Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 10 Dec, 2020 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Ruskin Bond.

Key Points

• Ruskin Bond is a highly acclaimed Indian author of British descent, known for his contributions to children’s literature and short stories.
• The book 'Angry River' is a novel written by Ruskin Bond, which revolves around a young girl named Sita and her resilience during a flood.
• Ruskin Bond's storytelling is renowned for its simplicity, vivid descriptions, and connection to nature and rural life.
• His works often depict the beauty of the Himalayan region, its flora and fauna, and the lives of ordinary people.
• 'Angry River' is a reflection of Bond's ability to weave themes of survival, courage, and the relationship between humans and nature.

Additional Information

• About Ruskin Bond:
• Born on 19 May 1934 in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, Ruskin Bond has authored numerous novels, short stories, essays, and poems.
• He won the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 for his novel 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra'.
• Bond has also received the Padma Shri in 1999 and the Padma Bhushan in 2014 for his contributions to literature.
• His works are deeply rooted in themes like childhood, nostalgia, nature, and simplicity.
• Other Notable Works by Ruskin Bond:
• 'The Blue Umbrella': A popular children’s story that was adapted into a film.
• 'A Flight of Pigeons': A historical novel set during the Revolt of 1857.
• 'Rusty Series': Chronicles the adventures and experiences of Rusty, a fictional character based on Bond's own childhood.
• 'Delhi Is Not Far' and 'The Room on the Roof': Both are examples of his connection to Indian culture and society.
• About 'Angry River':
• First published in 1972, the book captures the struggles of a girl named Sita living on an island in the midst of a flood.
• The story highlights themes of survival, courage, and determination amidst natural calamities.
• It is widely appreciated for its simplicity and depiction of human emotions and the connection with nature.
• Other Authors Mentioned in the Options:
• RK Narayan: Famous for his works like 'Malgudi Days' and 'Swami and Friends', his stories primarily reflect South Indian life.
• Khushwant Singh: Known for his novels like 'Train to Pakistan', focusing on Partition and Indian history.
• Tom Alter: A noted Indian actor and writer, though primarily known for his work in cinema rather than literature.

The correct answer is 24 days.

Key Points

• The Dandi March, also known as the Salt March, was a historic event led by Mahatma Gandhi as part of India's struggle for independence.
• The march began on 12 March 1930 and ended on 6 April 1930, lasting a total of 24 days.
• The march covered a distance of approximately 240 miles (385 kilometers) from Gandhi's Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
• During this march, Gandhi and his team of volunteers protested against the British-imposed salt tax, which symbolized the oppressive colonial rule.
• Upon reaching Dandi, Gandhi broke the salt laws by producing salt from seawater, which became a significant act of civil disobedience.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, known as the Father of the Nation, was the leader of India’s non-violent independence movement against British colonial rule.
• He advocated for Satyagraha, or truth and non-violent resistance, as a means to achieve political and social goals.
• Gandhi's principles of non-violence inspired movements worldwide, including the Civil Rights Movement led by Martin Luther King Jr.
• Salt Tax and its Significance:
• The British government imposed a salt tax, making it illegal for Indians to collect or produce salt independently.
• Salt was an essential commodity, and the tax disproportionately affected the poor, highlighting the exploitative nature of British rule.
• The Dandi March was a strategic protest to unite Indians and challenge British authority through non-violent resistance.
• Impact of the Dandi March:
• The march galvanized Indians across the country, leading to widespread protests against British policies.
• It marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement, which aimed to achieve swaraj (self-rule).
• The event drew international attention to India's independence struggle, pressuring the British government to reconsider its policies.
• Related Movements:
• The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) and Quit India Movement (1942) were other significant movements led by Gandhi against British rule.
• These movements, along with the Dandi March, played a pivotal role in India’s eventual independence in 1947.

Important Points

• 240 miles journey: The march symbolized the long and arduous struggle of Indians against British oppression.
• Breaking the salt law: Gandhi’s symbolic act of producing salt from seawater was an effective protest that inspired millions.
• Participation: Thousands of Indians joined Gandhi during the march, showcasing the unity and determination of the masses.
• Civil disobedience: The Dandi March was one of the first major acts of civil disobedience, setting the tone for future protests against colonial rule.

The correct answer is Adil Hussain.

Key Points

• Adil Hussain is an acclaimed Indian actor known for his work in independent films, mainstream Bollywood cinema, and international projects.
• He became the first Indian to win the Best Actor Award at the Norwegian National Awards for his role in the film "What Will People Say" (2017).
• The film, directed by Iram Haq, is a Norwegian drama that portrays the struggles of a Pakistani-origin girl living in Norway and her relationship with her family.
• Adil Hussain's performance in the movie was widely praised for its depth and emotional portrayal, earning him international recognition.
• His role as the father in the film showcased his versatility and ability to connect with global audiences, making him a significant figure in Indian and international cinema.

Additional Information

• Adil Hussain's Career:
• Adil Hussain was born in Assam, India, and has worked extensively in Indian cinema, including Bollywood, Assamese films, and regional Indian movies.
• He has been part of critically acclaimed films like "Life of Pi", "The Reluctant Fundamentalist", "English Vinglish", and "Hotel Salvation".
• Known for his understated yet impactful performances, he has won numerous awards, including the National Film Award - Special Jury Mention for his work in Indian cinema.
• Norwegian National Awards:
• The Norwegian National Awards celebrate excellence in films made in Norway or featuring significant Norwegian contributions.
• Adil Hussain's win highlights the growing recognition of Indian actors and their performances on an international stage.
• Iram Haq's "What Will People Say":
• The movie is a semi-autobiographical account of the director's personal experiences as a Pakistani immigrant in Norway.
• It deals with themes such as cultural identity, family conflicts, and societal expectations.
• The film was critically acclaimed and won several awards at international film festivals.
• Other Notable Indian Actors with International Recognition:
• Irrfan Khan: Known for his roles in international projects like "The Lunchbox", "Life of Pi", and "Slumdog Millionaire".
• Priyanka Chopra: Gained fame in Hollywood through her role in the series "Quantico" and films like "Baywatch".
• Salman Khan and Aamir Khan: Primarily known for their contributions to Indian cinema, but they have a global fan base due to Bollywood's widespread popularity.

Important Points

• Adil Hussain's Contribution to Cinema:
• Adil Hussain is recognized for his ability to seamlessly adapt to diverse roles across genres and languages.
• His work has been instrumental in bridging the gap between Indian and international cinema.
• Significance of International Awards:
• Winning international awards helps in promoting Indian cinema and talent globally.
• It fosters cultural exchange and highlights the universal appeal of Indian storytelling and performances.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Nyauli is a popular folk song form from the state of Uttarakhand, India.
• The song is primarily sung in the Kumaoni language, which is widely spoken in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
• Nyauli songs are known for their melodious tunes and are typically sung during festivals, celebrations, and gatherings.
• These songs often depict themes such as nature, love, longing, and the daily lives of the people living in the mountainous regions of Uttarakhand.
• Folk traditions like Nyauli help preserve and promote regional culture and heritage, connecting the people of Uttarakhand to their roots.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand:
• Uttarakhand, also known as the "Land of Gods" (Dev Bhoomi), is a state in northern India known for its natural beauty and rich cultural heritage.
• The state is divided into two main regions: Kumaon and Garhwal, each having its unique cultural traditions and folk music styles.
• Folk music in Uttarakhand is often inspired by the Himalayan landscape, depicting emotions, local legends, and the harmony between humans and nature.
• Other folk music forms from Uttarakhand include Chhopati, Jagar, Thadya, Pandavani, and Jhumeila.
• Folk Music in India:
• India has a diverse range of folk music traditions, each rooted in its unique regional culture and history.
• Folk songs are often used to celebrate festivals, rituals, and agricultural cycles or to narrate stories and legends.
• Other examples of popular Indian folk music include Bihu (Assam), Ghoomar (Rajasthan), Lavani (Maharashtra), Baul (West Bengal), and Garba (Gujarat).
• Kumaoni Language:
• Kumaoni is one of the main dialects spoken in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
• It belongs to the Indo-Aryan language family and is primarily spoken by the Kumaoni people.
• The language plays a significant role in preserving the cultural identity of the region and is often used in folk songs like Nyauli.
• Preservation of Folk Music:
• Folk music is considered an essential medium for preserving local traditions and oral history.
• Efforts are being made by cultural organizations and governments to document, promote, and revive folk music traditions across India.
• Events like folk music festivals and initiatives by the Ministry of Culture help ensure these art forms are not lost to modernization.

The correct answer is 75th Amendment.

Key Points

• 75th Amendment to the Indian Constitution was enacted in 1994 to provide for the establishment of a Rent Control Tribunal.
• This amendment empowered the state legislatures to create a special tribunal to handle disputes related to rent control and tenancy issues.
• The amendment added a provision under Article 323B of the Indian Constitution, allowing states to set up tribunals for specific purposes, including the settlement of rent disputes.
• The purpose of the Rent Control Tribunal is to address grievances and disputes between landlords and tenants in a speedy and efficient manner.
• This initiative was considered necessary to deal with the increasing number of disputes arising from rent control laws and ensure proper adjudication.

Additional Information

• Rent Control Act in India:
• The Rent Control Act was enacted to regulate the rental housing market and protect tenants from arbitrary rent increases and evictions.
• These laws vary from state to state, with states having the authority to modify the legislation to suit their specific needs.
• The Act typically includes provisions regarding rent fixation, eviction protections, and resolution of disputes.
• Article 323B:
• Article 323B of the Indian Constitution allows the establishment of tribunals for matters such as taxation, industrial disputes, land reforms, and rent control.
• This provision ensures that specialized tribunals can handle specific disputes in an efficient and focused manner.
• Tribunals in India:
• Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies established to resolve disputes in specific sectors such as administrative law, taxation, and rent control.
• They aim to provide faster and more specialized resolution compared to regular courts.
• Importance of Rent Control Tribunals:
• Rent Control Tribunals help streamline the resolution of disputes arising from rent control laws.
• They ensure that both landlords and tenants can address their grievances in a time-bound manner.
• The tribunals also help reduce the burden on traditional courts.

Important Points

• Other Constitutional Amendments:
• The 66th Amendment dealt with the inclusion of land reforms laws under the Ninth Schedule to protect them from judicial review.
• The 82nd Amendment restored reservation benefits for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in promotions.
• The 54th Amendment revised the salaries of the President, Vice President, and Governors of states.
• Tribunal System:
• Tribunals are part of the alternative dispute resolution system and aim to reduce the backlog of cases in courts.
• They are established under specific laws and function under the administrative control of the respective ministries.

The correct answer is Lakshmanasena.

Key Points

• Lakshmanasena was the last ruler of the Sena dynasty of Bengal who reigned during the period when Bengal was invaded by the Muslims under the leadership of Bakhtiyar Khilji.
• The invasion by Bakhtiyar Khilji occurred in 1204 CE, leading to the fall of the Sena dynasty and the establishment of Muslim rule in Bengal.
• Lakshmanasena was known for his contributions to literature and culture. He was a patron of poets and scholars, including Jayadeva, the author of "Geet Govinda".
• The Sena dynasty, under Lakshmanasena's rule, saw significant developments in art, architecture, and Hindu religious practices, particularly the promotion of Vaishnavism.
• Despite his efforts to maintain the stability of the kingdom, Lakshmanasena was unable to prevent the invasions and eventual downfall of the empire, marking the end of the Hindu dynasties in Bengal.

Additional Information

• About the Sena Dynasty:
• The Sena dynasty ruled Bengal during the period of 11th to 13th centuries CE.
• It was established by Samantasena, and the dynasty reached its zenith under Vijayasena and Ballalasena.
• The dynasty was known for its promotion of Hinduism and efforts to revive Brahminical traditions.
• Key Rulers of the Sena Dynasty:
• Samantasena: The founder of the dynasty, who consolidated his rule in Bengal.
• Vijayasena: Expanded the empire to include parts of Bihar and Orissa.
• Ballalasena: Known for introducing social reforms and strengthening Brahminical traditions.
• Lakshmanasena: The last ruler, under whom the dynasty fell due to the Muslim invasions.
• Bakhtiyar Khilji's Invasion:
• Bakhtiyar Khilji was a military leader under the Delhi Sultanate.
• His invasion of Bengal in 1204 CE marked the beginning of Muslim rule in the region.
• He famously captured the city of Nabadwip, defeating Lakshmanasena's forces.
• Contributions of Lakshmanasena:
• Lakshmanasena was a patron of arts and literature, supporting famous poets like Jayadeva.
• His court was a hub for intellectual and cultural development during his reign.
• Despite his military setbacks, his reign is remembered for its contributions to Bengal's cultural heritage.

Important Points

• Timeline of the Sena Dynasty:
• Samantasena: Founded the dynasty in the 11th century CE.
• Vijayasena: Expanded the empire during the 12th century CE.
• Ballalasena: Ruled during the late 12th century CE, known for his administrative reforms.
• Lakshmanasena: The last ruler, whose reign ended with the Muslim invasion in 1204 CE.
• Impact of Bakhtiyar Khilji's Invasion:
• His conquest marked the end of Hindu dynasties in Bengal.
• It led to the establishment of Islamic rule, which influenced the region's culture and governance.
• Literary Contributions:
• Lakshmanasena's court supported poets like Jayadeva, contributing to works like Geet Govinda.
• These cultural contributions played a role in preserving Bengal's literary traditions.

The correct answer is South Korea.

Key Points

• The 18th FINA World Championships were held in Gwangju, South Korea, from 12th to 28th July 2019.
• This prestigious event was organized by FINA (Fédération Internationale de Natation), which is the international federation recognized for overseeing aquatic sports such as swimming, diving, water polo, artistic swimming, and open water swimming.
• A total of 194 nations participated in the championship, with more than 2,600 athletes competing across different disciplines.
• South Korea became the fourth Asian country to host the FINA World Championships, following Japan, China, and the United Arab Emirates.
• The competition venues included Nambu University Municipal Aquatics Center for swimming and diving events and Yeosu EXPO Ocean Park for open water swimming.

Additional Information

• About FINA:
• FINA, founded in 1908, is the governing body for international competitions in water sports.
• Its headquarters are located in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• FINA organizes the World Championships every two years, which include swimming, diving, water polo, artistic swimming, and open water swimming.
• Significance of the 18th FINA World Championships:
• The event served as a qualifying competition for the 2020 Tokyo Summer Olympics.
• It featured new additions such as high diving and mixed-gender relays, which showcased the evolving nature of aquatic sports.
• The championship highlighted South Korea’s organizational capabilities and promoted its tourism sector.
• Performance Highlights:
• United States emerged as the top-performing nation with the highest medal tally, followed by China and Russia.
• American swimmer Caeleb Dressel made headlines by winning a record 8 medals, including 6 golds.
• China excelled in diving, securing multiple gold medals in the discipline.
• Other Host Nations of FINA World Championships:
• Previous hosts include Budapest, Hungary (2017), Kazan, Russia (2015), and Barcelona, Spain (2013).
• The next edition of the championship after 2019 was held in Budapest again in 2022.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Heliodorus Pillar, also known as the Khamb Baba, is an ancient stone column located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India, specifically near the town of Vidisha.
• It was erected around 113 BCE by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador of the Indo-Greek King Antialcidas, who served at the court of the Shunga King Bhagabhadra.
• The pillar is dedicated to Vishnu, as mentioned in the Brahmi inscriptions on it, and it represents a significant fusion of Greek and Indian cultures.
• The Heliodorus Pillar has inscriptions in the Brahmi script, which provide insights into the religious and cultural exchange between the Greeks and Indians during this period.
• The site is an important archaeological landmark and is considered one of the oldest known examples of Vaishnavism in India.

