Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 14 Dec, 2020 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

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General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Who among the following scientists is known for his contribution in the field of genetics?

  1. ((a))

    Michael Faraday 

  2. ((b))

    Gregor Johann Mendel

  3. ((c))

    James Clerk Maxwell 

  4. ((d))

    JJ Thomson 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gregor Johann Mendel

The correct answer is Gregor Johann Mendel.

Key Points

  • Gregor Johann Mendel is regarded as the Father of Genetics.
  • He conducted experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum) to understand the principles of inheritance.
  • His work led to the formulation of the three laws of inheritance: the Law of Segregation, the Law of Independent Assortment, and the Law of Dominance.
  • He introduced the concept of dominant and recessive traits, which are fundamental in understanding genetic traits.
  • Mendel’s research was published in 1866 but gained recognition only in the early 20th century when his work was rediscovered.
  • He laid the foundation for the study of heredity and genetic variation, which are crucial in fields like biotechnology, agriculture, and medicine.

Additional Information

  • Michael Faraday
  • Michael Faraday was a British scientist known for his contributions to the fields of electromagnetism and electrochemistry.
  • He discovered the principles of electromagnetic induction, diamagnetism, and electrolysis.
  • Faraday’s work laid the foundation for the development of modern electrical technologies, including the electric motor and transformer.
  • James Clerk Maxwell
  • James Clerk Maxwell was a Scottish scientist best known for his formulation of Maxwell’s equations, which describe the behavior of electric and magnetic fields.
  • His work laid the groundwork for modern physics and the development of electromagnetic theory.
  • He also made significant contributions to the study of thermodynamics and the kinetic theory of gases.
  • JJ Thomson
  • JJ Thomson was an English physicist credited with the discovery of the electron in 1897.
  • He proposed the plum pudding model of the atom, which described the atom as a sphere of positive charge with negatively charged electrons embedded within it.
  • Thomson was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1906 for his work on the conduction of electricity in gases.
2

Which of the following is the confluence point of Alaknanda and Pindari rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Nandprayag

  2. ((b))

    Sonprayag

  3. ((c))

    Vishnuprayag

  4. ((d))

    Karnaprayag

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Karnaprayag

The Correct answer is Karnaprayag.

Key Points

  • Karnaprayag is one of the Panch Prayag or five sacred confluences in Uttarakhand.
  • It is the confluence of the Alaknanda and Pindar rivers.
  • Karnaprayag is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
  • It holds religious significance and is associated with Karna, a prominent character from the Mahabharata.
  • Karna is believed to have meditated at this site and received the blessings of the Sun God.
  • The Alaknanda River is one of the major tributaries of the Ganges, originating from the Satopanth Glacier.
  • The Pindar River originates from the Pindari Glacier in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

  • Nandprayag
  • Nandprayag is another one of the Panch Prayag where the Alaknanda River meets the Nandakini River.
  • It is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
  • The site is considered sacred and holds religious importance for Hindus.
  • Sonprayag
  • Sonprayag is situated at the confluence of the Mandakini and Basuki Rivers.
  • It is located en route to Kedarnath in Uttarakhand.
  • Sonprayag has religious significance in Hindu mythology and is believed to cleanse sins.
  • Vishnuprayag
  • Vishnuprayag is the confluence of the Alaknanda River and Dhauliganga River.
  • It is the first of the Panch Prayag and is located near Joshimath in Uttarakhand.
  • The site is named after Lord Vishnu and is considered sacred.
3

In which of the following shells does the valence electron of magnesium fall?

  1. ((a))

     K Shell

  2. ((b))

    M Shell 

  3. ((c))

     L Shell 

  4. ((d))

    N Shell 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M Shell 

The Correct answer is M Shell.

Key Points

  • Magnesium has an atomic number of 12, meaning it has 12 electrons.
  • The electronic configuration of magnesium is 2, 8, 2.
  • The valence electrons of magnesium are located in the M Shell, as it is the second shell in its configuration.
  • The valence electrons determine the chemical properties and reactivity of magnesium.
  • Magnesium is a Group 2 element, also known as an alkaline earth metal.
  • It is widely used in industries such as construction, automotive, and medicine.

Additional Information

  • K Shell
  • The K Shell is the innermost shell, which can hold up to 2 electrons.
  • In magnesium, the K shell is filled with 2 electrons.
  • This shell does not contain the valence electrons for magnesium.
  • M Shell
  • The M Shell is the third shell, which can hold up to 18 electrons.
  • In magnesium, the M shell is empty as only L Shell contains the valence electrons.
  • N Shell
  • The N Shell is the fourth shell, which can hold up to 32 electrons.
  • Magnesium does not have enough electrons to fill the N shell.
4

The festival called 'Bahubali Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsav', celebrated every 12 years, is associated with which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Sarnath

  2. ((b))

    Shravanabelagola

  3. ((c))

    Tirupati

  4. ((d))

    Kochi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shravanabelagola

The Correct answer is Shravanabelagola.

Key Points

  • Shravanabelagola is a famous Jain pilgrimage site located in the Hassan district of Karnataka, India.
  • The Bahubali Maha Mastakabhisheka Mahotsav is celebrated here every 12 years.
  • This festival is dedicated to the monolithic statue of Lord Bahubali (Gommateshwara), which is one of the tallest free-standing statues in the world, with a height of 57 feet.
  • The ritual involves the anointing of the statue with various substances such as milk, curd, ghee, saffron, and gold coins.
  • Shravanabelagola is a significant site for Jain culture and heritage, and it is believed to have been visited by Jain saints since ancient times.
  • The statue of Bahubali symbolizes peace, sacrifice, and renunciation.
  • Shravanabelagola has been a center for Jainism for centuries, attracting devotees and tourists alike.

Additional Information

  • Sarnath
  • Sarnath is located near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, and is a significant Buddhist site.
  • It is the place where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon after attaining enlightenment.
  • The site contains several historical monuments like the Dhamek Stupa and the Ashokan Pillar.
  • Tirupati
  • Tirupati is a renowned Hindu pilgrimage center in Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • It is famous for the Venkateswara Temple located on the seven hills of Tirumala.
  • This temple is one of the richest temples in the world and attracts millions of devotees annually.
  • Kochi
  • Kochi, also known as Cochin, is a port city in Kerala, India.
  • It is famous for its historical significance and as a center of spice trade.
  • The city is known for attractions like the Chinese Fishing Nets, Mattancherry Palace, and Jewish Synagogue.
5

The tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah is located in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Moradabad

  2. ((b))

    Agra

  3. ((c))

    Sonipat

  4. ((d))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Agra

The correct answer is Agra.

Key Points

  • The Tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • It is often referred to as the "Baby Taj" or a jewel box because of its exquisite architecture.
  • The tomb was commissioned by Nur Jahan, the wife of Mughal Emperor Jahangir, in memory of her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg, who was given the title of Itmad-ud-Daulah, meaning "Pillar of the State."
  • This tomb marks a transition from the red sandstone architecture of earlier Mughal structures to a style that uses white marble and intricate inlay work, which was later perfected in the Taj Mahal.
  • The tomb is situated on the banks of the Yamuna River, providing a picturesque setting.
  • Its design incorporates elements of Persian architecture, including a garden layout known as the Charbagh.
  • The interior features delicate carvings and floral motifs, showcasing the skilled craftsmanship of the Mughal era.

Additional Information

  • Moradabad
  • Moradabad is a city in Uttar Pradesh, known as the "Brass City of India" due to its prominent brass handicrafts industry.
  • It does not have any historical connection to the Tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah.
  • Sonipat
  • Sonipat is a city in Haryana, known for its industrial and agricultural importance.
  • It does not feature any major Mughal monuments.
  • Hyderabad
  • Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is famous for its Charminar and Golconda Fort.
  • It is not related to the Tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah, which is located in Agra.
6

 As per RBI norms a cut in Leverage Ratio implies that banks can lend ______ on the ______ capital base.

  1. ((a))

     less, same

  2. ((b))

    equally, growing

  3. ((c))

    more, falling

  4. ((d))

    more, same

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

more, same

The Correct answer is more, same.

Key Points

  • The Leverage Ratio is a measure of a bank's financial health, reflecting the proportion of its capital to its total assets.
  • A reduction in the leverage ratio as per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) norms implies that banks are allowed to maintain a lower proportion of capital relative to their assets.
  • This means banks can provide more loans or increase lending activities while maintaining the same capital base, as the regulatory requirement for capital adequacy has been relaxed.
  • Such measures can stimulate economic growth by enhancing the availability of credit in the market.
  • It is particularly beneficial in situations where there is a need to boost investment and consumption in the economy.

Additional Information

  • less, same
  • This option is incorrect because a cut in the leverage ratio does not restrict lending. Instead, it allows banks to lend more with the same capital base.
  • equally, growing
  • This option is incorrect because the leverage ratio does not directly relate to equal lending or a growing capital base; it focuses on the proportion of capital to assets.
  • more, falling
  • This option is incorrect because a falling capital base would not result from a cut in the leverage ratio as it emphasizes regulatory easing, not a reduction in capital.
7

During which of the following events was the announcement made to form the Tilak Swaraj Fund?

  1. ((a))

    Non-cooperation movement

  2. ((b))

    Lahore session of the Indian National Congress (INC)

  3. ((c))

    Banga Bhang (Partition of Bengal)

  4. ((d))

    Civil disobedience movement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Non-cooperation movement

The Correct answer is Asshoyog Movement.

Key Points

  • The Tilak Swaraj Fund was established during the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920.
  • This fund was created to collect money to support the movement and strengthen the Indian National Congress.
  • The fund was named after Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian freedom struggle and a pioneer of self-rule.
  • It aimed to raise one crore rupees within a year for promoting the idea of Swaraj (self-rule).
  • The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase in India's struggle for independence and involved boycotting British goods, institutions, and services.
  • The movement united people from various parts of the country under the common goal of achieving freedom.

Additional Information

  • Congress (I.N.C.) Lahore Session
  • The Congress Lahore Session of 1929 was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • During this session, the resolution for Purna Swaraj (complete independence) was passed.
  • The tricolor flag was adopted as the national flag during this session.
  • It marked a significant milestone in India's freedom struggle, with January 26, 1930, declared as Independence Day.
  • Partition of Bengal (Beng Bhanga)
  • The Partition of Bengal was announced in 1905 by Lord Curzon.
  • It divided Bengal into two provinces—East Bengal and Assam, and the rest of Bengal.
  • The partition was implemented to weaken the nationalist movement in Bengal.
  • This led to a widespread protest, resulting in the emergence of the Swadeshi Movement.
  • Civil Disobedience Movement
  • The Civil Disobedience Movement began in 1930 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It involved the defiance of British laws, including the Salt Law, which was symbolized by the Dandi March.
  • This movement aimed at achieving Swaraj and was significant in uniting Indians against British rule.
  • The movement witnessed participation from all sections of society, including women and peasants.
8

Who among the following hosted the TV show 'Aap Ki Kacheri'?

  1. ((a))

    Preeti Sudan

  2. ((b))

    Kiran Bedi

  3. ((c))

    Vandana Shiva

  4. ((d))

    Medha Patkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kiran Bedi

The Correct answer is Kiran Bedi.

Key Points

  • Kiran Bedi, an Indian social activist, retired police officer, and politician, hosted the TV show 'Aap Ki Kacheri'.
  • The show was a reality-based arbitration program where Bedi resolved real-life disputes.
  • It aired on Star Plus and became popular for addressing common people's grievances.
  • Kiran Bedi is India's first woman to join the Indian Police Service (IPS) in 1972.
  • She is well-known for her contributions to social justice and public welfare.
  • The program 'Aap Ki Kacheri' showcased her skills in mediation and her commitment to solving civil disputes.
  • Kiran Bedi has received numerous awards, including the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1994 for her efforts in government service.

Additional Information

  • Preeti Sudan
  • Preeti Sudan is a retired Indian Administrative Services (IAS) officer.
  • She served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India.
  • Her work was primarily focused on public health policies and programs such as Ayushman Bharat.
  • Vandana Shiva
  • Vandana Shiva is an Indian scholar, environmental activist, and author.
  • She is globally recognized for her advocacy of ecological sustainability and organic farming.
  • She has written extensively on environmental issues and is a strong proponent of biodiversity conservation.
  • Medha Patkar
  • Medha Patkar is a renowned Indian social activist.
  • She is best known for her leadership in the Narmada Bachao Andolan, a movement to save the Narmada River and protect the rights of displaced communities.
  • Her focus has been on human rights, environmental preservation, and social justice.
9

Stagflation is a typical combination of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Stunted growth and rising inflation

  2. ((b))

    Stunted growth and falling inflation

  3. ((c))

    Stunted productivity but stable inflation

  4. ((d))

    Stunted productivity and rising inflation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stunted growth and rising inflation

The Correct answer is Avaruddh Vikas aur Badhtee hui Mudrasphiti (Stagflation).

Key Points

  • Stagflation, or मुद्रास्फीति जनित मंदी, refers to a combination of economic stagnation (low or negative growth) and high inflation rates.
  • It is characterized by a situation where the economy does not grow, unemployment remains high, and inflation continues to rise.
  • Unlike regular economic slowdowns or recessions, stagflation is unique because inflation persists despite a lack of growth.
  • This phenomenon challenges traditional economic theories which suggest that inflation and economic stagnation rarely occur simultaneously.
  • It is often caused by supply shocks (e.g., increased oil prices) or poor economic policies like excessive money supply or inefficient governance.
  • The term stagflation gained prominence during the 1970s oil crisis, where Western economies experienced high inflation and slow growth simultaneously.
  • Stagflation is considered particularly challenging for policymakers because measures to reduce inflation (e.g., tightening monetary policy) can further slow down economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Avaruddh Vikas aur Girtee hui Mudrasphiti
  • This situation represents economic stagnation combined with deflation, where prices are falling rather than rising.
  • Deflation can be harmful to the economy as it discourages spending and investment, leading to further economic slowdown.
  • It is more common during severe recessions or depressions, such as during the Great Depression of the 1930s.
  • Avaruddh Utpadakta parantu Sthir Mudrasphiti
  • This represents a scenario where productivity stagnates but inflation rates remain stable.
  • While not ideal, stable inflation is generally considered better than high inflation or deflation.
  • Avaruddh Utpadakta aur Badhtee hui Mudrasphiti
  • This is similar to stagflation but primarily highlights a lack of productivity growth rather than the broader economic stagnation.
  • It focuses on challenges related to supply-side inefficiencies, such as poor infrastructure or labor market issues.
10

The term 'Regatta' is associated with which of the following? 

