Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 15 Dec, 2020 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

In July 2020, who was appointed India's Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations in Geneva?

  1. ((a))

    Syed Akbaruddin

  2. ((b))

    Indra Mani Pandey

  3. ((c))

    Rajiv Kumar Chander

  4. ((d))

    T.S. Trimurti

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Indra Mani Pandey

The correct answer is Indra Mani Pandey.

Key Points

  • Indra Mani Pandey was appointed as India's Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations in Geneva in July 2020.
  • He succeeded Rajiv Kumar Chander, who previously held the position.
  • The Permanent Representative to the United Nations in Geneva represents India in various international organizations, including the World Trade Organization (WTO), Human Rights Council, and other UN bodies.
  • Indra Mani Pandey is a 1990-batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer with extensive experience in diplomacy, having served in various capacities in Indian missions abroad.
  • His appointment came during a crucial time when India was actively engaging with international organizations to address global challenges, including the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

  • Role of Permanent Representatives to the UN:
  • The Permanent Representative serves as the head of the country's mission to the UN and actively participates in deliberations and negotiations within international forums.
  • They are responsible for advocating the nation's interests, managing India's diplomatic engagements, and fostering global cooperation on various issues.
  • Indra Mani Pandey's Career:
  • Before his appointment to the UN in Geneva, he served as the Additional Secretary in the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), India.
  • He has also held diplomatic positions in countries such as Egypt, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and China.
  • His expertise spans areas like international security, multilateral diplomacy, and human rights.
  • United Nations Office at Geneva (UNOG):
  • The UNOG is one of the four major offices of the United Nations, located in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It serves as a hub for multilateral diplomacy and houses numerous UN agencies, including the Human Rights Council, World Health Organization (WHO), and others.
  • India's Permanent Representative in Geneva plays a key role in shaping discussions on global health, trade, human rights, and disarmament.
  • Other Notable Indian Diplomats:
  • Syed Akbaruddin: India's Permanent Representative to the United Nations in New York from 2016 to 2020; known for his dynamic presence and strong advocacy of India's interests.
  • Rajiv Kumar Chander: Preceded Indra Mani Pandey as the Permanent Representative in Geneva, holding the position from 2017 to 2020.
  • T.S. Tirumurti: Appointed as India's Permanent Representative to the United Nations in New York in 2020.

Important Points

  • The position of Permanent Representative is crucial for ensuring that India's voice is heard on a global platform.
  • India has been actively contributing to global governance through its participation in the United Nations, especially in areas like peacekeeping, sustainable development, and climate action.
  • The COVID-19 pandemic has further highlighted the importance of international collaboration, with India's representative playing a key role in discussions on health and economic recovery.
  • Geneva serves as a vital diplomatic hub, hosting not only UN agencies but also numerous intergovernmental and non-governmental organizations.
2

The nucleus of a plant cell is surrounded by a jelly-like substance called: 

  1. ((a))

    plastids 

  2. ((b))

    vacuoles

  3. ((c))

    chloroplasts

  4. ((d))

    cytoplasm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

cytoplasm

The correct answer is cytoplasm.

Key Points

  • The cytoplasm is a jelly-like substance present within the cell membrane and surrounds the nucleus of both plant and animal cells. It serves as the medium for the organelles and cellular processes. Hence, the correct answer is cytoplasm.
  • It is a semi-fluid, transparent, and homogeneous substance that provides support to the cell's internal components and maintains the shape of the cell.
  • The cytoplasm is composed of water, salts, and various organic molecules, including proteins and enzymes, which are essential for cellular metabolism.
  • All the organelles of the cell, such as mitochondria, chloroplasts (in plant cells), and the nucleus, are suspended in the cytoplasm, ensuring their mobility and functionality.
  • The cytoplasm also plays a critical role in cellular activities, such as transporting nutrients, facilitating chemical reactions, and housing the cytoskeleton, which helps maintain the structural integrity of the cell.

Additional Information

  • Functions of Cytoplasm:
  • The cytoplasm is responsible for holding all the components of the cell, including organelles, in place.
  • It acts as the site for many metabolic activities, such as glycolysis and other enzymatic processes.
  • The cytoplasm enables the exchange of materials between organelles, supporting cellular communication and transport.
  • It helps in the movement of genetic material and organelles during cell division, such as during mitosis and meiosis.
  • Key Characteristics of Incorrect Options:
  • Plastids: Plastids are double-membrane organelles found exclusively in plant cells. They are responsible for photosynthesis (chloroplasts), storage (amyloplasts), or pigment synthesis and storage (chromoplasts). They are not jelly-like substances surrounding the nucleus.
  • Vacuoles: Vacuoles are membrane-bound sacs found in plant and animal cells. They play a role in storage, waste disposal, and maintaining turgor pressure in plant cells. However, they do not surround the nucleus.
  • Chloroplasts: Chloroplasts are a type of plastid that contains the green pigment chlorophyll. They are the site of photosynthesis in plant cells and do not surround the nucleus.
  • Composition of Cytoplasm:
  • The cytoplasm consists of about 80% water, making it a hydrophilic environment for biochemical reactions.
  • It contains ions, nutrients, enzymes, and other molecules necessary for cellular processes.
  • The cytoplasm is further divided into two components: cytosol (the fluid part) and the organelles suspended within it.
  • Importance in Plant Cells:
  • In plant cells, the cytoplasm connects adjacent cells through channels called plasmodesmata, allowing communication and transport of materials between cells.
  • The cytoplasm also plays a role in the movement of chloroplasts to optimize light absorption during photosynthesis.

Important Points

  • The cytoplasm is often confused with the cytosol. While cytoplasm refers to the entire content within the cell membrane, excluding the nucleus, cytosol is the fluid part of the cytoplasm.
  • In plant cells, the large central vacuole takes up a significant portion of the cytoplasm, pushing the other organelles, including the nucleus, towards the cell membrane.
  • The cytoplasmic streaming, also known as cyclosis, is a process where the cytoplasm circulates within the cell, aiding in the transport of materials and organelles.
  • The cytoplasm provides a medium for the biochemical reactions necessary for the survival and functionality of the cell.
3

Who led the movement called 'Nyayuddh', which was a struggle for justice in Haryana?

  1. ((a))

    Banarasi Das Gupta

  2. ((b))

    Om Prakash Chautala

  3. ((c))

    Chaudhary Devi Lal

  4. ((d))

    Chaudhary Bansilal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chaudhary Devi Lal

The correct answer is Chaudhary Devi Lal.

Key Points

  • 'Nyayuddh' was a movement launched in Haryana, advocating for justice and the rights of farmers and the underprivileged sections of society.
  • This movement was led by Chaudhary Devi Lal, who was a prominent leader and a pivotal figure in the state's politics.
  • Chaudhary Devi Lal, often referred to as the 'Tau' of Haryana, was known for his relentless efforts toward the upliftment of farmers, laborers, and the rural population.
  • The 'Nyayuddh' movement emerged during a period of political and economic unrest, focusing on addressing grievances related to injustice, land reforms, and farmer rights.
  • Chaudhary Devi Lal's leadership in the movement strengthened his position in Haryana's political landscape and eventually led to his tenure as the Deputy Prime Minister of India.

Additional Information

  • Chaudhary Devi Lal:
  • He was born on 25 September 1914 in Teja Khera village, Haryana, and became a renowned farmer leader and politician.
  • He served as the Chief Minister of Haryana twice, from 1977–79 and 1987–89.
  • Chaudhary Devi Lal was a strong advocate for rural development, agricultural reforms, and the welfare of the underprivileged.
  • He was instrumental in promoting policies that benefited farmers, including loan waivers and agricultural subsidies.
  • Nyayuddh Movement:
  • The term 'Nyayuddh' translates to "struggle for justice" and was aimed at addressing the exploitation and challenges faced by marginalized communities, particularly farmers.
  • It gained significant momentum in Haryana during the 1970s and 1980s due to widespread discontent among the agricultural community.
  • Chaudhary Devi Lal's leadership played a crucial role in uniting farmers and rural workers under a common cause.
  • Other Leaders Mentioned:
  • Banarasi Das Gupta: A politician and former Chief Minister of Haryana, but not associated with the 'Nyayuddh' movement.
  • Om Prakash Chautala: The son of Chaudhary Devi Lal and a prominent politician in Haryana, but the 'Nyayuddh' movement was primarily led by his father.
  • Chaudhary Bansilal: Another influential leader from Haryana, known for his role in politics and development, but not related to the 'Nyayuddh' movement.

Important Points

  • Impact of the Nyayuddh Movement:
  • The movement highlighted issues such as economic disparity, social injustice, and land reforms.
  • It paved the way for more inclusive policies and welfare schemes for farmers and rural communities in Haryana.
  • Chaudhary Devi Lal's efforts through the movement helped establish him as a leader who prioritized the needs of the common people.
  • Legacy of Chaudhary Devi Lal:
  • He is remembered as a visionary leader who championed the cause of social justice and rural development.
  • His contributions to the welfare of farmers continue to inspire political movements and policies in Haryana and beyond.
4

Which of the following is used to estimate the size of the economy?

  1. ((a))

    Gross national product

  2. ((b))

    Gross national income

  3. ((c))

    Gross domestic product

  4. ((d))

    Gross monthly income

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gross domestic product

The correct answer is Gross Domestic Product.

Key Points

  • Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the most widely used indicator to estimate the size of an economy. It represents the total monetary value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.
  • GDP is calculated using three primary methods: Production approach, Income approach, and Expenditure approach. Each provides insights into different aspects of economic activity.
  • It includes the contributions from various sectors like agriculture, manufacturing, services, etc., making it a comprehensive measure of economic performance.
  • GDP can be measured in two ways: Nominal GDP (current prices) and Real GDP (adjusted for inflation). Real GDP is often preferred for comparing economic performance over time.
  • International organizations like the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) use GDP to rank economies globally and assess their growth trends.

Additional Information

  • Gross National Product (GNP):
  • GNP is the total monetary value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, both domestically and abroad, during a specific period.
  • It differs from GDP as it includes income from foreign investments and excludes the income earned by foreign residents within the domestic economy.
  • For example, if an Indian company earns profits in the USA, this would be part of India’s GNP but not GDP.
  • Gross National Income (GNI):
  • GNI includes GDP plus income received from abroad (such as remittances and foreign investments).
  • It is often used to assess the economic well-being of citizens and is a key indicator for international development studies.
  • The World Bank uses GNI per capita to classify countries into income groups like low-income, middle-income, and high-income economies.
  • Gross Monthly Income:
  • This term refers to the total income earned by an individual or household in one month.
  • It is not a measure of the economy but is used for personal financial analysis, such as determining tax obligations or eligibility for loans.
  • Gross monthly income is distinct from net income, which is the amount remaining after deductions like taxes.
  • Applications of GDP:
  • GDP is essential for formulating economic policies, setting interest rates, and determining government expenditure.
  • It helps investors and businesses assess the health of an economy and make informed decisions.
  • Countries with high GDP, such as the United States and China, often hold significant influence in global economic affairs.

Important Points

  • Nominal vs. Real GDP:
  • Nominal GDP: Measures the value of goods and services at current market prices without adjusting for inflation.
  • Real GDP: Adjusts nominal GDP for inflation, providing a more accurate reflection of an economy's true growth.
  • GDP Growth Rate:
  • It measures the percentage change in GDP over a specific period, indicating the pace of economic growth.
  • For example, India’s GDP growth rate was around 6.1% in the fiscal year 2023.
  • GDP Per Capita:
  • This indicator divides GDP by the total population, giving an average economic output per person.
  • It is often used to compare living standards across countries.
  • Limitations of GDP:
  • GDP does not account for income inequality or the distribution of wealth within a country.
  • It excludes non-market activities, such as unpaid household work and volunteer services, which contribute to economic well-being.
  • Environmental degradation caused by production is not reflected in GDP figures.
5

For how many Rabi crops does the Government of India announce the Minimum Support Price?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Five

  4. ((d))

    Nine

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Six

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

  • The Government of India announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for six Rabi crops every year. These crops are wheat, barley, gram, lentil (masur), rapeseed and mustard, and safflower.
  • The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to safeguard the agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
  • The MSP is determined based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers factors like cost of cultivation, demand-supply dynamics, and market price trends.
  • Rabi crops are typically sown in the winter season (from October to December) and harvested in the spring (from April to June).
  • These six crops are significant for India's agricultural economy, and announcing MSP ensures that farmers get a fair price for their produce, protecting them from exploitation in the market.

Additional Information

  • Rabi Crops:
  • Rabi crops are also called winter crops as they are sown at the beginning of winter (October-November) and harvested during summer (April-June).
  • Examples of Rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats, gram, lentils, mustard, and linseed.
  • The production of Rabi crops depends heavily on the availability of irrigation facilities as they are grown in regions where monsoon rains have receded.
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP):
  • The Minimum Support Price is announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops.
  • The MSP is a form of insurance for farmers against price volatility in the agricultural market.
  • It is calculated based on several factors, including the cost of production, input costs, and the demand-supply dynamics of the market.
  • The MSP is an essential policy tool to encourage farmers to adopt modern agricultural practices and invest in quality inputs.
  • Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
  • The CACP is an advisory body that recommends MSPs to the Government of India for various crops.
  • It considers factors like input costs, yield trends, and international price movements to determine the MSP.
  • The CACP also ensures that MSP incentivizes farmers to adopt sustainable agricultural practices.
  • Importance of Rabi Crops for Indian Agriculture:
  • Wheat is the most critical Rabi crop and is a staple food for a large part of the Indian population.
  • Other Rabi crops like mustard and gram contribute significantly to the production of oilseeds and pulses in India.
  • Rabi crops form a major portion of India's agricultural exports, particularly wheat and oilseeds.

Important Points

  • The MSP system acts as a safety net for farmers, ensuring that they receive a minimum price for their produce, even if the market prices fall below the cost of production.
  • All Rabi crops require a cool and dry climate for growth and a warm climate for harvesting.
  • The government periodically reviews and revises the MSP to reflect changing market conditions and production costs.
  • The MSP system also helps in maintaining a stable and predictable supply of essential commodities in the market, thereby controlling inflation.
6

Which classical dance was composed by Vaishnava poet Siddhendra Yogi?

  1. ((a))

    Mohiniyattam

  2. ((b))

    Kathak

  3. ((c))

    Bharatanatyam

  4. ((d))

    Kuchipudi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kuchipudi

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

  • Kuchipudi is a renowned classical dance form originating from the Andhra Pradesh state of India.
  • It was composed by the Vaishnava poet Siddhendra Yogi, who is considered the father of this dance form. He introduced spiritual themes into Kuchipudi, making it a medium for narrating stories from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Siddhendra Yogi’s most famous composition is the Bhama Kalapam, which narrates the story of Satyabhama, one of Lord Krishna’s consorts. This work showcases the combination of drama, expression, and dance that defines Kuchipudi.
  • Kuchipudi is characterized by its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive facial gestures. It blends elements of dance, music, and acting to create a unique storytelling experience.
  • Unlike other classical dances, Kuchipudi performances often begin with a small ritual, such as sprinkling holy water and invoking blessings, reflecting its religious origins.

Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam:
  • This is a classical dance form from Kerala, associated with the theme of feminine grace and beauty.
  • The word ‘Mohini’ refers to the celestial enchantress from Hindu mythology, and this dance is performed as a solo recital by women.
  • It is characterized by soft movements, white costumes, and expressions of love and devotion, often performed on themes related to Lord Vishnu or Krishna.
  • Kathak:
  • Kathak is one of the major classical dance forms of India and originates from North India. The name Kathak comes from the word ‘Katha,’ meaning story.
  • This dance form focuses on intricate footwork, spins, and rhythmic patterns and is often performed to Hindustani classical music.
  • Kathak evolved from temple traditions to court performances during the Mughal era, blending Hindu and Islamic cultural elements.
  • Bharatanatyam:
  • Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms, originating from Tamil Nadu.
  • It is deeply rooted in the Natya Shastra, an ancient treatise on performing arts authored by Bharata.
  • The dance involves intricate hand gestures (Mudras), rhythmic footwork, and expressive storytelling, often depicting episodes from Hindu scriptures.
  • Distinct Features of Kuchipudi:
  • While most classical dances are solo performances, Kuchipudi includes group performances and even incorporates dialogues and singing by the dancers themselves.
  • Performers often dance on a brass plate (Tarangam), showcasing their skill and balance.
  • The dance is accompanied by Carnatic music, enhancing its devotional and dramatic appeal.

Important Points

  • Siddhendra Yogi:
  • He was a 15th-century poet-saint and a devotee of Lord Krishna.
  • Siddhendra Yogi played a pivotal role in transforming Kuchipudi from a traditional temple dance into a classical dance-drama form.
  • His works emphasize devotion to Lord Krishna and moral values, blending religious themes with artistic expression.
  • Role of Kuchipudi in Indian Culture:
  • Kuchipudi is not just a dance form but a medium of preserving and promoting Indian heritage and mythology.
  • It has gained international recognition and is performed worldwide, showcasing the richness of Indian art and spirituality.
  • Various institutions in India and abroad are dedicated to teaching and preserving this classical art form.
7

Who has been awarded the Padma Bhushan 2020 in the field of literature and education?

  1. ((a))

    Venu Srinivasan

  2. ((b))

    Manoj Das

  3. ((c))

    Ajoy Chakraborty

  4. ((d))

    Jai Prakash Agarwal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Manoj Das

The correct answer is Manoj Das.

Key Points

  • Manoj Das was a prominent author, poet, and philosopher hailing from Odisha, India. He wrote in both Odia and English.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2020 in the field of Literature and Education for his immense contribution to Indian literature.
  • Manoj Das was particularly known for his short stories and novels, which depicted a blend of reality and mysticism.
  • He also received several other prestigious awards such as the Sahitya Akademi Award in both Odia and English and the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship.
  • His works reflected a deep philosophical understanding, and he was often referred to as one of the finest storytellers of modern India.

Additional Information

  • Padma Bhushan:
  • The Padma Bhushan is the third-highest civilian award in India, instituted in 1954. It is awarded for distinguished service of a high order in various fields like art, literature, education, sports, medicine, social work, science, and public affairs.
  • It is conferred by the President of India annually on Republic Day.
  • Other recipients of Padma Bhushan 2020:
  • Venu Srinivasan: Recognized in the field of Trade and Industry.
  • Ajoy Chakraborty: Awarded in the field of Art (Music).
  • Manoj Das’s notable works:
  • Some of his famous books include "A Tiger at Twilight", "The Escapist", and "The Legend of the Golden Valley".
  • His writings often showcased elements of Indian culture, spirituality, and folklore.
  • Legacy of Manoj Das:
  • He was an avid teacher and served as a professor of English Literature at the Sri Aurobindo International Centre of Education in Puducherry.
  • Manoj Das passed away on 27 April 2021, leaving behind a legacy of enriching the literary heritage of India.

Important Points

  • Criteria for Padma Awards:
  • The Padma Awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (for distinguished service of a high order), and Padma Shri (for distinguished service in any field).
  • These awards are open to all, regardless of race, occupation, position, or sex. However, government servants, including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible.
  • Contributions of Manoj Das:
  • Manoj Das’s stories often dealt with human emotions, societal norms, and philosophical insights.
  • He contributed significantly to both Indian English literature and Odia literature, ensuring a wide readership across linguistic barriers.
8

Who won the gold medal in weightlifting at the 6th Qatar International Cup in Doha?

  1. ((a))

    Mirabai Chanu

  2. ((b))

    Anais Michel

  3. ((c))

    Jeremy Lalrinnunga

  4. ((d))

    Manon Lorentz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mirabai Chanu

The correct answer is Mirabai Chanu.

Key Points

  • Mirabai Chanu, an Indian weightlifter, is renowned for her extraordinary achievements in the sport.
  • At the 6th Qatar International Cup held in Doha, Mirabai Chanu clinched the gold medal in the women’s 49 kg category.
  • She lifted a total of 194 kg (comprising 83 kg in snatch and 111 kg in clean & jerk), showcasing her incredible strength and technique.
  • This victory further strengthened her position as one of India’s top weightlifters and a prominent athlete on the global stage.
  • Mirabai Chanu has been a consistent performer in international competitions, often earning accolades for her performances, including at the Commonwealth Games and the Olympics.

Additional Information

  • Mirabai Chanu:
  • Her full name is Saikhom Mirabai Chanu, and she hails from the state of Manipur, India.
  • She has been a recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India’s highest sporting honor, recognizing her outstanding contributions to weightlifting.
  • Mirabai Chanu also won a silver medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the women’s 49 kg weightlifting category.
  • 6th Qatar International Cup:
  • The Qatar International Cup is an international weightlifting competition that draws participants from across the globe.
  • It provides a platform for athletes to compete and showcase their skills in different weight categories.
  • Mirabai Chanu’s victory at this event highlights India’s growing presence in weightlifting on the global stage.
  • Anais Michel:
  • Anais Michel is a French weightlifter who competes in the women’s 49 kg category.
  • She has represented France in various international competitions and has a commendable track record in weightlifting.
  • Jeremy Lalrinnunga:
  • Jeremy Lalrinnunga is an Indian weightlifter who competes in the men’s 67 kg category.
  • He gained recognition for winning a gold medal in the 2018 Youth Olympics, becoming the first Indian to do so in weightlifting.
  • Manon Lorentz:
  • Manon Lorentz is a weightlifter representing France in various international competitions.
  • She competes in different weight categories and has earned recognition for her contributions to the sport.