Additional Information

• Historical Significance of the Heliodorus Pillar:
• The pillar is an example of the cultural interactions between the Indo-Greek Kingdom and Indian civilization during the 2nd century BCE.
• The Brahmi inscription on the pillar mentions the name of Heliodorus, who converted to Vaishnavism, a sect of Hinduism dedicated to the worship of Lord Vishnu.
• The inscription refers to the pillar as the Garuda Dhvaja, or "Garuda Standard," symbolizing the mount of Vishnu, Garuda.
• Location and Archaeological Context:
• The pillar is located in the village of Besnagar, near Vidisha, in present-day Madhya Pradesh.
• This region was a significant cultural and trade center during the ancient period, fostering interactions between Greek and Indian civilizations.
• Architectural Features:
• The Heliodorus Pillar is a monolithic column with a height of approximately 10.7 meters.
• The inscriptions and carvings on the pillar reflect a mix of Greek and Indian artistic styles.
• Its dedication to Vishnu as the "God of Gods" indicates the early influence of Hinduism on foreign cultures.
• Other Notable Indo-Greek Contributions to Indian Culture:
• The Indo-Greeks introduced Hellenistic art and architecture to India, influencing the development of the Gandhara School of Art.
• They also played a role in the spread and support of Buddhism, with King Menander being one of the most famous Indo-Greek rulers who converted to Buddhism.
• Important Points:
• The Heliodorus Pillar is one of the earliest examples of religious inscriptions in India, shedding light on ancient practices of devotion and cultural exchange.
• It is considered a national heritage site and is protected by the Archaeological Survey of India.

The correct answer is Steam iron.

Key Points

• Steam iron operates based on the principles of thermodynamics, which is the study of heat transfer and energy conversion.
• When electricity flows through the iron, it heats up the metal plate. This heat is transferred to water stored in the iron, converting it to steam.
• The process of heat transfer from the iron to the fabric is guided by the thermodynamic principle of heat moving from a higher temperature body (iron) to a lower temperature body (fabric).
• The conversion of water to steam requires energy, and this energy is absorbed from the heat generated by the iron's heating element, adhering to the First Law of Thermodynamics (energy conservation).
• The release of steam helps in loosening the fibers of the fabric, making it easier to smooth out wrinkles, showcasing practical applications of thermodynamic principles in daily life.

Additional Information

• Thermodynamics:
• Thermodynamics is the branch of physics that deals with the relations between heat, work, temperature, and energy.
• It involves four fundamental laws: Zeroth, First, Second, and Third Laws of Thermodynamics, with applications across engines, refrigerators, and daily appliances like steam irons.
• The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transferred or changed from one form to another.
• The Second Law of Thermodynamics involves the concept of entropy, indicating that energy transformations are not 100% efficient, and some energy is always lost as heat.
• Applications of Thermodynamics:
• Steam engines: Use thermodynamic principles to convert heat energy into mechanical work.
• Refrigerators: Operate using heat transfer principles to maintain cool temperatures inside the appliance.
• Air Conditioners: Use thermodynamics to regulate indoor air temperature and humidity.
• Daily appliances: Devices like steam irons and electric kettles rely on thermodynamics for heating and energy conversion.
• Characteristics of the options:
• Steam iron: Works on thermodynamic principles by converting electrical energy into heat and steam.
• Alarm clock: Operates on mechanical or electronic principles, not thermodynamics.
• Car belt: Functions based on mechanical engineering principles, such as tension and friction.
• Ball pen: Relies on fluid dynamics for ink flow, not thermodynamics.

Important Points

• Steam generation: In steam irons, water is heated to produce steam, demonstrating the conversion of thermal energy.
• Energy conservation: The energy input (electricity) is transformed into heat energy, adhering to the First Law of Thermodynamics.
• Heat transfer: Steam irons transfer heat to fabrics to remove wrinkles, utilizing thermodynamic heat flow principles.
• Practical applications: Thermodynamics is widely applied in appliances, industries, and natural processes.

The correct answer is Rajyapala Pratihara.

Key Points

• Rajyapala Pratihara was the ruler of Kannauj during the time of Mahmud of Ghazni's invasion in 1018 CE. Mahmud attacked Kannauj as part of his series of invasions in India.
• Rajyapala, belonging to the Pratihara dynasty, was a prominent ruler of Kannauj, a region that played a vital role in the political and cultural history of northern India.
• Mahmud of Ghazni targeted Kannauj due to its wealth and strategic importance. Rajyapala's response to the invasion has been criticized historically for being inadequate, as he reportedly fled the battlefield instead of defending his territory.
• The Pratihara dynasty was known for its contributions to art and architecture, but by the time of Mahmud's invasion, its political power had significantly weakened.
• Mahmud of Ghazni's invasion of Kannauj marked one of the many raids he conducted to plunder wealth and establish his dominance over northern India.

Additional Information

• Mahmud of Ghazni:
• Mahmud of Ghazni was a ruler of the Ghaznavid Empire who conducted multiple invasions of India between 1000 CE and 1027 CE.
• He is infamous for his plundering raids on Indian temples, including the famous Somnath temple in Gujarat, to acquire wealth.
• Mahmud aimed to expand his empire and propagate Islam, but his invasions were primarily motivated by economic gains.
• Pratihara Dynasty:
• The Pratihara dynasty was one of the major political powers in northern India during the early medieval period (circa 6th–11th centuries).
• They were known for their contributions to art and architecture, particularly the construction of temples in central and northern India.
• By the 11th century, the dynasty had weakened, making it vulnerable to invasions like those of Mahmud of Ghazni.
• Kannauj:
• Kannauj was an important political and cultural center in ancient and medieval India, located in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
• The city was coveted by various rulers due to its strategic location and wealth.
• Kannauj was historically associated with trade and commerce, attracting invasions from foreign powers, including Mahmud of Ghazni.
• Other Options:
• Mihira Bhoja: He was a prominent Pratihara ruler who reigned during the 9th century, known for his military prowess and patronage of art and architecture. He was not the ruler during Mahmud's invasion.
• Samantasena: This name is not associated with the rulers of Kannauj or the Pratihara dynasty during Mahmud's time.
• Rajaraja Chola I: He was a Chola ruler from southern India, ruling during the 10th and 11th centuries. He played no role in the events related to Kannauj or Mahmud's invasion.

The correct answer is Meissner Effect.

Key Points

• Meissner Effect refers to the phenomenon where a material expels magnetic fields upon transitioning into a superconducting state.
• It was discovered by Walther Meissner and Robert Ochsenfeld in 1933, marking a critical milestone in understanding superconductivity.
• When a material becomes superconducting, it exhibits zero electrical resistance and the ability to expel magnetic fields, making it diamagnetic. This is the defining characteristic of superconductors.
• The Meissner Effect is observed when the temperature of a material is reduced below its critical temperature, leading to superconductivity.
• This phenomenon is crucial for applications such as magnetic levitation (e.g., maglev trains) and other technologies reliant on superconductors.

Additional Information

• Superconductivity:
• Superconductivity is a quantum mechanical phenomenon where certain materials exhibit zero electrical resistance and expulsion of magnetic fields below a critical temperature.
• It was first discovered by Heike Kamerlingh Onnes in 1911 while studying mercury at low temperatures.
• Applications of superconductors include MRI machines, particle accelerators, and maglev trains.
• Critical Temperature (Tc):
• The temperature below which a material becomes superconducting is termed the critical temperature.
• Different materials have different critical temperatures, and advancements in material science aim to achieve superconductivity at higher temperatures.
• Diamagnetism in Superconductors:
• Diamagnetism refers to the property of materials to repel magnetic fields, which is exhibited strongly in superconductors due to the Meissner Effect.
• In superconductors, this property arises because magnetic field lines are expelled entirely, creating a perfect diamagnetic state.
• Applications of Meissner Effect:
• The Meissner Effect is utilized in magnetic levitation, enabling the development of frictionless transportation systems like maglev trains.
• It also plays a role in designing high-efficiency electronic systems and quantum computing technologies.
• Other Phenomena Related to Magnetism:
• Barnum Effect: Refers to psychological phenomena where individuals believe vague statements to be personally relevant. It is unrelated to magnetism.
• Cis Effect: Commonly studied in chemistry, this involves molecular interactions rather than magnetic properties.
• Allais Effect: A controversial phenomenon involving gravitational anomalies during solar eclipses, unrelated to the Meissner Effect.

The correct answer is It gets higher.

Key Points

• The government spending multiplier is directly influenced by the marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
• The formula for the multiplier is given as 1 / (1 - MPC). As MPC increases, the denominator decreases, leading to a higher value of the multiplier.
• A higher MPC signifies that individuals spend a larger portion of their additional income, which amplifies the impact of government spending on the economy.
• The multiplier effect means that an increase in government spending leads to a more substantial increase in aggregate demand when MPC is high.
• This relationship is fundamental to Keynesian economics, as it highlights how consumption behavior drives economic growth. Hence, the statement that "the multiplier gets higher as MPC increases" is correct.

Additional Information

• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC):
• MPC refers to the proportion of additional income that individuals spend rather than save.
• For example, if MPC is 0.8, it means individuals spend 80% of their additional income and save the remaining 20%.
• A higher MPC boosts the multiplier effect, as more money circulates in the economy through consumption.
• Government Spending Multiplier:
• The multiplier quantifies the total impact of an increase in government expenditure on economic output.
• It is calculated as 1 / (1 - MPC), showing how MPC plays a critical role.
• For instance, if MPC is 0.9, the multiplier becomes 10, meaning every unit of government spending generates 10 units of economic output.
• Keynesian Economics:
• Developed by economist John Maynard Keynes, this theory emphasizes the importance of aggregate demand in driving economic growth.
• It suggests that government intervention via spending and fiscal policies can stabilize economies during downturns.
• The multiplier effect is a cornerstone of Keynesian economics, underscoring how consumption and investment respond to fiscal changes.
• Real-world Applications:
• Governments often use fiscal stimulus packages to boost economic activity during recessions.
• Countries like the United States employed Keynesian principles during the Great Depression and the 2008 financial crisis to revive their economies.
• The effectiveness of such measures depends significantly on the MPC of the population.

Important Points

• Impact of MPC on Savings:
• A lower MPC implies higher savings, which reduces the multiplier effect.
• For example, if MPC is 0.5, the multiplier is 2, meaning less economic output is generated compared to higher MPC values.
• Other Factors Affecting Multiplier:
• Leakages such as taxes, imports, and savings reduce the effectiveness of the multiplier.
• Government policies aimed at increasing disposable income can enhance MPC and, consequently, the multiplier.

The correct answer is Shravasti.

Key Points

• As per the Census of 2011, Shravasti district in Uttar Pradesh recorded the lowest literacy rate among all districts in India.
• The literacy rate of Shravasti district was only 46.74%, significantly lower than the national average literacy rate of 74.04% recorded in the same census.
• Shravasti is a predominantly rural district with limited access to educational facilities and awareness programs, contributing to its low literacy rate.
• Key demographics of Shravasti show a high proportion of marginalized communities, which face challenges like poverty, lack of infrastructure, and socio-economic barriers to education.
• Comparatively, districts like Mahe in Puducherry recorded one of the highest literacy rates at 98.35%, showcasing stark contrasts in regional educational development across the nation.

Additional Information

• Dantewada (Chhattisgarh):
• Dantewada, situated in the tribal region of Chhattisgarh, recorded a literacy rate of approximately 42.27% as per Census 2011.
• This district faces challenges like Naxal insurgency, limited educational infrastructure, and poor connectivity, making access to education difficult for many residents.
• Shravasti (Uttar Pradesh):
• Shravasti, known for its historical significance in Buddhist culture, has one of the lowest literacy rates in India, attributed to factors such as poverty, lack of schools, and socio-economic backwardness.
• Government initiatives like the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aim to improve literacy rates in such regions by promoting universal education.
• Mahe (Puducherry):
• Mahe boasts one of the highest literacy rates in India at 98.35%, primarily due to its urbanized environment, better infrastructure, and access to quality education.
• Being part of Puducherry, it has benefited from consistent investment in health and education facilities.
• Kutch (Gujarat):
• Kutch recorded a literacy rate of approximately 71.58% as per Census 2011.
• It is a geographically vast district with scattered population centers, posing challenges for educational outreach and infrastructure development.
• Factors Affecting Literacy Rates:
• Poverty: Economic barriers often prevent children from attending schools, especially in rural and marginalized areas.
• Lack of infrastructure: Many districts face challenges like inadequate schools, teachers, and teaching materials.
• Social barriers: Gender discrimination and societal norms can limit access to education, particularly for girls.
• Government initiatives: Programs like Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and Mid-Day Meal Scheme aim to tackle these issues and boost literacy rates.

The correct answer is Red soil.

Key Points

• Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall, particularly in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau.
• These soils are formed due to the weathering of ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
• They are characterized by their reddish color, which is due to the presence of iron oxide.
• Red soils are porous, sandy, and slightly acidic, making them less fertile compared to other soils like alluvial soil or black soil.
• They are suitable for crops like cotton, wheat, pulses, and millets, provided adequate fertilizers and irrigation are supplied.

Additional Information

• Red Soil Characteristics:
• Red soils are found in regions like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, and southern Karnataka.
• They lack lime, phosphate, nitrogen, and humus, making them less fertile without proper soil management.
• They have good drainage capacity due to their porous nature.
• Other soil types mentioned in the options:
• Arid Soil: Found in desert regions like Rajasthan, arid soils are sandy and saline, requiring irrigation for agriculture.
• Alluvial Soil: Found in the river basins of northern India, these soils are fertile and suitable for crops like rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
• Black Soil: Also known as regur soil, black soil is ideal for cotton cultivation and is found in the Deccan Plateau. It retains moisture but is not formed on crystalline igneous rocks.
• Importance of Soil Types:
• Understanding soil types is crucial for optimizing agricultural practices and ensuring sustainable crop yield.
• Different soil types have unique properties that determine their suitability for various crops.

The correct answer is third.

Key Points

• As per the Global Report on Internal Displacement (GRID 2020) by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC), India ranked third globally for internal displacement of people in the year 2019.
• The report highlighted that India faced significant internal displacement due to natural disasters such as floods, cyclones, and other extreme weather events.
• In 2019, India recorded 5 million new displacements caused by disasters, primarily due to severe flooding in states like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Kerala.
• Internal displacement in India is also influenced by socio-political factors such as violence and conflicts, but the major contributing factor remains natural disasters.
• The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC), based in Geneva, tracks and reports on displacement worldwide, focusing on both disaster-induced and conflict-induced displacement.

Additional Information

• Global Report on Internal Displacement (GRID):
• The GRID report is published annually by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) and provides data on internally displaced persons (IDPs) due to disasters, conflicts, and violence.
• The report aims to raise awareness about the global scale of displacement and provide insights for policymaking and humanitarian efforts.
• Internal Displacement in India:
• India experiences significant internal displacement due to natural disasters such as floods, cyclones, earthquakes, and landslides. For example, Cyclone Fani in 2019 displaced thousands in Odisha.
• Floods in Bihar and Kerala have been recurring events causing large-scale displacement.
• In addition to disasters, socio-political factors like communal violence, insurgencies, and ethnic conflicts contribute to displacement in certain regions.
• Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC):
• Founded in 1998, the IDMC is a leading source of data and analysis on internal displacement worldwide.
• It operates under the mandate of the Norwegian Refugee Council (NRC) and focuses on improving understanding and responses to internal displacement.
• The IDMC tracks displacement caused by both conflicts and disasters to provide comprehensive insights.
• Disaster Management in India:
• India has established the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to coordinate disaster preparedness, mitigation, and response.
• Policies like the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and initiatives such as early warning systems aim to reduce disaster-induced displacement.
• Programs like Flood Management Programme and Climate Resilience Building are designed to address recurring challenges related to displacement caused by natural disasters.