  1. ((a))

    Yacht

  2. ((b))

    Cycle

  3. ((c))

     Horse

  4. ((d))

    Motor car 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yacht

The correct answer is Yacht.

Key Points

  • The term ‘Regatta’ refers to a series of boat races, typically involving yachts, and is associated with water-based competitions.
  • It is a popular event in the world of sailing and rowing sports.
  • Regattas are often organized as social or sporting events and can include a variety of boat classes.
  • The term is particularly popular in countries with a rich maritime tradition, such as the United Kingdom, Italy, and the United States.
  • Examples of famous regattas include the Henley Royal Regatta (United Kingdom) and the America’s Cup (international).
  • Regattas are not only about racing but are also associated with festive events that bring together communities and participants.

Additional Information

  • Cycle
  • A cycle is a two-wheeled vehicle powered by pedaling. It is widely used for transportation, recreation, and sports.
  • There are popular cycling sports such as road cycling, mountain biking, and track cycling.
  • Famous cycling events include the Tour de France, the Giro d’Italia, and the Vuelta a España.
  • Horse
  • Horse racing is a popular equestrian sport that involves racing horses over a specified distance.
  • Famous horse races include the Kentucky Derby (USA), the Melbourne Cup (Australia), and the Grand National (UK).
  • It is one of the oldest sports, with a rich history dating back to ancient civilizations.
  • Motor Car
  • Motor car racing refers to automobile racing, a sport involving competition between cars.
  • Famous events include Formula 1, NASCAR, and the Le Mans 24 Hours.
  • Motor car racing has evolved with advancements in technology, aerodynamics, and safety features.
11

Which of the following teams is coached by Brazilian footballer Zico?

  1. ((a))

    Chennaiyin FC

  2. ((b))

    Bengaluru FC

  3. ((c))

    Kerala Blasters FC

  4. ((d))

    FC Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

FC Goa

The Correct answer is FC Goa.

Key Points

  • Brazilian football legend Zico is widely regarded as one of the greatest players in football history and has also had a significant managerial career.
  • He was the head coach of FC Goa, a team that participates in the Indian Super League (ISL).
  • Zico coached FC Goa from the 2014 to 2016 seasons and was instrumental in popularizing the sport in India through his expertise and charisma.
  • Under his management, FC Goa reached the final of the ISL 2015 season, showcasing his ability to develop and lead teams effectively.
  • Zico is known for his attacking style of play and his focus on nurturing young talent, traits that were evident during his stint with FC Goa.
  • FC Goa has established itself as one of the prominent teams in the ISL, and Zico’s contribution as a coach played a key role in shaping the team’s identity and performance during its early years.

Additional Information

  • Chennaiyin FC
  • Chennaiyin FC is an Indian Super League team based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
  • The team has been coached by notable figures like Marco Materazzi and John Gregory, but Zico has never been associated with this team.
  • Chennaiyin FC has won the ISL title twice, in 2015 and 2018.
  • Bengaluru FC
  • Bengaluru FC is based in Bangalore, Karnataka and is one of the most successful clubs in Indian football.
  • The team has been managed by notable coaches like Carles Cuadrat and Albert Roca, but not Zico.
  • Bengaluru FC won the ISL title in 2018-19 and is known for its strong defensive style of play.
  • Kerala Blasters FC
  • Kerala Blasters FC represents Kochi, Kerala in the Indian Super League.
  • The club has had a passionate fan base and has been coached by several managers, but Zico has never been their coach.
  • Kerala Blasters has reached the ISL final thrice but has not won the title yet.
12

Which of the following is not a form of carbohydrate?

  1. ((a))

    Glucose (sugar)

  2. ((b))

    Galactose

  3. ((c))

    Renin

  4. ((d))

    Starch

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Renin

The Correct answer is Renin.

Key Points

  • Renin is a protein enzyme and not a carbohydrate.
  • It is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys.
  • The primary function of renin is to regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body.
  • Renin acts on a protein called angiotensinogen, which is produced by the liver, and converts it into angiotensin I.
  • Angiotensin I is further converted into angiotensin II by the enzyme ACE (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme), which plays a significant role in vasoconstriction and increasing blood pressure.
  • Renin is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which is crucial for maintaining the body's electrolyte balance and blood volume.
  • It does not belong to the category of carbohydrates, which are primarily energy-providing biomolecules.

Additional Information

  • Glucose (Sugar)
  • Glucose is a monosaccharide carbohydrate and the primary source of energy for the body.
  • It is a simple sugar with the chemical formula C6H12O6.
  • Glucose is a product of photosynthesis in plants and is stored as starch.
  • It plays a key role in cellular respiration, where it is broken down to release ATP (energy).
  • Galactose
  • Galactose is also a monosaccharide carbohydrate.
  • It is chemically similar to glucose but differs in structure.
  • Galactose is found in milk and dairy products as part of the disaccharide lactose.
  • It plays a role in the synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids, which are essential for cell signaling.
  • Starch
  • Starch is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.
  • It is a storage form of glucose in plants and is composed of two types of molecules: amylose and amylopectin.
  • Starch is found in foods like potatoes, rice, wheat, and corn.
  • It is broken down into glucose by enzymes during digestion to provide energy.
13

Which of the Himalayan peaks mentioned in the following options is farther east than the remaining three?

  1. ((a))

    Kanchenjunga

  2. ((b))

    Mount Everest

  3. ((c))

    Trishul

  4. ((d))

    Godwin Austin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kanchenjunga

The correct answer is Kanchanjanga.

Key Points

  • Kanchanjanga is located in the eastern part of the Himalayas.
  • It is the third-highest mountain in the world with an elevation of 8,586 meters.
  • The peak is situated at the border of Nepal and India, specifically in the state of Sikkim.
  • Kanchanjanga is considered sacred in both Nepalese and Sikkimese culture.
  • The name Kanchanjanga translates to "Five Treasures of Snow" referring to its five peaks.
  • It is geographically located farther east compared to other peaks mentioned in the options.

Additional Information

  • Mount Everest
  • Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,848.86 meters.
  • It is located on the border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  • The peak is part of the Mahalangur Himal sub-range of the Himalayas.
  • Mount Everest is not situated as far east as Kanchanjanga.
  • Trishul
  • Trishul is a group of three Himalayan peaks located in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
  • The highest peak of the Trishul group has an elevation of 7,120 meters.
  • It lies in the western part of the Himalayas.
  • Godwin-Austen (K2)
  • Godwin-Austen, commonly known as K2, is the second-highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,611 meters.
  • It is located in the Karakoram Range, near the border of Pakistan and China.
  • Its location is farther west compared to the other peaks mentioned.
14

The words 'Do-Aspa' and 'Sinha-Aspa' are related to the which settlement?

  1. ((a))

    Iqtadari

  2. ((b))

    Dahasala

  3. ((c))

    Mahalwadi

  4. ((d))

    Mansabdari

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mansabdari

The Correct answer is Manasabdari

Key Points

  • The terms 'Do-Aspa' and 'Sih-Aspa' are related to the Manasabdari system.
  • The Manasabdari system was introduced by Akbar, one of the greatest Mughal emperors, as an administrative and military system.
  • In this system, officials and nobles were assigned a rank (Mansab), which determined their position and salary in the administration.
  • The rank was expressed in terms of two numbers: Zat (personal rank) and Sawar (cavalry rank).
  • The terms 'Do-Aspa' and 'Sih-Aspa' were related to the cavalry rank (Sawar) and represented the number of horses a Mansabdar was required to maintain.
  • These terms indicated higher ranks, where 'Do-Aspa' required two horses and 'Sih-Aspa' required three horses.

Additional Information

  • Iqta System
  • The Iqta system was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate and further developed by rulers like Iqta.
  • Under this system, land was assigned to nobles or officers in place of salary.
  • The holders of Iqtas, called Iqtadars or Muqtis, were responsible for collecting revenue and maintaining law and order in their regions.
  • Dahsal System
  • It was introduced during the reign of Akbar as a revenue settlement system.
  • Under this system, the average revenue of the last ten years (Dahsala) was calculated to determine the state's share of agricultural produce.
  • This system formed the basis for land revenue collection during Akbar's reign.
  • Mahalwari System
  • The Mahalwari system was introduced by the British in India.
  • Under this system, land revenue was assessed based on the entire village or Mahal.
  • It was implemented in regions like Punjab, North-West Province, and parts of Central India.
  • The responsibility of revenue collection was given to the village community or landlords.
15

With reference to Chalcolithic sites of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Atranjikhera - Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Chirand - Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Aahar - Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Rangpur - Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Atranjikhera - Rajasthan

The Correct answer is Atranjikhera - Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Atranjikhera is an important Chalcolithic site located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, not Rajasthan.
  • It is situated in the Etah district of Uttar Pradesh and represents a significant site for the study of the Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) culture.
  • The site has revealed evidence of a transition from the Chalcolithic period to the Iron Age.
  • Artifacts and remains such as pottery, copper tools, and terracotta objects have been discovered here.
  • This site is also important for understanding the socio-economic and cultural life of the early inhabitants of the region.

Additional Information

  • Chirand - Bihar
  • Chirand is a Chalcolithic site located in the Saran district of Bihar.
  • It is known for its Neolithic and Chalcolithic remains, including tools made of bone, antler, and stone.
  • The site provides evidence of the domestication of animals and the cultivation of crops like rice and barley.
  • Aahar - Rajasthan
  • Aahar is a well-known Chalcolithic site located near Udaipur in Rajasthan.
  • It is associated with the Ahar-Banas culture, characterized by black-and-red ware pottery.
  • Excavations have revealed copper tools, terracotta objects, and evidence of early farming practices.
  • Rangpur - Gujarat
  • Rangpur is a significant Chalcolithic site situated in the state of Gujarat.
  • It is associated with the Harappan culture and has yielded evidence of Late Harappan pottery, tools, and beads.
  • The site is also known for its evidence of rice cultivation during the Harappan period.
16

Tawa Dam is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Madhya Pradesh

The Correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Tawa Dam is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The dam is constructed on the Tawa River, which is a tributary of the Narmada River.
  • It is situated near Itarsi in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The construction of the dam was completed in the year 1978.
  • The Tawa Reservoir created by the dam is a significant source of irrigation and water supply for the region.
  • It also supports fisheries and acts as a source of livelihood for many local communities.
  • The Tawa Dam is part of the larger Narmada Valley Development Project, aimed at managing water resources efficiently in the region.

Additional Information

  • Bihar
  • Bihar is not the location of Tawa Dam. However, it is home to other significant water projects such as the Kosi Barrage and the Indrapuri Barrage.
  • The state is known for rivers like the Ganges, Kosi, and Gandak.
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Uttar Pradesh does not host the Tawa Dam. However, it is home to prominent dams like the Rihand Dam (on the Rihand River) and the Matatila Dam (on the Betwa River).
  • The state is a major agricultural hub, with water resources playing a critical role in its economy.
  • Jharkhand
  • Jharkhand is not the location of Tawa Dam. However, the state is home to the famous Maithon Dam and Panchet Dam, both part of the Damodar Valley Corporation project.
  • The state is rich in mineral resources and has significant industrial activity.
17

In which year did Akbar abolish the Pilgrimage Tax?

  1. ((a))

    1563

  2. ((b))

    1564

  3. ((c))

    1587

  4. ((d))

    1568

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1563

The Correct answer is 1563.

Key Points

  • Akbar, the Mughal Emperor, abolished the pilgrimage tax in the year 1563.
  • The pilgrimage tax was a tax imposed on individuals visiting religious sites, which was seen as a financial burden on the people.
  • This abolition was part of Akbar's policy of promoting religious tolerance and ensuring harmony among his subjects.
  • Akbar was known for his progressive policies, such as the formation of Din-i-Ilahi, which aimed at blending elements of different religions.
  • His reign marked a significant era in Indian history, with reforms in administration, taxation, and religion.

Additional Information

  • 1564
  • Akbar abolished the Jizya tax, a tax levied on non-Muslims, in the year 1564.
  • This was another significant step towards promoting religious tolerance and equality among different communities.
  • 1587
  • During Akbar's reign, the year 1587 was notable for administrative reforms and the expansion of the Mughal Empire.
  • He consolidated his rule in regions like Kashmir and parts of Deccan.
  • 1568
  • The year 1568 marked Akbar's conquest of Chittorgarh, a significant victory in his campaign against Rajput rulers.
  • This victory symbolized the growing power of the Mughal Empire in Northern India.
18

Which of the following is NOT a male reproductive part of a flower?

  1. ((a))

    Pollen grains

  2. ((b))

    Filament

  3. ((c))

    Sepal

  4. ((d))

    Anther

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sepal

The Correct answer is Sepal.

Key Points

  • Sepals are the outermost part of a flower that form the calyx.
  • They are typically green and leaf-like structures that protect the flower in its bud stage.
  • Unlike the male reproductive parts of a flower, sepals are non-reproductive structures.
  • Their primary function is to provide protection to the flower during its development.

Additional Information

  • Pollen Grains
  • Pollen grains are the male gametophytes of a flower.
  • They are produced in the anther, which is a part of the stamen.
  • Their function is to carry the male gametes for the process of fertilization.
  • Filament
  • The filament is a slender, thread-like structure that supports the anther.
  • It is part of the stamen and helps in positioning the anther for effective pollen dispersal.
  • Anther
  • The anther is the part of the stamen that produces and stores pollen grains.
  • It is a crucial component of the male reproductive part of a flower.
19

Under Article ____ of the Constitution of India, the National Commission for Linguistic Minorities was constituted.

