Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 11 Dec, 2020 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

The tribal festival 'Hal Punhya' is traditionally associated with which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Puducherry

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Jharkhand

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • Hal Punhya is a traditional tribal festival celebrated in the state of Jharkhand.
  • This festival marks the beginning of the agricultural season and is observed with great enthusiasm by the tribal communities.
  • The festival is celebrated by ploughing the land for the first time in the agricultural season, symbolizing the start of farming activities.
  • It is mainly celebrated by tribes such as the Munda, Oraon, and Santhal communities, which are prominent tribal groups in Jharkhand.
  • During the festival, prayers are offered to the local deities and spirits to seek blessings for a bountiful harvest.

Additional Information

  • Tribal Festivals of Jharkhand:
  • Jharkhand, known as the "Land of Forests", is home to a significant tribal population that celebrates a variety of festivals rooted in their traditions and agricultural practices.
  • Other major tribal festivals include Sarhul (worship of Sal tree), Karma (celebration of nature), and Jani Shikar (hunting festival).
  • Importance of Tribal Festivals:
  • Tribal festivals like Hal Punhya are closely linked to nature and agriculture, reflecting the tribal community's respect for the environment.
  • These festivals promote community bonding and serve as an opportunity for the tribes to come together and celebrate their rich cultural heritage.
  • Jharkhand's Agricultural Practices:
  • Agriculture is the main occupation in Jharkhand, and festivals like Hal Punhya symbolize the beginning of the sowing season.
  • The state primarily grows crops like rice, maize, pulses, and oilseeds.
  • Other Tribal States in India:
  • India is home to several states with a rich tribal culture, including Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
  • Each state has its unique tribal festivals and traditions that are deeply rooted in their lifestyle and environment.
2

Which of the following is responsible for emulsification of fats?

  1. ((a))

    Bile

  2. ((b))

    Rennin

  3. ((c))

    Pepsin

  4. ((d))

    Lipase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bile

The correct answer is Bile.

Key Points

  • Bile is a digestive fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
  • It plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of fats by breaking large fat globules into smaller droplets, a process called emulsification.
  • Emulsification of fats increases the surface area for the enzyme lipase to act upon, leading to more efficient fat digestion.
  • Bile contains bile salts, which are amphipathic molecules (having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts) that help in the emulsification process.
  • In addition to bile salts, bile also contains cholesterol, phospholipids, and waste products like bilirubin, which are excreted from the body.

Additional Information

  • Other Digestive Enzymes and Substances:
  • Rennin: An enzyme found in the stomach of young mammals, it helps in the digestion of milk by converting casein (milk protein) into a curd-like substance. It is not involved in fat digestion.
  • Pepsin: A digestive enzyme secreted by the stomach, it breaks down proteins into smaller peptides. It does not play a role in emulsifying fats.
  • Lipase: A pancreatic enzyme that breaks down triglycerides (fats) into glycerol and free fatty acids. However, lipase requires emulsified fats for effective action, which is facilitated by bile.
  • Importance of Emulsification:
  • Emulsification is essential for the proper digestion and absorption of dietary fats.
  • The smaller fat droplets formed during emulsification can mix more easily with water, facilitating the action of lipase.
  • This process also ensures that essential nutrients like fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are absorbed efficiently in the intestines.
  • Bile Production and Storage:
  • The liver produces about 800–1,000 mL of bile daily.
  • The produced bile is stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine (duodenum) when fatty food is consumed.
  • Gallbladder Disorders:
  • Issues like gallstones can obstruct bile flow, leading to improper fat digestion and related symptoms such as bloating and fatty stools.
  • The removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy) does not stop bile production but affects the storage and regulated release of bile.
3

In which of the following years did the construction of the Gateway of India in Mumbai begin?

  1. ((a))

    In 1925

  2. ((b))

    In 1920

  3. ((c))

    In 1907

  4. ((d))

    In 1911

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In 1911

The correct answer is In 1911.

Key Points

  • The construction of the Gateway of India in Mumbai began in the year 1911.
  • This iconic monument was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to India during the Delhi Durbar in December 1911.
  • The foundation stone of the Gateway of India was laid on 31 March 1911, although the construction officially started later.
  • The design of the Gateway was prepared by architect George Wittet, combining Indo-Saracenic architecture with elements of Islamic and Hindu architectural styles.
  • The final construction of the Gateway of India was completed in 1924, and it officially opened to the public the same year.

Additional Information

  • Historical Context:
  • The Gateway of India was built to honor the arrival of British royals King George V and Queen Mary to India for the first time in 1911.
  • The monument symbolizes British colonial rule in India and was intended to serve as the ceremonial entry point to the country.
  • It became a symbol of the British Empire's grandeur during its reign in India.
  • Architectural Features:
  • The Gateway of India is designed in the Indo-Saracenic style, which blends Hindu and Muslim architectural elements, a popular style during British rule in India.
  • The structure is made of yellow basalt and reinforced concrete, giving it a robust and majestic appearance.
  • It stands at a height of approximately 26 meters (85 feet) and features intricate stone latticework and decorative motifs.
  • Significance:
  • The Gateway of India later became an important historical landmark, marking the departure of the last British troops from India in 1948, following India's independence in 1947.
  • It is now a major tourist attraction and serves as a symbolic reminder of the colonial era.
  • Other Events:
  • The Gateway of India overlooks the Arabian Sea and is located at the Apollo Bunder area in South Mumbai.
  • It is near other historical landmarks, such as the Taj Mahal Palace Hotel, enhancing its cultural significance.

Important Points

  • Key Milestones in Construction:
  • The foundation stone was laid in 1911, but the construction was delayed and officially started in 1913.
  • The monument was inaugurated on 4 December 1924, by the then Viceroy of India, Rufus Isaacs, Lord Reading.
  • Relevance Today:
  • The Gateway of India serves as a venue for cultural events, national celebrations, and public gatherings in Mumbai.
  • It is a popular spot for photography and a starting point for ferries to Elephanta Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
4

The book 'Beyond Religion: Ethics for a Whole World' has been written by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Dalai Lama

  2. ((b))

    Swami Gyanvatsal

  3. ((c))

    Devdutt Patnaik

  4. ((d))

    Sadhguru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dalai Lama

The correct answer is Dalai Lama.

Key Points

  • Dalai Lama, the spiritual leader of Tibet, authored the book 'Beyond Religion: Ethics for a Whole World', which was published in 2011.
  • The book emphasizes the importance of secular ethics that transcend religion, advocating compassion, understanding, and mutual respect as universal values.
  • It provides a framework for addressing global challenges by focusing on human values and ethical principles rather than religious ideologies.
  • The Dalai Lama's teachings in the book aim to promote peace, sustainability, and harmony in a diverse and interconnected world.
  • This work reflects the Dalai Lama's lifelong commitment to nonviolence, interfaith dialogue, and fostering universal responsibility among humanity.

Additional Information

  • Dalai Lama:
  • The Dalai Lama is the spiritual leader of Tibetan Buddhism and a global advocate for peace and compassion.
  • Born as Tenzin Gyatso in 1935, he is the 14th Dalai Lama and has lived in exile in India since 1959 after fleeing Tibet due to Chinese occupation.
  • The Dalai Lama has authored numerous books addressing philosophy, ethics, and spirituality, including 'The Art of Happiness' and 'Ancient Wisdom, Modern World'.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1989 for his efforts to promote peaceful solutions to the Tibetan conflict and his commitment to nonviolence.
  • Other Authors Mentioned:
  • Swami Gyanvatsal: A spiritual leader associated with the BAPS Swaminarayan Sanstha, known for his motivational speeches focusing on personal and professional growth.
  • Devdutt Pattanaik: An Indian author and mythologist who has written extensively on Indian mythology, including books like 'Jaya' and 'My Gita'.
  • Sadhguru: A contemporary Indian yogi and founder of the Isha Foundation, widely recognized for his teachings on yoga, spirituality, and personal well-being. Some of his notable works include 'Inner Engineering'.
  • Key Themes of 'Beyond Religion':
  • The book advocates secular ethics, emphasizing the importance of values like compassion, kindness, and respect in addressing global issues.
  • It suggests that ethical behavior can be achieved without reliance on religious doctrines, making it universally applicable across cultures and beliefs.
  • Dalai Lama calls for individuals to take personal responsibility for creating a peaceful and sustainable world.
  • Universal Ethics:
  • The concept of secular ethics is rooted in the idea that moral principles can transcend religious or cultural boundaries.
  • It aims to create a common ground for people from diverse backgrounds to work collaboratively toward the betterment of society.
  • This idea has gained prominence in global discussions on peacebuilding, conflict resolution, and sustainability.

Important Points

  • Dalai Lama's Global Influence:
  • The Dalai Lama is recognized as a prominent figure in promoting interfaith dialogue, human rights, and environmental conservation.
  • His teachings emphasize the interconnectedness of humanity and the need for compassion in addressing global crises.
  • He has participated in numerous international forums, inspiring leaders and individuals to adopt ethical approaches to problem-solving.
  • Ethics in Modern Society:
  • The concept of secular ethics aligns with contemporary movements to address climate change, social justice, and global health.
  • It underscores the importance of collective action and shared values in overcoming challenges faced by humanity today.
5

The dynasties named Sharabhpuriya and Somvanshi ruled in ____________.

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Tripura

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chhattisgarh

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

  • The Sharabhpuriya dynasty was a ruling dynasty that flourished in the region of present-day Chhattisgarh during the 5th and 6th centuries CE. They were known for their patronage of religion and culture.
  • The Somvanshi dynasty succeeded the Sharabhpuriya dynasty in the same region and ruled during the 7th to 8th centuries CE. They played a significant role in the development of art and architecture in this area.
  • Both dynasties contributed to the cultural and historical heritage of Chhattisgarh, which was then part of the Dakshina Kosala region.
  • The region of Chhattisgarh, during the rule of these dynasties, saw a flourishing of Hindu religious practices and the construction of temples and other architectural marvels.
  • Chhattisgarh has a rich history of dynastic rule, and these dynasties laid the foundation for many traditions and cultural practices still observed in the region.

Additional Information

  • Sharabhpuriya Dynasty:
  • The Sharabhpuriya dynasty is considered one of the earliest known dynasties in the region of present-day Chhattisgarh.
  • They ruled during the 5th and 6th centuries CE and were responsible for the early development of this region's socio-political structure.
  • The dynasty is known for promoting Shaivism and constructing temples dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • Although there is limited historical evidence, inscriptions and local traditions provide insights into their rule.
  • Somvanshi Dynasty:
  • The Somvanshi dynasty succeeded the Sharabhpuriyas and ruled during the 7th to 8th centuries CE.
  • They were known for their administrative efficiency and contributions to art and culture.
  • Several temples built during their reign reflect the influence of Hindu architectural styles.
  • The Somvanshi rulers were patrons of religion and literature, further enriching the cultural landscape of Chhattisgarh.
  • Chhattisgarh Region:
  • Chhattisgarh was historically known as Dakshina Kosala and has a rich heritage of dynastic rule and cultural advancements.
  • The region has been a center for Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism, with significant archaeological sites and monuments.
  • It is home to various tribes and communities that have preserved ancient traditions and cultural practices.
  • Important Points:
  • The region of Chhattisgarh played a crucial role in ancient Indian history due to its strategic location and cultural contributions.
  • The dynasties like Sharabhpuriya and Somvanshi contributed to the development of administrative systems and cultural practices.
  • The transition from one dynasty to another marks the evolution of socio-political structures in the region.
6

The Sina River is an important river of which of the following river systems?

  1. ((a))

    Godavari

  2. ((b))

    Tapi

  3. ((c))

    Narmada

  4. ((d))

    Krishna

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Krishna

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

  • The Sina River is an important tributary of the Krishna River system, which is one of the major river systems in India.
  • The Krishna River originates in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and flows through several states, including Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • The Sina River flows primarily through the districts of Maharashtra, contributing significantly to agriculture and irrigation in the region.
  • The Krishna River system includes several tributaries such as Bhima, Tungabhadra, Koyna, and Sina, which play a vital role in supporting the economy and livelihoods of people in the basin.
  • The Krishna River system is known for its large-scale irrigation projects, including Almatti Dam, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, and Srisailam Dam, which benefit from its tributaries like the Sina River.

Additional Information

  • Krishna River System:
  • The Krishna River is the fourth-largest river in India in terms of water inflow and river basin area.
  • The river originates at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and flows for approximately 1,400 km before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is known for its highly fertile delta, which supports extensive agriculture in Andhra Pradesh.
  • The Krishna Basin covers an area of around 258,948 square kilometers, spanning four states: Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Sina River:
  • The Sina River flows predominantly through Maharashtra, contributing water resources to the region.
  • It originates in the Balaghat Hills and is used primarily for irrigation and agriculture.
  • Small-scale irrigation projects along the Sina River help support local agriculture and maintain water availability during dry seasons.
  • Tributaries of Krishna River:
  • The Krishna River system has several tributaries like Bhima, Tungabhadra, Koyna, and Sina, which are essential for water management and agriculture.
  • The Tungabhadra Dam and Nagarjuna Sagar Dam are significant irrigation projects benefiting from tributaries like Bhima and Tungabhadra.
  • Economic Importance of Krishna River System:
  • The Krishna River supports extensive agriculture, including crops like rice, sugarcane, cotton, and millet.
  • It is a source of hydropower generation through dams like Almatti Dam and Srisailam Dam.
  • The river system is crucial for domestic water supply and industrial use in the region.

Important Points

  • Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal:
  • The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal was established to resolve disputes between Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh regarding the sharing of Krishna River water.
  • The tribunal allocates water resources based on factors like agricultural needs, population, and industrial requirements.
  • Environmental Significance:
  • The Krishna River system is home to several species of flora and fauna, making it a significant ecological zone.
  • Efforts are being made to conserve the river and its tributaries to ensure sustainable water use and maintain biodiversity.
7

Which of the following Harappan sites is located in Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Sokhta Koh

  2. ((b))

    Shortugai

  3. ((c))

    Sutkagendor

  4. ((d))

    Surkotada

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Surkotada

The correct answer is Surkotada.

Key Points

  • Surkotada is a significant Harappan site located in Gujarat, India.
  • This site was discovered in 1964 by J.P. Joshi of the Archaeological Survey of India.
  • Surkotada is known for its unique fortification, and it provides evidence of the Harappan civilization's expansion into the Gujarat region.
  • The site is notable for the discovery of horse remains, which are rarely found in other Harappan sites.
  • Surkotada had a small fortified settlement with mud-brick structures, indicating urban planning and architectural proficiency.

Additional Information

  • Sokhta Koh:
  • Sokhta Koh is located in Baluchistan, Pakistan, near the Makran coast.
  • It is believed to have served as a trading post for Harappans, facilitating maritime trade.
  • The site is known for its connection to the Harappan civilization's coastal trade network.
  • Shortugai:
  • Shortugai is located in Afghanistan, near the Amu Darya river.
  • This site was a significant trading center for Harappans, particularly for importing lapis lazuli.
  • It provides evidence of Harappan influence beyond the Indian subcontinent.
  • Sutkagendor:
  • Sutkagendor is situated in the Baluchistan province of Pakistan, near the Iranian border.
  • The site is believed to have functioned as a coastal trade post for the Harappan civilization.
  • Sutkagendor connects the Harappan civilization to its maritime trade networks.
  • Harappan Civilization:
  • The Harappan civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, thrived between 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE.
  • It was characterized by urban planning, advanced architecture, and trade networks.
  • Major sites include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Lothal, Kalibangan, and Dholavira.
  • It is one of the world's earliest urban civilizations, alongside Mesopotamia and Egypt.

Important Points

  • Surkotada's Importance:
  • Surkotada provides evidence of Harappan civilization's geographical spread into Gujarat.
  • The discovery of horse remains at Surkotada is significant, as horses are rarely found at Harappan sites.
  • The site demonstrates the Harappan civilization's adaptability in different geographical and ecological conditions.
  • Harappan Sites in Gujarat:
  • Prominent Harappan sites in Gujarat include Lothal, Dholavira, Rangpur, and Surkotada.
  • These sites highlight the influence of the Harappan civilization in western India.
  • They are known for their unique features like dockyards (Lothal), water reservoirs (Dholavira), and fortified settlements (Surkotada).
8

Which of the following hormones enables our response to emergency situations?

  1. ((a))

    Testosterone

  2. ((b))

    Thyroxine

  3. ((c))

    Oxytocin

  4. ((d))

    Adrenaline

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Adrenaline

The correct answer is Adrenaline.

Key Points

  • Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a hormone secreted by the adrenal glands, specifically by the medulla of the adrenal glands.
  • It is primarily released during stressful or emergency situations, often referred to as the "fight or flight" response.
  • The release of adrenaline triggers several physiological changes, such as increased heart rate, expanded airways, and elevated blood sugar levels, allowing the body to respond effectively to threats.
  • Adrenaline works by stimulating both the sympathetic nervous system and the cardiovascular system, preparing the body to either confront or escape the stressful situation.
  • In medical use, adrenaline is administered during emergencies such as anaphylaxis (severe allergic reactions), asthma attacks, or cardiac arrest to restore normal functioning.

Additional Information

  • Testosterone:
  • Testosterone is a male sex hormone produced by the testes. It plays a key role in the development of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics, such as increased muscle mass and body hair.
  • It is not involved in emergency responses but is important for growth, development, and maintenance of male health.
  • Thyroxine:
  • Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the body.
  • While it affects the body's energy levels, it does not directly contribute to the immediate response required in emergency situations.
  • Oxytocin:
  • Oxytocin is often referred to as the "love hormone." It is produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland.
  • This hormone is primarily involved in social bonding, childbirth, and lactation rather than emergency responses.
  • Adrenaline in detail:
  • Adrenaline is synthesized from tyrosine, an amino acid, and is stored in the adrenal medulla until needed.
  • Its effects include increasing heart rate, enhancing blood flow to muscles, and dilating airways to improve oxygen intake.
  • Adrenaline is commonly used in medical settings to treat conditions like cardiac arrest, severe asthma, and anaphylaxis.

Important Points

  • Adrenaline release:
  • The release of adrenaline is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically the sympathetic division.
  • It is a crucial survival mechanism that allows the body to react swiftly in situations of danger or stress.
  • Difference between adrenaline and cortisol:
  • While adrenaline provides a short-term burst of energy and prepares the body for immediate action, cortisol, another stress-related hormone, manages long-term responses to stress.
  • Cortisol helps regulate processes such as metabolism, inflammation, and immune responses.
9

According to Megasthenes, during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, the society was divided into ________________ castes.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

  • According to the ancient Greek ambassador Megasthenes, who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, Indian society was divided into 7 distinct castes or classes.
  • Megasthenes described these classes in his work Indica, which provides valuable insights into the social structure of ancient India.
  • The seven castes included philosophers (Brahmins), farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates, and councilors.
  • Each caste had its own specific roles and responsibilities in society, and these roles were strictly adhered to during the Mauryan period.
  • This classification by Megasthenes is unique and reflects the functional division of labor in the Mauryan society, rather than the traditional caste system based on birth.

Additional Information

  • Megasthenes and His Work Indica:
  • Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus I to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, around 302 BCE.
  • His book Indica provides one of the earliest accounts of Indian society, culture, and governance.
  • Although the original text of Indica is lost, its content is known through later writers such as Strabo, Arrian, and Diodorus.
  • Megasthenes observed and recorded various aspects of Indian civilization, including the caste system, governance, and economy.
  • The Seven Classes Described by Megasthenes:
  • Philosophers: These were scholars, priests, and teachers (likely Brahmins) engaged in spiritual and intellectual pursuits.
  • Farmers: Representing the majority of the population, they were responsible for agriculture and food production.
  • Soldiers: They served in the military and were tasked with the defense of the state.
  • Herdsmen: They raised livestock such as cattle and were crucial to the agrarian economy.
  • Artisans: This class included craftsmen and workers who produced goods and tools.
  • Magistrates: They were involved in the administration of justice and governance.
  • Councilors: Advisors and officials who assisted the king in decision-making and governance.
  • Chandragupta Maurya and the Mauryan Empire:
  • Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Mauryan Empire, which was established around 321 BCE.
  • He is known for unifying most of the Indian subcontinent under one rule and establishing a centralized administration.
  • The Mauryan Empire was characterized by a highly organized bureaucracy and an efficient taxation system.
  • Chandragupta was guided by his advisor Chanakya (Kautilya), who authored the Arthashastra, a treatise on economics, politics, and governance.
  • Social Structure in Ancient India:
  • The Indian caste system, as described in later texts, was based on the division of society into four main varnas: Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, and Shudras.
  • However, Megasthenes' account of seven classes highlights a functional division of labor rather than a rigid hereditary caste system.
  • This distinction provides a unique perspective on the social dynamics during the Mauryan period.
10

'Adiparva' is a part of which of the following texts?