Important Points

• Displacement Statistics:
• In 2019, India recorded 5 million new displacements due to disasters, ranking third globally.
• Globally, over 33.4 million new displacements were recorded, with disasters accounting for 24.9 million of these.
• Displacement Due to Floods:
• Floods are a major cause of displacement in India, particularly in states like Assam, Bihar, and Kerala.
• Recurring monsoon flooding exacerbates displacement, affecting livelihoods and homes.
• Displacement Due to Cyclones:
• Cyclones such as Fani (2019) and Amphan (2020) caused large-scale displacement in coastal regions.
• Evacuation measures and relief efforts are critical for minimizing the impact of cyclones on affected populations.
• Humanitarian Efforts:
• Organizations like the NDMA, Red Cross, and UN agencies play a crucial role in disaster relief and managing displacement.
• Collaborations between government and non-governmental organizations aim to address internal displacement effectively.

The correct answer is Kanyakubja.

Key Points

• Kanyakubja, also known as Kannauj, was not a major territorial power in ancient India during the period when kingdoms like Magadha, Kuru, Kosala, and others thrived. It is historically significant but does not fall under the category of powerful territorial entities during ancient times.
• Magadha was one of the most powerful kingdoms in ancient India, known for its strong rulers like Bimbisara and Ajatashatru, and its role in the rise of Jainism and Buddhism. Hence, Magadha is correct as a territorial power.
• Kuru was a significant kingdom in northern India during the Vedic period and was prominently mentioned in the Mahabharata. The Kuru dynasty had a profound influence on the political and cultural aspects of ancient India. Hence, Kuru is correct as a territorial power.
• Kosala was another major kingdom in ancient India, associated with the rule of King Prasenjit and the rise of Buddhism. Kosala played a vital role in the political and religious landscape of ancient India. Hence, Kosala is correct as a territorial power.
• Kanyakubja, despite being historically significant, did not hold a prominent status as a major territorial power during the era of Magadha, Kuru, and Kosala. Therefore, it is not considered a territorial power in ancient India.

Additional Information

• Magadha:
• Magadha was located in present-day Bihar and parts of Jharkhand.
• It was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas and gained prominence during the reign of rulers like Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.
• Magadha played a crucial role in the spread of Buddhism and Jainism, with places like Bodh Gaya being central to Buddhist traditions.
• The Maurya and Gupta Empires, which emerged from Magadha, contributed significantly to India's political and cultural history.
• Kuru:
• The Kuru kingdom was located in the regions of modern-day Haryana and Delhi.
• Kuru is prominently mentioned in the Mahabharata, where the Kurukshetra war took place.
• The Kuru dynasty played a pivotal role in the development of Vedic culture and traditions.
• Kuru kings were known for their administrative skills and military strength.
• Kosala:
• Kosala was situated in present-day Uttar Pradesh, with Ayodhya as its capital.
• King Prasenjit was a renowned ruler of Kosala, and the kingdom was closely associated with the life of Gautama Buddha.
• Kosala was divided into North and South Kosala in later periods.
• The region was known for its contributions to art, culture, and religion.
• Kanyakubja:
• Kanyakubja, or Kannauj, gained prominence during the medieval period as a cultural and political center.
• It was known for its contributions to Sanskrit literature and the arts.
• Kannauj was ruled by various dynasties like the Gurjara-Pratiharas and the Gahadavala dynasty.
• Despite its historical significance, it was not a major territorial power in ancient India.

Important Points

• Mahajanapadas:
• There were sixteen Mahajanapadas in ancient India, including Magadha, Kuru, Kosala, and others.
• They were large kingdoms or republics that played a significant role in the political and cultural history of India.
• These Mahajanapadas were established during the late Vedic period and were mentioned in texts like the Anguttara Nikaya.
• Political Structure:
• Ancient Indian kingdoms had diverse political structures, ranging from monarchies to republics.
• Magadha and Kosala were monarchies, while some Mahajanapadas like Vaishali were republics.
• These states contributed to the development of administrative systems and governance models.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The ‘Namami Gange Programme’ was approved as a Flagship Programme by the Union Government of India in the year 2014.
• This programme was initiated under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi to rejuvenate the River Ganga and its tributaries.
• The objective of the Namami Gange Programme is to achieve effective abatement of pollution, conservation, and rejuvenation of the Ganga River.
• The programme integrates the efforts to clean and protect the Ganga River in a comprehensive manner, consolidating earlier schemes under one flagship initiative.
• The programme was allocated an initial budget of INR 20,000 crore for its implementation over a period of 5 years from 2015-2020.

Additional Information

• About the Namami Gange Programme:
• The programme is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• It focuses on pollution abatement interventions, conservation, and rejuvenation of the Ganga River and its tributaries.
• Key components include sewage treatment infrastructure, riverfront development, biodiversity conservation, afforestation, and public awareness campaigns.
• Key Goals of Namami Gange:
• Ensuring effective abatement of pollution and rejuvenation of the Ganga River.
• Maintaining the ecological and environmental health of the river system.
• Promoting sustainable development and livelihood opportunities for communities dependent on the river.
• Key Achievements:
• Construction of sewage treatment plants (STPs) with a treatment capacity of over 500 million liters per day (MLD).
• Development of riverfronts and ghats in cities like Varanasi, Haridwar, and Patna.
• Efforts to control industrial pollution through stricter regulations and monitoring of discharge into the Ganga.
• Other River Rejuvenation Initiatives:
• Yamuna Action Plan: Aimed at reducing pollution levels in the Yamuna River.
• National River Conservation Plan: Focused on cleaning and conserving rivers across India.
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Includes projects related to improving urban sewerage and water quality.

The correct answer is 100 lakh crore.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2020 emphasized that India needs to spend approximately ₹100 lakh crore on infrastructure from 2020 to 2024-2025 to achieve a $5 trillion GDP.
• Infrastructure development is considered a key driver of economic growth and crucial for achieving the ambitious target of making India a $5 trillion economy.
• The investment will cover various sectors such as transportation, energy, water, sanitation, and urban infrastructure to boost productivity and improve living standards.
• The government launched initiatives like the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), which aims to facilitate investments in infrastructure projects across the country.
• The infrastructure spending aligns with India’s goal to improve connectivity, logistics, and overall efficiency in the economy.

Additional Information

• National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
• The NIP was launched in 2019 to provide a roadmap for infrastructure investments.
• It includes 7,000+ projects across sectors and aims to attract private and public investments.
• The government expects 39% funding from the private sector, while the remaining will come from state and central governments.
• NIP focuses on areas like energy, roads, urban development, and railways to improve India’s global competitiveness.
• Economic Survey 2020:
• The Economic Survey is an annual publication by the Government of India, released before the Union Budget.
• The 2020 edition highlighted the need for massive investments in infrastructure to support economic growth.
• It advocated reforms in land acquisition, labor laws, and policy frameworks to attract investments.
• India’s $5 Trillion Economy Goal:
• India aims to achieve a GDP of $5 trillion by 2024-2025, emphasizing manufacturing, services, and infrastructure growth.
• This requires a consistent annual growth rate of around 8% with supportive fiscal policies.
• Importance of Infrastructure Development:
• Infrastructure enhances connectivity, productivity, and job creation in the economy.
• Improved infrastructure leads to better logistics, reduced costs, and increased competitiveness globally.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives to Support Infrastructure:
• Bharatmala Pariyojana: Focuses on improving highways and road networks across India.
• Sagar Mala Programme: Aims at port-led development to enhance maritime infrastructure.
• Smart Cities Mission: Focuses on urban development and creating sustainable cities.
• Dedicated Freight Corridor: Improves rail connectivity for efficient goods transport.
• Challenges in Infrastructure Development:
• Land acquisition issues: Delays in obtaining land for projects.
• Funding constraints: Limited private sector participation in large-scale projects.
• Regulatory hurdles: Complex rules and policies that hinder implementation.

The correct answer is Fourth.

Key Points

• As per the Economic Survey 2020, India ranks fourth globally in the emerging Green Bond Market, showing its growing role in financing sustainable development initiatives.
• The Economic Survey highlighted that green bonds are an innovative tool for raising funds for projects with environmental benefits, such as renewable energy, sustainable agriculture, and clean transportation.
• India’s position in the green bond market reflects its commitment to environmental sustainability and the government's proactive steps in addressing climate change.
• The issuance of green bonds in India has been growing steadily, with several public and private entities participating in the market to fund eco-friendly initiatives.
• Countries such as the USA, China, and France are ahead of India in the green bond market rankings, emphasizing the global competition in sustainable finance.

Additional Information

• What are Green Bonds?
• Green bonds are fixed-income financial instruments specifically designed to support projects that have positive environmental and climate benefits.
• They are commonly used to finance projects related to renewable energy, energy efficiency, clean transportation, sustainable water management, and biodiversity conservation.
• Green bonds have gained popularity globally as they align financial markets with the goals of reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainability.
• India's Green Bond Market:
• India issued its first green bond in 2015, and the market has grown significantly since then.
• Major issuers of green bonds in India include public sector institutions like the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) and private companies such as banks and energy firms.
• The proceeds from green bonds in India are often used for funding solar power plants, wind energy projects, and other renewable energy initiatives.
• Other Countries Leading in Green Bond Issuance:
• The United States is the largest issuer of green bonds, focusing on clean energy and sustainable infrastructure projects.
• China comes second, with significant investments in renewable energy and pollution control projects.
• France is ranked third, leveraging green bonds to fund its ambitious environmental programs, including carbon neutrality goals.
• Important Points:
• In 2020, the global green bond market reached an issuance volume of over $1 trillion, reflecting the rising demand for sustainable finance.
• India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement aim to reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33-35% by 2030, and green bonds play a vital role in achieving this target.

The correct answer is Distributive.

Key Points

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions three types of justice: Social, Economic, and Political.
• Social justice signifies the elimination of inequalities in wealth, status, and opportunity. It aims to create an equitable society.
• Economic justice implies that the government ensures a fair distribution of resources and opportunities to all citizens.
• Political justice ensures equal participation of all citizens in the political decision-making process.
• However, Distributive justice, which refers to the equitable allocation of assets in a society, is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• Justice in the Indian Constitution:
• The idea of justice is inspired by the principles of the French Revolution and has been adopted as a core value in the Preamble of the Constitution.
• The Indian Constitution provides for Social, Economic, and Political justice to ensure equality and fairness in society.
• The concept of justice is further enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution), which guides the government to establish a just and equitable order.
• Distributive Justice:
• Distributive justice refers to the fair and equitable allocation of resources and opportunities in a society.
• Although it is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble, the concept is reflected in various provisions of the Constitution, such as Article 39(b) and 39(c), which direct the state to ensure that wealth is not concentrated in a few hands.
• Key Features of the Preamble:
• The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
• It outlines the objectives of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to be achieved for all citizens.
• It serves as the guiding philosophy and essence of the Constitution.
• Relevant Articles Highlighting Justice:
• Article 14: Ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 16: Ensures equality of opportunity in public employment.
• Article 21: Guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
• Important Points:
• The Preamble is considered the introduction to the Constitution and reflects the aspirations of the people of India.
• It is non-justiciable, meaning it is not enforceable in a court of law but serves as a guiding principle for governance.
• The Preamble was amended only once, through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, which added the terms Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.

The correct answer is Five.

Key Points

• As of September 2020, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allows users to perform five free financial transactions per month at their issuing bank's ATM.
• These free transactions include cash withdrawals, balance inquiries, and fund transfers.
• Beyond the permitted five free transactions, a nominal fee is charged for each additional transaction, which varies depending on the bank.
• The rule applies to ATMs located in the same city as the issuing bank (home branch). For ATMs located outside the home city, different transaction limits may apply.
• This policy was introduced to regulate the usage of ATMs and ensure their availability for all users. Hence, the correct option is Five.

Additional Information

• ATM Transaction Guidelines:
• ATM transactions are categorized into financial transactions (e.g., cash withdrawals) and non-financial transactions (e.g., balance inquiries).
• For non-financial transactions, banks may offer unlimited access or a separate free usage limit.
• RBI guidelines stipulate that banks must display transaction fees clearly to customers.
• Charges for Exceeding Free Transaction Limit:
• Beyond the free transaction limit, banks charge a fee, which typically ranges from ₹15-20 per financial transaction and ₹5-8 per non-financial transaction.
• These fees are introduced to manage ATM usage efficiently and reduce congestion at machines.
• ATM Usage in India:
• India has a vast network of ATMs operated by banks and third-party service providers.
• The ATM penetration in rural areas has been improving steadily to provide better access to banking services.
• ATMs are an essential part of the banking infrastructure, offering convenience to customers for withdrawing money and accessing account services.
• Impact of RBI Policies:
• RBI policies regarding ATM transactions aim to balance convenience for customers with operational efficiency for banks.
• These policies encourage digital transactions to reduce dependency on cash-based systems.

Important Points

• Additional Free Transactions:
• Customers with premium accounts may receive additional free transactions at their home bank's ATMs.
• Senior citizens, students, and specific customer segments may enjoy higher free transaction limits.
• ATM Security:
• Banks are required to ensure security measures at ATMs, including surveillance cameras, PIN protection, and anti-skimming devices.
• Customers are advised not to share their ATM PIN and report any suspicious activity promptly.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

• The Objective Resolution was moved in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December 1946.
• This resolution laid the foundation for the Preamble of the Indian Constitution and outlined the guiding principles of the Constitution.
• The resolution aimed to establish India as an independent, sovereign, and democratic republic, ensuring justice, equality, and liberty for all its citizens.
• It emphasized the commitment to safeguard the rights of minorities, backward classes, and other disadvantaged groups.
• The Objective Resolution was adopted on 22nd January 1947 by the Constituent Assembly after detailed discussions and debates.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of independent India and a leading figure in the Indian freedom struggle.
• He played a pivotal role in drafting and shaping the Indian Constitution by contributing through his leadership in the Constituent Assembly.
• He was known for his vision of a modern, secular, and democratic India, which is reflected in the Objective Resolution.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, often called the architect of the Indian Constitution, was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
• He played a major role in ensuring social justice and equality in the Constitution but did not move the Objective Resolution.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
• He presided over the discussions but did not move the Objective Resolution.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Deputy Prime Minister of India and played a significant role in integrating princely states into India.
• Although he was a key figure in the Constituent Assembly, he did not move the Objective Resolution.
• Significance of the Objective Resolution:
• The Objective Resolution is considered the precursor to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• It served as a guiding framework for drafting the Constitution and reflected the aspirations of the Indian people.

The correct answer is 1995.

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture came into force on 1 January 1995, alongside the establishment of the WTO itself.
• This agreement is a pivotal part of global trade regulations aimed at reforming trade in the agricultural sector.
• The agreement introduced disciplines on market access, domestic support, and export subsidies to create a fairer trading environment.
• It was negotiated during the Uruguay Round (1986-1994) and forms a core pillar of the WTO agreements.
• The Agreement on Agriculture applies to all member countries of the WTO, aiming to reduce barriers and distortions in agricultural trade globally.

Additional Information

• Market Access:
• The Agreement requires member countries to convert non-tariff barriers to tariffs, a process called tariffication.
• Countries committed to reducing tariffs on agricultural products over time.
• Special provisions were introduced for developing countries, allowing them more flexibility in implementing commitments.
• Domestic Support:
• Domestic support measures are categorized into "boxes" (Amber, Green, and Blue Boxes), depending on their trade-distorting effects.
• Amber Box subsidies are considered trade-distorting and are subject to reduction commitments.
• Green Box measures include subsidies that have minimal trade-distorting effects, such as environmental programs and research funding.
• Export Subsidies:
• The agreement seeks to reduce export subsidies, which distort competition and harm farmers in developing countries.
• Developed countries were given stricter reduction commitments compared to developing nations.
• Special and Differential Treatment:
• Developing countries were granted special provisions, such as lower reduction commitments and longer implementation periods.
• These measures aim to address the unique challenges faced by developing nations in the agricultural sector.
• Uruguay Round:
• The Agreement on Agriculture was negotiated during the Uruguay Round, which lasted from 1986 to 1994.
• This round led to the establishment of the WTO and the incorporation of agriculture into global trade negotiations.