Important Points

  • Weightlifting Competitions:
  • Weightlifting is divided into two main lifts: snatch and clean & jerk. Each competitor’s total is the sum of their best lift in each category.
  • The sport requires a combination of strength, technique, and mental focus to excel.
  • India’s Performance in Weightlifting:
  • India has a rich history in weightlifting, with athletes like Karnam Malleswari (the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal in weightlifting) paving the way for future generations.
  • Recent successes, including those of Mirabai Chanu, have helped popularize the sport in India and inspire young athletes.
9

In which year was the Hindu Succession Amendment Act implemented?

  1. ((a))

    In 2001

  2. ((b))

    In 1995

  3. ((c))

    In 2005

  4. ((d))

    In 2010

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In 2005

The correct answer is In 2005.

Key Points

  • The Hindu Succession Amendment Act was implemented in the year 2005 to amend the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
  • This Act aimed to provide equal inheritance rights to daughters in ancestral property, bringing gender equality in the distribution of property.
  • The amendment abolished the concept of Hindu joint family property, allowing daughters to become coparceners, just like sons.
  • The Act applied to the Hindus, including Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs, making it comprehensive in its scope.
  • The 2005 amendment was a landmark step in ensuring women's property and inheritance rights in India.

Additional Information

  • Key Provisions of the Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005:
  • The Act granted daughters the right to be coparceners in the ancestral property, making them equal in rights and liabilities as sons.
  • Before the amendment, only male members of the family were considered coparceners in a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF).
  • The Act was applicable to self-acquired property as well as ancestral property.
  • It stated that a daughter has the same rights in the property from her birth, irrespective of whether she is married or unmarried.
  • The amendment also ensured that women had an equal say in the partition and management of the property.
  • Impact of the Amendment:
  • The Act was a significant move towards gender equality in property inheritance laws in India.
  • It empowered women to claim their rightful share in ancestral property, ensuring their financial independence.
  • It helped reduce the discrimination faced by women in patriarchal societies regarding inheritance rights.
  • Exceptions and Legal Clarifications:
  • The Act does not apply to Muslims, Christians, Parsis, and Jews, as they have separate personal laws for property and inheritance.
  • Further clarifications were made in 2015 by the Supreme Court, stating that a daughter is entitled to equal rights in property regardless of whether her father was alive on the amendment date (2005).
  • Comparison with the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
  • The original Act of 1956 did not grant daughters the status of coparceners and restricted their inheritance rights.
  • The 2005 amendment removed these restrictions, making the law more equitable for daughters.

Important Points

  • The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 was part of the Hindu Code Bills introduced to modernize personal laws for Hindus in independent India.
  • The Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 was aimed at addressing gender inequality in property inheritance and empowering women.
  • The amendment applies to ancestral property and self-acquired property, ensuring a fair distribution of assets.
  • As per the latest rulings, the amendment applies retrospectively, granting daughters equal rights regardless of the father's death.
  • This landmark legislation has played a crucial role in promoting social justice and gender equality in India.
10

Which of the following sites is the evidence of domestication of dogs in ancient India?

  1. ((a))

    Mehrgarh

  2. ((b))

    Hallur

  3. ((c))

    Payyampally

  4. ((d))

    Burzahom

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Burzahom

The correct answer is Burzahom.

Key Points

  • Burzahom, an archaeological site located in Kashmir, provides evidence of the domestication of animals, including dogs, during the Neolithic period.
  • Excavations at Burzahom have revealed pit dwellings, tools, and artifacts that indicate the presence of a settled agricultural community.
  • Among the findings were skeletal remains of domesticated dogs buried alongside humans, showcasing their significance in the community.
  • The site is dated to around 3000 BCE, making it one of the earliest known instances of dog domestication in ancient India.
  • Burzahom’s findings highlight the transition from a hunter-gatherer lifestyle to settled agriculture, where animals like dogs were integrated into daily life for purposes such as security and companionship.

Additional Information

  • Mehrgarh:
  • Located in present-day Balochistan, Pakistan, Mehrgarh is a Neolithic site dating back to around 7000 BCE.
  • It provides evidence of early agricultural practices and the domestication of animals like sheep, goats, and cattle, but not dogs.
  • Mehrgarh is considered one of the earliest sites showcasing the transition to farming in South Asia.
  • Hallur:
  • Hallur is a Chalcolithic site in Karnataka, India, dated to around 1500 BCE.
  • It is known for its evidence of early iron tools and agricultural practices.
  • There is no significant evidence of dog domestication at this site.
  • Payyampally:
  • Located in Kerala, Payyampally is an Iron Age site known for its megalithic structures.
  • It provides evidence of advanced tools, burial practices, and agriculture but lacks indications of dog domestication.
  • Burzahom:
  • Burzahom is unique in its discovery of human-dog burial practices, highlighting the domestication and cultural significance of dogs.
  • The site also features pit dwellings, stone tools, and evidence of early agricultural activities.
  • It is located in the Kashmir Valley and dates back to the Neolithic era around 3000 BCE.

Important Points

  • Dog domestication is believed to have started around 15,000 to 40,000 years ago, with genetic evidence tracing their origins to wolves.
  • In ancient India, dogs were used for security, hunting, and companionship, as seen in archaeological findings.
  • The burial of dogs alongside humans at sites like Burzahom signifies their cultural and emotional importance in early societies.
  • Such practices indicate a shift towards recognizing animals as integral members of the community rather than merely utilitarian assets.
  • Burzahom is a rare site in South Asia providing direct evidence of early dog domestication and its association with human settlements.
11

Who has written the book 'A Song of India'?

  1. ((a))

    Ruskin Bond

  2. ((b))

    Stephen King

  3. ((c))

    Anand Vasu

  4. ((d))

    Ramachandra Guha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ruskin Bond

The correct answer is Ruskin Bond.

Key Points

  • Ruskin Bond is a celebrated Indian author of British descent, known for his significant contributions to children's literature and stories set in the Indian landscape.
  • The book 'A Song of India' is one of Ruskin Bond's autobiographical works. It is part of a series that chronicles his life experiences and journey as a writer.
  • 'A Song of India' focuses on Bond’s life at the age of sixteen in the year 1951, portraying the challenges and inspirations he encountered while deciding to become a writer.
  • The book provides a vivid depiction of pre-independence India, capturing the essence of its culture, people, and landscapes through the eyes of a young aspiring writer.
  • Ruskin Bond's writing is known for its simplicity, emotional depth, and connection to nature, making 'A Song of India' a heartfelt narrative that resonates with readers of all ages.

Additional Information

  • Ruskin Bond:
  • Born on 19 May 1934 in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, India.
  • He has authored numerous novels, short stories, and essays, many of which are inspired by the foothills of the Himalayas and his experiences of small-town life in India.
  • Some of his other notable works include 'The Room on the Roof', 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra', and 'Rusty, the Boy from the Hills'.
  • He received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 and the Padma Shri in 1999 for his contribution to literature.
  • 'A Song of India':
  • It is part of a series of books that includes titles like 'Looking for the Rainbow' and 'Till the Clouds Roll By', chronicling Ruskin Bond's life journey.
  • The book is set in Dehradun, where Ruskin spent his formative years and developed his passion for writing.
  • Other Options:
  • Stephen King: Known for his works in the horror and suspense genres, such as 'The Shining' and 'It'. He has not written 'A Song of India'.
  • Anand Vasu: A renowned sports journalist, primarily known for his contributions to cricket writing. He is not associated with 'A Song of India'.
  • Ramachandra Guha: A noted historian and author, known for books like 'India After Gandhi'. 'A Song of India' is not his work.

Important Points

  • Ruskin Bond's Writing Style:
  • His works often depict themes of nostalgia, nature, and human emotions.
  • He is especially appreciated for portraying the charm of small-town India and its people.
  • His stories are accessible to both children and adults due to their simplicity and universal appeal.
  • Autobiographical Works:
  • In addition to 'A Song of India', Bond has penned other autobiographical works that offer insights into his life and inspirations as a writer.
  • These books serve as a window into the historical and cultural context of India during the mid-20th century.
12

Which of the following peaks of the Himalayas is in India?

  1. ((a))

    Mount Everest

  2. ((b))

    Gurla Mandhata

  3. ((c))

    Dhaulagiri

  4. ((d))

    Kanchenjunga

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kanchenjunga

The correct answer is Kanchenjunga.

Key Points

  • Kanchenjunga is the third-highest peak in the world, with an elevation of 8,586 meters (28,169 feet), and it is located in the Himalayan range along the border of India (Sikkim state) and Nepal.
  • It is the highest peak in India and is considered sacred by the people of Sikkim.
  • Unlike Mount Everest, Dhaulagiri, or Gurla Mandhata, Kanchenjunga lies partially in India, making it the correct answer for a Himalayan peak within India.
  • The peak is part of the Kanchenjunga Conservation Area and is known for its unique biodiversity and cultural significance.
  • Kanchenjunga is surrounded by five peaks, collectively known as the "Five Treasures of Snow" (referring to its sacred status in local beliefs).

Additional Information

  • Mount Everest:
  • It is the highest peak in the world, standing at 8,848.86 meters (29,031.7 feet).
  • Located on the border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, it is not in India.
  • It is known as Sagarmatha in Nepal and Chomolungma in Tibet.
  • Gurla Mandhata:
  • It is located in Tibet, near the sacred Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash.
  • Its height is 7,694 meters (25,243 feet), and it lies entirely outside India.
  • Dhaulagiri:
  • Dhaulagiri is the seventh-highest mountain in the world, with an elevation of 8,167 meters (26,795 feet).
  • It is located entirely in Nepal and is known for its dramatic rise over the Kali Gandaki River.
  • Kanchenjunga:
  • Kanchenjunga is located in the eastern Himalayas, forming part of the Sikkim Himalayas.
  • The peak lies on the border between Sikkim (India) and eastern Nepal. However, certain parts, such as its southeastern and northeastern slopes, are in India.
  • It holds cultural and religious significance for the local communities, especially the Lepchas, who consider it sacred.

Important Points

  • Himalayan Peaks in India:
  • Besides Kanchenjunga, other significant Himalayan peaks located in India include Nanda Devi, Kamet, and Trisul.
  • These peaks are located in regions like Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Conservation Efforts:
  • The Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve in Sikkim is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized for its rich biodiversity.
  • Efforts are underway to balance ecological conservation with tourism in the region.
13

Which of the following cities is not the venue of Indian Premier League 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Sharjah

  2. ((b))

    Abu Dhabi

  3. ((c))

    Doha

  4. ((d))

    Dubai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Doha

The correct answer is Doha.

Key Points

  • The Indian Premier League (IPL) 2020 was held entirely in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The matches were conducted across three venues: Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, and Dubai.
  • Doha, the capital city of Qatar, was not a venue for IPL 2020. It is located in a different country and was not selected as one of the host cities for the tournament.
  • The UAE was chosen as the host country for IPL 2020 due to its well-established cricket facilities and its ability to create a bio-secure environment during the pandemic.
  • The IPL 2020 matches were primarily played at iconic venues such as Sharjah Cricket Stadium, Sheikh Zayed Stadium (Abu Dhabi), and Dubai International Stadium.
  • The decision to exclude Doha or any other non-UAE city was influenced by logistical considerations and the need to limit travel during the pandemic.

Additional Information

  • Sharjah:
  • Sharjah Cricket Stadium has a rich history and is known for hosting numerous international matches. It is one of the most popular cricket venues in the UAE.
  • During IPL 2020, Sharjah was known for its high-scoring matches due to its smaller ground dimensions.
  • Abu Dhabi:
  • The Sheikh Zayed Stadium in Abu Dhabi is renowned for its state-of-the-art facilities and has hosted several international cricket matches.
  • It played a key role in hosting IPL 2020 matches, providing a secure environment for players and staff.
  • Dubai:
  • Dubai International Stadium is one of the premier cricket venues in the UAE, featuring a unique "ring of fire" lighting system.
  • It hosted the IPL 2020 opening match and several other key matches, including playoffs.
  • Doha:
  • Doha, the capital of Qatar, is known for hosting international sports events, including football tournaments like the FIFA World Cup 2022.
  • However, it is not a regular venue for cricket tournaments like the IPL, as cricket facilities in Doha are still developing compared to those in the UAE.
  • IPL 2020 Overview:
  • The tournament was held from 19th September to 10th November 2020.
  • Mumbai Indians emerged as the champions, defeating Delhi Capitals in the final.
  • All matches were held under strict bio-secure protocols due to the pandemic.

Important Points

  • The IPL has previously been hosted outside India due to various reasons, such as general elections. For example:
  • In 2009, the IPL was conducted in South Africa.
  • In 2014, part of the tournament was held in the UAE.
  • The decision to host IPL 2020 in the UAE was taken to ensure the safety of players and staff during the pandemic, as the UAE offered better infrastructure and pandemic management capabilities.
  • Despite being a neighboring country, Qatar (Doha) is not yet a prominent cricketing venue, which is why it was not chosen for IPL 2020.
  • Hosting IPL in a single country with multiple venues reduced the complexity of travel and ensured compliance with bio-bubble protocols.
14

In 1651, on the banks of which river was the first English factory established?

  1. ((a))

    Bhagirathi

  2. ((b))

    Teesta

  3. ((c))

    Hooghly

  4. ((d))

    Damodar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hooghly

The correct answer is Hooghly.

Key Points

  • In 1651, the first English factory in India was established on the banks of the Hooghly River, near the town of Hugli in Bengal.
  • This marked the beginning of English East India Company’s commercial activities in Bengal. The factory served as a trading post for the company.
  • The location was strategically chosen as the Hooghly River was a major waterway, facilitating trade and transport in Bengal.
  • The establishment of this factory eventually paved the way for the British colonial rule in India, as the East India Company gained significant economic and political influence in the region.
  • The factory primarily dealt in the trade of silks, muslins, saltpetre, and other goods that were in high demand in Europe.

Additional Information

  • The Role of Hooghly River:
  • The Hooghly River is a distributary of the Ganges River in West Bengal and was crucial for inland and overseas trade during the colonial period.
  • It connected the hinterlands of Bengal to the Bay of Bengal, making it a key trade route for the East India Company.
  • Other Rivers and Their Historical Importance:
  • Bhagirathi: A distributary of the Ganges, it merges with the Hooghly River but was less significant in terms of colonial trade.
  • Teesta: Primarily flows through Sikkim and North Bengal, and was not a significant trade route during the colonial period.
  • Damodar: Known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” due to frequent flooding, it was less utilized for trade in comparison to the Hooghly River.
  • English East India Company:
  • Formed in 1600, the English East India Company received a royal charter from Queen Elizabeth I to trade in the East Indies.
  • It initially focused on the spice trade but expanded to include textiles, tea, and other goods from India.
  • The company played a pivotal role in establishing British rule in India, with Bengal being a key region under its control.
  • Impact on Bengal:
  • The establishment of the factory on the Hooghly River marked the beginning of British economic exploitation in Bengal.
  • Bengal’s economy became increasingly dependent on the East India Company, leading to significant socio-economic changes.
  • Historical Context:
  • The factory on the Hooghly River was part of a broader trend of European colonial powers establishing trading posts in India during the 17th century.
  • Other colonial powers, such as the Portuguese, Dutch, and French, also established trading posts in India around the same time.
15

Regional Rural Banks fall under which category of banks?

  1. ((a))

    Co-operative Bank

  2. ((b))

    Commercial Bank

  3. ((c))

    Payments Bank

  4. ((d))

    Small Finance Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Commercial Bank

The correct answer is Commercial Bank.

Key Points

  • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are categorized as Commercial Banks. They are a part of the Indian banking system and were established to ensure rural financial inclusion by providing banking services to rural and semi-urban areas.
  • RRBs were established under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976, with the aim to develop rural economies by providing credit and other financial facilities to small farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans.
  • RRBs operate under a three-tier structure, where they are jointly owned by the Government of India (50%), the respective State Government (15%), and a sponsoring Commercial Bank (35%). This ownership structure ensures a blend of local and centralized management.
  • Their primary objective is to provide financial assistance to the weaker sections of society, including small and marginal farmers, micro-enterprises, and rural entrepreneurs.
  • RRBs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and supervised by the NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) to ensure their smooth functioning and alignment with national goals.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Regional Rural Banks:
  • RRBs primarily cater to the credit needs of rural areas, focusing on sectors such as agriculture, trade, and small-scale industries.
  • They are designed to provide low-cost banking solutions to rural populations, especially those who lack access to traditional banking services.
  • RRBs have limited operational areas, typically confined to a few districts, to ensure a focus on regional development.
  • They provide both short-term and long-term loans, along with deposit services, to support agricultural and rural development.
  • RRBs were initially exempt from maintaining the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), but now they are required to comply with these regulations like other Commercial Banks.
  • Functions of Commercial Banks:
  • Commercial Banks provide a wide range of financial services, including accepting deposits, offering loans, and facilitating transactions.
  • They serve as intermediaries, channeling funds from depositors to borrowers, contributing to overall economic growth.
  • Commercial Banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India, ensuring financial stability and compliance with banking norms.
  • They operate under various categories, including Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, and Regional Rural Banks.
  • Other Types of Banks:
  • Co-operative Banks: These banks are owned and operated by members to provide financial services to a specific community or group. They operate under the Co-operative Societies Act.
  • Payments Banks: These are specialized banks that provide basic banking services, such as deposits and remittances, but are not allowed to lend or issue credit cards. They were introduced in 2014.
  • Small Finance Banks: These banks cater to the underserved and unserved sections of the population, including small businesses, marginal farmers, and micro-enterprises. They are regulated by the RBI.

Important Points

  • Post-1991 reforms: RRBs were restructured to enhance their operational efficiency and financial viability.
  • As of 2023, there are 43 RRBs in India, covering almost all states and union territories.
  • RRBs play a crucial role in fulfilling the government's financial inclusion agenda and supporting schemes like PM Jan Dhan Yojana.
16

In 1191, who defeated the Afghan ruler Sultan Muhammad Ghori but was defeated by him in 1192?

  1. ((a))

    Govindaraja IV

  2. ((b))

    Rajaraja I

  3. ((c))

    Prithviraj III

  4. ((d))

    Jendra Raj

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prithviraj III

The correct answer is Prithviraj III.

Key Points

  • Prithviraj III, also known as Prithviraj Chauhan, was a famous Rajput king of the Chauhan dynasty who ruled over Ajmer and Delhi during the 12th century.
  • In 1191 CE, Prithviraj III defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori in the First Battle of Tarain. This was a significant victory for the Rajputs.
  • However, in 1192 CE, Muhammad Ghori returned with better preparation and defeated Prithviraj III in the Second Battle of Tarain, marking a turning point in Indian history.
  • The defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan in 1192 allowed the establishment of Muslim rule in northern India, paving the way for the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Prithviraj Chauhan is remembered for his bravery and valiant defense against foreign invaders, particularly Muhammad Ghori.

Additional Information

  • First Battle of Tarain (1191):
  • It was fought between Prithviraj Chauhan and Sultan Muhammad Ghori.
  • Prithviraj III won the battle decisively with the help of a strong Rajput coalition.
  • Ghori was forced to retreat to Ghazni after suffering a humiliating defeat.
  • Second Battle of Tarain (1192):
  • Muhammad Ghori returned with a larger and better-organized army.
  • The battle resulted in Prithviraj III's defeat, leading to the establishment of Ghori's dominance in northern India.
  • This battle marked the decline of Rajput power and the beginning of Islamic rule under the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Prithviraj Chauhan:
  • He belonged to the Chauhan dynasty and ruled from Ajmer and later Delhi.
  • Prithviraj is celebrated in Indian folklore, especially for his courageous defense against foreign invasions.
  • His life story is immortalized in the epic "Prithviraj Raso", written by his court poet Chand Bardai.
  • Muhammad Ghori:
  • He was an Afghan ruler from the Ghurid dynasty.
  • After defeating Prithviraj Chauhan, he laid the foundation for Islamic rule in India, which was later consolidated by the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Ghori's invasion marked a significant transition in Indian history, influencing cultural, political, and religious dynamics.

Important Points

  • Impact of the Second Battle of Tarain:
  • It marked the end of Rajput dominance in northern India.
  • It initiated the establishment of Islamic rule in India, which lasted for several centuries.
  • The battle highlighted the lack of unity among Indian rulers, which was exploited by foreign invaders.
  • Legacy of Prithviraj Chauhan:
  • He is regarded as a symbol of bravery and resistance against foreign invasions.
  • His story is a part of Indian folklore and literature, inspiring generations to honor the values of courage and sacrifice.
  • The epic "Prithviraj Raso" depicts his valor and tragic end.
  • Historical Significance:
  • The battles of Tarain are considered turning points in Indian history, marking the beginning of a new era.
  • They highlight the importance of strategic preparation and unity among Indian rulers.
17

In 1757, the British victory in which battle in India is considered their first major victory?