  1. ((a))

    Vishnu Purana

  2. ((b))

    Samaveda

  3. ((c))

    Mahabharata

  4. ((d))

    Ramayana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mahabharata

The correct answer is Mahabharata.

Key Points

  • Adiparva is the first book or section of the Indian epic Mahabharata.
  • The Mahabharata, attributed to Vyasa, is one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India, along with the Ramayana.
  • Adiparva deals with the origin stories and early events leading up to the main narrative of the Mahabharata, including the lineage of the Kuru dynasty.
  • This section introduces key characters like the Pandavas, Kauravas, and other central figures, setting the stage for the epic battle at Kurukshetra.
  • The Mahabharata consists of 18 Parvas, and Adiparva is the initial part, focusing on significant events like King Shantanu's marriage, the birth of Bhishma, and the early conflicts between the Pandavas and Kauravas.

Additional Information

  • Mahabharata:
  • The Mahabharata is considered the longest epic poem ever written, consisting of approximately 100,000 shlokas (verses).
  • It is divided into 18 Parvas, which narrate a comprehensive history of the Kuru dynasty and the epic war between the Pandavas and Kauravas.
  • The Mahabharata contains teachings on Dharma, ethics, and philosophy, including the famous Bhagavad Gita, which is a dialogue between Lord Krishna and Arjuna.
  • It is believed to have been written between the 3rd century BCE and 3rd century CE.
  • Adiparva Highlights:
  • Adiparva introduces the ancestry of the Pandavas and Kauravas, including the story of King Shantanu and Ganga.
  • It narrates significant events like the birth of Bhishma, the vow of celibacy taken by him, and the marriage alliances that shape the Kuru dynasty.
  • The section also explores early conflicts and the initial exile of the Pandavas.
  • It includes the introduction of Draupadi and her marriage to the five Pandavas.
  • Other Options:
  • Vishnu Purana: This text is a Puranic scripture dedicated to Lord Vishnu, describing his incarnations and the cosmic order.
  • Samaveda: One of the four Vedas, it focuses on melody and chants used in rituals, rather than narratives.
  • Ramayana: Another major Indian epic, authored by Valmiki, narrates the story of Lord Rama and his journey to rescue Sita from Ravana.

Important Points

  • Authorship: The Mahabharata is traditionally attributed to Vyasa, also known as Krishna-Dvaipayana Vyasa.
  • Historical Significance: The Mahabharata is not just a literary work but also an important historical and philosophical text that influenced Indian culture.
  • Language: It was originally composed in Sanskrit, making it one of the oldest texts in Indian literature.
  • Bhagavad Gita: The teachings of Lord Krishna to Arjuna during the Kurukshetra war are considered a philosophical gem within the Mahabharata.
11

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights in the Constituent Assembly of India?

  1. ((a))

    J.B. Kripalani

  2. ((b))

    K. M. Munshi

  3. ((c))

    Abul Kalam Azad

  4. ((d))

    Vallabhbhai Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

J.B. Kripalani

The correct answer is J.B. Kripalani.

Key Points

  • J.B. Kripalani was the Chairman of the Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights in the Constituent Assembly of India.
  • The Constituent Assembly of India was tasked with drafting the Constitution of India after independence, and the Fundamental Rights were a critical component of this process.
  • The Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights was one of the several committees formed to address specific aspects of the Constitution during its drafting.
  • J.B. Kripalani was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and played a key role in India's freedom movement.
  • His leadership in the Sub-Committee was instrumental in shaping the provisions related to Fundamental Rights, which are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
  • The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution and provide citizens with essential rights that protect their dignity and liberty.
  • They include rights such as the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22), and Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
  • Other rights include the Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28), Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30), and Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32).
  • These rights are enforceable by the judiciary and are protected against arbitrary actions by the state.
  • Role of the Constituent Assembly in Drafting the Constitution:
  • The Constituent Assembly was established in 1946 and consisted of prominent leaders from various sections of society.
  • The Assembly was divided into several committees, such as the Drafting Committee, Fundamental Rights Committee, and Union Constitution Committee.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a pivotal role in creating the final draft of the Constitution.
  • J.B. Kripalani:
  • J.B. Kripalani, also known as Acharya Kripalani, was born in 1888 and was a renowned freedom fighter and political leader.
  • He served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1946, during the crucial period leading up to India's independence.
  • He was a staunch advocate of civil liberties and democracy, which influenced his contributions to the Fundamental Rights section of the Constitution.
  • Other Members and Committees in the Constituent Assembly:
  • K.M. Munshi: Played a significant role in drafting the Preamble and other sections of the Constitution.
  • Abul Kalam Azad: Contributed to discussions on education and cultural rights.
  • Vallabhbhai Patel: Chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minority Rights.

Important Points

  • Significance of Fundamental Rights:
  • Fundamental Rights are considered essential for the development of individuals and the preservation of democracy in India.
  • They act as a safeguard against the misuse of power by the state and protect individual freedoms.
  • Judicial Enforcement:
  • Article 32 empowers individuals to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution.
12

What is the rate of Health and Education Cess on Income Tax in the financial year 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    4%

  2. ((b))

    3%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4%

The correct answer is 0.04.

Key Points

  • Health and Education Cess is levied on the income tax payable by individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), companies, and other taxpayers in India.
  • The rate of Health and Education Cess for the financial year 2020-21 was 4% of the income tax payable.
  • It was introduced in the Union Budget 2018-19 to replace the earlier Education Cess and Secondary & Higher Education Cess.
  • The cess is aimed at providing additional funds for promoting health and education initiatives across the country.
  • This levy is calculated on the total amount of income tax (including surcharge, if any) and is mandatory for all taxpayers.

Additional Information

  • Purpose of Health and Education Cess:
  • The primary objective is to generate additional revenue to fund key government schemes in the domains of healthcare and education.
  • The funds collected are intended for improving the quality of healthcare services and ensuring quality education, particularly for the underprivileged.
  • Calculation of Health and Education Cess:
  • The cess is calculated as 4% of the total tax liability, including any surcharge applicable on the income tax.
  • For example, if the income tax payable is ₹10,000, the cess would be ₹400 (4% of ₹10,000).
  • Difference Between Cess and Surcharge:
  • A cess is levied for a specific purpose, and the revenue collected must be used only for that purpose. For example, Health and Education Cess is used only for health and education-related initiatives.
  • A surcharge, on the other hand, is an additional charge on tax levied on high-income earners and is added to the government's general revenue.
  • Historical Context:
  • Before the introduction of the Health and Education Cess, there were two separate cesses: Education Cess (2%) and Secondary & Higher Education Cess (1%).
  • In 2018, these were merged into a single Health and Education Cess at a rate of 4%.
  • Taxpayers Affected:
  • All categories of taxpayers, including individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), firms, and companies, are subject to this cess.
  • It is applicable regardless of the income slab or tax rate under which the taxpayer falls.
13

The 10th Hockey India Senior Women's National Championship 2020 (A Division) title was won by the team from _____________.

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Haryana

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • The 10th Hockey India Senior Women's National Championship (A Division) 2020 was held to determine the best women's hockey team in India.
  • The championship witnessed the participation of various teams from across the country, showcasing exceptional talent and competitive spirit in the sport of hockey.
  • Haryana emerged as the winner of the tournament, clinching the title with outstanding performances throughout the competition.
  • Haryana's victory in the championship highlighted its strong hockey culture and the state’s consistent efforts in promoting the sport.
  • The team from Haryana displayed remarkable skill, teamwork, and determination, which ultimately led them to triumph in the final match of the championship.

Additional Information

  • Hockey in Haryana:
  • Haryana is known for producing some of the finest hockey players in India, contributing significantly to the national hockey teams.
  • The state has a robust infrastructure for sports training, including facilities for hockey, which enables athletes to excel in national and international competitions.
  • Prominent hockey players from Haryana include Sandeep Singh and Rani Rampal, who have represented India at the highest levels of the sport.
  • Hockey India Championships:
  • Hockey India organizes national-level championships annually to promote hockey among different age groups and categories.
  • The championships aim to identify talent and provide a competitive platform for players from various states and regions.
  • These tournaments are critical in building a strong pipeline for the national hockey teams and developing the sport at the grassroots level.
  • Women's Hockey in India:
  • Women's hockey has grown significantly in India over the years, with increased participation and recognition at the national and international levels.
  • The Indian women's hockey team has achieved notable success, including qualifying for the Olympics and performing well in global tournaments.
  • Efforts to support women's hockey include specialized training programs, coaching, and infrastructure development by organizations like Hockey India.
  • Other States in Hockey:
  • Madhya Pradesh: Known for its hockey academies and development programs, but did not win the 2020 championship.
  • West Bengal: Has a historical connection to hockey but is not as prominent in recent national championships.
  • Kerala: Although active in sports, it is not a major contender in hockey at the national level.

Important Points

  • Hockey India:
  • Hockey India is the governing body for hockey in India and is responsible for organizing national tournaments and managing the national teams.
  • It works towards the development of hockey at all levels and aims to make India a dominant force in the sport globally.
  • Impact of Championships:
  • National championships like the 10th Hockey India Senior Women's National Championship play a crucial role in identifying emerging talent.
  • They act as a stepping stone for players to be selected for national and international teams.
14

For which of the following areas was the downward filtration approach advocated by Lord Macaulay during the colonial rule in India?

  1. ((a))

    Industry

  2. ((b))

    Agriculture

  3. ((c))

    Education

  4. ((d))

    Foreign Policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Education

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

  • The downward filtration theory was introduced by Lord Macaulay during the British colonial rule in India. It was aimed at promoting English education among the elite sections of Indian society.
  • According to this policy, education was provided to a limited group of Indians, primarily the upper and middle classes, with the expectation that they would pass on their knowledge to the lower classes. This was intended to create a class of Indians who would act as intermediaries between the British rulers and the Indian masses.
  • Lord Macaulay’s Minute on Education (1835) played a pivotal role in implementing this approach. He emphasized the need to educate Indians in English, rather than in vernacular languages, to create a class of people who were “Indian in blood and color, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect.”
  • This policy led to the establishment of English-medium schools and institutions, such as the Elphinstone College in Bombay and the Hindu College in Calcutta.
  • The downward filtration theory, however, faced criticism for neglecting the education of the masses. It only benefited a small section of society and widened the gap between the educated elite and the uneducated majority.

Additional Information

  • Lord Macaulay’s Educational Policies:
  • Lord Macaulay was a British official and historian who played a significant role in shaping India’s education system during the colonial era.
  • His Minute on Education (1835) argued that English should be the medium of instruction in Indian education, replacing Persian and Sanskrit.
  • Macaulay believed that English education would help create a class of educated Indians who could assist in administering the colony and act as intermediaries between the British and the Indian population.
  • Impact of the Downward Filtration Theory:
  • The policy led to the growth of English-speaking elites in India, who were often employed in government services or as professionals like lawyers and teachers.
  • However, it ignored the education of the lower classes and rural population, contributing to the persistence of social inequalities in education.
  • The focus on English education also led to the neglect of traditional Indian knowledge systems and vernacular languages.
  • Education in Colonial India:
  • The establishment of institutions like the University of Calcutta (1857), University of Bombay (1857), and University of Madras (1857) marked the beginning of higher education in India.
  • Missionary schools and colleges also played a significant role in providing education, especially in rural areas.
  • The Wood’s Despatch of 1854 emphasized the importance of mass education and introduced measures for vernacular education and teacher training, partially addressing the shortcomings of the downward filtration theory.
  • Important Points:
  • The downward filtration theory was eventually criticized for its elitist approach and was gradually replaced by policies aimed at promoting mass education in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
  • The efforts to expand education during the British era laid the foundation for India’s modern education system, which emphasizes inclusivity and accessibility.
15

According to the Union Budget 2020-21, India is the ______________ largest economy in the world.

  1. ((a))

    Fifth

  2. ((b))

    Sixth

  3. ((c))

    Seventh

  4. ((d))

    Fourth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fifth

The correct answer is Fifth.

Key Points

  • As per the Union Budget 2020-21, India was declared the fifth-largest economy globally based on nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) rankings.
  • India’s GDP reached a value of approximately $2.87 trillion by the end of 2019, surpassing countries like the United Kingdom and France.
  • This ranking was derived from data provided by international organizations such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
  • India's economic growth has been driven by sectors such as information technology, manufacturing, agriculture, and services, which contribute significantly to its GDP.
  • Despite challenges like slower growth and global uncertainties during the fiscal year, India's position as the fifth-largest economy reflects its robust economic infrastructure and potential for further development.

Additional Information

  • Nominal GDP:
  • Nominal GDP is the market value of all goods and services produced in a country within a given year, calculated using current prices.
  • It does not account for inflation or changes in price levels, making it a common measure for comparing economic size.
  • Global Economic Rankings:
  • The largest economies in the world are generally ranked based on their GDP. As of 2020, the United States remains the largest, followed by China, Japan, Germany, and India.
  • India’s rise in the rankings reflects its increasing economic contribution to the global economy.
  • Challenges Faced:
  • India faces challenges such as income inequality, unemployment, and slowing growth, which need to be addressed to maintain its global economic position.
  • Global uncertainties, such as the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic, have also affected India’s economic progress temporarily.
  • Sectoral Contributions:
  • The service sector contributes the largest share to India’s GDP, followed by manufacturing and agriculture.
  • India is known as a global hub for information technology and software services, which play a pivotal role in its economic growth.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • India’s government has launched several initiatives like Make in India, Digital India, and Skill India to boost economic growth and improve its global economic standing.
  • The Union Budget 2020-21 emphasized reforms in areas such as infrastructure development, education, and healthcare to strengthen India’s economic foundation.
16

In which of the following mountain ranges, Malayagiri is located as one of its highest peaks?

  1. ((a))

    Shevaroy Hills

  2. ((b))

    Jawadi Hills

  3. ((c))

    Garhjat Hills

  4. ((d))

    Nallamalai Hills

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Garhjat Hills

The correct answer is Garhjat Hills.

Key Points

  • Malayagiri is one of the highest peaks in the Garhjat Hills, located in the state of Odisha, India.
  • The Garhjat Hills, also known as the Eastern Ghats, stretch across Odisha and parts of Andhra Pradesh, covering a significant geographical area with rugged terrain.
  • Malayagiri has an elevation of approximately 1,187 meters (3,894 feet) and is a prominent peak in Odisha.
  • The Garhjat Hills are characterized by their dense forests, rich biodiversity, and significant cultural importance to the indigenous tribes of Odisha.
  • The region is a hub for flora and fauna and is known for its mineral resources such as iron ore, bauxite, and manganese.

Additional Information

  • Garhjat Hills:
  • These hills are part of the Eastern Ghats and primarily located in Odisha.
  • The region is known for its undulating terrain, with several peaks and valleys.
  • Key peaks in the Garhjat Hills include Malayagiri, Mahendragiri, and Deomali.
  • The area is home to numerous indigenous tribes such as the Kondh and Santal, who depend on the forests for livelihood.
  • Shevaroy Hills:
  • Located in Tamil Nadu, India, these hills are part of the Eastern Ghats.
  • The highest peak in the Shevaroy Hills is Shevaroyan Temple Peak, standing at 1,635 meters.
  • The region is known for its coffee plantations and forests.
  • Jawadi Hills:
  • Situated in Tamil Nadu, Jawadi Hills are also part of the Eastern Ghats.
  • These hills are known for their scenic beauty and are less rugged compared to other ranges in the Eastern Ghats.
  • Nallamalai Hills:
  • Located in Andhra Pradesh, the Nallamalai Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats.
  • These hills are known for spiritual sites like Srisailam and dense forests.
  • The region is a part of the Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.

Important Points

  • The Garhjat Hills are an important geographical feature in Odisha, contributing to the state's mineral wealth and biodiversity.
  • Malayagiri is Odisha's third-highest peak, following Deomali and Mahendragiri.
  • The hills are a significant source of water resources and support various rivers such as the Brahmani and Baitarani.
  • The Eastern Ghats, including Garhjat Hills, are ecologically sensitive zones and are part of several conservation initiatives.
17

Which of the following institutions has been proposed to be established in the Union Budget 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Institute of Heritage and Conservation

  2. ((b))

    National Institute of Heritage Management

  3. ((c))

    Indian Institute of Arts and Architecture

  4. ((d))

    National Institute of Applied Conservation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indian Institute of Heritage and Conservation

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Heritage and Conservation.

Key Points

  • The Union Budget 2020-21 proposed the establishment of the Indian Institute of Heritage and Conservation with the status of a deemed university.
  • This institute aims to promote the preservation, conservation, and restoration of India's rich cultural heritage, including tangible and intangible assets.
  • The institute will contribute to the development of skilled professionals in the field of heritage management and conservation by providing specialized education and training.
  • It is expected to foster research and innovation in areas related to artifacts, heritage sites, and cultural studies, which are integral to India's historical identity.
  • This initiative highlights the government's commitment to preserving India's cultural heritage while facilitating capacity building in the field of heritage conservation.

Additional Information

  • Conservation of Cultural Heritage:
  • The preservation of cultural heritage involves protecting and restoring historical monuments, artifacts, and traditions to maintain their historical significance.
  • Heritage management also focuses on documentation and digitalization of cultural artifacts to ensure their accessibility to future generations.
  • India’s rich heritage includes monuments like Taj Mahal, Ajanta and Ellora caves, and Qutub Minar, as well as intangible aspects like languages, customs, and folklore.
  • Importance of Heritage Conservation:
  • Conserving heritage helps in promoting tourism and education, thus contributing to the economy.
  • It aids in fostering a sense of national pride and identity among citizens by connecting them to their cultural roots.
  • It is also essential for building a sustainable future by preserving resources and knowledge from the past.
  • Government Initiatives in Heritage Conservation:
  • Various schemes like National Mission on Cultural Mapping and HRIDAY (Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana) have been launched to support heritage conservation efforts.
  • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) plays a pivotal role in maintaining and restoring monuments of national importance.
  • The UNESCO World Heritage Sites program in India includes 40 sites, such as Ranthambore National Park and Khajuraho Temples.
  • Other Options in Context:
  • National Institute of Heritage Management: This is not an existing institute and appears to be hypothetical in the question.
  • Indian Institute of Arts and Architecture: Similarly, this institute is not mentioned in the Union Budget 2020-21.
  • National Institute of Applied Conservation: This institute does not exist as per government records or proposals.
18

From which of the following countries did Abdur Razzaq come to India during the medieval period?

  1. ((a))

    Morocco

  2. ((b))

    Egypt

  3. ((c))

    Persia

  4. ((d))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Persia

The correct answer is Persia.

Key Points

  • Abdur Razzaq, a Persian scholar and diplomat, came to India from Persia (modern-day Iran) during the medieval period. He was sent as an envoy by the ruler of Persia, Shah Rukh, to the court of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • He visited India in the 15th century, specifically in 1443–1444, during the reign of the Vijayanagara king Deva Raya II.
  • His travel accounts provide a detailed description of the Vijayanagara Empire, including its administration, architecture, trade, culture, and society. His works are considered valuable primary sources for studying medieval Indian history.
  • Abdur Razzaq specifically highlighted the grandeur of the city of Vijayanagara, describing it as one of the most magnificent cities he had ever seen. He praised its wealth, infrastructure, and well-organized governance.
  • His writings emphasized the flourishing trade relations between India and other regions, particularly through the Indian Ocean trade network. His observations also shed light on the cultural diversity and religious practices in South India during that period.

