Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 09 Dec, 2020 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Kotak Mahindra Bank.

Key Points

• Public Sector Banks (PSBs): These are banks in which the government of India holds a majority stake (more than 50%). They are owned and operated by the government. Examples include Canara Bank, Punjab National Bank (PNB), and Indian Bank.
• Canara Bank: It is one of the largest public sector banks in India, established in 1906. It became a PSB after its nationalization in 1969. Hence, it is a public sector bank.
• Punjab National Bank (PNB): Established in 1894, it is another leading public sector bank in India. After the nationalization in 1969, it became a government-owned entity. Hence, it is a public sector bank.
• Indian Bank: It was established in 1907 and nationalized in 1969. It is a public sector bank with the government holding a majority stake. Hence, it is a public sector bank.
• Kotak Mahindra Bank: It is a private sector bank, established in 2003. It is not owned by the government and operates as a private financial institution. Hence, it is NOT a public sector bank.
• Hence, the correct answer is Kotak Mahindra Bank.

Additional Information

• Public Sector Banks in India:
• Public sector banks are a crucial part of India's banking system, contributing significantly to financial inclusion and economic development.
• Examples of PSBs include State Bank of India (SBI), Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank, and Canara Bank.
• These banks are known for their wide network of branches, government support, and focus on providing services to rural and underserved areas.
• Private Sector Banks:
• Private sector banks are owned by private entities or corporations, and their operations are driven by profits and market competition.
• Examples include HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, and Kotak Mahindra Bank.
• They focus on providing modern banking services, technological advancements, and customized financial products.
• Key Differences:
• Ownership: PSBs are owned by the government, while private banks are owned by private entities.
• Focus: PSBs prioritize social objectives like financial inclusion, whereas private banks emphasize profitability and customer-centric services.
• Examples: Canara Bank is a PSB, while Kotak Mahindra Bank is a private bank.

Important Points

• Kotak Mahindra Bank:
• Founded: It was established in 2003 and is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Services: It provides a range of financial services such as loans, deposits, credit cards, investment solutions, and insurance products.
• Nationalization of Banks:
• 1969: The government nationalized 14 major private sector banks, including PNB and Canara Bank, to strengthen the economy and ensure equitable distribution of credit.
• 1980: Another six banks were nationalized, expanding the reach of PSBs to rural and underserved areas.

The correct answer is Pancharatra.

Key Points

• The Shaiva cult refers to religious sects and traditions that worship Lord Shiva as the supreme deity.
• Veerashaiva, Pashupatha, and Kapalika are prominent sects associated with Shaivism. These sects have distinct philosophies and practices centered around Lord Shiva. Hence, these are Shaiva cults.
• Pancharatra is a sect associated with Vaishnavism, where followers worship Lord Vishnu as the supreme deity. It is not related to Shaivism. Hence, this is NOT a Shaiva cult.
• Kapalika is a Shaiva sect known for its extreme and esoteric practices. It emphasizes asceticism and the worship of Shiva in fierce forms like Bhairava. Hence, this is a Shaiva cult.
• Pashupatha is one of the oldest Shaiva sects, focusing on devotion to Lord Shiva and the renunciation of worldly attachments. It was founded by Lakulisha. Hence, this is a Shaiva cult.
• Veerashaiva is a Shaiva tradition rooted in devotion to Lord Shiva. It originated in South India and emphasizes equality and devotion. Hence, this is a Shaiva cult.
• Hence, the correct answer is Pancharatra.

Additional Information

• Pancharatra:
• Origin: Pancharatra is a sect of Vaishnavism, which worships Lord Vishnu and his incarnations.
• Philosophy: It focuses on the worship of Vishnu and his manifestations in five forms: Para, Vyuhas, Vibhava, Antaryami, and Archavatara.
• Scriptures: The sect derives its teachings from texts like Pancharatra Agamas.
• Practices: Rituals include temple worship, chanting, and devotion to Vishnu. It is prominent in South India.
• Shaiva Cults:
• Veerashaiva: Originating in South India, it emphasizes devotion to Shiva and equality. It was led by Basavanna.
• Pashupatha: One of the oldest Shaiva sects, it focuses on asceticism and devotion. Founded by Lakulisha.
• Kapalika: Known for its esoteric practices, it worships Shiva in fierce forms like Bhairava.

Important Points

• Shaivism: A major sect in Hinduism that worships Lord Shiva. It has various sub-sects like Pashupatha and Kapalika.
• Vaishnavism: A sect in Hinduism that worships Lord Vishnu. Pancharatra belongs to this tradition.
• Geographical Influence: Shaivism is prominent in South India, while Vaishnavism also flourishes in the same region.

The correct answer is Megan Rapinoe.

Key Points

• Megan Rapinoe won the Best FIFA Women's Player Award in the year 2019. This recognition was a result of her phenomenal performance on the field, both at the domestic and international levels.
• Rapinoe played a crucial role in leading the United States Women's National Soccer Team (USWNT) to victory in the 2019 FIFA Women’s World Cup, held in France.
• She was awarded the Golden Boot for being the top scorer of the tournament and the Golden Ball as the best player of the tournament. Hence, Megan Rapinoe was a deserving winner of this prestigious award.
• Apart from her on-field achievements, Rapinoe is known for her activism, advocating for issues like gender equality, LGBTQ+ rights, and equal pay for women athletes.
• The award was presented by FIFA during the annual FIFA Football Awards Ceremony, which celebrates the best players, coaches, and teams in football globally.

Additional Information

• Megan Rapinoe:
• Megan Rapinoe was born on July 5, 1985, in California, USA.
• She is a professional soccer player who plays as a winger and captains the USWNT.
• In addition to her FIFA achievements, Rapinoe has also won Olympic Gold in 2012 and numerous domestic league titles in the USA.
• 2019 FIFA Women’s World Cup:
• The tournament was held in France from June 7 to July 7, 2019.
• The USWNT emerged as champions by defeating the Netherlands in the final with a score of 2-0.
• Rapinoe scored a critical penalty in the final and was instrumental in the team's success throughout the tournament.
• Other Nominees:
• Julie Ertz: A USWNT midfielder known for her defensive skills and versatility. She was a key player in the 2019 World Cup but did not win the award.
• Ellen White: A forward from England who had an outstanding performance in the World Cup, finishing as one of the tournament's top scorers.
• Sam Kerr: An Australian forward regarded as one of the most prolific goal-scorers in women’s football. Despite her exceptional skills, she did not win the award in 2019.

Important Points

• FIFA Best Player Awards:
• The Best FIFA Football Awards were established in 2016 to recognize the top-performing football players and coaches globally, replacing the FIFA Ballon d'Or.
• These awards are based on the votes of national team coaches, captains, journalists, and fans worldwide.
• Key Criteria: Individual performance, team achievements, and overall impact on the game are considered for the awards.

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

Key Points

• The Leader of the House in the Lok Sabha is the Prime Minister, provided he/she is a member of the Lok Sabha. This is according to the Rules of Lok Sabha.
• The Leader of the House plays a vital role in coordinating legislative activities, addressing the priorities of the government, and representing the government's position in parliamentary debates.
• The Leader of the House is appointed by the Prime Minister or designated by the ruling party. In most cases, it is the Prime Minister themselves who occupies this position. Hence, the correct answer is Prime Minister.
• Other parliamentary roles such as the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are responsible for presiding over the proceedings and maintaining order, but they do not act as the Leader of the House.
• The President does not have a role in the legislative functioning of the Lok Sabha as he/she represents the head of state and not the government.

Additional Information

• Leader of the House:
• The Leader of the House is responsible for facilitating the smooth functioning of the House and ensuring the government’s legislative agenda is carried forward.
• This position is crucial in resolving conflicts, negotiating with opposition parties, and representing the government’s stance on various issues.
• Roles of Other Positions:
• Speaker: The Speaker presides over sessions of the Lok Sabha, ensures the decorum of debates, and decides on procedural matters.
• Deputy Speaker: The Deputy Speaker assists the Speaker and presides over the House in the Speaker’s absence.
• President: The President of India is the ceremonial head of state and does not participate in the legislative proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
• Historical Significance:
• The position of Leader of the House has been held by prominent leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, and Atal Bihari Vajpayee, showcasing its importance in parliamentary democracy.

Important Points

• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister represents the government in the Lok Sabha and leads all legislative and executive decision-making processes.
• This position signifies the leadership of the ruling party and ensures the implementation of government policies.
• Speaker and Deputy Speaker:
• The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are non-partisan positions and focus primarily on the proceedings and functioning of the House.
• Their roles are distinct from the Leader of the House, who is actively involved in policymaking and legislative discussions.

The correct answer is Article 105.

Key Points

• Article 105 of the Constitution of India specifies the powers, privileges, and immunities of the members of Parliament and its committees.
• It grants freedom of speech in Parliament to members, ensuring they can express their views without fear of legal consequences. Hence, the correct option is Article 105.
• This article also protects members from any proceedings in courts for anything said or done within Parliament, ensuring that parliamentary discussions remain open and free.
• The privileges under Article 105 are not absolute. Parliament has the power to codify these privileges, although it has not yet been done comprehensively.
• The immunities include freedom from arrest in certain civil cases during a session and the privilege of not being summoned to a court of law as witnesses during parliamentary sessions.
• Article 105(3) states that the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members shall be the same as those of the British House of Commons until defined by Indian law.
• Hence, the correct answer is Article 105.

Additional Information

• Article 105 of the Constitution:
• Freedom of speech: Members of Parliament are granted freedom of speech within the house, which is a cornerstone of democratic governance.
• Parliamentary privileges ensure that MPs can participate freely in discussions without outside interference.
• These privileges are aimed at maintaining the independence and dignity of the Parliament.
• Comparison to British House of Commons:
• The privileges under Article 105(3) are modeled on the British House of Commons, but they have yet to be fully codified in India.
• These include immunity from court proceedings for actions taken in Parliament and the ability to regulate its own procedures.
• Relevant Supreme Court Judgments:
• The Keshav Singh case (1965) highlighted that parliamentary privileges are subject to constitutional limitations.
• In the PV Narasimha Rao case (1998), the Supreme Court ruled that parliamentary immunity extends to actions like accepting bribes if done within the Parliament.

Important Points

• Other Related Articles:
• Article 194: Similar to Article 105, it outlines the powers, privileges, and immunities of state legislatures and their members.
• Article 124: Deals with the establishment and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
• Article 302: Relates to the power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce, and intercourse among states.
• Significance of Parliamentary Privileges:
• These privileges are essential for ensuring free discussions and debates in Parliament, which is vital for democracy.
• They protect members from external influences and pressures, allowing them to perform their duties effectively.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Harela is a traditional festival celebrated in the state of Uttarakhand, India.
• The word "Harela" translates to "Day of Green" in the local Kumaoni and Garhwali languages of Uttarakhand.
• This festival is observed to mark the onset of the monsoon season and the beginning of the sowing cycle in agriculture, making it a significant festival for the farming community.
• It is celebrated three times a year: during Chaitra Navratri (spring), Shravana (monsoon), and Ashwin Navratri (autumn). However, the Shravan Harela is the most prominent.
• People sow seeds of five or seven types of grains in small baskets filled with soil ten days before Harela. On the festival day, these are harvested and worn on their heads as a symbol of prosperity.
• The festival is associated with Hindu mythology, celebrating the wedding of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati, both of whom are highly revered in Uttarakhand.
• Harela also serves as a reminder of the close connection between humans and nature and promotes environmental conservation.

Additional Information

• Significance of Harela Festival:
• Harela celebrates the agricultural heritage of the hill state of Uttarakhand, emphasizing the importance of farming and the monsoon season for the local economy.
• The festival is also an occasion to promote tree plantation. On this day, people plant saplings as a gesture to preserve and protect the environment.
• In some regions, effigies of deities like Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati, made from leaves and grass, are worshipped as part of the Harela celebration.
• Historical and Cultural Context:
• Harela has been celebrated for centuries and holds cultural significance for the Kumaoni and Garhwali communities in Uttarakhand.
• The festival fosters a sense of community bonding, as families and neighbors come together to celebrate, sow seeds, and share traditional meals.
• Other Festivals of Uttarakhand:
• Phool Dei: A spring festival celebrating the arrival of the blossoming season.
• Ghee Sankranti: Also known as Olgia, it is a harvest festival where people express gratitude for agricultural abundance.
• Basant Panchami: Celebrated as the festival of kites and the worship of Goddess Saraswati.

Important Points

• Environmental Awareness:
• Harela festival promotes ecological balance and environmental conservation, encouraging sustainable agricultural practices and tree plantation.
• It has become a platform for environmental awareness campaigns in modern times, with schools and organizations participating actively.
• Revival of Traditions:
• Efforts have been made by the Uttarakhand government and local communities to revive and promote the cultural significance of Harela.
• The festival is increasingly being recognized as a symbol of sustainable development and green initiatives in the region.

The correct answer is Allahabad Bank.

Key Points

• Allahabad Bank, one of the oldest banks in India, was merged with Indian Bank effective from 1 April 2020. This decision was part of the Indian Government’s initiative to consolidate public sector banks for improved efficiency and financial stability.
• This merger aimed to create a stronger banking entity that would support economic growth and handle challenges like rising Non-Performing Assets (NPA) and increasing competition in the banking sector.
• The merger of Allahabad Bank with Indian Bank enabled operational synergies, better utilization of resources, and a more extensive customer base. Hence, the correct answer is Allahabad Bank.
• This consolidation process was part of the government’s larger reform strategy for public sector banks under the Banking Sector Reform announced by the Ministry of Finance in 2019.
• Allahabad Bank ceased to exist as an independent entity after the merger and became part of the larger organizational structure of Indian Bank. Hence, this merger was significant for the Indian banking industry.

Additional Information

• Allahabad Bank:
• Allahabad Bank was established in 1865 and was headquartered in Kolkata. It was one of the oldest joint stock banks in India.
• Before the merger, the bank provided various financial services, including deposits, loans, and banking products for individuals and businesses across India.
• Indian Bank:
• Indian Bank was established in 1907 and is headquartered in Chennai. It operates as a public sector bank under the ownership of the Government of India.
• Post-merger, Indian Bank became one of the largest public sector banks in India, offering comprehensive banking services to a wider customer base.
• Government Initiative:
• The merger was part of the Banking Sector Reform 2019, initiated by the Government of India, which aimed to consolidate public sector banks into fewer, larger entities.
• The reform targeted reducing operational inefficiencies, increasing competitiveness, and improving the overall health of the banking sector.
• The merger resulted in the creation of 12 strong and efficient public sector banks from the existing 27 banks.

Important Points

• Impact of Merger:
• The merger created a larger banking entity with a wider geographical reach, improved financial stability, and increased operational efficiency.
• It helped in optimizing staff and resources while reducing overhead costs.
• The consolidated bank was able to leverage its size to offer competitive products and services, enhancing customer satisfaction.
• Challenges:
• The merger presented challenges such as cultural integration, harmonization of technology platforms, and addressing employee concerns.
• However, these challenges were systematically addressed to ensure a smooth transition and operational success.