  1. ((a))

    Battle of Plassey

  2. ((b))

    Battle of Buxar

  3. ((c))

    Battle of Panipat

  4. ((d))

    Battle of Saragarhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Battle of Plassey

The correct answer is Battle of Plassey.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757, near Plassey (present-day Palashi in West Bengal, India), between the forces of the British East India Company led by Robert Clive and the army of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal.
  • The battle marked the first major victory of the British East India Company in India, paving the way for British dominance in the Indian subcontinent.
  • The British secured victory largely due to the defection of key commanders from the Nawab's army, particularly Mir Jafar, who betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah in exchange for promises of power.
  • The victory at Plassey allowed the British to gain control over the rich province of Bengal, establishing their political and economic supremacy in the region.
  • This battle was a turning point in Indian history, initiating colonial rule and laying the foundation for the British Empire in India.

Additional Information

  • Battle of Plassey:
  • It was fought during the tenure of Siraj-ud-Daulah, who opposed the expanding influence of the British in Bengal.
  • The British East India Company used the betrayal of Mir Jafar, Siraj-ud-Daulah's commander-in-chief, to secure an easy victory.
  • This victory marked the beginning of British political influence in India, eventually leading to the establishment of the British Raj.
  • Battle of Buxar (1764):
  • Fought between the British East India Company and a coalition of Indian rulers (Mir Qasim of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daula of Awadh, and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II).
  • This battle established British control over Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa and solidified their dominance after the Battle of Plassey.
  • Battle of Panipat:
  • Three battles were fought in Panipat (1526, 1556, and 1761). The third battle (1761) was a significant conflict between the Marathas and the Durrani Empire under Ahmad Shah Abdali.
  • This battle marked the decline of Maratha power and created a political vacuum in India, facilitating British expansion.
  • Battle of Saragarhi (1897):
  • Fought between 21 Sikh soldiers of the British Indian Army and thousands of Afghan tribesmen at Saragarhi in present-day Pakistan.
  • This battle is remembered for the bravery and sacrifice of the Sikh soldiers, who fought to the death defending their post.

Important Points

  • Significance of the Battle of Plassey:
  • It marked the beginning of British political control in India.
  • The British gained the right to collect revenue in Bengal, enriching the East India Company and strengthening its military presence in India.
  • The victory exposed the weaknesses of Indian rulers, such as lack of unity and internal betrayals, which the British exploited effectively.
  • Consequences of the Battle:
  • It helped the British East India Company to become a major political power in Bengal and eventually in India.
  • The battle ensured the establishment of British supremacy over Indian politics and paved the way for colonization.
18

Who among the following was the founder Chairman of the Central Social Welfare Board?

  1. ((a))

    Sarojini Naidu

  2. ((b))

    Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

  3. ((c))

    Somnath Lahiri

  4. ((d))

    Durgabai Deshmukh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Durgabai Deshmukh

The correct answer is Durgabai Deshmukh.

Key Points

  • Durgabai Deshmukh was the founder Chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB), established in 1953 by the Government of India to address the welfare needs of marginalized groups, especially women and children.
  • The establishment of the CSWB was part of a broader social reform initiative post-independence to ensure a more inclusive welfare framework in India.
  • As the Chairperson, Durgabai Deshmukh played a pivotal role in setting up the foundational framework for the board, focusing on women's empowerment, child welfare, and community development.
  • She was known for her advocacy in promoting education and social welfare initiatives, which were key components of the board’s mission.
  • The board operates through various voluntary organizations across the country, implementing welfare schemes and programs for the upliftment of women, children, and underprivileged sections of society.

Additional Information

  • Durgabai Deshmukh:
  • Born on 15 July 1909 in Rajamahendravaram, Andhra Pradesh, she was an Indian freedom fighter, social reformer, and educationist.
  • She founded the Andhra Mahila Sabha in 1937, which became a leading organization for women's education and welfare.
  • She was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and played a significant role in drafting the Indian Constitution.
  • Durgabai Deshmukh was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1975 for her contributions to social work.
  • Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB):
  • Established in 1953 by the Government of India to promote social welfare programs and support voluntary organizations.
  • The board focuses on women’s empowerment, child welfare, family counseling, and community development.
  • It collaborates with state governments and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to implement its programs effectively.
  • Other Options:
  • Sarojini Naidu: Known as the Nightingale of India, she was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress and the first woman governor of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh). However, she was not associated with the CSWB.
  • Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: He was the founder of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh and played an influential role in Indian politics but was not associated with the CSWB.
  • Somnath Lahiri: A communist leader and member of the Constituent Assembly, he was not linked to the establishment or operations of the CSWB.

Important Points

  • The CSWB has played a crucial role in implementing welfare programs like Family Counseling Centres, Awareness Generation Programmes, and Short Stay Homes for women.
  • Durgabai Deshmukh's contributions have set the foundation for many modern social welfare initiatives in India.
  • The board continues to work closely with NGOs and state governments, ensuring the upliftment of underprivileged communities.
19

Which of the following crops is produced during the Zaid season?

  1. ((a))

    Maize

  2. ((b))

    soyabean

  3. ((c))

    Cucumber

  4. ((d))

    Peanuts

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cucumber

The correct answer is Cucumber.

Key Points

  • Zaid season is a short cropping season in India that falls between the Rabi and Kharif seasons. It typically starts in March and ends in June.
  • Cucumber is one of the major crops grown during the Zaid season due to its short growing period and adaptability to the warm and dry conditions of this season.
  • Other crops commonly cultivated in the Zaid season include watermelon, muskmelon, bitter gourd, pumpkin, and fodder crops. These crops are well-suited to the climatic conditions of the Zaid season.
  • Cucumber is a warm-season crop that thrives in temperatures ranging from 18°C to 30°C, making it ideal for cultivation during this time.
  • The Zaid season is characterized by the availability of irrigation facilities, as the crops grown during this period rely on artificial watering since the monsoon rains have not yet arrived.

Additional Information

  • Cucumber:
  • Cucumber is a fruit that belongs to the gourd family (Cucurbitaceae).
  • It is known for its high water content, making it a hydrating and refreshing crop during the hot Zaid season.
  • It is widely grown across India, especially in states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Maharashtra.
  • Cucumber is used in various forms, including salads, pickles, and beverages.
  • It is a source of essential nutrients like Vitamin K, potassium, and antioxidants.
  • Zaid Cropping Season:
  • The Zaid season is an interim agricultural period between the Rabi (winter) and Kharif (monsoon) seasons.
  • This season primarily relies on irrigation systems since it occurs during the summer months when rainfall is minimal.
  • Crops grown during the Zaid season are usually short-duration and heat-tolerant.
  • Common Zaid crops include vegetables, fruits, and fodder crops such as watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, and maize.
  • Other Options Explained:
  • Maize: Although maize can be grown during the Zaid season, it is primarily a Kharif crop, grown during the monsoon season due to its higher water requirements.
  • Soybean: Soybean is a Kharif crop as well and is sown during the rainy season, making it unsuitable for the Zaid season.
  • Peanuts: Peanuts are typically grown as Kharif crops but can also be cultivated in the Rabi season under suitable conditions. They are not a primary Zaid crop.

Important Points

  • Watermelon and Muskmelon: These fruits, like cucumber, are high in water content and are also grown during the Zaid season to meet the demand for refreshing summer fruits.
  • Fodder Crops: Crops like Berseem and Sudan Grass are cultivated in the Zaid season to ensure the availability of livestock feed throughout the year.
  • The Zaid season plays a crucial role in utilizing irrigation resources effectively and ensuring year-round agricultural productivity.
  • Farmers often choose crops for the Zaid season that have market demand during the summer months, ensuring better economic returns.
20

What is the approximate length of the Godavari River?

  1. ((a))

    2500 km

  2. ((b))

    1500 km

  3. ((c))

    500 km

  4. ((d))

    1000 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1500 km

The correct answer is 1500 km.

Key Points

  • The Godavari River is the second-longest river in India after the Ganga and is approximately 1500 km long.
  • It originates from the Trimbakeshwar area in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows eastward towards the Bay of Bengal.
  • Its basin spans across several states, including Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, making it one of the most important rivers for water resources in peninsular India.
  • The river is often referred to as the "Dakshina Ganga" or the Ganges of the South due to its significance in culture, agriculture, and economy.
  • The Godavari River serves as a lifeline for millions of people, providing water for drinking, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.

Additional Information

  • Geography of the Godavari River:
  • The river originates at an altitude of 1,067 meters in the Western Ghats near Nashik, Maharashtra.
  • It flows through a wide plateau, forming fertile alluvial plains before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river has a delta that supports extensive agriculture, particularly rice cultivation, in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • Tributaries of the Godavari:
  • Its major tributaries include the Pravara, Manjira, Purna, Penganga, Indravati, Sabari, and Pranhita.
  • The tributaries contribute to the river's vast water volume, making it vital for irrigation and hydropower.
  • Economic and Cultural Importance:
  • The river basin is a hub of economic activities, including agriculture, aquaculture, and fisheries.
  • It holds religious significance, with many pilgrimage sites like Trimbakeshwar and Rajahmundry situated along its banks.
  • The Kumbh Mela is celebrated every 12 years at Nashik, attracting millions of devotees to the river.
  • Environmental Concerns:
  • The river faces challenges like pollution, deforestation in its basin, and reduced water flow due to unsustainable practices.
  • Efforts like the National Mission for Clean Ganga aim to address such issues, although similar attention is needed for Godavari.

Important Points

  • Godavari Basin:
  • The basin covers an area of about 312,812 square kilometers, accounting for nearly 10% of India's total geographical area.
  • It is one of the largest river basins in India and supports diverse ecosystems, ranging from forests to wetlands.
  • Important Dams and Projects:
  • Several major projects, such as the Polavaram Dam, Jayakwadi Dam, and Sriram Sagar Project, are constructed on the Godavari River.
  • These projects are crucial for water supply, flood control, and electricity generation in the region.
  • Hydropower Potential:
  • The Godavari River basin has a significant hydropower potential, contributing to renewable energy generation in India.
  • Hydropower projects also help in managing water resources efficiently for irrigation and drinking purposes.
21

Rovers Cup is associated with which of the following sports?

  1. ((a))

    Football

  2. ((b))

    Cricket

  3. ((c))

    Hockey

  4. ((d))

    Volleyball

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Football

The correct answer is Football.

Key Points

  • The Rovers Cup is one of the oldest football tournaments in India, first held in 1891.
  • It was organized by the Western India Football Association (WIFA) and played in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • The tournament played a crucial role in popularizing football in India during the British era and post-independence.
  • Some of the most renowned clubs in Indian football history, such as Mohun Bagan, East Bengal, and Mohammedan Sporting, have participated in the Rovers Cup.
  • The tournament was discontinued after 2001 due to financial and administrative constraints, but it remains a significant part of Indian football history.

Additional Information

  • About the Rovers Cup:
  • The Rovers Cup was initially dominated by British teams in its early years, reflecting the colonial era.
  • Post-independence, Indian football clubs began to excel in the tournament, showcasing the growth of local football talent.
  • The last Rovers Cup was held in 2001, where Mohun Bagan emerged as the winner.
  • Football in India:
  • Football is one of the most popular sports in India, especially in states like West Bengal, Goa, Kerala, and Northeastern states.
  • India's football history includes the Durand Cup (the oldest football tournament in Asia) and the Santosh Trophy, alongside the Rovers Cup.
  • The All India Football Federation (AIFF) is the governing body for football in India.
  • India's national football team has participated in various international tournaments, such as the AFC Asian Cup and the SAFF Championship.
  • Other Options Explained:
  • Cricket: The most popular sport in India, governed by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). However, it is unrelated to the Rovers Cup.
  • Hockey: Considered India's national sport, with tournaments like the Beighton Cup and Hockey India League, but unrelated to the Rovers Cup.
  • Volleyball: A growing sport in India with tournaments like the Pro Volleyball League, but it is not connected to the Rovers Cup.

Important Points

  • Key Milestones in Rovers Cup History:
  • The first Indian team to win the Rovers Cup was Mohun Bagan in 1923.
  • East Bengal remains one of the most successful teams in the tournament's history, with multiple titles.
  • The tournament's decline was attributed to the rise of other football leagues and financial struggles in Indian football.
  • Indian Football Development:
  • In recent years, the Indian Super League (ISL) has emerged as a prominent football league, aiming to revitalize the sport in India.
  • Grassroots initiatives and youth development programs have been launched to nurture football talent in the country.
  • India hosted the FIFA U-17 World Cup in 2017, marking a significant milestone for Indian football on the global stage.
22

Which festival among the following is celebrated in Manipur?

  1. ((a))

    Hornbill

  2. ((b))

     Anthrium

  3. ((c))

    Nongkrem

  4. ((d))

    Yaoshang

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Yaoshang

The correct answer is Yaoshang.

Key Points

  • Yaoshang is a significant festival celebrated in the northeastern state of Manipur, India. It is one of the most vibrant cultural events in the region.
  • The festival is celebrated for five days, starting from the full moon day of Phalguna month (February-March) according to the Meitei lunar calendar.
  • It is often referred to as the Holi of Manipur due to its colorful celebrations involving cultural performances, dances, and sports activities.
  • The festival begins with the burning of a thatched hut, known as Yaoshang Mei Thaba, symbolizing the start of the celebrations.
  • During Yaoshang, people participate in a popular activity called Thabal Chongba, a traditional Manipuri folk dance performed under the moonlight.

Additional Information

  • Hornbill Festival:
  • The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in Nagaland, not Manipur. It is held every year from 1st to 10th December at Kisama Heritage Village, near Kohima.
  • Named after the Hornbill bird, the festival showcases Naga culture, heritage, and traditions through music, dance, and art.
  • Anthrium Festival:
  • The Anthrium Festival is celebrated in Mizoram, not Manipur.
  • It is organized to promote the growth and export of Anthurium flowers and to celebrate the floral diversity of the state.
  • Nongkrem Festival:
  • The Nongkrem Festival is celebrated by the Khasi tribe in Meghalaya, not Manipur.
  • It is a harvest festival held in November and involves traditional rituals and dances to thank the almighty for a good harvest.
  • Yaoshang Festival:
  • The Yaoshang Festival is unique to Manipur and is similar to the festival of Holi celebrated in other parts of India.
  • It is marked by sports events, cultural performances, and the participation of people of all ages.
  • The celebrations reflect the rich cultural heritage of the Meitei community in Manipur.

Important Points

  • Key Distinction: Each festival mentioned is associated with specific states and communities in India, making them culturally unique.
  • Hornbill Festival: Nagaland and its focus on Naga tribal culture.
  • Anthrium Festival: Mizoram and its emphasis on floral diversity.
  • Nongkrem Festival: Meghalaya and its harvest traditions.
  • Yaoshang Festival: Manipur and its vibrant Holi-like celebrations, deeply rooted in Meitei culture.
23

Which of the following is the primary consumer in a food chain?

  1. ((a))

    Snake

  2. ((b))

    Grasshopper

  3. ((c))

    Owl

  4. ((d))

    Tiger

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Grasshopper

The correct answer is Grasshopper.

Key Points

  • In a food chain, primary consumers are organisms that feed directly on producers (plants). Grasshoppers are herbivores and primarily consume plants, making them primary consumers.
  • Primary consumers occupy the second trophic level in the food chain, as they depend on producers (such as grass and other vegetation) for energy.
  • Grasshoppers play a crucial role in transferring energy from the producer level to higher trophic levels, such as secondary consumers (e.g., snakes).
  • Other options such as snakes, owls, and tigers are carnivores or omnivores and belong to higher trophic levels. They are not primary consumers.
  • Since primary consumers are vital to the ecosystem for energy flow, grasshoppers serve as an essential link between producers and higher-level consumers.

Additional Information

  • Food Chain:
  • A food chain represents the sequence of energy transfer in an ecosystem, starting from producers to various levels of consumers.
  • The primary level consists of producers like plants, which produce energy via photosynthesis.
  • Primary consumers (herbivores) feed on producers, followed by secondary consumers (carnivores or omnivores that eat herbivores) and tertiary consumers (predators).
  • Characteristics of Trophic Levels:
  • Producers: Plants and algae that synthesize food using sunlight.
  • Primary Consumers: Herbivores like grasshoppers, deer, and rabbits that feed directly on producers.
  • Secondary Consumers: Carnivores like snakes that feed on herbivores.
  • Tertiary Consumers: Top predators like tigers and owls that feed on secondary consumers.
  • Importance of Grasshoppers:
  • Grasshoppers contribute to nutrient cycling by breaking down plant material.
  • They serve as prey for many secondary consumers, supporting biodiversity in ecosystems.
  • Grasshoppers are found globally and adapt to various habitats, making them integral to numerous food chains.
  • Examples of Primary Consumers:
  • Other examples include cows, deer, rabbits, and caterpillars, which feed on plants and contribute to energy transfer in ecosystems.
  • Primary consumers are often susceptible to changes in vegetation due to climate, human activities, and environmental factors.

Important Points

  • Snake: Snakes are secondary consumers as they feed on primary consumers like grasshoppers and rodents.
  • Owl: Owls are tertiary consumers, preying on secondary consumers such as rodents and small birds.
  • Tiger: Tigers are apex predators and occupy the topmost level of the food chain.
  • Energy Transfer: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, making primary consumers crucial for maintaining energy flow.
24

Which of the following forts is not located in Rajasthan?

  1. ((a))

    Gugor Fort

  2. ((b))

    Khejadla Fort

  3. ((c))

    Chunar Fort

  4. ((d))

    Bhatner Fort

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chunar Fort

The correct answer is Chunar Fort.

Key Points

  • Chunar Fort is not located in Rajasthan. It is situated in the state of Uttar Pradesh, in the Mirzapur district, near the Ganges River.
  • The fort has great historical significance and dates back to the 11th century. It is believed to have been established by King Vikramaditya of Ujjain for his brother Bharthari.
  • Chunar Fort is known for its strategic location and has been ruled by various dynasties, including the Mughals, British, and Marathas.
  • In contrast, the other forts mentioned in the options—Gugor Fort, Khejadla Fort, and Bhatner Fort—are located in Rajasthan and hold historical significance in the region.
  • Rajasthan is renowned for its numerous forts and palaces, which reflect its rich cultural heritage and history. Examples include Amber Fort, Mehrangarh Fort, and Jaisalmer Fort.

Additional Information

  • Gugor Fort:
  • Located in Rajasthan, Gugor Fort is situated in the Baran district.
  • It is associated with the Chauhan dynasty and showcases traditional Rajput architecture.
  • The fort is known for its historical significance and scenic surroundings.
  • Khejadla Fort:
  • Khejadla Fort is a heritage property located in Jodhpur, Rajasthan.
  • It is known for its Marwari architecture and has been converted into a luxury hotel.
  • It reflects the royal grandeur and historical importance of Rajasthan.
  • Bhatner Fort:
  • Bhatner Fort, situated in Hanumangarh, Rajasthan, is one of the oldest forts in India.
  • It was built by the Bhatti Rajputs around 1700 years ago.
  • The fort is strategically located on the banks of the Ghaggar River.
  • Chunar Fort:
  • Chunar Fort is located in Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh, and not in Rajasthan.
  • It has served as a military stronghold for various rulers, including the Mughals and British.
  • The fort is famous for its association with prominent historical figures like Sher Shah Suri and Warren Hastings.
  • Rajasthan and its forts:
  • Rajasthan is known as the "Land of Kings" and is famous for its magnificent forts and palaces.
  • Some of the most famous forts in Rajasthan include Amber Fort, Mehrangarh Fort, Jaisalmer Fort, and Chittorgarh Fort.
  • These forts reflect the region's rich cultural heritage, architectural brilliance, and historical significance.

Important Points

  • Rajasthan Forts and UNESCO Recognition:
  • The Hill Forts of Rajasthan, including Amber, Chittorgarh, Jaisalmer, and Kumbhalgarh Forts, are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
  • These forts represent the architectural and cultural splendor of the Rajput era.
  • Historical Importance of Chunar Fort:
  • Chunar Fort's unique location along the Ganges River made it a key strategic point for rulers.
  • It has been under the control of rulers like Sher Shah Suri, the Mughals, and the British East India Company.
  • The fort is also known for its connection to legends and folklore, including the tales of King Bharthari.
25

Which of the following is not a source of fresh water?

  1. ((a))

    Rivers

  2. ((b))

    Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Lakes

  4. ((d))

    Pond

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ocean

The correct answer is Ocean.

Key Points

  • Freshwater sources include rivers, lakes, ponds, and streams. These water bodies are characterized by low salt content (less than 0.5% salinity), making them suitable for drinking and irrigation.
  • Oceans are not considered freshwater sources because they contain a high level of salinity (approximately 3.5% salt). This makes ocean water unsuitable for direct consumption or agricultural use without desalination processes.
  • Rivers are important sources of freshwater and provide water for drinking, agriculture, industry, and hydroelectric power generation.
  • Lakes, especially freshwater lakes, are natural reservoirs that store water for various uses such as drinking water supply, recreation, and ecosystem support.
  • Ponds are smaller water bodies that often provide localized sources of freshwater, supporting biodiversity and small-scale irrigation.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Ocean.