  1. ((a))

    351

  2. ((b))

    350B

  3. ((c))

    350A

  4. ((d))

    352

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

350B

The correct answer is 350B.

Key Points

  • Under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution, the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was established.
  • This article was inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
  • The role of the Special Officer is to investigate matters related to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
  • The officer is appointed by the President of India and reports directly to them.
  • The primary aim of the commission is to protect and promote the rights of linguistic minorities in India.

Additional Information

  • Article 351
  • Article 351 provides for the development of the Hindi language.
  • It aims to promote Hindi so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture of India.
  • This article emphasizes the enrichment of Hindi by incorporating elements from other languages.
  • Article 350A
  • Article 350A deals with the obligation of the state to provide facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education.
  • This provision ensures the preservation of linguistic diversity in India.
  • Article 352
  • Article 352 relates to the proclamation of an Emergency in India on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • This is often referred to as a National Emergency.
20

Which of the following is not a part of the primary sector of the Indian economy?

  1. ((a))

    Mining

  2. ((b))

    Dairy

  3. ((c))

    Railway

  4. ((d))

    Forestry

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Railway

The correct answer is Railway.

Key Points

  • The Railway is not part of the Primary Sector of the economy. It is part of the Tertiary Sector, which provides services rather than producing goods.
  • The Primary Sector includes activities that involve the extraction and harvesting of natural resources, such as agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining.
  • The Railway falls under the Service Industry, which is integral to economic development but does not directly deal with raw material extraction or production.
  • This sector plays a crucial role in transportation, connecting different regions and facilitating the movement of goods and people.
  • The Indian Railways is one of the largest in the world and contributes significantly to the country's economic infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • Mining
  • Mining is part of the Primary Sector as it involves the extraction of minerals and natural resources from the earth.
  • It is essential for industries such as manufacturing, construction, and energy production.
  • India is rich in coal, iron ore, bauxite, and other minerals, which are mined extensively.
  • Dairy
  • Dairy falls under the Primary Sector as it involves the production of milk and milk products, which are derived from livestock.
  • India is the largest producer of milk in the world, contributing significantly to the agricultural economy.
  • Forestry
  • Forestry is a part of the Primary Sector as it involves the management and harvesting of forest resources.
  • It is vital for producing wood, paper, and other forest products.
  • Forests are also crucial for maintaining ecological balance and supporting biodiversity.
21

The famous Jain thinker Vardhamana Mahavira was born in which of the following centuries?

  1. ((a))

    6th

  2. ((b))

    4th

  3. ((c))

    5th

  4. ((d))

    3rd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6th

The Correct answer is 6th Century.

Key Points

  • Vardhamana Mahavira, also known as the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, was born in the 6th Century BCE.
  • He was born in a royal family in Kundagrama, near Vaishali, in present-day Bihar, India.
  • Mahavira was born into the Kshatriya Varna to King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala.
  • He is known for giving Jainism its present form and is often regarded as the founder of Jainism, even though the religion existed before him.
  • Mahavira emphasized the principles of Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), Brahmacharya (celibacy), and Aparigraha (non-possessiveness).
  • He attained Kevala Jnana (omniscience) after 12 years of rigorous penance and subsequently became a revered religious teacher.
  • His teachings were orally passed down and later compiled into Jain scriptures such as the Agamas.
  • The period of the 6th century BCE is considered significant for religious and philosophical developments in India as it also marked the emergence of Buddhism and other heterodox sects.

Additional Information

  • 4th Century
  • The 4th Century BCE is associated with notable events such as the reign of Alexander the Great and the rise of the Nanda Dynasty in India.
  • However, it is not the period of Mahavira’s life or his contributions to Jainism.
  • 5th Century
  • The 5th Century BCE saw the development of various philosophies in India, but it was not the century of Mahavira’s birth or active teachings.
  • 3rd Century
  • The 3rd Century BCE is prominently known for the reign of Emperor Ashoka and the spread of Buddhism.
  • This period came much after Mahavira’s time.
22

Which of the following chemicals is deficient in laterite soil?

  1. ((a))

    Titanium Oxide

  2. ((b))

    Aqueous oxides of aluminium

  3. ((c))

    Silica

  4. ((d))

    Iron oxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Silica

The correct answer is Silica.

Key Points

  • Laterite soil is formed in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall. It is the result of intense leaching due to tropical weathering.
  • This soil is poor in silica because of leaching, a process where rainwater removes soluble nutrients and minerals from the topsoil.
  • The soil is rich in iron oxides and aluminium oxides, giving it a reddish or yellowish color.
  • Laterite soil is acidic in nature due to the lack of lime and silica.
  • It is commonly found in regions like Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Vindhyas, Satpuras, and Malwa Plateau in India.
  • This soil is suitable for crops like cashew, coffee, tea, coconut, and rubber due to its porous and friable structure.

Additional Information

  • Titanium Oxide
  • Titanium oxide is a naturally occurring compound often used in paints, coatings, and sunscreens due to its high refractive index and ability to reflect ultraviolet light.
  • It is not a major component of laterite soil as the soil primarily contains iron and aluminium oxides.
  • Aluminium Oxides
  • Aluminium oxides are abundant in laterite soil, formed due to the weathering of rocks in tropical climates.
  • It is an important source of bauxite, which is used in aluminium production.
  • Iron Oxide
  • Iron oxide is present in large quantities in laterite soil and is responsible for its characteristic red or yellow color.
  • It makes the soil suitable for construction purposes, particularly in making bricks.
23

According to Article ________ of the Constitution of India, the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    41

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

40

The Correct answer is 40.

Key Points

  • Article 40 of the Constitution of India directs the state to take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
  • This article is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution.
  • The primary aim is to establish democratic decentralization by promoting grassroots governance through Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • The implementation of this article has been realized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added Part IX to the Constitution and institutionalized Panchayati Raj in India.
  • Village Panchayats are considered the foundation of democracy in rural India.
  • The Gram Sabha, comprising all adult members of a village, is the cornerstone of this system of governance.

Additional Information

  • Article 39
  • Article 39 is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and emphasizes securing a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
  • It directs the state to ensure that resources are distributed for the common good, preventing the concentration of wealth and ensuring equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
  • Article 41
  • Article 41 directs the state to ensure the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, within its economic capacity and development.
  • Article 38
  • Article 38 mandates the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice—social, economic, and political—shall inform all the institutions of national life.
  • It also directs the state to minimize inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities.
24

Sultanpur National Park, located in which of the following states, is known for its migratory and local birds?

  1. ((a))

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Haryana

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Haryana

The Correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • Sultanpur National Park is located in the Indian state of Haryana.
  • It is situated near Gurugram (formerly Gurgaon), approximately 15 km from the city.
  • This national park is famous for its migratory and resident birds, making it a paradise for birdwatchers.
  • The park attracts a variety of migratory birds from as far as Europe, Siberia, and Central Asia, especially during the winter season.
  • It was declared a Ramsar Site in 2021, highlighting its ecological importance.
  • Bird species commonly found here include painted storks, black-headed ibis, Eurasian wigeon, and common teal.
  • The national park covers an area of approximately 1.43 sq. km, making it relatively small compared to other national parks in India.
  • Sultanpur National Park also has a rich variety of flora and fauna, including several types of trees, shrubs, and grasses that provide a habitat for the birds.

Additional Information

  • Himachal Pradesh
  • Himachal Pradesh is renowned for its mountainous terrain and scenic landscapes.
  • It is home to several national parks, including the Great Himalayan National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, but not Sultanpur National Park.
  • Punjab
  • Punjab is known for its fertile agricultural land and vibrant cultural heritage.
  • While Punjab has some notable wetlands like the Harike Wetland, Sultanpur National Park is not located here.
  • Rajasthan
  • Rajasthan is famous for its deserts and palaces.
  • The state is home to the Keoladeo National Park (a UNESCO World Heritage Site), which is also renowned for migratory birds, but Sultanpur National Park is not situated in Rajasthan.
25

As of August 2020, the Creamy Layer criteria is applicable to which of the following categories in the context of reservation?

  1. ((a))

    OBC

  2. ((b))

    EWS

  3. ((c))

    ST

  4. ((d))

    SC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OBC

The correct answer is OBC (Other Backward Classes).

Key Points

  • The Creamy Layer criterion was introduced to exclude the economically advanced sections of the Other Backward Classes (OBC) from the benefits of reservation in government jobs and educational institutions.
  • As of August 2020, the income limit for determining the Creamy Layer was set at ₹8 lakh per annum.
  • This criterion is based on the recommendations of the Mandal Commission and aims to ensure that only the genuinely disadvantaged sections of the OBC category benefit from reservation.
  • The term "Creamy Layer" was first defined in the landmark Indra Sawhney vs Union of India case (1992), where the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the reservation for OBCs but excluded the Creamy Layer.
  • The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is responsible for identifying the Creamy Layer among OBCs.

Additional Information

  • EWS (Economically Weaker Sections)
  • The EWS category is separate from the OBC, SC, and ST categories and was introduced under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2019.
  • It provides 10% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for economically weaker sections of the general category.
  • Unlike the OBC category, the EWS does not have a Creamy Layer concept.
  • SC (Scheduled Castes)
  • The Scheduled Castes are among the most disadvantaged communities in India, identified under Article 341 of the Indian Constitution.
  • SCs are eligible for reservation in education, employment, and political representation, but the Creamy Layer concept is not applicable to them.
  • ST (Scheduled Tribes)
  • The Scheduled Tribes are defined under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution and are considered socially and economically disadvantaged.
  • STs are provided reservations in education, employment, and political representation, and the Creamy Layer concept does not apply to them.
26

Government selling and liquidating its assets or stakes in Public Sector Enterprises is called:

  1. ((a))

    recapitalisation

  2. ((b))

     disinvestment 

  3. ((c))

    recreditisation

  4. ((d))

    deregulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 disinvestment 

The correct answer is disinvestment.

Key Points

  • Disinvestment refers to the process of the government selling or liquidating its assets or stakes in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).
  • This is often done to reduce the financial burden on the government and to raise funds for development purposes or to improve public finances.
  • It can involve the sale of shares, transfer of ownership, or privatization of public enterprises.
  • In India, disinvestment is managed by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under the Ministry of Finance.
  • Some notable examples of disinvestment include the sale of stakes in companies like LIC, Air India, and BPCL.
  • Disinvestment is often used as a strategy to promote private sector participation and to make public enterprises more efficient through competition.

Additional Information

  • Recapitalisation
  • Recapitalisation refers to restructuring a company's debt and equity mix, often to stabilize its financial condition.
  • This is common in the banking sector, where the government infuses capital into banks to improve their capital adequacy ratio.
  • For example, the Indian government often uses recapitalization bonds for public sector banks.
  • Recreditisation
  • This term is not widely recognized in financial literature and may have been used incorrectly or out of context.
  • It could be interpreted as the process of restoring or restructuring credit, but it is not a standard financial term.
  • Deregulation
  • Deregulation refers to the process of removing or reducing government regulations and restrictions in an industry or sector.
  • This is usually done to encourage competition, increase efficiency, and foster innovation.
  • An example of deregulation in India is the deregulation of fuel prices, where the government allowed market forces to determine prices.
27

The famous scholar Al-Beruni wrote mainly in _______ language.

  1. ((a))

    Persian

  2. ((b))

    Arabic

  3. ((c))

    Turkish

  4. ((d))

    Urdu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arabic

The correct answer is Arabic.

Key Points

  • Al-Beruni, a renowned scholar, historian, and polymath of the 11th century, wrote primarily in the Arabic language.
  • Arabic was widely used during his time as the scientific and literary language in the Islamic world.
  • His most famous work, Kitab al-Hind (The Book of India), written in Arabic, is a comprehensive study of the culture, religion, philosophy, and science of the Indian subcontinent.
  • Al-Beruni's proficiency in Arabic allowed him to interact with scholars from different regions and contribute significantly to various fields, including astronomy, mathematics, medicine, and geography.
  • He also translated many Indian works into Arabic, thus bridging the gap between Indian and Islamic cultures.
  • Arabic, being the lingua franca of intellectuals in the medieval Islamic world, enabled Al-Beruni's works to reach a wide audience and ensure their preservation over centuries.

Additional Information

  • Persian
  • The Persian language was also prominent in the medieval Islamic world but was more associated with poetry, literature, and administrative works.
  • While Al-Beruni knew Persian, he primarily used Arabic for his scientific and academic writings as it was the dominant scholarly language of his era.
  • Turkish
  • Al-Beruni was born in the region of Khwarezm (modern-day Uzbekistan), where Turkish dialects were spoken. However, these were not widely used in academic and scientific literature of the time.
  • Urdu
  • Urdu as a language did not exist during Al-Beruni’s time. It developed much later, around the 12th century, as a blend of Persian, Arabic, and local Indian dialects.
28

Madam Bhikaji Cama hoisted the Indian National Flag for the first time in 1907 at which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Stuttgart

  2. ((b))

    Munich

  3. ((c))

    Berlin

  4. ((d))

    Bonn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stuttgart

The Correct answer is Stuttgart (Stutgart).

Key Points

  • Madam Bhikaji Cama, a prominent Indian independence activist, was the first to unfurl the Indian National Flag on foreign soil.
  • She hoisted the flag at the International Socialist Congress held in Stuttgart, Germany, in the year 1907.
  • The flag she unfurled was an early version of the Indian tricolour, which symbolized the aspirations of the Indian freedom movement.
  • This act was a significant step in the internationalization of the Indian independence struggle.
  • Madam Bhikaji Cama is remembered as a pioneering nationalist and a key figure in India's freedom movement.
  • The flag was designed with three horizontal stripes of green, saffron, and red, each representing different aspects of India's struggle for freedom.