The correct answer is Kutchi New Year.

Key Points

• Ashadhi Bij is celebrated as the Kutchi New Year. It marks the beginning of the New Year for the Kutchi community in the western Indian state of Gujarat.
• The festival is celebrated on the second day of the Shukla Paksha (waxing phase of the moon) of the Ashadha month, as per the Hindu calendar.
• Ashadhi Bij is significant for the Kutchi community, as it symbolizes the arrival of the monsoon season. Farmers eagerly look forward to this day to assess the condition of the monsoon rains, which are crucial for agriculture. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The festival is celebrated with great enthusiasm, and people pray for good rains and prosperity. The community performs rituals and seeks blessings for a fruitful year ahead.
• The arrival of rains during Ashadhi Bij is a moment of joy and celebration, especially in the arid regions of Gujarat, where water is scarce. People show gratitude to nature for the rains. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The festival is also characterized by cultural events, traditional food, and community gatherings, which strengthen social bonds and preserve the rich heritage of the Kutchi community.
• Hence, the correct answer is Kutchi New Year.

Additional Information

• Significance of Ashadhi Bij:
• Monsoon Prediction: Ashadhi Bij plays a critical role in forecasting the monsoon season. Farmers and local communities observe the atmosphere and wind patterns to predict rainfall during this festival.
• Traditional Practices: People engage in prayers and rituals, seeking blessings for a prosperous and rain-abundant year.
• Kutchi Community:
• The Kutchi community primarily resides in the Kutch region of Gujarat, India. This region is known for its unique cultural heritage, handicrafts, and arid climate.
• The celebration of Ashadhi Bij reflects the community's deep connection to nature and their dependence on rain for agricultural activities.
• Other New Year Celebrations in India:
• Andhra New Year: Celebrated as Ugadi, it marks the beginning of the Telugu calendar in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• Tamil New Year: Known as Puthandu, it is celebrated on the first day of the Tamil month Chithirai.
• Gond New Year: Celebrated by the Gond tribal community, it highlights their cultural traditions and connection to nature.

Important Points

• Geographical and Cultural Context:
• The Kutch region, located in Gujarat, is a semi-arid area where rainfall is essential for agriculture and survival. Festivals like Ashadhi Bij are important for assessing the monsoon and celebrating its arrival.
• Cultural Significance: Such festivals highlight the importance of traditional practices and rituals in preserving the community's identity and heritage.
• Other Observations:
• Ashadhi Bij is an example of how regional festivals reflect the socio-environmental realities of the area.
• It also emphasizes the importance of sustainable living and harmony with nature, which are integral to the Kutchi way of life.

The correct answer is Vyas Samman.

Key Points

• The Vyas Samman is a prestigious literary award presented annually by the K K Birla Foundation.
• It was established in 1991 and is awarded to an outstanding literary work in Hindi authored by an Indian citizen.
• The award recognizes a published work of fiction, poetry, drama, or criticism that has been released in the past ten years. Hence, the correct answer is Vyas Samman.
• The recipient of the Vyas Samman is awarded a cash prize of INR 4 lakhs, along with a citation and a plaque.
• This award is considered one of the most prestigious honors for contributions to Hindi literature.

Additional Information

• K K Birla Foundation:
• The K K Birla Foundation, established in 1991, is known for promoting Indian literature, art, and education.
• Apart from the Vyas Samman, the foundation presents other awards, including the Saraswati Samman, Shankar Puraskar, and Bihari Puraskar.
• Other Literary Awards by K K Birla Foundation:
• Saraswati Samman: Recognizes exceptional literary works in any Indian language mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It carries a cash prize of INR 15 lakhs.
• Bihari Puraskar: Awarded for literary works in Hindi or Rajasthani by authors from Rajasthan.
• Shankar Puraskar: Presented for outstanding contributions to Indian philosophy and culture.
• Comparison with Other Awards:
• Sahitya Akademi Award: This is awarded annually by the Sahitya Akademi, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, for literary works in 24 Indian languages.
• Jnanpith Award: It is India’s highest literary honor, presented annually to authors for their contributions to Indian literature in any recognized Indian language.
• Bharat Ratna: India’s highest civilian award, awarded for exceptional service in fields like art, literature, science, and public service. It is not specific to literature.

Important Points

• Eligibility Criteria for Vyas Samman:
• The award is granted to Indian citizens who have authored literary works in Hindi.
• Works must have been published in the past 10 years to qualify for consideration.
• Purpose of Literary Awards:
• Literary awards like the Vyas Samman aim to promote and recognize exceptional contributions to Indian literature.
• They encourage authors to continue creating works that enrich the literary heritage of India.

The correct answer is 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Key Points

• The term 'secular' was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This amendment aimed to emphasize India's commitment to secularism.
• The word 'secular' signifies that India as a state does not have any official religion and treats all religions equally. It ensures that the government maintains neutrality in matters of religion.
• The amendment was introduced during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, who sought to give more clarity to the principles of the Constitution and reinforce the idea of equality among religions. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The 42nd Amendment is often referred to as the "Mini Constitution" due to the vast changes it brought to the Constitution, including the addition of terms like 'secular', 'socialist', and 'integrity' to the Preamble.
• This amendment reinforced the importance of secularism, along with socialism, as guiding principles of the Indian state. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• It was enacted during the Emergency period under Indira Gandhi's government. The amendment brought significant changes to various parts of the Constitution, including the Preamble.
• The words 'socialist', 'secular', and 'integrity' were added to the Preamble to emphasize India's commitment to socio-economic justice, religious equality, and unity.
• It also strengthened the directive principles of state policy and curtailed the powers of the judiciary to some extent.
• Meaning of Secularism:
• In the Indian context, secularism means that the state does not favor or discriminate against any religion, ensuring equality for all religions.
• The government and its institutions work independently of religious influence and guarantee freedom of religion to all citizens.
• Historical Context:
• The addition of the word 'secular' in the Preamble was influenced by the need to reinforce religious harmony and ensure India's identity as a diverse and inclusive nation.
• Post-Independence, India faced challenges related to religious differences, making secularism a vital principle to promote national unity.

Important Points

• Key Features of the Preamble:
• The Preamble serves as the introduction to the Constitution and outlines the guiding principles of the Indian state, including justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, secularism, socialism, and integrity.
• It reflects the aspirations and objectives of the Constitution and provides a framework for governance.
• Significance of Secularism in India:
• Secularism ensures freedom of religion and prevents the dominance of any one religion in governance or public affairs.
• It promotes religious tolerance and harmony, crucial in a country like India with diverse religious communities.
• Other Constitutional Amendments:
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978: It reversed some changes made during the 42nd Amendment, particularly restoring the judiciary's power.
• 52nd Amendment Act, 1985: It introduced the anti-defection law to prevent political instability caused by legislators switching parties.

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points

• As per the Budget 2020-21, the government announced plans to develop and operationalize 100 additional airports in India by the year 2024 under the 'Udaan' scheme.
• The 'Udaan' scheme, also known as UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik), was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation to improve regional connectivity by making air travel affordable and accessible to the common citizen.
• This initiative is aimed at enabling the development of regional airports across India to connect smaller cities and towns to the larger aviation network.
• The addition of 100 airports is part of the government's broader plan to enhance infrastructure and boost economic growth by improving connectivity and accessibility. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Under the scheme, both public and private partnerships are encouraged to invest in airport development, ensuring the project is economically feasible and sustainable.
• The scheme also focuses on reducing travel time and promoting tourism by connecting underserved regions with mainstream cities. Thus, the correct answer is 100.

Additional Information

• 'Udaan' Scheme:
• Launched in 2016, the UDAN scheme aims to make air travel affordable for the common citizen by providing financial support to airlines for operating flights on regional routes.
• It is a regional airport development program under the Government of India that emphasizes connecting Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities to major airports.
• Example: Successful routes like Shimla-Delhi and Darbhanga-Bengaluru are operational under UDAN.
• Budget Allocation:
• The government allocated a significant budget for aviation infrastructure development under the 2020-21 Budget.
• The addition of 100 airports reflects the focus on improving air connectivity to enhance regional economic development.
• This initiative also supports the vision of India becoming a global aviation hub in the coming years.

Important Points

• Key Features of UDAN:
• It provides subsidies to airlines to cover operational costs for routes that are not commercially viable.
• The scheme aims to develop unserved and underserved airports across India to increase air traffic.
• Advantages:
• Promotes tourism and enhances regional economic growth.
• Reduces travel time between remote locations and major cities, boosting connectivity and productivity.
• Encourages public-private partnerships for sustainable airport development.

The correct answer is First Battle of Panipat.

Key Points

• The First Battle of Panipat was fought on April 21, 1526, marking it as a significant event in the 16th century CE.
• This battle was fought between the forces of Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, and Ibrahim Lodi, the Sultan of Delhi.
• It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India and ended the rule of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Babur employed superior military tactics, including the use of artillery, which played a crucial role in his victory.
• The battle was significant as it introduced gunpowder warfare in the Indian subcontinent on a large scale.
• This victory paved the way for the establishment of a centralized Mughal administration in India.

Additional Information

• First Battle of Panipat (1526):
• This battle took place near the town of Panipat, located in present-day Haryana, India.
• The use of tulughma (flanking tactics) and artillery by Babur was instrumental in defeating Ibrahim Lodi's larger army.
• The victory established Babur as the ruler of Delhi and laid the foundation for the Mughal Empire in India.
• Other Options:
• First Battle of Tarain: Fought in 1191 CE between Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori. It predates the 16th century and hence is not the correct answer.
• Battle of Plassey: Fought in 1757, this battle established British rule in India but occurred in the 18th century, not the 16th.
• Battle of the Hydaspes: Fought in 326 BCE between Alexander the Great and King Porus. This battle was in ancient times, not in the 16th century CE.

Important Points

• Panipat as a Battleground:
• The plains of Panipat were a strategic location for battles due to their proximity to Delhi and the natural terrain suitable for large armies.
• Three major battles were fought in Panipat: 1526, 1556, and 1761, each shaping the course of Indian history.
• Babur's Legacy:
• Babur's victory at Panipat brought new military techniques to India, influencing subsequent warfare.
• He documented his campaigns and administration in his autobiography, Baburnama, which provides valuable insights into that era.

The correct answer is Sunda Trench.

Key Points

• Sunda Trench is located in the Indian Ocean, near the region of Sumatra and the Java Islands.
• It is one of the deep-sea trenches formed due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.
• The trench has a depth of approximately 7,725 meters and is considered a critical area for studying plate tectonics and seismic activity. Hence, Sunda Trench is the correct answer.
• The other options provided in the question, such as the Aleutian Trench, Ramapo Trench, and Atacama Trench, are located in different oceans or regions and are not associated with the Indian Ocean.
• Aleutian Trench is found in the North Pacific Ocean, Ramapo Trench does not exist as a recognized geological feature, and Atacama Trench is located in the Southeast Pacific Ocean off the coast of Chile and Peru.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Sunda Trench:
• Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, the Sunda Trench plays a significant role in the region's tectonic activity.
• The trench is formed due to the subduction of the Indo-Australian Plate under the Eurasian Plate, leading to frequent earthquakes and volcanic activities.
• One of the most notable seismic events associated with this trench was the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami, which caused widespread devastation.
• Other Trenches in Context:
• Aleutian Trench: Located in the North Pacific Ocean, it is associated with the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the North American Plate.
• Atacama Trench: Found in the Southeast Pacific Ocean, it is formed due to the subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate.
• Ramapo Trench: Not recognized as a geological feature, it seems to be erroneously mentioned in the question.

Important Points

• Depth and Significance: The Sunda Trench has a depth of 7,725 meters, making it one of the deeper trenches in the Indian Ocean. It is a hotspot for studying subduction zones and the geodynamics of the region.
• Seismic Activity: Earthquakes originating from this trench have caused major tsunamis, such as the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, which had a magnitude of 9.1–9.3.
• Plate Tectonics: The trench is a key example of oceanic plate subduction, offering insights into the interactions between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.

The correct answer is Bank of Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The EASE 2.0 Banking Reforms Index was introduced as a part of the Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) reforms agenda, launched by the Government of India in 2018 to improve the performance of public sector banks (PSBs).
• In September 2020, the EASE 2.0 Index recognized banks that showed significant improvements in operational and service excellence.
• Bank of Maharashtra was awarded in the 'Top Improvers' category for its exceptional progress in implementing reforms under the EASE 2.0 framework.
• This recognition highlights the bank's efforts in enhancing digital banking services, improving customer experience, and achieving efficiency in operations.
• The EASE 2.0 Index uses a data-driven approach to evaluate banks based on various parameters such as responsible banking, governance, credit off-take, and customer responsiveness.
• The recognition of Bank of Maharashtra as a 'Top Improver' signifies its commitment to achieving excellence in the public banking sector. Hence, the correct answer is Bank of Maharashtra.

Additional Information

• About the EASE Banking Reforms:
• The EASE Reforms Agenda was introduced by the Government of India and Indian Banks' Association (IBA) to improve the overall performance of public sector banks (PSBs).
• It focuses on six themes, including Customer Responsiveness, Responsible Banking, Governance and HR, Credit Off-take, PSBs as Udyamimitra for MSMEs, and Deepening Financial Inclusion.
• The EASE 2.0 version brought enhancements to the initial reforms, emphasizing the digitization of banking services and improving governance frameworks.
• Bank of Maharashtra:
• Founded: 1935.
• Headquarters: Pune, Maharashtra, India.
• Known for: Having the largest network of branches among public sector banks in Maharashtra.
• Key Features: The bank has made significant progress in digitization, risk management, and customer service, contributing to its recognition under the EASE 2.0 Index.
• Other Banks in the Context of EASE 2.0:
• Bank of Baroda: Known for its robust digital transformation initiatives but was not recognized in the 'Top Improvers' category in 2020.
• State Bank of India (SBI): India's largest public sector bank, focusing on innovation and customer service but did not feature in this specific category in September 2020.
• IDBI Bank: Operates as a private sector bank since 2019 and does not fall under the PSBs evaluated in the EASE Index.

Important Points

• Significance of EASE Index:
• The index promotes healthy competition among PSBs to enhance efficiency and customer service.
• It provides a transparent and data-driven framework to measure banking reforms.
• Achievements of EASE 2.0:
• Improved credit availability for MSMEs and retail customers.
• Enhanced customer experience through digitization and analytics-based decisions.

The correct answer is K Sivan.

Key Points

• K Sivan was the Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) as of August 2020. He assumed this position on January 15, 2018, succeeding A. S. Kiran Kumar.
• He is an accomplished aerospace engineer and has been associated with ISRO for decades. He played a significant role in advancing India’s space programs.
• K Sivan is often referred to as the "Rocket Man of India" for his contributions to the development of rocket technology in India.
• Under his leadership, ISRO accomplished several significant missions, such as the successful launch of Chandrayaan-2 and the preparation for Gaganyaan, India’s first manned space mission.
• He has been instrumental in developing ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
• He earned his Bachelor’s degree in engineering from the Madras Institute of Technology and pursued his Master’s degree and PhD in aerospace engineering at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.

Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is India’s national space agency, founded in 1969 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai.
• Its headquarters is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• ISRO is responsible for conducting space research, satellite development, and launching satellites for various applications, including communication, navigation, and Earth observation.
• It has developed indigenous launch vehicles such as the PSLV and GSLV, which have been pivotal in launching satellites into orbit.
• Major Missions under K Sivan’s Leadership:
• Chandrayaan-2 (2019): India’s second lunar exploration mission aimed at studying the Moon’s south pole. Though the lander (Vikram) experienced a hard landing, the orbiter continues to provide valuable data.
• Gaganyaan Mission: India’s ambitious human spaceflight program, aimed at sending Indian astronauts into space by 2024.
• Cartosat-3: A high-resolution Earth observation satellite launched in November 2019.
• Other Options Explained:
• K Kasturirangan: He was the Chairman of ISRO from 1994 to 2003. He played a significant role in initiating the Chandrayaan-1 mission and promoting space science research.
• A S Kiran Kumar: He served as the Chairman of ISRO from 2015 to 2018. His tenure witnessed the successful launch of several satellites and the development of advanced satellite technology.
• K Radhakrishnan: He was the Chairman of ISRO from 2009 to 2014. Under his leadership, ISRO achieved the successful Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) launch in 2013.

Important Points

• K Sivan’s Contributions:
• He spearheaded the development of the Cryogenic Upper Stage for the GSLV, which is essential for launching heavy satellites.
• He played a critical role in the development of Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLV).
• His focus on indigenous technologies has significantly enhanced India’s self-reliance in space research and satellite development.
• ISRO’s Achievements:
• ISRO has launched over 300 satellites for customers worldwide, making it a global leader in satellite launches.
• It has contributed to critical areas such as disaster management, agriculture, communication, navigation, and defense applications.

The correct answer is Rashtrapati Bhavan.

Key Points

• The Rampurva bull capital was discovered at the archaeological site of Rampurva in the state of Bihar.
• This capital is one of the Ashokan pillars, which were commissioned by Emperor Ashoka during the Maurya dynasty in the 3rd century BCE.
• The Rampurva bull capital is noted for its exquisite sculptural craftsmanship and is considered a masterpiece of Mauryan art.
• The bull capital from Rampurva is now displayed in the Rashtrapati Bhavan, the official residence of the President of India, located in New Delhi.
• It holds a prominent place in the Rashtrapati Bhavan Museum, showcasing India's rich heritage and history.
• The Rampurva bull symbolizes strength, power, and endurance, which were qualities cherished by Emperor Ashoka for his empire.

Additional Information

• About Ashokan Pillars:
• The pillars of Ashoka are a series of columns distributed across the Indian subcontinent. They were erected by Emperor Ashoka during his reign from 268 to 232 BCE.
• Each pillar is made of a single piece of polished sandstone, and most are topped with animal capitals such as lions, bulls, and elephants.
• The pillars bear inscriptions in the Brahmi script, promoting Ashoka's policies of Dhamma (righteousness) and his messages of peace and non-violence.
• Location of other Ashokan Pillars:
• Apart from Rampurva, other famous Ashokan pillars include those at Sarnath, Lauriya Nandangarh, and Vaishali.
• The Sarnath lion capital, which is now the National Emblem of India, is an iconic representation of Ashoka's reign.
• Rashtrapati Bhavan:
• The Rashtrapati Bhavan is the official residence of the President of India and is located in New Delhi.
• It houses a museum that displays various artifacts, including the Rampurva bull capital, reflecting India's historical and cultural legacy.

Important Points

• Discovery of the Rampurva Bull Capital:
• The Rampurva bull capital was discovered during archaeological excavations in Rampurva, West Champaran district, Bihar.
• It is one of the few surviving examples of Mauryan art and architecture, reflecting the technical and artistic excellence of the period.
• Symbolism of the Bull:
• The bull is associated with agriculture and prosperity in Indian culture and is a recurring motif in Ashokan pillars.
• It also symbolizes power, strength, and endurance, qualities that were significant to the Mauryan empire.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

• Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan, was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage City in July 2019.
• Jaipur is known as the Pink City due to its distinctive color scheme and architectural style. It was founded in 1727 by Sawai Jai Singh II.
• The city represents a blend of Indian architectural styles with Western influences and is celebrated for its well-planned streets, squares, and palaces.
• UNESCO recognized Jaipur for its unique urban planning and historic significance, making it an exemplary model of a fortified city built in accordance with Vedic architecture.
• Prominent landmarks in Jaipur include the Hawa Mahal, Amber Fort, City Palace, and Jantar Mantar, which is also a separate UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The recognition enhances Jaipur’s status as a global tourist destination, promoting its rich cultural heritage and architectural marvels.
• Hence, the correct answer is Jaipur.

Additional Information

• UNESCO World Heritage Cities:
• UNESCO identifies cities with exceptional cultural and architectural heritage and includes them in the World Heritage List.
• Jaipur was recognized for its innovative town planning, inspired by ancient Indian knowledge, and its ability to incorporate modern elements.
• Characteristics of Jaipur:
• Known for its distinctive pink color, Jaipur’s buildings reflect the city's aesthetic integrity.
• It is a hub for traditional crafts such as blue pottery, textiles, and jewelry-making.
• Amber Fort, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, showcases the city’s royal lineage and its historic defense structures.
• Other UNESCO Heritage Sites in India:
• Agra Fort, Taj Mahal, and Qutub Minar are among the sites recognized for their architectural brilliance.
• Jantar Mantar (located in Jaipur) is a separate UNESCO site that highlights India’s contribution to astronomy.

Important Points

• UNESCO World Heritage Program:
• The program aims to preserve and promote sites of exceptional cultural and historical significance.
• Being included in the UNESCO list helps attract global attention and funds for preservation efforts.
• Impact of UNESCO Recognition:
• Boosts tourism and strengthens the city’s identity as a cultural hub.
• Encourages local artisans and craftsmen to preserve traditional techniques.
• Enhances international cooperation for heritage conservation.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• Majuli is the world’s largest riverine island and is located in the Brahmaputra River in the northeastern state of Assam, India.
• It is situated in the middle of the Brahmaputra River and is known for its rich cultural heritage, especially in terms of the Vaishnavite Satras (monasteries).
• Majuli covers an area of approximately 352 square kilometers, though its size is gradually reducing due to river erosion. Hence, the correct location is Brahmaputra.
• The island is recognized for its unique biodiversity, being home to a wide variety of flora and fauna, including several endangered species.
• Majuli was declared the first island district of India in 2016, highlighting its significance in the country's cultural and geographical landscape.
• The Brahmaputra River, where Majuli is located, is one of the largest rivers in the world and flows through India, China, and Bangladesh. It plays a vital role in supporting agriculture, transportation, and biodiversity in the region.

Additional Information

• About Majuli:
• Majuli has a strong cultural identity as it is the center of Neo-Vaishnavism, a reformist movement initiated by Sankardeva in the 15th century.
• The island is home to several Vaishnavite monasteries, also known as Satras, which promote religious and cultural education.
• It is renowned for its vibrant festivals like Raas Leela and Ali Ai Ligang, which reflect the rich cultural traditions of the region.
• Biodiversity in Majuli:
• Majuli is home to a diverse range of flora and fauna, including over 100 species of migratory birds. It serves as a critical habitat for biodiversity conservation.
• The island is particularly known for its wetlands and aquatic ecosystems, which contribute to its ecological importance.
• Rivers Mentioned in Options:
• Mahanadi: Located in central India, it flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha. It is known for supporting large-scale irrigation and hydropower projects like the Hirakud Dam.
• Torsa: A transboundary river originating in Tibet and flowing through Bhutan and West Bengal. It is known for its scenic beauty and strategic importance.
• Teesta: Originating in the Himalayas, it flows through Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh. It is crucial for agriculture and hydropower in the region.

Important Points

• Geographical Importance of Brahmaputra:
• The Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo. It flows through India and Bangladesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• It is one of the few rivers in the world that exhibit a tidal bore, a phenomenon where the tide causes the river to reverse its flow.
• Challenges Faced by Majuli:
• The island is severely affected by erosion, which has reduced its size significantly over the years. Efforts are being made to mitigate this through afforestation and embankments.
• Climate change and rising water levels in the Brahmaputra River have also posed a threat to the sustainability of Majuli.

The correct answer is Koteshwar Project – Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Kosi Project – Jharkhand: This statement is incorrect. The Kosi River is primarily associated with Bihar and not Jharkhand. The Kosi Project, which includes the Kosi barrage and related irrigation systems, is situated in Bihar and is aimed at flood control and irrigation.
• Sivasamudram Project – Kerala: This statement is incorrect. The Sivasamudram Project is located in Karnataka on the Kaveri River. It was one of the first hydroelectric projects in India and was established in 1902. It is not in Kerala.
• Koteshwar Project – Uttarakhand: This statement is correct. The Koteshwar Hydro-Electric Project is located on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. It is a part of the Tehri Dam project and has a capacity of 400 MW. Hence, this option is the correct answer.
• Idukki Project – Andhra Pradesh: This statement is incorrect. The Idukki Hydroelectric Project is located in Kerala, not Andhra Pradesh. It is constructed on the Periyar River and is one of the largest arch dams in Asia.

Additional Information

• Kosi Project:
• The Kosi River is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar" due to its frequent flooding.
• The Kosi Project focuses on flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation in the region.
• It has significantly contributed to agriculture and water management in Bihar.
• Sivasamudram Project:
• Established in 1902, it is one of the oldest hydroelectric projects in India.
• Located in Karnataka, it utilizes the water of the Kaveri River.
• This project supplies electricity to Bengaluru and other nearby areas.
• Koteshwar Project:
• Part of the larger Tehri Dam project, it is located in Uttarakhand.
• The project has a capacity of 400 MW and is situated on the Bhagirathi River.
• It plays a critical role in power generation and water storage in the region.
• Idukki Project:
• Located in Kerala, it is constructed on the Periyar River.
• The Idukki Dam is an arch dam and is one of the largest in Asia.
• It has a capacity of 780 MW and is a major source of electricity for the state of Kerala.

Important Points

• Hydroelectric Projects in India:
• India is heavily reliant on hydroelectric power as a renewable energy source.
• Major rivers such as the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari, and Krishna are harnessed for hydroelectric projects.
• Hydroelectric power contributes significantly to India's energy mix, providing clean and sustainable electricity.
• Geographical Importance:
• Hydroelectric projects are often located in hilly and riverine regions for maximum water flow utilization.
• These projects aid in flood control, irrigation, and water supply besides power generation.

The correct answer is Gomira – Karnataka.

Key Points

• Kalbelia – Rajasthan: This is a traditional dance form of the Kalbelia tribe in Rajasthan. It is performed by the Kalbelia women, known for their graceful and serpentine movements, symbolizing the movement of snakes. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Gomira – Karnataka: Gomira is not associated with Karnataka. Instead, it is a mask dance form prevalent in the Cooch Behar district of West Bengal. The dance is performed to appease deities and ward off evil spirits. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Gotipua – Odisha: Gotipua is a traditional dance from Odisha, performed by young boys dressed as girls. It is considered the precursor to the famous Odissi dance form. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Sattariya – Assam: Sattariya is a classical dance form of Assam, developed by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th-16th centuries. It is performed as part of religious rituals in Assam monasteries. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Kalbelia Dance:
• Performed by the Kalbelia community, who are traditionally snake charmers.
• Features graceful and intricate movements resembling serpentine motions.
• Prominently performed in Rajasthan, especially during festivals and celebrations.
• It has been included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List.
• Gomira Dance:
• A mask dance form performed in West Bengal, not Karnataka.
• Associated with the worship of local deities to ward off evil spirits.
• The masks used in the dance are intricately crafted and represent various Hindu gods and goddesses.
• Gotipua Dance:
• Originated in Odisha and is performed by young boys dressed as females.
• The dance form is believed to be the precursor to Odissi dance.
• It is characterized by acrobatic movements and devotional themes.
• Sattariya Dance:
• A classical dance form of Assam, introduced by Srimanta Sankardev.
• Performed as part of Vaishnavite rituals in monasteries, known as Satras.
• It incorporates dance, drama, and music with devotional themes.

Important Points

• UNESCO Intangible Heritage:
• Both Kalbelia dance of Rajasthan and Gotipua dance of Odisha are recognized as intangible cultural heritage by UNESCO.
• Regional Dance Styles:
• India is home to a variety of regional dance forms, each reflecting the cultural and social heritage of its region.
• These dances often have religious or ritualistic significance and are performed during festivals or special occasions.

The correct answer is Lead.

Key Points

• Activity Series of Metals: The activity series of metals is a list of metals arranged in order of their reactivity, starting from the most reactive to the least reactive. Highly reactive metals include Sodium, Magnesium, and Aluminium, which are at the top of the series.
• Metals at the top of the activity series can easily lose electrons and participate in chemical reactions, making them highly reactive.
• Lead: Lead is placed lower in the activity series because it is less reactive compared to metals like Sodium, Magnesium, and Aluminium. It does not belong to the top of the activity series. Hence, Lead is the correct option.
• Sodium: Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal and is placed at the top of the activity series. It reacts vigorously with water and oxygen. Hence, Sodium is incorrect.
• Magnesium: Magnesium is also highly reactive and part of the top activity series. It reacts with acids and oxygen to form compounds. Hence, Magnesium is incorrect.
• Aluminium: Aluminium is a reactive metal commonly placed high in the activity series. It forms a protective oxide layer, making it suitable for various applications. Hence, Aluminium is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Lead.

Additional Information

• Activity Series of Metals:
• The activity series is a scientific arrangement of metals based on their ability to displace hydrogen from acids or water. Metals at the top are highly reactive, while metals near the bottom are less reactive.
• Highly reactive metals like Sodium and Potassium react vigorously with water and even air. Moderately reactive metals like Zinc and Iron react with acids but not with cold water.
• Metals lower in the series, such as Lead, Copper, and Gold, are less reactive and do not readily form compounds.
• Characteristics of Each Metal:
• Sodium: Sodium is a soft, highly reactive metal used in the production of chemicals, soaps, and batteries. It reacts explosively with water.
• Magnesium: Magnesium is a lightweight metal used in alloys, fireworks, and medicines. It burns with a bright white flame.
• Aluminium: Aluminium is widely used in construction, packaging, and aerospace due to its strength, lightweight nature, and corrosion resistance.
• Lead: Lead is a dense, less reactive metal used in batteries, radiation shielding, and ammunition. Its low reactivity makes it suitable for applications requiring stability.
• Applications of Activity Series:
• The activity series helps predict the outcomes of chemical reactions, such as displacement reactions and metal extraction from ores.
• It also aids in understanding corrosion resistance, where less reactive metals are preferred for long-term use.