Additional Information

  • Rivers:
  • Rivers are flowing bodies of freshwater that often originate in mountains or hills and eventually drain into seas or oceans.
  • They play a critical role in sustaining human life by providing water for consumption, irrigation, navigation, and energy generation.
  • Examples of major rivers include the Amazon, Nile, Ganges, and Mississippi Rivers.
  • Lakes:
  • Lakes are large standing bodies of freshwater surrounded by land.
  • They serve as natural reservoirs, controlling floods, supporting aquatic ecosystems, and providing water for nearby communities.
  • Examples include Lake Superior, Lake Victoria, and Lake Baikal.
  • Ponds:
  • Ponds are smaller and shallower water bodies compared to lakes.
  • They support localized ecosystems, provide water for irrigation, and serve as habitats for diverse flora and fauna.
  • Ponds are often artificial, created for agricultural purposes or as decorative features.
  • Oceans:
  • Oceans cover approximately 71% of the Earth's surface and contain saline water.
  • Desalination plants are required to convert ocean water into potable water, which is an energy-intensive process.
  • Major oceans include the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, and Arctic Oceans.
  • Freshwater vs. Saltwater:
  • Freshwater contains minimal salt (less than 0.5% salinity), while saltwater, such as that found in oceans, has higher salinity levels (around 3.5% salinity).
  • Freshwater is essential for human consumption, agriculture, and industrial use, whereas saltwater requires desalination for similar purposes.

Important Points

  • Global Freshwater Availability:
  • Freshwater constitutes only 2.5% of Earth's total water, with most of it locked in glaciers and ice caps.
  • Accessible freshwater from rivers, lakes, and groundwater accounts for less than 1% of Earth's water.
  • Desalination:
  • Desalination is the process of removing salts and minerals from saline water to produce freshwater.
  • This technology is widely used in arid regions like the Middle East and parts of North Africa.
  • It is energy-intensive and expensive compared to using natural freshwater sources.
  • Conservation of Freshwater:
  • Freshwater conservation is critical due to increasing demands from agriculture, industry, and domestic consumption.
  • Methods like rainwater harvesting, efficient irrigation techniques, and wastewater recycling help preserve freshwater resources.
26

In which year was the Subsidiary Alliance removed from Awadh?

  1. ((a))

    In 1827

  2. ((b))

    In 1845

  3. ((c))

    In 1856

  4. ((d))

    In 1801

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In 1856

The correct answer is In 1856.

Key Points

  • The Subsidiary Alliance system was a political strategy introduced by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India, during his tenure from 1798 to 1805.
  • The system required Indian princely states to accept a British resident in their courts and maintain British troops at their expense, effectively reducing their sovereignty.
  • Awadh, one of the major princely states, was forced to accept the Subsidiary Alliance in 1801, under the pretext of providing protection and maintaining order.
  • By 1856, the British East India Company, under Lord Dalhousie, annexed Awadh into British India citing misgovernance, thereby removing the Subsidiary Alliance arrangement in the region.
  • The annexation of Awadh in 1856 played a significant role in the unrest leading to the Indian Revolt of 1857, as it alienated local rulers and citizens.

Additional Information

  • Subsidiary Alliance:
  • Introduced by Lord Wellesley, the system aimed to expand British influence in India without direct annexation.
  • States under the alliance had to maintain a British force and pay for its upkeep, or cede territory in lieu of financial support.
  • It effectively reduced the power of Indian rulers, as they were not allowed to form alliances or declare war without British consent.
  • Major states that accepted the alliance include Hyderabad, Mysore, Tanjore, and Awadh.
  • Annexation of Awadh:
  • Awadh was annexed in 1856 under the policy of Doctrine of Lapse and allegations of misgovernance.
  • Its last ruler, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, was dethroned, and the kingdom was brought under direct British control.
  • The annexation disrupted traditional governance and economic systems, leading to widespread resentment among the people.
  • Impact of Subsidiary Alliance:
  • The alliance paved the way for British dominance over Indian princely states, making them dependent on British military and administrative support.
  • It was instrumental in establishing British supremacy in India, but also caused dissatisfaction among Indian rulers and subjects.
  • This dissatisfaction contributed to the buildup of resistance, culminating in the 1857 Revolt.
  • Indian Revolt of 1857:
  • The annexation of Awadh and other princely states under policies like Subsidiary Alliance and the Doctrine of Lapse were among the key causes of the revolt.
  • The revolt marked the first significant challenge to British rule, involving widespread participation from soldiers, peasants, and displaced rulers.
  • The revolt led to changes in British policies, including the abolition of the East India Company and direct governance of India by the British Crown.

Important Points

  • Doctrine of Lapse:
  • This policy was used by the British to annex Indian states where rulers died without a direct heir.
  • Prominent states annexed under this policy included Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
  • The policy was introduced by Lord Dalhousie, further fueling resentment among Indian rulers.
  • Lord Dalhousie:
  • He served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
  • His policies of annexation and modernization, including railways and postal systems, had long-term impacts on India.
  • However, his aggressive expansionist policies contributed to the unrest leading to the 1857 Revolt.
  • British Governance Post-1857:
  • After the revolt, the British Crown took direct control of India, marking the beginning of the British Raj.
  • The Governor-General was replaced by a Viceroy, representing the British monarch in India.
  • Policies became more cautious, focusing on maintaining stability and preventing further revolts.
27

Which of the following does not come in the Concurrent List of the Government?

  1. ((a))

    Acquisition

  2. ((b))

    Education

  3. ((c))

    Irrigation

  4. ((d))

    Forest

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Irrigation

The correct answer is Irrigation.

Key Points

  • The Concurrent List in the Constitution of India contains subjects on which both the Union and State Governments can legislate. However, in case of conflict, the Union law prevails.
  • Acquisition refers to the process of acquiring property for public purposes and is listed under the Concurrent List. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • Education was transferred to the Concurrent List through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This allows both the Union and State Governments to make laws on education. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • Forests also fall under the Concurrent List, allowing joint governance for their preservation and management. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • Irrigation is a State List subject as per the Indian Constitution. It is primarily managed and legislated by State Governments. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
  • It divides the legislative powers between the Union and State Governments into three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • The Union List contains subjects of national importance (e.g., defence, foreign affairs). Only the Union Government can legislate on these subjects.
  • The State List contains subjects of local or state importance (e.g., police, public health). Only State Governments can legislate on these subjects.
  • The Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State Governments (e.g., education, marriage, and bankruptcy).
  • Forests in the Concurrent List:
  • Forests were originally part of the State List but were moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
  • This change was made to ensure uniform policies for forest conservation and management across India.
  • Both the Union and State Governments now share responsibility for legislation and implementation regarding forests.
  • Education in the Concurrent List:
  • Education was also shifted to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
  • This shift allows the Union Government to play a greater role in developing national education standards and policies.
  • The change has facilitated large-scale national initiatives like the Right to Education Act, 2009.
  • Irrigation as a State Subject:
  • Irrigation is a subject under the State List, meaning that state governments have the primary authority to legislate and manage it.
  • States undertake irrigation projects, manage water resources, and regulate their use within their boundaries.
  • Examples include major irrigation projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam in Punjab and the Hirakud Dam in Odisha, which are managed at the state level.

Important Points

  • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976:
  • This amendment is considered the most comprehensive revision of the Indian Constitution.
  • It transferred several subjects, including Education, Forests, and Weights and Measures, from the State List to the Concurrent List.
  • The change aimed to strengthen the role of the Union Government in addressing issues of national importance.
  • Water Management and Irrigation:
  • While irrigation is a State Subject, inter-state river disputes are addressed under the Union List (e.g., Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956).
  • The Union Government intervenes only in cases of disputes between states regarding river water sharing.
28

The Union Budget of India is prepared for the next financial year which is _____.

  1. ((a))

    from April to March

  2. ((b))

    from June to May

  3. ((c))

    from February to January

  4. ((d))

    from January to December

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

from April to March

The correct answer is from April to March.

Key Points

  • The Union Budget of India is prepared annually and is presented by the Finance Minister to the Parliament. It outlines the government's financial plans for the upcoming financial year.
  • The financial year in India runs from April 1st to March 31st of the following year. This is the period for which the Union Budget is prepared.
  • Each financial year is referred to as a "Fiscal Year" and is denoted by the starting and ending year (e.g., FY 2023-24).
  • The preparation of the Union Budget involves consultations between various ministries and departments, with the Ministry of Finance coordinating the process.
  • The Union Budget is crucial for determining tax policies, allocation of funds to various sectors, and projecting revenues and expenditures for the financial year.

Additional Information

  • Union Budget Process:
  • The Union Budget is presented in two parts: the Expenditure Budget and the Receipts Budget.
  • It includes provisions for taxation, government spending, subsidies, public sector investments, and fiscal deficit targets.
  • The Union Budget is usually presented on February 1st, allowing sufficient time for its approval before the new financial year begins.
  • The Finance Bill and the Appropriation Bill are key legislative documents associated with the Union Budget.
  • Financial Year in India:
  • The financial year concept was adopted in India during British rule and is still followed.
  • It ensures uniformity in accounting and auditing practices across government and private sectors.
  • Many countries, including the United Kingdom, also follow the same fiscal year period.
  • Highlights of Union Budget:
  • The Union Budget outlines policy priorities such as infrastructure development, healthcare, education, defense, and agriculture.
  • It provides a roadmap for economic growth and reflects the government’s focus on critical areas like job creation and poverty alleviation.
  • Global Practices:
  • Unlike India, some countries like the United States follow a financial year from October 1st to September 30th.
  • Other countries like Japan and South Korea follow a financial year similar to India, running from April to March.

Important Points

  • Union Budget Presentation:
  • The Union Budget is presented by the Finance Minister in the Lok Sabha.
  • It is followed by detailed discussions and debates in Parliament before final approval.
  • Key Provisions:
  • The Union Budget includes various provisions for direct taxes, indirect taxes, and subsidies.
  • It also specifies allocations for centrally sponsored schemes and other flagship programs.
  • Budget Highlights:
  • The Union Budget provides insights into the government's economic agenda and fiscal policies for the upcoming year.
  • It plays a critical role in guiding the nation's macroeconomic stability and growth prospects.
29

What is the official mascot of the 19th Asian Games to be held in China?

  1. ((a))

    Three robots

  2. ((b))

    Two robots

  3. ((c))

    Four robots

  4. ((d))

    Five robots

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Three robots

The correct answer is Three robots.

Key Points

  • The official mascot of the 19th Asian Games, held in Hangzhou, China, in 2022, is a set of three robots.
  • The three mascots are named Congcong, Lianlian, and Chenchen, each representing a unique aspect of Hangzhou's rich cultural heritage and technological advancements.
  • Congcong represents the archaeological ruins of Liangzhu City, showcasing the region's ancient civilization and cultural brilliance.
  • Lianlian symbolizes the lush greenery and ecological environment of the West Lake, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Hangzhou.
  • Chenchen represents the Grand Canal, which is known for its historical and cultural significance in China.
  • The mascots emphasize the theme of "Smart Hangzhou, Smart Asian Games", reflecting the integration of tradition with modern technology.

Additional Information

  • About the 19th Asian Games:
  • The 19th Asian Games took place in Hangzhou, China, originally scheduled for 2022, but postponed to 2023 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The theme of the Asian Games was to showcase technological advancements and emphasize sustainability.
  • It featured 40 sports and over 10,000 athletes from 45 countries across Asia.
  • Significance of the Mascots:
  • The mascots were designed to highlight the rich culture, history, and modernity of Hangzhou, which is one of China's most historic and technologically advanced cities.
  • The usage of robots as mascots reflects the integration of artificial intelligence and innovation in the Games.
  • Each mascot's design and name carry profound meaning, connecting history, nature, and technology.
  • Other Examples of Asian Games Mascots:
  • 2018 Asian Games (Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia): The mascots were Bhin Bhin, Atung, and Kaka, representing the cultural diversity of Indonesia.
  • 2014 Asian Games (Incheon, South Korea): The mascots were three harbor seals named Barame, Chumuro, and Vichuon, symbolizing the values of peace and harmony.
  • 2010 Asian Games (Guangzhou, China): The mascots were five sporty goats named A Xiang, A He, A Ru, A Yi, and Le Yangyang, representing the city's nickname "City of Goats."
  • Important Characteristics of the Mascots:
  • The mascots were created using advanced 3D modeling technology to reflect their futuristic design.
  • Their names—Congcong, Lianlian, and Chenchen—are inspired by local landmarks and cultural symbols, showcasing Hangzhou's historic and technological significance.
  • Their vibrant colors and robotic features symbolize progress, innovation, and sustainability.
30

The book titled 'Cricket Drona' is based on the coach:

  1. ((a))

    Sunil Gavaskar 

  2. ((b))

    Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe

  3. ((c))

     Dilip Vengasarkar

  4. ((d))

    Kapil Dev

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe

The correct answer is Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe.

Key Points

  • The book titled "Cricket Drona" is based on the life and contributions of Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe, who was a renowned cricket coach in India.
  • Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe, also known as "Vasu Paranjpe," played a pivotal role in mentoring some of India's most celebrated cricketers, including Sunil Gavaskar, Dilip Vengsarkar, and Sachin Tendulkar.
  • The book "Cricket Drona" was authored by Anand Vasu and Jatin Paranjpe, the latter being Vasu Paranjpe's son and himself a former Indian cricketer.
  • Vasu Paranjpe is widely regarded as one of the best cricketing minds in India and was instrumental in shaping the careers of several young players through his strategic insights and coaching expertise.
  • The book provides an in-depth account of Paranjpe's journey, his philosophy of coaching, and his profound impact on Indian cricket, especially in Mumbai's cricketing circles.

Additional Information

  • Vasu Paranjpe's Background:
  • Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe was born in 1938 and had a significant cricketing career as a player before transitioning into coaching.
  • He represented Bombay (now Mumbai) in the Ranji Trophy and was known for his leadership and tactical acumen.
  • After his playing career, Paranjpe dedicated himself to mentoring young cricketers, focusing on their technique, mental strength, and sportsmanship.
  • Impact on Indian Cricket:
  • Vasu Paranjpe was a key figure in Mumbai cricket, which has historically been the backbone of Indian cricket due to its dominance in domestic tournaments.
  • He was a mentor to legendary players such as Sunil Gavaskar, who credited Paranjpe for shaping his approach to the game.
  • His coaching philosophy emphasized discipline, teamwork, and a deep understanding of the game, which influenced generations of cricketers.
  • Authors of "Cricket Drona":
  • The book was co-authored by Anand Vasu, a seasoned cricket journalist, and Jatin Paranjpe, Vasu Paranjpe's son.
  • Jatin Paranjpe himself was an Indian cricketer who played for Mumbai and represented India in ODIs.
  • The book combines personal anecdotes, professional insights, and historical context to paint a vivid picture of Paranjpe's contributions.
  • Mumbai Cricket's Legacy:
  • Mumbai has been a powerhouse in Indian cricket, winning the Ranji Trophy a record number of times.
  • Coaches like Vasu Paranjpe played an integral role in maintaining Mumbai's cricketing supremacy by nurturing young talent.
  • The city's cricket culture, characterized by intense competition and a focus on skill development, owes much to mentors like Paranjpe.
31

Who among the following musicians is a famous flute player?

  1. ((a))

    Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia

  2. ((b))

    Pandit Ravi Shankar

  3. ((c))

    Ustad Amjad Ali Khan

  4. ((d))

    Ustad Bismillah Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia

The correct answer is Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia.

Key Points

  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is one of the most renowned flute players of India, known globally for his mastery of the Indian classical bamboo flute.
  • He was born on 1 July 1938, in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is famous for his unique style of playing, blending the North Indian classical music tradition with creative innovations.
  • He has been honored with several prestigious awards, including the Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2000, India's second-highest civilian award.
  • He is also a co-founder of the Brij Bhushan Kabra and Hariprasad Chaurasia School of Music in Rotterdam, Netherlands, which promotes Indian classical music worldwide.

Additional Information

  • Pandit Ravi Shankar:
  • Pandit Ravi Shankar was a world-famous sitar player and composer.
  • He popularized Indian classical music internationally and collaborated with artists like George Harrison of The Beatles.
  • He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, in 1999.
  • Ustad Amjad Ali Khan:
  • Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is a legendary sarod player from India.
  • He belongs to the famous Bangash lineage and has been a torchbearer of Indian classical music.
  • He has received the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan for his contributions to music.
  • Ustad Bismillah Khan:
  • Ustad Bismillah Khan was a legendary shehnai player from India.
  • He is credited with elevating the shehnai to the status of a classical instrument in Indian music.
  • He was honored with the Bharat Ratna in 2001.
  • Bamboo Flute:
  • The bamboo flute is one of the oldest musical instruments in the world, with its origins in India.
  • It is used in Indian classical music, both Hindustani and Carnatic traditions.
  • The flute is known for its soulful and melodious sound, and artists like Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia have played a significant role in popularizing it globally.
32

Which of the following is a folk musical instrument played during Bhangra in Punjab? 

  1. ((a))

    Tumbi

  2. ((b))

    Chikara

  3. ((c))

    Sarinda 

  4. ((d))

    Sambal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tumbi

The correct answer is Tumbi.

Key Points

  • Tumbi is a traditional folk musical instrument of Punjab, India, and is widely used in performing Bhangra, a popular and energetic dance form of the state.
  • The Tumbi is a single-string plucked instrument and is known for its high-pitched and rhythmic sound, which perfectly complements the lively beats of Bhangra music.
  • This instrument is made using natural materials like a wooden stick for the neck and a resonator made of a dried gourd or wood. A metallic string is attached to it, which is plucked to produce sound.
  • It is simple in design and construction but plays a significant role in traditional Punjabi music, especially during festive occasions and celebrations.
  • The Tumbi has been popularized by Punjabi folk musicians and has also been incorporated into modern Punjabi pop and Bhangra music.

Additional Information

  • Chikara:
  • The Chikara is a bowed string instrument used in folk music, particularly in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. While it is a folk instrument, it is not traditionally associated with Bhangra music in Punjab.
  • This instrument has two main strings and is played with a bow. Its sound is deeper and more melodic compared to the Tumbi.
  • Sarinda:
  • Sarinda is a traditional stringed instrument used in various Indian folk music traditions, including in Punjab. It is played with a bow and has a hollow body resembling a lute.
  • Although used in Punjabi folk music, it is not as prominently linked to Bhangra as the Tumbi.
  • Sambal:
  • Sambal is a percussion instrument commonly used in Maharashtra’s folk music, especially Lavani performances. It consists of two drum pieces that are struck together to produce rhythmic beats.
  • It is not associated with Punjab or Bhangra music.
  • Significance of Bhangra Music:
  • Bhangra music combines traditional instruments like the Tumbi, Dhol, Chimta, Algoza, and modern instruments to create energetic rhythms.
  • It plays a crucial role in celebrations like harvest festivals, weddings, and cultural events in Punjab.
  • Modern adaptations of Bhangra music have gained international recognition, incorporating elements of pop and hip-hop music.

Important Points

  • The Tumbi is highly regarded as a symbol of Punjabi musical heritage and is often featured in Bhangra performances to maintain its traditional essence.
  • Prominent Punjabi artists, such as Lal Chand Yamla Jatt, have contributed significantly to popularizing the Tumbi through their music.
  • While other instruments like the Chimta and Algoza also accompany Bhangra music, the Tumbi remains the most iconic instrument due to its unique sound.
33

Who among the following is the head of the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    Governor of India

  2. ((b))

    Prime Minister of India

  3. ((c))

    President of India

  4. ((d))

    Vice President of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Prime Minister of India

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

Key Points

  • The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government and holds the most powerful executive position in the Indian political system.
  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India and is usually the leader of the party or coalition that has a majority in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament).
  • The Prime Minister serves as the chief advisor to the President, is the head of the Council of Ministers, and plays a key role in formulating and executing government policies.
  • Under the Indian parliamentary system, the Prime Minister has the authority to allocate portfolios to ministers, lead cabinet meetings, and represent the country in international forums.
  • The position of Prime Minister was established under the provisions of the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Additional Information

  • Role and Responsibilities of the Prime Minister:
  • The Prime Minister is the chief decision-maker in the government and coordinates the functioning of various ministries and departments.
  • He/she is the principal spokesperson of the government and represents India in diplomatic and international matters.
  • The Prime Minister also plays a key role in legislative functions, including introducing bills and policies in Parliament.
  • Comparison with Other Positions:
  • President of India: The President is the ceremonial head of state and acts on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
  • Governor: A Governor is the constitutional head of a state, and their role is limited to the state level.
  • Vice President: The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (upper house of Parliament) but has limited executive powers.
  • Notable Prime Ministers in Indian History:
  • Jawaharlal Nehru: The first Prime Minister of India, who served from 1947 to 1964.
  • Indira Gandhi: The first female Prime Minister of India, known for her strong leadership.
  • Narendra Modi: The current Prime Minister (as of 2023), who has introduced several transformative policies and reforms.
  • Constitutional Articles Related to the Prime Minister:
  • Article 75: Provides for the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers.
  • Article 78: Specifies the duties of the Prime Minister in communicating with the President about decisions of the Council of Ministers.

Important Points

  • Prime Minister's Tenure: There is no fixed term for the Prime Minister, but they serve as long as they have the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
  • Eligibility: To become the Prime Minister, a person must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha and meet the qualifications for membership of Parliament.
  • Oath of Office: The Prime Minister takes an oath of office and secrecy administered by the President of India.
  • Significant Powers: The Prime Minister has the authority to recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President and call for fresh elections.
34

Which factor is not responsible for the moderate population density in Assam?