Additional Information

  • Munich
  • Munich is a major city in Germany and the capital of the state of Bavaria.
  • It is known for its cultural heritage, including the Oktoberfest, a globally celebrated beer festival.
  • The city is also known for its contributions to science, technology, and art.
  • Berlin
  • Berlin is the capital city of Germany and one of its 16 states.
  • The city is famous for its historical landmarks like the Brandenburg Gate and the Berlin Wall.
  • It is a hub for politics, culture, and innovation.
  • Bonn
  • Bonn is a city in Germany that served as the capital of West Germany from 1949 to 1990.
  • It is the birthplace of the famous composer Ludwig van Beethoven.
  • The city is now known for its role in hosting various United Nations organizations.
29

Whose 550th birth anniversary was celebrated in 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Guru Tegh Bahadur

  2. ((b))

    Guru Nanak

  3. ((c))

    Guru Ravidas

  4. ((d))

    Guru Ramdas

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Guru Nanak

The Correct answer is Guru Nanak.

Key Points

  • Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism.
  • He was born on 15 April 1469 in Rai Bhoi Di Talwandi, now known as Nankana Sahib, in present-day Pakistan.
  • The year 2019 marked the celebration of his 550th birth anniversary.
  • Guru Nanak's teachings and philosophy are preserved in the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of Sikhism.
  • His messages emphasized equality, humility, and devotion.
  • He traveled extensively to spread his spiritual teachings and advocated the concept of One God.
  • Guru Nanak introduced the practice of Langar, where free meals are served in Gurudwaras to all people regardless of religion, caste, or social status.

Additional Information

  • Guru Tegh Bahadur
  • Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru.
  • He is remembered for his sacrifice to protect religious freedom.
  • He was executed by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb for refusing to convert to Islam.
  • Guru Ravidas
  • Guru Ravidas was a 15th-century saint and poet of the Bhakti Movement.
  • He was born in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
  • His teachings emphasized equality, unity, and tolerance.
  • Guru Ramdas
  • Guru Ramdas was the fourth Sikh Guru.
  • He is credited with founding Amritsar, the holiest city of the Sikhs.
  • Guru Ramdas composed hymns which are included in the Guru Granth Sahib.
30

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Central Constitution Committee?

  1. ((a))

    Rajendra Prasad

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Vallabhbhai Patel

  4. ((d))

    B.P. Sitaramayya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jawaharlal Nehru

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was the Chairman of the Central Constitution Committee.
  • The Central Constitution Committee was formed to draft the framework for the Constitution of India.
  • The committee worked in coordination with other sub-committees to address specific elements of the Constitution.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru played a pivotal role in shaping India's political and constitutional framework after independence.
  • He was a key member of the Constituent Assembly and contributed to debates and discussions on significant matters like federal structure, fundamental rights, and governance.
  • His leadership in the committee demonstrated his vision of a democratic and inclusive India.
  • He was also instrumental in presenting the Objective Resolution, which laid the foundational principles for the Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Rajendra Prasad
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly and later became the first President of India.
  • He played a key role in guiding the assembly during the drafting of the Constitution.
  • Vallabhbhai Patel
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, known as the Iron Man of India, was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
  • He was instrumental in integrating princely states into the Indian Union.
  • B.P. Sitaramayya
  • B.P. Sitaramayya was an Indian freedom fighter and Congress leader but did not hold a specific chairmanship in the Constitution drafting process.
  • He is remembered for his contributions to the freedom struggle and his leadership in the Congress Party.
31

The first Economic Census in India was conducted in ______.

  1. ((a))

    1978

  2. ((b))

    1977

  3. ((c))

    1976

  4. ((d))

    1975

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1977

The Correct answer is 1977.

Key Points

  • The first economic census in India was conducted in the year 1977.
  • The economic census serves as a comprehensive count of all entrepreneurial units in the country involved in any economic activity of either production or distribution of goods and services.
  • It provides vital data regarding the size, structure, and distribution of economic establishments across the nation.
  • It is conducted under the aegis of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
  • The first economic census laid the foundation for subsequent censuses, enabling the government to frame policies for economic development.
  • It is conducted periodically to understand the trends and changes in the economic structure of the country.

Additional Information

  • Economic census data is crucial for policy-making, planning, and resource allocation.
  • It also helps in understanding the participation of the unorganized sector in the economy.
  • The subsequent economic censuses after 1977 were conducted in the years 1980, 1990, 1998, 2005, 2013, and 2019.
32

As of 1 September 2020, Balram Bhargava held which of the following positions?

  1. ((a))

    Director, All India Institute of Medical Sciences

  2. ((b))

    Vice Chancellor, Jawaharlal Nehru University

  3. ((c))

    Director, Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research

The correct answer is Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research.

Key Points

  • Dr. Balram Bhargava is an eminent medical professional, researcher, and academician in India.
  • As of 1 September 2020, he was serving as the Director General of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and also as the Secretary of the Department of Health Research in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • The ICMR is one of the oldest and most prestigious medical research bodies in the world, focusing on the promotion, coordination, and formulation of biomedical and health research in India.
  • Dr. Bhargava has been recognized for his significant contributions to public health, including his efforts in combating the COVID-19 pandemic in India.
  • He also played a pivotal role in the development and promotion of affordable healthcare technologies, including indigenous stents and medical devices.
  • Dr. Bhargava's leadership at ICMR has been instrumental in driving research, especially during the global health crises.

Additional Information

  • Director, All India Institute of Medical Sciences
  • The Director of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) oversees operations at AIIMS, which is one of India’s premier medical institutions.
  • AIIMS provides top-tier medical education and healthcare services in India and is located in New Delhi.
  • This position was held by Dr. Randeep Guleria during the time in question.
  • Vice Chancellor, Jawaharlal Nehru University
  • The Vice Chancellor is the chief executive of Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), a prominent institution known for higher education and research, located in New Delhi.
  • In 2020, this position was held by M. Jagadesh Kumar.
  • Director, Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad
  • The Director of the Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (IIM-A) leads one of India’s top business schools.
  • This position was held by Errol D’Souza in 2020.
33

Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of the Barak River?

  1. ((a))

    Dhubri

  2. ((b))

    Tezpur

  3. ((c))

    Dibrugarh

  4. ((d))

    Silchar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Silchar

The Correct answer is Silchar.

Key Points

  • Silchar is located on the banks of the Barak River, which flows through the northeastern region of India.
  • The Barak River originates from the Manipur Hills in northeastern India and flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram, and Assam.
  • Silchar is a prominent city in the Cachar district of Assam and is often referred to as the "Gateway to the Barak Valley."
  • The city of Silchar serves as an important economic and cultural hub for the entire Barak Valley region.
  • The Barak River eventually merges with the Surma River in Bangladesh, forming the Meghna River, which then flows into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Silchar has a rich cultural history, and its location on the Barak River has significantly contributed to its development and connectivity.

Additional Information

  • Dhubri
  • Dhubri is a town in Assam, located on the banks of the Brahmaputra River.
  • It is well-known for its historical significance and the Asarikandi terracotta craft.
  • Tezpur
  • Tezpur is situated on the northern banks of the Brahmaputra River in Assam.
  • The city is often referred to as the "Cultural Capital of Assam."
  • Tezpur is famous for its historical ruins and natural beauty.
  • Dibrugarh
  • Dibrugarh is located in Assam and lies on the banks of the Brahmaputra River.
  • It is known as the "Tea City of India" due to its extensive tea plantations.
34

Which of the following countries will host the 2022 Asian Games?

  1. ((a))

    China

  2. ((b))

    South Korea

  3. ((c))

    Japan

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

China

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

  • The 2022 Asian Games, also known as the 19th Asian Games, were scheduled to be hosted by China.
  • The event was held in the city of Hangzhou, the capital of Zhejiang province, China.
  • The Asian Games is a multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from across Asia, governed by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
  • Hangzhou became the third Chinese city to host the Asian Games after Beijing (1990) and Guangzhou (2010).
  • The event showcased a total of 40 sports and 61 disciplines, with participation from athletes across the Asian continent.
  • Hangzhou is known for its scenic beauty and cultural heritage, including the famous West Lake, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Additional Information

  • South Korea
  • South Korea has hosted the Asian Games multiple times, including in Seoul (1986) and Incheon (2014).
  • South Korea is known for its technological advancements and is home to global companies like Samsung and Hyundai.
  • Japan
  • Japan has hosted the Asian Games earlier, including the 1958 Games in Tokyo and the 1994 Games in Hiroshima.
  • Japan is renowned for its cultural heritage, technological prowess, and hosting global events like the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
  • Sri Lanka
  • Sri Lanka has not hosted the Asian Games to date.
  • The country is known for its rich history, tea plantations, and UNESCO World Heritage Sites like Sigiriya.
35

The Sanchi Stupa has _______ toranas or gateways on which various events and Jatakas from the life of Buddha have been depicted.

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Six

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Four

The Correct answer is चार.

Key Points

  • The Sanchi Stupa, located in Madhya Pradesh, is one of the most significant Buddhist monuments in India and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • The stupa has चार तोरण (four gateways), which are positioned in the cardinal directions – east, west, north, and south.
  • These gateways are highly elaborative and depict scenes from the life of Lord Buddha and stories from the Jataka tales.
  • The gateways were constructed during the Satavahana period, under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka.
  • The carvings on these gateways include narratives of compassion, wisdom, and the teachings of Buddha.
  • The Sanchi Stupa is an example of ancient Indian architecture and reflects the growth of Buddhist art and sculpture.

Additional Information

  • Sanchi Stupa is not just an architectural marvel but also holds significant historical and cultural importance as it represents India's Buddhist heritage.
  • It was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE and later expanded by the Satavahanas.
  • The stupa is surrounded by a railing, and the gateways are decorated with intricate carvings showcasing the artistic expertise of the craftsmen of that period.
36

In the context of the fiscal policy of the Indian economy, which of the following is the full form of the acronym 'GFCF'?

  1. ((a))

     General Financial Corporate Function

  2. ((b))

     Gross Fixed Capital Formation

  3. ((c))

     Gross Fiscal Core Fund

  4. ((d))

    Goods, Freight, Cartage and Farming

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 Gross Fixed Capital Formation

The Correct answer is Gross Fixed Capital Formation (ग्रॉस फ़िक्स्ड कैपिटल फ़ॉर्मेशन).

Key Points

  • Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) refers to the net increase in fixed assets within the economy. It is a measure of investment in physical assets such as machinery, buildings, and infrastructure.
  • It is a critical indicator used in macroeconomic analysis to assess the level of investment in an economy.
  • This metric is closely linked to economic growth, as investments in fixed capital contribute significantly to production and development.
  • GFCF includes both private and public sector investments and excludes financial assets or inventories.
  • It is reported as a percentage of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in national accounts.
  • Higher levels of GFCF typically indicate stronger future economic potential and infrastructure development.
  • In India, the data related to GFCF is published by organizations like the National Statistical Office (NSO) or in reports like the Economic Survey.

Additional Information

  • General Financial Corporate Function
  • This is not a recognized term in the field of macroeconomics or fiscal policy.
  • The term might suggest financial operations or functions related to corporations, but it has no relevance in the context of GFCF.
  • Gross Fiscal Core Fund
  • Similarly, this term does not have any established meaning in fiscal economics or policy.
  • It may confuse the concept of gross fiscal measures with fixed capital formation.
  • Goods, Freight, Cartage and Farming
  • This phrase relates to logistics and agriculture but has no connection to Gross Fixed Capital Formation.
  • It may seem associated with transportation or farming activities but does not pertain to the measurement of fixed asset investment.
37

Lok Janshakti Party is a regional political party with its electoral base primarily in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bihar

The Correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • Lok Janshakti Party (LJP) is a prominent regional political party in India.
  • The party's main electoral base is in the state of Bihar.
  • It was founded in 2000 by Ram Vilas Paswan, a veteran Indian politician and social leader.
  • The party primarily focuses on issues related to Dalit empowerment, social justice, and economic development in Bihar.
  • Over the years, LJP has played a significant role in Bihar politics, often forming alliances with major national parties like the BJP and the RJD.
  • LJP has had a strong influence in constituencies with a significant Dalit population due to its policies and leadership catering to the marginalized communities.
  • The party has been a key participant in several elections in Bihar, including the Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections.

Additional Information

  • Gujarat
  • Gujarat is known for its prominent political parties like the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and the Indian National Congress (INC).
  • It does not serve as an electoral base for the Lok Janshakti Party.
  • Gujarat has been a key state for the BJP, with many of its top leaders, including Prime Minister Narendra Modi, coming from this state.
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • Madhya Pradesh primarily sees political competition between the Congress and the BJP.
  • The state is not a stronghold of the Lok Janshakti Party.
  • It is known for its tribal population and key political issues often center around forest rights, agriculture, and tribal welfare.
  • Maharashtra
  • Maharashtra is dominated by parties like the Shiv Sena, Nationalist Congress Party (NCP), INC, and BJP.
  • The Lok Janshakti Party does not have a significant presence in this state.
  • It is known for its industrial hubs like Mumbai and Pune, along with key political movements like the Maharashtra Navnirman Sena (MNS).
38

In the context of fiscal policy of the Indian economy, which of the following is obtained by subtracting inputs from economic output?

  1. ((a))

    NVA

  2. ((b))

    GDP

  3. ((c))

    SNA

  4. ((d))

    GVA

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

GVA

The Correct answer is GVA (Gross Value Added).

Key Points

  • GVA (Gross Value Added) is a measure of the value of goods and services produced in an area, industry, or sector of an economy.
  • It is calculated by deducting the value of intermediate consumption (inputs) from the total output.
  • GVA provides a sector-wise breakdown of an economy, helping in identifying the contributions of each sector to the overall GDP.
  • It serves as a key indicator for measuring the economic health of a country or region.
  • The formula for calculating GVA is: GVA = Output - Intermediate Consumption.
  • In India, the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) calculates GVA at both basic prices and factor cost.
  • GVA is essential for determining the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), as GDP is derived by adding taxes and subtracting subsidies from GVA.