Important Points

• Key Observations on Reactivity:
• Highly reactive metals like Sodium and Potassium are stored under oil to prevent reactions with air or moisture.
• Less reactive metals like Lead and Gold are used in applications requiring stability and resistance to corrosion.
• Displacement Reactions:
• Metals higher in the activity series can displace metals lower in the series in chemical reactions. For example, Zinc can displace Lead from its compounds.
• The activity series is vital in metallurgy, guiding the extraction and refining of metals from ores.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.
• At the time of its adoption, the Constitution consisted of a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules. Hence, the correct answer is 8.
• The Schedules in the Constitution are lists or tables that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government of India. These schedules provide additional details or clarify certain provisions of the Constitution.
• The 8 Schedules initially included provisions like the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha, administration and control of scheduled areas, languages, and other administrative details.
• Hence, the correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

• Schedules of the Indian Constitution:
• Initially, there were only 8 Schedules in the Constitution, but over time, the number of schedules has increased to 12 through various amendments.
• The additional schedules were added to accommodate the evolving needs of the Indian polity and administration. For example, the 9th Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951, and the 10th Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
• Details of the Original 8 Schedules:
• First Schedule: Lists the names of states and union territories and their territorial jurisdiction.
• Second Schedule: Specifies the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of the President, Governors, Judges, and other constitutional authorities.
• Third Schedule: Contains the forms of oaths or affirmations to be made by constitutional office holders.
• Fourth Schedule: Allocates seats for each state and union territory in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• Fifth Schedule: Deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Sixth Schedule: Contains provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• Seventh Schedule: Specifies the distribution of powers and functions between the Union and the States through three lists – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• Eighth Schedule: Lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution. Initially, it included 14 languages, which has now increased to 22 languages through amendments.

Important Points

• The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution in the world, containing 395 Articles divided into 22 Parts and 8 Schedules at the time of its adoption.
• Over the years, the Constitution has undergone over 100 amendments, which have added more Articles, Parts, and Schedules.
• The Schedules are critical to understanding the administrative and legislative framework of the Indian government. They provide clarity and structure to the provisions of the Constitution.
• The Constitution has evolved to address the changing socio-political, economic, and cultural needs of the nation while adhering to its core principles of democracy, secularism, and federalism.

The correct answer is ICICI Bank.

Key Points

• iStartup2.0 is a program launched by ICICI Bank in September 2020. It is designed to cater to the specific banking as well as non-banking needs of startups in India.
• The program offers a comprehensive suite of digital and physical banking services, customized to meet the unique requirements of startups, such as current accounts, payment gateways, and POS solutions.
• In addition to banking, iStartup2.0 provides startups with access to services that aid in legal compliance, taxation, accounting, mentoring, and networking opportunities. This makes it a one-stop solution for startups.
• The initiative is aimed at supporting the entrepreneurial ecosystem in India by addressing the challenges faced by startups, particularly in their early stages.
• ICICI Bank has established itself as a key player in the banking sector by launching such innovative programs that focus on specific customer segments, like startups. Hence, ICICI Bank is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• About ICICI Bank:
• ICICI Bank is one of the largest private sector banks in India. It was established in 1994 and is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The bank is known for its innovative banking solutions and its focus on leveraging technology to improve customer experience.
• Examples: ICICI Bank has launched numerous digital initiatives like iMobile Pay, InstaBIZ, and iStartup2.0, which cater to different customer segments.
• Other Banking Options for Startups:
• Punjab National Bank: Offers basic banking services but lacks a specialized program like iStartup2.0.
• Canara Bank: Provides SME loans and other financial products but does not have a dedicated startup program.
• UCO Bank: Focuses on general banking services and has limited offerings tailored to startups.
• Startup Ecosystem in India:
• India is the third-largest startup ecosystem in the world, with over 80,000 startups as of 2023.
• The government has also launched initiatives like Startup India to promote entrepreneurship and innovation.
• Programs like iStartup2.0 align with the government’s vision of creating a robust startup ecosystem by addressing the specific needs of entrepreneurs.

Important Points

• Key Features of iStartup2.0:
• Three-tiered Current Accounts: The program offers three types of current accounts based on the stage of the startup – Platinum, Gold, and Silver.
• Digital Services: Includes payment gateways, point of sale (POS) solutions, and APIs for integration with other systems.
• Non-Banking Support: Access to taxation, compliance, and legal advisory services, as well as mentoring and networking opportunities for startups.
• Why ICICI Bank is a Leader:
• ICICI Bank’s focus on innovation and customer-centric solutions has made it a leader in the banking sector.
• Programs like iStartup2.0 demonstrate its commitment to supporting emerging businesses and fostering entrepreneurship in India.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• According to the Flag Code of India, the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Indian national flag is strictly defined as 3:2.
• This ratio ensures that the flag maintains its proportional dimensions across all sizes and is consistent in its representation. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Flag Code of India specifies the dimensions and guidelines for the display, manufacture, and use of the national flag in order to uphold its dignity and respect.
• This regulation is enforced to avoid distortion in the flag’s design and proportions, ensuring uniformity in its visual presentation.
• The significance of the 3:2 ratio is also reflected in the flag's usage, whether it is hoisted on poles, displayed on walls, or printed in various formats. Any deviation from this ratio is considered a violation of the Flag Code. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Flag Code of India:
• The Flag Code of India was established to regulate the use, display, and handling of the national flag to maintain its dignity and honor.
• It is applicable to all citizens, organizations, and institutions in India, ensuring that the flag is treated with respect and follows strict guidelines.
• Design and Proportions:
• The design of the Indian flag features three horizontal stripes of saffron, white, and green with a 24-spoke navy-blue Ashoka Chakra at the center of the white stripe.
• The proportions of the flag are standardized to a 3:2 ratio, ensuring uniformity in its representation across all formats.
• Historical Context:
• The present design of the Indian flag was adopted on 22 July 1947, shortly before India’s independence.
• The flag symbolizes freedom, unity, and pride, and its proportions are maintained to honor its legacy.

Important Points

• Legal Guidelines:
• The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, ensures that the flag is used respectfully and prohibits any misuse or insult.
• The Flag Code of India mandates specific rules for hoisting, displaying, and storing the flag to maintain its dignity.
• Usage Regulations:
• The flag can be hoisted by citizens on any day, subject to compliance with the Flag Code. However, it must not be used for commercial purposes or draped over objects.
• Special care must be taken to ensure that the flag is not damaged, torn, or allowed to touch the ground.

The correct answer is Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus.

Key Points

• It was designed by Frederick William Stevens, a British architect, and completed in 1888. This architectural masterpiece is a blend of Victorian Gothic Revival and traditional Indian architectural styles.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2004, recognizing its historical and architectural significance.
• The design incorporates intricate stone carvings, pointed arches, turrets, and stained glass windows, showcasing both Indian craftsmanship and Victorian aesthetics.
• Frederick William Stevens (1847–1900) was a British architect known for his work in India during British colonial rule.
• FW Stevens also contributed to the design of other prominent buildings in Mumbai, such as the Municipal Corporation Building, further solidifying his legacy in architectural history.
• The station is notable for its ornate façade, featuring carved figures of animals, birds, and floral motifs that exemplify Indian artistic traditions.
• The interior includes high vaulted ceilings and spacious platforms designed for functionality as well as aesthetic appeal.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Options:
• Victoria Memorial: Located in Kolkata and designed by William Emerson, it is a white marble structure commemorating Queen Victoria.
• The Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its architectural significance and historical importance in India's railway history.
• It serves as a reminder of the British colonial impact on infrastructure development in India.

The correct answer is Portugal.

Key Points

• Cristiano Ronaldo is one of the most famous football players in the world, hailing from the country of Portugal. He has represented Portugal in numerous international football tournaments.
• Ronaldo is the captain of the Portuguese national team and has been a key player in their success over the years, including their victory in the 2016 UEFA European Championship.
• Portugal, under Ronaldo's leadership, also won the inaugural UEFA Nations League in 2019. This solidifies his contribution to Portugal's global football standing.
• Ronaldo has been recognized as one of the greatest players in football history and has won several individual awards, including the prestigious Ballon d'Or multiple times.
• Ronaldo's international career with Portugal has been illustrious, as he is the country’s all-time leading goal scorer and has helped elevate the team’s reputation in the global football community.
• The other options, such as France, Spain, and Brazil, represent different footballing nations, but Cristiano Ronaldo has never played for these countries in international tournaments. Hence, these options are incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Portugal.

Additional Information

• About Cristiano Ronaldo:
• Full Name: Cristiano Ronaldo dos Santos Aveiro, born on February 5, 1985, in Funchal, Madeira, Portugal.
• Club Career: Ronaldo has played for prestigious clubs like Sporting CP, Manchester United, Real Madrid, Juventus, and now Al-Nassr. His club successes include numerous league titles and UEFA Champions League trophies.
• International Career: Ronaldo debuted for the Portuguese national team in 2003 and has since earned over 200 caps, becoming the highest international goal scorer in football history.
• Portugal in Football:
• Portugal's Achievements: Portugal won the 2016 UEFA European Championship, defeating France 1-0 in the final. They also claimed the 2019 UEFA Nations League title.
• Portuguese Football Legends: Alongside Ronaldo, Portugal has produced other football legends like Eusébio, Luís Figo, and Rui Costa.
• Other Options:
• France: France is represented by players like Kylian Mbappé and Zinedine Zidane. It won the FIFA World Cup in 1998 and 2018.
• Spain: Spain has a rich football history, winning the FIFA World Cup in 2010 and back-to-back UEFA European Championships in 2008 and 2012.
• Brazil: Brazil is a football powerhouse, winning the FIFA World Cup a record five times. It is represented by legends like Pelé, Zico, and Neymar.

Important Points

• Ronaldo's Records:
• Ronaldo is the only player to have won league titles in England, Spain, and Italy while excelling in international competitions.
• He holds the record for most goals in UEFA Champions League history, showcasing his dominance in European football.
• Legacy:
• Ronaldo’s contribution to football, both at the club and international level, has made him a global icon, inspiring millions of young players worldwide.
• His dedication, discipline, and consistent performances have earned him recognition as one of the greatest athletes of all time.

The correct answer is Western Ghats.

Key Points

• Madhav Gadgil Panel: The Madhav Gadgil panel refers to the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), formed by the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) of India in 2010.
• The panel was chaired by Dr. Madhav Gadgil, a renowned ecologist, and aimed to assess the ecological health of the Western Ghats and suggest measures for conservation.
• The Western Ghats are one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity globally and are crucial for India's ecological balance.
• WGEEP divided the Western Ghats into three zones based on ecological sensitivity: Ecologically Sensitive Zone (ESZ) 1, ESZ 2, and ESZ 3, providing specific recommendations for conservation and sustainable development in each zone.
• The panel emphasized the importance of participatory governance involving local communities for managing and conserving the region's rich biodiversity. Hence, the Madhav Gadgil panel is related to the environment of the Western Ghats.

Additional Information

• Western Ghats:
• Location: The Western Ghats extend along the western coast of India, spanning across six states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• Biodiversity: The region is known for its rich biodiversity, including endemic species of flora and fauna. It harbors numerous national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves.
• UNESCO World Heritage Site: In 2012, the Western Ghats were recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for their outstanding universal value in biodiversity and conservation.
• Recommendations by Madhav Gadgil Panel:
• The panel recommended banning environmentally destructive activities such as mining, large-scale deforestation, and certain construction projects in ecologically sensitive zones.
• It emphasized involving local communities in the decision-making process for sustainable development and environmental protection.
• The Gadgil panel report faced criticism from some stakeholders due to its stringent measures, leading to the formation of another committee, the Kasturirangan Committee, for review in 2012.
• Comparison with Other Regions:
• Himalayas: The Himalayas are known for their fragile ecosystem and unique biodiversity but are not the focus of the Madhav Gadgil panel.
• Eastern Ghats: While the Eastern Ghats are significant for their biodiversity, the Gadgil panel specifically studied the Western Ghats.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: These islands have unique ecosystems, but their conservation is managed under separate frameworks, not by the Madhav Gadgil panel.

Important Points

• Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel:
• The panel was established in 2010 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to provide a framework for the conservation of the Western Ghats.
• It proposed measures for reducing human impact on ecologically sensitive areas, including banning harmful activities such as mining and deforestation.
• Kasturirangan Committee:
• Formed in 2012 to review the Gadgil report, it suggested a more balanced approach to conservation and development.
• Unlike the Gadgil panel, the Kasturirangan report suggested reducing the area classified as ecologically sensitive and focused on high-priority zones.

The correct answer is Air.

Key Points

• The refractive index is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced when it passes through a material compared to its speed in a vacuum.
• The refractive index of a material is given by the formula: n = c/v, where:
• n = refractive index
• c = speed of light in a vacuum (approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s)
• v = speed of light in the material
• The refractive index of air is very close to 1, approximately 1.0003, because the speed of light in air is nearly the same as in a vacuum. Hence, air has a refractive index closest to 1.
• Other materials mentioned in the options have higher refractive indices:
• Kerosene: Approximately 1.44 to 1.48
• Water: Approximately 1.33
• Alcohol: Approximately 1.36
• Since the refractive index of air is the lowest among the given options and closest to 1, it is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Refractive Index:
• The refractive index of a material determines how much it bends (or refracts) light passing through it.
• A higher refractive index means that light travels slower in that material compared to air or a vacuum.
• Materials with a refractive index close to 1 (like air) do not significantly slow down or bend light.
• Refractive Indices of Common Substances:
• Vacuum: By definition, the refractive index of a vacuum is exactly 1.
• Air: Approximately 1.0003, which is very close to 1 due to its low density.
• Water: Approximately 1.33, which is higher due to its molecular structure.
• Glass: Ranges from 1.5 to 1.9 depending on its type.
• Diamond: One of the highest refractive indices, approximately 2.42.
• Applications of Refractive Index:
• Used in designing optical instruments like lenses, microscopes, and telescopes.
• Helps in understanding the bending of light in mediums and is crucial in fiber optic communications.
• Determines the critical angle for total internal reflection, which is essential in technologies like binoculars and optical fibers.

Important Points

• Kerosene:
• Its refractive index ranges from 1.44 to 1.48, making it significantly higher than air.
• Kerosene's optical properties allow it to be used in specific lighting and optical applications.
• Water:
• The refractive index of water (approximately 1.33) plays a significant role in underwater optics and aquatic research.
• This property explains phenomena like the apparent bending of objects under water.
• Alcohol:
• Alcohol, with a refractive index of approximately 1.36, is used in various optical experiments and applications.
• Its refractive properties are affected by its purity and concentration.

The correct answer is Sardar Swaran Singh.

Key Points

• The Congress Party in 1976 established the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to provide recommendations on incorporating Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution.
• This step was taken during the time of the Emergency, declared by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, as an effort to strengthen national discipline and responsibility among citizens.
• The committee, chaired by Sardar Swaran Singh, proposed the incorporation of Fundamental Duties as a part of the Constitution to promote a sense of duty and patriotism. Hence, the committee's name in the question is correct.
• Based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Part IVA and Article 51A to the Constitution, which enlists the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
• The original list contained 10 Fundamental Duties, which were later increased to 11 by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002. This demonstrates the enduring influence of the committee's recommendations.
• Hence, the correct answer is Sardar Swaran Singh.