  1. ((a))

    Abundant rainfall

  2. ((b))

    Mountainous terrain

  3. ((c))

    Low-fertile soil

  4. ((d))

    Rocky terrain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Abundant rainfall

The correct answer is Abundant rainfall.

Key Points

  • Abundant rainfall is a key factor that generally supports higher population density due to its positive impact on agriculture. Assam receives ample rainfall due to the monsoon, which facilitates the growth of crops like rice and tea, both of which are economically significant. Thus, this factor is not responsible for the moderate population density in Assam.
  • Assam's mountainous terrain in some areas, such as near the Himalayan foothills and Karbi Anglong plateau, limits land availability for settlements and agriculture, contributing to moderate population density. Hence, this statement is correct as a factor affecting population density.
  • Low-fertile soil in some regions, caused by excessive rainfall leading to leaching of nutrients, hinders agricultural productivity, thus discouraging dense human settlements. This is a valid factor affecting population density in Assam.
  • The presence of rocky terrain in certain hilly regions further restricts the availability of cultivable land and settlements, thereby reducing population density. This statement is also correct.

Additional Information

  • Geography of Assam:
  • Assam is located in the northeastern part of India and is known for its Brahmaputra Valley, which is rich in alluvial soil.
  • The state receives annual rainfall of 2,000-3,000 mm, making it one of the rainiest states in India.
  • Despite abundant rainfall, frequent flooding and soil erosion due to the Brahmaputra River reduce agricultural productivity in some regions.
  • Demographic Factors:
  • The population density of Assam is approximately 398 people per square kilometer (2011 Census), which is moderate compared to states like Bihar and West Bengal.
  • Rural areas dominate Assam, with over 85% of the population living in villages.
  • Economic Factors:
  • While tea and oil industries are prominent, Assam's economic development is hindered by frequent floods and limited industrialization.
  • Many people depend on agriculture for their livelihood, with rice being the staple crop.
  • Challenges due to Terrain:
  • The hilly and rocky regions in areas like Karbi Anglong and Dima Hasao Districts limit agricultural expansion and human settlements.
  • Accessibility challenges in remote and mountainous areas further restrict population growth in these regions.

Important Points

  • Floods in Assam: Assam faces annual flooding due to the Brahmaputra River, which leads to displacement, loss of life, and damage to agriculture. This disrupts socio-economic activities and limits population density in flood-prone areas.
  • Soil Fertility: While the alluvial plains of the Brahmaputra Valley are fertile, the hilly areas have acidic and less fertile soils, which are not suitable for intensive agriculture.
  • Abundant Rainfall: Although rainfall supports agriculture, excessive and erratic monsoon rains often lead to flooding and waterlogging, negatively affecting human settlement patterns.
  • Tea Industry: Assam is famous for its tea gardens, but these are concentrated in specific regions, leaving vast areas underdeveloped and sparsely populated.
35

______ can be described as infant mortality rate.

  1. ((a))

    Deaths of children under one year of age per 1000 live births

  2. ((b))

    Infant deaths per 1000 live births

  3. ((c))

    Infant deaths per 100 people

  4. ((d))

    Deaths of children under two years of age per 50 people

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deaths of children under one year of age per 1000 live births

The correct answer is Deaths of children under one year of age per 1000 live births.

Key Points

  • The infant mortality rate (IMR) is defined as the number of deaths of children under one year of age per 1000 live births in a given year or region.
  • IMR is considered a crucial indicator of a country's healthcare system's efficiency and the overall development of its population.
  • The calculation of IMR involves dividing the number of infant deaths by the total number of live births, multiplied by 1000.
  • The focus on children under one year is essential because this period is the most vulnerable due to high susceptibility to infections, malnutrition, and birth complications.
  • IMR statistics are widely used in policymaking, especially for improving maternal and child healthcare programs globally and nationally.

Additional Information

  • Factors affecting Infant Mortality Rate:
  • Healthcare access: Limited access to healthcare facilities increases infant mortality.
  • Malnutrition: Poor maternal and infant nutrition are significant contributors to infant deaths.
  • Infectious diseases: Diseases like pneumonia, diarrhea, and malaria are leading causes of infant deaths.
  • Socio-economic factors: Poverty, low education levels, and lack of sanitation directly impact IMR.
  • Global statistics:
  • According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the global IMR dropped from 65 deaths per 1000 live births in 1990 to 29 deaths per 1000 live births in 2020.
  • Regions like Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia still report high IMR due to healthcare disparities.
  • India's Scenario:
  • As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) 2020, India's national IMR was 28 deaths per 1000 live births.
  • States like Kerala and Tamil Nadu have the lowest IMR due to better healthcare infrastructure, while Bihar and Uttar Pradesh report higher IMR.
  • Government Initiatives to Reduce IMR:
  • Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): Aimed at promoting institutional deliveries to reduce infant and maternal mortality.
  • Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS): Provides nutritional support and healthcare to children under six years.
  • National Health Mission (NHM): Focuses on improving maternal and child health outcomes in India.
36

Which of the following is not a tributary of the Ganga?

  1. ((a))

    Chambal

  2. ((b))

    Gandak

  3. ((c))

    Alaknanda

  4. ((d))

    Kosi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chambal

The correct answer is Chambal.

Key Points

  • The Chambal River is not a tributary of the Ganga. It is a major tributary of the Yamuna River, which itself is a significant tributary of the Ganga.
  • The Chambal originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna.
  • The Gandak River is a northern tributary of the Ganga, originating in Nepal and flowing through Bihar before merging with the Ganga.
  • The Alaknanda River is a significant tributary of the Ganga in Uttarakhand and merges with the Bhagirathi at Devprayag to form the Ganga.
  • The Kosi River, originating from the Himalayas in Nepal, is another tributary of the Ganga, known for its frequent changes in course and devastating floods.

Additional Information

  • Chambal River:
  • Originates from Janapav Hills in the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Notable for its deep ravines and is home to the National Chambal Sanctuary, which protects species like the gharial and the Gangetic dolphin.
  • Joins the Yamuna River near Etawah in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Gandak River:
  • Originates in the Himalayas of Nepal.
  • Flows through Nepal and Bihar before merging with the Ganga near Patna.
  • Known for its importance in agriculture and irrigation in the region.
  • Alaknanda River:
  • Originates from the Satopanth Glacier near Badrinath in Uttarakhand.
  • Forms the Ganga when it meets the Bhagirathi River at Devprayag.
  • Plays a significant role in the religious and cultural traditions of Uttarakhand.
  • Kosi River:
  • Originates from the Himalayas in Nepal.
  • Known as the "Sorrow of Bihar" due to its frequent floods and changes in course.
  • Joins the Ganga near Kursela in Bihar.

Important Points

  • The Ganga River Basin is the largest river basin in India, covering significant parts of northern and eastern India.
  • The major tributaries of the Ganga include the Yamuna, Son, Gandak, Kosi, Ghaghara, and Gomti rivers.
  • The Ganga plays a vital role in religion, economy, and ecology in India, supporting millions of people in its basin.
  • Efforts like the Namami Gange Programme have been launched to clean and rejuvenate the Ganga River.
37

Which of the following is used to focus the rays of the Sun in a solar cooker to achieve a higher temperature? 

  1. ((a))

    Mirror

  2. ((b))

    Prism

  3. ((c))

    Convex lens

  4. ((d))

    Concave lens

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mirror

The correct answer is Mirror.

Key Points

  • Mirrors are used in solar cookers to focus the Sun’s rays onto a specific point, increasing the intensity of the heat and achieving higher temperatures.
  • A concave mirror, in particular, is commonly used because it reflects and converges the Sun's rays to a focal point, concentrating the heat energy.
  • Solar cookers with mirrors are designed to trap heat in an insulated cooking area, allowing food to cook effectively using only solar energy.
  • This method is highly efficient and environmentally friendly as it utilizes renewable energy and does not produce harmful emissions.
  • Mirrors in solar cookers are typically coated with reflective materials, such as aluminum or silver, to maximize the reflection of sunlight.

Additional Information

  • Other Optical Devices:
  • Prism: A prism is a transparent optical element that refracts light. It is used for light dispersion and splitting white light into its constituent colors, not for focusing sunlight in solar cookers.
  • Convex Lens: Convex lenses can focus sunlight to a point, but they are less commonly used in solar cookers due to their fragility and high cost compared to mirrors.
  • Concave Lens: Concave lenses diverge light rays and are unsuitable for concentrating sunlight. They cannot create the focused heat required for cooking purposes.
  • Principle of Solar Cookers:
  • Solar cookers work on the principle of converting solar radiation into heat energy. The heat is then trapped within the cooker to cook food.
  • Mirrors or reflective surfaces are used to focus sunlight onto a cooking vessel, while insulated materials prevent heat loss.
  • Transparent glass covers further enhance the heat-trapping mechanism by allowing sunlight to pass through but reducing heat escape.
  • Applications of Solar Cookers:
  • Solar cookers are widely used in rural areas and regions with high solar intensity as a cost-effective cooking solution.
  • They help reduce dependence on fossil fuels and firewood, contributing to environmental conservation.
  • Solar cookers are also used in educational demonstrations to promote renewable energy technologies.
  • Environmental Impact:
  • Using solar cookers reduces greenhouse gas emissions, as they do not rely on conventional energy sources like coal or gas.
  • They promote sustainable living and help conserve natural resources, such as forests, by reducing the need for firewood.

Important Points

  • Types of Solar Cookers:
  • Box Cookers: These use flat mirrors to reflect sunlight into an insulated box where food is cooked. They are simple and cost-effective.
  • Parabolic Cookers: These use a parabolic-shaped reflective surface to concentrate sunlight to a single point, achieving higher temperatures compared to box cookers.
  • Hybrid Cookers: These are equipped with mirrors and electrical heating elements for use during cloudy conditions.
  • Efficiency Factors:
  • The efficiency of a solar cooker depends on the intensity of sunlight, the quality of the reflective surface, and the insulation of the cooking chamber.
  • Proper alignment of the mirror with the Sun’s position is crucial for maximizing heat concentration.
  • Global Usage:
  • Countries like India, China, and Kenya actively promote solar cookers for rural and off-grid areas to reduce energy poverty.
  • Organizations like Solar Cookers International work globally to increase the adoption of solar cooking technologies.
38

How much majority is required for any amendment in the Constitution by the Parliament?

  1. ((a))

     Four-fifths

  2. ((b))

    Two-fourths

  3. ((c))

    Three-fourths

  4. ((d))

    Two-thirds

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Two-thirds

The correct answer is Two-thirds.

Key Points

  • Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for amendment. It specifies that certain provisions of the Constitution can be amended through a special majority.
  • A special majority means that the amendment requires the approval of at least two-thirds of the members present and voting in both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
  • In addition to the special majority, some amendments also require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  • The two-thirds majority is significant because it ensures that amendments to the Constitution are made with broad consensus and not just a simple majority.
  • This process safeguards the Constitution and prevents arbitrary or hasty changes, maintaining the integrity of the document.

Additional Information

  • Types of Constitutional Amendments:
  • Simple Majority: Certain provisions can be amended by a simple majority of the members present and voting in Parliament. These include changes related to the formation of states, citizenship laws, etc.
  • Special Majority: Amendments requiring the approval of two-thirds of members present and voting, along with a majority of the total membership of the house.
  • Special Majority with State Ratification: Amendments involving federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to the special majority in Parliament.
  • Examples of Amendments:
  • The 42nd Amendment (1976), often called the "Mini-Constitution," made significant changes to the Preamble and added the words "Socialist" and "Secular."
  • The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) introduced provisions for local self-government through Panchayati Raj institutions and municipalities.
  • The 101st Amendment (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
  • Importance of the Amendment Procedure:
  • Maintains the balance between flexibility and rigidity in the Constitution.
  • Ensures that changes are made democratically with adequate consensus.
  • Protects the fundamental structure of the Constitution, ensuring its core values remain intact.
  • Role of Parliament and States:
  • While Parliament plays the primary role in amending the Constitution, state legislatures are involved in federal provisions, ensuring the federal character of India is maintained.
  • Ratification by states ensures that amendments affecting state interests are made with their consent.

Important Points

  • Basic Structure Doctrine: The Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati case (1973) ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure.
  • Federal Provisions: Amendments affecting the division of powers between the Centre and the States require state ratification.
  • Procedure for Amendment:
  • An amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
  • It must pass with a special majority in both houses.
  • For federal provisions, it requires ratification by half of the state legislatures.
  • Once passed, it is sent to the President for assent.
  • India's amendment procedure is considered a mix of rigid and flexible approaches, allowing changes while protecting the Constitution's core principles.
39

Who presents the annual budget of India before the Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    The Prime Minister

  2. ((b))

    The Finance Minister

  3. ((c))

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  4. ((d))

    The Home Minister 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Finance Minister

The correct answer is The Finance Minister.

Key Points

  • The Union Budget of India is presented annually by the Finance Minister of India. The budget provides a detailed account of the government's revenue and expenditure for the upcoming fiscal year.
  • The presentation of the budget is a constitutional mandate under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, which requires the government to lay down its "Annual Financial Statement" before both houses of Parliament.
  • The Finance Minister typically presents the budget in the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of Parliament, and the session is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • The budget is presented on the 1st of February every year to allow sufficient time for legislative approval before the new fiscal year begins on April 1st.
  • The Finance Minister not only presents the budget but also provides an analysis of the economic conditions, outlines financial policies, and proposes tax changes and expenditure priorities for the upcoming year.

Additional Information

  • Historical Context of Budget Presentation:
  • The first budget of independent India was presented by R. K. Shanmukham Chetty, the first Finance Minister of India, on 26th November 1947.
  • In the colonial period, the budget was presented by the British-appointed Finance Ministers, starting with James Wilson in 1860.
  • Until 1999, the budget was traditionally presented at 5 PM, a practice inherited from British colonial times. This changed to 11 AM in 2001.
  • Components of the Budget:
  • The budget consists of two key components: the Revenue Budget and the Capital Budget.
  • Revenue Budget: Includes revenue receipts (tax and non-tax revenue) and revenue expenditure, such as salaries, subsidies, and interest payments.
  • Capital Budget: Deals with capital receipts (borrowings and asset sales) and capital expenditure, such as infrastructure development and investments.
  • It also includes the Finance Bill, which contains taxation proposals, and the Appropriation Bill, which authorizes government expenditure.
  • Role of the Finance Minister:
  • The Finance Minister is responsible for consulting with various departments, stakeholders, and economists while preparing the budget to align with the government's economic objectives.
  • The Finance Minister also delivers the Budget Speech, which outlines the major policy initiatives, economic goals, and financial strategies of the government.
  • After the presentation, the budget goes through a parliamentary process for discussions, debates, and approval.
  • Importance of the Budget:
  • It serves as a blueprint for the government's economic policies and priorities for the upcoming year.
  • The budget impacts sectors such as education, health, defense, infrastructure, and agriculture, and influences the overall economic growth of the country.
  • Other Relevant Officials:
  • The Prime Minister plays a significant role in approving the budget proposals but does not present the budget.
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha facilitates the parliamentary proceedings during the budget session but has no direct role in its presentation.
  • The Home Minister oversees internal security and related policies but has no involvement in budget formulation or presentation.
40

How many rasas are there in Indian classical dance?

  1. ((a))

    Seven

  2. ((b))

    Nine

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nine

The correct answer is Nine.

Key Points

  • In Indian classical dance and drama, the term "Rasas" refers to the nine basic emotions or moods that are expressed through gestures, facial expressions, and movements.
  • The concept of Rasas originates from the ancient Indian treatise on performing arts, the Natyashastra, written by the sage Bharata.
  • The Nine Rasas are as follows: Shringara (love), Hasya (laughter), Karuna (compassion), Raudra (anger), Veera (heroism), Bhayanaka (fear), Bibhatsa (disgust), Adbhuta (wonder), and Shanta (peace).
  • Each Rasa is associated with a specific Bhava (emotion) or a state of mind, which the performers evoke in the audience.
  • The Rasas form the core of the aesthetic and emotional experience in Indian classical dance forms like Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Odissi, Manipuri, and others.

Additional Information

  • Detailed Description of the Nine Rasas:
  • Shringara (Love or Beauty): It represents romantic love, attraction, and beauty. It is considered the king of Rasas.
  • Hasya (Laughter): It denotes humor and joy, evoking feelings of happiness and amusement.
  • Karuna (Compassion): It symbolizes sorrow and compassion, often eliciting empathy and pity.
  • Raudra (Anger): It showcases fury and rage, representing destructive emotions.
  • Veera (Heroism): It reflects courage, bravery, and determination in the face of challenges.
  • Bhayanaka (Fear): It embodies fear and anxiety, creating a sense of dread.
  • Bibhatsa (Disgust): It portrays aversion and repulsion.
  • Adbhuta (Wonder): It represents amazement and curiosity at something extraordinary.
  • Shanta (Peace): It signifies tranquility and calmness, often seen as the ultimate Rasa.
  • Importance in Indian Performing Arts:
  • The Rasas are essential for evoking emotional responses from the audience and are the foundation of expressive storytelling in Indian art forms.
  • They are extensively used in classical dances like Bharatanatyam, where performers use facial expressions (abhinaya) to depict different emotions.
  • In Kathakali, Rasas are brought to life through elaborate makeup, costumes, and precise movements.
  • These emotions are also pivotal in Indian classical music, theatre, and literature.
  • Natyashastra:
  • Written by the sage Bharata, the Natyashastra is an ancient text on performing arts that provides detailed guidelines on dance, music, drama, and aesthetics.
  • It serves as the primary reference for understanding the theory of Rasas and their practical application in performances.
  • Modern Relevance:
  • The concept of Rasas continues to influence contemporary art forms, including cinema, where emotional engagement is crucial.
  • Understanding Rasas aids performers in creating a deeper connection with their audience.
41

The process of making yarn from fibres is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    ginning

  2. ((b))

    spinning

  3. ((c))

    knitting

  4. ((d))

    weaving

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

spinning

The correct answer is spinning.

Key Points

  • Spinning is the process of converting fibers into yarn. It involves twisting fibers together to form a continuous thread, which can then be woven or knitted into fabrics.
  • The process uses a spinning wheel, spindle, or modern spinning machines to draw out and twist the fibers.
  • Spinning is essential as it provides the base material (yarn) for making textiles and garments. Without spinning, fabrics cannot be produced.
  • This process is used for both natural fibers like cotton, wool, and silk, as well as synthetic fibers like nylon and polyester.
  • Spinning is a key stage in the textile production process, and the quality of yarn directly affects the quality of the final fabric.

Additional Information

  • Ginning:
  • This process involves separating cotton fibers from seeds. It is the first step after harvesting cotton but is unrelated to yarn production directly.
  • Ginning prepares cotton for spinning by ensuring the fibers are clean and free from impurities.
  • Example: Cotton ginning machines are widely used in agricultural and textile industries.
  • Knitting:
  • Knitting is the process of interlocking loops of yarn to create a fabric. It is a different method of fabric production, not related to spinning.
  • Knitted fabrics are stretchable and used for making items like sweaters, socks, and t-shirts.
  • Example: Knitting machines or hand knitting needles are used for this purpose.
  • Weaving:
  • Weaving involves interlacing two sets of yarns (warp and weft) at right angles to create fabric.
  • It is another fabric production method but requires yarns, which are produced through spinning.
  • Example: Woven fabrics like denim, canvas, and silk are widely used in clothing and home furnishings.
  • Importance of Spinning:
  • Spinning determines the strength, fineness, and durability of yarn, which impacts the final fabric quality.
  • It is a crucial step in the textile industry, forming the foundation for all subsequent processes like weaving, knitting, and dyeing.
  • India, as a leading textile producer, has a significant number of spinning mills contributing to its economy.

Important Points

  • Textile Industry in India:
  • India is one of the largest producers of cotton and jute in the world and has a significant presence in spinning and weaving industries.
  • The Indian textile industry employs millions and contributes significantly to the country's exports and GDP.
  • Advanced spinning technologies, such as rotor spinning and ring spinning, are widely used in modern mills to increase productivity and quality.
  • Fiber Types:
  • Natural fibers: Cotton, wool, silk, and jute.
  • Man-made fibers: Polyester, nylon, acrylic, and spandex.
  • Both types of fibers undergo the spinning process to create yarn for various applications.
42

Dantidurga was a chief of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Chahamanas (Chauhans)

  2. ((b))

    Rashtrakurta

  3. ((c))

    Cholas

  4. ((d))

    Palas

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rashtrakurta

The correct answer is Rashtrakuta.

Key Points

  • Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, which ruled large parts of the Indian subcontinent during the 8th–10th centuries.
  • He rose to prominence by defeating the Chalukyas of Badami and established the Rashtrakuta kingdom in the Deccan region.
  • The Rashtrakutas were known for their patronage of art, architecture, and literature. Dantidurga himself was credited with building the foundation of this cultural legacy.
  • Under his reign, the Rashtrakuta dynasty expanded its territory and became one of the most powerful kingdoms in the Indian subcontinent during that era.
  • Dantidurga performed the Hiranyagarbha ritual (a sacrificial ceremony) to assert his status as a sovereign ruler.