Additional Information

  • NVA (Net Value Added)
  • NVA is calculated by deducting depreciation from Gross Value Added (GVA).
  • It provides a more accurate measure of the value generated as it accounts for the wear and tear of fixed assets.
  • The formula for NVA is: NVA = GVA - Depreciation.
  • GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
  • GDP represents the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.
  • It is derived by adding net taxes (taxes minus subsidies) to Gross Value Added (GVA).
  • GDP is a key indicator used to gauge the economic health of a country.
  • SNA (System of National Accounts)
  • SNA is an international framework for compiling national accounts, established by the United Nations, International Monetary Fund, World Bank, and other organizations.
  • It provides detailed and comprehensive guidelines for calculating economic indicators such as GDP, GVA, and NVA.
  • The SNA ensures consistency in economic statistics across countries.
39

 The microorganism named ‘Lactobacillus’ is a/an ______.

  1. ((a))

    protozoan

  2. ((b))

     fungus

  3. ((c))

     bacterium 

  4. ((d))

    alga 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 bacterium 

The correct answer is bacterium.

Key Points

  • Lactobacillus is a genus of bacteria that are rod-shaped and belong to the group of lactic acid bacteria.
  • These bacteria are known for their ability to convert lactose and sugars into lactic acid, a process called fermentation.
  • Lactobacillus is widely used in the production of yogurt, cheese, and other fermented dairy products.
  • It is also a probiotic, meaning it is beneficial for gut health as it helps maintain a balanced microbiota in the intestines.
  • They play a significant role in the food industry and are also utilized in the production of fermented vegetables, beverages, and pickles.
  • Some species of Lactobacillus are part of the natural flora of the human body, particularly in the gastrointestinal tract, mouth, and vagina, where they perform protective functions.

Additional Information

  • Protozoan
  • Protozoa are single-celled organisms that belong to the kingdom Protista.
  • They are mostly found in aquatic environments and can be free-living or parasitic.
  • Examples include Amoeba, Paramecium, and Plasmodium.
  • Plasmodium, a protozoan, causes malaria in humans.
  • Fungus
  • Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds, yeasts, and mushrooms.
  • They reproduce by spores and thrive in moist and warm environments.
  • Fungi play a vital role in decomposition and are used in the production of antibiotics like Penicillin.
  • Examples of fungi include Aspergillus, Saccharomyces, and Rhizopus.
  • Alga
  • Algae are photosynthetic organisms, typically found in aquatic environments.
  • They range from microscopic forms like diatoms to large seaweeds such as kelp.
  • They play a critical role in the global carbon cycle by producing oxygen through photosynthesis.
  • Examples include Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, and Laminaria.
40

Which of the following provisions, outside the scope of Article 368 of the Constitution of India, can be amended by a simple majority of both the Houses of Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule

  2. ((b))

    Presidential Election and its Process

  3. ((c))

    Fundamental rights

  4. ((d))

    Use of the official language

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Use of the official language

The correct answer is Use of the official language.

Key Points

  • The Use of the official language under the Constitution of India can be amended by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament.
  • Such amendments do not fall under the purview of Article 368, which outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution.
  • Article 343 to 351 of the Indian Constitution deals with the official language of the Union and the states.
  • The Constitution originally designated Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Republic of India, along with a provision for the continued use of English.
  • Changes to provisions related to the use of official languages are considered administrative matters, hence requiring only a simple majority for amendment.
  • This provision ensures flexibility in language policies to accommodate linguistic diversity in India.

Additional Information

  • Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution divides the powers and functions between the Union and States through three lists: the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • Amendments to the Seventh Schedule require a special majority as per Article 368 and cannot be amended through a simple majority.
  • Presidential Election and its Process
  • The process of electing the President of India is governed by Article 54 and Article 55 of the Constitution.
  • Changes to the process of presidential elections require a special majority and ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, as per Article 368.
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, provide individuals with basic rights and liberties.
  • Any amendments to Fundamental Rights require a special majority of Parliament under Article 368.
41

Where is Hazarduari Palace located?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Jharkhand

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The Correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • Hazarduari Palace is located in Murshidabad, a district in the state of West Bengal, India.
  • The name 'Hazarduari' means 'Palace of a Thousand Doors' in Urdu, and the palace is famous for its architectural grandeur.
  • It was built in the 19th century during the reign of Nawab Nazim Humayun Jah of Bengal.
  • The palace was designed by Duncan Macleod, a British architect, in the Greek (Doric) style of architecture.
  • It has 1000 doors, of which 900 are false, intended to confuse intruders.
  • The palace is part of the Kila Nizamat, a larger complex that served as the seat of power for the Nawabs of Bengal.
  • The palace now functions as a museum under the supervision of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), showcasing historical artifacts, paintings, furniture, and weapons from the Nawabi era.
  • Murshidabad is well-known for its historical significance, especially during the Mughal and British periods.

Additional Information

  • Assam
  • Assam is known for its natural beauty, particularly the Brahmaputra River, tea plantations, and wildlife sanctuaries.
  • It is home to the famous Kaziranga National Park, renowned for its one-horned rhinoceros.
  • The state is also known for its Ahom Kingdom and the historical monuments associated with it.
  • Bihar
  • Bihar is historically significant for its association with Buddhism and Jainism.
  • It is home to Bodh Gaya, where Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment.
  • Bihar was also the seat of the ancient Magadha Empire and the famous Nalanda University.
  • Jharkhand
  • Jharkhand is known for its rich mineral resources, including coal, iron ore, and mica.
  • The state is famous for its tribal culture and natural beauty, including waterfalls like Dassam Falls and Hundru Falls.
  • It is also home to the Betla National Park, which is a major tourist attraction.
42

The Veerashaiva tradition emerged in the 12th century CE in present-day _______.

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karnataka

The Correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • The Veerashaiva tradition, also known as the Lingayat tradition, emerged in the 12th century CE.
  • This tradition was founded by the philosopher and social reformer Basavanna in present-day Karnataka.
  • It advocated for a society based on equality, social justice, and the rejection of the caste system.
  • The followers of this tradition worship Lord Shiva in the form of a linga, which is a symbol of divinity and energy.
  • The movement became a significant socio-religious reform movement in South India.
  • The core principles of the Veerashaiva tradition emphasize monotheism, devotion, and ethical living.
  • Basavanna's teachings were compiled in the form of Vachanas (poetic compositions), which are considered sacred in this tradition.
  • The Kalyana region, now in Karnataka, was the center of this movement during its inception.
  • The Veerashaiva tradition has had a profound impact on the culture, literature, and spiritual practices of Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu
  • Tamil Nadu is known for its rich Sangam literature and is the cradle of the Bhakti movement, but it is not the origin of the Veerashaiva tradition.
  • It is famous for Shaivism and the worship of Shiva, but the specific Veerashaiva movement originated in Karnataka.
  • Gujarat
  • Gujarat is historically associated with the Jain tradition and the Vaishnavite Bhakti movement.
  • The region is home to important religious figures like Lord Krishna (Dwarka) and Mahavira, but it is not linked to the Veerashaiva tradition.
  • Maharashtra
  • Maharashtra is well-known for the Varkari movement and the worship of Lord Vithoba.
  • While it has a strong spiritual and Bhakti tradition, the Veerashaiva movement did not originate here.
43

Who among the following is the lyricist of the famous song 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara'?

  1. ((a))

    Piyush Pandey

  2. ((b))

    Bhimsen Joshi

  3. ((c))

    Ashok Patki

  4. ((d))

    Anand Shankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Piyush Pandey

The Correct answer is Piyush Pandey.

Key Points

  • Piyush Pandey is a renowned Indian advertising executive and lyricist known for his exceptional creative contributions.
  • He penned the lyrics for the iconic song 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara.'
  • The song was created to promote national integration and unity in India.
  • 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara' was released in 1988 and became an anthem of patriotism and cultural pride.
  • Piyush Pandey is associated with Ogilvy & Mather, one of the largest advertising agencies globally.
  • He has been awarded several honors, including the 'Padma Shri' in recognition of his contributions to the field of advertising and creativity.
  • His work has had a profound impact on the advertising industry and cultural promotion in India.

Additional Information

  • Bhimsen Joshi
  • Bhimsen Joshi was a legendary Indian vocalist in the Hindustani classical tradition.
  • He was honored with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, for his contributions to music.
  • While he sang in 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara', he was not the lyricist of the song.
  • Bhimsen Joshi’s voice in the song added immense depth and emotional resonance to its impact.
  • Ashok Patki
  • Ashok Patki is a renowned music composer, primarily known for his work in Marathi films and television.
  • He composed the music for 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara,' which made the song melodious and memorable.
  • He has composed music for several popular songs and jingles over the years.
  • Anand Shankar
  • Anand Shankar was a famous Indian composer known for his fusion of Western and Indian music.
  • Although he was not involved with 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara,' his work significantly influenced the Indian music industry.
  • He was the nephew of the legendary sitar maestro Ravi Shankar.
44

Total factor productivity is the _______ of the weighted average of output and inputs.

  1. ((a))

    ratio

  2. ((b))

    product

  3. ((c))

    difference

  4. ((d))

    sum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ratio

The correct answer is ratio.

Key Points

  • Total Factor Productivity (TFP) is defined as the ratio of the weighted average of output to the weighted average of inputs.
  • It measures the efficiency with which inputs like labor and capital are used to produce outputs in an economy.
  • TFP is considered a key indicator of technological advancement and plays a crucial role in determining the growth of an economy.
  • It accounts for the portion of output growth that cannot be explained by the increase in input usage, often attributed to factors like innovation, skill improvement, and better resource allocation.
  • It helps identify whether an economy or a business is improving productivity through better techniques and innovation rather than simply increasing inputs.
  • TFP is critical for analyzing the long-term growth potential of an economy and is often used in the study of economic development and growth models.

Additional Information

  • Product
  • The term "product" refers to the result of multiplying two or more values.
  • In the context of productivity, "product" does not fit as TFP is not the multiplication of outputs and inputs but rather their ratio.
  • Difference
  • The "difference" refers to the subtraction of one quantity from another.
  • In TFP, outputs and inputs are not subtracted but compared as a ratio to evaluate productivity.
  • Sum
  • "Sum" implies the addition of two or more values.
  • However, in TFP calculations, the focus is on the proportional relationship (ratio) between outputs and inputs, not their summation.
45

N. K. Singh is the chairman of the ________ Finance Commission of India.

  1. ((a))

    13th

  2. ((b))

    15th

  3. ((c))

    14th

  4. ((d))

    12th

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15th

The Correct answer is 15th.

Key Points

  • N. K. Singh is the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India.
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body in India, established under Article 280 of the Constitution.
  • Its primary function is to define the financial relations between the Union government and the state governments.
  • The 15th Finance Commission was constituted on 27th November 2017, and its term was extended to provide recommendations for the fiscal years 2021-2026.
  • It was tasked with making recommendations on the division of tax revenues, principles governing grants-in-aid to states, and other financial matters.
  • The commission's report was tabled in Parliament in 2021 and focuses on strengthening fiscal federalism in India.
  • Under the chairmanship of N. K. Singh, the 15th Finance Commission considered new challenges, including the economic impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

  • 13th Finance Commission
  • The 13th Finance Commission was chaired by Vijay L. Kelkar.
  • It provided recommendations for the fiscal years 2010-2015.
  • The focus was on fiscal consolidation and incentivizing states to improve their financial management.
  • 14th Finance Commission
  • The 14th Finance Commission was chaired by Y. V. Reddy.
  • Its recommendations covered the fiscal years 2015-2020.
  • It significantly increased the states’ share of tax revenues from 32% to 42%.
  • 12th Finance Commission
  • The 12th Finance Commission was chaired by C. Rangarajan.
  • It provided recommendations for the fiscal years 2005-2010.
  • The focus was on improving the financial position of states and implementing fiscal discipline.
46

What is the maximum number of fielders that can remain outside the 30-yard circle during the first six overs of an innings in an international T20 cricket match?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

     Five

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

     Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Two

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

  • In an international T20 cricket match, the first six overs of the innings are called the Powerplay overs.
  • During the Powerplay, fielding restrictions are in place, allowing only a maximum of two fielders outside the 30-yard circle.
  • The 30-yard circle is a visible demarcation on the cricket field, and it plays a key role in restricting the placement of fielders during Powerplay overs.
  • The purpose of this rule is to encourage aggressive batting and ensure a balance between batting and bowling in the shorter format of the game.
  • After the Powerplay, the fielding restrictions are relaxed, and up to five fielders can be positioned outside the 30-yard circle.

Additional Information

  • Three
  • This is incorrect because, during the Powerplay, only up to two fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle, not three.
  • Five
  • This applies after the Powerplay overs are completed, where up to five fielders can be stationed outside the 30-yard circle.
  • Four
  • This is not applicable during the first six overs of an international T20 match, as the rules limit the number of fielders outside the 30-yard circle to two during the Powerplay.
47

Which of the following is a part of the respiratory system of insects?

  1. ((a))

    Nephridia 

  2. ((b))

    Spiracles

  3. ((c))

    Nephron

  4. ((d))

    Neuron

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Spiracles

The Correct answer is Spiracles

Key Points

  • Spiracles are small openings located on the sides of the body of insects, which are part of their respiratory system.
  • They allow the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the external environment and the insect's body.
  • Spiracles connect to a network of tubes called tracheae and tracheoles, which distribute oxygen directly to the cells.
  • This mode of respiration is known as tracheal respiration, and it is highly efficient for small organisms like insects.
  • The structure of spiracles includes features like valves that help regulate airflow and prevent water loss.
  • They are generally located on the thorax and abdomen of insects.