Additional Information

• Sardar Swaran Singh Committee:
• This committee was constituted in 1976 to recommend the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
• The committee suggested that citizens should have certain responsibilities towards the nation to complement the Fundamental Rights already present in the Constitution.
• It is noteworthy that the committee’s recommendations were part of a broader effort to enhance national integrity and discipline during the period of Emergency (1975–77).
• 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976):
• This amendment is often referred to as the “Mini Constitution” because of its wide-ranging changes.
• It added Part IVA to the Constitution, which includes Article 51A, listing the Fundamental Duties.
• The amendment also made significant changes to the Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, and strengthened the central government’s powers.
• Fundamental Duties:
• The Fundamental Duties are inspired by the USSR Constitution and are meant to emphasize the moral obligations of citizens.
• Examples of Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle, and protecting the sovereignty and unity of India.
• The 11th Fundamental Duty, added by the 86th Amendment, emphasizes the duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children.

Important Points

• Key Characteristics of Fundamental Duties:
• They are non-justiciable, meaning their implementation cannot be enforced by the judiciary.
• They are primarily moral obligations aimed at promoting patriotism and upholding the unity of India.
• The duties apply to all citizens of India and are meant to ensure the growth of responsible and participatory democracy.
• Role of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee:
• The committee’s recommendations were pivotal in shaping the concept of Fundamental Duties in India.
• They were a response to the perceived lack of civic responsibility during the Emergency, highlighting the importance of citizen participation in nation-building.

The correct answer is Chandragiri.

Key Points

• Chandragiri was one of the capitals of the Vijayanagara Empire, especially during its later stages. The empire is known for its rich cultural and architectural heritage.
• The Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336 by the Sangama dynasty, initially had its capital at Hampi (also called Vijayanagara). However, in the later years, especially during the rule of the Aravidu dynasty, the capital was shifted to Chandragiri.
• Chandragiri is located in present-day Andhra Pradesh, near Tirupati, and was strategically important due to its geographic location and natural fortifications.
• The fort at Chandragiri is a significant architectural marvel, showcasing the influence of South Indian temple architecture and military design. It stands as a testament to the ingenuity of the Vijayanagara rulers.
• The shift of the capital to Chandragiri occurred after the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire's power, largely due to invasions by the Deccan Sultanates after the Battle of Talikota in 1565.
• Chandragiri remained an important administrative center for the Aravidu dynasty, which was the last ruling dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire, until their decline in the 17th century.
• The other options mentioned in the question—Chunar, Chausa, and Champaner—were not associated with the Vijayanagara Empire. They were historically significant in other regions of India but not related to the empire's capitals.

Additional Information

• Chandragiri:
• Located near Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh, Chandragiri is known for its majestic fort, which is an excellent example of South Indian architecture.
• The fort is believed to have been built in the 11th century by the Yadava rulers and was later captured by the rulers of Vijayanagara in the 14th century.
• Chandragiri gained prominence as the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire under the Aravidu dynasty, after the fall of Hampi.
• Vijayanagara Empire:
• The Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty.
• It was renowned for its contributions to art, culture, architecture, and administration. Hampi, its original capital, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site today.
• The empire played a significant role in resisting the expansion of Islamic sultanates in South India and preserving Hindu culture.
• Other Options:
• Chunar: Located in Uttar Pradesh, Chunar is known for its fort, which was significant during the Mughal and British periods, but it had no connection to the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Chausa: A historical location in Bihar, Chausa is famous for the Battle of Chausa in 1539, where Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun. It is unrelated to the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Champaner: Situated in Gujarat, Champaner was the capital of the Gujarat Sultanate and is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It was not associated with the Vijayanagara Empire.

Important Points

• Battle of Talikota:
• The Battle of Talikota (1565) was a significant event that marked the beginning of the end for the Vijayanagara Empire. It was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the combined armies of the Deccan Sultanates.
• The defeat of Vijayanagara led to the sacking of Hampi, and the empire's capital was subsequently moved to Chandragiri.
• Architectural Significance:
• The Vijayanagara rulers were great patrons of art and architecture. Chandragiri fort and other structures built during their reign exhibit intricate carvings and Dravidian architectural styles.
• The empire also contributed significantly to South Indian temple architecture, with notable examples like the Virupaksha Temple and Vittala Temple in Hampi.

The correct answer is Velocity of light.

Key Points

• The special theory of relativity, formulated by Albert Einstein in 1905, revolutionized the understanding of space, time, and motion. It introduced the concept that many quantities previously considered absolute are actually relative.
• Among the quantities listed in the question:
• Time interval between two events: In relativity, time is not absolute. Observers in different inertial frames may measure different time intervals for the same pair of events. This is known as time dilation. Hence, this quantity is relative.
• Simultaneity: Events that appear simultaneous to one observer may not be simultaneous to another observer moving at a different velocity. This concept is a direct consequence of relativity, making simultaneity a relative concept.
• Length of an object: According to relativity, the length of an object can change depending on the relative motion between the observer and the object. This phenomenon is termed as length contraction. Thus, length is also relative.
• Velocity of light: Unlike the other quantities, the velocity of light in a vacuum is an absolute constant, independent of the motion of the source or the observer. This was confirmed by the famous Michelson-Morley experiment, which demonstrated that the speed of light is always approximately 299,792 kilometers per second. Hence, this quantity is NOT relative.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Velocity of light.

Additional Information

• Special Theory of Relativity:
• Proposed by Albert Einstein in 1905, it is based on two postulates:
• The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference.
• The speed of light in vacuum is constant and does not depend on the motion of the source or the observer.
• It challenged classical mechanics and introduced concepts such as time dilation, length contraction, and the equivalence of mass and energy (E=mc²).
• Michelson-Morley Experiment:
• Conducted by Albert A. Michelson and Edward W. Morley in 1887, this experiment aimed to detect the relative motion of matter through the hypothetical "ether."
• It proved that the speed of light is constant in all directions, which laid the foundation for Einstein’s theory of relativity.
• Applications of Relativity:
• Relativity has profound implications in modern physics, influencing areas like astrophysics, GPS technology, and particle physics.
• For example, GPS satellites account for relativistic effects to provide accurate location data.

Important Points

• The velocity of light is a universal constant and is denoted by c.
• Its value is approximately 3 x 10⁸ m/s, and it is essential for calculations in electromagnetic theory and relativity.
• The invariance of the speed of light is a cornerstone of the special theory of relativity, distinguishing it from classical Newtonian physics.
• Relativity has been experimentally verified through phenomena such as muon decay, observations in particle accelerators, and cosmic ray interactions.

The correct answer is PARAKH.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy 2020 proposed the establishment of a new National Assessment Centre, named PARAKH.
• PARAKH stands for Performance, Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic development. It aims to serve as a standard-setting body for school education assessments.
• It will ensure the uniformity in assessment standards across all boards in India and promote competency-based learning and evaluation. Hence, the correct answer is PARAKH.
• The centre will work to improve the quality of assessments, focusing on conceptual understanding rather than rote learning.
• PARAKH is envisioned to support the National Curriculum Framework and ensure better academic outcomes. This is aligned with the objectives of NEP 2020.
• The centre will also help in creating frameworks for assessments, training educators, and setting benchmarks for evaluation.
• Hence, the correct answer is PARAKH.

Additional Information

• National Education Policy 2020:
• NEP 2020 is a comprehensive policy that aims to transform the Indian education system by focusing on holistic development, competency-based learning, and inclusivity.
• It emphasizes the importance of standardized assessments and aims to create a robust framework for education quality enhancement.
• Functions of PARAKH:
• Example: PARAKH will help align state boards' curriculum with the National Curriculum Framework.
• Competency-Based Learning:
• NEP 2020 promotes competency-based learning, which focuses on developing skills and understanding rather than rote memorization.
• PARAKH will create assessment frameworks to evaluate students' conceptual understanding and practical application of knowledge.

Important Points

• Goals of PARAKH:
• To establish uniform standards for assessments across all school boards in India.
• To ensure assessments focus on conceptual learning and encourage holistic development.
• Significance of NEP 2020:
• NEP 2020 aims to make India a global hub for education quality and innovation.
• The policy emphasizes digital learning, teacher training, and multidisciplinary education.

The correct answer is Ryotwari.

Key Points

• Ryotwari System is also referred to as the 'Munro System.'
• This land revenue system was introduced by the British in areas like Madras, Bombay, and Assam.
• Under the Ryotwari system, the revenue was collected directly from the cultivators (Ryots) by the government, eliminating the role of intermediaries such as zamindars.
• It was pioneered by Thomas Munro, a British administrator and later Governor of Madras, hence named after him.
• The system ensured that the cultivators were recognized as the owners of the land and were liable to pay the revenue directly to the state.
• The revenue was assessed based on the type of soil, crops grown, and productivity of the land. Periodic surveys were conducted to update assessments.
• It was deemed beneficial for the cultivators compared to Zamindari and Mahalwari systems, which involved intermediaries and often led to exploitation.
• Hence, the correct answer is Ryotwari.

Additional Information

• Zamindari System:
• Under this system, the revenue was collected by Zamindars, who acted as intermediaries between the government and the cultivators.
• Introduced by the British in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of northern India, it often led to exploitation of cultivators due to high revenue demands.
• Mahalwari System:
• Introduced in northwest India (including Punjab, parts of UP, and Delhi), this system involved revenue collection from a village or group of villages (Mahal).
• The revenue was shared among all cultivators of the Mahal, often leading to collective responsibility for payments.
• Ijaradari System:
• This was a form of revenue farming where the rights to collect revenue were auctioned to the highest bidder, known as the Ijaradar.
• It was prevalent in certain regions during the early British rule but fell out of favor due to inefficiencies and exploitation.
• Key Features of Ryotwari System:
• Cultivators were acknowledged as landowners.
• Revenue assessment was based on soil quality, productivity, and type of crops grown.
• Periodic revenue surveys were conducted to ensure fair assessment.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The Ryotwari system was introduced during the early 19th century, primarily in regions where Zamindari failed to work effectively.
• Thomas Munro played a key role in its introduction in the Madras Presidency.
• Comparison with other systems:
• Unlike Zamindari and Mahalwari systems, Ryotwari ensured direct interaction between the cultivators and the government.
• This reduced exploitation and improved accountability in revenue collection.

The correct answer is mercury.

Key Points

• Cinnabar (HgS) is a naturally occurring mineral of mercury sulfide, and it is the primary ore used for the extraction of mercury.
• When cinnabar (HgS) is heated in air, it undergoes a chemical reaction to form mercury(II) oxide (HgO). This is an oxidation process because cinnabar reacts with oxygen present in the air.
• The reaction can be represented as: HgS + O₂ → HgO + SO₂. This shows that cinnabar is converted into mercury oxide and sulfur dioxide gas is released as a by-product.
• Further heating of mercury oxide (HgO) leads to its decomposition into elemental mercury (Hg) and oxygen gas (O₂). This step is typically carried out to extract pure mercury.
• Hence, when cinnabar is heated in air, it gets converted into an oxide of mercury, confirming that the correct answer is mercury.

Additional Information

• Cinnabar (HgS):
• Cinnabar is the most important ore of mercury. It has a bright red or reddish-brown color and has been used historically as a pigment in art and decoration.
• It is composed of mercury sulfide (HgS) and has a high mercury content, which makes it a valuable source for the extraction of mercury.
• Properties of Mercury:
• Mercury is a liquid metal at room temperature and is known for its high density and unique property of forming amalgams with other metals.
• Mercury has applications in thermometers, barometers, fluorescent lamps, and dental amalgams. However, its use is being reduced due to its toxic effects.
• Chemical Reactions Involved:
• Oxidation of Cinnabar: When cinnabar reacts with oxygen, it forms mercury oxide (HgO) and sulfur dioxide gas (SO₂).
• Decomposition of Mercury Oxide: Further heating of mercury oxide results in its decomposition into elemental mercury and oxygen gas.

Important Points

• Alternative Uses of Cinnabar:
• Apart from being a source of mercury, cinnabar has also been used as a pigment called vermilion for centuries.
• Due to its high toxicity, modern uses of cinnabar are limited, and handling requires proper safety measures.
• Health and Environmental Concerns:
• Mercury and its compounds, including cinnabar, are highly toxic. Prolonged exposure can lead to severe health issues, including neurological damage.
• Environmental pollution due to mercury is a major concern, as it can accumulate in the food chain, particularly in aquatic ecosystems.

The correct answer is Yann Martel.

Key Points

• Yann Martel is the author of the globally acclaimed novel ‘Life of Pi’, published in 2001. The novel gained immense popularity and critical acclaim for its unique storytelling and philosophical depth.
• The novel, ‘Life of Pi’, is a story of survival and self-discovery. It revolves around Pi Patel, a young Indian boy stranded on a lifeboat in the Pacific Ocean with a Bengal tiger named Richard Parker.
• The book won the Man Booker Prize in 2002, cementing Yann Martel's position as a prominent contemporary writer.
• Yann Martel was born in Salamanca, Spain, in 1963, but he is a Canadian writer. His works are known for their philosophical themes and exploration of complex human emotions.
• The novel was later adapted into an Academy Award-winning film directed by Ang Lee in 2012, further popularizing the story.
• ‘Life of Pi’ explores themes of faith, survival, and the human-animal connection. It is widely studied in literature courses worldwide.

Additional Information

• Yann Martel’s Background:
• Yann Martel spent his early years in different parts of the world, including Spain, Costa Rica, Canada, and France, due to his father’s job as a diplomat.
• He studied philosophy at Trent University in Canada, which significantly influenced his writing style and the themes of his works.
• Other Works by Yann Martel:
• Some of his other notable works include ‘Self’ (1996), ‘Beatrice and Virgil’ (2010), and ‘The High Mountains of Portugal’ (2016).
• ‘Beatrice and Virgil’ explores themes of the Holocaust using animal allegory, a technique also seen in ‘Life of Pi’.
• Other Authors and Works Mentioned in the Options:
• Anna Burns: Author of ‘Milkman’, which won the Man Booker Prize in 2018.
• Winning this prize significantly boosts the global recognition of an author and their work.
• Symbolism in ‘Life of Pi’:
• The lifeboat: Represents survival and the human struggle against the odds.
• Richard Parker (the tiger): Symbolizes fear, companionship, and the primal instincts within humans.
• The ocean: Reflects the vastness of life and the unknown challenges it presents.

The correct answer is Boreal.

Key Points

• Boreal forests are also referred to as the Taiga. They represent the world's largest terrestrial biome, forming a circumpolar belt around the northern hemisphere.
• These forests are located between the latitudes of 50ºN to 70ºN, spanning countries like Canada, Russia, Sweden, Finland, Norway, and Alaska.
• The climate in the boreal forest zone is harsh, characterized by long, cold winters and short summers. The region experiences low precipitation, mainly in the form of snow. Hence, this is the correct answer.
• The vegetation in boreal forests is dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce, pine, fir, and larch. These trees are well-adapted to the cold climate and poor soil conditions.
• Boreal forests are an essential carbon sink, absorbing significant amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and contributing to the regulation of the global climate. Hence, Boreal forests play a vital ecological role.
• The fauna in boreal forests includes species adapted to cold climates, such as bears, wolves, moose, lynxes, and birds like owls and woodpeckers.
• Economic activities in the boreal region are generally limited to logging, mining, and hunting, as the climatic conditions make agriculture challenging. Hence, boreal forests have limited human activities.
• Hence, the correct answer is Boreal.