Additional Information

  • Rashtrakuta Dynasty:
  • The Rashtrakutas ruled from their capital at Manyakheta, located in present-day Karnataka.
  • They were known for their military might, and their empire extended over parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
  • One of their most significant contributions to Indian architecture was the Kailasa temple at Ellora, carved out of a single rock.
  • The dynasty was also known for its literary contributions. Kannada and Sanskrit literature flourished under their patronage.
  • Other Options:
  • Chahamanas (Chauhans): The Chahamanas were a Rajput dynasty that ruled parts of Rajasthan and Delhi during the medieval period. They were known for their resistance against the Ghaznavids and Ghurids, particularly under rulers like Prithviraj Chauhan.
  • Cholas: The Cholas were a Tamil dynasty that ruled over southern India. They were renowned for their contributions to art, architecture, literature, and maritime trade. Famous Chola rulers include Raja Raja Chola and Rajendra Chola.
  • Palas: The Palas were a dynasty that ruled over Bengal and Bihar during the early medieval period. They were patrons of Buddhism and contributed to the establishment of educational institutions like Nalanda and Vikramashila.
  • Important Points:
  • The Rashtrakutas are often considered one of the greatest Indian dynasties of the early medieval period due to their cultural and military achievements.
  • Their contributions to art and architecture, especially the Kailasa temple, are recognized as masterpieces of Indian heritage.
  • The Rashtrakuta rulers also maintained a strong administrative system and promoted trade and commerce.
  • They played a significant role in the political history of southern and central India during their reign.
43

Which of the following is not an advantage of self-help groups?

  1. ((a))

    Overcoming the problem of lack of collateral

  2. ((b))

    Helping women become financially independent

  3. ((c))

    Timely loan

  4. ((d))

    No interest rates on loans

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

No interest rates on loans

The correct answer is No interest rates on loans.

Key Points

  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are a small voluntary association of individuals from similar socio-economic backgrounds, primarily aimed at enabling collective savings, credit, and mutual support.
  • One of their primary advantages is overcoming the problem of lack of collateral, as members offer peer guarantees instead of traditional physical collateral. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • SHGs play a significant role in helping women become financially independent. They encourage women to participate in income-generating activities and enhance decision-making powers in households. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • SHGs ensure access to timely loans for their members, which is a major benefit when compared to traditional banking systems. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • However, the claim that SHGs provide loans with no interest rates is not true. While interest rates charged by SHGs are generally lower than those of moneylenders, they are not zero. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Features of SHGs:
  • SHGs typically consist of 10-20 members who meet regularly to save and contribute to a common fund.
  • The group uses these savings to provide small loans to its members for purposes like healthcare, education, or small business ventures.
  • SHGs are often linked to banks through Micro-Finance Institutions (MFIs) for larger credit requirements.
  • Benefits of SHGs:
  • Promote financial inclusion by linking poor households to formal banking systems.
  • Encourage entrepreneurship by providing capital for small-scale businesses.
  • Enhance social cohesion by fostering trust and cooperation among members.
  • Interest Rates in SHGs:
  • SHGs generally charge nominal interest rates on loans to ensure sustainability of their operations.
  • The rates are typically lower than those charged by informal moneylenders, making loans more affordable.
  • Some SHGs may even charge differential rates based on the purpose of the loan, such as lower rates for education or healthcare.
  • Role of Government and NGOs:
  • Governments and NGOs actively support SHGs through capacity-building programs, training, and subsidies.
  • Schemes like the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) in India aim to strengthen SHGs and promote self-employment.

Important Points

  • Challenges Faced by SHGs:
  • Lack of adequate training and financial literacy among members.
  • Difficulty in maintaining transparency and accountability in financial transactions.
  • Limited access to formal banking systems in rural and remote areas.
  • Examples of Successful SHG Models:
  • In India, the Kudumbashree Project in Kerala has empowered women through SHGs, promoting entrepreneurship and self-reliance.
  • The SEWA (Self Employed Women’s Association) in Gujarat has successfully linked SHGs with formal banking systems to provide affordable credit.
44

Which of the following factors causes soil degradation?

  1. ((a))

    Crop rotation

  2. ((b))

    Afforestation

  3. ((c))

    Overgrazing

  4. ((d))

    Fertilizing

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Overgrazing

The correct answer is Overgrazing.

Key Points

  • Overgrazing is a significant factor leading to soil degradation. When livestock graze excessively on vegetation, it removes protective plant cover, leaving the soil exposed to erosion by wind and water.
  • It depletes the nutrient content of the soil, making it less fertile and reducing agricultural productivity over time.
  • Overgrazing also causes compaction of soil, reducing its ability to hold water and air, which are essential for plant growth.
  • This practice disrupts the natural regeneration of plants, leading to the loss of biodiversity and desertification in severe cases.
  • Overgrazing is especially prevalent in regions with high livestock populations and low vegetation density, contributing to large-scale environmental degradation.

Additional Information

  • Crop Rotation:
  • Crop rotation is a sustainable agricultural practice where different types of crops are grown sequentially on the same land to maintain soil fertility and reduce soil degradation.
  • It enhances soil health by replenishing nutrients and reducing the risk of pests and diseases. Hence, this does not cause soil degradation.
  • Afforestation:
  • Afforestation involves planting trees in barren or deforested areas, which helps in preventing soil erosion and improving soil quality.
  • It is a critical measure for combating desertification and restoring degraded land. Hence, this does not cause soil degradation.
  • Fertilizing:
  • Fertilizers are used to provide essential nutrients to the soil for plant growth. However, excessive or improper use of chemical fertilizers can lead to soil degradation by polluting the soil and water bodies.
  • Organic fertilizers, on the other hand, improve soil structure and fertility. Hence, fertilizing itself is not a direct cause of soil degradation unless mismanaged.
  • Effects of Overgrazing:
  • Overgrazing is a major driver of desertification, particularly in arid and semi-arid regions.
  • It leads to the destruction of natural vegetation, increased soil erosion, and a decline in the land's capacity to support life.
  • Examples include the Sahel region in Africa, where overgrazing has significantly contributed to desertification.

Important Points

  • United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):
  • The UNCCD aims to combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought through sustainable land management.
  • It emphasizes the importance of addressing issues like overgrazing, deforestation, and unsustainable agricultural practices.
  • Soil Conservation Techniques:
  • Practices like contour farming, terracing, and agroforestry are effective in reducing soil erosion.
  • Encouraging sustainable grazing practices can help prevent overgrazing and promote soil health.
45

Who was awarded the Padma Vibhushan 2020 in the field of sports?

  1. ((a))

    Rani Rampal

  2. ((b))

    Aparna Popat

  3. ((c))

    MC Mary Kom

  4. ((d))

    Saina Nehwal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MC Mary Kom

The correct answer is MC Mary Kom.

Key Points

  • MC Mary Kom, the legendary Indian boxer, was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2020 for her contributions to the field of sports.
  • The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, given for exceptional and distinguished service in various fields, including sports.
  • Mary Kom is a six-time World Amateur Boxing Champion and an Olympic medalist, making her one of the most decorated athletes in the history of Indian sports.
  • Her achievements have brought immense pride to the nation, and she has been a source of inspiration for young athletes, particularly women, across the country.
  • Mary Kom hails from Manipur, a state in northeastern India, and has been a pioneer in promoting boxing and sports in India.

Additional Information

  • Padma Vibhushan:
  • The Padma Vibhushan award was instituted in 1954 and is the second-highest civilian award in India after the Bharat Ratna.
  • It is conferred for "exceptional and distinguished service" in various fields such as arts, literature, science, sports, public affairs, and more.
  • Recipients of this award are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
  • MC Mary Kom's Achievements:
  • She is the only woman boxer to have won a medal in each of the first seven World Championships.
  • Mary Kom won a bronze medal in the 2012 London Olympics in the women's flyweight (51 kg) category.
  • She has also been awarded India's highest sporting honor, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, in 2009.
  • Mary Kom is a recipient of the Padma Bhushan (2013) and the Padma Shri (2006).
  • Other Options:
  • Rani Rampal: Indian hockey player and captain of the women's hockey team. She has not been awarded the Padma Vibhushan.
  • Aparna Popat: Former Indian badminton player who has won several national championships but has not received the Padma Vibhushan.
  • Saina Nehwal: Indian badminton star and Olympic medalist. While she has received the Padma Bhushan (2016), she has not been awarded the Padma Vibhushan.

Important Points

  • Padma Awards Hierarchy:
  • The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award, followed by the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Shri.
  • These awards are given by the President of India during a ceremonial event held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan.
  • Other Sports Personalities Awarded the Padma Vibhushan:
  • Legendary cricketer Sachin Tendulkar received the Padma Vibhushan in 2008.
  • Chess grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2007.
46

Which one of the following is a Neolithic site?

  1. ((a))

    Adichanallur

  2. ((b))

    Huangsi

  3. ((c))

    Koldihwa

  4. ((d))

    Bhimbetka

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Koldihwa

The correct answer is Koldihwa.

Key Points

  • Koldihwa is a prominent Neolithic site located in the Belan Valley of Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • The site is notable for its evidence of early rice cultivation, dating back to around 7000 BCE, making it one of the earliest known agricultural practices in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Artifacts found at Koldihwa include handmade pottery, microlithic tools, and animal bones, which indicate a transition from hunting-gathering to a settled agrarian lifestyle.
  • The Neolithic period at Koldihwa is characterized by the use of polished stone tools and the domestication of animals such as cattle and sheep.
  • Koldihwa provides critical insights into the development of early agricultural societies in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • Adichanallur:
  • Located in Tamil Nadu, Adichanallur is a significant site but belongs to the Iron Age, not the Neolithic period.
  • Artifacts such as bronze objects, pottery, and human skeletal remains have been found here.
  • The site is known for its advanced metallurgical practices and cultural artifacts.
  • Huangsi:
  • Located in China, Huangsi is an archaeological site that is not related to the Indian Neolithic era.
  • It provides insights into early Chinese civilizations but is unrelated to the context of Indian prehistory.
  • Bhimbetka:
  • Situated in Madhya Pradesh, India, Bhimbetka is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its rock shelters and cave paintings.
  • While Bhimbetka has evidence of human habitation from the Paleolithic to the Mesolithic periods, it is not a primary Neolithic site.
  • The artwork and tools found here are more representative of hunter-gatherer societies.

Important Points

  • The Neolithic period in India is marked by:
  • The beginning of agriculture and animal domestication.
  • The use of polished stone tools and handmade pottery.
  • The establishment of permanent settlements and the development of early agrarian societies.
  • Other notable Neolithic sites in India include:
  • Mehrgarh: Located in present-day Pakistan, it is one of the earliest Neolithic sites in South Asia.
  • Burzahom: Located in Kashmir, it is known for its pit dwellings and Neolithic artifacts.
  • Chirand: Situated in Bihar, it is known for its evidence of agriculture and pottery.
47

What is the dangerous disease in humans and cattle caused by bacteria called?

  1. ((a))

    Chickenpox

  2. ((b))

    Rubella

  3. ((c))

    Malaria

  4. ((d))

    Anthrax

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Anthrax

The correct answer is Anthrax.

Key Points

  • Anthrax is a dangerous disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. It affects both humans and cattle.
  • The disease is primarily contracted through spores of the bacterium, which can survive in harsh environmental conditions for years.
  • Anthrax can present itself in different forms in humans: cutaneous (skin), inhalation, gastrointestinal, and injection anthrax.
  • Cattle often contract anthrax through contaminated soil, water, or feed, leading to severe outbreaks in agricultural areas.
  • Anthrax is classified as a zoonotic disease, meaning it can be transmitted between animals and humans, making it a public health concern.

Additional Information

  • Symptoms in Humans:
  • Cutaneous Anthrax: Causes skin ulcers with black centers, typically appearing on exposed body parts.
  • Inhalation Anthrax: Severe respiratory issues, fever, and chest pain; often fatal if not treated promptly.
  • Gastrointestinal Anthrax: Results from ingestion of contaminated food; symptoms include nausea, abdominal pain, and severe diarrhea.
  • Symptoms in Cattle:
  • Sudden death in livestock is often the first sign of an anthrax outbreak.
  • Cattle may show symptoms like fever, difficulty breathing, and bleeding from natural body openings before death.
  • Prevention:
  • Vaccination of cattle and humans in areas prone to anthrax outbreaks is effective in controlling the spread.
  • Proper disposal of infected animals and decontamination of affected areas is crucial.
  • Treatment:
  • Anthrax in humans is treated using antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, or penicillin.
  • Early diagnosis and intervention are critical to prevent severe complications.
  • Historical Context:
  • Anthrax has been used as a biological weapon due to its ability to spread easily and cause fatalities.
  • Notable cases include the anthrax attacks in the United States in 2001, where anthrax spores were mailed to individuals, causing widespread panic.

Important Points

  • Global Distribution:
  • Anthrax outbreaks are common in agricultural areas where livestock graze on contaminated soil.
  • Countries like India, Africa, Australia, and parts of the United States report frequent cases.
  • Anthrax in Public Health:
  • It is listed as a Category A bioterrorism agent by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
  • Global health organizations conduct surveillance and vaccination programs to mitigate its effects.
  • Scientific Advancements:
  • Studies are ongoing to develop improved vaccines and treatments for anthrax.
  • Efforts are also made to understand the bacterium’s survival mechanism in soil to control outbreaks effectively.
48

In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana launched?

  1. ((a))

    In 2008

  2. ((b))

    In 2014

  3. ((c))

    In 2010

  4. ((d))

    In 2016

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In 2016

The correct answer is In 2016.

Key Points

  • The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY) was launched in 2016 by the Government of India.
  • This scheme was part of the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016, introduced to address tax evasion and black money in the country.
  • It was announced after the demonetization move in November 2016, which invalidated the ₹500 and ₹1000 currency notes.
  • The primary objective of PMGKY was to provide an opportunity for individuals to declare their unaccounted wealth and avoid legal consequences by paying a penalty.
  • Under this scheme, individuals were required to deposit a portion of their undisclosed income into the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme (PMGKDS), which aimed to fund welfare programs for the underprivileged.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY):
  • The scheme allowed individuals to declare their undisclosed income and pay a penalty of 50% of the declared amount.
  • Additionally, 25% of the declared amount was to be deposited in the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme (PMGKDS) for a lock-in period of 4 years, without earning any interest.
  • The remaining amount (25%) could be retained by the declarant.
  • Objective:
  • The primary aim was to utilize the funds collected under the PMGKDS for welfare programs, especially for the poor and marginalized sections of society.
  • Implementation:
  • The scheme was administered by the Ministry of Finance and implemented through banks and financial institutions across the country.
  • The collected funds were directed towards initiatives like housing, rural infrastructure, and poverty alleviation.
  • Impact:
  • It helped the government in curbing black money, promoting financial transparency, and funding critical development programs for the underprivileged.
  • The scheme also encouraged individuals to become part of the formal economy.

Important Points

  • Background:
  • The scheme was introduced in the wake of the demonetization of ₹500 and ₹1000 currency notes in November 2016, aimed at addressing issues of black money and counterfeit currency.
  • Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme (PMGKDS):
  • The deposit scheme was a unique feature of PMGKY, where individuals were required to deposit 25% of their undisclosed income in an interest-free deposit account for 4 years.
  • The funds collected through PMGKDS were used to support programs like healthcare, education, and rural development.
  • Penalty and Compliance:
  • Non-compliance with the scheme attracted penalties and legal actions under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
49

Where was the Khilafat Committee formed in March 1919?

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta

  2. ((b))

    Ahmedabad

  3. ((c))

    Gwalior

  4. ((d))

    Bombay

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bombay

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

  • The Khilafat Committee was formed in March 1919 in Bombay. It aimed to defend the position of the Ottoman Caliph, whose authority was being undermined after World War I.
  • The committee was part of the Khilafat Movement, which sought to protect the religious and political rights of Muslims and maintain the integrity of the Ottoman Empire.
  • The Khilafat Movement was supported by prominent leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Maulana Azad, and Ali Brothers (Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali), showcasing Hindu-Muslim unity during the Indian freedom struggle.
  • The Khilafat Committee organized protests, meetings, and campaigns against British policies that threatened the Ottoman Empire, and became a significant part of the larger Non-Cooperation Movement.
  • The decision to start the committee in Bombay was strategic, as it was a prominent hub for political activity and a center for organizing nationwide movements.

Additional Information

  • Khilafat Movement:
  • The movement began in the aftermath of World War I (1914-1918), when the Ottoman Empire faced territorial losses and the position of the Caliph was weakened by British colonial policies.
  • It was initiated by Indian Muslims who wanted to protect the Caliphate and ensure the Ottoman Empire's sovereignty.
  • Though primarily a Muslim-led movement, it gained support from leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, who saw it as an opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims in the struggle against British rule.
  • Bombay as a Political Hub:
  • Bombay (now Mumbai) was a crucial location for political activities during the Indian freedom struggle due to its active leaders, strong trade networks, and infrastructure.
  • Many important events and organizations, such as the Indian National Congress sessions, had Bombay as their venue, making it a center for organizing movements like the Khilafat Movement.
  • Ali Brothers:
  • Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali were key leaders of the Khilafat Movement and played an instrumental role in mobilizing Indian Muslims.
  • They worked closely with other nationalist leaders to combine the Khilafat Movement with the Non-Cooperation Movement against British rule.
  • Non-Cooperation Movement:
  • Launched in 1920 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, the movement aimed to achieve Swaraj (self-rule) by boycotting British goods, institutions, and practices.
  • The Khilafat Movement merged with the Non-Cooperation Movement, creating a united front against colonial oppression.

Important Points

  • Decline of Khilafat Movement:
  • By 1924, the movement lost momentum after the abolition of the Caliphate by Mustafa Kemal Atatürk in Turkey.
  • Despite its decline, the movement left a lasting impact on Indian politics, promoting Hindu-Muslim unity during its peak.
  • Impact on Indian Freedom Struggle:
  • The Khilafat Movement contributed significantly to the larger freedom struggle, encouraging mass participation and fostering communal unity against colonial rule.
  • It set the stage for future movements like the Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India Movement.
50

Which of the following is associated with the field of art?

  1. ((a))

    Tulsi Gowda

  2. ((b))

    Manohar Devdas

  3. ((c))

    Bharat Goenka

  4. ((d))

    Raman Gangakhedkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Manohar Devdas

The correct answer is Manohar Devdas.

Key Points

  • Manohar Devdas is a renowned artist recognized for his contributions to the field of traditional Indian art.
  • He has worked extensively in creating intricate paintings that depict Indian culture, heritage, and traditions.
  • His artwork often focuses on depictions of rural life, mythology, and historical themes, showcasing the richness of India's artistic legacy.
  • Manohar Devdas is celebrated for his expertise in miniature paintings and his ability to bring historical narratives to life through art.
  • Art, as a medium, serves as a bridge between India's past and present, and artists like Manohar Devdas play a pivotal role in preserving and promoting this heritage.

Additional Information

  • Tulsi Gowda:
  • Tulsi Gowda is an environmentalist and social worker known for her efforts in forest conservation.
  • She has been referred to as the "Encyclopedia of Forests" due to her extensive knowledge of plants and biodiversity.
  • She is not directly associated with the field of art but rather with environmental activism.
  • Bharat Goenka:
  • Bharat Goenka is a businessman and the co-founder of Tally Solutions, a software company specializing in accounting solutions.
  • His work primarily revolves around technology and business innovation, not art.
  • Raman Gangakhedkar:
  • Raman Gangakhedkar is a prominent scientist and former head of epidemiology at ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research).
  • He is known for his contributions to medical research and public health, particularly during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • His association is with science and medicine, not art.
  • Significance of Art:
  • Art plays a vital role in expressing cultural identity and preserving traditions.
  • It includes various forms such as painting, sculpture, dance, music, and crafts, which reflect the richness of human creativity.
  • Artists like Manohar Devdas contribute significantly to maintaining and promoting these cultural elements.

Important Points

  • Art Forms in India: India is home to diverse art forms such as Madhubani painting, Tanjore painting, Warli art, and Miniature art, which are part of its rich heritage.
  • Artists' Contributions: Artists like Raja Ravi Varma, Amrita Sher-Gil, and Manohar Devdas have played a crucial role in preserving Indian culture through their work.
  • Government Support: Various government initiatives such as National Art Awards and funding for art institutions aim to promote and support artists in India.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Logic: Mirror image is the inversion of original image.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

52

Select the option that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Logic :  The second figure is a 90-degree clockwise rotation of the first figure. Applying the same logic, the third figure, which is an open circle with a horizontal line through its center, when rotated 90 degrees clockwise, becomes an open circle with a vertical line through its center

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

53

'Windows' is related to 'Computer' in the same way as 'Android' is related to'________'.

  1. ((a))

    Typewriter

  2. ((b))

    Mobile

  3. ((c))

     Telephone

  4. ((d))

    Printer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mobile

The logic follows here, 

  • Windows : Computer → Windows is an operating system for a computer.
  • Android : ? → Android is an operating system for a mobile device

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

54

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

55

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic follows here,

The sequence of figures follows a pattern where the shaded areas rotate.