Additional Information

  • Nephridia
  • Nephridia are excretory organs found in annelids and certain other invertebrates.
  • They help in removing metabolic waste and maintaining osmotic balance.
  • Nephridia are not a part of the respiratory system but play a role in the excretory system.
  • Nephron
  • A nephron is the functional unit of the kidney in vertebrates.
  • It is responsible for filtering blood and forming urine.
  • It is not related to the insect respiratory system, as insects do not have kidneys.
  • Neuron
  • Neurons are specialized cells responsible for transmitting nerve impulses in animals, forming the basis of the nervous system.
  • They are not involved in respiration but are essential for coordinating bodily functions.
48

Who among the following is the author of the book 'The Divine Comedy'?

  1. ((a))

    Dante Alighieri

  2. ((b))

    John Keats

  3. ((c))

    Victor Hugo

  4. ((d))

    Bertrand Russell

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dante Alighieri

The Correct answer is Dante Alighieri.

Key Points

  • Dante Alighieri was an Italian poet, writer, and philosopher.
  • He is best known for his epic poem "The Divine Comedy."
  • The poem is considered one of the greatest works of world literature.
  • "The Divine Comedy" is divided into three parts: Inferno (Hell), Purgatorio (Purgatory), and Paradiso (Paradise).
  • The work offers a detailed vision of the afterlife and reflects various theological, philosophical, and political themes.
  • Dante is often referred to as the "Father of the Italian language" for his contributions to Italian literature.
  • His writings significantly influenced Western thought, art, and culture.

Additional Information

  • John Keats
  • John Keats was an English Romantic poet known for his vivid imagery and odes.
  • His famous works include "Ode to a Nightingale" and "Ode on a Grecian Urn".
  • Keats focused on themes of beauty and mortality.
  • Victor Hugo
  • Victor Hugo was a French novelist, poet, and playwright.
  • He is best known for his novels "Les Misérables" and "The Hunchback of Notre-Dame".
  • Hugo was a prominent figure in the Romantic movement in literature.
  • Bertrand Russell
  • Bertrand Russell was a British philosopher, logician, and mathematician.
  • He made significant contributions to analytical philosophy and was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1950.
  • Russell is known for his works on logic, epistemology, and social criticism.
49

Who among the following is the author of the book 'Democrats and Dissenters'?

  1. ((a))

    Ramachandra Guha

  2. ((b))

    Deepankar Gupta

  3. ((c))

    A. Vaidyanathan

  4. ((d))

    Shashi Tharoor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ramachandra Guha

The correct answer is Ramachandra Guha.

Key Points

  • Ramachandra Guha is a renowned Indian historian and writer.
  • He is known for his work on topics such as environmental history, modern Indian history, and politics.
  • The book "Democrats and Dissenters" explores issues related to Indian politics, society, and culture, along with global themes of democracy and dissent.
  • It is a collection of essays by Ramachandra Guha that reflect his insights and perspectives on contemporary issues.
  • Guha has authored several other notable works, such as "India After Gandhi" and "Gandhi Before India."
  • He has received multiple awards for his contributions to literature and history, including the Padma Bhushan in 2009.

Additional Information

  • Deepankar Gupta
  • Deepankar Gupta is a sociologist and writer known for his work on Indian society, rural development, and urbanization.
  • He has written books such as "Interrogating Caste" and "Revolution from Above."
  • His research often focuses on social issues and modernization in India.
  • A. Vaidyanathan
  • A. Vaidyanathan was an Indian economist who specialized in agriculture, water resources, and rural development.
  • He contributed significantly to policy-making in India and has written extensively on agricultural economics.
  • His notable works include research on irrigation systems and poverty alleviation.
  • Shashi Tharoor
  • Shashi Tharoor is a prominent Indian author, diplomat, and politician.
  • He has written several acclaimed books, such as "An Era of Darkness" and "The Great Indian Novel."
  • Tharoor's works often focus on topics like colonial history, Indian culture, and global politics.
  • He has served as a member of the Indian Parliament and previously worked with the United Nations.
50

The Markandeshwar group of temples is famously known as the 'Khajuraho of ______'.

  1. ((a))

    Amravati

  2. ((b))

    Warangal

  3. ((c))

    Vidarbha

  4. ((d))

    Saurashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vidarbha

The Correct answer is Vidarbha.

Key Points

  • The Markandeshwar group of temples is famously referred to as the "Khajuraho of Vidarbha".
  • Located in Chamorshi taluka in the Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra, Vidarbha region.
  • These temples are renowned for their intricate architecture and sculptures similar to those found in Khajuraho.
  • The Markanda Mahadev Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is an important religious site.
  • The temples date back to the 10th and 11th centuries, during the reign of the Rashtrakuta and Chalukya dynasties.
  • They are situated on the banks of the Wainganga River, which adds to the scenic beauty of the location.
  • The sculptures and carvings on the temple walls depict mythological stories and deities, showcasing the region's rich cultural heritage.
  • The temples are considered a fine example of Hindu temple architecture, emphasizing the artistic excellence of ancient India.

Additional Information

  • Amravati
  • Amravati is a city in Maharashtra, known for its historical significance and temples like Ambadevi Temple.
  • It is not associated with the Markandeshwar group of temples.
  • Warangal
  • Warangal is a city in Telangana, known for its historic fort and the Thousand Pillar Temple.
  • It has no connection to the Markandeshwar group of temples.
  • Saurashtra
  • Saurashtra is a region in Gujarat known for its Somnath Temple and other iconic temples.
  • The Markandeshwar temples are not located in this region.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Which two signs should be interchanged to balance the given equation?

18 × 19 + 231 ÷ 11 - 29 = 350

  1. ((a))

     + and ÷

  2. ((b))

    × and +

  3. ((c))

    × and ÷

  4. ((d))

    + and -

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

+ and -

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 18 × 19 + 231 ÷ 11 - 29 = 350

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

Option 1)  + and ÷

18 × 19 ÷ 231 + 11 − 29

18 × 19 = 342

342 ÷ 231 = 1.48

1.48 + 11 − 29 = −16.52

Not equal to 350 → Incorrect

Option 2) × and +

8 + 19 × 231 ÷ 11 − 29

19 × 231 = 4389

4389 ÷ 11 = 399

18 + 399 − 29 = 388

Not equal to 350 → Incorrect

Option 3) × and ÷

18 ÷ 19 + 231 × 11 − 29

231 × 11 = 2541

18 ÷ 19 = 0.947

0.947 + 2541 − 29 ≈ 2513

Not equal to 350 → Incorrect

Option 4) + and -

18 × 19 − 231 ÷ 11 + 29

18 × 19 = 342

231 ÷ 11 = 21

342 − 21 + 29 = 350

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

52

Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents relationship between the classes given below?

Toes, Fingers, Stomach

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic :

Toes, Fingers, Stomach → All three are completely different body parts with no overlap in meaning or category

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

53

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure. What will it look like when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The paper when unfolded will look like,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

54

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

55

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure and complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Logic: The pattern completes the figure.

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

56

Three of the following four figures have a certain similarity and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The whole figure rotates, carrying the concave side and the striped circle with it.

The circle always stays on the concave/curved edge of the rotating shape.

So, Figure 4 

is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

57

Four different positions of a die are shown. From the options, select the letter that will appear on the page opposite to the page showing the letter 'R'.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

From position of dice (ii) and dice (iii) as shown in figure :

 Here, dice (ii) is rotated 900 vertically clockwise the other adjacent side of B, P is 'W'.

So, the opposite face opposite to the face having the letter 'R' is 'W'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

58

In a code language, SHOULDER is written as DEHLORSU. In that language, how is STOMACH written?

  1. ((a))

    ACHMOST

  2. ((b))

    EDHTRE

  3. ((c))

    DEHHETS

  4. ((d))

    DEHJZOE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACHMOST

Logic :  letters of the word arranged in alphabetical order.

  • SHOULDER
  • Arranged in alphabetical order
  • DEHLORSU.

Similarly,

  • STOMACH
  • Arranged in alphabetical order.
  • ACHMOST

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

59

If the given figure is folded to form a cube, then which symbol will appear on the face opposite to the face showing '@'?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is :-

From the given figure opposite sides are as shown below :

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

60

Select the set whose numbers have the same relationship as the numbers of the set given below.

(9, 41, 169)

  1. ((a))

    (11, 51, 290)

  2. ((b))

    (7, 31, 129)

  3. ((c))

    (5, 21, 98)

  4. ((d))

    (6, 34, 141)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(7, 31, 129)

The logic followed here is:

(9, 41, 169)

(41 - 9) × 5 + 9 = 169

32 × 5 + 9 = 169

160 + 9 = 169

169 = 169 (LHS = RHS) 

Similarly,

(7, 31, 129)

(31 - 7) × 5 + 9 = 129

24 × 5 + 9 = 129

120 + 9 = 129

129 = 129 (LHS = RHS) 

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

61

Read the following statements, ignoring commonly known facts, and then select the Venn diagram from the four options that best represents the given statements. In the diagram, different classes are represented by the first letter of the word (English word).

Statements:

  1. Some pens (P) are slates (S).

  2. All balls (B) are mallets (S).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Given Statements:

  1. Some pens (P) are slates (S).

  2. All balls (B) are mallets (S).

The least possible Venn diagram is shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

62

Three of the following four figures have a certain similarity and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

The entire collection of lines rotates 900 clockwise with respect to the box's center.

The black dot alternates its position between being outside the main V-shaped figure and inside the V-shaped figure.

So, Figure 3 

 is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

63

Select the option that has the same relation to figure C as figure B has to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shaded triangle moves two positions counter-clockwise (skipping one triangle) in each step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

64

Which option figure will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

The black square is at (2, 3) (middle row, right column).

The diamonds at (1, 2) (top row, center column).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

65

Which number from the given alternatives will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

3, 19, 36, 57, 87, 133, 204, 311, ?

  1. ((a))

    467

  2. ((b))

    576

  3. ((c))

    567

  4. ((d))

    476

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

467

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

66

If the marked price of a portable Bluetooth speaker is ₹710 and a discount of 10% is given on it, then what will be the selling price?

  1. ((a))

    ₹693

  2. ((b))

    ₹639

  3. ((c))

    ₹739

  4. ((d))

    ₹793

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹639

The logic follows here, 

The discount amount is calculated by multiplying the marked price by the discount percentage

Discount Amount=Marked Price × Discount Rate

= ₹710 × 0.10 

 = ₹71

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount Amount

 = ₹710 -  ₹71

= ₹639

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

67

Select the option that has the same relation to figure C as figure B has to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

Reverse the direction of the two rotational arrows.

Add a vertical straight line with a bi-directional arrow (double arrowhead).

Shrink the entire figure and enclose it in an outer square frame.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

68

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure and complete the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Logic: The pattern completes the figure.

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

69

Which option figure will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

Geometric Figure: A Nonagon (9 sides) with its diagonals drawn.

Corner Elements: The orientation will be the state after a 5400(or 1800) clockwise rotation from Image 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

70

The relation of 'word' with 'letters' is the same relation of 'sentence' with '_____'.

  1. ((a))

    grammar

  2. ((b))

    words

  3. ((c))

    noun

  4. ((d))

    language

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

words

The pattern followed here is :

  • Word : Letters → A word is made up of letters.
  • Sentence : ? → A sentence is made up of words.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

71

Select the option that has the same relation to the third number as the second number has to the first number.

12: 84 ::14:?

  1. ((a))

    171

  2. ((b))

    121

  3. ((c))

    117

  4. ((d))

    112

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

112

The logic follows here, 

12: 84

 12 × (12/2+1) = 12 × 7 = 84

14:?

 14 × (14/2+1) = 14 × 8 = 112

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

72

If the mirror is placed to the right of the given combination, then select the correct image formed in the mirror.

MALFORMATION

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Logic: Mirror image is the inversion of original image.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

73

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

74

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Choose the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    Atonement

  2. ((b))

    Regret

  3. ((c))

    Reward

  4. ((d))

    Rectification

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reward

The logic follows here, 

 

  • Atonement → Making amends for a wrongdoing.
  • Regret → Feeling sorrow or remorse.
  • Reward → Something given for good performance or achievement.
  • Rectification → Correcting a mistake or error.
  • Atonement, Regret, Rectification → All are related to wrong doing or correcting mistakes.
  • Reward is odd one.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

75

Which number from the given alternatives will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

1, 8, 15, 29, 69, 172, 399, ?

  1. ((a))

    713

  2. ((b))

    814

  3. ((c))

    841

  4. ((d))

    731  

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

841

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

What is the number of cubes of 2 cm edge that will be required to fill a cubical box of 1 m edge?

  1. ((a))

     80,000

  2. ((b))

    1,25,000

  3. ((c))

    1,00,000

  4. ((d))

    1,50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1,25,000

Given:

Edge of small cube = 2 cm

Edge of big cube = 1 m = 100 cm

Formula Used:

Number of small cubes = Volume of big cube ÷ Volume of small cube

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of big cube = 100³ = 1,000,000 cm³

⇒ Volume of small cube = 2³ = 8 cm³

⇒ Number of cubes = 1,000,000 ÷ 8

⇒ Number of cubes = 125,000

∴ The correct answer is 125,000.

77

Three times the second number from three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third number. The third integer is:

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9

Given:

Three consecutive odd integers = x, x+2, x+4

3 × (second number) = 3 more than 2 × (third number)

Formula Used:

Consecutive odd integers = x, x+2, x+4

Form equation from condition

Calculation:

⇒ 3(x + 2) = 2(x + 4) + 3

⇒ 3x + 6 = 2x + 8 + 3

⇒ 3x + 6 = 2x + 11

⇒ 3x − 2x = 11 − 6

⇒ x = 5

⇒ Third integer = x + 4

⇒ Third integer = 5 + 4

⇒ Third integer = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

78

The population of a bacteria is increased by 12% on the first day and 10% on the second day but decreased by 15% on the third day. If the population at the end of the third day is 6545, then the population in the beginning was:

  1. ((a))

     6500

  2. ((b))

    6250

  3. ((c))

     5750

  4. ((d))

    6100

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6250

Given:

Increase on Day-1 = 12%

Increase on Day-2 = 10%

Decrease on Day-3 = 15%

Final population = 6545

Formula Used:

Final population = Initial × (1 + 12 ÷ 100) × (1 + 10 ÷ 100) × (1 − 15 ÷ 100)

Initial population = Final ÷ Net factor

Calculation:

⇒ Day-1 factor = 1.12

⇒ Day-2 factor = 1.10

⇒ Day-3 factor = 0.85

⇒ Net factor = 1.12 × 1.10 × 0.85

⇒ Net factor = 1.232 × 0.85

⇒ Net factor = 1.0472

⇒ Initial population = 6545 ÷ 1.0472

⇒ Initial population ≈ 6250

∴ The correct answer is 6250.