Additional Information

  • About Persia:
  • Persia is the historical name for modern-day Iran. It was a prominent center of culture, science, and trade during the medieval period.
  • The Persian Empire had extensive diplomatic and trade relations with India, particularly during the medieval period, which facilitated cultural exchanges.
  • Persian was widely used as a court language in many Indian kingdoms, including the Mughal Empire, due to its literary and administrative significance.
  • The Vijayanagara Empire:
  • The Vijayanagara Empire was a South Indian empire that existed from the 14th to the 17th century. It was known for its contributions to art, architecture, and culture.
  • The empire's capital, Vijayanagara (modern-day Hampi), was a thriving city and a major hub of trade, religion, and administration.
  • The reign of Deva Raya II, during which Abdur Razzaq visited, is considered a golden period in the history of Vijayanagara due to its prosperity and cultural achievements.
  • Trade and Cultural Exchanges:
  • The Indian Ocean trade network connected the Vijayanagara Empire with regions like Persia, the Arabian Peninsula, and Southeast Asia.
  • Persian envoys like Abdur Razzaq played a crucial role in fostering diplomatic ties and facilitating cultural exchanges between India and Persia.
  • Indian spices, textiles, and precious stones were in high demand in Persia, while Persian art, architecture, and literature influenced Indian culture.
  • Other Travelers to India:
  • Marco Polo (from Venice) visited South India during the reign of the Pandya dynasty in the 13th century.
  • Ibn Battuta (from Morocco) visited India in the 14th century during the reign of the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
  • Al-Biruni (from Central Asia) came to India in the 11th century and wrote about Indian culture, science, and religion in his book Kitab al-Hind.
19

Which of the following rebellions was led by Surendra Sai?

  1. ((a))

    Munda rebellion

  2. ((b))

    Kharwar rebellion

  3. ((c))

    Sambalpur rebellion

  4. ((d))

    Indigo Revolt

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sambalpur rebellion

The correct answer is Sambalpur rebellion.

Key Points

  • Surendra Sai was a prominent freedom fighter from the Sambalpur region of Odisha. He led the Sambalpur rebellion against the British in the mid-19th century.
  • The rebellion was a result of the British authorities' interference in the succession dispute of the Sambalpur kingdom after the death of King Maharaja Sai in 1827.
  • Surendra Sai, who was a legitimate heir to the Sambalpur throne, was denied kingship by the British, who instead placed their own candidate on the throne. This led to widespread dissatisfaction and rebellion.
  • The rebellion started in 1827 and continued sporadically until 1862. Surendra Sai and his followers adopted guerrilla warfare tactics to fight against British forces.
  • He is considered a symbol of resistance against British colonialism in Odisha and is remembered for his fight for the rights of his people and his kingdom.

Additional Information

  • Munda Rebellion:
  • The Munda rebellion, also known as the Ulgulan (The Great Rebellion), was led by Birsamunda in the late 19th century in the Chotanagpur plateau region (present-day Jharkhand).
  • It was a tribal uprising against the exploitative policies of the British and the zamindars (landlords).
  • The rebellion focused on the issues of land rights and the socio-religious practices of the Mundas.
  • Kharwar Rebellion:
  • The Kharwar rebellion took place in the mid-19th century in the Chotanagpur region under the leadership of Bhagirath Manjhi.
  • It was a tribal revolt against the British and local landlords over issues such as land ownership and exploitation.
  • Indigo Revolt:
  • The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 took place in Bengal and was led by the indigo farmers against oppressive European planters.
  • Farmers were forced to cultivate indigo under exploitative conditions, which led to widespread protests and resistance.
  • This rebellion played a significant role in the early resistance against British colonialism in India.
  • Sambalpur Rebellion:
  • The Sambalpur rebellion was primarily led by Surendra Sai in Odisha, focusing on the issues of succession rights and resistance against British interference.
  • It is one of the earliest examples of tribal and regional resistance against British colonialism in eastern India.
  • Surendra Sai is remembered as a heroic figure in Odisha's history, with his rebellion inspiring future movements for independence.

Important Points

  • Significance of Tribal Rebellions:
  • Tribal rebellions like the Sambalpur rebellion reflect the resistance of indigenous communities and regional leaders against British colonial exploitation.
  • These uprisings were often driven by issues such as land rights, cultural preservation, and political autonomy.
  • Role of Guerrilla Warfare:
  • Surendra Sai and his followers employed guerrilla tactics, using the dense forests and hilly terrain of Sambalpur to their advantage against British forces.
  • This strategy inspired future freedom fighters in their struggle for independence.
20

Chinese player Lin Dan, who announced his retirement in 2020, is a professional _______.

  1. ((a))

    swimmer

  2. ((b))

    chess player

  3. ((c))

    badminton player

  4. ((d))

    football player

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

badminton player

The correct answer is badminton player.

Key Points

  • Lin Dan is one of the most celebrated badminton players in history, earning the nickname "Super Dan" for his extraordinary achievements.
  • He is a Chinese professional badminton player, widely regarded as one of the greatest in the sport’s history.
  • Lin Dan announced his retirement from professional badminton on July 4, 2020, after a career spanning over two decades.
  • He won two Olympic gold medals—one at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and another at the 2012 London Olympics, making him the first and only player to achieve this feat in men's singles badminton.
  • Lin Dan has also won five World Championships titles (2006, 2007, 2009, 2011, and 2013), highlighting his dominance in the sport.

Additional Information

  • Achievements of Lin Dan:
  • Lin Dan completed the rare "Super Grand Slam" in badminton, winning all major titles in the sport—Olympics, World Championships, World Cup, Thomas Cup, Sudirman Cup, All England Open, Asian Games, Asian Championships, and the Superseries Finals.
  • He is known for his aggressive playstyle, exceptional footwork, and mental toughness, which set him apart from his peers.
  • Lin Dan’s rivalry with Lee Chong Wei, a Malaysian badminton legend, is considered one of the greatest rivalries in sports history.
  • Badminton as a Sport:
  • Badminton originated in British India during the 19th century and later gained popularity worldwide.
  • The game is governed by the Badminton World Federation (BWF), established in 1934.
  • It is played with a shuttlecock and rackets, requiring intense physical stamina, quick reflexes, and strategy.
  • Some major tournaments include the All England Open, World Championships, Olympics, and Sudirman Cup.
  • Other Sports Options:
  • Swimming: Involves competitive swimming styles like freestyle, backstroke, breaststroke, and butterfly. Famous swimmers include Michael Phelps and Katie Ledecky.
  • Chess: A strategic board game where legends like Magnus Carlsen and Viswanathan Anand have excelled.
  • Football: Played globally, with iconic players like Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo.
  • Important Points:
  • Lin Dan’s career serves as an inspiration to athletes worldwide for his dedication, consistency, and achievements.
  • Badminton remains one of the most popular sports globally, particularly in Asia and Europe.
21

The basin of the river Cauvery does not extend to which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Cauvery River is one of the major rivers in southern India, flowing through the states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
  • The river basin covers approximately 81,155 square kilometers, with the majority of the area lying in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • The Cauvery River originates from the Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu district of Karnataka and flows into the Bay of Bengal after traversing Tamil Nadu and a part of Kerala.
  • Andhra Pradesh does not fall within the Cauvery River basin. The major rivers flowing through Andhra Pradesh include the Krishna River, Godavari River, and Pennar River.
  • The inclusion of Kerala in the Cauvery basin is due to the presence of its tributaries like the Bhavani River, which originates in Kerala but primarily flows through Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

  • Cauvery River Overview:
  • The Cauvery River is referred to as the "Ganga of the South" due to its significance in irrigation, drinking water supply, and hydroelectric power generation.
  • The river flows for a total length of approximately 805 km, with a major portion of its journey traversing Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • It forms a large delta in Tamil Nadu, which is one of the most fertile regions in India and is often referred to as the "Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu."
  • Tributaries of Cauvery River:
  • Key tributaries of the Cauvery River include the Hemavati, Harangi, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, and Amaravati Rivers.
  • These tributaries originate in the Western Ghats and contribute significantly to the water flow of the Cauvery River.
  • Andhra Pradesh Rivers:
  • The major rivers flowing through Andhra Pradesh include:
  • Godavari River: The second-longest river in India, originating from Maharashtra and flowing into Andhra Pradesh.
  • Krishna River: Originates from the Western Ghats in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Pennar River: A river flowing through southern Andhra Pradesh.
  • Water Disputes:
  • The Cauvery Water Dispute is one of the most contentious inter-state water disputes in India, primarily involving Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) was constituted in 1990 to resolve the conflict, and the final award was given in 2007.
  • In 2018, the Supreme Court of India modified the tribunal's decision, allocating more water to Karnataka while ensuring Tamil Nadu’s share.
22

The Government of India Act, 1919, envisaged bicameral government for the first time in India under British rule. It fixed the term of the Council of State at ____ years.

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Five

The correct answer is Five years.

Key Points

  • The Government of India Act, 1919 was a significant constitutional reform introduced by the British government, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
  • The Act introduced the concept of a bicameral legislature for the first time in India under British rule, with two houses: the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.
  • The Council of State was the upper house of the legislature, and its members were elected and nominated.
  • The term for the Council of State was fixed at five years, making it a notable provision under the Act.
  • The Act also introduced the system of dyarchy in provincial administration, dividing subjects into "reserved" and "transferred" categories.

Additional Information

  • Government of India Act, 1919:
  • It was introduced to implement the recommendations of the Montagu-Chelmsford Report.
  • The Act marked the beginning of constitutional reforms in India, preparing the groundwork for future developments like the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • The Act aimed to increase the participation of Indians in governance while maintaining British control over critical areas.
  • Dyarchy System:
  • Under the Act, provincial subjects were divided into two categories: Reserved and Transferred.
  • "Reserved" subjects were administered by the Governor and his Executive Council, while "Transferred" subjects were handled by Indian ministers.
  • This system was introduced to gradually involve Indians in governance but retained British control over important areas like finance and law enforcement.
  • Bicameral Legislature:
  • The concept of a bicameral legislature introduced under this Act was new to Indian governance.
  • The two houses were the Legislative Assembly (lower house) and the Council of State (upper house).
  • Members of the Council of State were elected and nominated, with its term fixed at five years.
  • Impact of the Act:
  • The reforms under the Act were criticized for being inadequate, but they laid the foundation for the eventual independence movement.
  • It led to increased political awareness and participation among Indians, especially educated elites.
  • The Act was later replaced by the Government of India Act, 1935, which introduced more comprehensive reforms.
23

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits human trafficking as a fundamental right?

  1. ((a))

    Article 17

  2. ((b))

    Article 14

  3. ((c))

    Article 23

  4. ((d))

    Article 20

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 23

The correct answer is Article 23.

Key Points

  • Article 23 of the Constitution of India explicitly prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and similar forms of exploitation. It is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • This article ensures that no individual can be compelled to work against their will without fair compensation, protecting against all forms of exploitation.
  • The prohibition under Article 23 is applicable not only to the State but also to private individuals and entities. Hence, the scope of protection is broad.
  • It allows the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, but this must be done without discrimination based on race, religion, caste, or class.
  • Human trafficking involves the illegal trade of humans for exploitation, including forced labor and sexual exploitation, and Article 23 serves as the legal foundation to combat such practices.

Additional Information

  • Article 17 of the Constitution:
  • Article 17 abolishes the practice of untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • Any disability arising out of untouchability is considered an offense punishable by law under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
  • Article 14 of the Constitution:
  • Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  • This article forms the foundation of the principle of equality and prohibits discrimination on various grounds.
  • Article 20 of the Constitution:
  • Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses.
  • It includes provisions against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and protection against self-incrimination.
  • Legal Framework to Combat Human Trafficking:
  • The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA) is the primary legislation in India to prevent and combat human trafficking and sexual exploitation.
  • The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 introduced stricter penalties for offenses related to human trafficking, particularly for sexual exploitation.
  • The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 ensures the eradication of bonded labor, complementing the provisions of Article 23.
  • Important Points:
  • India is a signatory to the United Nations Protocol to Prevent, Suppress, and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children, which supplements the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime.
  • The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) annually publishes data on human trafficking cases in India.
  • Awareness campaigns and rehabilitation programs are conducted by the government and NGOs to combat human trafficking.
24

Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution states that at the commencement of the first session of every year, the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled and inform Parliament of the reasons for the session and its summons?

  1. ((a))

    Article 87(1)

  2. ((b))

    Article 87 (2)

  3. ((c))

    Article 86 (2)

  4. ((d))

    अनुच्छेद  86 (1)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 87(1)

The correct answer is Article 87(1).

Key Points

  • Article 87(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled at the commencement of the first session of every year and inform Parliament of the reasons for its summons.
  • The address by the President is a constitutional requirement and marks the beginning of the parliamentary calendar.
  • It serves as a platform where the President outlines the government's plans and policy priorities for the year ahead.
  • This provision ensures that Parliament is updated on the government’s legislative and administrative agenda for the upcoming sessions.
  • The practice of the President addressing both Houses is an important element of parliamentary democracy in India, reflecting the government's accountability to the legislature.

Additional Information

  • Article 87:
  • Article 87(1): Specifies the President’s constitutional responsibility to address Parliament at the beginning of the first session of each year and the first session after each general election.
  • Article 87(2): Allows for the discussion of the matters referred to in the President’s address. This discussion is an essential part of legislative proceedings and provides members of Parliament an opportunity to deliberate on the government’s agenda.
  • Role of the President in Parliament:
  • The President acts as the constitutional head and plays an indirect role in legislative proceedings, such as summoning and proroguing sessions of Parliament.
  • Through the address under Article 87(1), the President communicates the policies and legislative priorities of the government.
  • Significance of the President’s Address:
  • The address sets the tone for parliamentary discussions and provides insights into the government’s focus areas for the year.
  • It is a form of parliamentary tradition that underscores the accountability of the executive to the legislature.
  • Other Related Articles:
  • Article 86: Provides the President with the authority to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together.
  • Article 75: Ensures collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha, reinforcing the importance of the President’s address as a summary of government priorities.

Important Points

  • Historical Context:
  • The practice of the President addressing Parliament at the start of the session follows the Westminster system of parliamentary democracy.
  • The first President’s address in India was delivered by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in 1950.
  • Procedure after the Address:
  • The President’s address is followed by a motion of thanks, which is debated by members of Parliament and serves as a platform for discussing the government's priorities.
  • Amendments to the motion of thanks can be proposed, offering members an opportunity to express concerns or suggestions regarding the government’s agenda.
25

Which of the following is a biological nitrogen fixer?

  1. ((a))

    Aspergillus

  2. ((b))

    Blue green Algae

  3. ((c))

    Protozoa

  4. ((d))

    Rotavirus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Blue green Algae

The correct answer is Blue green Algae.

Key Points

  • Blue-green algae, also known as cyanobacteria, are microorganisms that are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into forms usable by plants.
  • They play a crucial role in the nitrogen cycle by converting inert nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into ammonia, which plants can absorb and utilize for growth.
  • Cyanobacteria perform nitrogen fixation using a specialized enzyme called nitrogenase, which functions under anaerobic (oxygen-free) conditions.
  • Some of the well-known nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria include Anabaena, Nostoc, and Azolla-Anabaena symbiotic systems.
  • These microorganisms are particularly beneficial in paddy fields, where they contribute to soil fertility and enhance crop productivity without the need for chemical fertilizers.

Additional Information

  • Aspergillus:
  • It is a genus of fungi commonly found in soil, decaying vegetation, and organic matter.
  • Aspergillus is not involved in nitrogen fixation but is known for producing enzymes and secondary metabolites, some of which have industrial applications.
  • Protozoa:
  • Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms that primarily feed on bacteria, algae, and organic matter in the soil.
  • They are not capable of nitrogen fixation but play a role in nutrient cycling by breaking down organic material.
  • Rotavirus:
  • Rotavirus is a virus that causes gastroenteritis, especially in children, and has no role in nitrogen fixation or soil fertility.
  • Role of Nitrogen Fixers:
  • Nitrogen fixation is the process of converting atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3), which plants can uptake.
  • Biological nitrogen fixation is carried out by certain bacteria and cyanobacteria, either free-living or in symbiotic associations with plants.
  • Examples of symbiotic nitrogen fixation include Rhizobium in legumes and cyanobacteria in Azolla.

Important Points

  • Economic and Environmental Benefits: Biological nitrogen fixation reduces dependency on synthetic nitrogen fertilizers, which are costly and can cause environmental harm through runoff and greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Examples of Nitrogen-Fixing Cyanobacteria: Anabaena and Nostoc are particularly beneficial in maintaining soil fertility in flooded rice fields.
  • Symbiosis with Azolla: Anabaena forms a mutualistic relationship with Azolla, a water fern, significantly contributing to nitrogen enrichment in aquatic ecosystems.
26

For which of the following sectors, 'One Product One District' scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 for better marketing and export of products?

  1. ((a))

    Fishing Sector

  2. ((b))

    Horticulture Sector

  3. ((c))

    Chemicals Sector

  4. ((d))

    Textile Sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Horticulture Sector

The correct answer is Horticulture Sector.

Key Points

  • The 'One Product One District' (OPOD) scheme was announced during the Union Budget 2020-21 to promote the Horticulture Sector.
  • This scheme aims to encourage the production, marketing, and export of horticultural products by identifying specific districts for specific products.
  • Under the initiative, a district will focus on cultivating a particular horticulture crop that is unique to the region, such as mangoes, bananas, apples, or other fruits and vegetables.
  • The scheme seeks to increase farmers' incomes by improving the value chain, providing better marketing opportunities, and enhancing export potential.
  • It aligns with the broader objective of enhancing agricultural productivity and promoting self-reliance in horticultural exports.

Additional Information

  • Horticulture Sector in India:
  • The horticulture sector is a significant contributor to India's agricultural GDP, accounting for approximately 30% of the total agricultural output.
  • India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables globally, with major crops including bananas, mangoes, guavas, and onions.
  • The sector has immense potential for value addition through food processing, packaging, and export.
  • Horticultural crops are known for their high profitability compared to traditional crops like rice and wheat.
  • Objectives of 'One Product One District' Scheme:
  • To boost exports by promoting the unique horticultural products of each district in both domestic and international markets.
  • To enhance the infrastructure for storage, processing, and transportation of horticultural produce.
  • To create a cluster-based approach for improving the supply chain and ensuring better price realization for farmers.
  • Other Key Schemes Supporting Horticulture:
  • Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH): Promotes the holistic development of the horticulture sector through research, technology, and financial support.
  • Operation Greens: Focuses on reducing price volatility for tomatoes, onions, and potatoes (TOP) by encouraging value chain development.
  • Agriculture Export Policy (2018): Aims to double agricultural exports to USD 60 billion by 2022, with a focus on horticultural produce.
  • Key Features of the Union Budget 2020-21 for Agriculture:
  • The budget allocated ₹2.83 lakh crore for agriculture, rural development, and allied sectors.
  • Emphasis was laid on promoting organic farming and improving agricultural infrastructure.
  • Introduction of schemes like the Kisan Rail and Krishi Udaan to facilitate the faster movement of perishables, including horticultural produce.
27

Raavi Kondala Rao, who passed away in July 2020, was known for his contributions to _______________ cinema.

  1. ((a))

    Kannada

  2. ((b))

    Tamil

  3. ((c))

    Marathi

  4. ((d))

    Telugu

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Telugu

The correct answer is Telugu cinema.

Key Points

  • Raavi Kondala Rao, who passed away in July 2020, was a renowned personality in the Telugu cinema industry. He was known for his exceptional contributions as an actor, writer, and filmmaker.
  • He worked extensively in Telugu cinema and was admired for his unique ability to blend comedy and emotion in his roles.
  • Raavi Kondala Rao made a significant mark in the film industry, participating in over 600 Telugu films across various genres and roles.
  • In addition to acting, he was a distinguished writer who contributed to several films and was celebrated for his storytelling skills.
  • His involvement in the Telugu film industry earned him immense respect and recognition, establishing him as a legendary figure in the realm of regional cinema.

