original price of sugar per kg is ₹40.

88

The length of a rectangle is 25\frac{2}{5} of the radius of a circle. The radius of the circle is equal to the side of a square whose area is 4900 m2. What is the area (in m2) of the rectangle, if its breadth is 20 m?

  1. ((a))

    960

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    560

  4. ((d))

    1400

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

560

Shortcut Trick

Side of square = √4900 = 70 m.

Radius of circle = Side = 70 m.

Length of rectangle = (2/5) × 70 = 28 m.

Area of rectangle = 28 × 20 = 560 m2.

∴ The correct answer is 560 m2.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of square = 4900 m2, Breadth of rectangle = 20 m.

Formula used: Area of square = side2; Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth.

⇒ Side of square (s) = √4900

⇒ s = 70 m

Radius of circle (r) = Side of square = 70 m

Length of rectangle (L) = (2/5) × 70

⇒ L = 2 × 14 = 28 m

Area of rectangle = L × Breadth

Area = 28 × 20 = 560 m2

∴ The correct answer is 560 m2.

Additional Information

Properties of a Square

A square has all sides equal. Area = side2 and Perimeter = 4 × side.

Properties of a Rectangle

A rectangle has opposite sides equal. Area = Length × Breadth and Perimeter = 2(Length + Breadth).

Circle Relations

The radius (r) is the distance from the center to the edge. Area = πr2 and Circumference = 2πr.

89

In an election, the votes cast for two candidates are in the ratio 3 : 10. If all votes are valid votes and if the successful candidates received 156200 votes, then the total votes polled are:

  1. ((a))

    356200

  2. ((b))

    179256

  3. ((c))

    468600

  4. ((d))

    203060

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

203060

Given:

Votes received by two candidates in terms of ratio = 3 : 10

Total votes received by successful candidate = 156200

Calculation:

Let the votes got by two candidates be 3x & 10x

10x = 156200

⇒ x = 15620

Total votes polled = 3x + 10x

⇒ 13 × 15620 = 203060

The total votes polled are 203060.

90

If the radius of a circle is increased by 10% then what is the percentage increase in its area?

  1. ((a))

    11%

  2. ((b))

    21%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21%

Given:

The radius of a circle is increased by 10%

Formula Used:

Area of circle = πr2

Percentage change = (Final Value ± Initial ValueInitial Value\frac{Final\ Value\ \pm \ Initial\ Value}{Initial\ Value}) × 100

Calculation:

Let the Initial radius be r

Initial area = πr2

Increased radius = 100+10100\frac{100+10}{100} × r = 1.1r

New area = π(1.1r)2

Percentage increase =π(1.21)r2πr2πr2\frac{π(1.21)r^2 – πr^2}{πr^2}  × 100

Percentage increase = πr2(1.211)πr2\frac{πr^2(1.21-1)}{πr^2}  × 100 = 21%

The percentage increase in the area of circle is 21%.

Shortcut TrickApply successive formula

Y + Y + Y×Y100\frac{Y\times Y}{100} = 10 + 10 + 10×10100\frac{10\times 10}{100} = 21%

The percentage increase in its area is 21%.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Every computer connected to the internet must have an:

  1. ((a))

    LED display

  2. ((b))

    switch

  3. ((c))

    tertiary memory

  4. ((d))

    IP address

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IP address

The correct answer is IP address.

Key Points

  • IP address
  • An Internet Protocol address (IP address) is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication.
  • An IP address serves two main functions:
  • Host or network interface identification and location addressing.
  • Media Access Control (MAC) Address
  • MAC Address is also known as the Physical Address of a network device.
  • MAC Addresses are unique 48-bits hardware numbers of a computer, which is embedded into a network card (known as Network Interface Card) during the time of manufacturing.
  • In IEEE 802 standard, Data Link Layer is divided into two sublayers :
  • Logical Link Control(LLC) Sublayer
  • Media Access Control(MAC) Sublayer
  • Broadcast addressing
  • Broadcasting addressing is another addressing method available in IPv4.
  • It allows you to manage data to all destinations on a network with a single transmission operation.
  • The IP address 255.255.255.255 is mostly used for network broadcast.
  • Moreover, limited directed-broadcast uses the all-ones host address with the network prefix.
92

Which of the following best describes the MS-Word software?

  1. ((a))

    It is a firmware.

  2. ((b))

    It is a word processor.

  3. ((c))

    It is a GUI-based operating system.

  4. ((d))

    It is a system software.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It is a word processor.