79

If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20%, by what percentage should its width be decreased so as to keep the area same?

  1. ((a))

    162316\frac{2}{3}%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    152315\frac{2}{3}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

162316\frac{2}{3}%

Given:

Length increased = 20%

Area to be kept same

Formula Used:

New area = Old area

(1 + increase%) × (1 − decrease%) = 1

Calculation:

⇒ Length factor = 1.20

⇒ Let width factor = 1 − x

⇒ 1.20 × (1 − x) = 1

⇒ 1 − x = 1 ÷ 1.20

⇒ 1 − x = 0.8333

⇒ x = 1 − 0.8333

⇒ x = 0.1667

⇒ x = 162316\frac{2}{3}%

∴ The correct answer is 162316\frac{2}{3}%.

80

The difference between two numbers is 1300. If 8% of one number is 10% of the other, then what is the sum of the two numbers?

  1. ((a))

    13000

  2. ((b))

    6500

  3. ((c))

    5200

  4. ((d))

    11700

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

11700

Given:

Difference between two numbers = 1300

8% of one number = 10% of the other

Formula Used:

0.08a = 0.10b

a − b = 1300

Sum = a + b

Calculation:

⇒ 0.08a = 0.10b

⇒ a ÷ b = 0.10 ÷ 0.08

⇒ a ÷ b = 10 ÷ 8

⇒ a ÷ b = 5 ÷ 4

⇒ a = (5 ÷ 4)b

⇒ Substitute in difference:

⇒ (5b ÷ 4) − b = 1300

⇒ (5b − 4b) ÷ 4 = 1300

⇒ b ÷ 4 = 1300

⇒ b = 5200

⇒ a = (5 ÷ 4) × 5200

⇒ a = 6500

⇒ Sum = a + b

⇒ Sum = 6500 + 5200

⇒ Sum = 11,700

∴ The correct answer is 11,700.

81

What is the value of (519−778÷9920)×911−(514÷37 of 14×27)÷423 \left( 5\dfrac{1}{9} - 7\dfrac{7}{8} \div9\dfrac{9}{20} \right) \times \dfrac{9}{11} - \left( 5\dfrac{1}{4} \div \dfrac{3}{7} \text{ of } \dfrac{1}{4} \times \dfrac{2}{7} \right) \div 4\dfrac{2}{3} ?

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. ((c))

    19\frac{1}{9}

  4. ((d))

    13\frac{1}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12\frac{1}{2}

Given:

(519−778÷9920)×911−(514÷37,of,14×27)÷423\left( 5\dfrac{1}{9} - 7\dfrac{7}{8} \div 9\dfrac{9}{20} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( 5\dfrac{1}{4} \div \dfrac{3}{7}, of, \dfrac{1}{4} \times \dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div 4\dfrac{2}{3}

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table:

Calculation:

(519−778÷9920)×911−(514÷37,of,14×27)÷423\left( 5\dfrac{1}{9} - 7\dfrac{7}{8} \div 9\dfrac{9}{20} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( 5\dfrac{1}{4} \div \dfrac{3}{7}, of, \dfrac{1}{4} \times \dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div 4\dfrac{2}{3}

⇒ (469−638÷18920)×911−(214÷(37×14)×27)÷143\left( \dfrac{46}{9} - \dfrac{63}{8} \div \dfrac{189}{20} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( \dfrac{21}{4} \div \left(\dfrac{3}{7}\times\dfrac{1}{4}\right) \times \dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div\dfrac{14}{3}

⇒ (469−638×20189)×911−(214÷328×27)÷143\left( \dfrac{46}{9} - \dfrac{63}{8}\times\dfrac{20}{189} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( \dfrac{21}{4} \div \dfrac{3}{28} \times \dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div\dfrac{14}{3}

⇒ (469−56)×911−(214×283×27)÷143\left( \dfrac{46}{9} - \dfrac{5}{6} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( \dfrac{21}{4}\times\dfrac{28}{3}\times\dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div\dfrac{14}{3}

⇒ (92−1518)×911−(49×27)÷143\left( \dfrac{92-15}{18} \right)\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( 49\times\dfrac{2}{7} \right)\div\dfrac{14}{3}

⇒ 7718×911−(14)÷143\dfrac{77}{18}\times\dfrac{9}{11} - \left( 14 \right)\div\dfrac{14}{3}

⇒ 72−14×314\dfrac{7}{2} - 14\times\dfrac{3}{14}

⇒ 72−3\dfrac{7}{2} - 3

⇒ 72−62=12\dfrac{7}{2} - \dfrac{6}{2} = \dfrac{1}{2}

∴ The correct answer is 12\frac{1}{2}.

82

A motorboat takes one hour longer to travel 24 km upstream than it does to travel the same distance downstream. If the speed of the river current is 2 km/h, what is the speed of the motorboat in still water?

  1. ((a))

    52\sqrt{52} km/h

  2. ((b))

    525\sqrt{2} km/h

  3. ((c))

    10 km/h

  4. ((d))

    8 km/h

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10 km/h

Given:

Upstream distance = 24 km

Downstream distance = 24 km

Difference in times = 1 hour

Speed of current = 2 km/h

Speed of boat in still water = x km/h

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

Upstream speed = x − 2

Downstream speed = x + 2

⇒ Upstream time = 24 ÷ (x − 2)

⇒ Downstream time = 24 ÷ (x + 2)

⇒ Upstream time − Downstream time = 1

⇒ 24/(x − 2) − 24/(x + 2) = 1

⇒ Multiply both sides by (x − 2)(x + 2):

⇒ 24(x + 2) − 24(x − 2) = (x − 2)(x + 2)

⇒ 24x + 48 − 24x + 48 = x² − 4

⇒ 96 = x² − 4

⇒ x² = 100

⇒ x = 10 (taking positive value)

∴ The speed of the motorboat in still water is 10 km/h.

83

A loss of 18% gets converted into a profit of 25% when the selling price is increased by ₹215. If the overhead expenses are ₹91, the original cost price (without the overhead expenses) (in ₹ ) is:

  1. ((a))

    59

  2. ((b))

    500

  3. ((c))

    409

  4. ((d))

    150

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

409

Given:

Loss = 18%

Profit = 25%

Increase in SP = 215

Overhead expenses = 91

Formula Used:

Selling price at loss = CP × (1 − loss%)

Selling price at profit = CP × (1 + profit%)

Calculation:

Let original cost price (without overhead) = x

Total cost price = x + 91

⇒ SP at 18% loss = (x + 91) × 0.82

⇒ New SP = Old SP + 215

⇒ (x + 91) × 0.82 + 215 = (x + 91) × 1.25

⇒ 0.82(x + 91) + 215 = 1.25(x + 91)

⇒ 0.82x + 74.62 + 215 = 1.25x + 113.75

⇒ 289.62 = 0.43x + 113.75

⇒ 289.62 − 113.75 = 0.43x

⇒ 175.87 = 0.43x

⇒ x = 175.87 ÷ 0.43

⇒ x = 409

∴ The original cost price (without overhead expenses) is ₹409.

84

5 men and 6 women can do a piece of work in 8 days. When 10 men and 7 women work on the same task, it takes 5 days. If one woman works alone, how many days will it take her to complete the task?

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

100

Given:

5 men + 6 women finish work in 8 days

10 men + 7 women finish work in 5 days

Formula Used:

Total work = (Total daily work) × (Number of days)

Work equation: men×m + women×w = daily work

Days taken by 1 woman = 1 ÷ w

Calculation:

Let 1 man's 1-day work = m

Let 1 woman's 1-day work = w

⇒ Daily work of (5m + 6w) = 1/8

⇒ Daily work of (10m + 7w) = 1/5

⇒ 5m + 6w = 1/8 … (1)

⇒ 10m + 7w = 1/5 … (2)

Multiply (1) by 2:

⇒ 10m + 12w = 1/4 … (3)

Subtract (2) from (3):

⇒ (10m + 12w) − (10m + 7w) = 1/4 − 1/5

⇒ 5w = (5 − 4)/20

⇒ 5w = 1/20

⇒ w = 1/100

⇒ 1 woman's 1-day work = 1/100

⇒ Days taken by 1 woman = 100

∴ One woman alone can complete the work in 100 days.

85

The greatest length (in cm) of the scale that can measure exactly 45 cm. 75 cm. 1 m 20 cm and 1 m 35 cm lengths is:

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

     25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15

Given:

Lengths to be measured exactly:

45 cm

75 cm

120 cm

135 cm

Formula Used:

Greatest length of scale = HCF of all given lengths

Calculation:

⇒ HCF(45, 75, 120, 135)

⇒ HCF of 45 and 75 = 15

⇒ HCF of 15 and 120 = 15

⇒ HCF of 15 and 135 = 15

∴ The greatest length of the scale is 15 cm.

86

The marked price of an article is 29% higher than its cost price. If the shopkeeper gives 25% discount, then the profit or loss percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    Loss 3.25%

  2. ((b))

    Loss 6.35%

  3. ((c))

    Profit 6.25%

  4. ((d))

    Profit 4.75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Loss 3.25%

Given:

Marked price = 29% above Cost Price

Discount given = 25%

Formula Used:

Marked Price = CP × (1 + 29/100)

Selling Price = MP × (1 − 25/100)

Profit/Loss% = {(SP − CP) ÷ CP} × 100

Calculation:

Let Cost Price = 100

⇒ MP = 100 × 1.29

⇒ MP = 129

⇒ SP = 129 × 0.75

⇒ SP = 96.75

⇒ Profit/Loss = SP − CP

⇒ Profit/Loss = 96.75 − 100

⇒ Profit/Loss = −3.25

⇒ Loss% = (3.25 ÷ 100) × 100

⇒ Loss% = 3.25%

∴ The shopkeeper incurs a loss of 3.25%.

87

Let the same sum be invested at simple interest in two schemes. In scheme I and scheme II, the simple interest is earned at the rates of 6% and 8% for 5 years and 7 years, respectively. The ratio of the simple interests for scheme I to scheme II is:

  1. ((a))

    15:22

  2. ((b))

    20:21

  3. ((c))

    15:28

  4. ((d))

    21:20

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15:28

Given:

Rate in Scheme I = 6%

Time in Scheme I = 5 years

Rate in Scheme II = 8%

Time in Scheme II = 7 years

Same principal in both schemes = P

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Ratio = SI₁ : SI₂

Calculation:

⇒ SI₁ = (P × 6 × 5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI₁ = 30P ÷ 100

⇒ SI₂ = (P × 8 × 7) ÷ 100

⇒ SI₂ = 56P ÷ 100

⇒ Ratio = (30P ÷ 100) : (56P ÷ 100)

⇒ Ratio = 30P : 56P

⇒ Ratio = 30 : 56

⇒ Ratio = 15 : 28

∴ The ratio of simple interest is 15 : 28.

88

A cricketer has a certain average for 12 innings. In the 13th innings, he scored 108 runs, increasing his average by 6 runs. What is his new average?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

     38

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

36

Given:

Number of innings = 12

Increase in average after 13th innings = 6 runs

Runs scored in 13th innings = 108

Formula Used:

Total runs = Average × Number of innings

New average = (Previous total + New score) ÷ 13

Calculation:

⇒ Let original average = A

⇒ Total runs for 12 innings = 12A

⇒ New average = A + 6

⇒ New total runs = 13(A + 6)

⇒ New total runs also = 12A + 108

⇒ 12A + 108 = 13A + 78

⇒ 108 − 78 = 13A − 12A

⇒ 30 = A

⇒ New average = A + 6

⇒ New average = 30 + 6

⇒ New average = 36

∴ The new average is 36.

89

If a sum of ₹18,000 becomes ₹20,608.20 in two years on compound interest at a rate of x% compounded annually, then the value of x is:

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7

Given:

Principal = 18,000

Amount after 2 years = 20,608.20

Rate = x% (compounded annually)

Formula Used:

Amount = P(1 + x/100)²

Calculation:

⇒ 20,608.20 = 18,000(1 + x/100)²

⇒ (1 + x/100)² = 20,608.20 ÷ 18,000

⇒ (1 + x/100)² = 1.1449

⇒ 1 + x/100 = √1.1449

⇒ 1 + x/100 = 1.07

⇒ x/100 = 1.07 − 1

⇒ x/100 = 0.07

⇒ x = 7

∴ The value of x is 7%.

90

In a mixture of 17 litres, the ratio of acid and water is 5: 2. If 3 litres of this mixture is replaced by 3 litres of acid, then what will be the ratio of acid and water in the newly formed mixture?

  1. ((a))

    9:7

  2. ((b))

    13:4

  3. ((c))

    9:8

  4. ((d))

    7:4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13:4

Given:

Total mixture = 17 litres

Ratio of acid : water = 5 : 2

3 litres of mixture is removed and 3 litres of acid is added

Formula Used:

Acid = (Total × Acid ratio / Sum of ratio)

Water = (Total × Water ratio / Sum of ratio)

When mixture is removed, same ratio is removed.

Calculation:

⇒ Initial acid = 17 × (5/7) = 12.1429 L

⇒ Initial water = 17 × (2/7) = 4.8571 L

Removing 3 litres of mixture:

Acid removed = 3 × (5/7) = 2.1429 L

Water removed = 3 × (2/7) = 0.8571 L

Remaining after removal:

Acid = 12.1429 − 2.1429 = 10 L

Water = 4.8571 − 0.8571 = 4 L

Add 3 litres of acid:

Acid = 10 + 3 = 13 L

Water = 4 L

New ratio = 13 : 4

∴ The new ratio of acid and water is 13 : 4.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Whenever a user copies a text using the 'Ctrl (Control) and C' command in MS-Word, then it is stored temporarily in ______.