Important Points

• Implementation:
• The Agreement on Agriculture officially came into force on 1 January 1995, the same date as the WTO's establishment.
• It marked the first time agricultural trade was comprehensively included in global trade rules.
• Impact on Developing Countries:
• The agreement provided opportunities for developing countries to access global markets and reduce protectionism.
• However, challenges remain, such as ensuring fair competition and addressing domestic agricultural concerns.
• Role of WTO:
• The WTO oversees the implementation of the Agreement on Agriculture and ensures compliance among member countries.
• It provides a platform for resolving disputes related to agricultural trade.

The correct answer is Mapcha Khambab.

Key Points

• The Karnali River is the longest river in Nepal and originates from the Mapcha Khambab Glacier, located near Mount Kailash in Tibet.
• Mapcha Khambab is considered the spiritual source of the Karnali River, which holds cultural and religious significance for Hindus and Buddhists.
• The Karnali River flows through Nepal, contributing to the region's hydrology and supporting biodiversity. It is an essential water resource for agriculture and hydroelectric power generation.
• In Tibetan tradition, Mount Kailash is regarded as the abode of Lord Shiva, and Mapcha Khambab is considered sacred for its connection to the holy mountain.
• The Karnali River eventually merges with the Ganges River in India, making it a part of the larger river system of the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• Karnali River:
• The Karnali River is approximately 507 kilometers long and is considered one of Nepal's principal rivers.
• It originates from the Himalayan region and flows southward through steep valleys, offering opportunities for adventure tourism, such as white-water rafting and kayaking.
• The river basin supports diverse ecosystems, including forests, wetlands, and aquatic habitats, which are home to several endangered species.
• It plays a crucial role in Nepal’s hydropower projects, with several dams and power plants constructed to harness its energy.
• Mapcha Khambab Glacier:
• This glacier is situated near Mount Kailash, a peak revered in Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Bon traditions.
• The glacier is the source of multiple rivers, including the Karnali River, and is vital for the water supply in the region.
• It is considered a sacred site and attracts pilgrims who visit the area to perform the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra.
• Other Major Rivers of Nepal:
• The Bagmati River, which flows through Kathmandu Valley, is significant for its cultural and religious importance.
• The Gandaki River, another major river, originates from the Tibetan Plateau and is renowned for its seven tributaries collectively called Sapta Gandaki.
• The Koshi River, known as the "Sorrow of Bihar," is the largest river in Nepal and is prone to flooding during monsoon season.
• Mount Kailash:
• Located in Tibet, Mount Kailash is considered sacred by followers of Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Bon.
• Hindus believe it to be the abode of Lord Shiva, while Buddhists regard it as the home of Buddha Demchok.
• The mountain stands at an elevation of 6,638 meters and is part of the Trans-Himalaya range.

Important Points

• Spiritual Significance:
• Mapcha Khambab and Mount Kailash are sites of pilgrimage attracting thousands of devotees annually.
• These locations are integral to rituals such as the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, which is regarded as a journey to purify the soul and attain spiritual enlightenment.
• Geographical Importance:
• The glacier and river systems originating from Mount Kailash contribute to the lifeline of millions of people in Nepal and India.
• The Karnali River Basin is vital for agriculture and water resource management in both countries.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Tutilawa Mela is a traditional festival celebrated in the state of Jharkhand, India.
• The event primarily takes place in the Chatra district of Jharkhand and is widely popular among the local communities.
• This mela serves as a platform for the local tribal communities to showcase their culture, traditions, and heritage.
• The mela is known for its vibrant folk dances, music performances, handicrafts, and local cuisines.
• Historical Significance: Tutilawa Mela has been celebrated for decades and holds cultural importance as it brings communities together and promotes the rich cultural diversity of Jharkhand.

Additional Information

• Jharkhand:
• Jharkhand is a state located in the eastern part of India, known for its dense forests, mineral wealth, and tribal heritage.
• The state was carved out of Bihar on 15 November 2000.
• It is home to several indigenous tribes, including Santals, Oraons, Mundas, and Ho tribes.
• Jharkhand is rich in cultural diversity and hosts various traditional festivals, melas, and tribal gatherings.
• Festivals in Jharkhand:
• Besides Tutilawa Mela, other popular festivals include Sarhul, Karam, and Sohrai.
• Sarhul is celebrated during the spring season, marking the beginning of the new year for tribal communities.
• Sohrai is associated with the harvest season and involves traditional rituals, painting, and music.
• Tribal Culture:
• Jharkhand's tribal population constitutes approximately 26.2% of its total population.
• The tribal communities are known for their unique art forms, including Paitkar painting and Sohrai murals.
• Many of these art forms are showcased and celebrated during events like Tutilawa Mela.
• Tourism in Jharkhand:
• Tourism in Jharkhand includes attractions like Betla National Park, Parasnath Hills, and Hundru Falls.
• Festivals like Tutilawa Mela attract tourists interested in exploring tribal culture and traditions.

Important Points

• Chatra District: Tutilawa Mela is specifically celebrated in the Chatra district, which is known for its rich cultural and historical significance.
• Promoting Local Artisans: The mela serves as a platform for local artisans to showcase and sell their handicrafts, boosting the local economy.
• Tribal Heritage: The mela is an important part of preserving and promoting the tribal heritage of Jharkhand.
• Cultural Exchange: Tutilawa Mela fosters a sense of community and cultural exchange among the diverse groups in the region.

The correct answer is Malappuram.

Key Points

• Malappuram, located in the state of Kerala, India, is recognized as the world's fastest-growing city according to the United Nations population data of January 2020.
• This recognition is based on the city’s population growth rate of 44.1% between 2015 and 2020, which surpassed all other cities globally.
• The growth of Malappuram can be attributed to factors such as urbanization, migration for employment, and improved infrastructure and living standards.
• Malappuram is known for its rich cultural heritage and serves as an administrative and commercial hub in Kerala.
• It is also a center for education and healthcare services, making it an attractive destination for people relocating within and outside the region.

Additional Information

• Malappuram - Key Features:
• Located in northern Kerala, Malappuram is known for its hilly terrain, rivers, and historical significance.
• The district has a strong presence of the Muslim community, contributing to its unique cultural identity.
• It is one of the most literate districts in India, with a literacy rate significantly higher than the national average.
• Reasons for Population Growth:
• Increased migration due to better job opportunities in sectors such as construction, retail, and services.
• Development of infrastructure, including roads, schools, and healthcare facilities, has contributed to urbanization.
• Promotion of NRI (Non-Resident Indian) investments has also driven economic growth in the region.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Lucknow: Capital of Uttar Pradesh, known for its cultural heritage and historical significance, but not the fastest-growing city globally as per the 2020 UN data.
• Patna: Capital of Bihar, experiencing urban growth, but its growth rate does not match Malappuram’s.
• Jabalpur: Located in Madhya Pradesh, known for its natural beauty and military establishments, but not among the fastest-growing cities globally.
• United Nations Population Data:
• The UN’s population report highlights urbanization trends globally, identifying cities with the highest population growth rates.
• This data is used for planning and development purposes, helping governments focus on urban challenges such as housing, infrastructure, and employment.

The correct answer is Chalukyan architectural style.

Key Points

• The Sun Temple of Modhera is a remarkable example of Chalukyan architectural style, showcasing intricate carvings and geometrical precision.
• Constructed during the reign of King Bhima I of the Solanki dynasty in the early 11th century, it reflects the Chalukyan style's unique emphasis on ornate sculptures and symmetrical layouts.
• The temple is dedicated to Surya (Sun God) and is famous for its alignment, where the first rays of the sun illuminate the sanctum.
• This architectural style is characterized by stepwells, pillared halls, and beautifully carved exteriors, which are prominent features of the Modhera Sun Temple.
• The temple complex includes a Surya Kund (a stepwell) with 108 miniature shrines and a Sabha Mandap (assembly hall), epitomizing Chalukyan grandeur.

Additional Information

• Chalukyan Architectural Style:
• Originated in the 6th century CE under the Chalukya dynasty, which ruled parts of southern and central India.
• Known for its temples with elaborate carvings, symmetrical layouts, and distinctive stepped pyramidal roofs.
• Major examples include the temples at Badami, Pattadakal, and Aihole.
• Indo-Gothic Architectural Style:
• A fusion of Indian and Gothic architectural elements, popular during the British colonial era.
• Known for its pointed arches, ribbed vaults, and elaborate tracery.
• Examples include structures like the Victoria Terminus in Mumbai.
• Dzong Architecture Style:
• Associated with the Himalayan region, particularly Bhutan.
• Characterized by massive fortress-like structures with courtyards and prayer halls.
• Serves as both administrative and religious centers.
• Kāḷinga Architectural Style:
• Originated in Odisha and is known for its tiered structures and rich sculptures.
• Famous examples include the Konark Sun Temple and Jagannath Temple in Puri.
• Defined by distinct Rekha Deul, Pidha Deul, and Khakhara Deul forms.

Important Points

• The Sun Temple of Modhera is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Mehsana district, Gujarat.
• Its construction aligns with the classical Chalukyan architectural principles, emphasizing the interplay of light and shadow.
• The temple does not have a functioning deity, as it was desecrated by Mahmud of Ghazni in the 11th century.
• The structure remains an iconic example of Chalukyan art, attracting historians and tourists worldwide.

The correct answer is Tarpa dance is a folk dance of Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Key Points

• Tarpa dance is a traditional folk dance performed by the tribal communities of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, particularly the Warli, Kokna, and Dhodia tribes.
• The dance is named after the Tarpa, a wind instrument made from bamboo and gourd, which is played during the performance.
• The dance is performed in a circular formation, with dancers moving in synchronization to the rhythmic tunes of the Tarpa. The performers hold hands and move in a spiral or circular path.
• It is a community dance, symbolizing unity and harmony among the tribes, often performed during festivals, celebrations, and harvest seasons.
• The Tarpa dance is not merely an art form but also a representation of the tribal culture, traditions, and communal bonding of the region.

Additional Information

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli:
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a Union Territory located in western India, bordered by Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• It has a rich tribal heritage, with over 60% of its population comprising tribal communities such as the Warli, Dhodia, and Kokna.
• The region is known for its lush greenery, forests, and distinct tribal culture.
• Traditional art forms like the Warli paintings and dances such as the Tarpa are integral to its cultural identity.
• Tarpa Instrument:
• The Tarpa is a wind instrument made from bamboo and gourd. It produces melodious tunes that guide the rhythm of the dance.
• This instrument is played exclusively by men, while the entire community participates in the dance.
• The tunes are characterized by their lively and rhythmic nature, representing the joyous spirit of the tribal people.
• Other Folk Dances of India:
• Garba: A popular dance from Gujarat, performed during Navratri.
• Bihu: A traditional dance from Assam, performed during the Bihu festival.
• Chhau: A martial art-inspired dance from Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
• Lavani: A vibrant dance from Maharashtra, known for its energetic and expressive moves.
• Importance of Folk Dances:
• Folk dances preserve the cultural heritage and traditions of a region.
• They serve as a medium of expression, storytelling, and celebration in rural communities.
• Such dances promote unity, communal bonding, and social harmony.
• Folk dances are often performed during festivals, rituals, and special occasions, showcasing the vibrant spirit of local cultures.

Important Points

• Warli Paintings:
• Warli art is a traditional tribal art form from Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Maharashtra.
• It features geometric patterns depicting day-to-day activities, nature, and community life.
• The paintings are typically done using white pigment on a mud-based background.
• Tribal Festivals:
• Tribal communities in Dadra and Nagar Haveli celebrate festivals such as Diwali, Holi, and harvest festivals with traditional dances and music.
• These festivals serve as an opportunity to showcase their rich cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Pataliputra.

Key Points

• Chandragupta I, the ruler of the Gupta Dynasty, is credited with strengthening the empire's position through strategic alliances, including his marriage to Princess Kumaradevi of the Licchavi clan.
• As part of this marital alliance, the Licchavis gifted the city of Pataliputra to Chandragupta I as dowry. This significantly enhanced the power and influence of the Gupta Empire in the region.
• Pataliputra, located in present-day Bihar, served as the capital of the Mauryan Empire earlier and later became the capital of the Gupta Empire under Chandragupta I's rule.
• The acquisition of Pataliputra allowed the Gupta Empire to control a key geographical and strategic center, which was pivotal for trade, administration, and military strategy.
• This marital alliance not only extended the territorial expanse of the Gupta Empire but also symbolized a unification of significant powers, contributing to the empire's rise as a dominant force in ancient India.

Additional Information

• Pataliputra:
• Location: Situated near the confluence of the Ganges, Gandak, and Son rivers, in modern-day Patna, Bihar.
• Historical Significance: It was a prominent city in ancient India, serving as the capital for multiple dynasties, including the Mauryan and Gupta empires.
• Features: Known for its advanced urban planning, water management systems, and grand architecture during the Mauryan and Gupta periods.
• Role in Trade: Served as a major hub for trade and commerce due to its strategic location near important rivers.
• Licchavi Clan:
• The Licchavis were a prominent clan in ancient India, known for their republican governance and influence in the region of Vaishali (modern-day Bihar).
• Their alliance with the Gupta dynasty through the marriage of Kumaradevi to Chandragupta I symbolized a unification of political powers.
• Gupta Empire:
• Founded by Chandragupta I around 320 CE and lasted until approximately 550 CE.
• Known as the "Golden Age" of ancient India due to advancements in science, mathematics, astronomy, literature, and art.
• The empire expanded significantly under Chandragupta I and his successors, including Samudragupta and Chandragupta II.
• Other Cities Mentioned in the Options:
• Magadha: A historical region in modern-day Bihar, known as the core of the Mauryan and Gupta empires.
• Ujjain: An ancient city in present-day Madhya Pradesh, significant as a center of trade and learning during ancient and medieval periods.
• Prayag: Modern-day Prayagraj (Allahabad), a city of religious and cultural significance in Uttar Pradesh, known for the confluence of the Ganges, Yamuna, and mythical Saraswati rivers.

The correct answer is Bahmani Kingdom.

Key Points

• Mahmud Gawan was a distinguished minister and administrator in the Bahmani Kingdom, which existed during the medieval period in India.
• The Bahmani Kingdom was established in the Deccan region of South India in 1347 and lasted until 1527. It was one of the prominent Islamic kingdoms in medieval India.
• Mahmud Gawan, originally from Persia, served as the Prime Minister (Wazir) of the Bahmani Sultanate under the reign of Muhammad Shah III (1463–1482).
• He is renowned for his administrative reforms, including the division of the kingdom into eight provinces for better governance and revenue administration.
• Mahmud Gawan established a Madrasa (Islamic college) in Bidar, which became a center of Islamic learning and culture in South India.