The correct answer is It is a word processor

  • Sometimes called Winword, MS Word, or Word, Microsoft Word is a word processor published by Microsoft. It is one of the office productivity applications included in the Microsoft Office suite. Originally developed by Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, it was first released in 1983.
  • Microsoft Word is available for Microsoft Windows, Apple macOS, Android, and Apple iOS. It can also run on the Linux operating system using WINE.
  • Microsoft Word allows you to create professional-quality documents, reports, letters, and résumés. Unlike a plain text editor, Microsoft Word has features including spell check, grammar check, text and font formatting, HTML support, image support, advanced page layout, and more.
  • Below is an overview of a Microsoft Word 2010 document.

Application Software TypeExamples
Word processing softwareMS Word, WordPad, and Notepad
Database softwareOracle, MS Access, etc
Presentation SoftwareMicrosoft PowerPoint, Keynotes
Multimedia softwareReal Player, Media Player
Application SuitesOpenOffice, Microsoft Office
93

What is the result of the following MS-Excel formula?

=256/8/4/2

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

"256/8/4/2" in MS-Excel:-

              Evaluation                  Result

Step 1 :   256/8   =  32              32/4/2

Step 2 :   32/4    = 8                  8/2

Step 3 :   8/2    = 4                    4

The result on the evaluation of "256/8/4/2" in MS-Excel is 4.

94

Which of the following function keys can be used to edit a cell of an MS-Excel worksheet?

  1. ((a))

    F3

  2. ((b))

    F5

  3. ((c))

    F2

  4. ((d))

    F4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

F2

An MS Excel worksheet contains rows 1,048,576 rows and 16,384 columns to store the text and numbers and merged into a single workbook knows as a File. ​Workbooks are the Excel files that one can open and share, while Excel worksheets are individual spreadsheets within them. Function Key Shortcuts:

  • F2: Edit Cells
  • F4: Anchor Cells
  • F7: Spell Check
  • F11: Generates a bar graph from the values entered
  • F12: Save As
  • SHIFT + F2: Insert a Comment
  • SHIFT + F8: Add to Selection
  • SHIFT + F10: Right Click
  • SHIFT+F11:  Insert a new worksheet
  • CTRL +F2: Switch to Print Preview
  • CTRL + F3: Name a Cell
  • CTRL**+F9** Minimize the workbook window
  • CTRL +N :Create a new workbook
  • CTRL +W :Close a workbook
  • Windows Flag + D: Minimize Programs
  • ALT+N: Open the Insert tab
  • ALT+H: Go to the Home tab
95

In MS-Excel, a workbook must contain at least _______ worksheet(s).

  1. ((a))

    five

  2. ((b))

    two

  3. ((c))

    one

  4. ((d))

    three

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

one

The correct answer is one.

Key Points

  • Worksheet:-
  • An Excel worksheet is a single spreadsheet that contains cells organized by rows and columns.
  • A worksheet begins with row number one and column A.
  • Each cell can contain a number, text, or formula.
  • A cell can also reference another cell in the same worksheet, the same workbook, or a different workbook.
  • In Excel 2010, the maximum size of a worksheet is 1,048,576 rows by 16,384 columns.

Additional Information

  • Workbook:-
  • Each of the workbook's worksheets is in separate tabs in the bottom of the Excel window.
  • A workbook must contain at least a visible worksheet.
  • By default, a new Excel workbook will contain one worksheets.
  • You can switch between worksheets by clicking on the worksheet's tab at the bottom of the Excel window.
  • In Excel 2010 the number of worksheets in a workbook is limited only by your computer's available memory.
96

Which of the following is NOT allowed in an email-id?

  1. ((a))

    Blank space

  2. ((b))

    Dot (.)

  3. ((c))

    Numeric digits

  4. ((d))

    Capital letters

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blank space

The correct answer is Blank Space.

Email Address:

  • Generally, compelling valid email address characters consist of an email prefix and valid email domains, both in acceptable formats.
  • The prefix appears to the left of the @ symbol, and the domain appears to the right of the @ symbol. Without this, email domains are not valid.
  • For example, in the address, "[email protected]", "support" is the email prefix, and "@nik.com" is the domain.
  • Similarly, in the address "[email protected]", Nik.james555" is the email prefix, and "@gmail.com" is the domain.

 

"Www.Nikjames.com" and "Www.Nikjames.yahoo.com" are an example of a URL.

"Nik [email protected]" is an invalid e-mail id because there is a space between Nik and james.

Hence, [email protected] is a valid email address.

In the above example we can add Dot(.), numeric digits(555) and capital letter(N) as email address are not case sensitive. So we can add all options except blank space.

97

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) In MS-Word, a text cannot be both italicize and bold.

(ii) In MS-Word, a text cannot have font-size less than 8.

