Delhi Police Constable Official Paper (Held On: 09 Dec, 2020 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Pallichandam.

Key Points

• Pallichandam refers to land donated to Jain institutions during the reign of the Chola dynasty. The term is explicitly mentioned in Chola inscriptions.
• The Cholas were known for their patronage of various religions, including Jainism, and they granted lands to Jain establishments for religious and educational purposes.
• The land donated under Pallichandam was primarily used for establishing Jain monasteries or "palli," which were centers of learning and worship for Jain monks and followers. Hence, this term signifies donations to Jain institutions.
• Devdan refers to land or gifts donated to Hindu temples or Brahmanical institutions. It is not associated with Jain establishments. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Velnavagai is a term used for land grants made by the Chola rulers to non-religious institutions or for administrative purposes. It does not specifically relate to Jain institutions. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Brahmadeya refers to land donated to Brahmins for religious and social purposes, often for conducting Vedic rituals. It is unrelated to Jain institutions. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Pallichandam.

Additional Information

• Chola Dynasty:
• The Chola dynasty ruled southern India from the 9th century CE to the 13th century CE. They were known for their administrative efficiency, temple architecture, and patronage of art and religion.
• The Cholas supported multiple religions, including Hinduism, Jainism, and Buddhism, by donating lands and resources to religious institutions.
• Religious Land Grants:
• Land grants were a common practice under the Chola dynasty. They often donated land to temples, monasteries, and educational centers to promote religious and social activities.
• Pallichandam land grants were specifically given to Jain institutions, ensuring their religious practices and educational activities thrived.
• Example: Many Jain monasteries in Tamil Nadu, such as those in Sittannavasal, were established through Pallichandam grants.
• Other Land Grants:
• Devdan: Land donated to Hindu religious institutions, often temples.
• Velnavagai: Land grants made for administrative purposes or non-religious use.
• Brahmadeya: Land donated to Brahmins, typically for conducting Vedic rituals and other religious purposes.

Important Points

• Significance of Land Donations:
• Land donations under the Chola dynasty played a vital role in promoting religious practices, education, and art. These grants often became centers of community development.
• Specific terms such as Pallichandam, Devdan, Velnavagai, and Brahmadeya highlight the diverse purposes for which land was granted.
• Jainism under the Cholas:
• Jainism enjoyed royal patronage during the Chola period, with grants like Pallichandam ensuring the establishment and functioning of Jain institutions.
• The Chola inscriptions serve as a valuable source of historical information about the socio-religious practices of the era.

The correct answer is Silappadikaram.

Key Points

• Silappadikaram is one of the greatest epics in Tamil literature and was written by the Tamil poet Ilango Adigal.
• It is considered a masterpiece of Sangam literature and showcases the rich cultural and social heritage of Tamil Nadu.
• The epic centers around the story of Kannagi, a devoted wife, and her quest for justice after her husband Kovalan is wrongfully executed. Hence, this highlights the themes of devotion and justice.
• Ilango Adigal, the author, is believed to have been the brother of Chera King Senguttuvan. His work reflects the socio-political structure of that period.
• The epic is divided into three cantos or sections, namely Puhar Kandam, Madura Kandam, and Vanchi Kandam, each representing different geographical regions of ancient Tamil Nadu. Hence, it provides a vivid depiction of the landscape and culture of the time.
• The story incorporates elements of mythology, history, and ethics, and is widely studied for its literary and moral values.
• Silappadikaram is unique in Tamil literature because it emphasizes the importance of virtue, justice, and morality. It also reflects the role of women in society. Hence, it stands as a testament to Tamil cultural values.

Additional Information

• Silappadikaram:
• Silappadikaram, translated as "The Tale of an Anklet," is a classical Tamil epic from ancient Tamil Nadu.
• The epic is known for its lyrical beauty, moral lessons, and its depiction of Tamil society, culture, and traditions. It provides insights into the governance, trade, and religious practices of that era.
• Other Tamil Epics::
• Manimekalai: Written by Sathanar, this epic is a sequel to Silappadikaram. It focuses on Buddhist philosophy and the life of Manimekalai, Kovalan's daughter.
• Kundalakesi: An epic centered around the themes of love and redemption, showcasing the influence of Jain and Buddhist traditions.
• Valayapathi: A lesser-known epic focusing on Jain philosophy and Tamil culture, though much of it is lost or fragmented.
• Historical and Literary Significance:
• Silappadikaram is considered one of the Five Great Epics of Tamil literature and is a cornerstone of Tamil cultural identity.
• It reflects the ethics and values of Tamil society, portraying characters who embody virtues like loyalty, justice, and righteousness.
• The epic is often studied in schools and universities as a part of Tamil literature and history curriculum.