Additional Information

  • Telugu cinema:
  • Telugu cinema, also known as Tollywood, is one of the largest regional film industries in India, producing films primarily in the Telugu language.
  • It is based in Hyderabad, Telangana, and is famous for its rich storytelling, vibrant visuals, and high production values.
  • Telugu cinema has produced numerous iconic actors and directors, including N.T. Rama Rao, Chiranjeevi, S.S. Rajamouli, and Prabhas.
  • Films like Baahubali and RRR brought international acclaim to Telugu cinema, showcasing its potential on a global scale.
  • Raavi Kondala Rao’s Career Highlights:
  • Raavi Kondala Rao was not only an actor but also an influential screenwriter and playwright.
  • He authored several plays and books that reflected his deep understanding of human emotions and social issues.
  • He had a long-standing association with the Telugu film industry, where he delivered performances in both comedic and serious roles.
  • Contribution to Telugu Cinema:
  • Telugu cinema is known for its pioneering techniques and creative storytelling, and personalities like Raavi Kondala Rao have been instrumental in shaping its legacy.
  • He was recognized for his impactful acting, which resonated with audiences across generations.
  • Other Regional Cinemas:
  • Kannada Cinema: Based in Karnataka, it is known for films like K.G.F and Lucia.
  • Tamil Cinema: Based in Tamil Nadu, Tamil cinema has produced globally renowned films like Enthiran and Dasavatharam.
  • Marathi Cinema: Based in Maharashtra, Marathi cinema is famous for its realistic storytelling in films like Sairat and Natsamrat.

Important Points

  • Raavi Kondala Rao’s Legacy:
  • He was known for his versatility in acting, adapting to diverse roles and genres.
  • His contributions to Telugu cinema extend beyond acting, as he enriched the industry with his writing and creative inputs.
  • Telugu Cinema’s Impact:
  • Telugu cinema has a significant cultural impact, often blending historical, social, and mythological themes in its films.
  • It is one of the most commercially successful regional film industries in India.
28

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India defines 'State' in the context of Fundamental Rights?

  1. ((a))

    Article 22

  2. ((b))

    Article 12

  3. ((c))

    Article 16

  4. ((d))

    Article 18

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 12

The correct answer is Article 12.

Key Points

  • Article 12 of the Constitution of India defines the term "State" in the context of Fundamental Rights. It includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
  • According to Article 12, the term "State" refers to any agency or instrumentality of the government, including statutory authorities, local bodies, and corporations.
  • The inclusion of the term "State" under Article 12 ensures that fundamental rights can be enforced against state actions. Private individuals or bodies are generally excluded unless they perform public functions.
  • The primary purpose of defining "State" under Article 12 is to ensure that the government and its agencies remain accountable for any violation of fundamental rights.
  • Other articles like Article 22, Article 16, and Article 18 refer to specific rights and provisions, but they do not define the term "State." Hence, the correct answer is Article 12.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights and Article 12:
  • Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India and are enforceable against the "State" as defined under Article 12.
  • These rights guarantee civil liberties to all citizens and ensure protection against government actions that violate these rights.
  • Examples include the Right to Equality (Article 14), Right to Freedom (Article 19), and Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21).
  • Scope of "State" under Article 12:
  • The term "State" includes Central and State Governments, Parliament, State Legislatures, and authorities such as municipal corporations and panchayats.
  • It also covers public sector undertakings and organizations controlled or funded by the government.
  • The judiciary is included under "State" when acting in its administrative capacity but excluded when performing judicial functions.
  • Relevant Articles:
  • Article 22: Provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention, but does not define "State."
  • Article 16: Deals with equality in employment in public services, focusing on specific rights rather than defining "State."
  • Article 18: Abolishes titles, aiming to promote equality rather than defining "State."
  • Judicial Interpretation:
  • The judiciary has expanded the scope of "State" through landmark cases like Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib, where institutions funded and controlled by the government were deemed "State."
  • In R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority, the court held that private bodies performing public functions fall under "State."
  • Important Points:
  • Article 12 is pivotal in ensuring that fundamental rights apply to government actions and agencies.
  • It provides a mechanism to hold authorities accountable for violations of constitutional rights.
  • Understanding the scope of "State" is essential for interpreting rights and judicial remedies under Part III of the Constitution.
29

P. Harikrishna represents India in international competitions in which of the following sports?

  1. ((a))

    Swimming

  2. ((b))

    Shooting

  3. ((c))

    Chess

  4. ((d))

    Archery

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chess

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

  • P. Harikrishna is an acclaimed Indian chess player who has represented India in various international chess tournaments.
  • He became the youngest Grandmaster from India in 2001, earning him widespread recognition in the chess community.
  • Harikrishna has participated in prestigious tournaments such as the Chess Olympiad, World Chess Championship, and other global chess events, showcasing his exceptional skills.
  • In 2016, he achieved his career-high ranking of World No. 10 in the FIDE rankings, highlighting his remarkable talent.
  • His contributions to chess have significantly elevated India's status in the international chess arena, making him a prominent figure in the sport.

Additional Information

  • Chess as a Sport:
  • Chess is a board game of strategic thinking and planning, played between two individuals.
  • It is governed by the World Chess Federation (FIDE), which oversees international tournaments, rankings, and rules.
  • The game is played on an 8x8 square board, with each player controlling 16 pieces, including pawns, knights, bishops, rooks, queens, and kings.
  • Chess is recognized globally as a sport, and players compete in various formats such as classical, rapid, blitz, and online chess.
  • India has produced several distinguished chess players, including Viswanathan Anand, who is a former World Chess Champion.
  • Achievements of P. Harikrishna:
  • He was awarded the title of Grandmaster in 2001, becoming one of the youngest in India to achieve this milestone.
  • Harikrishna has represented India in numerous Chess Olympiads, securing medals for the country.
  • He has won the Asian Individual Chess Championship and other international tournaments.
  • His consistent performance has helped him reach the World Top 10 in FIDE rankings, a remarkable feat for an Indian player.
  • Other Prominent Indian Chess Players:
  • Viswanathan Anand: Former World Chess Champion and the first Indian to win the title.
  • Koneru Humpy: Renowned for her achievements in women’s chess and a former World Rapid Chess Champion.
  • R. Praggnanandhaa: A young chess prodigy who has defeated several top-ranked players in international tournaments.
  • Impact of Chess in India:
  • Chess has grown immensely in popularity in India due to the influence of players like Viswanathan Anand and P. Harikrishna.
  • India hosts several international chess events, including the Chess Olympiad and Grandmaster tournaments.
  • The All India Chess Federation (AICF) plays a pivotal role in promoting chess and nurturing talent across the country.

Important Points

  • Viswanathan Anand is regarded as the pioneer of modern chess in India and has inspired many young chess players, including P. Harikrishna.
  • Chess is not only a sport but also a tool for cognitive development, promoting skills like critical thinking, strategy, and decision-making.
  • India's success in chess is attributed to investments in chess infrastructure, coaching, and international exposure for its players.
30

Which of the following rebellions has been described by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel 'Anandamath'?

  1. ((a))

    Santhal rebellion

  2. ((b))

    Kol rebellion

  3. ((c))

    Ramosi rebellion

  4. ((d))

    Sanyasi rebellion

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sanyasi rebellion

The correct answer is Sanyasi rebellion.

Key Points

  • Bankim Chandra Chatterjee depicted the Sanyasi rebellion in his novel Anandamath, which is considered one of his most influential works.
  • The Sanyasi rebellion occurred during the late 18th century in Bengal and Bihar. It was led by Hindu ascetics (Sanyasis) and Muslim fakirs against the oppressive policies of the British East India Company.
  • The rebellion was fueled by grievances such as economic exploitation, harsh revenue collection policies, and the denial of religious rights to ascetics.
  • The novel Anandamath, set during this rebellion, introduced the nationalist hymn "Vande Mataram", which later became the rallying cry for India's freedom movement.
  • The book portrays the Sanyasis as patriotic warriors striving to liberate their motherland from foreign rule, blending religious and nationalist fervor.

Additional Information

  • Santhal Rebellion:
  • The Santhal rebellion was led by the Santhal tribal community against British colonial rule and zamindari oppression in 1855-56.
  • It was primarily concentrated in the regions of present-day Jharkhand, Bihar, and West Bengal.
  • The rebellion was spearheaded by Sido and Kanhu Murmu, tribal leaders, who sought to protect their lands and rights.
  • Kol Rebellion:
  • The Kol rebellion was an uprising by the Kol tribal community against British policies and exploitation in 1831-32.
  • It occurred in parts of Chotanagpur plateau, covering areas of Jharkhand.
  • The Kols revolted against the oppressive land revenue policies and exploitation by landlords and moneylenders.
  • Ramosi Rebellion:
  • The Ramosi rebellion was led by the Ramosi tribe in the Deccan region against British rule in the early 19th century.
  • The Ramosis, known for their guerrilla warfare tactics, opposed British policies that disrupted their traditional way of life.
  • The rebellion was led by prominent leaders such as Chittur Singh, who organized resistance against British forces.
  • Important Points on Sanyasi Rebellion:
  • The Sanyasi rebellion is significant in India's history for highlighting the early resistance against British colonial rule.
  • It inspired literary works like Anandamath, showcasing the blend of nationalism and religious fervor.
  • The hymn "Vande Mataram", introduced in the novel, became a symbol of India's independence movement.
31

Jair Bolsonaro, who was the chief guest at the Republic Day parade in 2020, is the President of which of the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    Brazil

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    Argentina

  4. ((d))

    South Africa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Brazil

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

  • Jair Bolsonaro, the President of Brazil, was the chief guest at the Republic Day parade held in India on 26 January 2020.
  • This visit marked a significant diplomatic engagement between India and Brazil, strengthening bilateral ties between the two nations.
  • Brazil is the largest country in South America and is known for its cultural diversity, rich natural resources, and vibrant economy.
  • Jair Bolsonaro became the President of Brazil in 2019 after winning the elections. His policies often focus on economic reform and development.
  • The invitation of Bolsonaro as the chief guest highlighted India's growing focus on fostering relationships with countries in the Southern Hemisphere.

Additional Information

  • Brazil:
  • Location: Brazil is located in South America and is the 5th largest country in the world by area.
  • Capital: The capital of Brazil is Brasília, and the largest city is São Paulo.
  • Economy: Brazil has a mixed economy with agriculture, mining, manufacturing, and services being major contributors. It is one of the world's leading producers of coffee, soybeans, and iron ore.
  • Culture: Brazil is known for its cultural diversity and celebrations such as the Rio Carnival. The official language is Portuguese.
  • Natural Resources: Brazil boasts the Amazon rainforest, the largest tropical rainforest in the world, contributing to its biodiversity and ecological significance.
  • Republic Day in India:
  • Republic Day is celebrated on 26 January every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India in 1950.
  • India invites a foreign dignitary as the chief guest to the Republic Day parade to emphasize international diplomacy and showcase India's cultural heritage.
  • Other Countries in the Options:
  • Australia: Located in Oceania, known for its biodiversity and iconic landmarks like the Sydney Opera House. Its capital is Canberra.
  • Argentina: A South American country famous for its Tango dance and beef production. Its capital is Buenos Aires.
  • South Africa: Located at the southern tip of Africa, known for its wildlife and cultural diversity. Its capitals include Pretoria, Bloemfontein, and Cape Town.
  • India-Brazil Relations:
  • Brazil is part of multilateral forums such as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) where India and Brazil collaborate on issues like trade and development.
  • The two nations cooperate in areas like agriculture, defense, space technology, and climate change.
32

'Daskathiya', a form of ballad singing, is prevalent in which of the following:

  1. ((a))

    Ladakh

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • Daskathiya is a traditional and unique form of ballad singing that is predominantly practiced in the state of Odisha, India.
  • This art form is performed as a duet, with one person as the Gayaka (singer) and the other as the Palia (assistant or co-singer), narrating stories, often based on religious or mythological themes.
  • It is a highly theatrical and musical performance that combines storytelling, singing, and acting, with the use of traditional musical instruments, notably the daskathia, a pair of wooden clappers.
  • The stories told in Daskathiya are often drawn from epics like the Mahabharata, Ramayana, and tales of Lord Jagannath, emphasizing moral and spiritual teachings.
  • This art form is not only a means of entertainment but also serves as a medium for spreading social messages and moral values, making it an integral part of Odisha's rich cultural heritage.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Daskathiya:
  • The performers use a pair of wooden clappers known as "Kathia" to maintain rhythm and add a dramatic effect to their performance.
  • The Gayaka leads the narration and singing, while the Palia provides support, often engaging in humorous or thought-provoking dialogues.
  • The performance is usually held in villages during festivals, religious gatherings, or special occasions, making it accessible to the rural masses.
  • Other Traditional Folk Art Forms in Odisha:
  • Pala: A musical storytelling tradition that combines songs, dialogues, and devotional narratives.
  • Gotipua Dance: A precursor to the classical Odissi dance, performed by young boys dressed as girls.
  • Jatra: A traditional form of theatre that combines music, dance, and drama.
  • Chhau Dance: A semi-classical dance form that incorporates elements of martial arts, storytelling, and traditional music.
  • Importance of Folk Art Forms:
  • Folk art forms like Daskathiya preserve and promote regional culture and traditions.
  • They play a vital role in passing down historical narratives and moral values to future generations.
  • These performances foster a sense of community and cultural identity, bringing people together during festivals and ceremonies.
  • Other State-Specific Traditional Arts:
  • Ladakh: Known for its Cham Dance, a vibrant mask dance performed in monasteries during Buddhist festivals.
  • Assam: Famous for Bihu Dance, a folk dance celebrating the Assamese New Year and harvest season.
  • Gujarat: Recognized for Garba and Dandiya Raas, traditional dances performed during Navratri.
33

At which of the following places in Rajasthan, the famous Beneshwar fair is organised?

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur

  2. ((b))

    Dungarpur

  3. ((c))

    Mount Abu

  4. ((d))

    Alwar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dungarpur

The correct answer is Dungarpur.

Key Points

  • Beneshwar Fair is one of the most prominent tribal fairs in Rajasthan, held annually in the Dungarpur district, near the confluence of the rivers Som, Mahi, and Jakham.
  • The fair is organized at the Beneshwar Dham, a sacred site with a Shiva Linga placed on a hillock.
  • The fair is celebrated during Magha Shukla Ekadashi, which typically falls in the months of January or February, according to the Hindu calendar.
  • This event is a cultural and spiritual gathering, primarily attracting the Bhils, a significant tribal community from Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • The fair features a mix of religious rituals, folk dances, music performances, and tribal art exhibits, alongside local trade of goods like handicrafts, agricultural tools, and tribal jewelry.

Additional Information

  • Location:
  • Dungarpur is a tribal-dominated district in the southern part of Rajasthan, sharing its border with Gujarat.
  • The fair is organized at the Beneshwar Dham, situated 45 km from Dungarpur town.
  • Religious Significance:
  • The fair is named after the Beneshwar Mahadev Temple, which houses the sacred Shiva Linga.
  • During the fair, devotees take holy dips in the river confluence, believing it to cleanse sins and bring spiritual merit.
  • Tribal Participation:
  • The fair is a major cultural event for the Bhils, a tribal community known for their vibrant traditions and customs.
  • Tribal people from Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh participate in large numbers, showcasing their cultural heritage through dance, music, and traditional attire.
  • Events and Activities:
  • Religious rituals like aarti, offerings to Lord Shiva, and recitation of sacred texts are performed.
  • Various cultural performances, including folk dances and music, highlight the tribal traditions.
  • The fair also serves as a marketplace for tribal artifacts, agricultural tools, and local handicrafts.
  • Other Important Fairs in Rajasthan:
  • Pushkar Fair: A famous camel and livestock fair held in Pushkar, Ajmer district.
  • Desert Festival: Celebrated in Jaisalmer, showcasing Rajasthani folk culture.
  • Kite Festival: Held in Jaipur to mark Makar Sankranti.
  • Gangaur Fair: Celebrated across Rajasthan, particularly in Jaipur and Udaipur, in honor of Goddess Gauri.
34

In which of the following states is the monument named 'Biwi ka Maqbara', the burial place of Aurangzeb's wife 'Rabia-ud-Durrani' located?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Biwi ka Maqbara is located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra, India. It is one of the prominent historical monuments in the state.
  • This structure was built by Prince Azam Shah in 1660 in memory of his mother, Rabia-ud-Durrani, who was the wife of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb.
  • The mausoleum is often referred to as the "Taj of the Deccan" due to its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal in Agra. However, it is smaller in scale and less intricate in design.
  • The monument is a fine example of Mughal architecture and is made of marble and basalt. The central dome and garden layout are inspired by the Taj Mahal.
  • It is managed by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and is a popular tourist destination in Maharashtra.

Additional Information

  • Historical Significance of Biwi ka Maqbara:
  • The monument was commissioned by Azam Shah, the son of Aurangzeb, in memory of his mother. It reflects the Mughal tradition of constructing grand mausoleums for their loved ones.
  • It was constructed during the Mughal period, showcasing the architectural brilliance and cultural heritage of that era.
  • The construction materials were sourced locally, and the artisans were skilled workers from the Mughal empire.
  • Key Features of Biwi ka Maqbara:
  • The central dome of the mausoleum is surrounded by four minarets at each corner, similar to the Taj Mahal.
  • The structure is adorned with intricate carvings, marble inlays, and decorative elements, though it is less elaborate compared to the Taj Mahal.
  • The complex includes a beautiful garden in the Charbagh style, a hallmark of Mughal architecture.
  • Comparison with the Taj Mahal:
  • While the Taj Mahal is made entirely of white marble, the Biwi ka Maqbara uses a combination of marble and basalt, making it less expensive.
  • The scale and intricacy of decoration in Biwi ka Maqbara are less grand compared to the Taj Mahal, but its design remains a significant architectural achievement.
  • Maharashtra - A Hub of Historical Monuments:
  • Maharashtra is home to several iconic historical sites, such as the Ajanta and Ellora Caves, which are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
  • It also houses the Daulatabad Fort and Shaniwar Wada, reflecting its rich historical and cultural legacy.
  • The state continues to attract history enthusiasts and tourists from around the world.
  • Important Points:
  • The monument is a symbol of love and remembrance, akin to the Taj Mahal, and stands as a cultural treasure of the Deccan region.
  • Biwi ka Maqbara is a testimony to the architectural ingenuity of the Mughal era, despite being constructed with limited resources compared to the Taj Mahal.
35

'Dhruvastra', which was successfully test fired in July 2020, is a __________ developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

  1. ((a))

    pistol

  2. ((b))

    missile

  3. ((c))

    air defence system

  4. ((d))

    bullet-proof jacket

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

missile

The correct answer is missile.

Key Points

  • Dhruvastra is an advanced anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.
  • The missile is a fire-and-forget class of ATGM designed to destroy heavily armored vehicles and tanks.
  • It has been developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) of DRDO.
  • The Dhruvastra missile is equipped with advanced technologies such as imaging infrared seekers for precision targeting.
  • It was successfully test-fired in July 2020, showcasing its capabilities in both direct-attack and top-attack modes, making it a versatile weapon for battlefield scenarios.

Additional Information

  • About the Dhruvastra Missile:
  • The missile was previously known as the Helina, a helicopter-launched version of the NAG missile, and later renamed Dhruvastra.
  • It is designed to be launched from rotary-wing aircraft, such as the HAL Rudra and the HAL Light Combat Helicopter (LCH).
  • Dhruvastra features a range of up to 7 kilometers, enabling it to engage targets from a safe distance.
  • The missile can operate in all-weather conditions and provides high accuracy due to its advanced guidance system.
  • Development by DRDO:
  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is India's premier agency for military research and development.
  • It has been instrumental in developing indigenous defense technologies, including missiles, radars, and other weapons systems.
  • Other famous missiles developed by DRDO include Agni, Prithvi, Akash, and BrahMos.
  • Characteristics of Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGMs):
  • ATGMs are primarily designed to destroy tanks, armored vehicles, and fortified structures.
  • They are guided missiles, which can be launched from portable, vehicle-mounted, or airborne platforms.
  • Modern ATGMs, like Dhruvastra, incorporate fire-and-forget technology, reducing the risk to the operator.
  • Other Notable Indian Missile Systems:
  • NAG: A third-generation ATGM developed by DRDO for ground-based platforms.
  • Akash: A medium-range surface-to-air missile.
  • BrahMos: A supersonic cruise missile developed in collaboration with Russia.
36

In the Union Budget 2020-21, the 'Vivad se Vishwas' scheme was specified for redressal of complaints related to which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Direct Taxes

  2. ((b))

    Restructuring of loans in the formal sector

  3. ((c))

    Goods and Services Tax

  4. ((d))

    Central Excise

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Direct Taxes

The correct answer is Direct Taxes.