  1. ((a))

    Both i and ii

  2. ((b))

    Only i

  3. ((c))

    Neither i nor ii

  4. ((d))

    Only ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Neither i nor ii

The correct answer is Neither i nor ii

Key Points

  • MS Word is a applcation software is a term that is used for software created for a specific purpose.
  • It is generally a program or collection of programs used by end-users.
  • It can be called an application or simply an app.
  • MS Word is an example of word processing software.

The shortcut key for underlining a word in MS Word is

  • Ctrl + A: Select all text.
  • Ctrl + B : to bold selected text
  • Ctrl+ I: to italicize the selected text
  • Ctrl + U : underlining the selected text
  • Ctrl + X: Cut selected item.
  • Ctrl + V: Paste.
  • Ctrl + End: Go to the end of the document.
  • Ctrl + Y: Redo the last action performed.
  • Ctrl + Z: Undo the last action.
  • Alt + F: File menu options in the current program.
  • Alt + E: Edit options in the current program.

 MS Word supports font size between 1 and 1638.

**Hence,**Neither i nor ii option is correct.

98

What is the keyboard shortcut to select all content of a document in MS Word?

  1. ((a))

    ALT + A

  2. ((b))

    CTRL + A

  3. ((c))

    ALT + L

  4. ((d))

    CTRL + C

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CTRL + A

The correct answer is CTRL + A

MS Word is a application software is a term that is used for software created for a specific purpose.

It is generally a program or collection of programs used by end-users.

It can be called an application or simply an app.

MS Word is an example of word processing software.

The shortcut key for underlining a word in MS Word is

  • Ctrl + A: Select all text.
  • Ctrl + B : to bold selected text
  • Ctrl + C : to copy the selected text
  • Ctrl+ I: to italicize the selected text
  • Ctrl + U : underlining the selected text
  • Ctrl + X: Cut selected item.
  • Ctrl + V: Paste.
  • Ctrl + End: Go to the end of the document.
  • Ctrl + Y: Redo the last action performed.
  • Ctrl + Z: Undo the last action.
  • Alt + F: File menu options in the current program.
  • Alt + E: Edit options in the current program.
99

Which of the following is NOT a valid paragraph alignment in MS-Word?

  1. ((a))

    Right

  2. ((b))

    Top

  3. ((c))

    Justify

  4. ((d))

    Left

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Top

The correct answer is Top

The default alignment for the paragraph in MS-Word is Left.

  • The alignment buttons in the Home tab in the Paragraph section allows us to change the alignment.
  • Left
  • Right
  • Centre
  • Justified
  • It also provides the alignment for other objects such as picture, symbol, shapes etc.

Additional Information

Font Formatting:

  • Ctrl+D opens the Font dialogue box for character formatting to format font type, style, size, colour etc.
  • Ctrl+Shift+F moves directly to the Font type field in this dialogue box.
  • Ctrl+Shift+P moves directly to the Font size field in this dialogue box.
  • The keyboard commands for font styles are also the same as in previous Office versions:
  • Ctrl+B Bold style
  • Ctrl+I Italic style
  • Ctrl+U Underline
  • Ctrl+1 Single line spacing
  • Ctrl+2 Double line spacing
  • Ctrl+5 1.5 line spacing
100

What does the term HTTPS mean?

  1. ((a))

    Hyper Text Translation Protocol Secure

  2. ((b))

    Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

  3. ((c))

    Hyper Text Translation Protocol Service

  4. ((d))

    Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Service

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

The correct answer is Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) 

 

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

  • HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. Hypertext Transfer Protocol is an application protocol used for data communication. It is the base of data communication in the World Wide Web. It provides a standard for web browsers that facilitates users to exchange information over the internet.
  • HTTP is used by most websites to access any file or page. HTTP is a request-response protocol in the client-server computing model. It is an application layer protocol designed within the framework of the Internet Protocol Suite.
  • Hypertext - A text containing a link within it, is known as hypertext. If you click on a word on a webpage and it redirects you to a new page, it means you have clicked on a hypertext.​

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) 

  • It is the protocol where encrypted HTTP data is transferred over a secure connection. It ensures data security over the network - mainly public networks like Wi-Fi.
  • By virtue, HTTPS encryption is done bi-directionally, which means that the data is encrypted at both the client and server sides. Only the client can decode the information that comes from the server. So, HTTPS does the encryption of data between a client and a server, which protects against eavesdropping, forging of information, and tampering of data.

Important Points

  • HTTPS is HTTP with encryption.
  • The only difference between the two protocols is that HTTPS uses TLS (SSL) to encrypt normal HTTP requests and responses. As a result, HTTPS is far more secure than HTTP.
  • A website that uses HTTP has http:// in its URL, while a website that uses HTTPS has https://.

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