Important Points

• Key Themes of Silappadikaram:
• The epic emphasizes justice, as Kannagi avenges the wrongful execution of her husband by proving his innocence and exposing the corruption of the Pandyan king.
• Women’s role in society: Kannagi’s character is a powerful representation of female strength and virtue in Tamil culture.
• Influence on Tamil Literature:
• Silappadikaram has inspired numerous works in Tamil literature and is regarded as a literary treasure for its depiction of Tamil customs and traditions.
• It has been adapted into various art forms, including plays, dances, and films, showcasing its relevance even in modern times.

The correct answer is Gomati.

Key Points

• The Pous Sankranti Mela is a significant cultural and religious festival celebrated in the state of Tripura.
• This event is held annually on the banks of the Gomati River, which is considered the most sacred river in Tripura.
• The mela is organized during Pous Sankranti, which marks the transition of the Sun into the zodiac sign of Capricorn, usually occurring in mid-January.
• The Gomati River holds immense religious and cultural significance for the people of Tripura. Devotees gather on its banks to take a holy dip, which is believed to cleanse sins and bring prosperity.
• The festival also features various cultural programs, folk dances, and stalls showcasing local handicrafts and traditional cuisines. It is a reflection of the vibrant cultural heritage of Tripura.
• The mela attracts not only locals but also tourists from different parts of the country, contributing to the promotion of tourism in the region.
• Hence, the correct answer is Gomati.

Additional Information

• Gomati River:
• The Gomati River is the largest and most important river in Tripura, often referred to as the "lifeline of Tripura."
• It originates from the Dumur Hills in the northeastern part of the state and flows westward, eventually joining the River Meghna in Bangladesh.
• The river is considered sacred and is a site for numerous religious and cultural activities, including the famous Pous Sankranti Mela.
• Other Rivers in Tripura:
• Haora River: Originating in the hills of Tripura, it flows through Agartala before merging with the Meghna River system in Bangladesh. It is important for water supply and irrigation in the region.
• Muhuri River: This river flows along the southern part of Tripura and serves as a natural boundary with Bangladesh in some areas. It is crucial for agriculture and fisheries.
• Khowai River: Flowing through the Khowai district of Tripura, this river is significant for local irrigation and sustains many communities along its banks.
• Importance of Pous Sankranti:
• Pous Sankranti is observed across India in different forms, such as Makar Sankranti in North India and Pongal in Tamil Nadu.
• It marks the end of the winter solstice and the beginning of longer days, symbolizing hope and renewal.
• The festival is associated with agricultural abundance, and offerings are made to deities to express gratitude for a bountiful harvest.

Important Points

• Tourism and Economy: The Pous Sankranti Mela provides a platform for local artisans and traders to showcase their products, thereby boosting the local economy.
• Religious Significance: The ritual of taking a holy dip in the Gomati River during the festival is believed to cleanse devotees of their sins and bring spiritual blessings.
• Cultural Exchange: The mela fosters cultural exchange, as people from various parts of the country come together to celebrate the event.

The correct answer is When a solid is heated, the thermal energy of its particles decreases thereby converting it into liquid. 