Key Points

  • The Vivad se Vishwas Scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2020-21 by the Government of India to resolve disputes related to Direct Taxes.
  • The scheme was aimed at reducing litigation and providing an opportunity for taxpayers to settle their tax disputes without paying any penalty or interest.
  • Taxpayers opting for the scheme were required to pay only the disputed tax amount, and all pending cases in Income Tax Appellate Tribunals, High Courts, and the Supreme Court would be treated as resolved.
  • The scheme was applicable for appeals, writs, special leave petitions, and arbitration cases related to direct taxes that were pending as of 31 January 2020.
  • It provided relief to taxpayers and helped in unclogging judicial forums burdened with tax-related litigation. This initiative was part of the broader reforms to improve tax compliance and dispute resolution.

Additional Information

  • Direct Taxes:
  • Direct taxes are taxes that are directly levied on individuals and organizations, such as Income Tax, Corporate Tax, Wealth Tax, and Capital Gains Tax.
  • They are administered by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), which functions under the Ministry of Finance in India.
  • Examples include taxes on salaries, business profits, and income earned from investments.
  • Direct taxes are considered progressive as they are based on the income level of taxpayers, ensuring that higher earners pay more.
  • Goods and Services Tax (GST):
  • GST is an indirect tax implemented on the supply of goods and services. It replaced multiple indirect taxes such as VAT, service tax, and excise duty.
  • It is divided into three categories: CGST (Central GST), SGST (State GST), and IGST (Integrated GST).
  • GST is governed by the GST Council, which ensures uniformity of tax rates across India.
  • Restructuring of Loans:
  • This involves modifying the terms of an existing loan agreement, often to help borrowers who face financial difficulties and are unable to meet their repayment obligations.
  • Restructuring may include changes to interest rates, repayment schedules, or loan tenure.
  • Central Excise:
  • Central excise is an indirect tax levied on the production or manufacture of goods within India.
  • This tax was subsumed under GST, but it is still applicable to certain products like tobacco and petroleum.
  • Important Points:
  • The Vivad se Vishwas Scheme was a one-time measure introduced to reduce tax disputes and provide a platform for taxpayers to resolve their issues.
  • The scheme aimed to enhance tax compliance and foster trust between the government and taxpayers.
  • It was designed to expedite tax collection and reduce the workload of courts and tribunals handling tax-related disputes.
37

According to the Union Budget 2020-21, which of the following was the target for agricultural credit for the year 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    ₹10 lakh crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹12 lakh crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹18 lakh crore

  4. ((d))

    ₹15 lakh crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹15 lakh crore

The correct answer is ₹15 lakh crore.

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2020-21, the Government of India set a target of ₹15 lakh crore for agricultural credit. This was aimed at providing financial support to farmers and boosting the agricultural sector.
  • The agricultural credit target was designed to ensure the availability of funds for crop loans, capital investments, and allied agricultural activities.
  • These funds were intended to benefit small and marginal farmers, who form a significant portion of the agricultural workforce in India.
  • This initiative was part of the broader efforts to achieve the goal of doubling farmers' income by 2022, as emphasized by the Government of India.
  • Special attention was given to allied sectors such as animal husbandry, dairy, and fisheries, which contribute significantly to rural livelihoods and agricultural GDP.

Additional Information

  • Agricultural Credit:
  • Agricultural credit refers to loans and financial assistance provided to farmers for crop production, machinery, irrigation systems, and other agricultural activities.
  • The Government of India has been working to expand access to agricultural credit to ensure that farmers have the resources they need to improve productivity and reduce dependency on informal lenders.
  • Key Government Schemes for Agriculture:
  • Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY): Aims to provide crop insurance to protect farmers against crop failures due to natural disasters.
  • PM-KISAN: Provides direct income support of ₹6,000 per year to eligible farmers in three equal installments.
  • Soil Health Card Scheme: Helps farmers monitor the fertility of their soil and use fertilizers accordingly for better yields.
  • Doubling Farmers' Income:
  • The Government of India initiated a mission to double farmers' income by 2022 by focusing on increasing productivity, reducing costs, and diversifying income sources.
  • Strategies include promoting horticulture, animal husbandry, fisheries, and agro-processing industries.
  • Role of NABARD:
  • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) plays a critical role in the distribution of agricultural credit and development of rural infrastructure.
  • NABARD also facilitates refinancing for cooperative banks and regional rural banks.

Important Points

  • Budget Allocation:
  • The Union Budget 2020-21 emphasized the importance of agricultural credit to ensure the financial well-being of farmers.
  • ₹15 lakh crore was allocated as the target for agricultural credit, which reflected the government's commitment to strengthening the agricultural sector.
  • Support for Marginal Farmers:
  • Special provisions were made to ensure that small and marginal farmers, who often face challenges in accessing formal credit, could benefit from this allocation.
  • Institutional credit was prioritized to reduce dependency on informal sources like moneylenders.
38

Under the Interlinking of Rivers Programme, the work of linking the Ken River with the _______ River is under construction.

  1. ((a))

    Betwa

  2. ((b))

    Mahanadi

  3. ((c))

    Chambal

  4. ((d))

    Kali Sindh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Betwa

The correct answer is Betwa.

Key Points

  • The Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) is the first river interlinking project under the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for interlinking of rivers in India.
  • The project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken River in Madhya Pradesh to the Betwa River in Uttar Pradesh.
  • This interlinking initiative is designed to address water scarcity in the Bundelkhand region, which spans both states.
  • The Ken-Betwa Link Project involves the construction of the Daudhan Dam and a 221 km-long canal for water transfer between the rivers.
  • The project will benefit approximately 9 lakh hectares of agricultural land, provide drinking water to over 62 lakh people, and generate 103 MW of hydroelectric power.

Additional Information

  • Ken River:
  • The Ken River is a tributary of the Yamuna River and flows through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The river originates near the Ahirgawan village in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is known for the Panna National Park, which is located along its banks and is a critical tiger reserve.
  • Betwa River:
  • The Betwa River is also a tributary of the Yamuna River.
  • It originates in the Vindhya Range near Hoshangabad in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The river is essential for irrigation, and its basin supports a significant portion of agricultural activities in the region.
  • National Perspective Plan (NPP):
  • The NPP for interlinking of rivers was prepared by the Ministry of Water Resources (now Ministry of Jal Shakti) in 1980.
  • The plan aims to transfer water from surplus basins to deficit basins to address water scarcity, drought, and flood control.
  • Other River Interlinking Projects:
  • The Damanganga-Pinjal Link aims to supply drinking water to Mumbai by linking the Damanganga and Pinjal rivers.
  • The Par-Tapi-Narmada Link intends to transfer water from the surplus Par and Tapi rivers to the deficit regions of Gujarat.

Important Points

  • The Ken-Betwa Link Project is the first interlinking project approved by the government under the National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA).
  • It faces environmental concerns due to potential impacts on the Panna Tiger Reserve, which requires mitigation measures and careful implementation.
  • In December 2021, the Union Cabinet approved ₹44,605 crore for the Ken-Betwa interlinking project, marking a significant step forward in India's water resource management.
39

The Manas River enters India directly from which of the following neighbouring countries?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Bhutan

  3. ((c))

    Myanmar

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhutan

The correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

  • Manas River originates in the Himalayas in Bhutan and flows into India through the state of Assam. It is a significant transboundary river between Bhutan and India.
  • The river serves as the lifeline for the Manas National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, located in Assam. The park is home to diverse flora and fauna, including endangered species.
  • The Manas River basin is crucial for irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and biodiversity conservation in both Bhutan and India.
  • Bhutan contributes substantially to the river's flow as several tributaries, including the Dangme Chhu, join the Manas River within Bhutan's territory.
  • The Manas River is a part of the Brahmaputra river system and eventually merges with the Brahmaputra River in Assam.

Additional Information

  • River Systems in Bhutan:
  • Bhutan is home to several rivers originating in the Himalayas, including the Manas River, Sankosh River, and Amo Chhu. These rivers contribute to the Brahmaputra basin.
  • The rivers in Bhutan are mostly fed by glaciers and monsoonal rainfall, making them perennial.
  • Bhutan utilizes its rivers for hydroelectric power generation, which is a significant contributor to its economy.
  • Manas National Park:
  • Located in Assam, Manas National Park is renowned for its rich biodiversity and serves as the habitat for endangered species like the Golden Langur and Pygmy Hog.
  • The park is also an important area for the conservation of the Indian Tiger and Indian Elephant.
  • The Manas River plays a key role in maintaining the ecological balance of the park.
  • Transboundary Rivers Between India and Bhutan:
  • India and Bhutan share several transboundary rivers, the most significant being the Manas River. These rivers strengthen bilateral relations and aid in water resource management.
  • The countries collaborate on hydropower projects, such as the Tala and Punatsangchhu projects, which utilize the shared river systems.
  • Brahmaputra River System:
  • The Brahmaputra River is one of the major rivers in India, originating in Tibet and flowing through Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and Bangladesh.
  • The Manas River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, contributing significantly to its flow and ecological diversity.

Important Points

  • Geopolitical Significance:
  • The Manas River highlights the importance of India-Bhutan bilateral relations in managing shared water resources.
  • Both countries focus on the sustainable utilization of the river for agriculture, energy production, and conservation efforts.
  • Environmental Challenges:
  • The river faces issues such as siltation, pollution, and deforestation in its basin, affecting biodiversity and water quality.
  • Efforts are underway to enhance river basin management and promote eco-friendly practices in the region.
40

Which of the following states had the third highest vote value of Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) during the 2017 Presidential election of India?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Vote value of Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) is calculated based on the population of the state as per the 1971 Census and the total number of MLAs in the state legislative assembly.
  • Maharashtra had the third highest vote value of MLAs during the 2017 Presidential election due to its large population and significant number of MLAs.
  • Each MLA in Maharashtra had a vote value of 175 during the 2017 Presidential elections, contributing to the state's high aggregate vote value.
  • The states with the highest vote values of MLAs were Uttar Pradesh, followed by Jharkhand, and then Maharashtra.
  • Maharashtra's importance in national elections is attributed to its large representation in both state and national legislatures.

Additional Information

  • Vote Value Calculation for Presidential Elections:
  • The vote value of each MLA is calculated as per the formula: Population of the state (1971 Census) ÷ Total number of elected MLAs × 1000.
  • This formula ensures proportional representation of states based on population while maintaining the equilibrium of state representation.
  • Role of Electoral College:
  • The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories.
  • The election process is detailed under Article 55 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Important States in Presidential Elections:
  • Uttar Pradesh: As the most populous state in India, it has the highest vote value of MLAs.
  • Jharkhand: Known for its significant contribution due to its geographical size and population density.
  • Maharashtra: Stands third in terms of vote value due to its large representation and population.
  • West Bengal: Another state with notable representation due to its population size.
  • Presidential Elections in India:
  • The election process is conducted by the Election Commission of India using a single transferable vote system.
  • The voting is done by means of a secret ballot, ensuring confidentiality and fairness.

Important Points

  • 1971 Census:
  • The population data from the 1971 Census is used for calculations, as specified under the Constitution, to avoid political bias from population changes.
  • Electoral College Voting System:
  • The value of votes ensures proportional representation and balances the influence of larger and smaller states.
  • Significance of Maharashtra:
  • The state's high vote value reflects its importance in India's political structure and decision-making processes.
41

The smallpox vaccine was discovered by who among the following?

  1. ((a))

    Robert Brown

  2. ((b))

    Edward Jenner

  3. ((c))

    Robert Hooke

  4. ((d))

    Louis Pasteur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Edward Jenner

The correct answer is Edward Jenner.

Key Points

  • Edward Jenner, an English physician and scientist, is widely credited with the discovery of the smallpox vaccine in 1796. This was the first successful vaccine ever developed.
  • Jenner observed that individuals who had previously been infected with cowpox, a less severe disease, were immune to smallpox.
  • He conducted an experiment by inoculating a young boy named James Phipps with material taken from a cowpox pustule and later exposed him to smallpox, which he did not contract. This was the basis of the world's first vaccine.
  • The term "vaccine" itself derives from the Latin word "vacca" meaning cow, in honor of Jenner's pioneering work with cowpox.
  • Jenner’s discovery laid the foundation for the field of immunology and significantly contributed to the eventual eradication of smallpox, which was declared eradicated in 1980 by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Additional Information

  • Smallpox:
  • Smallpox was a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus, characterized by fever and a distinctive skin rash.
  • It has been one of the most devastating diseases in human history, claiming millions of lives over centuries.
  • Thanks to global vaccination campaigns, smallpox became the first disease to be eradicated globally in 1980, as declared by the WHO.
  • Other Contributors in Science:
  • Robert Brown: Known for discovering the Brownian motion, the random movement of particles in a fluid.
  • Robert Hooke: Famous for his work in microscopy and coining the term "cell" after observing cork under a microscope.
  • Louis Pasteur: Developed the principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation, and pasteurization. He is known for creating vaccines for rabies and anthrax.
  • Development of Vaccines:
  • Edward Jenner's work inspired others to develop vaccines for various diseases, including polio, measles, and tetanus.
  • Modern vaccines use advanced technologies, such as mRNA vaccines, which were notably utilized during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • Important Points:
  • Vaccination is one of the most effective public health interventions, saving millions of lives annually worldwide.
  • The WHO runs programs to ensure equitable vaccine access, such as the COVAX initiative.
  • The eradication of diseases like smallpox demonstrates the power of scientific discovery and global cooperation in combating infectious diseases.
42

The small intestine is divided into duodenum, jejunum and __________.

  1. ((a))

    Anus

  2. ((b))

    large intestine

  3. ((c))

    Rectum

  4. ((d))

    Ileum

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ileum

The correct answer is Ileum.

Key Points

  • The small intestine is divided into three main parts: duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. These sections are vital for the digestion and absorption of nutrients.
  • The ileum is the last and longest part of the small intestine. It connects the small intestine to the large intestine via the ileocecal valve.
  • The ileum is specialized for the absorption of vitamins, minerals, and nutrients, especially vitamin B12 and bile salts, which are crucial for maintaining metabolic processes.
  • Unlike the jejunum and duodenum, the ileum has a higher density of Peyer’s patches, which are lymphoid tissues that play a role in immune function by monitoring intestinal bacteria.
  • The ileum contains finger-like projections called villi, which enhance the surface area for nutrient absorption. These villi are covered by microvilli, further improving absorption efficiency.

Additional Information

  • Structure and Function of the Small Intestine:
  • The small intestine is approximately 6 meters long and is divided into three parts: duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
  • The duodenum is the first section and is responsible for receiving partially digested food from the stomach and mixing it with bile and digestive enzymes.
  • The jejunum is the middle section and is primarily involved in the absorption of sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids.
  • The ileum, the final section, absorbs nutrients not absorbed by the jejunum, such as vitamin B12 and bile salts.
  • Large Intestine vs Small Intestine:
  • The large intestine is shorter (about 1.5 meters) and primarily absorbs water and salts while forming feces.
  • The small intestine is longer and designed for nutrient absorption, with specialized structures like villi and microvilli.
  • The small intestine connects to the large intestine via the ileocecal valve, ensuring the movement of digested food.
  • Digestive Functions of the Ileum:
  • The ileum absorbs vitamins, fatty acids, and bile salts essential for digestion.
  • It contains specialized lymphoid tissues like Peyer’s patches, which help in immune surveillance.
  • It is involved in recycling bile salts back to the liver, a process known as the enterohepatic circulation.
  • Key Features of the Small Intestine:
  • The small intestine has a large surface area due to the presence of villi and microvilli, facilitating efficient nutrient absorption.
  • It is lined with enzymes that aid in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into absorbable molecules.
  • Its walls are rich in blood vessels, ensuring nutrients are transported into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body.

Important Points

  • Peyer’s patches:
  • These are specialized lymphoid tissues found in the ileum and play a critical role in the immune system.
  • They monitor intestinal bacteria and prevent pathogenic bacteria from entering the bloodstream.
  • Ileocecal Valve:
  • This valve separates the ileum from the large intestine and prevents the backflow of contents into the small intestine.
  • It ensures the proper movement of digested food for further processing in the large intestine.
  • Vitamin B12 Absorption:
  • The ileum absorbs vitamin B12 bound to intrinsic factor, which is essential for red blood cell formation and neurological functions.
43

In July 2020, who among the following was honoured by the Guinness World Records as the 'Fastest Human Computer', having achieved the feat four decades ago?

  1. ((a))

    Rajshree Sahu

  2. ((b))

    Uma Chakraborty

  3. ((c))

    Kusum Kumari

  4. ((d))

    Shakuntala Devi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shakuntala Devi

The correct answer is Shakuntala Devi.

Key Points

  • Shakuntala Devi, an Indian mathematician, was honored by the Guinness World Records in July 2020 as the 'Fastest Human Computer.'
  • She achieved this incredible feat four decades ago, showcasing her ability to solve complex mathematical calculations at lightning speed.
  • Shakuntala Devi gained recognition globally for her unmatched talent in mental calculations, earning her the title of the 'Human Computer.'
  • One of her most remarkable achievements was multiplying two random thirteen-digit numbers, which she solved in 28 seconds during a demonstration at the Imperial College, London in 1980.
  • In addition to her mathematical prowess, Shakuntala Devi was also a writer and astrologer, contributing significantly to various fields.

Additional Information

  • Shakuntala Devi's Early Life:
  • Shakuntala Devi was born on 4th November 1929 in Bangalore, Karnataka, India.
  • Her talent for mental calculations was discovered at a young age when she started demonstrating her skills at public events.
  • Achievements:
  • She demonstrated her mathematical skills in various countries, gaining widespread recognition and earning the title of 'Human Computer.'
  • The Guinness World Records honored her in 1980 for her outstanding ability to perform complex calculations with unparalleled speed.
  • Books Written by Shakuntala Devi:
  • She authored several books, including 'The World of Homosexuals', which was one of the first studies on homosexuality in India.
  • Other notable works include 'Figuring: The Joy of Numbers' and 'Mathability: Awaken the Math Genius in Your Child.'
  • Legacy:
  • Shakuntala Devi passed away on 21st April 2013, leaving behind a legacy of extraordinary mathematical talent.
  • In 2020, a biographical film titled 'Shakuntala Devi' was released, starring Vidya Balan, portraying her inspiring journey.

Important Points

  • Guinness World Records:
  • Shakuntala Devi's record was set for multiplying two thirteen-digit numbers, which remains one of the most iconic achievements in mental mathematics.
  • Her ability to perform calculations faster than a computer earned her global fame and accolades.
  • Mathematical Demonstrations:
  • She conducted mathematical demonstrations at prestigious institutions like the Imperial College London and University of Rome, showcasing her extraordinary skills.
  • Her mental calculation techniques remain a subject of study and inspiration for mathematicians worldwide.
  • Biographical Film:
  • The film 'Shakuntala Devi' highlights her personal and professional life, bringing her inspiring story to the modern audience.
44

What is the process of movement of gases in cells called?

  1. ((a))

    Pseudopodium

  2. ((b))

    Cytolysis

  3. ((c))

    Diffusion

  4. ((d))

    Osmosis

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Diffusion

The correct answer is Diffusion.

Key Points

  • Diffusion is the process by which molecules, including gases, move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration until equilibrium is achieved.
  • This movement occurs due to the random kinetic energy of the molecules and does not require any external energy input.
  • In cells, gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the cell membrane to facilitate processes such as cellular respiration and removal of waste products.
  • Diffusion is a passive process, meaning it does not require energy from the cell. This makes it an efficient way of gas exchange in both plant and animal cells.
  • The rate of diffusion depends on factors such as temperature, concentration gradient, and the permeability of the membrane.