Additional Information

• Bahmani Kingdom:
• The Bahmani Kingdom was founded by Alauddin Bahman Shah in 1347 after revolting against the Delhi Sultanate.
• The kingdom extended across parts of present-day Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.
• It was known for its cultural and architectural advancements, including the development of Indo-Islamic art and architecture.
• The capital of the Bahmani Kingdom was initially Gulbarga, later shifted to Bidar.
• Mahmud Gawan’s Contributions:
• He was instrumental in strengthening the Bahmani Kingdom through administrative and military reforms.
• Gawan introduced the Iqta system, where land was distributed among military officers in exchange for their services.
• The Madrasa built by Gawan in Bidar was an architectural masterpiece, featuring a library and lecture halls.
• Despite his immense contributions, Gawan faced political conspiracies and was executed in 1481.
• Other Kingdoms Mentioned:
• Baridshahi: The Baridshahi dynasty succeeded the Bahmani Kingdom in Bidar after its decline.
• Nizamshahi: The Nizamshahi dynasty ruled over the Ahmednagar region in Maharashtra, established in 1490.
• Adilshahi: The Adilshahi dynasty ruled Bijapur in Karnataka and was one of the successor states of the Bahmani Kingdom.

Important Points

• The Bahmani Kingdom was a major Islamic power in South India, contributing significantly to cultural and architectural developments.
• The kingdom’s decline in the early 16th century led to the emergence of Deccan Sultanates, including the Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, and Baridshahi dynasties.
• Mahmud Gawan is remembered for his visionary leadership and dedication to strengthening the Bahmani Sultanate despite political challenges.

The correct answer is Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

Key Points

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of a commercial bank's net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that it must maintain in the form of liquid assets such as cash, gold, or approved government securities before providing credit to customers.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates the SLR as a crucial regulatory tool for controlling credit flow and ensuring liquidity stability in the banking system.
• SLR is expressed as a percentage of the bank's NDTL, and its rate is determined periodically by the RBI based on the monetary policy requirements.
• SLR helps to curb inflation and stabilize the economy by restricting the amount banks can lend, ensuring that they have sufficient funds as a safeguard during financial crises.
• The maintenance of SLR is essential for the functioning of the banking sector, as it ensures banks maintain liquidity and solvency while adhering to regulatory frameworks.

Additional Information

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• CRR is the percentage of a bank's NDTL that it must maintain as reserves in cash form with the RBI.
• It is a monetary policy tool used by the RBI to regulate liquidity and control inflation.
• Unlike SLR, CRR does not earn any interest for banks, as it is stored with the RBI.
• Repo Rate:
• The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for short-term needs.
• It is a tool used by the RBI to manage inflation and liquidity in the economy.
• An increase in the repo rate makes borrowing costlier for banks, reducing liquidity in the economy.
• Reverse Repo Rate:
• The reverse repo rate is the rate at which banks can park their surplus funds with the RBI and earn interest.
• It is used to absorb excess liquidity in the economy by encouraging banks to deposit their funds with the RBI.
• Functions of SLR:
• Ensure liquidity: Helps banks maintain a reserve of liquid assets.
• Control credit: Restricts the amount banks can lend and prevents excessive credit creation.
• Regulatory compliance: Ensures banks adhere to RBI guidelines and maintain financial stability.

Important Points

• Legal Framework: SLR is governed by the Banking Regulation Act of 1949, and the rate is determined by the RBI.
• Current Trends: The SLR rate varies and is adjusted by the RBI based on prevailing economic conditions.
• Impact on Economy: A higher SLR restricts lending capacity, while a lower SLR promotes credit flow and economic growth.

The correct answer is Sri Aurobindo.

Key Points

• Sri Aurobindo is the author of the book 'The Life Divine', a philosophical treatise that explores the concept of spiritual evolution and human potential.
• The book is considered one of the most significant works in Indian philosophy and was first published in the early 20th century.
• 'The Life Divine' outlines a comprehensive vision of the evolution of consciousness and the integral development of human life in harmony with the divine.
• Sri Aurobindo was a prominent Indian philosopher, yogi, poet, and nationalist, who is regarded as one of the key figures in modern Indian thought.
• The book delves deeply into metaphysical questions, addressing topics such as the nature of existence, the purpose of life, and the relationship between the material and spiritual worlds.

Additional Information

• Sri Aurobindo:
• Sri Aurobindo (1872–1950) was a multifaceted personality who contributed to India's independence movement, philosophy, and spirituality.
• He founded the integral yoga, a spiritual discipline that aims at the transformation of all aspects of human life.
• His philosophy emphasizes the unity of existence and the evolution of human consciousness towards a higher, divine state.
• Sri Aurobindo's teachings were instrumental in establishing the Aurobindo Ashram in Puducherry, which remains an important spiritual center.
• Key Themes of 'The Life Divine':
• The book explores the concept of integral evolution, where human beings realize their highest potential by aligning with the divine purpose.
• It addresses the relationship between mind, life, and matter and their ultimate unity in the divine.
• Sri Aurobindo discusses the concept of Supermind, a higher plane of consciousness that harmonizes the spiritual and material aspects of existence.
• Other Philosophical Works by Sri Aurobindo:
• 'Essays on the Gita' – A commentary on the Bhagavad Gita, offering a spiritual and philosophical perspective.
• 'Savitri' – An epic poem that portrays the journey of human consciousness and the victory of light over darkness.
• 'The Synthesis of Yoga' – A comprehensive guide to the practice of integral yoga.
• Other Authors Mentioned:
• Swami Vivekananda: A key figure in introducing Indian philosophy to the Western world, known for his works like 'Raja Yoga' and his contributions to the Vedanta philosophy.
• Jiddu Krishnamurti: A philosopher and spiritual teacher who emphasized self-awareness and the rejection of organized belief systems.
• AC Bhaktivedanta: Founder of the International Society for Krishna Consciousness (ISKCON) and translator of the Bhagavad Gita and Srimad Bhagavatam.

The correct answer is 1981-1990.

Key Points

• The United Nations declared the period 1981-1990 as the International Decade for Water and Sanitation, emphasizing the importance of access to clean water and basic sanitation globally.
• This initiative aimed to ensure safe water supply and sanitation facilities for everyone, particularly in developing countries where access to these essential resources was severely lacking.
• The decade focused on improving infrastructure, raising awareness, and promoting policies to address the growing water and sanitation crisis.
• It involved collaborations between governments, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), and international agencies to achieve the set goals.
• The declaration recognized the critical role of water and sanitation in improving public health, reducing poverty, and driving sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Importance of Water and Sanitation:
• Access to clean water and sanitation is a basic human right and is essential for maintaining public health and hygiene.
• Lack of access to these resources is linked to waterborne diseases such as cholera, dysentery, and typhoid, which disproportionately affect vulnerable populations.
• Improved water and sanitation infrastructure can significantly reduce disease transmission and improve overall quality of life.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that proper sanitation could prevent over 2 million deaths annually.
• Global Efforts for Water and Sanitation:
• The United Nations has continuously advocated for improving water and sanitation access through various initiatives, including the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• Goal 6 of the SDGs focuses explicitly on ensuring clean water and sanitation for all by 2030.
• International collaborations, such as the Global Water Partnership, work towards addressing water security challenges worldwide.
• Challenges in Achieving Universal Access:
• Developing countries face significant challenges such as insufficient funding, inadequate infrastructure, and lack of technical expertise in implementing effective water and sanitation solutions.
• Rapid urbanization and population growth often strain existing resources, exacerbating the problem.
• Climate change impacts water availability and quality, further complicating efforts to provide universal access.
• Other Relevant Initiatives:
• World Water Day, observed annually on 22 March, raises awareness about water-related issues and promotes sustainable water management.
• The International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade (1981–1990) was a precursor to modern efforts aimed at improving global water and sanitation access.
• Efforts such as UNICEF’s Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene (WASH) program continue to provide resources and technical support to communities in need.

Important Points

• Statistics on Water and Sanitation:
• According to UNICEF, over 2.2 billion people globally lack access to safe drinking water.
• Nearly 4.2 billion people do not have access to safely managed sanitation facilities.
• Key Benefits of Improved Water and Sanitation:
• Reduction in child mortality rates due to fewer waterborne diseases.
• Improved productivity as a result of better health and reduced absenteeism.
• Enhanced gender equality, as access to safe water reduces the burden on women and girls who often spend hours collecting water.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The Constituent Assembly, tasked with drafting the Constitution of India, had 15 women representatives.
• These women played a crucial role in shaping the socio-political framework of India, contributing to discussions on fundamental rights, social justice, and women’s empowerment.
• Prominent women members of the Constituent Assembly included Hansa Mehta, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Sarojini Naidu, Durgabai Deshmukh, and Renuka Ray, among others.
• The inclusion of women in the Constituent Assembly highlighted India's commitment to gender equality, even during its nascent stages as a democracy.
• The presence of these 15 women representatives was a significant milestone in Indian history, marking their active participation in building a progressive and inclusive nation.

Additional Information

• Key contributions of women representatives in the Constituent Assembly:
• Hansa Mehta: Advocated for gender equality and women’s rights, influencing the language and tone of fundamental rights in the Constitution.
• Rajkumari Amrit Kaur: The first Health Minister of India, she played a pivotal role in shaping public health policies and advocating for women’s health.
• Sarojini Naidu: A renowned poet and freedom fighter, she emphasized the importance of cultural integration and women’s active participation in democratic processes.
• Durgabai Deshmukh: Advocated for social justice and the empowerment of marginalized sections, including women and children.
• Renuka Ray: Played a significant role in drafting policies related to social welfare and women’s development.
• Historical context:
• The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946, with members elected by the provincial legislatures and nominees from princely states.
• Out of 389 total members, 15 were women, representing diverse regions and backgrounds.
• Women’s role in shaping the Constitution:
• Women members actively participated in debates on social justice, education, and fundamental rights.
• They emphasized the importance of gender equality and the need to safeguard women’s rights in a patriarchal society.
• Their contributions laid the foundation for provisions ensuring equal rights and protection against discrimination in the Constitution.
• Significance of women in Indian democracy:
• The presence of women in the Constituent Assembly was a step forward in ensuring their representation in decision-making processes.
• It set a precedent for women's active involvement in politics, governance, and social movements in independent India.

Important Points

• Key facts about the Constituent Assembly:
• The Constituent Assembly was established under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
• It took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete the drafting of the Constitution.
• The Assembly held a total of 11 sessions spanning over 165 days.
• Women representatives actively participated in debates and contributed to sections like social justice, education, and fundamental rights.
• Prominent milestones:
• The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, acknowledged the contributions of all members, including women, in shaping the Constitution.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• The Nartiang Monoliths are located in the state of Meghalaya, India. They are a significant historical and cultural site.
• These monoliths are situated in the West Jaintia Hills District, specifically in the village of Nartiang, which was historically significant as the summer capital of the Jaintia kings.
• The Nartiang Monoliths comprise a large collection of standing stones, considered to be one of the largest collections of monoliths in the world.
• The monoliths are believed to be erected between the 16th and 17th centuries by the local rulers and their subjects to commemorate events, victories, and other significant occasions.
• The site reflects the rich cultural heritage and tradition of the Jaintia community and is an important location for anthropological and archaeological studies.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya:
• Meghalaya is a state located in the north-eastern region of India. The name Meghalaya translates to "Abode of Clouds" in Sanskrit.
• The state is known for its rich cultural heritage, breathtaking landscapes, and unique traditions.
• Meghalaya is famous for its living root bridges, caves, and waterfalls, such as Nohkalikai Falls, which is among the tallest waterfalls in India.
• It is also home to various indigenous tribes, including the Khasi, Garo, and Jaintia communities, who have distinct cultural practices.
• Monoliths:
• A monolith is a large, single piece of stone or rock that is often used as a monument or marker.
• In the context of Nartiang, these monoliths were erected as a form of commemoration and are deeply tied to the traditions and history of the Jaintia rulers.
• Monoliths are commonly found in prehistoric and historical sites worldwide, such as Stonehenge in England, but the Nartiang Monoliths are unique due to their sheer number and cultural significance.
• West Jaintia Hills District:
• The Nartiang Monoliths are located in this district, which is one of the 12 districts of Meghalaya.
• The district is culturally rich, primarily inhabited by the Jaintia tribe, known for their traditional practices and festivals.
• Other States Mentioned:
• Sikkim: Known for its natural beauty, Buddhist monasteries, and the Kanchenjunga mountain, but it does not house the Nartiang Monoliths.
• Himachal Pradesh: Famous for its Himalayan landscapes and temples but unrelated to the Nartiang Monoliths.
• Goa: Renowned for its beaches, Portuguese heritage, and churches, but it is not a site of monolithic structures like Nartiang.

Important Points

• The Nartiang Monoliths are recognized as a heritage site and are protected under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• They are considered a unique feature of the cultural landscape of Meghalaya and attract both domestic and international tourists.
• The site is a testimony to the rich history and tradition of the Jaintia Kingdom, which was one of the prominent kingdoms in Meghalaya.

The correct answer is Herbert Baker.

Key Points

• Herbert Baker, along with Sir Edwin Lutyens, was one of the principal architects responsible for designing the Parliament House of India.
• The Parliament House, also known as Sansad Bhavan, was built during British rule and officially inaugurated on 18 January 1927.
• Herbert Baker’s architectural style was heavily influenced by classical design principles, combined with elements of Indian architecture such as domes and chhatris.
• The design of the Parliament House reflects a circular shape inspired by the Chausath Yogini Temple in Madhya Pradesh, showcasing the fusion of Indian and Western architectural styles.
• Herbert Baker also played a significant role in designing other iconic structures in New Delhi, such as the North Block and South Block, which house key governmental offices.

Additional Information

• Charles Wyatt:
• Charles Wyatt was a British architect who primarily worked in India during the colonial period.
• He is known for designing the Royal Bombay Yacht Club and other colonial-era buildings in Mumbai but was not involved in the design of the Parliament House.
• Samuel Swinton Jacob:
• Samuel Swinton Jacob was a British architect and engineer known for his work on Indo-Saracenic architecture in Rajasthan.
• He designed prominent structures like the Albert Hall Museum in Jaipur but did not contribute to the Parliament House design.
• Frederick William Stevens:
• Frederick William Stevens was a British architect famous for designing the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus in Mumbai, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• His work was focused on Gothic Revival architecture, and he was not associated with the Parliament House.
• Key Features of the Parliament House:
• The structure has a diameter of 173 meters and a circumference of 536.33 meters, making it one of the largest legislative buildings in the world.
• The central hall is circular and is surrounded by three semi-circular chambers for the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha, and the library.
• The building is constructed using red and cream sandstone, showcasing the grandeur of colonial-era design.
• Important Points:
• The Parliament House was commissioned as part of the efforts to establish New Delhi as the capital of British India.
• Herbert Baker and Edwin Lutyens collaborated extensively to plan the architecture of New Delhi, making it a symbol of colonial prestige.
• The design incorporates Indian architectural elements to resonate with the cultural heritage of the country.

The correct answer is Squid.

Key Points

• Squids, a type of cephalopod, have a unique circulatory system consisting of three hearts. Two hearts pump blood to the gills, while the third pumps it to the rest of the body.
• The blood of squids contains hemocyanin, a copper-based molecule that gives their blood a blue color, unlike iron-based hemoglobin found in mammals.
• Squids use their circulatory system to support their active lifestyle, which includes rapid swimming and hunting. Their hearts play a vital role in maintaining oxygen flow throughout their bodies.
• Cephalopods, including squids, are known for their advanced nervous systems and complex behaviors, making them one of the most fascinating groups of marine animals.
• This adaptation is necessary for survival in deep ocean habitats where oxygen levels can be low, ensuring efficient oxygen transport to vital organs and tissues.