Additional Information

• Global Forest Zones:
• Tropical forests: Found near the equator, these forests experience warm and humid climates. Examples include the Amazon Rainforest and the Congo Basin.
• Torrid forests: This term is less commonly used and often overlaps with tropical regions. It refers to forests in regions with extreme heat and high rainfall.
• Temperate forests: Found in regions with moderate climates, such as Europe, North America, and parts of Asia. These forests have a mix of deciduous and coniferous trees.
• Boreal forests: These forests form a circumpolar belt in the northern hemisphere and are characterized by cold climates and coniferous vegetation.
• Characteristics of Boreal Forests:
• Soil: Boreal forests have thin, acidic, and nutrient-poor soil due to slow decomposition rates.
• Climate: The region experiences subarctic climates with temperatures ranging from -50°C to 30°C.
• Importance: Boreal forests are crucial for biodiversity conservation and carbon sequestration, acting as a buffer against climate change.

Important Points

• Threats to Boreal Forests:
• Deforestation: Logging and mining activities pose significant threats to boreal forests.
• Climate change: Rising temperatures and changing precipitation patterns are impacting the ecological balance of boreal regions.
• Wildfires: Increased frequency of wildfires due to dry conditions and global warming is a growing concern.
• Conservation Efforts:
• Countries like Canada and Russia have implemented policies to protect boreal forests through national parks and conservation programs.
• International organizations such as the UN are promoting sustainable practices to conserve these forests.

The correct answer is Olive Ridley turtle.

Key Points

• The term ‘Arribada’ refers to a unique phenomenon where thousands of Olive Ridley turtles come together on specific beaches for mass nesting. This event is a synchronized and remarkable natural occurrence.
• During the Arribada, female turtles come ashore to lay eggs, often at night, in large groups. This ensures the survival of a significant number of hatchlings despite predators.
• The term ‘Arribada’ is derived from the Spanish word meaning ‘arrival.’ This phenomenon is most commonly observed along the coasts of India, Costa Rica, and Mexico.
• In India, the Gahirmatha Beach in Odisha and the Rushikulya River mouth are globally recognized as important nesting sites for the Olive Ridley turtles.
• This synchronized nesting enhances the chances of survival as it overwhelms predators, ensuring that a significant number of eggs and hatchlings survive. This strategy is termed safety in numbers.
• Hence, the correct answer is Olive Ridley turtle.

Additional Information

• Olive Ridley Turtles:
• The Olive Ridley turtle is one of the smallest species of sea turtles, named for its olive-colored shell.
• These turtles are classified as vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) due to threats like habitat loss, fishing nets, and egg poaching.
• Scientific Name: Lepidochelys olivacea. They are found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans.
• Other Options:
• Ganges Dolphin: The Ganges River dolphin is a freshwater species found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. It is unrelated to the term ‘Arribada’.
• Tiger: Tigers are terrestrial predators and have no relation to the term ‘Arribada’. They are typically solitary animals.
• Crocodile: Crocodiles are reptiles that inhabit freshwater and saltwater environments. They also do not exhibit mass nesting behavior like the Olive Ridley turtles.
• Conservation Efforts:
• Efforts to protect Olive Ridley turtles include creating protected nesting sites and implementing fishing bans during the nesting season.
• Programs like Operation Kachhapa in Odisha aim to conserve these turtles by reducing human-related threats.

Important Points

• Mass Nesting Phenomenon: Mass nesting events like the Arribada are rare and occur in only a few places globally, making their conservation critical for maintaining biodiversity.
• Threats to Olive Ridley Turtles: These include poaching of eggs, accidental capture in fishing nets, climate change affecting nesting sites, and pollution in the oceans.
• Legal Protections: In India, Olive Ridley turtles are protected under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, which prohibits hunting and trade of these turtles and their eggs.

The correct answer is Labour and Employment.

Key Points

• The scheme was introduced in August 2016 to promote employment generation by reducing the financial burden on employers.
• The scheme primarily targets establishments registered under the Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and focuses on encouraging formalization of employment.
• It requires employers to add new employees to their workforce and register them with EPFO to benefit from the scheme.
• To reduce the financial burden of employers by paying the EPS contribution of new employees for three years.
• To provide social security benefits to employees through EPFO registration, ensuring their pensions and provident fund contributions.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Employees must be earning a monthly salary of less than ₹15,000 and should not have been previously registered with EPFO.
• The scheme has helped in formalizing employment and increasing the number of workers registered under EPFO.
• The government’s contribution to EPS is paid for new employees to reduce the financial burden on employers.
• As of 2020, the scheme has benefitted over 1.22 crore employees and provided financial relief to thousands of employers.
• The scheme is part of the government’s larger initiative to boost employment and ensure social welfare for workers.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The river Tapi, also called the Tapti River, originates from the Satpura ranges in Madhya Pradesh near Multai in Betul district.
• It flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea. Hence, these states are drained by the river Tapi.
• The river does not flow through Rajasthan. Rajasthan lies to the northwest of the river’s path and is primarily drained by rivers like the Chambal, Luni, and Banas. Hence, Rajasthan is NOT drained by the Tapi River.
• The Tapi River is known for its importance in the irrigation and water supply of the regions it traverses, but Rajasthan does not benefit from it due to its geographical location.
• The states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh have significant parts of their territories influenced by the Tapi River, contributing to agriculture, water usage, and local ecosystems. Hence, the correct answer is Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• River Tapi:
• The Tapi River has a total length of approximately 724 km. It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India.
• It originates from Multai in the Satpura ranges in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward, making it unique among rivers in India that flow towards the Arabian Sea.
• The river basin covers approximately 65,145 square kilometers, spreading across Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• States Drained by Tapi:
• Madhya Pradesh: The river originates here and flows through regions like Betul and Burhanpur.
• Maharashtra: The Tapi River flows through districts like Jalgaon and Dhule, contributing significantly to agriculture in the region.
• Gujarat: Tapi enters Gujarat near Surat and drains into the Arabian Sea. The city of Surat is located on the banks of the Tapi River.
• Rivers in Rajasthan:
• Chambal River: A major river of Rajasthan, it flows through the southeastern part of the state.
• Luni River: Known as the lifeline of western Rajasthan, it is a seasonal river that flows through arid regions.
• Banas River: A tributary of the Chambal, flowing through eastern Rajasthan.

Important Points

• Geographical Features:
• The Tapi River basin is bordered by the Satpura hills in the north, the Ajanta ranges in the south, and the Arabian Sea in the west.
• The river is known for its westward flow, unlike many other rivers in India that flow eastward.
• Economic Importance:
• The Tapi River supports agriculture in Maharashtra and Gujarat, particularly for crops like cotton and millet.
• Surat city in Gujarat benefits from the river’s water resources for industries and domestic usage.

The correct answer is Pindari.

Key Points

• The glacier lies in the Bageshwar district and is a prominent trekking destination for adventurers and nature lovers. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Pindari Glacier is surrounded by lofty Himalayan peaks like Nanda Devi, Nanda Kot, and Trishul, making it a picturesque location.
• The glacier is around 5 km long and offers stunning views of the snow-capped mountains, making it a favorite spot for trekkers. Hence, statement related to Pindari Glacier is correct.

Additional Information

• Details about the glaciers mentioned:
• Luggye Glacier: This glacier is located in Bhutan and is part of the Himalayan glaciers. It is notable for its impact on glacial lakes that have the potential to cause glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs).
• Carstensz Glacier: Located in Indonesia, this glacier is part of the tropical region and is found on the slopes of Puncak Jaya, the highest peak in Oceania. Due to climate change, it is rapidly retreating.
• Te Wahipounamu: This is not a glacier but a UNESCO World Heritage site located in New Zealand. The region includes fjords, rainforests, and glacial landscapes. It is recognized for its ecological significance.
• Geographical Importance of Pindari Glacier:
• The glacier serves as a vital water source for the Pindar River and contributes to the hydrology of the region.
• It is a popular trekking destination with routes starting from Khati Village, which is considered the last inhabited village en route.
• The trek offers breathtaking views of Himalayan peaks and allows visitors to experience the beauty of Uttarakhand.
• Significance of Glaciers:
• Glaciers play a crucial role in maintaining the water cycle and act as natural reservoirs of fresh water.
• They are indicators of climate change, as their retreat and melting provide evidence of global warming.

Important Points

• Indian Himalayan Glaciers:
• India is home to many glaciers such as Gangotri, Siachen, Zemu, and Pindari, which are vital for the water systems and biodiversity of the region.
• These glaciers are sources of major rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus.
• Impact of Climate Change:
• Glaciers worldwide, including Pindari Glacier, are retreating due to rising temperatures.
• Melting glaciers lead to changes in water availability and contribute to sea level rise.

The correct answer is Garuda Shakti – India and Indonesia.

Key Points

• Vajra Prahar: This is a joint military exercise conducted between India and the United States. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and sharing best practices between the armed forces of both nations. Hence, this pair (India and France) is incorrect.
• Konkan: This is a bilateral maritime exercise conducted between India and the United Kingdom. It aims to improve maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean region. Hence, this pair (India and Oman) is incorrect.
• Desert Eagle: This is a joint air force exercise conducted between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is aimed at improving the operational capabilities of the air forces of both nations. Hence, this pair (India and Vietnam) is incorrect.
• Garuda Shakti: This is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Indonesian Army. It focuses on enhancing counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism skills and fosters military cooperation between the two nations. Hence, this pair is correct.

Additional Information

• Vajra Prahar:
• This exercise is conducted annually between the Special Forces of India and the United States.
• The latest edition of Vajra Prahar took place in Himachal Pradesh, India, in 2023.
• It focuses on counter-terrorism operations, hostage rescue missions, and other strategic operations.
• Konkan:
• This is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy (United Kingdom).
• The aim is to strengthen maritime security and interoperability in the Indian Ocean.
• The 2023 edition was held off the coast of Goa, India.
• Desert Eagle:
• This is a joint air force exercise between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• It focuses on tactical air operations, aerial maneuvers, and operational capabilities.
• The exercise strengthens strategic ties between the two nations in the field of defense and security.
• Garuda Shakti:
• This military exercise is held between the Indian Army and the Indonesian Army.
• It primarily focuses on counter-terrorism, jungle warfare, and counter-insurgency operations.
• Garuda Shakti fosters defense cooperation and mutual understanding between the two countries.

Important Points

• Significance of Joint Military Exercises:
• These exercises enhance interoperability, strategic planning, and defense cooperation between nations.
• They serve as platforms for sharing best practices, technology, and operational expertise.
• Such exercises also strengthen diplomatic ties and showcase a nation’s military capabilities on a global platform.
• India’s Global Defense Partnerships:
• India has been actively participating in bilateral and multilateral exercises to strengthen its defense capabilities.
• Examples include Malabar (with the US, Japan, and Australia), Yudh Abhyas (with the US), and Indra (with Russia).

The correct answer is Kanishka.

Key Points

• Kanishka, the famous ruler of the Kushan dynasty, convened the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir around 78 CE. This council is considered highly significant in the history of Buddhism.
• The council was held under the patronage of Kanishka, who was a great supporter of Buddhism. It aimed to resolve disputes and consolidate Buddhist teachings into a unified doctrine.
• It was during this council that the Mahayana school of Buddhism gained prominence, distinguishing itself from the earlier Theravada tradition.
• The council was presided over by renowned Buddhist scholars like Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha, who played crucial roles in compiling Buddhist texts and promoting the Mahayana philosophy.
• The Fourth Buddhist Council led to the translation of Buddhist texts into Sanskrit, marking a significant shift from the earlier use of Pali as the primary language for Buddhist scriptures.
• This council also helped in the establishment of Buddhism as a widespread religion beyond India, influencing regions like Central Asia, China, and Southeast Asia.

Additional Information

• Kanishka:
• Kanishka was the most notable ruler of the Kushan dynasty, ruling during the 1st and 2nd centuries CE. He is renowned for his patronage of Buddhism and his efforts to spread the religion across his vast empire.
• His empire extended from Central Asia to parts of present-day India, encompassing regions like Kashmir, Afghanistan, and northern India.
• He introduced the Kanishka era, which began in 78 CE, and is often linked to the development of the Saka calendar.
• Other Buddhist Councils:
• First Buddhist Council: Held at Rajagriha shortly after Buddha's death to compile his teachings.
• Second Buddhist Council: Convened at Vaishali to address disputes over monastic rules.
• Third Buddhist Council: Held in Pataliputra under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka to purify the Buddhist community.
• Significance of the Fourth Buddhist Council:
• It marked the division of Buddhism into Mahayana and Theravada schools.
• The council paved the way for the spread of Buddhism to China, Japan, and other parts of Asia.
• It promoted the scholarly compilation and systematization of Buddhist texts, ensuring their preservation for future generations.

Important Points

• Vasumitra: The president of the Fourth Buddhist Council, a prominent Buddhist scholar who played a key role in the development of Mahayana Buddhism.
• Ashvaghosha: A renowned poet and philosopher, he was a central figure in propagating Mahayana Buddhism and contributed to Buddhist literature.
• Language Shift: The decision to translate Buddhist scriptures into Sanskrit during the Fourth Buddhist Council helped in the global dissemination of Buddhism.
• Impact on Art and Culture: Kanishka’s reign saw the flourishing of the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art, which combined Indian and Hellenistic artistic styles.

The correct answer is 1947.

Key Points

• The first budget of independent India was presented on 26 November 1947.
• The budget was presented by R. K. Shanmukham Chetty, who was the first Finance Minister of independent India.
• The budget primarily focused on addressing economic challenges, such as food shortages, refugee resettlement, and post-Independence rehabilitation. Hence, the correct answer is 1947.
• The budget was presented amidst significant political and economic changes due to the partition of India and the formation of Pakistan, which had led to a division of resources.
• It was a landmark event that laid the foundation for India's financial and economic planning in the subsequent years.

Additional Information

• R. K. Shanmukham Chetty:
• R. K. Shanmukham Chetty was an eminent economist and politician who served as India’s first Finance Minister from 1947 to 1949.
• He played a key role in shaping India's financial policies during the early years of independence.
• He resigned as Finance Minister in 1949 and was succeeded by John Mathai.
• Budget of 1947:
• The budget focused on economic stabilization and addressing the fiscal challenges arising from partition.
• It prioritized issues such as industrial growth, agricultural productivity, and infrastructure development.
• The budget also allocated funds for refugee rehabilitation following the partition of India.
• Economic Challenges of 1947:
• India was facing severe economic constraints due to the partition, which led to the division of resources, industries, and territories.
• The budget sought to address these challenges by focusing on self-reliance and economic reconstruction.