Key Points

• Statement 1: A solid has a definite size and shape which do not change on their own.
• This statement is correct. Solids have a rigid structure where the constituent particles are tightly packed, ensuring a fixed size and shape. Examples include a block of wood or a piece of metal.
• Statement 2: In solids, the constituent particles are present very close to each other.
• This statement is correct. Solids exhibit a compact structure because their particles are tightly packed due to strong intermolecular forces. This arrangement contributes to their rigidity and incompressibility.
• Statement 3: Intermolecular forces operating between the constituent particles of a solid are very strong and capable of keeping the molecules in fixed positions.
• This statement is correct. Strong intermolecular forces in solids ensure that the particles remain in fixed positions within a lattice structure, giving solids their stability and resistance to deformation.
• Statement 4: When a solid is heated, the thermal energy of its particles decreases thereby converting it into liquid.
• This statement is incorrect. When a solid is heated, the thermal energy of its particles increases, causing them to vibrate more vigorously. Eventually, the intermolecular forces weaken, leading to the melting of the solid into a liquid. Thus, the thermal energy increases, not decreases.
• Hence, the correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of solids:
• Rigidity: Solids maintain their shape and size due to strong intermolecular forces.
• Definite volume: Solids do not expand or compress easily, maintaining a fixed volume under normal conditions.
• Incompressibility: Solids cannot be compressed significantly due to the close packing of particles.
• Melting point: Solids have a specific melting point, depending on the strength of intermolecular forces.
• Phase transition from solid to liquid:
• When solids are heated, their particles gain thermal energy, increasing their kinetic energy.
• The increased energy overcomes the strong intermolecular forces, allowing particles to move freely, resulting in a liquid state.
• This process is called melting, and the temperature at which it occurs is known as the melting point.
• Examples of solids:
• Crystalline solids: Diamonds, salt, and metals exhibit a highly ordered structure.
• Amorphous solids: Glass and plastics lack a regular arrangement of particles.

Important Points

• Thermal energy and phase transition:
• Thermal energy refers to the kinetic energy of particles due to heat.
• When solids absorb heat, their particles vibrate more vigorously, leading to an increase in thermal energy and eventual phase change.
• The melting process requires sufficient energy to overcome intermolecular forces, transitioning the substance into a liquid state.
• Applications of solids:
• Solids are used in construction (e.g., steel and cement) due to their rigidity and strength.
• Crystalline solids like diamonds are used in jewelry, while amorphous solids like glass are used in windows and optics.

The correct answer is ₹500.

Key Points

• A Post Office Savings Account is a popular savings scheme offered by the Indian Post Office, governed by the Ministry of Communications.
• As of September 2020, the minimum balance required for a Post Office Savings Account with a cheque book facility is ₹500. This ensures account holders maintain a basic financial threshold for operating the account. Hence, ₹500 is correct.
• If the cheque book facility is not availed, the minimum balance requirement is lower, set at ₹50, allowing users without cheque books to maintain their accounts with smaller balances.
• The account offers 4% annual interest on individual deposits, making it an attractive option for saving money securely. Hence, the interest rate is consistent.
• This savings account is accessible to all Indian citizens, including minors above the age of 10 years. A joint account can also be opened by two adults. Hence, eligibility criteria are inclusive.
• Hence, the correct answer is ₹500.

Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria:
• Any Indian citizen, including minors aged 10 years and above, can open a savings account at the Post Office.
• Joint accounts can be opened by two adults. This provides flexibility for families or couples to save together.
• Features of Post Office Savings Account:
• Accounts without cheque books require a minimum balance of ₹50, while accounts with cheque books require a minimum balance of ₹500.
• Interest earned on deposits is 4% per annum, calculated annually.
• Example: If an account holder maintains an account balance of ₹10,000, they will earn ₹400 as interest annually.
• Uses of Post Office Savings Account:
• It is an excellent tool for safe savings, especially for people in rural and semi-urban areas.
• The account is widely accessible due to the extensive network of Post Offices across India.
• It also supports financial inclusion, allowing even those with modest incomes to save securely.

Important Points

• Accessibility:
• Post Office Savings Accounts are accessible across India, even in the most remote areas, making them ideal for rural populations.
• The scheme encourages small savings and provides a secure alternative to banks, especially for those who may not have access to traditional banking facilities.
• Government Guidelines:
• The account is regulated under the Government Savings Promotion Act.
• There are provisions for tax exemptions on interest earned up to ₹10,000 annually under Section 80TTA of the Income Tax Act.
• It aligns with the financial inclusion goals of the Government of India by providing banking services to underserved populations.

The correct answer is Avantika.

Key Points

• Ujjain, one of the most ancient cities of India, was originally known as Avantika.
• The city of Avantika was considered sacred and prominent in ancient times, especially during the Mahabharata period.
• Avantika was named after the Avanti kingdom, which was one of the 16 Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) of India during the 6th century BCE.
• Historically, Avantika/Ujjain was a center for education, trade, and culture, and it played a significant role in the spread of Hinduism and Buddhism.
• The city later came to be known as Ujjain, derived from the Sanskrit word "Ujjayini," meaning "victorious." It became renowned as one of the seven sacred cities (Sapta Puri) in India.
• Ujjain is closely associated with the Hindu deity Lord Shiva and is home to the Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga, one of the twelve Jyotirlingas in India.