Additional Information

• Cephalopods:
• Cephalopods include squids, octopuses, cuttlefish, and nautiluses. They are marine mollusks with bilateral symmetry, a prominent head, and tentacles.
• They are known for their intelligence, ability to camouflage, and unique locomotion using jet propulsion.
• Squids can grow to various sizes, from the small reef squids to the giant squid, which can reach lengths of up to 12-14 meters.
• Copper-Based Blood:
• Unlike humans, squids use hemocyanin, which is more efficient at transporting oxygen in cold and low-oxygen environments.
• The copper in hemocyanin is responsible for the blue coloration of their blood.
• Comparison with Other Animals:
• Boar: Boars, like other mammals, have a single heart that pumps oxygenated blood throughout their bodies.
• Whale: Whales are marine mammals with a single heart adapted to pump blood efficiently during long dives in deep oceans.
• Koala: Koalas, native to Australia, also have a single heart similar to other terrestrial mammals.
• Squid Facts:
• Squids are found in oceans worldwide and play a vital role in the marine food chain as both predators and prey.
• They have a short lifespan, typically ranging from 1 to 3 years, depending on the species.
• Some squid species are bioluminescent, using light-producing organs called photophores to communicate or evade predators.

The correct answer is 75 cm.

Key Points

• Dryland farming in India is primarily practiced in regions with annual rainfall less than 75 cm. This agricultural method is adapted to arid and semi-arid areas where water availability is limited.
• Regions with rainfall below 75 cm often experience water scarcity, making dryland farming techniques essential for sustaining agricultural productivity.
• Dryland farming incorporates practices like conservation tillage, mulching, and the use of drought-resistant crops to ensure adequate yield despite limited rainfall.
• It is significant in states such as Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, and parts of Andhra Pradesh, which have low to moderate rainfall.
• This agricultural approach supports crops like millets, pulses, oilseeds, and sorghum, which are well-suited to thrive under dry conditions.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Dryland Farming:
• Dryland farming is practiced in areas with low rainfall, typically ranging from 50 cm to 75 cm per year.
• The soil in dryland regions often has low moisture retention capacity, making water conservation techniques critical.
• Farmers adopt practices like stubble mulching and contour plowing to reduce water loss and prevent soil erosion.
• Crops Grown in Dryland Farming:
• Crops such as millets (e.g., pearl millet and finger millet), sorghum, chickpeas, and oilseeds (e.g., groundnut and mustard) are commonly cultivated under dryland farming systems.
• These crops are known for their drought tolerance and ability to survive in water-deficient conditions.
• Regions Practicing Dryland Farming in India:
• Dryland farming is prevalent in states like Rajasthan, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and parts of Gujarat.
• In these areas, agriculture depends heavily on rainfall, and irrigation facilities are limited.
• Challenges in Dryland Farming:
• Water scarcity: Limited rainfall and inadequate irrigation facilities pose significant challenges.
• Soil erosion: Due to the absence of vegetation and heavy reliance on rain-fed cultivation, dryland areas are prone to erosion.
• Low productivity: Dryland farming often results in lower yields compared to irrigated farming.
• Importance of Dryland Farming:
• Dryland farming contributes to food security by producing staple crops in regions unsuitable for irrigated agriculture.
• It supports the livelihood of farmers in arid and semi-arid areas by utilizing land that cannot support high-water-demand crops.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives:
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) launched by the Indian government aims to promote sustainable practices in dryland farming.
• Programs like Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) focus on water conservation and soil management in dryland areas.
• Drought-Resistant Seeds:
• Research institutions like ICRISAT (International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics) develop drought-resistant crops to enhance productivity in dryland regions.

The correct answer is Cheraw.

Key Points

• Cheraw, also known as the Bamboo Dance, is a traditional dance form of the Mizo community in Mizoram.
• It involves performers stepping in and out of bamboo poles that are rhythmically clapped together on the ground.
• The dance is often performed during festivals and celebrations, such as the Chapchar Kut, which is a significant harvest festival of Mizoram.
• Cheraw symbolizes the harmony between humans and nature, as the bamboo poles represent natural elements.
• The dance requires immense coordination, balance, and agility from the performers, making it a captivating and culturally rich spectacle.

Additional Information

• Lahoo:
• This is a traditional dance form of the Khasi tribe in Meghalaya.
• Performed during celebrations, it involves men and women dancing together to the beats of drums and bamboo-based instruments.
• Lahoo symbolizes social unity and joy among the Khasi community.
• Nongkrem:
• Nongkrem Dance is a religious and cultural dance performed by the Khasi community in Meghalaya.
• The dance is part of the Nongkrem Festival, where prayers are offered for a bountiful harvest and prosperity.
• It is performed by young women dressed in traditional attire, accompanied by men playing traditional instruments.
• Behdienkhlam:
• Behdienkhlam is a festival of the Pnar tribe in Meghalaya, celebrated to drive away evil spirits and bring prosperity.
• It involves rituals, prayers, and dances performed in sacred locations.
• The festival is deeply rooted in the spiritual beliefs of the Pnar people.
• Cheraw:
• Cheraw is unique to Mizoram and showcases the Mizo culture through its intricate dance steps.
• The bamboo poles used in the dance symbolize strength and flexibility, qualities revered by the community.
• It is performed during significant events like harvest festivals and serves as an important cultural marker for the Mizos.

Important Points

• Chapchar Kut:
• It is one of the major festivals of Mizoram celebrated after clearing the forests for jhum cultivation.
• Cheraw Dance is an integral part of this festival, showcasing the community's joy and cultural richness.
• Symbolism of Bamboo:
• The bamboo poles used in Cheraw signify harmony, strength, and connection to nature.
• Bamboo holds a special place in Mizo tradition, often used in daily life and cultural practices.

The correct answer is Tue Jan 01 2019 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

• As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the implementation of chip-based ATM cards became mandatory to enhance security features and prevent frauds like card skimming and cloning.
• The transition from magnetic stripe ATM cards to EMV chip-based cards officially started on January 1, 2019, making non-chip cards unacceptable for transactions.
• The EMV (Europay, MasterCard, and Visa) chip technology provides a unique cryptogram for every transaction, ensuring better protection against unauthorized access.
• All banks were directed to replace their customers' old magnetic stripe cards with chip-based cards before the deadline to comply with RBI's mandate.
• This move was part of the broader initiative to increase cybersecurity in banking transactions and protect customers from potential financial fraud.

Additional Information

• EMV Chip Technology:
• EMV stands for Europay, MasterCard, and Visa—the companies that developed the technology.
• EMV cards store data on integrated chips instead of traditional magnetic stripes, making them harder to duplicate.
• They require a PIN or signature for authentication during transactions, enhancing security.
• RBI Guidelines:
• The Reserve Bank of India issued a circular mandating the switch to chip-based cards to curb frauds.
• Banks were asked to stop issuing magnetic stripe cards after 2018.
• Customers were advised to replace their old cards with chip-based ones to continue using ATM and POS services.
• Impact of the Transition:
• The move ensured improved cardholder data protection and reduced cases of financial fraud.
• It also aligned India with global standards in card payment security.
• Important Points:
• The transition deadline was set to January 1, 2019, as per RBI directives.
• Chip-based cards comply with international standards, making them usable globally.
• Banks provided chip cards free of cost to existing customers during the transition period.

The correct answer is Right to Freedom.

Key Points

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental Right to Freedom to all citizens of India. This article is essential for ensuring civil liberties and democracy.
• It provides six specific freedoms to Indian citizens:
• Freedom of speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a)).
• Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms (Article 19(1)(b)).
• Freedom to form associations or unions (Article 19(1)(c)).
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India (Article 19(1)(d)).
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India (Article 19(1)(e)).
• Freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business (Article 19(1)(g)).
• The freedoms granted under Article 19 are subject to certain "reasonable restrictions" imposed by the state, in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, public order, decency, morality, or the security of the state.
• These rights are fundamental in the sense that they are enforceable by the judiciary, and any law or order infringing upon them can be declared unconstitutional.
• The Right to Freedom is part of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, highlighting its critical role in ensuring individual liberty.

Additional Information

• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32):
• Article 32 allows citizens to move directly to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar referred to Article 32 as the "heart and soul" of the Indian Constitution.
• It provides remedies such as writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto) to enforce these rights.
• Right to Education (Article 21A):
• Inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, this article provides the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14.
• The RTE Act, 2009 enforces this provision and ensures that every child has access to basic education.
• Right to Information (RTI Act, 2005):
• The RTI Act empowers citizens to request information from public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability in governance.
• It is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but is derived from the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(1)(a)) and the Right to Life (Article 21).
• Other Related Fundamental Rights:
• Part III of the Indian Constitution includes other critical rights like the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) and the Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
• These rights collectively aim to protect individual freedoms and promote social justice.
• Important Points:
• The freedoms under Article 19 are not absolute and can be restricted under specific conditions such as national security, public order, or morality.
• The judiciary plays a crucial role in interpreting and safeguarding these rights in case of disputes.
• Article 19 is applicable only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The state of Odisha received the prestigious Sportstar Aces Award for "Best State for Promotion of Sports" in January 2020.
• Odisha has been recognized for its exceptional efforts in creating world-class sports infrastructure and hosting major national and international sporting events.
• The state government has been consistently promoting sports through initiatives like Khelo India and by establishing high-performance centers for various sports disciplines.
• Odisha is known for hosting events such as the Men’s Hockey World Cup 2018 and the Asian Athletics Championships 2017, which have significantly boosted the state's reputation as a sports hub.
• The state has also partnered with private entities to develop training facilities for athletes and has invested heavily in programs aimed at nurturing grassroots talent.

Additional Information

• Sports Infrastructure in Odisha:
• Odisha boasts state-of-the-art sports facilities, including the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, which is equipped to host international-level tournaments.
• The state government has invested in establishing high-performance centers for hockey, athletics, badminton, and football.
• Odisha has partnered with organizations like the Abhinav Bindra Targeting Performance (ABTP) and the JSW Sports to enhance athlete training programs.
• Notable Sporting Events Hosted by Odisha:
• The state hosted the Men’s Hockey World Cup in 2018, which drew international attention to its sporting capabilities.
• Odisha organized the Asian Athletics Championships in 2017, showcasing its ability to host large-scale sporting events.
• It has also hosted other significant tournaments, such as the Indian Super League (ISL) matches and the Hockey India League.
• Grassroots Talent Development:
• The Odisha government has introduced programs aimed at identifying and nurturing young sporting talent from rural and tribal regions.
• Special focus is given to sports like hockey, with initiatives to promote the sport in tribal areas, where it has a strong cultural significance.
• The state also organizes regular training camps and tournaments to provide exposure to budding athletes.
• Other States’ Contributions to Sports:
• Manipur: Known for producing exceptional athletes, especially in sports like boxing and weightlifting. It has contributed players like M.C. Mary Kom to the national and international sports arena.
• Punjab: Renowned for its excellence in hockey and kabaddi, Punjab has consistently contributed players to national teams in these sports.
• Haryana: A hub for wrestling and boxing, Haryana has produced numerous Olympians and Commonwealth Games medalists.

Important Points

• Odisha Government’s Investment in Sports:
• The Odisha government has allocated significant budgets for the development of sports infrastructure and athlete training programs.
• It offers scholarships and financial assistance to athletes, ensuring they receive adequate support for their training and participation in events.
• Recognition for Odisha’s Efforts:
• Odisha’s efforts in promoting sports have earned it national and international accolades, including the Sportstar Aces Award in 2020.
• The state’s model of public-private partnership in sports development is considered exemplary.

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• In December 2019, the Government of India identified 14 sports disciplines to be developed as potential medal prospects for the 2024 and 2028 Olympics.
• The initiative was launched under the 'One State, One Game' scheme, aiming to ensure focused efforts in nurturing sports talent within specific states.
• The sports disciplines selected included wrestling, badminton, hockey, archery, athletics, shooting, weightlifting, and others, which India has traditionally performed well in.
• This scheme involved partnerships between the central government and state governments to identify, train, and support talented athletes.
• The primary objective was to improve India's performance at international sports events by providing targeted resources and training facilities to athletes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• ‘One State, One Game’ Initiative:
• This program was devised to allocate specific sports disciplines to states based on their geographical, cultural, and historical association with the sport.
• For instance, Haryana is associated with wrestling, Punjab with hockey, and Kerala with athletics.
• State governments were tasked with the responsibility of identifying athletes, creating training infrastructure, and promoting the sport within their jurisdiction.
• India's Olympic Aspirations:
• India's performance at the Olympics has seen gradual improvement, especially in disciplines like shooting, wrestling, badminton, and athletics.
• Targeting the 2024 Paris Olympics and 2028 Los Angeles Olympics, the government aims to increase the medal tally significantly.
• Specialized initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) complement the ‘One State, One Game’ initiative to ensure holistic athlete development.
• Sports Identified for Development:
• The 14 sports disciplines include boxing, judo, cycling, fencing, table tennis, and gymnastics, apart from traditional strengths like shooting and hockey.
• These disciplines were chosen based on India's past performance, potential medal prospects, and existing infrastructure.
• Role of State Governments:
• State governments play a crucial role in implementing this initiative by allocating funds, setting up sports academies, and hiring expert coaches.
• States are encouraged to collaborate with private entities and sports organizations to ensure success.

Important Points

• Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS):
• Launched in 2014, the TOPS scheme is aimed at identifying and supporting elite athletes with the potential to win Olympic medals.
• It provides financial support, world-class coaching facilities, and exposure to international competitions.
• Khelo India Program:
• The Khelo India initiative is another flagship program to promote sports at the grassroots level.
• It focuses on identifying young talent and supporting them through scholarships, coaching, and infrastructure development.
• India's Medals at Tokyo 2020:
• India won a record 7 medals at the Tokyo Olympics, including a historic gold in athletics by Neeraj Chopra.
• Disciplines like badminton, wrestling, and hockey also contributed to the medal tally.

The correct answer is Teimour Radjabov.

Key Points

• Teimour Radjabov, a renowned chess grandmaster from Azerbaijan, won the FIDE World Cup 2019. This was a remarkable achievement in his chess career.
• The tournament was held in Khanty-Mansiysk, Russia, from September 9 to October 4, 2019.
• Radjabov defeated Ding Liren of China in the final match, which ended in a tie after classical games but was decided in favor of Radjabov in the rapid tiebreakers.
• The victory secured Radjabov a prize of USD 110,000 and a spot in the Candidates Tournament for the World Chess Championship.
• Radjabov is known for his solid and strategic style of play, and this victory marked his return to the highest level of competitive chess after a period of reduced activity.

Additional Information

• FIDE World Cup:
• The FIDE World Cup is a biennial chess tournament organized by the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
• It follows a knockout format, with players competing in mini-matches consisting of classical, rapid, and blitz games in case of ties.
• The tournament is part of the qualification cycle for the World Chess Championship.
• Teimour Radjabov:
• Born on March 12, 1987, in Baku, Azerbaijan, Radjabov became a Grandmaster at the age of 14.
• He is known for defeating Garry Kasparov in 2003, becoming one of the youngest players to ever defeat the former World Chess Champion.
• Radjabov's playing style is characterized by his versatility and strong defensive skills.
• Ding Liren:
• Ding Liren is a Chinese Grandmaster and one of the top-ranked players in the world.
• He was the runner-up in the FIDE World Cup 2019 and is known for his consistent and creative gameplay.
• Other Notable Participants:
• Magnus Carlsen, the reigning World Chess Champion, did not participate in the 2019 World Cup.
• Maxime Vachier-Lagrave, a top French Grandmaster, also participated but did not reach the finals.
• Significance of the Victory:
• Winning the FIDE World Cup is a prestigious achievement and often serves as a stepping stone to the World Chess Championship.
• It also highlights Radjabov's return to the elite level of chess after a hiatus.

The correct answer is It buys government securities in the open market..

Key Points

• The Central Bank, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), uses the Open Market Operations (OMO) as a key monetary policy tool to regulate the money supply in the economy.
• When the Central Bank buys government securities in the open market, it injects liquidity into the banking system, thereby increasing the money supply. This is generally done to stimulate economic growth during periods of sluggish economic activity.
• Purchasing government securities results in more funds being available with commercial banks, which enhances their capacity to lend money to businesses and individuals, fostering investment and consumption.
• This action is part of an expansionary monetary policy, which aims to promote economic activity by encouraging borrowing and spending.
• Unlike other options mentioned in the question, this specific measure directly affects the money supply in the economy by increasing the availability of funds in the financial system.