Important Points

• Historical Significance:
• The 1947 budget was crucial in setting the tone for economic planning and financial management in independent India.
• It provided the foundation for subsequent budgets, which focused on growth, development, and modernization.
• Legacy:
• The budget presented by R. K. Shanmukham Chetty is remembered as a milestone in India's economic history, marking the beginning of independent India's journey towards financial stability.

The correct answer is Bengal Hockey Association.

Key Points

• Bengal Hockey Association was the first hockey association in India, established in the early 20th century. It played a significant role in promoting hockey as an organized sport during the colonial era.
• The association was primarily based in Kolkata, West Bengal, which was a hub of sports activities and administrative centers during British rule.
• It helped in organizing tournaments, creating hockey clubs, and encouraging players to participate in the sport. This contributed greatly to the popularity of hockey in India during its formative years. Hence, the correct answer is Bengal Hockey Association.
• Hockey in India gained momentum as a widely loved sport due to the efforts of organizations like Bengal Hockey Association. It laid the foundation for the establishment of other hockey associations across the country.

Additional Information

• History of Hockey in India:
• Hockey was introduced to India during the British colonial era. It quickly gained popularity due to its fast-paced nature and was soon adopted in schools, colleges, and sports clubs.
• India's first major hockey organization, the Bengal Hockey Association, was established to formalize the sport and ensure structured tournaments and competitions.
• Role of Bengal Hockey Association:
• The Bengal Hockey Association was instrumental in organizing the Calcutta Hockey League, one of the earliest hockey leagues in India.
• It provided a platform for talented players to showcase their skills and contributed to the development of Indian hockey, which later became dominant at an international level.
• Other Hockey Associations in India:
• Mumbai Hockey Association: Another prominent hockey association that emerged later, focusing on nurturing hockey talent in western India.
• Bengaluru Hockey Association: Based in Karnataka, this association played a vital role in promoting hockey in southern India.
• Andhra Hockey Association: This association contributed to the development of hockey in Andhra Pradesh, although it was established much later compared to Bengal Hockey Association.

Important Points

• Achievements of Indian Hockey:
• India's hockey team won its first Olympic gold medal in 1928. This achievement was the result of efforts by associations like Bengal Hockey Association that nurtured hockey talent.
• The dominance of Indian hockey continued until the mid-20th century, with India winning multiple Olympic gold medals between 1928 and 1956.
• Legacy of Bengal Hockey Association:
• Even though other hockey associations emerged later, the Bengal Hockey Association remains significant as the pioneer in organizing hockey in India.
• It inspired the creation of the Indian Hockey Federation in 1925, which later became the governing body for hockey in India.

The correct answer is Kitab-ul-Hind.

Key Points

• Kitab-ul-Hind: This book was written by the renowned scholar Al-Biruni in the Arabic language. It provides an in-depth account of Indian society, culture, religion, philosophy, and sciences during the 11th century.
• The book is considered one of the earliest and most comprehensive works on India by a foreign scholar. Al-Biruni meticulously studied Indian traditions and wrote from an outsider's perspective with great accuracy.
• Content of Kitab-ul-Hind: The book covers various aspects of Indian knowledge systems, including mathematics, astronomy, medicine, and literature. It also discusses Hindu customs, rituals, and beliefs.
• Hence, Kitab-ul-Hind is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Akbarnama:
• Written by Abul Fazl, it is a historical account of the reign of Akbar, the Mughal emperor. This book is composed in the Persian language and is divided into three volumes detailing Akbar's administration, achievements, and personal life.
• It does not contain content written in Arabic but is a significant Persian work of the Mughal era.
• Tabaqat-i-Akbari:
• Authored by Khwandamir, this book is a Persian chronicle detailing the history and genealogy of various rulers, including the Mughals.
• The content is written in Persian and provides a comprehensive view of the administrative setup during the Mughal period.
• Shahnameh:
• This epic poem was written by Firdowsi in Persian. It narrates the history of Persia and its rulers, focusing on themes of heroism and mythology.
• Shahnameh is considered one of the greatest Persian literary works and is not written in Arabic.

Important Points

• Language Differences:
• Arabic: Predominantly used in Islamic scholarship and religious texts. Al-Biruni's Kitab-ul-Hind is a prime example of Arabic works focusing on foreign cultures.
• Persian: The official language of Mughal India, used for court chronicles, poetry, and administration. Akbarnama, Tabaqat-i-Akbari, and Shahnameh are written in Persian, not Arabic.
• Historical Context:
• Al-Biruni's arrival in India during the reign of Mahmud of Ghazni provided him the opportunity to study Indian culture firsthand.
• His works, including Kitab-ul-Hind, highlight the exchange of knowledge between the Islamic and Indian civilizations.

The correct answer is start-ups.

Key Points

• Angel tax is a tax levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies (start-ups) through the issuance of shares, where the share price is seen to exceed the fair market value of the company.
• This tax is applicable under Section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. It is commonly referred to as the "angel tax" because it often impacts angel investors who fund start-ups.
• The tax is imposed on the amount that exceeds the fair market value of the shares issued by the start-up, and this excess amount is treated as income in the hands of the company. Hence, start-ups are directly related to angel tax.
• Angel tax was introduced in 2012 to prevent unaccounted money from being disguised as investments. It affects start-ups when they receive funding from domestic investors.
• The tax is only applicable to unlisted companies, and foreign investors are exempt from it. This ensures that it primarily impacts Indian investors funding Indian start-ups.
• The Government of India, through the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), has provided exemptions to recognized start-ups from angel tax, subject to certain conditions.
• This exemption aims to foster innovation and reduce the compliance burden on start-ups, ensuring that they can focus on their growth without undue financial strain. Hence, the correct answer is start-ups.

Additional Information

• Purpose of Angel Tax:
• Angel tax was implemented to prevent money laundering and to ensure that investments in start-ups are genuine.
• It ensures that start-ups do not use inflated valuations to route black money into the financial system under the guise of investments.
• Key Features of Angel Tax:
• Introduced in 2012 under the Finance Act.
• Applies to unlisted companies receiving capital from domestic investors exceeding the fair market value of shares.
• Foreign investors are exempted from angel tax.
• Exemption for Start-ups:
• Start-ups recognized by the DPIIT are exempt from angel tax, provided they meet specific criteria such as turnover limits and filing declarations.
• This step was taken to promote the start-up ecosystem in India, which is vital for economic growth and job creation.
• Challenges Related to Angel Tax:
• Start-ups often face scrutiny for valuations, which can delay funding and create compliance burdens.
• Despite exemptions, there are operational challenges, including proving the fair market value of shares.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives:
• The Startup India Initiative, launched in 2016, aims to promote innovation and entrepreneurship by providing tax exemptions, regulatory support, and funding opportunities.
• Recognized start-ups can avail of tax exemptions under Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act for three consecutive years.
• Other Related Terms:
• Venture Capital: A form of private equity financing provided to start-ups and small businesses with high growth potential.
• Seed Funding: The initial capital used to start a business, often sourced from angel investors or venture capitalists.
• Fair Market Value: The price that a willing buyer and seller agree to in an open market transaction.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Statement 1: The Civil Disobedience Movement involved people defying government laws like refusing to pay taxes and breaking colonial laws such as the Salt Law. This statement is correct.
• Statement 2: The British government declared the Indian National Congress illegal during the Civil Disobedience Movement to suppress its activities and curb widespread protests. This statement is correct.
• Statement 3: The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the historic Dandi March led by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930 to protest the British Salt Law. This march symbolized the beginning of a mass protest against colonial rule. This statement is correct.
• Statement 4: The arrest of Mahatma Gandhi on 5 May 1930 did not end the Civil Disobedience Movement. It continued despite his arrest, with other leaders taking charge and protests spreading across the country. This statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• About the Civil Disobedience Movement:
• The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 to protest British colonial laws and assert the sovereignty of Indians.
• The movement was marked by acts of defiance such as the non-payment of taxes, boycott of British goods, and violation of the Salt Law.
• The Dandi March:
• The movement commenced with the Dandi March, during which Gandhi marched from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, covering a distance of 240 miles, to make salt and break the British monopoly on its production.
• This march inspired millions across India to join the struggle against British rule.
• Impact of Gandhi's Arrest:
• Although Gandhi was arrested on 5 May 1930, the movement continued under the leadership of other prominent figures like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose.
• The arrest intensified protests and demonstrations, showing the resilience of the Indian freedom struggle.

Important Points

• Significant Features of the Movement:
• The Civil Disobedience Movement was a non-violent protest against British laws and policies and aimed to mobilize the masses across India.
• It included widespread participation from rural and urban areas, involving peasants, workers, women, and students.
• Major Outcomes:
• The movement led to a significant rise in nationalist sentiments and paved the way for future campaigns against British rule.
• It ultimately forced the British government to negotiate with Indian leaders, leading to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931.

The correct answer is Paresh Rawal.

Key Points

• Paresh Rawal, a veteran actor and politician, was appointed as the Chairperson of the National School of Drama (NSD) in September 2020. His appointment was announced by the President of India.
• The National School of Drama (NSD) is one of India’s premier theatre training institutions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It plays a crucial role in promoting theatre and performing arts in the country.
• Paresh Rawal is a National Award-winning actor, known for his versatile performances in films like Hera Pheri, Sardar, and OMG: Oh My God!. He has significantly contributed to Indian cinema and theatre.
• His appointment to the NSD was seen as a step to bring in a fresh perspective to the institution, given his vast experience in the field of acting and theatre.
• The tenure of the Chairperson of NSD typically involves the responsibility of overseeing the functioning of the institution, mentoring students, and promoting theatre across the country.

Additional Information

• About Paresh Rawal:
• Paresh Rawal is a prominent figure in Indian cinema and has acted in various genres, including comedy, drama, and action. He has won several awards, including the National Film Award for Best Supporting Actor for the film Woh Chokri and Sir in 1994.
• Apart from acting, he has also served as a Member of Parliament (Lok Sabha) from 2014 to 2019, representing the Ahmedabad East constituency. This highlights his contribution to public service.
• About the National School of Drama (NSD):
• The National School of Drama (NSD) was established in 1959 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi and later became an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture in 1975.
• It offers a three-year diploma course in dramatic arts and has been instrumental in shaping the careers of several prominent theatre and film personalities in India.
• The NSD conducts workshops, festivals, and outreach programs to promote theatre across India, including the popular Bharat Rang Mahotsav, one of Asia’s largest theatre festivals.
• Other Notable Chairpersons of NSD:
• Ebrahim Alkazi, who served as the Director of NSD from 1962-1977, is credited with revolutionizing Indian theatre and laying the foundation of modern theatre practices.
• Anupam Kher, another acclaimed actor, has also served as the Chairperson of NSD, contributing to its growth and evolution.

Important Points

• Significance of NSD Chairperson:
• The Chairperson of NSD acts as a guiding force for the institution and is responsible for its overall development and functioning. The role demands significant expertise in theatre and performing arts.
• The appointment of figures like Paresh Rawal emphasizes the importance of having experienced and accomplished individuals to helm such prestigious institutions.
• Recent Developments in NSD:
• The Government has been working towards modernizing the NSD, including proposals for new infrastructure and expanding its outreach programs across India.
• Efforts are also being made to introduce online courses and workshops to adapt to the changing times and make theatre accessible to more people.

The correct answer is Harem.

Key Points

• Harem was the term used to refer to the domestic world of the Mughals. It was a secluded area within the palace where the emperor's wives, concubines, female relatives, and servants resided.
• The Harem was a private space, strictly guarded and considered a symbol of royal prestige and power.
• It not only served as a living space but also played a significant role in political and social dynamics within the Mughal court.
• The Harem was managed under strict rules, and its administration was overseen by senior female members of the royal family and eunuchs. These individuals held significant authority within the royal household.
• Women in the Harem were often involved in cultural, political, and social activities. Some women, such as Nur Jahan, wife of Emperor Jahangir, exerted significant political influence.
• The term "Harem" is derived from the Arabic word "Haram," meaning sacred or forbidden, signifying that this space was out of bounds for men other than the emperor and selected eunuchs. Hence, the correct answer is Harem.

Additional Information

• Terms Related to the Question:
• Tafsir: This refers to the exegesis or interpretation of the Quran. It was a scholarly activity in the Mughal court but is unrelated to the domestic world.
• Qibla: This term refers to the direction of prayer (towards Mecca) in Islam. It holds religious significance but is not related to the domestic aspect of the Mughals.
• Adha: This term is not associated with the Mughals or their domestic world. It might be a misinterpretation or unrelated to the context of the question.
• Mughal Harem:
• The Harem was a complex structure, comprising residential quarters, gardens, and courtyards, designed to ensure privacy and luxury for the royal women.
• It was a space of cultural activity, where women were engaged in music, poetry, and other artistic endeavors.
• The women in the Harem often influenced court politics, and their counsel was sought in administrative and dynastic matters.
• Important Examples:
• Nur Jahan: She was one of the most influential women in the Mughal Harem. She held unprecedented power during Emperor Jahangir's reign and actively participated in governance.
• Jahanara Begum: The daughter of Shah Jahan, she played a significant role in the Mughal court and was known for her contributions to architecture and cultural patronage.

Important Points

• Significance of the Mughal Harem:
• The Harem was an integral part of the Mughal empire, reflecting the social and cultural practices of the time.
• It was also a center for diplomatic alliances through marriage, influencing the dynamics of power within the empire.
• Security and Administration:
• The Harem was heavily guarded by eunuchs and soldiers to ensure its privacy and security.
• Senior female members, such as the emperor's mother or chief consort, often oversaw its administration.

The correct answer is Gautam Gambhir.

Key Points

• Gautam Gambhir was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 ICC Men's World Cup Final. He scored a crucial 97 runs, which was instrumental in India's victory against Sri Lanka.
• The final match was held on April 2, 2011, at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai, India.
• Gautam Gambhir came to bat after the early dismissal of Virender Sehwag and played a solid innings to stabilize India's chase of 275 runs.
• Although Gambhir fell short of a century, his innings ensured that India was well-placed to chase the target successfully. Hence, Gambhir played a crucial role in the match.
• Other notable contributors included MS Dhoni, who scored an unbeaten 91 runs and hit the winning six, and Virat Kohli, who scored 35 runs in a vital partnership with Gambhir.
• This victory marked India's second ICC Men's World Cup win, the first being in 1983.
• Hence, the correct answer is Gautam Gambhir.