  • In Figure 1, two adjacent regions in the upper-left and bottom-left are shaded.
  • In Figure 2, the shading moves one position clockwise to the upper-left and top-center regions.
  • In Figure 3, the shading moves again to the top-center and upper-right regions.
  • Figure 5 continues this pattern, with the shading in the upper-right and bottom-right regions

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

56

Rohan deposited some money in a bank on simple interest. The sum of his deposit and interest in the fifth year was ₹925 compared to the sum of his deposit and interest of ₹910 in the fourth year. What was his principal deposit (in ₹) at the beginning!

  1. ((a))

    965

  2. ((b))

    855

  3. ((c))

    850

  4. ((d))

    835

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

850

The logic follows here, 

The difference between the total amount in the 5th year and the 4th year is:

925 – 910 = 15

 

This difference is the simple interest earned in 1 year (SI per year).

So, "SI per year"=15

 

Use the amount in the 4th year:

"Amount in 4th year"= P + 4 × 15 = 910

P + 60 = 910

P = 910 – 60 = 850

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

57

In a code language, SCALE is written as 1351219. How will LARGE be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    1571218

  2. ((b))

    1751219

  3. ((c))

    1876342

  4. ((d))

    8465613

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1571218

The logic followed here is:

626a871a13e02eef2fcd3cd5 16564998081491

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

58

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

450,?, 109, 45, 18, 10, 9

  1. ((a))

    341

  2. ((b))

    198

  3. ((c))

     234

  4. ((d))

    423

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 234

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

59

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the classes given below?

Father, Surgeon, Men

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All fathers are men. Some fathers and men both can be Surgeon.

The Venn diagrams which correctly represents the classes:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

60

Select the figure from the options in which the given figure is embedded.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

61

Three of the given four figures are similar in a certain manner while one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The logic follows here, 

Logic : Second Image is a mirror image of First image.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

62

Three of the given four figures are similar in a certain manner while one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D

The logic followed here is:

Figure A) 

→ Circle Shape or 3D shape

Figure B) 

→ Circle Shape or 3D shape

Figure C) 

→ Circle Shape or 3D shape

Figure D) 

→ Ellipsoid Shape or 2D shape

Thus, out of all figure D is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

63

Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following

number-pair.

22:1

  1. ((a))

    87:9

  2. ((b))

    88:9

  3. ((c))

    93:3

  4. ((d))

    66:4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

93:3

The logic follows here, 

"Second number" = "tens digit" ÷ "units digit"

22:1

22 → 2 ÷ 2 = 1

Similarly,

93:3

93 → 9 ÷ 3 = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

64

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

98, 91, 84, 89, 70, 85, ?, 77, 42.61

  1. ((a))

    56

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

     61

  4. ((d))

    70

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

56

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

65

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the left side of the figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic: Mirror image is the inversion of original image.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

66

Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

2 × 9 - 6 + 12÷3 = 7

  1. ((a))

    12 and 3

  2. ((b))

    9 and 6

  3. ((c))

    2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    6 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9 and 6

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 2 × 9 - 6 + 12÷3 = 7

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

Option 1) 12 and 3

2 × 9 − 6 + 3 ÷ 12

2 × 9 = 18

3 ÷ 12 = 0.25

18 − 6 + 0.25 = 12.25

Option 2) 9 and 6

2 × 6 − 9 + 12 ÷ 3

2 × 6 = 12

12 ÷ 3 = 4

12 − 9 + 4 = 7

Option 3) 2 and 3

3 × 9 − 6 + 12 ÷ 2

3 × 9 = 27

12 ÷ 2 = 6

27 − 6 + 6 = 27

Option 4) 6 and 3

2 × 9 − 3 + 12 ÷ 6

2 × 9 = 18

12 ÷ 6 = 2

18 − 3 + 2 = 17

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

67

If the given figure is folded to form a dice, how many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

The logic followed here is:

The opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below method:-

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surfaces are touched by side or by corners

So, by using the above rule we can find the opposite surface of open dice.

In the given figure, Opposite faces are :

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

68

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the classes given below?

Window, Door, House

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Both a Window and a Door are parts of a House.

A Window is structurally and functionally distinct from a Door.

No window is a door, and no door is a window.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

69

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(2, 28, 14)

  1. ((a))

    (3, 31, 21)

  2. ((b))

     (8, 56, 7)

  3. ((c))

     (13, 198, 87)

  4. ((d))

    (7,91,6)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 (8, 56, 7)

Logic :  First Number x Third Number = Second Number

(2, 28, 14)

 2 x 14 = 28.

Similarly,

 (8, 56, 7)

 8 x 7 = 56.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

70

Select the figure from the options in which the given figure is embedded.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

71

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. ((a))

    Cousin

  2. ((b))

     Nephew

  3. ((c))

    Brother

  4. ((d))

    Sibling

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 Nephew

Logic : Cousin, Brother, and Sibling are all relations in the same generation as the person

  • Nephew is of the next generation (child of a sibling), so it's the odd one out

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

72

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Logic :  Rotate clockwise direction and line mark added.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

73

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol on the face opposite to the face showing "!"

  1. ((a))

    %

  2. ((b))

    &

  3. ((c))

    @

  4. ((d))

    $

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

&

%, @ and $ all are adjacent face of !.

So, Option 2 & is the correct answer

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

74

Select the option that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

75

Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option "3

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A sum amounts to ₹13,920 at 9% p.a. simple interest in 5 years. What will be the amount (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of simple interest for 9 years?

  1. ((a))

    18,700

  2. ((b))

    14,528

  3. ((c))

    15,470

  4. ((d))

    17,376

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17,376

Given:

Amount for 5 years = 13920

Rate = 9%

Time (first case) = 5 years

Time (second case) = 9 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ 13920 = P + (P × 9 × 5 ÷ 100)

⇒ 13920 = P + 0.45P

⇒ 13920 = 1.45P

⇒ P = 13920 ÷ 1.45

⇒ P = 9600

⇒ SI for 9 years = 9600 × 9 × 9 ÷ 100

⇒ SI for 9 years = 9600 × 81 ÷ 100

⇒ SI for 9 years = 7776

⇒ Amount for 9 years = 9600 + 7776

⇒ Amount = 17376

∴ The correct answer is 17376.

77

One year ago, the ratio of the ages (in years) of A and B was 4: 3. The ratio of their ages, 3 years from now, will be 6:5. What will be the ratio of the ages of B and A after 8 years from now?

  1. ((a))

    17:15

  2. ((b))

     15:17

  3. ((c))

    19:15

  4. ((d))

    15:19

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 15:17

Given:

Ratio of ages 1 year ago (A : B) = 4 : 3

Ratio of ages 3 years from now (A : B) = 6 : 5

Required time = 8 years from now

Formula Used:

Ages relation: Present Age = Past Age + Time

Ratio equation: a/b = x/y ⇒ ay = bx

Calculation:

⇒ Let ages 1 year ago be 4k and 3k

⇒ Present ages = (4k + 1) and (3k + 1)

⇒ After 3 years, ages = (4k + 4) and (3k + 4)

⇒ (4k + 4) ÷ (3k + 4) = 6 ÷ 5

⇒ 5(4k + 4) = 6(3k + 4)

⇒ 20k + 20 = 18k + 24

⇒ 20k − 18k = 24 − 20

⇒ 2k = 4

⇒ k = 2

⇒ Present ages: A = 4k + 1 = 9

⇒ Present ages: B = 3k + 1 = 7

⇒ Ages after 8 years: A = 9 + 8 = 17

⇒ Ages after 8 years: B = 7 + 8 = 15

⇒ Required ratio (B : A) = 15 : 17

∴ The correct answer is 15:17.

78

The average weight of P, Q and R is 59 kg. If the average weight of P and Q is 55 kg. and that of Q and R is 58 kg, then the weight (in kg) of Q is:

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    53

  4. ((d))

    47

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

49

Given:

Average weight of P, Q, and R = 59 kg

Average weight of P and Q = 55 kg

Average weight of Q and R = 58 kg

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of weights of P, Q, and R = 59 × 3 = 177 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of P and Q = 55 × 2 = 110 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of Q and R = 58 × 2 = 116 kg

⇒ Weight of Q = (Sum of P, Q, and R) - (Sum of P and R)

⇒ Weight of Q = 177 - (110 + 116 - 177)

⇒ Weight of Q = 177 - 49

⇒ Weight of Q = 49 kg

∴ The correct answer is 49.

79

A person rows upstream a distance of 33 km in 3 hours, and downstream a distance of 100 km in 4 hours. To row a distance of 36 km in still water, how much time (in hours) he will take?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

     2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 2

Given:

Upstream distance = 33 km

Upstream time = 3 hours

Downstream distance = 100 km

Downstream time = 4 hours

Required distance in still water = 36 km

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Upstream speed = Boat speed − Stream speed

Downstream speed = Boat speed + Stream speed

Boat speed in still water = (Upstream speed + Downstream speed) ÷ 2

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Upstream speed = 33 ÷ 3

⇒ Upstream speed = 11 km/h

⇒ Downstream speed = 100 ÷ 4

⇒ Downstream speed = 25 km/h

⇒ Boat speed in still water = (11 + 25) ÷ 2

⇒ Boat speed = 36 ÷ 2

⇒ Boat speed = 18 km/h

⇒ Time for 36 km = 36 ÷ 18

⇒ Time = 2 hours

∴ The correct answer is 2 hours.

80

By selling a car for ₹1,95,000, David makes a profit of 30%. What should be the selling price (in ₹) of the car, if he wishes to sell it at 40% profit?

  1. ((a))

    1,90,000

  2. ((b))

    2,10,000

  3. ((c))

    2,00,000

  4. ((d))

    2,15,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2,10,000

Given:

Selling price (SP) of the car = ₹1,95,000

Profit percentage = 30%

Desired profit percentage = 40%

Formula Used:

Cost price (CP) = SP / (1 + Profit percentage / 100)

SP for desired profit = CP × (1 + Desired profit percentage / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ CP = 1,95,000 / (1 + 30 / 100)

⇒ CP = 1,95,000 / 1.3

⇒ CP = ₹1,50,000

⇒ SP for 40% profit = 1,50,000 × (1 + 40 / 100)

⇒ SP for 40% profit = 1,50,000 × 1.4

⇒ SP for 40% profit = ₹2,10,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,10,000.

81

A rhombus has one of its diagonals as 65% of the other. A square is drawn using the longer diagonal as its side. What will be the ratio of area of the square, to that of the rhombus?

  1. ((a))

    18:11

  2. ((b))

    40:13

  3. ((c))

    11:18

  4. ((d))

    13:40

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

40:13

Given:

One diagonal of the rhombus = 65% of the other diagonal.

Side of the square = Longer diagonal of the rhombus.

Formula Used:

Area of rhombus = (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 2

Area of square = side2

Ratio = Area of square ÷ Area of rhombus

Calculation:

Let,

Longer diagonal = 100

Shorter diagonal = 65

⇒ Area of rhombus = (100 × 65) ÷ 2

⇒ Area of rhombus = 6500 ÷ 2

⇒ Area of rhombus = 3250

⇒ Area of square = 1002

⇒ Area of square = 10000

⇒ Ratio = 10000 ÷ 3250

⇒ Ratio = 40 ÷ 13

∴ The correct answer is 40:13.

82

The value of 35÷10(74×13) of 65+143×910(15÷125) is: \text{The value of } 35 \div 10 - \left( \frac{7}{4} \times \frac{1}{3} \right) \text{ of } \frac{6}{5} + \frac{14}{3} \times \frac{9}{10} - \left( \frac{1}{5} \div \frac{1}{25} \right) \text{ is:}

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{-1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    0

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    -1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

35 ÷ 10 − (7/4 × 1/3) of 6/5 + 14/3 × 9/10 − (1/5 ÷ 1/25)

Concept used:

Calculation:

35 ÷ 10 − (7/4 × 1/3) of 6/5 + 14/3 × 9/10 − (1/5 ÷ 1/25)

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − (7/4 × 1/3) of 6/5 + 14/3 × 9/10 − (1/5 × 25/1)

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − (7/4 × 1/3) of 6/5 + 14/3 × 9/10 − 5

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − (7/12) of 6/5 + 14/3 × 9/10 − 5

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − 7/10 + 14/3 × 9/10 − 5

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − 7/10 + 126/30 − 5

⇒ 35 ÷ 10 − 7/10 + 21/5 − 5

⇒ 35/10 − 7/10 + 42/10 − 50/10

⇒ (35 − 7 + 42 − 50) / 10

⇒ 20 / 10

⇒ 2

∴ The required value is 2

83

When the integer n is divided by 9, the remainder is 4. What is the remainder, if 15n is divided by 9?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6

Given:

n ÷ 9 leaves remainder 4

Formula Used:

If n ≡ r (mod m), then k×n ≡ k×r (mod m)

Calculation:

⇒ n ≡ 4 (mod 9)

⇒ 15n ≡ 15 × 4 (mod 9)

⇒ 15 × 4 = 60

⇒ 60 ÷ 9

⇒ 60 = 54 + 6

⇒ Remainder = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

84

How many bricks, each measuring 32 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, will be needed to build a wall 8m x 6m x 22.5 cm?

  1. ((a))

    6000

  2. ((b))

    5000

  3. ((c))

    5500

  4. ((d))

    4000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5000

Given:

Dimensions of each brick = 32 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm

Dimensions of the wall = 8 m × 6 m × 22.5 cm

1 m = 100 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of brick = length × breadth × height

Volume of wall = length × breadth × height

Number of bricks = Volume of wall / Volume of brick

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of brick = 32 × 11.25 × 6 = 2160 cm3

⇒ Volume of wall = (8 × 100) × (6 × 100) × 22.5 = 800 × 600 × 22.5 = 10800000 cm3

⇒ Number of bricks = Volume of wall / Volume of brick

⇒ Number of bricks = 10800000 / 2160

⇒ Number of bricks = 5000

∴ The correct answer is 5000.

85

What is the HCF of 4 a³ b²c², 6 a²b³c and 8 a²bc² ?

  1. ((a))

    48 a8b6c5

  2. ((b))

     8 a³ b³ c²

  3. ((c))

    2 a²bc

  4. ((d))

    4 a²bc2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 a²bc

Given:

4a3b2c2 , 6a2b3c , 8a2b c2

Formula Used:

HCF = HCF of coefficients × variables with minimum powers

Calculation:

⇒ Coefficients: 4, 6, 8

⇒ HCF(4, 6, 8) = 2

⇒ Powers of a: 3, 2, 2 → minimum = 2

⇒ Powers of b: 2, 3, 1 → minimum = 1

⇒ Powers of c: 2, 1, 2 → minimum = 1

⇒ HCF = 2a2b1c1

∴ The correct answer is 2a2bc.

86

By selling two articles for ₹780, a person gains the cost price of 4 articles. The profit percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    200%

  2. ((b))

    175%

  3. ((c))

    150%

  4. ((d))

    135%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200%

Given:

Selling price of 2 articles = 780

Gain = cost price of 4 articles

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP

Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let CP of 1 article = x

⇒ CP of 2 articles = 2x

⇒ Profit = CP of 4 articles = 4x

⇒ SP of 2 articles = CP + Profit

⇒ 780 = 2x + 4x

⇒ 780 = 6x

⇒ x = 780 ÷ 6

⇒ x = 130

⇒ CP of 2 articles = 2 × 130 = 260

⇒ Profit = 780 − 260 = 520

⇒ Profit% = (520 ÷ 260) × 100

⇒ Profit% = 2 × 100

⇒ Profit% = 200%

∴ The correct answer is 200%.

87

The marked price of a fan is ₹1,680 and it is sold for ₹1,596. The percentage discount allowed is:

  1. ((a))

    5%

  2. ((b))

    4%

  3. ((c))

    8%

  4. ((d))

    7.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5%

Given:

Marked price = ₹1,680

Selling price = ₹1,596

Formula Used:

Percentage discount = [(Marked price − Selling price) / Marked price] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Marked price − Selling price = ₹1,680 − ₹1,596 = ₹84

⇒ Percentage discount = (₹84 / ₹1,680) × 100

⇒ Percentage discount = 0.05 × 100

⇒ Percentage discount = 5%

∴ The correct answer is 5%.

88

A can complete half of the work in 10 days, while B can do the same work in 25 days. Both work together for 10 days, and C alone completes the remaining work in 5 days. In how many days will A, B and C together complete the same work?

  1. ((a))

    71117\frac{1}{11}

  2. ((b))

    81118\frac{1}{11}

  3. ((c))

    61116\frac{1}{11}

  4. ((d))

    91119\frac{1}{11}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

91119\frac{1}{11}

Given:

A completes half work in 10 days

B completes full work in 25 days

A and B work together for 10 days

C completes remaining work in 5 days

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of total work units

Daily work = Work ÷ Days

Total time = Work ÷ (A + B + C)

Calculation:

⇒ A completes half work in 10 days

⇒ Full work by A = 20 days

⇒ A = 1/20 work per day

⇒ B = 1/25 work per day

⇒ LCM of 20 and 25 = 100 units (take total work = 100)

⇒ A’s 1-day work = 100 ÷ 20 = 5 units

⇒ B’s 1-day work = 100 ÷ 25 = 4 units

⇒ (A + B)’s 1-day work = 5 + 4 = 9 units

⇒ Work done in 10 days = 9 × 10

⇒ = 90 units

⇒ Remaining work = 100 − 90

⇒ = 10 units

⇒ C completes 10 units in 5 days

⇒ C’s 1-day work = 10 ÷ 5

⇒ = 2 units

⇒ Total work per day of A + B + C = 5 + 4 + 2

⇒ = 11 units

⇒ Required time = 100 ÷ 11 = 91119\frac{1}{11}

∴ The correct answer is 91119\frac{1}{11} days.

89

The rate of interest for a sum that becomes 1.728 times of itself in 3 years, if interest being compounded annually, is:

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

     22%

  4. ((d))

    25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

Given:

Principal (P) = 1

Amount (A) = 1.728

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + R)T

Where R = Rate of Interest (in decimal form)

Calculation:

⇒ 1.728 = 1(1 + R)3

⇒ (1 + R)3 = 1.728

⇒ 1 + R = (1.728)1/3

⇒ 1 + R = 1.2

⇒ R = 1.2 - 1

⇒ R = 0.2

⇒ R = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

90

A number is first increased by 20%, and then decreased by 15%. The number so obtained is 64 more than the original number. The original number is:

  1. ((a))

    3200

  2. ((b))

    2750

  3. ((c))

    3500

  4. ((d))

    3000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3200

Given:

Increased by 20%.

Decreased by 15%.

Final value is 64 more than original.

Formula Used:

Final value = Original × (1 + Increase%) × (1 - Decrease%).

Final value - Original = 64.

Calculation:

⇒ Final value = Original × (1 + 20/100) × (1 - 15/100).

⇒ Final value = Original × (1.2) × (0.85).

⇒ Final value = Original × 1.02.

⇒ Final value - Original = 64.

⇒ Original × 1.02 - Original = 64.

⇒ Original × (1.02 - 1) = 64.

⇒ Original × 0.02 = 64.

⇒ Original = 64 / 0.02.

⇒ Original = 3200.

∴ The correct answer is 3200.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

 What is the size of Internet Protocol Version 6 protocol address?

  1. ((a))

    128 bits

  2. ((b))

    34 bits

  3. ((c))

     68 bits 

  4. ((d))

    255 bits

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

128 bits

The correct answer is 128 bits.

Key Points

  • IPv6 (Internet Protocol Version 6) is the most recent version of the Internet Protocol (IP), which is used to identify devices on a network through an addressing system.
  • The size of an IPv6 address is 128 bits. This is a significant increase from the 32-bit address used in IPv4, allowing for a vastly larger number of unique IP addresses.
  • An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. For example, 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
  • The larger address space of IPv6 eliminates the need for techniques like Network Address Translation (NAT), which were widely used in IPv4 due to its limited number of addresses.
  • IPv6 also introduces several enhancements over IPv4, such as improved routing efficiency, better security through mandatory IPSec support, and autoconfiguration capabilities.

Additional Information

  • Differences between IPv4 and IPv6:
  • Address Length: IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long, while IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long.
  • Address Space: IPv4 supports approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, whereas IPv6 supports 3.4 x 1038 unique addresses.
  • Notation: IPv4 addresses use dotted decimal notation (e.g., 192.168.1.1), while IPv6 uses hexadecimal notation separated by colons (e.g., 2001:0db8::1).
  • Security: IPv6 has built-in support for IPSec, which provides end-to-end encryption and authentication. In contrast, IPv4 does not natively support IPSec.
  • Benefits of IPv6:
  • Scalability: The larger address space ensures that IPv6 can accommodate the growing number of internet-connected devices.
  • Improved Performance: IPv6 simplifies routing and reduces network overhead compared to IPv4.
  • Built-in Quality of Service (QoS): IPv6 supports QoS features, allowing for better handling of real-time data such as voice and video.
  • Autoconfiguration: IPv6 devices can automatically configure themselves when connected to a network, simplifying network management.
  • Transition from IPv4 to IPv6:
  • The transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is ongoing, as many devices and systems still rely on IPv4.
  • Technologies like dual-stack implementation and tunneling are used to enable communication between IPv4 and IPv6 networks during the transition period.
  • Applications of IPv6:
  • IPv6 is critical for the Internet of Things (IoT), as it provides the address space needed for billions of connected devices.
  • It enhances the performance and security of modern networks, making it suitable for applications like streaming, online gaming, and e-commerce.
  • IPv6 is also a cornerstone for emerging technologies like 5G, which rely on robust and scalable network infrastructure.
92

 In MS Word, if you press the Tab key within a table, the cursor moves you to the _______.