Additional Information

• Open Market Operations (OMO):
• OMO refers to the buying and selling of government securities in the open market by the Central Bank to control liquidity in the economy.
• When the Central Bank buys securities, it increases the money supply. Conversely, selling securities reduces the money supply, which is used to curb inflation.
• In India, the RBI conducts OMO under its monetary policy framework to achieve price stability and economic growth.
• Monetary Policy Tools:
• Aside from OMO, the Central Bank uses tools such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Repo Rate to regulate the economy.
• For example, a reduction in the repo rate can encourage borrowing by reducing the cost of funds for banks.
• Expansionary vs. Contractionary Policies:
• An expansionary monetary policy, like buying government securities, aims to boost economic growth by increasing the money supply.
• A contractionary monetary policy, on the other hand, involves selling securities to reduce liquidity and control inflation.
• Government Securities:
• These are debt instruments issued by the government to finance its fiscal deficit and borrowing requirements.
• Examples of government securities in India include Treasury Bills (T-bills) and Government Bonds.
• Important Points:
• The Central Bank uses OMOs in coordination with other monetary tools to balance inflation and growth.
• For example, during the COVID-19 pandemic, the RBI purchased government securities to ensure adequate liquidity and support economic recovery.

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment.

Key Points

• The term 'socialist' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• This amendment is also known as the ‘Mini-Constitution’ due to the extensive changes it brought to the Constitution.
• The inclusion of the term 'socialist' aimed to reflect India’s commitment to achieving economic and social equality, ensuring no concentration of wealth and providing equal opportunities to all.
• This amendment was enacted during the period of Emergency (1975-77), under the leadership of then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The Preamble now describes India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic, highlighting the core values of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• 42nd Amendment Act of 1976:
• Also known as the 'Mini-Constitution', this amendment made numerous changes to the Constitution, including the addition of the terms 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' to the Preamble.
• The amendment strengthened the power of the central government and curtailed the powers of the judiciary.
• It introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties for citizens under Part IV-A of the Constitution.
• Socialist Ideals in the Indian Context:
• The term 'socialist' in the Preamble implies the achievement of social and economic justice through democratic means.
• India adopts a mixed economy model, combining features of both capitalism and socialism.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution) reflect the principles of socialism by aiming to reduce income inequality and promote social welfare.
• Important Amendments to the Preamble:
• The 42nd Amendment is the only amendment to date that has directly modified the Preamble of the Constitution.
• It added the words 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' to the existing text.
• Other Significant Amendments:
• 44th Amendment Act (1978): It reversed some provisions of the 42nd Amendment, such as restoring the judiciary's powers and providing safeguards against misuse of Emergency provisions.
• 73rd and 74th Amendments: These amendments established constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies, respectively.
• Key Historical Context:
• The 42nd Amendment was enacted during the Emergency (1975-77), a period marked by political turmoil and centralization of power.
• The amendment aimed to align the Constitution with the ideology of the ruling government at that time.

Important Points

• Significance of the Preamble:
• The Preamble serves as an introduction to the Constitution, outlining its objectives and guiding principles.
• It declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic, emphasizing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
• Judicial Interpretation:
• In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be used to interpret ambiguities in the text.

The correct answer is MANI.

Key Points

• MANI stands for Mobile Aided Note Identifier, a mobile application launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• This app was introduced on January 1, 2020, with the aim of assisting visually impaired individuals in identifying the denomination of Indian currency notes.
• The application uses image recognition technology to scan and identify the denomination of currency notes, even those that are folded or partially visible.
• MANI supports multiple languages to ensure ease of use for people across different regions of India.
• The app does not authenticate the genuineness of notes but focuses solely on denomination identification. It is available for download on both Android and iOS platforms.

Additional Information

• RBI's Role in Currency Management:
• The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for the design, production, and overall management of currency notes in India.
• It ensures that notes are accessible to all citizens, including individuals with disabilities, through innovative solutions like MANI.
• RBI has introduced several features on Indian currency notes, such as tactile marks for visually impaired individuals.
• Features of MANI App:
• The app uses camera-based scanning to identify denominations without relying on the internet.
• It provides audio and visual feedback to indicate the denomination of the scanned note.
• The app is compatible with all denominations issued by the RBI, including new notes introduced after demonetization in 2016.
• Accessibility Initiatives in India:
• India has launched several programs under the Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan) to promote inclusivity for individuals with disabilities.
• Accessibility measures include tactile currency notes, accessible websites, and mobile apps like MANI.
• Global Context:
• Countries like the United States, Australia, and Canada have introduced tactile features and mobile apps to assist visually impaired individuals in identifying currency denominations.
• India's MANI app is a significant step in aligning with global standards of inclusivity and accessibility.

Important Points

• Currency Denominations:
• Indian currency notes are issued in denominations of ₹10, ₹20, ₹50, ₹100, ₹200, ₹500, and ₹2000.
• The RBI periodically updates the design and security features of notes to prevent counterfeiting.
• Technology in Banking:
• Advancements in Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) are being used to enhance banking accessibility.
• Apps like MANI demonstrate the use of technology to create inclusive solutions for individuals with disabilities.

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• The Lower Gangetic Plain is an important geographical region of India, primarily comprising the states of Bihar, West Bengal, and parts of Jharkhand. It extends into the neighbouring country of Bangladesh.
• Bangladesh is located to the east of India and shares a significant portion of its geography with the Lower Gangetic Plain. The plain continues seamlessly into Bangladesh, forming the Ganges Delta, also known as the Sundarbans Delta.
• The Lower Gangetic Plain is a part of the larger Indo-Gangetic Plain. This fertile region is formed by the deposition of sediments brought by the Ganges and its tributaries such as the Hooghly River in West Bengal and the Padma River in Bangladesh.
• The region in Bangladesh is characterized by a network of rivers including the Padma, Brahmaputra, and Meghna, which form one of the world's largest river deltas.
• Other neighbouring countries like Bhutan, Myanmar, and Nepal are geographically distinct from the Lower Gangetic Plain and do not share this specific geographical feature. Therefore, the correct answer is Bangladesh.

Additional Information

• About the Lower Gangetic Plain:
• The Lower Gangetic Plain is part of the Indo-Gangetic plain, a vast and fertile plain that stretches across northern India, Pakistan, and parts of Bangladesh.
• This plain is formed by the deposition of alluvial soil by the Ganges and its tributaries, making it one of the most fertile regions in the world.
• The region supports intensive agriculture, including crops like rice, jute, and sugarcane, which thrive due to the availability of water and fertile soil.
• Ganges Delta in Bangladesh:
• In Bangladesh, the Ganges River is known as the Padma. The river joins with the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) and Meghna rivers to form the Ganges Delta.
• The delta is the largest in the world and is often referred to as the Sundarbans Delta due to the Sundarbans mangrove forest located in the region.
• The delta is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is home to a diverse ecosystem, including the famous Royal Bengal Tiger.
• Other Neighbouring Countries:
• Bhutan: This Himalayan country lies to the north of West Bengal and Assam, but it is not part of the Gangetic Plain as it is a mountainous region.
• Myanmar: Myanmar lies to the east of India but does not share the geography of the Lower Gangetic Plain as it is separated by mountains.
• Nepal: Located to the north of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, Nepal is a landlocked country dominated by the Himalayan Mountain Range, distinct from the plains.
• Importance of the Lower Gangetic Plain:
• The region is a critical agricultural hub for both India and Bangladesh, contributing significantly to food production and the economy.
• The Ganges and its tributaries provide irrigation, drinking water, and transportation, supporting millions of people in the region.
• The Sundarbans region, shared between India and Bangladesh, plays a crucial role in environmental conservation and biodiversity.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize is one of the most prestigious awards in India for recognizing excellence in scientific research.
• In 2019, a total of 12 scientists were awarded this prize across various disciplines of science, including Physical Sciences, Biological Sciences, Chemical Sciences, and Engineering Sciences.
• The award is named after Dr. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, who was the first Director-General of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
• The CSIR is responsible for organizing and conferring this award annually to scientists under the age of 45 years for their contributions to science and technology.
• The recipients are selected based on their significant contributions to their respective fields and achievements that have advanced scientific knowledge.

Additional Information

• Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize:
• This award is given annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), which is the largest research and development organization in India.
• The award was established in 1958 to recognize and promote outstanding contributions in the field of science and technology.
• It includes a cash prize of Rs. 5 lakh, a citation, and a plaque.
• The award categories cover various disciplines such as Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics, Engineering, Medicine, and Environmental Sciences.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• The award is open to Indian scientists working in India or abroad.
• The recipient must be under the age of 45 years as of the year of the award.
• Significant contributions to scientific research that advance knowledge and have a direct impact on innovation are essential.
• Important Achievements:
• Over the years, the award has been instrumental in encouraging and motivating scientists to excel in their respective fields.
• Many recipients of the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize have gone on to become leaders in science and technology globally.
• Notable Names:
• Several distinguished scientists such as C.N.R. Rao, R. Chidambaram, and Vikram Sarabhai have been recipients of this prestigious award.

Important Points

• Scientific Contributions:
• The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize recognizes groundbreaking work in scientific research, which often has practical applications in industries like healthcare, engineering, and technology.
• The award encourages young scientists to pursue innovative research and contribute to global scientific knowledge.
• Impact of the Award:
• The recognition and financial rewards associated with the award provide recipients with the resources and motivation to continue their research.
• The award contributes to fostering a culture of scientific excellence in India, helping the nation make significant strides in global scientific achievements.

The correct answer is 201.

Key Points

• Under Mission Indradhanush, launched in 2014, the Government of India aimed to increase the immunisation coverage in the country.
• The mission identified 201 focus districts across 28 states with the highest number of partially immunised and unimmunised children.
• The programme sought to achieve full immunisation coverage of children under the age of two years and pregnant women.
• These districts were targeted for intensified immunisation drives with the aim of achieving at least 90% immunisation coverage by 2020.
• The identified districts accounted for a significant proportion of children who missed routine immunisation, making them critical to achieving national immunisation goals.

Additional Information

• Mission Indradhanush:
• Launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on 25th December 2014, the mission aimed to immunise children and pregnant women who were left out or missed routine immunisation.
• The programme includes vaccines for 12 vaccine-preventable diseases, such as tuberculosis, polio, hepatitis B, diphtheria, tetanus, and measles, among others.
• The mission operates through campaigns, often conducted in cycles of seven working days, followed by a period of data assessment and planning.
• Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI):
• In October 2017, the government launched IMI to further accelerate the coverage and reach of immunisation.
• IMI focused on 173 districts and 17 urban areas identified as having low immunisation coverage.
• It introduced a more structured and rigorous approach with cross-departmental coordination to ensure better results.
• Impact of Mission Indradhanush:
• The mission has significantly improved immunisation coverage, with India’s full immunisation coverage increasing to 76.4% by 2020, compared to 62% in 2015.
• It contributed to reducing child mortality rates and improved the health outcomes of children in vulnerable and underserved populations.
• Important Features of Mission Indradhanush:
• Targeting unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children in hard-to-reach areas, including urban slums and tribal populations.
• Collaboration with various ministries like Women and Child Development, Panchayati Raj, and Urban Development for better implementation.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Both are obtained by multiplying by 3.2.

Now,

For, 20 : 64 

⇒ 20 → 64

For, 70 : 224

⇒ 70 → 224.

Similarly, for 45 : ?

⇒ 45 × 3.2 = 144

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: Mirror image is the inversion of original image.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The given pattern will complete the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each next figure is opposite in direction to the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 14 - 7 ÷ 2 + 9 × 3 = 3

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

Option 1)   + and÷

14 − 7 + 2 ÷ 9 × 3

⇒ 14 − 7 + 0.66 = 7.66 ≠ 3

Option 2)  ÷ and ×

14 − 7 × 2 + 9 ÷ 3

⇒ 14 − 14 + 3 = 3

Option 3)  × and –

14 × 7 ÷ 2 + 9 − 3

⇒ 49 + 9 − 3 = 55 ≠ 3

Option 4)   × and +

14 − 7 ÷ 2 × 9 + 3

⇒ 14 − 0.39 + 3 = 16.61 ≠ 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Solar System: The largest class, containing the Sun and all objects orbiting it.

Earth: A planet that orbits the Sun and is part of the Solar System.

Venus: A planet that orbits the Sun and is part of the Solar System.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The number of student players who are musicians corresponds to the region that is common to all three figures: the Triangle (Student), the Circle (Player), and the Rectangle (Musician).

So, There are 6 students players who are musicians.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number × 6 and × 9

Now, checking the options given:

Option 1) 6, 36, 54

36 = 6 × 6 and 54 = 6 × 9 

Option 2) 13, 78, 104

78 = 13 × 6 but 104 = 13 × 8

Option 3) 16, 96, 144

96 = 16 × 6 and 144 = 16 × 9

Option 4) 5, 30, 45

30 = 5 × 6 and 45 = 5 × 9

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Surya has ₹1,500.

He buys a shirt for ₹1,000, so the remaining money = 1,500 − 1,000 = ₹500.

He sells the shirt at a profit of 25% on ₹1,000:

Selling price = 1,000 + 25% of 1,000

= 1,000 + 250 = ₹1,250

Now, total money with Surya = remaining money + selling price

= 500 + 1,250 = ₹1,750

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The arrows are adjusted in a rotational sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

From the given open Dice:

From Cube 1: O and

are adjacent to X.

From Cube 3:O and

are adjacent to X.

Total adjacent to X: O,

, and

.

Now,

The Rectangle

is opposite the Star

So, The face at the bottom when the star-like figure is at the top will be the face opposite the star.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The given pattern will complete the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: The Pattern will be 4 times in the unfolded paper.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Adding +1 to each letters position.

For, "VENUS" is written as "236152220"

Similarly,  'EARTH' will be written as:

Thus,  'EARTH'  will be written as 6219219 in the given language.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each next figure is more prominent than the previous.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each figure have one kind of shape arranged in different ways.

Figure 2 have 2 kinds of shapes. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are opposite in meaning to one another.

Disrespect – Lack of respect; rude or insulting behaviour

Acceptability – The quality of being accepted or approved

Discord – Disagreement, conflict, or lack of harmony

Oppose – To resist or fight against something

Agreement and struggle are opposites (agreement ↔ disagreement/struggle).

Similarly, resistance and acceptability (acceptance) are opposites.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

Vowels are coded by their index among vowels.

Consonants are coded by (27 − their alphabet position)

Given:

ENDORSE' is written as '2-13-23-4-9-8-2'

Similarly, 'HARMONY' will be written:

So,  19-1-9-14-4-13-2 is the code for 'HARMONY' in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: From left to right, the three symbols rotate in position within the box.

Their order stays the same, but their location shifts cyclically.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each next figure and rotate it 90° clockwise.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "378" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The bottom face is always the one opposite the top face.

So, From Dice 1, Dice 2 and Dice 3.

 

The numbers that appear in the same sequence position are opposite each other:

2 is opposite 4.

6 is opposite 5.

So, the number 5 is at the top, the number at the bottom must be 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Similar infrastructure and their overall names.

Here, Dining room, Kitchen, and Drawing room are specific rooms.

"Home" refers to the entire dwelling.