Additional Information

  • Pseudopodium:
  • A pseudopodium is a temporary, arm-like projection of a eukaryotic cell membrane.
  • It is primarily involved in cellular movement or ingestion during processes like phagocytosis.
  • While pseudopodia help in movement and feeding, they are not related to gas exchange.
  • Cytolysis:
  • Cytolysis refers to the bursting or breaking down of a cell when it takes in too much water.
  • This occurs in a hypotonic solution and is not associated with the movement of gases.
  • Osmosis:
  • Osmosis is a type of diffusion but is specific to the movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane.
  • It occurs from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.
  • Osmosis does not involve the movement of gases, making it different from the process in the question.
  • Importance of Diffusion:
  • Diffusion plays a critical role in gas exchange in both animals and plants.
  • In humans, oxygen diffuses into the blood in the lungs, while carbon dioxide diffuses out.
  • In plants, diffusion enables the exchange of gases during photosynthesis and respiration.
  • It is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis and supporting vital metabolic processes.

Important Points

  • Gas exchange in animals:
  • In mammals, gas exchange occurs in the alveoli of the lungs via diffusion.
  • Oxygen from inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide from the blood diffuses out into the air to be exhaled.
  • Gas exchange in plants:
  • Plants exchange gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide through small openings called stomata.
  • Diffusion enables oxygen release and carbon dioxide intake during photosynthesis.
  • Applications of diffusion:
  • Diffusion is used in industries for separating gases, such as in gas purification systems.
  • It is also a principle used in designing artificial membranes and medical devices like oxygen concentrators.
45

The tribal festival called 'Divaso' is traditionally associated with which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Mizoram

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • 'Divaso' is a traditional tribal festival celebrated in the state of Gujarat.
  • The festival is mainly associated with the tribal communities of Gujarat, such as the Bhil, Garasia, and other indigenous groups.
  • The event is celebrated to honor nature and its resources, emphasizing the tribal communities’ close connection with nature and their dependence on it for sustenance.
  • ‘Divaso’ involves several rituals and activities such as folk songs, dances, and traditional ceremonies, which reflect the rich cultural heritage of Gujarat's tribal population.
  • The festival serves as an occasion for tribal communities to come together, strengthen their cultural identity, and pass on traditional knowledge to the younger generations.

Additional Information

  • Gujarat:
  • Gujarat is located in western India and is known for its rich cultural heritage, including festivals, art, and handicrafts.
  • The state has a large tribal population, primarily residing in regions such as the Dang, Narmada, and Tapi districts.
  • Tribal communities in Gujarat include the Bhil, Garasia, Rathwa, and Gamits, each with unique traditions and lifestyles.
  • Tribal Festivals in Gujarat:
  • Apart from ‘Divaso,’ other tribal festivals celebrated in Gujarat include the Bhagoria Haat Festival and Dang Darbar.
  • These festivals are essential for preserving tribal customs and provide a platform to showcase their vibrant art and culture.
  • Features of Tribal Festivals:
  • Tribal festivals often involve nature worship, as the tribes depend heavily on natural resources for their livelihood.
  • Rituals include offerings to deities, traditional music and dance, and community feasts.
  • These festivals are not only cultural events but also serve as platforms for social bonding within the community.
  • Important Points:
  • The preservation of tribal festivals such as 'Divaso' is crucial for maintaining the cultural diversity of India.
  • The Government of Gujarat and cultural organizations often support and promote such festivals to ensure their continuation.
46

According to the Union Budget 2020-21, which of the following was the largest source of finances for the Central Government during the financial year 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    Central Excise

  2. ((b))

    Direct Taxes

  3. ((c))

    Custom duty

  4. ((d))

    Goods and Services Tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Direct Taxes

The correct answer is Direct Taxes.

Key Points

  • Direct Taxes were the largest source of revenue for the Central Government in the Union Budget 2020-21. These include taxes like Income Tax and Corporate Tax, which are paid directly by individuals and corporations to the government.
  • In the financial year 2020-21, direct taxes accounted for approximately 56% of the total tax revenue, highlighting their significance in the government’s revenue collection.
  • Income Tax is levied on individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUF), and other non-corporate entities, while Corporate Tax is levied on the income of companies.
  • Direct taxes are critical for funding government expenditures on infrastructure, welfare schemes, and public services, making them a cornerstone of fiscal policy.
  • Other sources like Central Excise, Custom Duty, and Goods and Services Tax (GST) contribute to the revenue but are classified under indirect taxes, which are collected through intermediary businesses.

Additional Information

  • Direct Taxes:
  • Direct taxes are taxes paid directly to the government by the taxpayer, without any intermediary. Examples include Income Tax and Corporate Tax.
  • They are progressive in nature, meaning the tax rate increases as the taxable amount increases, ensuring equity in tax collection.
  • Direct taxes are a vital tool for reducing income disparities and funding public welfare projects.
  • In the Union Budget 2020-21, direct taxes played a significant role in meeting government expenses, particularly during the pandemic-related economic downturn.
  • Central Excise:
  • This is an indirect tax levied on the manufacturing of goods within the country. It is collected from manufacturers and passed on to consumers.
  • Post-GST implementation, excise duty is mainly applicable to petroleum products and alcohol for human consumption.
  • Custom Duty:
  • Custom duty is an indirect tax imposed on the import and export of goods. It is a significant source of revenue for the government.
  • It helps protect domestic industries by making imported goods more expensive than locally manufactured goods.
  • Goods and Services Tax (GST):
  • GST is an indirect tax implemented in India on 1st July 2017 to subsume multiple indirect taxes like VAT, service tax, and excise duty.
  • It is a multi-stage, destination-based tax applied on every value addition, simplifying the tax structure in the country.
  • In the financial year 2020-21, GST contributed significantly to the government’s revenue, but its share was lower than that of direct taxes.

Important Points

  • Union Budget 2020-21:
  • The budget estimated a total revenue of ₹20.20 lakh crore, with a significant portion derived from taxes.
  • Direct Taxes were the most substantial contributor, emphasizing their importance in government finances.
  • The budget aimed to boost economic growth, improve infrastructure, and enhance welfare measures, especially in light of the economic challenges posed by COVID-19.
  • Tax-to-GDP Ratio:
  • The tax-to-GDP ratio is a critical indicator of a country’s fiscal health. For India, it was around 10.6% in 2020-21.
  • An increase in this ratio indicates improved tax compliance and effective revenue collection mechanisms.
47

Which of the following was not a component of the theme 'Economic Growth for All', as specified in the Union Budget 2020-21?

  1. ((a))

    Sabka Vikas

  2. ((b))

    Sabka Vishwas

  3. ((c))

    Sabka Aawas

  4. ((d))

    Sabka Saath

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sabka Aawas

The correct answer is Sabka Aawas.

Key Points

  • The theme of the Union Budget 2020-21, 'Economic Growth for All', emphasized inclusive development across various sectors of the economy, with a focus on 'Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas.'
  • The budget did not include 'Sabka Aawas' as a component of this theme. The term does not align with the specified objectives or schemes under the Union Budget 2020-21.
  • 'Sabka Vikas' translates to development for all and focuses on inclusive growth by ensuring equitable distribution of resources.
  • 'Sabka Vishwas' refers to fostering trust among all citizens, particularly by improving governance and reducing red tape.
  • 'Sabka Saath' reflects the collaborative efforts of the government, private sector, and citizens to achieve collective growth. It emphasizes partnerships and inclusivity.
  • The absence of 'Sabka Aawas' in the budget theme highlights that the government's focus was broader and not centered on housing schemes specifically in the context of the 2020-21 budget.

Additional Information

  • Union Budget 2020-21:
  • The Union Budget 2020-21 was presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2020.
  • The budget was structured around three themes: Aspirational India, Economic Development for All, and Caring Society.
  • Under the 'Economic Development for All' theme, the government focused on boosting infrastructure, agriculture, and industrial growth.
  • Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas:
  • This slogan was first coined by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to emphasize the need for inclusive development.
  • 'Sabka Saath' implies collective efforts by all stakeholders, including the government, private sector, and the citizens.
  • 'Sabka Vikas' focuses on ensuring equitable development across all regions and communities.
  • 'Sabka Vishwas' underscores the importance of trust-building measures, especially with marginalized and underprivileged groups.
  • Housing Schemes in India:
  • The government has launched several housing initiatives like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) to provide affordable housing for all by 2022.
  • PMAY focuses on urban and rural housing for economically weaker sections, low-income groups, and middle-income groups.
  • The absence of 'Sabka Aawas' in this specific budget theme indicates that the focus was not specifically on housing in the context of 'Economic Growth for All.'

Important Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY):
  • Launched in 2015, PMAY aims to achieve Housing for All by 2022.
  • The scheme has two components: PMAY-Urban and PMAY-Gramin, targeting urban and rural areas, respectively.
  • It provides a subsidy on home loans for economically weaker sections and low-income groups under the Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS).
  • Union Budget Themes:
  • The Union Budget often adopts themes to highlight the government's focus areas. For 2020-21, the theme included Aspirational India, Economic Development, and Caring Society.
  • These themes align with long-term goals such as poverty alleviation, infrastructure development, and social welfare.
48

Dibang Hydroelectric Project is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Mizoram

  3. ((c))

    Sikkim

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Dibang Hydroelectric Project is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, India.
  • This project is developed on the Dibang River, which is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
  • It is considered one of the largest hydropower projects in India, with a planned capacity of 2880 MW.
  • The project aims to generate clean and renewable energy, contributing to India’s energy security and climate change mitigation goals.
  • It is a significant initiative for development in the northeastern region of India, providing employment opportunities and infrastructural growth.

Additional Information

  • Hydroelectric Projects in Arunachal Pradesh:
  • Arunachal Pradesh is a state with immense hydropower potential due to its rich water resources and hilly terrain.
  • Some other major projects in Arunachal Pradesh include Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project and Kameng Hydroelectric Project.
  • The state is known as the “Power House of India” because of its estimated hydropower potential of nearly 50,000 MW.
  • Dibang River:
  • The Dibang River is one of the tributaries of the Brahmaputra River and flows through the northeastern region of India.
  • The river originates in the mountains of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for its rugged and steep terrain.
  • Significance of Hydroelectric Projects:
  • Hydroelectric projects provide a source of renewable energy and help reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
  • They contribute to sustainable development, including reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Such projects also help in flood control, irrigation, and water supply management.
  • Challenges in the Northeastern Region:
  • Despite its potential, the northeastern region faces challenges such as environmental concerns, displacement of local communities, and delays in project execution.
  • Efforts are being made to minimize ecological and social impacts through better planning and implementation.

Important Points

  • Dibang Multipurpose Project:
  • This project is not only a hydroelectric project but also serves as a flood moderation initiative.
  • The reservoir created by the project will have a capacity of 3.75 billion cubic meters, helping in flood control in downstream areas.
  • Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA):
  • Projects like Dibang require comprehensive EIA studies to assess their impact on biodiversity, ecosystems, and local communities.
  • Mitigation measures include afforestation and rehabilitation of displaced populations.
49

Who among the following became the runner-up in the women's singles category in the Australian Open 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Garbine Muguruza

  2. ((b))

    Elise Mertens

  3. ((c))

    Johanna Konta

  4. ((d))

    Maria Sakkari

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Garbine Muguruza

The correct answer is Garbine Muguruza.

Key Points

  • Garbine Muguruza, a professional tennis player from Spain, became the runner-up in the women's singles category of the Australian Open 2020. She lost in the final match to Sofia Kenin.
  • The final match was held on February 1, 2020, at the Rod Laver Arena in Melbourne, Australia.
  • Muguruza played exceptionally well throughout the tournament but was defeated by Sofia Kenin, who won her first Grand Slam title with a score of 4–6, 6–2, 6–2 in the final.
  • Garbine Muguruza has previously won two Grand Slam titles: French Open 2016 and Wimbledon 2017. However, the Australian Open 2020 marked her first appearance in the final of this tournament.
  • Her performance in the Australian Open 2020 was notable as she entered the tournament unseeded, making her run to the final a significant achievement.

Additional Information

  • Sofia Kenin:
  • Sofia Kenin is an American professional tennis player. She won her maiden Grand Slam title at the Australian Open 2020 by defeating Garbine Muguruza in the final.
  • She became the youngest American to win a Grand Slam women's singles title since Serena Williams in 1999.
  • Kenin was seeded 14th in the tournament and displayed remarkable skill and determination throughout the matches.
  • Garbine Muguruza:
  • She is a former world No. 1 and has won two Grand Slam singles titles: French Open 2016 and Wimbledon 2017.
  • Muguruza represents Spain in professional tennis and is known for her aggressive baseline play and powerful groundstrokes.
  • The Australian Open 2020 was her first Grand Slam final appearance since winning Wimbledon in 2017.
  • Australian Open:
  • The Australian Open is one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments, held annually in Melbourne, Australia.
  • It is played on hard courts and is the first Grand Slam event of the year, occurring in January.
  • It features men's and women's singles, doubles, mixed doubles, and junior and wheelchair competitions.
  • Notable Performances in Australian Open 2020:
  • In the women's singles category, Sofia Kenin claimed her first Grand Slam title by defeating Garbine Muguruza.
  • In the men's singles category, Novak Djokovic won his eighth Australian Open title by defeating Dominic Thiem in the final.
  • Other Players Mentioned:
  • Elise Mertens: Belgian tennis player known for her strong baseline game. She did not reach the Australian Open 2020 final.
  • Johanna Konta: British tennis player who has achieved notable success in Grand Slam tournaments but did not advance to the final in the Australian Open 2020.
  • Maria Sakkari: Greek professional tennis player, recognized for her powerful serve and athleticism. She did not make it to the final of the Australian Open 2020.
50

The book titled 'A Better India: A Better World' has been written by who among the following?

  1. ((a))

    N. R. Narayana Murthy

  2. ((b))

    Ratan Tata

  3. ((c))

    Adi Godrej

  4. ((d))

    Nandan Nilekani

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N. R. Narayana Murthy

The correct answer is N. R. Narayana Murthy.

Key Points

  • N. R. Narayana Murthy, the founder of Infosys, authored the book titled 'A Better India: A Better World', which was published in 2009.
  • The book is a collection of his speeches delivered at various forums over the years, addressing challenges and opportunities for India's development.
  • This work reflects Murthy's vision of building a better India by emphasizing economic growth, ethical governance, and societal values.
  • The book focuses on topics such as corporate responsibility, leadership, and the importance of education in shaping India's future.
  • Narayana Murthy is widely regarded as a pioneer of the Indian IT industry and has contributed significantly to the country's technological and corporate landscape.

Additional Information

  • About N. R. Narayana Murthy:
  • Narayana Murthy is a celebrated entrepreneur and the co-founder of Infosys, one of India’s leading IT services companies.
  • Born on 20 August 1946 in Mysore, Karnataka, he is considered a visionary in the field of information technology.
  • He held several positions at Infosys, including CEO, before retiring as the chairman in 2011.
  • Murthy has received numerous accolades, including the prestigious Padma Vibhushan and Padma Shri awards for his contributions to business and society.
  • About the Book:
  • 'A Better India: A Better World' is a thought-provoking book that emphasizes the importance of leadership, societal ethics, and innovation to drive national progress.
  • The book stresses the role of young Indians in addressing social and economic challenges through dedication, integrity, and hard work.
  • It also highlights the significance of industries like IT in transforming India into a global economic powerhouse.
  • Other Authors in the Options:
  • Ratan Tata: Renowned industrialist and philanthropist who led the Tata Group. He has not authored the aforementioned book.
  • Adi Godrej: Chairman of the Godrej Group, known for his contributions to Indian industry but has not authored any widely recognized books.
  • Nandan Nilekani: Co-founder of Infosys and former chairman of the UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India). He authored 'Imagining India', which is unrelated to the title in question.
  • Important Facts:
  • Infosys: Founded in 1981, Infosys is a global leader in IT services and consulting.
  • Corporate Ethics: N. R. Narayana Murthy is known for promoting corporate governance and ethical business practices.
  • Social Responsibility: The book advocates for corporate and individual responsibility in fostering national development.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the option that has the same relation with the third word as the second word has with the first word.

Aizawl : Mizoram : : Dispur : ?

  1. ((a))

    Nagaland

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Assam

The logic followed here is:

Logic: City situated in given state.

First city : First state :: Second city : ?

For, Aizawl : Mizoram

Aizawl is the capital city of Mizoram.

Similarly, Dispur : ?

Dispur is the capital city of Assam.

Thus, Dispur is the capital of Assam.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

52

Select the option figure that is related to Figure III in the same way as Figure II is related to Figure I.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The most fundamental logic is the alternation between a basic figure and a figure formed by reflecting the basic figure (I, II, III, IV).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

53

Choose the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The given pattern will complete the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

54

Select the set whose numbers have the same relationship as the numbers of the following set.

(112, 56, 14)

  1. ((a))

    (224, 112, 28)

  2. ((b))

    (320, 110, 36)

  3. ((c))

    (424, 209, 56)

  4. ((d))

    (540, 256, 62)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(224, 112, 28)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: first ÷ 2 = second, second ÷ 4 = third.

(112, 56, 14)

⇒ From 112 to 56: 112 ÷ 2 = 56

⇒ From 56 to 14: 56 ÷ 4 = 14

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (224, 112, 28)

⇒ 224 ÷ 2 = 112 

⇒ 112 ÷ 4 = 28

Option 2) (320, 110, 36)

⇒ 320 ÷ 2 = 160 (not 110)

Option 3)  (424, 209, 56)

⇒ 424 ÷ 2 = 212 (not 209)

Option 4) (540, 256, 62)

⇒ 540 ÷ 2 = 270  (not 256)

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1"

55

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure. What will it look like when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic: The unfolded paper will show the cut pattern 4 times.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

56

In a certain code language, WIFE is written as WEFI. Which of the following words would be written as RHCI in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    RICH

  2. ((b))

    RIHC

  3. ((c))

    HRCI

  4. ((d))

    RHIC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RICH

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The code swaps the 2nd and 4th letters.

WIFE is written as WEFI

Similarly, RHCI will be the code for:

Thus, RICH is codded as RHCI in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

57

Select the option figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The logic involves the sequential addition and removal of horizontal and vertical lines inside the main kite-like shape.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

58

Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is not allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that when sequentially placed in the place of the signs will balance the given equation.

12 * 3 * 6 * 8 * 4 * 40

  1. ((a))

    +, x, ÷, -,

  2. ((b))

    ÷, -, +, x

  3. ((c))

    -, +, ÷, x

  4. ((d))

    x, +, +, -, ÷

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

x, +, +, -, ÷

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 * 3 * 6 * 8 * 4 * 40 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 11 × 4 - 8 ÷ 2 + 1 = ?

⇒ 11 × 4 - 4 + 1 = ?

⇒ 44 - 4 + 1 = ?

⇒ 45 - 4 = 41.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

60

Choose the option of classes that is best represented by the given Venn diagram.

  1. ((a))

    Women, Mothers, Daughters

  2. ((b))

    Man, Husband, Son

  3. ((c))

    Asia, India, Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Daffodil, Flower, Sunflower

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Daffodil, Flower, Sunflower

The logic followed here is:

Women, Mothers, Daughters:

Mothers & Daughters are subsets of Women.

Some Mothers are Daughters.

Man, Husband, Son:

Husband and Son are distinct roles of a Man.

While an individual man may be both a husband and a son, the classes of roles themselves are separate and both are subsets of Man.

Asia, India, Delhi:

Delhi is inside India, and India is inside Asia. This requires three concentric circles.

Daffodil, Flower, Sunflower:

Daffodil and Sunflower are absolutely distinct types of Flower.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

61

If the mirror is placed on the right side of the given figure, then select the correct image formed in the mirror.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Logic: Mirror image is the inversion of original image.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

62

Select the option figure that is related to figure C in the same way as figure B is related to figure A.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The logic in the pattern involves the sequential transformation of the main shape and the addition/change of internal elements.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

63

Which of the following box(es) will be formed when the given sheet of paper is folded?

  1. ((a))

    Only II and III

  2. ((b))

    Only I, II and IV

  3. ((c))

    Only III and IV

  4. ((d))

    Only I and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only I, II and IV

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

The faces in the main straight line are: Shaded (Top), Circle, Plain, Shaded (Middle Bottom).

The side faces are Plain (Bottom) and Plain (Bottommost).