  1. ((a))

     previous column

  2. ((b))

     next column

  3. ((c))

     previous row

  4. ((d))

     next table

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 next column

The correct answer is next column.

Key Points

  • In MS Word, pressing the Tab key within a table moves the cursor to the next column. This is the default behavior of the Tab key in tables.
  • When the cursor is in the last column of a row and the Tab key is pressed, it automatically creates a new row and moves the cursor to the first column of that row.
  • To move to the previous cell in a table, the Shift + Tab key combination is used.
  • The Tab key is specifically programmed in MS Word tables to assist with navigation and quick data entry, reducing the need for mouse usage.
  • This behavior makes working in tables more efficient, especially for tasks like filling out forms or creating structured data.

Additional Information

  • Functions of the Tab Key in MS Word:
  • The Tab key is used to create indentations in normal text. For example, pressing Tab moves the text 0.5 inches (or the set tab stop) to the right.
  • In tables, it moves the cursor to the next cell. This allows for easy navigation across table columns and rows.
  • It also helps in aligning text or data when working with tab stops outside of tables.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts in Tables:
  • Shift + Tab: Moves the cursor to the previous cell in the table.
  • Ctrl + Tab: If Tab stops are set inside a cell, pressing this combination inserts a Tab space instead of moving to the next cell.
  • Arrow Keys: Arrow keys can also be used to navigate between cells in a table.
  • Creating and Navigating Tables:
  • To create a table in MS Word, use the "Insert" tab, then select "Table" and specify the number of rows and columns.
  • Navigation within tables can be accomplished using the Tab key, arrow keys, or mouse clicks.
  • Tables can be styled using predefined designs or manually formatted for customization.
  • Practical Applications of Tables in MS Word:
  • Tables are widely used for organizing data such as schedules, forms, and comparative charts.
  • They allow for the inclusion of formulas and calculations, making them useful for financial or data analysis.
  • Tables also support images and other objects, enhancing their utility in professional documents.

Important Points

  • Behavior of the Tab Key:
  • In a non-table context, the Tab key creates indentations.
  • Within a table, the Tab key moves to the next cell, assisting in streamlined navigation.
  • When reaching the last column of a row, pressing Tab creates a new row automatically, simplifying data entry.
  • Customizing Table Behavior:
  • Users can adjust table properties such as column width, row height, and cell alignment to optimize the layout.
  • Tab stops can be set to control the positioning of text within cells for more precise formatting.
93

In general, which of the following folders is used to store incoming emails?

  1. ((a))

    Outbox

  2. ((b))

     Inbox

  3. ((c))

    Sent

  4. ((d))

    Spam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 Inbox

The correct answer is Inbox.

Key Points

  • Inbox is the folder where all incoming emails are stored by default. It acts as the primary repository for new messages received by a user.
  • The Inbox is used in email systems such as Gmail, Outlook, Yahoo Mail, and others. It is the first place users check to view newly received emails.
  • This folder organizes emails based on the date, time, or sender, depending on the user's email settings.
  • The role of the Inbox is to ensure that users can access all new communications quickly and efficiently, enabling them to prioritize tasks or respond as necessary.
  • Modern email systems often enhance the functionality of the Inbox by providing features like filters, labels, and categories to sort emails according to user preferences.

Additional Information

  • Outbox:
  • The Outbox is a temporary storage folder for emails that are in the process of being sent.
  • If an email cannot be sent due to connectivity issues or other errors, it remains in the Outbox until it is successfully delivered.
  • Once the email is sent successfully, it is typically moved to the Sent folder.
  • Sent:
  • The Sent folder stores copies of emails that have been successfully sent by the user.
  • It allows users to verify whether an email was sent and provides a record of outgoing communications.
  • This folder is essential for tracking communication history and confirming the delivery of important messages.
  • Spam:
  • The Spam folder contains emails that are identified as unwanted or suspicious by the email service provider’s filters.
  • Emails in this folder may include advertisements, phishing attempts, or other potentially harmful content.
  • Users are encouraged to review the Spam folder periodically to ensure no legitimate emails are incorrectly filtered.
  • Email Organization Features:
  • Most email platforms offer advanced features such as labels, rules, and search filters to enhance email organization.
  • For example, Gmail uses tabs like Primary, Social, and Promotions to categorize incoming emails.
  • Automated sorting and filtering help users manage large volumes of emails effectively.
94

In MS Word 2007, which of the following keyboard shortcuts can be used to highlight text from the current position to the end of the current line? 

  1. ((a))

     Shift + End

  2. ((b))

     Shift + Home

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + End

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Shift + End

The correct answer is Shift + End.

Key Points

  • Shift + End: In MS Word 2007, pressing Shift + End is a shortcut to highlight text from the current cursor position to the end of the current line. This is the correct option for highlighting text efficiently.
  • Shift + Home: While Shift + Home is also a text-highlighting shortcut, it highlights text from the current cursor position to the beginning of the current line. This is not the required action in the question.
  • Ctrl + End: This shortcut moves the cursor to the end of the document. It does not highlight text in the process, making it incorrect for the given question.
  • Ctrl + Home: Similarly, Ctrl + Home moves the cursor to the beginning of the document without highlighting any text, which is also not suitable for the question's context.

Additional Information

  • MS Word 2007:
  • Microsoft Word 2007 is part of the Microsoft Office suite, widely used for word processing tasks.
  • It introduced the Ribbon interface, replacing traditional menus and toolbars with a more user-friendly layout.
  • Shortcuts such as Shift + End or Shift + Home help improve user efficiency when editing or formatting text.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts in MS Word:
  • Keyboard shortcuts are designed to speed up tasks and reduce dependency on the mouse.
  • For example, Ctrl + C for copy and Ctrl + V for paste are universal shortcuts across most applications.
  • Text navigation shortcuts like Shift + End or Shift + Home are particularly useful in long documents.
  • Highlighting Text:
  • Highlighting text is a common task in word processing, often used for editing, formatting, or copying text.
  • Other highlighting methods include click and drag using the mouse or using the Shift key with arrow keys for smaller selections.
  • Tips for Efficient Use of MS Word:
  • Learn and use keyboard shortcuts for faster navigation and text editing.
  • Customize the Ribbon interface to include your most frequently used commands.
  • Use features like Find and Replace (Ctrl + H) to quickly make changes in large documents.

Important Points

  • Shift + Arrow Keys: Another useful shortcut, where holding Shift and pressing the arrow keys allows you to highlight text one character or line at a time.
  • Ctrl + Shift + Arrow Keys: This combination highlights an entire word at a time, making it suitable for quick word selection.
  • Alt + Shift + D: Inserts the current date in a document, which is helpful for official documentation.
  • Practice Makes Perfect: Regular use of these shortcuts will help enhance your speed and proficiency in MS Word.
95

A ______ is an intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet.

  1. ((a))

    cell

  2. ((b))

     row

  3. ((c))

    workbook 

  4. ((d))

    column 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

cell

The correct answer is cell.

Key Points

  • A cell is the intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet. It is the basic unit where data can be entered or manipulated.
  • Each cell is identified by a unique cell reference, which is a combination of the column letter and row number (e.g., A1, B2, etc.).
  • The data entered into a cell can be of various types, such as numbers, text, formulas, or even dates.
  • Cells form the building blocks of spreadsheets and are essential for organizing and analyzing data in tools like Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, or similar software.
  • A group of cells can be selected together to perform bulk operations such as formatting, calculations, or applying functions.

Additional Information

  • Row:
  • A row runs horizontally in a worksheet and is identified by a row number (e.g., 1, 2, 3).
  • Rows are used to organize data logically, often representing individual records or items in a dataset.
  • Column:
  • A column runs vertically in a worksheet and is identified by a column letter (e.g., A, B, C).
  • Columns are used to categorize data, often representing different attributes or variables.
  • Workbook:
  • A workbook is a collection of multiple worksheets stored together in a single file.
  • Each workbook can contain an unlimited number of sheets, depending on the software and system configuration.
  • Functions and Applications of Cells:
  • Cells are used for data storage, such as entering numerical or textual data.
  • They are essential for performing calculations using formulas like SUM, AVERAGE, or VLOOKUP.
  • Cells allow for applying conditional formatting to highlight specific data based on criteria.
  • They support data visualization by providing input for creating charts and graphs.

Important Points

  • Features of Cells:
  • A cell can contain up to 32,767 characters in some spreadsheet applications.
  • Cells can be formatted to display data in a specific format, such as currency, date, percentage, etc.
  • Cells can also contain comments or notes for additional information.
  • Cells can be merged to create larger areas, often used for headings or emphasis.
  • Common Operations Involving Cells:
  • Copying and pasting data between cells.
  • Using AutoFill to populate adjacent cells with a sequence or pattern.
  • Applying data validation rules to restrict or guide user input in cells.
  • Linking cells to reference data from other parts of the worksheet or workbook.
96

 Which protocol is used for communication on the internet?

  1. ((a))

     DNS

  2. ((b))

     TCP/IP

  3. ((c))

    SNMP

  4. ((d))

    DMZ

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 TCP/IP

The correct answer is TCP/IP.

Key Points

  • TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is the foundational communication protocol suite used on the internet, enabling the transfer of data between devices and networks.
  • It is a set of rules that governs how data is formatted, transmitted, and received over a network. The protocol ensures that data sent from one end is reliably received at the other end.
  • TCP: Responsible for breaking data into packets, ensuring error-free delivery, and reassembling the data at the receiver's end in the correct sequence.
  • IP: Handles addressing and routing of packets so they are sent to the correct destination. Each device has a unique IP address for identification.
  • TCP/IP is a universal standard used globally by almost all devices connected to the internet, making it the backbone of modern online communication.

Additional Information

  • DNS (Domain Name System):
  • DNS translates human-readable domain names (like www.google.com) into IP addresses that machines use to identify each other on the network.
  • It is not a communication protocol but a service that works alongside TCP/IP to facilitate user-friendly web access.
  • Example: When you type "www.example.com," DNS maps it to its respective IP address.
  • SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol):
  • SNMP is used for managing devices on a network, like routers, switches, and servers.
  • It enables administrators to monitor network performance, identify network issues, and configure network devices remotely.
  • It is a management protocol and not primarily used for communication between devices.
  • DMZ (Demilitarized Zone):
  • DMZ refers to a physical or logical subnetwork that exposes an organization's external-facing services, like web servers, to the internet.
  • It is a security measure implemented to isolate external traffic from the internal network.
  • It is not a communication protocol but a network architecture concept.
  • Importance of TCP/IP:
  • TCP/IP ensures interoperability between devices, regardless of their hardware or operating systems, enabling global connectivity.
  • It supports various applications and services, such as web browsing, email, file transfers, and remote access.
  • Examples of protocols within the TCP/IP suite include HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and more.

Important Points

  • History of TCP/IP: TCP/IP was developed by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) in the 1970s as part of the ARPANET project.
  • Adoption: It was adopted as the standard protocol for ARPANET in 1983, which later evolved into the modern internet.
  • Versions: The current version of IP is IPv4, but IPv6 is gaining adoption to address the shortage of IPv4 addresses.
  • Layered Architecture: TCP/IP follows a four-layer model: Application Layer, Transport Layer, Internet Layer, and Link Layer, each handling specific tasks in data communication.
  • Applications: TCP/IP underpins technologies like the World Wide Web, email services, file transfer (FTP), remote login (SSH), and more.
97

In MS Excel 2010, what will be the result of the below function: =ROUND(1.66666666666667,2)

  1. ((a))

     2.00

  2. ((b))

    1.67 

  3. ((c))

    1.7

  4. ((d))

     1.68

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1.67 

The correct answer is 1.67.

Key Points

  • The ROUND function in MS Excel is used to round a number to a specified number of digits. It ensures precision in calculations and formatting.
  • When the formula =ROUND(1.66666666666667,2) is applied, the number 1.66666666666667 is rounded to two decimal places.
  • The rounding process checks the third decimal digit (in this case, 6) and increases the second decimal digit by 1 if the third digit is 5 or more.
  • Thus, the value 1.66666666666667 gets rounded to 1.67.
  • Option 2 (1.67) is the correct answer as per the given function and rounding rules.

Additional Information

  • ROUND Function:
  • The ROUND function in Excel is used to round numbers to a specific number of digits.
  • Syntax: =ROUND(number, num_digits), where number is the number to be rounded and num_digits specifies the number of digits to round to.
  • If num_digits is greater than 0, the number is rounded to the specified decimal places.
  • If num_digits is 0, the number is rounded to the nearest integer.
  • If num_digits is less than 0, the number is rounded to the left of the decimal point.
  • Rounding Rules:
  • If the digit immediately after the rounding digit is 5 or greater, the rounding digit increases by 1.
  • If the digit is less than 5, the rounding digit remains the same.
  • Applications:
  • The ROUND function is widely used in financial calculations to ensure precision in currency figures.
  • It is also used in scientific data processing for rounding complex decimal values.
  • Other Related Functions:
  • ROUNDUP: Always rounds a number up to the next higher number.
  • ROUNDDOWN: Always rounds a number down to the next lower number.
  • TRUNC: Truncates a number to an integer by removing the decimal portion without rounding.

Important Points

  • Excel Versions:
  • The ROUND function is available in all major versions of Excel, including MS Excel 2010, 2013, 2016, 2019, and Office 365.
  • Precision in Data:
  • Using the ROUND function ensures accuracy and consistency in data presentation.
  • It is particularly important in statistical analysis, financial reports, and scientific research.
98

In MS Excel 2010, in which group of the Home tab, is Format Cell dialogue box available?

  1. ((a))

    Editing

  2. ((b))

     Clipboard

  3. ((c))

     Font 

  4. ((d))

    Language

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 Font 

The correct answer is Font.

Key Points

  • Format Cell dialogue box in MS Excel 2010 is located in the Font group under the Home tab. This is the correct option.
  • The Format Cell option allows users to customize the appearance and formatting of cells such as text style, font size, color, borders, alignment, and number formatting.
  • To access the Format Cell dialogue box, you can either click the arrow icon in the Font group or use the shortcut key Ctrl + 1.
  • The Home tab in Excel 2010 provides multiple groups such as Clipboard, Font, Alignment, Number, and Editing, each serving specific purposes. The Font group is specifically designed for modifying the text style, font color, and background color of cells.
  • While other groups in the Home tab (such as Editing, Clipboard, and Language) provide different functionalities, the Font group is uniquely associated with cell formatting options, which makes it the correct choice.

Additional Information

  • Editing Group:
  • The Editing group in the Home tab contains functionalities for basic editing tasks such as sorting, filtering, finding, replacing, and clearing content.
  • It also includes AutoSum and other functions for quick calculations, but it does not provide access to the Format Cell dialogue box.
  • Clipboard Group:
  • The Clipboard group is designed for tasks related to copying, cutting, and pasting content. It includes the Paste Special feature for advanced pasting options.
  • While it is an important group for transferring data, it does not deal with formatting cells, so this is not the correct option.
  • Font Group:
  • The Font group in the Home tab provides tools for formatting text and cells. It includes options for changing font style, size, color, bold, italic, underline, and more.
  • The Format Cell dialogue box is directly linked to this group, making it the correct choice.
  • Language Group:
  • The Language group is mainly associated with multilingual support and provides tools for proofing and language preferences.
  • It is unrelated to cell formatting and does not provide access to the Format Cell dialogue box.

Important Points

  • Shortcut for Format Cell: The shortcut key Ctrl + 1 is a quick way to open the Format Cell dialogue box without navigating through the Home tab.
  • Format Options in the Dialogue Box: The Format Cell dialogue box consists of several tabs such as Number, Alignment, Font, Border, Fill, and Protection, allowing users to comprehensively format their data.
  • Font Group Importance: Besides the Format Cell dialogue box, the Font group includes quick-access tools for basic formatting such as changing the font color, applying borders, and filling cells with colors.
  • Excel Version: These features are consistent across multiple versions of MS Excel, including Excel 2010, 2013, and newer versions.
99

What can be the minimum number of rows and columns in a table in MS Word?

  1. ((a))

    Two rows and one column

  2. ((b))

    One row and one column

  3. ((c))

    One row and three columns

  4. ((d))

    Two rows and two columns

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One row and one column

The correct answer is One row and one column.

Key Points

  • In Microsoft Word, the minimum number of rows and columns required to create a table is one row and one column. This is the smallest possible table structure. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • While creating a table in MS Word, users can define the number of rows and columns manually or use default templates. However, the structure with one row and one column is sufficient to form a table. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Tables in MS Word are a grid of cells arranged in rows and columns. These tables are used to organize and present data in a structured way.
  • The table can be expanded later by adding more rows or columns as per the user’s requirements. Initially, starting with one row and one column is the least configuration.
  • Other configurations, such as two rows and one column or one row and three columns, are possible but not the minimum requirement. These options represent larger table structures.

Additional Information

  • Creating Tables in MS Word:
  • To insert a table, go to the Insert tab and choose the Table option. Users can then specify the number of rows and columns.
  • MS Word provides templates for tables with predefined styles and layouts for easier formatting.
  • Tables can also be drawn manually using the Draw Table tool, where users can create cells by drawing individual lines.
  • Editing Tables:
  • Rows and columns can be added or deleted by right-clicking on the table and selecting the appropriate options.
  • Cells can be merged or split to customize the table structure further.
  • Formatting tools allow users to adjust borders, shading, and text alignment for a professional look.
  • Applications of Tables:
  • Tables are widely used for data presentation, such as summarizing numerical or textual information.
  • They are essential for creating forms, schedules, and reports in documents.
  • Tables also help in comparing data effectively by organizing it into rows and columns.
  • Features of Tables in MS Word:
  • Users can apply design styles such as banded rows, header rows, and total rows.
  • Tables support formulas for basic calculations like summation and averaging within cells.
  • Advanced formatting options include conditional formatting, sorting, and filtering data.

Important Points

  • Default Table Size: The default table structure in MS Word is generally 2 rows by 2 columns when inserted without customizing the rows and columns.
  • Customizing Table Dimensions: Users can customize the table dimensions when inserting a table by specifying the exact number of rows and columns.
  • Alternative Methods: Apart from using the Insert tab, tables can also be created by copying and pasting data from other software like Excel, which automatically converts the data into a table in MS Word.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts: Using shortcuts like pressing Alt + N + T can quickly open the Insert Table menu in MS Word.
100

 In MS Word 2016, the ‘Insert Footnote’ option appears under the ______ menu item.

  1. ((a))

    Design

  2. ((b))

    Mailings

  3. ((c))

    Insert

  4. ((d))

    References

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

References

The correct answer is References.

Key Points

  • In MS Word 2016, the ‘Insert Footnote’ option is located under the References menu. This menu provides tools for creating citations, bibliographies, footnotes, and endnotes, which are essential for academic and professional document formatting.
  • The References tab is specifically designed for tasks related to document referencing, such as managing sources, creating footnotes, and organizing citations for academic or research purposes.
  • The ‘Insert Footnote’ feature allows users to insert a footnote at the bottom of a page, providing additional context or citations related to the document's content.
  • Footnotes are commonly used in academic writing, research papers, and legal documents to provide brief explanations or cite sources directly at the bottom of the page.
  • The shortcut key combination to insert a footnote in MS Word is Alt + Ctrl + F, which provides quick access to this feature without navigating through the menu.

Additional Information

  • References Tab in MS Word:
  • The References tab in MS Word provides tools for creating a well-organized document with citations, bibliographies, and references.
  • Key functionalities under the References tab include Table of Contents, Insert Footnote, Insert Endnote, Manage Sources, and Insert Citation.
  • It also supports various citation styles such as APA, MLA, Chicago, and more, making it highly flexible for diverse writing needs.
  • Footnotes and Endnotes:
  • Footnotes appear at the bottom of the page where the corresponding reference is made, providing additional information or citations.
  • Endnotes are similar to footnotes but are placed at the end of the document instead of the bottom of each page.
  • These notes are widely used in academic, historical, and legal documents to provide supplemental information or references.
  • Shortcut Keys in MS Word:
  • Keyboard shortcuts streamline tasks in MS Word. For example, Alt + Ctrl + F inserts a footnote, while Alt + Ctrl + D inserts an endnote.
  • These shortcuts save time and improve efficiency when working on large documents.
  • Other Menu Tabs in MS Word:
  • The Design tab provides tools for customizing the appearance of a document, such as themes, colors, and fonts.
  • The Mailings tab is used for creating and managing mail merge documents, such as letters, envelopes, and labels.
  • The Insert tab allows users to add elements like tables, images, hyperlinks, and headers/footers to their documents.

Important Points

  • Microsoft Word 2016 is a widely used word processing application that offers advanced features for creating professional documents.
  • Understanding the functionality of different tabs, such as References, Insert, Design, and Mailings, is crucial for using MS Word effectively.
  • The References tab is particularly important for users involved in academic, research, and formal writing, as it helps maintain proper citations and formatting styles.
  • In addition to footnotes, the References tab enables users to create bibliographies and manage sources, ensuring proper attribution of information.
  • Knowing the shortcut keys for frequently used features can significantly enhance productivity and reduce the time spent navigating menus in MS Word.

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