  1. ((a))

    hard disc

  2. ((b))

    clipboard

  3. ((c))

    another cell

  4. ((d))

    table

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

clipboard

The Correct answer is Clipboard

Key Points

  • In MS-Word, when a user uses the Ctrl + C command, the copied text is stored temporarily in the Clipboard.
  • The Clipboard is a special location in a computer's memory that holds the data that has been cut or copied from a document or other application.
  • Data stored in the Clipboard remains available until it is replaced by new content or the system is turned off.
  • The Clipboard is used for transferring information between documents or applications, making it an essential tool for productivity.
  • Modern operating systems often allow users to view and manage their Clipboard history to access previously copied data.

Additional Information

  • Hard Disc
  • A Hard Disc is a physical storage device used for storing large amounts of data permanently.
  • It is not used for temporary storage of data copied using the Ctrl + C command.
  • Modern hard discs are capable of storing data in terabytes, making them essential for system and application storage.
  • Another Cell
  • The option "Another Cell" is more relevant in spreadsheet software like Microsoft Excel, where data can be copied and pasted into different cells.
  • It is not applicable to MS-Word, which uses the Clipboard for temporary storage.
  • Table
  • A Table in MS-Word is used for organizing data into rows and columns.
  • It is not a storage location for copied text but rather a feature for data presentation and formatting within a document.
92

In the context of the Internet, _______ is not a search engine.

  1. ((a))
  2. ((b))
  3. ((c))
  4. ((d))
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Correct answer is www.somaiya.com.

Key Points

  • www.somaiya.com is not a search engine. It is the official website of Somaiya Vidyavihar, a well-known educational institution in India.
  • A search engine is a system designed to search for information on the World Wide Web, while www.somaiya.com is a domain focused on providing information about academic programs, admissions, and other institutional-related details.
  • Examples of popular search engines include Google, Yahoo, and Bing, which help users locate web pages, images, videos, and more.
  • Educational websites like www.somaiya.com serve a specific purpose of offering information about an organization rather than functioning as a search engine.

Additional Information

  • www.yahoo.com
  • Yahoo is a popular search engine and web portal offering services such as Yahoo Mail, Yahoo News, and Yahoo Finance.
  • It was founded in 1994 by Jerry Yang and David Filo.
  • Yahoo supports multiple languages and is widely used around the globe.
  • www.bing.com
  • Bing is a search engine developed by Microsoft.
  • It provides features such as image search, video search, and map services.
  • Bing is known for its visually appealing homepage, which displays a new image daily.
  • www.google.com
  • Google is the most widely used search engine in the world.
  • It was founded in 1998 by Larry Page and Sergey Brin.
  • Google offers a variety of services, including Google Maps, Google Drive, and Google Translate.
93

In MS-Word 2010, the superscript option is available in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Home tab and Font group 

  2. ((b))

    Home tab and Clipboard group

  3. ((c))

    Home tab and Number group

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home tab and Font group 

The correct answer is Home tab and Font group.

Key Points

  • The superscript option in MS Word 2010 is located in the Font group, which is part of the Home tab.
  • The superscript formatting allows users to type text slightly above the normal text baseline, often used for mathematical expressions, footnotes, or chemical formulas.
  • It is easily accessible from the Ribbon interface in MS Word 2010, ensuring user convenience.
  • The Font group contains various text formatting options such as bold, italics, underline, font size, font style, and text effects.
  • MS Word 2010 is part of the Microsoft Office suite, widely used for creating, editing, and formatting documents.

Additional Information

  • Home tab and Clipboard group
  • The Clipboard group in the Home tab contains options like cut, copy, paste, and format painter.
  • It is primarily used for managing text or data between different sections of a document or other applications.
  • Home tab and Number group
  • The Number group is not a standard group within the Home tab in MS Word 2010.
  • However, numbering options like bullets and numbered lists can be accessed under the Paragraph group in the Home tab.
  • Other Options
  • Options that are not specified or incomplete do not provide relevant information regarding the placement of the superscript function in MS Word 2010.
94

What will be the value of the following MS-Excel formula?

= 8 - 4 ^ 2 / 2 + 3

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The Correct answer is 3.

Key Points

  • The given formula is = 8 - 4 ^ 2 / 2 + 3.
  • This formula follows the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division and Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction).
  • Steps to solve the formula:
  • First, calculate the exponent: 4 ^ 2 = 16.
  • Then, perform the division: 16 / 2 = 8.
  • Now, substitute these values into the formula: 8 - 8 + 3.
  • Perform the subtraction: 8 - 8 = 0.
  • Finally, add: 0 + 3 = 3.
  • Hence, the final result of the formula is 3.

Additional Information

  • BODMAS Rule
  • The BODMAS rule is the standard order of operations followed in mathematics.
  • The acronym stands for Brackets, Orders, Division and Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.
  • It ensures the correct order of solving mathematical expressions.
  • For example, in the expression 2 + 3 × 4, multiplication is performed before addition, resulting in 14.
95

In MS-Excel 2020, cell address with B1 refers to ______.

  1. ((a))

    second row of first column

  2. ((b))

     Row number B of first column

  3. ((c))

    first row of column B

  4. ((d))

    second row of second column

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

first row of column B

The correct answer is first row of column B.

Key Points

  • A cell address in MS Excel refers to the unique combination of column letters and row numbers that identify a specific cell in the worksheet.
  • Here, B1 signifies that the cell is located in column B and row 1.
  • The first row is the topmost row in the worksheet, and column B is the second column in Excel, denoted by the letter B.
  • This way of referencing cells helps in formulas, data entry, and navigation within the Excel sheet.

Additional Information

  • Second row of first column
  • This refers to A2, where the column is A (first column), and the row is 2 (second row).
  • A2 is a completely different cell compared to B1.
  • Row number B of first column
  • This option is incorrect as rows in Excel are always identified by numbers, not letters.
  • For instance, the first row is 1, the second row is 2, and so on.
  • Second row of second column
  • This refers to B2, where the column is B (second column), and the row is 2 (second row).
  • B2 is not the same as B1, as they belong to different rows.
96

Which of the following shortcuts is used to increase the size of selected text in MS-Word 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Shift + } 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Shift + { 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Shift + < 

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Shift + > 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + Shift + > 

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + > .

Key Points

  • In MS Word 2010, the shortcut Ctrl + Shift + > is used to increase the size of the selected text.
  • This shortcut increases the font size by a specific increment, making it larger step by step. Hence, this is the correct option.
  • The shortcut Ctrl + Shift + { is used to decrease the size of selected text. This is incorrect in the context of increasing font size. Hence, this option is incorrect.
  • Similarly, the shortcuts Ctrl + Shift + {, Ctrl + Shift + <, and Ctrl + Shift + > are used for font size operations, but only Ctrl + Shift + > increases the size of the text. Hence, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • MS Word Shortcuts for Font Size:
  • Ctrl + Shift + >: Increases the font size of the selected text by a predefined increment.
  • Ctrl + Shift + <: Decreases the font size of the selected text by a predefined increment.
  • Shortcuts like these are designed to enhance productivity by reducing reliance on the ribbon menu or mouse.
  • Font Size Adjustment in MS Word:
  • Font size is measured in points (pt), with standard sizes such as 11pt or 12pt commonly used for documents.
  • MS Word allows incremental adjustments in font size using shortcuts, providing flexibility in formatting documents.

Important Points

  • Common Formatting Shortcuts:
  • Ctrl + B: Toggles bold formatting on the selected text.
  • Ctrl + I: Toggles italic formatting on the selected text.
  • Ctrl + U: Toggles underline formatting on the selected text.
97

To draw a border to a cell / cells in MS-Excel 2010, which of the following options is used?

  1. ((a))

    Insert tab and Alignment group

  2. ((b))

     Insert tab and Clipboard group 

  3. ((c))

    Insert tab and Number group 

  4. ((d))

    Home tab and Font group

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Home tab and Font group

The Correct answer is Home tab and Font group.

Key Points

  • To add a border to a cell or range of cells in MS-Excel 2010, the option is available in the Home tab under the Font group.
  • The Font group contains tools for modifying the appearance of text, such as font size, color, and borders.
  • The border option is represented by an icon with a square that allows selecting different types of borders like All Borders, Outside Borders, or No Border.
  • Users can apply customized borders by selecting the "More Borders" option, which opens the Format Cells dialog box.
  • This feature is widely used to enhance the visual presentation of data in Excel sheets.

Additional Information

  • Insert tab and Alignment group
  • The Insert tab is primarily used for inserting elements like tables, charts, images, and other objects into a worksheet.
  • The Alignment group is not part of the Insert tab but the Home tab. It helps format text alignment, such as horizontal, vertical, or wrap text.
  • Insert tab and Clipboard group
  • The Clipboard group is located on the Home tab, not the Insert tab.
  • It contains features like Cut, Copy, Paste, and Format Painter for managing data in Excel.
  • Insert tab and Number group
  • The Number group is located on the Home tab, not the Insert tab.
  • It is used to format numbers in cells, such as applying currency, percentages, or custom number formats.
98

In MS Office 2010, when you open a clipboard and press ‘Options’ button at the bottom of the pane, which of the following options is NOT available? 

  1. ((a))

    Show Office Clipboard When Ctrl+C Pressed Twice

  2. ((b))

    Show Status in Address Bar When Copying

  3. ((c))

     Show Office Clipboard Icon on Taskbar

  4. ((d))

    Show Office Clipboard Automatically

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Show Status in Address Bar When Copying

The Correct answer is Show Status in Address Bar When Copying.

Key Points

  • In MS Office 2010, the Clipboard feature provides options to customize its behavior.
  • The option Show Status in Address Bar When Copying is not available in the Clipboard settings.
  • The Clipboard pane can store up to 24 items, allowing users to copy and paste multiple items efficiently.
  • Available options in the Clipboard pane include:
  • Show Office Clipboard When Ctrl+C Pressed Twice: Enables the clipboard to appear when the shortcut is pressed twice.
  • Show Office Clipboard Icon on Taskbar: Displays the clipboard icon in the taskbar for easy access.
  • Show Office Clipboard Automatically: Automatically shows the clipboard pane when copying data.
  • The Clipboard is an essential tool for managing text, images, and other content while working on MS Office applications.

Additional Information

  • Show Office Clipboard When Ctrl+C Pressed Twice
  • This feature allows the clipboard pane to open when the Ctrl+C shortcut is pressed twice.
  • Useful for quick access to clipboard contents while working in Word, Excel, or PowerPoint.
  • Show Office Clipboard Icon on Taskbar
  • Displays the clipboard icon in the Windows taskbar for easy visibility and quick access.
  • This feature is helpful for users managing multiple copied items.
  • Show Office Clipboard Automatically
  • Automatically displays the clipboard pane whenever you copy items.
  • Helps in tracking the copied items without manually opening the clipboard pane.
99

Consider the following email IDs:

I. [email protected]

II. [email protected]

III. [email protected]

IV. revie#[email protected]

Select the correct option.

  1. ((a))

    Options I and II contain correct email IDs.

  2. ((b))

    Only option I contains the correct email ID.

  3. ((c))

    Options I, II and III contain correct email IDs.

  4. ((d))

    Only option IV has the correct email ID.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only option I contains the correct email ID.

The Correct answer is Only option I is a valid email ID.

Key Points

  • An email ID should follow a specific format: local-part@domain.
  • The local-part must consist of alphanumeric characters and may include dots (.), hyphens (-), or underscores (_), but it should not have consecutive dots or special characters not allowed.
  • The domain must include a valid domain name followed by a top-level domain (TLD), such as .com, .org, etc.
  • Among the given options, only [email protected] meets the required format and is valid.
  • Other options violate the rules of email formatting, making them invalid.

Additional Information

  • Option II ([email protected])
  • This email ID is invalid as the hyphen (-) is present at the end of the local-part, which is not allowed in email formatting.
  • Option III ([email protected])
  • This email ID is invalid because it contains consecutive dots (..) in the local-part, which is not acceptable.
  • Option IV (revie#[email protected])
  • This email ID is invalid as the hash symbol (#) is not permitted in the local-part of an email address.
100

With regard to the Internet, what does the abbreviation 'ISP' stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Internal Service Provider

  2. ((b))

    Internet Service Provider

  3. ((c))

     Intranet Service Provider

  4. ((d))

    International Service Provider

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Internet Service Provider

The correct answer is Internet Service Provider (इंटरनेट सर्विस प्रोवाइडर).

Key Points

  • Internet Service Provider (ISP) is a company or organization that provides access to the internet for individuals and businesses.
  • ISPs can offer different types of connections such as DSL, cable, fiber-optic, satellite, or wireless connections.
  • They provide access to various internet services such as email, web hosting, and domain registration.
  • Examples of ISPs include AT&T, Comcast, Verizon, Reliance Jio, BSNL, and Airtel.
  • ISPs often provide additional services like technical support, security features, and network maintenance.
  • They play a critical role in enabling global communication and the sharing of information.

Additional Information

  • Internal Service Provider (इंटरनल सर्विस प्रोवाइडर)
  • The term Internal Service Provider is not commonly associated with internet services but may refer to an organization’s in-house IT or network services.
  • It primarily deals with internal communication and data management within an organization.
  • Intranet Service Provider (इंट्रानेट सर्विस प्रोवाइडर)
  • An Intranet Service Provider focuses on providing intranet services, which are private, secure networks for internal use within an organization.
  • It is commonly used for internal communication, collaboration, and data sharing within a company.
  • International Service Provider (इंटरनेशनल सर्विस प्रोवाइडर)
  • The term International Service Provider is not specific to internet services but can refer to companies offering various global services, such as logistics, consulting, or IT solutions.

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