Thus, The boxes that can be formed when the given sheet of paper is folded are Only I and IV.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

64

Choose the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The given pattern will complete the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

65

Select the option that has the same relation to the third number as the second number has to the first number.

12 : 155: :15 :?

  1. ((a))

    198

  2. ((b))

    245

  3. ((c))

    239

  4. ((d))

    184

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

239

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Number = n² + (n − 1)

For, 12 : 155

12² = 144

12 − 1 = 11

144 + 11 = 155

Similarly, 15 :?

15² = 225

15 − 1 = 14

225 + 14 = 239

Thus, 239 is related to 15.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

66

By selling an item, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 50%. If he doubles the selling price, what percent profit will he make?

  1. ((a))

    200%

  2. ((b))

    75%

  3. ((c))

    100%

  4. ((d))

    150%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200%

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Profit %= Profit​ / Cost Price ×100

Let the cost price (CP) = 100.

Profit = 50%, so selling price (SP) = 150.

If he doubles the selling price, new SP = 150 × 2 = 300.

Profit = 300 − 100 = 200.

Profit % = (200 ÷ 100) × 100 = 200%

Thus, He will make a profit of 200%.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

67

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following number series?

33, 70, 144, 292, ?

  1. ((a))

    414 

  2. ((b))

    588 

  3. ((c))

    712 

  4. ((d))

    690

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

588 

The logic followed here is:

thus, "588" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

68

Select the box that will most resemble the box formed when the given sheet of paper is folded.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

O and X must be on adjacent faces (they share an edge).

They cannot be opposite, and they won’t be on the same face.

They will appear on two neighboring sides of the cube.

Option 1) 

Only X is visible → O is missing

Option 2) 

X and O are on adjacent faces

Option 3)

X and O are not positioned correctly (not sharing the right edge)

Option 4) 

X and O appear separated (not adjacent) 

Thus, Cube 2

 will be formed.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

69

Select the option figure that is not embedded in the given figure (rotation is not allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The given pattern will complete the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

70

Choose the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Passenger, Airplane, Taxi

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

A Passenger is a person.

An Airplane is a mode of transportation.

A Taxi is another mode of transportation (a vehicle).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

71

Four of the following five figures are alike in some way while one is different. Select the odd figure.

  1. ((a))

    III

  2. ((b))

    IV

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

II

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Figure II is the odd one out as it is structurally simpler and does not have a continuous, alternating pattern of multiple peaks and valleys.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

72

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following number series?

177, 189, 213, 261, 357, ?

  1. ((a))

    549

  2. ((b))

    396

  3. ((c))

    434

  4. ((d))

    384

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

549

The logic followed here is:

thus, "549" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

73

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Choose the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    circle

  2. ((b))

    triangle

  3. ((c))

    rectangle

  4. ((d))

    semicircle

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

semicircle

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Classification based on edges and curves in a shape.

A semicircle is the only shape with both a straight edge and a curved edge.

The others are either entirely straight-edged (triangle, rectangle) or entirely curved (circle).

Thus, Semi- circle is different from other options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

74

Select the option figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The resulting Figure V shown in the box matches the predicted positions: Black Dot (●) in Top-Left and White Dot (○) in Bottom-Left.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

75

Four of the following five figures are alike in some way while one is different. Select the odd figure.

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IV

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Figure IV is the odd one out because its internal line does not divide the overall shape into two parts of equal area, which is a consistent property of Figures I, II, III, and V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A carpenter designs a round table, but the shopkeeper asks him to reduce its radius by 10%. By what percentage will the table's area be reduced?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    21%

  3. ((c))

    11%

  4. ((d))

    19%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

19%

Given:

Original radius = r

Reduced radius = 0.9r

Formula Used:

Area of a circle = π × r2

Percentage change = (Change ÷ Original) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Original area = π × r2

⇒ New area = π × (0.9r)2

⇒ New area = π × 0.81r2

⇒ Decrease in area = πr2 − 0.81πr2

⇒ Decrease in area = 0.19πr2

⇒ Percentage decrease = (0.19πr2 ÷ πr2) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = 19%

∴ The correct answer is 19%.

77

The average of 10 natural numbers is 32. If the average of the first 6 numbers is 30, and the average of the last 6 numbers is 33, then what is the average of the fifth and sixth numbers?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    31.5

  3. ((c))

    58

  4. ((d))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

29

Given:

Total numbers = 10

Average of 10 numbers = 32

Average of first 6 numbers = 30

Average of last 6 numbers = 33

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Average = Sum ÷ Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of 10 numbers = 32 × 10

⇒ Sum of 10 numbers = 320

⇒ Sum of first 6 numbers = 30 × 6

⇒ Sum of first 6 numbers = 180

⇒ Sum of last 6 numbers = 33 × 6

⇒ Sum of last 6 numbers = 198

⇒ Sum of 5th + 6th numbers = (Sum of first 6) + (Sum of last 6) − (Sum of all 10 numbers)

⇒ Sum of 5th + 6th numbers = 180 + 198 − 320

⇒ Sum of 5th + 6th numbers = 58

⇒ Average of 5th and 6th numbers = 58 ÷ 2

⇒ Average of 5th and 6th numbers = 29

∴ The correct answer is 29.

78

In a Bar Council election, two candidates, A and B, contested for the same position. All votes cast were valid, and each member of the Bar Council had to vote. The ratio between the votes cast for A and B was 3:10. If the unsuccessful candidate received 46,860 votes, how many members were there in the Bar Council?

  1. ((a))

    2,03,060

  2. ((b))

    4,68,600

  3. ((c))

    3,26,200

  4. ((d))

    1,79,256

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2,03,060

Given:

Vote ratio of A : B = 3 : 10

Votes of unsuccessful candidate = 46,860

Formula Used:

Total votes = Sum of ratio parts × Value of one part

Value of one part = Actual votes ÷ Ratio part

Calculation:

⇒ Unsuccessful candidate has fewer votes

⇒ Smaller ratio part = 3

⇒ Value of one part = 46,860 ÷ 3

⇒ Value of one part = 15,620

⇒ Total ratio parts = 3 + 10

⇒ Total ratio parts = 13

⇒ Total members = 13 × 15,620

⇒ Total members = 203,060

∴ The correct answer is 203,060.

79

A cyclist travels a distance of 40 km at a uniform speed. The cyclist wants to cover this distance in 2 hours less than the usual time, so he increases his speed by 10 km/h. At what speed (in km/h) did the cyclist start the journey?

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

Given:

Distance = 40 km

Increase in speed = 10 km/h

Time reduced = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Quadratic equation method

Calculation:

⇒ Usual time = 40 ÷ v

⇒ New time = 40 ÷ (v + 10)

⇒ 40 ÷ (v + 10) = 40 ÷ v − 2

⇒ 40v = 40(v + 10) − 2v(v + 10)

⇒ 40v = 40v + 400 − 2v2 − 20v

⇒ 0 = 400 − 2v2 − 20v

⇒ 2v2 + 20v − 400 = 0

⇒ v2 + 10v − 200 = 0

⇒ v = {−10 ± √(100 + 800)} ÷ 2

⇒ v = {−10 ± √900} ÷ 2

⇒ v = {−10 ± 30} ÷ 2

⇒ v = 10 (taking positive value)

∴ The correct answer is 10 km/h.

80

A student cuts a piece of paper into a rhombus whose sides measure 5 cm and its shorter diagonal measures 6 cm. What is the area (in cm²) of the rhombus?

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24

Given:

Side of rhombus = 5 cm

Shorter diagonal = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Diagonal relation in rhombus: side2 = (d₁ ÷ 2)2 + (d₂ ÷ 2)2

Area of rhombus = (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 2

Calculation:

⇒ Let shorter diagonal = d₁ = 6

⇒ Longer diagonal = d₂

⇒ 52 = (6 ÷ 2)2 + (d₂ ÷ 2)2

⇒ 25 = 32 + (d₂ ÷ 2)2

⇒ 25 = 9 + (d₂ ÷ 2)2

⇒ (d₂ ÷ 2)2 = 16

⇒ d₂ ÷ 2 = 4

⇒ d₂ = 8

⇒ Area = (6 × 8) ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 48 ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

81

A company hires two people, A and B, such that A is three times more efficient than B to complete the same task. A alone was able to complete the task in 52 days less than it took B to complete the same task. In how many days will A and B complete the same task together?

  1. ((a))

    101210\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    191219\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    181218\frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    121212 \frac{1}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

191219\frac{1}{2}

Given:

A is 3 times as efficient as B

A takes 52 days less than B

Formula Used:

Time ∝ 1 ÷ Efficiency

Together time = 1 ÷ (1 ÷ TA + 1 ÷ TB)

Calculation:

⇒ If A is 3 times more efficient than B, then TA = TB ÷ 3

⇒ TB − TA = 52

⇒ TB − TB ÷ 3 = 52

⇒ (2TB ÷ 3) = 52

⇒ TB = 78

⇒ TA = 78 ÷ 3

⇒ TA = 26

⇒ Combined work rate = 1 ÷ 26 + 1 ÷ 78

⇒ Combined work rate = 3 ÷ 78 + 1 ÷ 78

⇒ Combined work rate = 4 ÷ 78

⇒ Combined time = 78 ÷ 4

⇒ Combined time = 191219\frac{1}{2}

∴ The correct answer is 191219\frac{1}{2} days.

82

A bank makes an offer to its customers saying that if they invest ₹x for one year at an interest rate of 8% per annum (when the interest is compounded half-yearly), they will receive ₹20,280 at the end of the year. If the customer wishes to invest the amount of money X for twice the time at an interest rate of 16% per annum, and the interest is compounded annually, what will be the compound interest (in ₹)?

  1. ((a))

    4,000

  2. ((b))

    6,480

  3. ((c))

    2,750

  4. ((d))

    3,260

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6,480

Given:

Amount after 1 year = 20,280

Rate = 8% per annum (compounded half-yearly)

Half-yearly rate = 4%

Number of periods = 2

New rate = 16% per annum

New time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r ÷ 100)n

Compound Interest = Amount − Principal

Calculation:

⇒ 20,280 = x × (1.04)2

⇒ 20,280 = x × 1.0816

⇒ x = 20,280 ÷ 1.0816

⇒ x = 18,750

⇒ New Principal = 18,750

⇒ New Amount = 18,750 × (1.16)2

⇒ (1.16)2 = 1.3456

⇒ New Amount = 18,750 × 1.3456

⇒ New Amount = 25,230

⇒ Compound Interest = 25,230 − 18,750

⇒ Compound Interest = 6,480

∴ The correct answer is 6,480.

83

​Let x and y be two positive numbers such that x > y, and the sum of the squares of x and y is 2426 and the square root of x is 7. What is the square of y?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

Given:

x > y

x2 + y2 = 2426

√x = 7

Formula Used:

x = (√x)2

y2 = Total − x2

Calculation:

⇒ √x = 7

⇒ x = 72

⇒ x = 49

⇒ x2 = 492

⇒ x2 = 2401

⇒ y2 = 2426 − 2401

⇒ y2 = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

84

A room cooler is initially priced at ₹4,500 and is available at a 15% off-season discount. The shopkeeper offers another discount and sells the cooler for ₹3,519. What is the percentage of the second discount?

  1. ((a))

    8%

  2. ((b))

    10.2% 

  3. ((c))

    6%

  4. ((d))

    9%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8%

Given:

Marked price = 4,500

First discount = 15%

Selling price after both discounts = 3,519

Formula Used:

Discounted price = Marked price × (1 − discount ÷ 100)

Second discount% = [(Price before second discount − Final price) ÷ Price before second discount] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Price after first discount = 4,500 × (1 − 15 ÷ 100)

⇒ Price after first discount = 4,500 × 0.85

⇒ Price after first discount = 3,825

⇒ Let second discount% = d

⇒ Final price = 3,825 × (1 − d ÷ 100)

⇒ 3,519 = 3,825 × (1 − d ÷ 100)

⇒ 1 − d ÷ 100 = 3,519 ÷ 3,825

⇒ 1 − d ÷ 100 = 0.92

⇒ d ÷ 100 = 1 − 0.92

⇒ d ÷ 100 = 0.08

⇒ d = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

85

If X=15.75+57 of 423.2534 of (15.83.4)+5×2.39X = \frac{15.75 + \frac{5}{7} \text{ of } 42 - 3.25}{\frac{3}{4} \text{ of } (15.8 - 3.4) + 5 \times 2.39}, then what is the value of X?

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{-1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    0

  4. ((d))

    -1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

Given:

X = (15.75 + (5 ÷ 7) × 42 − 3.25) ÷ ((3 ÷ 4) × (15.8 − 3.4) + 5 × 2.39)

Formula Used:

of = ×

X = Numerator ÷ Denominator

Calculation:

⇒ (5 ÷ 7) × 42 = 30

⇒ Numerator = 15.75 + 30 − 3.25

⇒ Numerator = 45.75 − 3.25

⇒ Numerator = 42.5

⇒ (15.8 − 3.4) = 12.4

⇒ (3 ÷ 4) × 12.4 = 9.3

⇒ 5 × 2.39 = 11.95

⇒ Denominator = 9.3 + 11.95

⇒ Denominator = 21.25

⇒ X = 42.5 ÷ 21.25

⇒ X = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

86

An electronics shopkeeper purchased three fans at ₹400 each. Due to an off-season sale, he sold one fan at a loss of 18\frac{1}{8} of its purchase price. However, he wants to make a profit of 20% on the entire transaction. At what profit percent should he sell the other two fans together?

  1. ((a))

    36.25%

  2. ((b))

    35%

  3. ((c))

    41.5%

  4. ((d))

    39.75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36.25%

Given:

Cost price of each fan = 400

Total fans = 3

Loss on one fan = 1 ÷ 8 of CP

Required overall profit = 20%

Formula Used:

Total CP = Sum of individual CP

Loss = CP × (loss% ÷ 100)

Required SP = Total CP × (1 + profit% ÷ 100)

Profit% on remaining fans = {(SP − CP) ÷ CP} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Total CP = 3 × 400

⇒ Total CP = 1,200

⇒ Loss on first fan = 400 × (1 ÷ 8)

⇒ Loss = 50

⇒ SP of first fan = 400 − 50

⇒ SP₁ = 350

⇒ Required total SP = 1,200 × 1.20

⇒ Required total SP = 1,440

⇒ SP needed from remaining two fans = 1,440 − 350

⇒ SP needed = 1,090

⇒ CP of two fans = 2 × 400

⇒ CP (two fans) = 800

⇒ Profit on two fans = 1,090 − 800

⇒ Profit = 290

⇒ Profit% = (290 ÷ 800) × 100

⇒ Profit% = 36.25%

∴ The correct answer is 36.25%.

87

If wheat is purchased from a special store, the price per kilogram of wheat decreases by 25%. Because of this reduction, a housewife can purchase 10 kg more wheat for ₹1,200. How much wheat (in kg) could she purchase previously?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

Given:

Price decreases by 25%

Extra wheat purchased = 10 kg

Total money = 1,200

Formula Used:

New price = Old price × (1 − 25 ÷ 100)

Wheat bought = Money ÷ Price

Calculation:

⇒ Let old price = p

⇒ New price = 0.75p

⇒ Wheat earlier = 1,200 ÷ p

⇒ Wheat now = 1,200 ÷ (0.75p)

⇒ Wheat now = (1,200 ÷ p) × (1 ÷ 0.75)

⇒ Wheat now = (1,200 ÷ p) × (4 ÷ 3)

⇒ Increase in wheat = 10 kg

⇒ (1,200 ÷ p) × (4 ÷ 3) − (1,200 ÷ p) = 10

⇒ (1,200 ÷ p) × (1 ÷ 3) = 10

⇒ 1,200 ÷ (3p) = 10

⇒ 1,200 = 30p

⇒ p = 40

⇒ Wheat purchased earlier = 1,200 ÷ 40

⇒ Wheat purchased earlier = 30 kg

∴ The correct answer is 30 kg.

88

A student constructs a circle, a square, and a rectangle such that the radius of the circle is equal to the side of the square, and the length of the rectangle is 40% of the radius of the circle. Let's say the width of the rectangle is 20 m and the area of ​​the square is 4,900 m². What is the perimeter (in m) of the rectangle?

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    110

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

96

Given:

Area of square = 4,900 m²

Side of square = radius of circle = r

Width of rectangle = 20 m

Length of rectangle = 40% of r

Formula Used:

Area of square = side²

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (length + width)

Calculation:

⇒ r² = 4,900

⇒ r = √4,900

⇒ r = 70 m

⇒ Length of rectangle = 40% of r

⇒ Length = 0.40 × 70

⇒ Length = 28 m

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (28 + 20)

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × 48

⇒ Perimeter = 96 m

∴ The correct answer is 96 m.

89

x is a three-digit number which when divided by 10, 12, 21, 35 and 40 leaves the same remainder 3. What is the minimum value of x?

  1. ((a))

    423

  2. ((b))

     843

  3. ((c))

    923 

  4. ((d))

    783

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

 843

Given:

x leaves remainder 3 when divided by 10, 12, 21, 35, 40

x = 3 (mod divisors)

Formula Used:

x = LCM of divisors × k + remainder

LCM = product of highest powers of prime factors

Calculation:

⇒ 10 = 2 × 5

⇒ 12 = 2² × 3

⇒ 21 = 3 × 7

⇒ 35 = 5 × 7

⇒ 40 = 2³ × 5

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 8 × 105

⇒ LCM = 840

⇒ x = 840k + 3

⇒ Minimum 3-digit ⇒ k = 1

⇒ x = 840 × 1 + 3

⇒ x = 843

∴ The correct answer is 843.

90

A shopkeeper borrows ₹9,000 from a bank at 7% simple interest for 3 years. He then lends this money to a customer at 5% simple interest for the same period. What is the loss (in ₹) incurred by the shopkeeper?

  1. ((a))

     ₹450 

  2. ((b))

    ₹700

  3. ((c))

    ₹600

  4. ((d))

    ₹540  

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹540  

Given:

Principal borrowed = 9,000

Interest rate paid to bank = 7%

Interest rate charged to customer = 5%

Time = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Loss = Interest paid − Interest received

Calculation:

⇒ Interest paid to bank = (9,000 × 7 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ Interest paid = 1,890

⇒ Interest received from customer = (9,000 × 5 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ Interest received = 1,350

⇒ Loss = 1,890 − 1,350

⇒ Loss = 540

∴ The correct answer is 540.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following is not usually associated with the address field when composing an email message?

  1. ((a))

    From

  2. ((b))

    OCC

  3. ((c))

    CC

  4. ((d))

    Το

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

OCC

The correct answer is Option 2: OCC.

Key Points

  • OCC (Optional Carbon Copy) is not commonly associated with the address field in email composition. While "CC" (Carbon Copy) and "BCC" (Blind Carbon Copy) are standard fields, "OCC" is not a standard email terminology or feature.
  • In email composition, the address field typically includes From, To, CC, and BCC. These fields are used to specify recipients and sender information.
  • The From field indicates the sender's email address, while the To field lists the primary recipients of the email.
  • The CC field is used to send a copy of the email to additional recipients, allowing them to view the email without being the primary target.
  • The BCC field is used to send a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their identities to other recipients. Hence, "OCC" does not belong to the standard address field.

Additional Information

  • Email Address Fields:
  • The From field specifies the sender's email address and is mandatory in every email.
  • The To field lists the primary recipients who are expected to respond or take action based on the content of the email.
  • The CC field, or Carbon Copy, allows the sender to include additional recipients who are informed but not required to respond.
  • The BCC field, or Blind Carbon Copy, ensures that recipients listed in this field are hidden from other recipients.
  • Purpose of Address Fields:
  • The address fields help clearly define who the email is being sent to and the roles of each recipient.
  • They improve communication by segregating primary recipients, secondary recipients, and hidden recipients.
  • Common Mistakes in Email Composition:
  • Using the CC field instead of the To field for primary recipients.
  • Forgetting to use BCC when privacy is required for recipients.
  • Modern Email Systems:
  • Popular email clients like Gmail, Outlook, and Yahoo Mail provide distinct fields for To, CC, and BCC.
  • Advanced features in these systems include suggestions for recipients, automated responses, and email tracking.