So, Home is odd from others.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

Volume of the cone = 144π cm³

Height (h) = 2 × radius (r)

Formula Used:

Volume of a cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Curved surface area of a cone = π × r × l, where l = √(r² + h²)

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × π × r² × h

⇒ 144π = (1/3) × π × r² × (2r)

⇒ 144π = (2/3) × π × r³

⇒ r³ = 144 × (3/2)

⇒ r³ = 216

⇒ r = ∛216 = 6

⇒ h = 2r = 2 × 6 = 12

⇒ l = √(r² + h²)

⇒ l = √(6² + 12²)

⇒ l = √(36 + 144)

⇒ l = √180

⇒ l = 6√5

Curved surface area = π × r × l

⇒ Curved surface area = π × 6 × 6√5

⇒ Curved surface area = 36√5π

∴ The correct answer is 36√5π.

Given:

Speed of Train A = 60 km/h

Speed of Train B = 48 km/h

Crossing time = 20 s

Length of Train B = 1.5 × Length of Train A

Train B passes tunnel in 57 s

Formula Used:

Relative speed (opposite direction) = speed_A + speed_B

Speed (m/s) = speed (km/h) ÷ 3.6

Total crossing length = relative speed × time

Tunnel length = total distance while passing tunnel − length of train

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 60 + 48 = 108 km/h

⇒ Relative speed = 108 ÷ 3.6 = 30 m/s

⇒ Total crossing length = 30 × 20 = 600

⇒ Let length of Train A = L

⇒ Length of Train B = 1.5L

⇒ L + 1.5L = 600

⇒ 2.5L = 600

⇒ L = 600 ÷ 2.5 = 240

⇒ Length of Train B = 1.5 × 240 = 360

⇒ Speed of Train B = 48 ÷ 3.6 = 13.33 m/s

⇒ Distance covered while passing tunnel = 13.33 × 57 = 760

⇒ Tunnel length = 760 − 360

⇒ Tunnel length = 400

∴ The correct answer is 400.

Given:

Two numbers differ by 1208.

Quotient when the greater number is divided by the smaller = 4.

Remainder = 182.

Formula Used:

Greater number = Smaller number × Quotient + Remainder

Difference between numbers = Greater number - Smaller number

Calculation:

Let the smaller number be x.

⇒ Greater number = 4x + 182

Given difference between numbers:

⇒ (4x + 182) - x = 1208

⇒ 3x + 182 = 1208

⇒ 3x = 1208 - 182

⇒ 3x = 1026

⇒ x = 1026 / 3

⇒ x = 342

Greater number:

⇒ 4x + 182 = 4(342) + 182

⇒ 1368 + 182

⇒ 1550

∴ The correct answer is 1550.

Given:

Amount after 3 years = ₹8,283

Amount after 7 years = ₹10,527

Rate of interest = Same for both cases

Time difference = 7 years - 3 years = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Principal × Rate × Time / 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

Amount for 7 years - Amount for 3 years = Simple Interest for 4 years

⇒ ₹10,527 - ₹8,283 = ₹2,244

Simple Interest for 4 years = ₹2,244

Simple Interest for 1 year = ₹2,244 / 4

⇒ ₹561

Principal (x) = Amount after 3 years - SI for 3 years

SI for 3 years = ₹561 × 3

⇒ ₹1,683

Principal (x) = ₹8,283 - ₹1,683

⇒ ₹6,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,600.

Given:

Numbers in proportion: 6 + x, 12 + x, 18 + x, 28 + x

Formula Used:

a : b = c : d ⇒ a × d = b × c

Calculation:

⇒ (6 + x)(28 + x) = (12 + x)(18 + x)

⇒ (6 × 28) + 6x + 28x + x² = (12 × 18) + 12x + 18x + x²

⇒ 168 + 34x + x² = 216 + 30x + x²

⇒ 34x − 30x = 216 − 168

⇒ 4x = 48

⇒ x = 12

⇒ (5x − 8) : (x + 4) = (5×12 − 8) : (12 + 4)

⇒ (60 − 8) : 16

⇒ 52 : 16

⇒ 13 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 13 : 4.

Given:

Percentage of boys = 60%

Percentage of girls = 40%

Pass percentage among boys = 45%

Overall pass percentage = 58%

Formula Used:

Overall pass percentage = (Percentage of boys × Pass percentage of boys + Percentage of girls × Pass percentage of girls) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ 58 = (60 × 45 + 40 × Pass percentage of girls) / 100

⇒ 58 × 100 = (60 × 45) + (40 × Pass percentage of girls)

⇒ 5800 = 2700 + (40 × Pass percentage of girls)

⇒ 5800 - 2700 = 40 × Pass percentage of girls

⇒ 3100 = 40 × Pass percentage of girls

⇒ Pass percentage of girls = 3100 / 40

⇒ Pass percentage of girls = 77.5%

∴ The correct answer is 77.5%.

Given:

Remainder with 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 = 1

Number is between 500 and 600

Formula Used:

Number ≡ 1 (mod LCM)

LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 = 60

Calculation:

⇒ Number = 60k + 1

⇒ Values between 500 and 600: 60×8 + 1 = 481, 60×9 + 1 = 541, 60×10 + 1 = 601

⇒ Only 541 lies between 500 and 600

⇒ Sum of digits = 5 + 4 + 1 = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Given:

Amount after 2 years at 15% p.a. compounded 8-monthly = 23958

Time = 2 years

We need amount at 12% p.a. compounded yearly

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r)ⁿ

Principal = Amount ÷ (1 + r)ⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ One compounding period = 8 months = 2/3 year

⇒ Number of periods in 2 years = 2 ÷ (2/3)

⇒ Number of periods = 3

⇒ Rate per period = 15% × (2/3) = 10%

⇒ Principal = 23958 ÷ (1.10)³

⇒ (1.10)³ = 1.331

⇒ Principal = 23958 ÷ 1.331

⇒ Principal = 18000

⇒ Required amount at 12% p.a. compounded yearly:

⇒ Amount = 18000 × (1.12)²

⇒ (1.12)² = 1.2544

⇒ Amount = 18000 × 1.2544

⇒ Amount = 22579.2

∴ The correct answer is 22579.

Given:

A is 30% more than B.

B is 20% less than C.

D is 20% less than A.

Formula Used:

A = B + (30% of B) = B × (1 + 30/100)

B = C - (20% of C) = C × (1 - 20/100)

D = A - (20% of A) = A × (1 - 20/100)

Percentage difference = ((Value 1 - Value 2) / Value 2) × 100

Calculation:

Let C = 100 (assume for simplicity).

⇒ B = C × (1 - 20/100) = 100 × 0.8 = 80

⇒ A = B × (1 + 30/100) = 80 × 1.3 = 104

⇒ D = A × (1 - 20/100) = 104 × 0.8 = 83.2

Now calculate percentage differences:

1. C is how much more than D:

⇒ Percentage difference = ((C - D) / D) × 100

⇒ Percentage difference = ((100 - 83.2) / 83.2) × 100 = (16.8 / 83.2) × 100 = 16.8%

2. B is how much less than D:

⇒ Percentage difference = ((D - B) / D) × 100

⇒ Percentage difference = ((83.2 - 80) / 83.2) × 100 = (3.2 / 83.2) × 100 = 3.85% ≈ 4%

3. D is how much more than B:

⇒ Percentage difference = ((D - B) / B) × 100

⇒ Percentage difference = ((83.2 - 80) / 80) × 100 = (3.2 / 80) × 100 = 4%

4. C is how much less than A:

⇒ Percentage difference = ((A - C) / A) × 100

⇒ Percentage difference = ((104 - 100) / 104) × 100 = (4 / 104) × 100 = 3.85% ≈ 4%

∴ The correct answer is D is 4% more than B.

Given:

Cost Price (C.P.) = ₹1,080

Gain = 20%

Discount = 28%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (S.P.) = C.P. × (1 + Gain/100)

Marked Price (M.P.) = S.P. × (100 / (100 - Discount))

Calculation:

⇒ S.P. = ₹1,080 × (1 + 20/100)

⇒ S.P. = ₹1,080 × (120/100)

⇒ S.P. = ₹1,296

⇒ M.P. = ₹1,296 × (100 / (100 - 28))

⇒ M.P. = ₹1,296 × (100 / 72)

⇒ M.P. = ₹1,296 × (25 / 18)

⇒ M.P. = ₹1,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,800.

Given:

Selling price at (9/16) of its actual selling price, Loss = 25%

New selling price = 15% less than the actual selling price

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) / (1 - Loss%)

Profit% = [(Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Assume actual selling price = Rs. 16

⇒ Selling price at (9/16) of the actual selling price = Rs. 9

⇒ Loss% = 25%, so Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 - Loss%)

⇒ CP = 9 / (1 - 0.25)

⇒ CP = 9 / 0.75

⇒ CP = Rs. 12

⇒ New selling price = 85% of the actual selling price

⇒ New SP = 16 × 0.85

⇒ New SP = Rs. 13.6

⇒ Profit% = [(New SP - CP) / CP] × 100

⇒ Profit% = [(13.6 - 12) / 12] × 100

⇒ Profit% = (1.6 / 12) × 100

⇒ Profit% = $13\frac{1}{3}$%

∴ The correct answer is $13\frac{1}{3}$%.

Given:

Total numbers = 51

Average of 51 numbers = 52

Average of first 28 numbers = 50.5

Average of last 24 numbers = 54.5

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

New average = New sum ÷ New number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum = 51 × 52 = 2652

⇒ Sum of first 28 numbers = 28 × 50.5 = 1414

⇒ Sum of last 24 numbers = 24 × 54.5 = 1308

⇒ The 28th number is included in both sums, so:

⇒ (Sum of first 28) + (Sum of last 24) − Total sum = Value of 28th number

⇒ 1414 + 1308 − 2652 = 70

⇒ 28th number = 70

Now remove the 28th number:

⇒ New sum = 2652 − 70 = 2582

⇒ New count = 51 − 1 = 50

⇒ New average = 2582 ÷ 50

⇒ New average = 51.64

∴ The correct answer is 51.64.

Given:

A can do the work in 12 days

B can do the work in 20 days

A and B work together for 6 days

C completes remaining work in 12 days

We need time taken by A and C to complete 2/3 of the work

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Total work done = Sum of individual work

Time = Work ÷ Rate

Calculation:

⇒ A's 1-day work = 1 ÷ 12

⇒ B's 1-day work = 1 ÷ 20

⇒ A + B 1-day work = (1/12) + (1/20)

⇒ A + B 1-day work = (5 + 3) ÷ 60 = 8 ÷ 60 = 2 ÷ 15

⇒ Work done in 6 days = 6 × (2/15)

⇒ Work done = 12 ÷ 15 = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ Remaining work = 1 − 4/5 = 1/5

C completes 1/5 work in 12 days

⇒ C’s full work time = 12 × 5 = 60 days

⇒ C’s 1-day work = 1 ÷ 60

Now A + C 1-day work:

⇒ (1/12) + (1/60)

⇒ LCM = 60

⇒ 5/60 + 1/60 = 6/60 = 1/10

A + C together complete 1/10 of work per day

We need time for 2/3 of the work:

⇒ Time = (2/3) ÷ (1/10)

⇒ Time = (2/3) × 10

⇒ Time = 20 ÷ 3

⇒ Time = $6\frac{2}{3}$days

∴ The correct answer is $6\frac{2}{3}$ days.

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

$\frac{5}{7} \div 5\frac13\ \text{of}\ \frac{5}{14} - \frac{5}{14}\times 6\frac{3}{10} + \left(0.\overline{57} \div 6.\overline3 \times 5\frac12 \right)\times \frac{7}{15}$

⇒ $\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{16}{3}\ \times\ \frac{5}{14} - \frac{5}{14}\times \frac{63}{10} + \left(\frac{57}{99} \div \frac{19}{3} \times \frac{11}{2} \right)\times \frac{7}{15}$

⇒ $\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{8}{3}\ \times\ \frac{5}{7} - \frac{1}{2}\times \frac{9}{2} + \left(\frac{57}{99} \times \frac{3}{19} \times \frac{11}{2} \right)\times \frac{7}{15}$

⇒ $\frac{5}{7} \div \frac{40}{21} - \frac{9}{4} + \left(\frac{3}{33} \times \frac{11}{2} \right)\times \frac{7}{15}$

⇒ $\frac{5}{7} \times \frac{21}{40} - \frac{9}{4} +\frac{1}{2}\times \frac{7}{15}$

⇒ $\frac{3}{8} - \frac{9}{4} + \frac{7}{30}$

⇒ $\frac{45 - 270 + 28}{120}$

⇒ $\frac{-197}{120}$

∴ The required value is $\frac{-197}{120}$

Given:

Sides of triangle = 120 m, 182 m, 218 m

Rectangle sides ratio = 14 : 13

Formula used:

Semi-perimeter: s = (a + b + c) ÷ 2

Area (Heron): Area = √[s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)]

Calculations:

Rectangle area = (14k) × (13k) = 182k²

⇒ s = (120 + 182 + 218) ÷ 2 = 520 ÷ 2 = 260

⇒ Area = √[260 × (260 − 120) × (260 − 182) × (260 − 218)]

⇒ Area = √[260 × 140 × 78 × 42]

⇒ Area = √119,246,400 = 10,920 m²

⇒ 182k² = 10,920 ⇒ k² = 10,920 ÷ 182 = 60

⇒ k = √60

Perimeter = 2(14k + 13k) = 54k

⇒ Perimeter = 54k = 54√60 = 108√15 m

∴ Perimeter of the garden = 108√15 m.

The correct answer is Scientific.

Key Points

• Logical functions exist in MS Excel and are used for decision-making based on conditions. Examples include IF, AND, OR, NOT, etc.
• Text functions are utilized to manipulate or analyze text data in Excel. Examples include CONCATENATE, LEFT, RIGHT, MID, UPPER, and LOWER.
• Financial functions help in performing calculations related to finance such as NPV (Net Present Value), IRR (Internal Rate of Return), PMT (Payment Calculation), etc.
• Scientific functions do not exist as a dedicated category in MS Excel. Instead, Excel provides mathematical and statistical functions that can be used for scientific purposes. Examples include SQRT, POWER, EXP, LN, SIN, COS, etc., but they are categorized under Mathematical & Trigonometric functions.
• MS Excel has numerous function categories such as Logical, Text, Financial, Mathematical & Statistical, Date & Time, Lookup & Reference, and others, but there is no separate category named Scientific. Hence, Scientific functions is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Logical Functions:
• These functions are used for evaluating multiple conditions in Excel. Examples include IF, AND, OR, NOT, and TRUE.
• IF function is one of the most widely used logical functions to test a condition and return a value based on whether the condition is true or false.
• AND and OR functions allow the user to combine multiple conditions logically.
• Logical functions are essential for tasks such as conditional formatting and decision-making in Excel formulas.
• Text Functions:
• These functions are used to manipulate text data and improve text formatting.
• Examples include CONCATENATE (to combine text from multiple cells), LEFT and RIGHT (to extract characters from text), and UPPER (to convert text to uppercase).
• Text functions are particularly useful for cleaning and organizing data.
• Financial Functions:
• These functions are used for financial calculations such as interest rates, investment analysis, and loan payments.
• Examples include NPV (Net Present Value), IRR (Internal Rate of Return), and PMT (Payment calculation).
• Financial analysts and accountants commonly use these functions for data analysis and decision-making.
• Mathematical & Trigonometric Functions:
• These functions perform mathematical, statistical, and trigonometric operations.
• Examples include SUM (to calculate the sum of values), AVERAGE (to find the mean), SQRT (to calculate the square root), and SIN (to calculate the sine of an angle).
• Although these functions can be used for scientific purposes, Excel does not have a separate category named Scientific.
• Important Points:
• Excel's functions are categorized to make navigation and usage easier for users.
• Each category serves a specific purpose, such as data analysis, financial calculations, or text manipulation.
• The lack of a separate "Scientific" category does not limit Excel's ability to perform scientific calculations, as mathematical and statistical functions can be effectively used for such purposes.