Additional Information

• 2011 ICC Men's World Cup Final Overview:
• Date: The final match was played on April 2, 2011.
• Teams: India and Sri Lanka faced each other in the final. Sri Lanka batted first and set a target of 275 runs.
• Venue: The match was held at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai, India.
• Result: India successfully chased the target with 10 balls to spare, winning the match by 6 wickets.
• Key Performances in the Final:
• Gautam Gambhir: Scored 97 runs in 122 balls, providing stability after early wickets.
• MS Dhoni: Played a captain's knock with 91 runs (not out) and hit the iconic winning six.
• Mahela Jayawardene: Scored a brilliant 103 runs (not out) for Sri Lanka, helping them post a competitive total.
• Yuvraj Singh: Contributed with 21 runs and also bowled economically. He was later awarded the Player of the Tournament for his all-round performances throughout the World Cup.
• Impact of Victory:
• Historical Significance: This victory ended India's 28-year wait for another World Cup title after their maiden win in 1983.
• Celebrations: The victory was celebrated across India, with millions of fans rejoicing the achievement.
• Legacy: The 2011 World Cup win is considered one of the greatest moments in Indian cricket history.

Important Points

• Key Contributors in the Indian Team:
• Virender Sehwag: Despite his early dismissal, Sehwag played an aggressive role throughout the tournament.
• Sachin Tendulkar: Although Tendulkar scored only 18 runs in the final, he was a key player throughout the World Cup and ended as India's highest run-scorer in the tournament.
• Yuvraj Singh: Played a pivotal role in India's campaign, both as a batsman and bowler. His all-round performances earned him the Player of the Tournament award.
• Significance of Gambhir's Innings:
• Gambhir's knock of 97 runs was crucial as it came under pressure after India's top-order collapse.
• He demonstrated exceptional composure and resilience, anchoring the innings and ensuring India's chase remained on track.
• His partnership with MS Dhoni was vital in taking India closer to the target.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: the relationship is “thing → its home/place of keeping.”

A garage is the place where vehicles are kept, parked, or stored.

Here,

Grass — horses eat grass, but grass is food, not the place they are kept.

Mare — that’s a female horse (same class), not a place.

Cage — not appropriate for horses (too small).

Similarly,

Only stable matches the same “place of keeping”

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The circle inside the image is rotating in clockwise manner.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

Position 1 visible faces: 2, 4, 6

Position 2 visible faces: 1, 4, 6

So,

The face opposite to 1 is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "469" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Logic: When the paper is unfolded, the shapes will increase 4 times.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number)³ + First Number

Now, Checking the Options:

Option 1) 1,2

⇒ 2 = 1³+1 = 2

Option 2) 3,30

⇒ 30 = 33+3 =30

Option 3) 6,42

⇒ 42 = 63+ 6 ≠ 222

Option 4) 4,68

⇒ 68 = 43+4 =  68

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The followed here is:

From the given open Dice:

Horizontal Row: K, M, P

Vertical/Connected Column: Z (above P), S (right of Z), T (right of S)

Now,

The opposite pairs are:

K ↔ P

Z ↔ T

M ↔ S

So, The opposite pairs will be T and Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: All are input devices.

Joystick, Mouse, Keypad — all are primarily input devices (used to send commands/data into the computer).

Monitor — is an output device (it displays information from the computer).

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The Logic followed here is:

Logic:

Husbands and Wives → There are separate even both belong to adult married humans).

Infants → completely separate circle (no overlap with the other two).

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shape in the center of the image shifts to the corner.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shape in option should complete the pattern in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is;

Logic:

The pattern is: R₃ = R₂ x 3 - R₁ 

In a Row:

(Centre − Left) = X and (Right − Centre) = −X/2.

Row 1:

Centre − Left = 625 − 545 = 80

Right − Centre = 585 − 625 = −40 = −(80/2)

And, 

Row 3:

Centre − Left = 346 − 228 = 118

Right − Centre = 287 − 346 = −59 = −(118/2)

Similarly, 

Row 2:

Centre − Left = 436 − 332 = 104

So Right − Centre = −(104/2) = −52

Thus Right = 436 − 52 = 384

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: There was increase of +1 squares in the next patten.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shapes in the given figure are set in the corners of the arrow sign in the next.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shape given should be embedded in the answer figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Similar shapes and pattern in the given figure.

Here,

So, Figure 1 is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "493" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

The logic followed here is: (right)=3×(left)+2

Row 2: left = 11 → right = 35 and indeed 3×11+2=353×11+2=35 3\times11+2=35

3×11+2=35.

Row 3: left = 32 → right = 98 and indeed 3×32+2=983×32+2=98 3\times32+2=98

3×32+2=98.

Apply it to the first row:

?=3×14+2=42+2=44.

So, the missing number is 44.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Similar shapes and pattern in the given figure.

Here,

So, Figure 3 is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹2,800

Selling Price (SP) = ₹3,200

Profit = SP − CP

= 3,200 − 2,800= ₹400

Here,

Percentage of profit = Profit / C.P x 100

= 400/ 2800 x 100 = 14.28% 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The sequence of the original letter positions in the code is: 4, 6, 7, 5, 2, 1, 3.

 'FLAVOUR' is written as 'VUROLFA'

Similarly, 'SODIUM' 

 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern should be embedded in the option figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shape in option should complete the pattern in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given:

Waiters: Must be inside the Circle.

Educated: Must be inside the Triangle.

NOT Permanent Staff Members: Must be outside the Rectangle.

Here,

The number 38 is the only one in the intersection of the Circle and the Triangle that is outside the Rectangle

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹8,400

Compound interest for 3 years (CI₃) = ₹6,115.20

Interest compounded annually

Formula used:

A = P$(1+\frac{r}{100})^t$

CI = A − P

Calculations:

⇒ A = 8400 + 6115.20 = 14515.20

⇒ 14515.20 = 8400$(1+\frac{r}{100})^3$

⇒ $\frac{14515.20}{8400}=(1+\frac{r}{100})^3$

⇒ 1.728 = $(1+\frac{r}{100})^3$

⇒ $(1+\frac{r}{100})=\sqrt[3]{1.728}=1.2$

⇒ r = 20%

Now for 1$\frac{1}{2}$ year, compounded half-yearly:

Half-year rate = 20 ÷ 2 = 10%

Number of half-years = 1.5 × 2 = 3

⇒ A = 8400(1 + 10/100)³ = 8400 × (1.1)³ = 8400 × 1.331 = 11180.4

⇒ CI = 11180.4 − 8400 = ₹2,780.4

∴ The compound interest = ₹2,780.40.

Given:

Price increase = 25%

Expenditure increase = 10%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Quantity

Percentage change in Quantity = [(Percentage change in Expenditure - Percentage change in Price) / (1 + Percentage change in Price / 100)] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage change in Quantity = [(10 - 25) / (1 + 25 / 100)] × 100

⇒ Percentage change in Quantity = [(-15) / (1.25)] × 100

⇒ Percentage change in Quantity = -12%

⇒ Absolute decrease in Quantity = 12%

∴ The correct answer is 12%.

Given:

Ratio of A : B = 3 : 5

Ratio of B : C = 2 : 7

B’s share = ₹3,500

Formula used:

To find combined ratio of A : B : C, make B’s ratio same in both.

Calculations:

LCM of B’s ratio (5 and 2) = 10

⇒ A : B = 3 × 2 : 5 × 2 = 6 : 10

⇒ B : C = 2 × 5 : 7 × 5 = 10 : 35

⇒ Combined ratio A : B : C = 6 : 10 : 35

Total parts = 6 + 10 + 35 = 51

B’s 10 parts = ₹3,500

⇒ 1 part = 3500 ÷ 10 = 350

⇒ Total sum = 51 × 350 = ₹17,850

∴ The total sum = ₹17,850.

Given:

A completes (1/3) of work in 5 days.

B completes (3/5) of work in 6 days.

A and B work together for 4 days.

C completes the remaining work in 8 days.

Formula Used:

Work done = Rate × Time

Total work = LCM of individual work rates.

Remaining work = Total work - Work done by A and B in 4 days.

Calculation:

Work rate of A = (1/3) ÷ 5 = 1/(3 × 5) = 1/15

Work rate of B = (3/5) ÷ 6 = 3/(5 × 6) = 3/30 = 1/10

Work rate of A and B together = (1/15) + (1/10) = (2/30) + (3/30) = 5/30 = 1/6

Work done by A and B in 4 days = (1/6) × 4 = 4/6 = 2/3

Remaining work = Total work (1) - Work done by A and B (2/3) = 1 - 2/3 = 1/3

Work rate of C = Remaining work ÷ Time = (1/3) ÷ 8 = 1/(3 × 8) = 1/24

C alone completes (3/4) of work in time = (3/4) ÷ (1/24) = (3/4) × 24 = 18 days

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Given:

Average of 12 numbers = 55

Average of first 4 numbers = 48

Average of last 9 numbers = 57

Fourth number excluded

Formula Used:

Sum of numbers = Average × Number of terms

New average = (Sum of selected numbers ÷ Number of selected terms)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of 12 numbers = 55 × 12 = 660

⇒ Sum of first 4 numbers = 48 × 4 = 192

⇒ Sum of last 9 numbers = 57 × 9 = 513

⇒ Fourth number = Sum of first 4 numbers − Sum of first 3 numbers

⇒ Fourth number = 192 − (660 − 513) = 192 − 147 = 45

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = 660 − 45 = 615

⇒ Number of remaining numbers = 12 − 1 = 11

⇒ New average = 615 ÷ 11 = 55.9

∴ The correct answer is 55.9.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹432

Discount = 20%

Gain = 35%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 − Discount%)

Cost Price (CP) = SP ÷ (1 + Gain%)

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 432 × (1 − 20/100) = 432 × 0.8 = ₹345.60

⇒ CP = 345.60 ÷ (1 + 35/100) = 345.60 ÷ 1.35

⇒ CP = ₹256

∴ The cost price of the article = ₹256.

Given:

Percentage of boys = 40%

Percentage of girls = 60%

Pass percentage of girls = 53¹/₃%

Overall pass percentage = 56%

Pass percentage of boys = x%

Formula Used:

Total Pass Percentage = (Percentage of boys × Pass percentage of boys) + (Percentage of girls × Pass percentage of girls)

Convert fractional percentage to decimal for calculation.

Calculation:

Pass percentage of girls = 53¹/₃% = 53.33%

⇒ 56 = (40 × x ÷ 100) + (60 × 53.33 ÷ 100)

⇒ 56 = (40x ÷ 100) + (60 × 53.33 ÷ 100)

⇒ 56 = (40x ÷ 100) + 32

⇒ 56 - 32 = (40x ÷ 100)

⇒ 24 = (40x ÷ 100)

⇒ x = (24 × 100 ÷ 40)

⇒ x = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Given:

$\left(\frac{5}{6} \div \frac{2}{3} \text{ of } \frac{4}{5}\right) + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{5}{3} \div 3\frac{3}{4} + \left(0.8\overline{3} \div 0.\overline{75}\right)$

Calculation:

$\left(\frac{5}{6} \div \frac{2}{3} \text{ of } \frac{4}{5}\right) + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{5}{3} \div 3\frac{3}{4} + \left(0.8\overline{3} \div 0.\overline{75}\right)$

⇒ $\left(\frac{5}{6} \div \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{4}{5}\right) + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{5}{3} \div \frac{15}{4} + \left(\frac{83-8}{90} \div \frac{75}{99}\right)$

⇒ $\left(\frac{5}{6} \div \frac{8}{15} \right) + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{5}{3} \times \frac{4}{15} + \left(\frac{75}{90} \div \frac{75}{99}\right)$

⇒ $\left(\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{15}{8} \right) + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{5}{3} \times \frac{4}{15} + \left(\frac{75}{90} \times \frac{99}{75}\right)$

⇒ $\frac{25}{16} + \frac{3}{4} - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{99}{90}$

⇒ $\frac{25}{16} + \frac{12}{16} - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{11}{10}$

⇒ $\frac{37}{16} - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{11}{10}$

⇒ $\frac{555-80+264}{240}$

⇒ $\frac{739}{240}$

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

Time taken by A after meeting to reach Y = 5.4 hours

Time taken by B after meeting to reach X = 2.4 hours

Speed of A = 16 km/h

Formula used:

Speed ratio = √(time taken by B after meeting : time taken by A after meeting)

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of A : Speed of B = √(2.4 : 5.4)

⇒ Speed of A : Speed of B = √(24 : 54) = √(4 : 9) = 2 : 3

⇒ 16 : Speed of B = 2 : 3

⇒ Speed of B = (16 × 3) ÷ 2 = 24 km/h

∴ The speed of B = 24 km/h.

Given:

Amount after 3 years = ₹6,425

Amount after 8 years = ₹8,800

Time difference = 8 years - 3 years = 5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + SI

Calculation:

⇒ SI for 5 years = ₹8,800 - ₹6,425 = ₹2,375

⇒ SI for 1 year = ₹2,375 ÷ 5 = ₹475

⇒ SI for 2 years = ₹475 × 2 = ₹950

⇒ Amount after 5 years = ₹6,425 + ₹950 = ₹7,375

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,375.

Given:

Area of circle = 12474 cm²

When wire is bent as circle → Circumference = Perimeter of rectangle

Ratio of rectangle sides = 5 : 6

$π = \dfrac{22}{7}$

Formula used:

Area of circle = πr²

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)

Calculations:

⇒ πr2 = 12474

⇒ $\dfrac{22}{7} r^2 = 12474$

⇒ $r^2 = \dfrac{12474 × 7}{22} = 3969$

⇒ r = 63 cm

⇒ Circumference = 2 × $\dfrac{22}{7}$ × 63 = 396 cm

⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = 396 cm

Let sides be 5x and 6x

⇒ 2(5x + 6x) = 396

⇒ 2 × 11x = 396

⇒ 22x = 396

⇒ x = 18

⇒ Longer side = 6x = 6 × 18 = 108 cm

∴ The length of the longer side of the rectangle = 108 cm.

Given:

Numbers between 500 and 800.

Divisible by 12, 16, and 18.

Sum of digits of x.

Formula Used:

LCM(a, b, c) = LCM(LCM(a, b), c).

Sum of terms in arithmetic progression (AP): S = n/2 × [2a + (n − 1)d].

Calculation:

⇒ LCM(12, 16, 18) = LCM(LCM(12, 16), 18).

⇒ LCM(12, 16) = 48.

⇒ LCM(48, 18) = 144.

⇒ Numbers divisible by 144 between 500 and 800 are: 576, 720.

⇒ Sum of these numbers = 576 + 720 = 1296.

⇒ Sum of digits of 1296 = 1 + 2 + 9 + 6 = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Given:

Cost of 1^st type = ₹84 per dozen

Cost of 2^nd type = ₹72 per dozen

Quantity of 2^nd type = 3 times of 1^st type

Selling price = ₹90 per dozen

Formula used:

Weighted Average CP = (Total Cost ÷ Total Quantity)

Gain % = $\dfrac{SP - CP}{CP} \times 100$

Calculations:

Let 1^st type = 1 dozen ⇒ 2^nd type = 3 dozens

⇒ Total cost = (1 × 84) + (3 × 72) = 84 + 216 = ₹300

⇒ Total dozens = 1 + 3 = 4

⇒ Average CP per dozen = 300 ÷ 4 = ₹75

⇒ Gain % = $\dfrac{90 - 75}{75} \times 100$ = $\dfrac{15}{75} \times 100 = 20$

∴ The gain percentage = 20%.