Important Points

  • Difference between CC and BCC:
  • CC: Recipients can see who else received the email.
  • BCC: Recipients cannot see other recipients listed in the BCC field.
  • Proper Usage of Address Fields:
  • Use To for direct communication.
  • Use CC for sharing information with secondary recipients.
  • Use BCC for sending emails while maintaining recipient privacy.
92

Which of the following features of MS Excel 2007 is used to quickly format a range of cells and convert it into a table by choosing a pre-defined table style?

  1. ((a))

    Format as table)

  2. ((b))

    Sort & Filter

  3. ((c))

    Format Painter

  4. ((d))

    Conditional formatting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Format as table)

The correct answer is Format as Table.

Key Points

  • Format as Table is a feature in MS Excel 2007 that allows users to quickly format a range of cells into a table by applying a pre-defined table style. This simplifies data visualization and presentation.
  • When the "Format as Table" feature is applied, Excel automatically provides functionalities like filtering, sorting, and banded rows for better readability.
  • It allows users to convert a range of data into a table with specific styles, such as alternating row colors and header formatting, improving the overall look and usability of the data.
  • This feature enables quick access to structured references, making it easier to perform calculations and manage data within the table.
  • The "Format as Table" option can be accessed from the Home Tab under the Styles group in Excel 2007. Users can select from multiple pre-defined styles to meet their formatting needs.

Additional Information

  • Features of Format as Table:
  • It provides pre-defined table styles such as light, medium, and dark themes for user convenience.
  • Automatically adds filter buttons to each column header, enabling users to sort and filter data efficiently.
  • Includes options for banded rows or columns to improve data readability.
  • Allows the table to automatically expand when new rows or columns are added to the data.
  • Provides structured references, which are special formulas that refer to table elements by their names, making formulas easier to read and maintain.
  • Other Formatting Options in Excel 2007:
  • Sort & Filter: Helps users organize and filter data but does not apply formatting to the data.
  • Format Painter: Copies the formatting of one cell and applies it to another but does not provide pre-defined table styles.
  • Conditional Formatting: Highlights data based on specific conditions or rules but does not provide table-specific formatting.
  • Advantages of Tables in Excel:
  • Tables make data management easier by providing built-in sorting and filtering options.
  • They improve the visual appeal of data with consistent formatting.
  • Tables automatically update when new data is added, making them dynamic and user-friendly.
  • Structured references simplify the process of creating formulas and performing calculations within the table.
  • Applications of "Format as Table":
  • Used in creating financial reports or dashboards for better data presentation.
  • Helpful in data analysis by providing quick access to sorting and filtering options.
  • Frequently utilized in academic research and business presentations to create clean, professional-looking tables.
93

Which of the following Internet communication services allows users to talk over the Internet on any PC capable of receiving calls?

  1. ((a))

    Internet Relay Chat

  2. ((b))

    Newsgroups

  3. ((c))

    Internet telephony

  4. ((d))

    Instant Messaging

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Internet telephony

The correct answer is Internet telephony.

Key Points

  • Internet telephony is a type of communication service that allows users to make voice calls over the Internet using a PC, smartphone, or other devices with access to the Internet.
  • It operates by converting voice signals into digital data packets, which are then transmitted over the Internet and reassembled at the receiving end.
  • This service is highly cost-effective compared to traditional telephony as it bypasses the traditional telephone network and uses the Internet for communication.
  • Examples of Internet telephony services include popular applications like Skype, Google Voice, Zoom, WhatsApp, and Microsoft Teams.
  • The technology supports a wide range of features, such as video calls, conference calls, text messaging, and even integration with other digital services, making it versatile for both personal and professional use.

Additional Information

  • Internet Relay Chat (IRC):
  • Internet Relay Chat is a protocol used for text communication over the Internet.
  • It is primarily used for group discussions in chat rooms or for private messaging but does not support voice or video communication.
  • This service is mostly outdated today, replaced by modern messaging platforms.
  • Newsgroups:
  • Newsgroups are online discussion forums or bulletin boards where users share and discuss topics of interest.
  • They operate under the Usenet system and primarily involve text-based content, not voice or video communication.
  • Instant Messaging:
  • Instant Messaging services enable real-time text communication between users over the Internet.
  • Popular examples include WhatsApp, Facebook Messenger, Telegram, and Signal.
  • While some instant messaging platforms support voice and video calls, the term itself traditionally refers to text-based communication.
  • Internet Telephony Features:
  • Internet telephony supports voice and video calls, often at a fraction of the cost of traditional telecommunication methods.
  • It is widely used for both personal and business communication and is particularly beneficial for international calls.
  • Many services also offer additional functionalities like screen sharing, file sharing, and collaboration tools.
  • Technology Behind Internet Telephony:
  • Internet telephony relies on Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), which converts analog voice signals into digital data packets.
  • These packets are transmitted over the Internet and reassembled at the destination into the original voice signals.
  • VoIP services require a stable Internet connection and compatible hardware, such as a microphone, speakers, or a headset.
94

What is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in a table in MS-Word 2007?

  1. ((a))

    32767

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    63

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

63

The correct answer is 63.

Key Points

  • In Microsoft Word 2007, the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in a table is 63. This limit has been set by the software to ensure compatibility and usability of the tables created.
  • Tables in MS Word are used to organize data in rows and columns, and users can customize these tables according to their requirements.
  • The number of rows in a table is not limited by a fixed number but depends on the page size and system memory. However, the maximum column count is capped at 63.
  • This feature is particularly useful in creating structured layouts for documents, such as schedules, invoices, or reports, where data organization is crucial.
  • Attempting to insert more than 63 columns in a table will result in an error message or the system refusing the operation.

Additional Information

  • Features of Tables in MS Word:
  • Customizable Table Design: Users can change the table's appearance by adjusting borders, shading, and colors using the design options available in the ribbon.
  • Cell Formatting: MS Word allows formatting of individual cells, rows, or columns, including font style, size, and alignment.
  • Data Sorting: Tables can be used to sort data in ascending or descending order, making it easier to organize information.
  • Integration with Other Features: Tables can include images, hyperlinks, and even nested tables for complex data representation.
  • Limitations of MS Word Tables:
  • Column Limit: As mentioned, the maximum number of columns in a single table is restricted to 63.
  • Performance Issues: Very large tables can slow down the performance of the document, especially if they contain complex formatting or large amounts of data.
  • Limited Advanced Features: Compared to dedicated spreadsheet tools like MS Excel, Word tables lack advanced data analysis features.
  • Applications of Tables in Documents:
  • Used for creating reports, project plans, data summaries, and financial documents.
  • Highly useful in academic and professional settings for presenting information in a clear and organized manner.
  • Tables are also employed in creating layouts for forms and surveys.
  • Other Table Tools:
  • Split and Merge Cells: Allows users to combine multiple cells into one or split a single cell into multiple cells.
  • Table Alignment: Tables can be aligned to the left, center, or right of the page for better document presentation.
  • Convert Text to Table: MS Word provides an option to convert plain text into a table format and vice versa.
95

Which of the following keys is used to move the pointer to the left, right, up or down in a cell in an MS Excel worksheet?

  1. ((a))

    Alt Key

  2. ((b))

    Esc Key

  3. ((c))

    Arrow Key

  4. ((d))

    Shift Key

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Arrow Key

The correct answer is Arrow Key.

Key Points

  • Arrow keys are used to move the pointer or cursor in different directions (left, right, up, and down) within a cell in an MS Excel worksheet.
  • These keys are essential for navigating between cells without using a mouse or touchpad, enhancing productivity in spreadsheet applications.
  • Arrow keys can also be used for scrolling within a worksheet, especially when combined with the Ctrl key for faster navigation.
  • In Excel, pressing the Arrow keys moves the active cell or selection to adjacent cells, which is useful for data entry, analysis, and formatting tasks.
  • Arrow keys are part of the keyboard's navigation keys, found in the cluster between the alphabet and numeric keypad or as part of the main keyboard layout.

Additional Information

  • Alt Key:
  • The Alt key is primarily used in combination with other keys to execute shortcut commands in software programs, including Excel.
  • For example, pressing Alt + H opens the Home tab in Excel.
  • It is not used for moving the pointer or cursor within cells but can activate specific menu options or ribbon commands.
  • Esc Key:
  • The Esc key is used to cancel ongoing operations or close menus/dialog boxes in Excel.
  • It does not move the pointer or cursor between cells.
  • For instance, pressing Esc cancels a cell edit or exits from full-screen mode.
  • Arrow Key:
  • The Arrow keys are used for navigation within worksheets, moving the active cell or selection in the specified direction.
  • They can also be used in conjunction with modifier keys like Shift (to extend selection) or Ctrl (to jump to the end of data ranges).
  • These keys are vital for efficient data management and analysis in Excel.
  • Shift Key:
  • The Shift key is used in combination with other keys to select multiple cells or extend selections.
  • For example, pressing Shift + Arrow keys selects multiple cells in the direction of the arrow.
  • However, it does not move the pointer independently.

Important Points

  • Keyboard Navigation in Excel:
  • Using keyboard navigation shortcuts like Arrow keys and modifier keys enhances efficiency for users dealing with large datasets.
  • Excel offers various shortcuts, such as Ctrl + Arrow keys to jump to the edge of a data range or Shift + Arrow keys to select a range of cells.
  • Accessibility Features:
  • Arrow keys are an essential accessibility feature for users who face difficulty in using a mouse or touchpad.
  • They ensure smooth navigation and interaction with Excel spreadsheets.
96

What is the full form of IMPS in the context of e-banking services?

  1. ((a))

    Immediate Payment Solution

  2. ((b))

    Immediate Paid Service

  3. ((c))

    Instant Payment Service

  4. ((d))

    Immediate Payment Service

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Immediate Payment Service

The correct answer is Immediate Payment Service.

Key Points

  • Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) is a real-time inter-bank electronic funds transfer system in India.
  • IMPS was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in November 2010.
  • The service enables customers to transfer funds instantly through banks and RBI-authorized Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers across India, 24x7.
  • It is widely used for transactions like fund transfers, bill payments, and merchant payments.
  • The service is accessible through multiple channels such as mobile phones, internet banking, ATM, and SMS.

Additional Information

  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
  • NPCI is an organization established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to operate retail payment and settlement systems in India.
  • It was founded in 2008 and is headquartered in Mumbai.
  • NPCI operates various payment systems like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), and IMPS.
  • Features of IMPS:
  • IMPS provides instant fund transfer services, making it a reliable option for both personal and business transactions.
  • It is available 24x7, including on bank holidays and weekends.
  • The service is highly secure as it uses two-factor authentication and encryption protocols.
  • The maximum transaction limit for IMPS is Rs. 2 lakhs per transaction for retail customers, though this may vary depending on the bank.
  • Comparison with Other Payment Systems:
  • NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer): Unlike IMPS, NEFT transactions are settled in batches and are not real-time. However, NEFT operates on a 24x7 basis since December 2019.
  • RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement): RTGS is designed for high-value transactions (minimum of Rs. 2 lakhs) and operates in real-time, but it is not as commonly used for retail transactions as IMPS.
  • UPI (Unified Payments Interface): UPI is another real-time payment system provided by NPCI that enables peer-to-peer and person-to-merchant transfers using virtual payment addresses (VPAs).
  • Applications of IMPS:
  • IMPS is commonly used for domestic money transfers between individuals or businesses.
  • It facilitates e-commerce transactions and is supported by most online platforms in India.
  • It is also employed for utility bill payments and other recurring financial obligations.
97

Which of the following features of MS-Word 2007 suggests other words with similar meaning to the selected word?

  1. ((a))

    Research

  2. ((b))

    Thesaurus

  3. ((c))

    Spelling & Grammar

  4. ((d))

    Translate

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thesaurus

The correct answer is Thesaurus.

Key Points

  • Thesaurus is a feature in MS-Word that helps users find synonyms and antonyms of a selected word.
  • It is particularly helpful for improving the vocabulary and quality of content by suggesting words with similar meanings.
  • Users can access the Thesaurus in MS-Word by selecting a word, right-clicking, and choosing the "Synonyms" option or by pressing Shift + F7.
  • The Thesaurus feature enhances writing by providing a variety of word choices, enabling effective communication and better expression.
  • This functionality is especially useful for writers, students, and professionals aiming to refine their documents or essays.

Additional Information

  • Research:
  • This feature helps users find information from online sources directly within MS-Word.
  • It is useful for conducting basic research without leaving the document.
  • Unlike Thesaurus, Research focuses on external information rather than synonyms or antonyms.
  • Spelling & Grammar:
  • This feature checks for spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in the document.
  • It provides suggestions to correct typos or improve sentence structure.
  • It does not suggest synonyms or alternative words.
  • Translate:
  • The Translate feature allows users to convert text from one language to another.
  • It is particularly beneficial for multilingual users or when dealing with documents in different languages.
  • It focuses on language translation and not on word alternatives or synonyms.
  • Uses of Thesaurus:
  • Improves the overall quality of writing by providing word variety.
  • Helps in avoiding repetition of words within a document.
  • Useful for creating impactful and professional content.
98

In MS-Word, the shortcut key 'Ctrl + V' is used for which of the following tasks?

  1. ((a))

    To copy the selected text to the clipboard

  2. ((b))

    To cut selected text to the clipboard

  3. ((c))

    To export selected text to another application

  4. ((d))

    To paste text or an object from the clipboard

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

To paste text or an object from the clipboard

The correct answer is To paste text or an object from the clipboard.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + V is a standard shortcut key combination used in applications like MS Word, and its primary function is to paste content from the clipboard into the document or workspace.
  • The clipboard temporarily stores the data (text, objects, images, etc.) that you copy or cut using commands like Ctrl + C (Copy) or Ctrl + X (Cut). Using Ctrl + V, you can retrieve and place the content stored in the clipboard into the desired location.
  • This shortcut is widely used in word processors, spreadsheets, and other software tools to enhance productivity and save time by avoiding repetitive manual actions.
  • Ctrl + V is a part of the universal keyboard shortcut combinations in various operating systems like Windows, macOS, and Linux, making it consistent across different platforms.
  • Hence, the correct answer is to paste text or an object from the clipboard.

Additional Information

  • Explanation of Clipboard:
  • The clipboard is a temporary storage area in a computer's memory used to store data (such as text, images, or files) that has been copied or cut.
  • It supports commands like cut, copy, and paste, enabling users to move or duplicate content efficiently.
  • The clipboard typically holds a single item at a time, but advanced clipboard managers can store multiple items and allow users to access them later.
  • Functions of Related Shortcuts:
  • Ctrl + C: Copies the selected text or object to the clipboard without removing it from the original location.
  • Ctrl + X: Cuts the selected text or object, removing it from the original location and saving it to the clipboard.
  • Ctrl + V: Pastes the content currently stored in the clipboard at the specified location.
  • Applications:
  • These shortcuts are extensively used in various software, including Microsoft Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Notepad, and web browsers.
  • They streamline the workflow for users, allowing them to efficiently manage content across documents, spreadsheets, and other digital platforms.
  • Cross-Platform Usage:
  • In macOS, the equivalent shortcut for Ctrl + V is Command + V.
  • Linux operating systems also support Ctrl + V for pasting content, ensuring uniformity in user experience.

Important Points

  • Keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + V are designed to enhance productivity by minimizing reliance on the mouse for repetitive actions.
  • They are part of the copy-paste operations which have become essential in day-to-day computing tasks.
  • These shortcuts are universally recognized and supported, making them a fundamental part of computer literacy.
99

Which option on the Home tab in MS-Word 2007 is used to remove all formatting from a selected item, leaving only plain text?

  1. ((a))

    Clear Formatting

  2. ((b))

    Erase

  3. ((c))

    Erase All

  4. ((d))

    Format Painter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Clear Formatting

The correct answer is Clear Formatting.

Key Points

  • Clear Formatting is an option available in the Home tab of MS-Word 2007 that removes all formatting from a selected text, leaving it as plain text.
  • This option ensures that all applied formatting, such as bold, italics, underline, font size, font color, or any other style, is completely removed.
  • The feature is especially useful when pasting text from different sources to ensure uniformity and consistency in documents.
  • To use this feature, users can select the text and click on the “Clear Formatting” icon, which is represented by an eraser symbol in the Font group on the Home tab.
  • This option does not delete the content but only removes the applied formatting styles, restoring it to the default style of the document.

Additional Information

  • Erase:
  • This option is not available as a standalone feature in MS-Word 2007.
  • It might be confused with the “Clear Formatting” function, but technically, there is no feature named “Erase” in the Home tab.
  • Erase All:
  • No such option exists in MS-Word 2007.
  • It might be a misinterpretation or confusion with other features like deleting content or clearing formatting.
  • Format Painter:
  • The Format Painter is used to copy formatting from one text selection and apply it to another.
  • It does not remove formatting but instead replicates styles, such as font type, size, color, and paragraph alignment, to other parts of the document.
  • It is commonly used for maintaining consistency in formatting across a document.
  • Key Features of the Clear Formatting Option:
  • It removes all applied formatting, including font type, size, color, alignment, and special effects.
  • Restores text to the default style (typically the Normal style).
  • Helps in cleaning up inconsistencies, especially when working with text from multiple sources.

Important Points

  • How to Use Clear Formatting:
  • Select the text you want to clear formatting from.
  • Go to the Home tab on the ribbon.
  • In the Font group, click the Clear Formatting button (represented by an eraser icon).
  • Other Formatting Tools in MS-Word:
  • The Font group in the Home tab also includes options for bold, italics, underline, font size, and color adjustments.
  • Additional formatting options are available under the Paragraph group, such as alignment, line spacing, and indentation.
100

Which of the following logical functions in MS Excel 2007 is used to check whether any argument is true or not, and returns the result as FALSE if all the arguments are false?

  1. ((a))

    OR

  2. ((b))

    NAND

  3. ((c))

    TRUE

  4. ((d))

    FALSE

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OR

The correct answer is OR.

Key Points

  • OR Function: The OR function in MS Excel is a logical function that checks whether any of the given arguments are TRUE.
  • If at least one argument is TRUE, the OR function returns TRUE. If all arguments are FALSE, it returns FALSE.
  • The syntax for the OR function is: =OR(logical1, [logical2], ...), where logical1, logical2, etc., are conditions that can be evaluated as TRUE or FALSE.
  • Usage Example: If you use =OR(A1>10, B1<5), the function will return TRUE if either condition (A1 greater than 10 or B1 less than 5) is satisfied.
  • The OR function is commonly used in combination with other functions like IF to perform conditional analyses.

Additional Information

  • Logical Functions in MS Excel:
  • AND: Evaluates if all the arguments are TRUE. Returns TRUE only if all arguments are TRUE, otherwise FALSE.
  • TRUE: Returns the logical value TRUE. It is used to represent a constant logical value in Excel formulas.
  • FALSE: Returns the logical value FALSE. It is used to represent a constant logical value in Excel formulas.
  • IF: A conditional function that performs one action if a condition is TRUE and another action if the condition is FALSE. Syntax: =IF(logical_test, value_if_true, value_if_false).
  • Comparison with NAND:
  • NAND is not a predefined function in MS Excel. However, it can be implemented by combining NOT and AND functions.
  • For example, =NOT(AND(A1>10, B1<5)) acts as a NAND gate logically.
  • Applications of Logical Functions:
  • Used for decision-making in data analysis, financial modeling, and conditional formatting.
  • Essential for creating dynamic and responsive spreadsheets.
  • Commonly applied in business scenarios for evaluating conditions and performing calculations based on criteria.
  • Example Scenarios:
  • Checking if sales targets are met: =OR(Sales>Target1, Sales>Target2).
  • Highlighting overdue payments: =IF(OR(DueDate0), "Overdue", "OK").

Important Points

  • Excel Version: Logical functions like OR, AND, and IF are available across all major versions of MS Excel, including Excel 2007.
  • Combination with Other Functions: Logical functions are often paired with mathematical, statistical, or text functions for complex data analysis.
  • Practical Limit: Excel allows up to 255 arguments in logical functions like OR in modern versions, while older versions like Excel 2003 support up to 30 arguments.
  • Global Usage: Logical functions are widely used across industries, including finance, education, and research, making Excel an indispensable tool.

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