Additional Information

• Historical Importance of Avantika:
• Avantika was a thriving city during the Mahabharata era, where it served as an important center of education and culture.
• The city was significant for its association with the Avanti kingdom, which was known for its rich cultural heritage and patronage of art.
• It was also a key center for astronomy and mathematics during ancient times, with prominent scholars like Varahamihira working here.
• Religious Significance:
• Ujjain is one of the Sapta Puri or seven sacred cities in Hinduism, alongside Ayodhya, Mathura, Haridwar, Kashi, Kanchi, and Dvaravati.
• The city is home to the Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga, a revered Shiva temple, which draws millions of pilgrims annually.
• The Kumbh Mela, a major Hindu festival, is held in Ujjain once every 12 years, attracting devotees from across the globe.
• Role in Trade and Culture:
• During ancient times, Avantika/Ujjain was a crucial center for trade routes connecting Northern and Western India.
• It was also known for its contribution to Indian literature, science, and architecture.

Important Points

• Other Names of Ujjain:
• Historically, Ujjain has been called by various names such as Ujjayini, Avantika, and Pratikalpa.
• Its name change represents the city’s evolving cultural and religious significance over different eras.
• Mythological Relevance:
• According to Hindu mythology, Ujjain is believed to be the site where Lord Shiva appeared as Mahakala to defeat demons.
• It is also mentioned in the Puranas as a city of immense spiritual importance.

The correct answer is Batting Coach.

Key Points

• Michael Hussey, also known as "Mr. Cricket," is a former Australian cricketer and one of the most successful batsmen in international cricket. He has been associated with the Chennai Super Kings (CSK) franchise as their Batting Coach in the 2020 edition of the Indian Premier League (IPL).
• Role of Batting Coach: As a batting coach, Hussey's primary responsibility was to work closely with the team's batsmen to improve their performance, develop strategies, and provide insights into tackling opposition bowlers effectively.
• Association with CSK: Michael Hussey has a long-standing connection with the Chennai Super Kings. He played for the franchise from 2008 to 2015, scoring many important runs and contributing to their success during his playing years.
• His experience as a player and his deep understanding of the game make him an ideal candidate for the role of batting coach. His inputs often help players adapt to different match situations and improve their technical skills. Hence, the correct designation of Michael Hussey in IPL 2020 was Batting Coach.
• The Chennai Super Kings management relies on Hussey's expertise to mentor young players and guide experienced ones to maintain consistency in their batting performance.

Additional Information

• Michael Hussey's Career Highlights:
• Michael Hussey is renowned for his consistent performance across all formats of cricket. He played for Australia from 2004 to 2013 and earned the nickname "Mr. Cricket" for his dedication to the sport.
• He has scored over 6,000 runs in Test matches and over 5,400 runs in ODIs, making him one of the most reliable middle-order batsmen.
• Hussey's IPL career includes being a key player for CSK, where he scored 1,977 runs in 57 matches.
• Chennai Super Kings:
• CSK is one of the most successful franchises in IPL history. It has won the IPL title four times (2010, 2011, 2018, 2021).
• The team is led by MS Dhoni, who is known for his exceptional captaincy and finishing skills.
• The franchise is known for retaining experienced players and focusing on team stability.
• Role of Coaches in IPL:
• The coaching staff plays a vital role in the preparation and performance of the team. Alongside batting coaches, teams often have fielding, bowling, and head coaches.
• The Fielding Coach works on improving fielding skills, while the Bowling Coach focuses on strategies and performance of bowlers.
• The Head Coach oversees the overall planning and execution of strategies for the team.

Important Points

• Michael Hussey's Impact:
• Hussey's presence as a batting coach has significantly improved the performance of CSK batsmen, especially youngsters like Ruturaj Gaikwad.
• His mentoring has helped players adapt to pressure situations and play match-winning innings.
• CSK's Success Formula:
• CSK focuses on retaining experienced players and has a robust coaching system to ensure consistency in performance.
• The combination of strong leadership, experienced players, and a dedicated coaching staff has made CSK one of the most formidable teams in IPL history.

The correct answer is 1985.

Key Points

• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act, which was passed by the Parliament in December 1985. This statement is correct.
• APEDA was formed to promote the export of agricultural and processed food products, ensuring the development of these sectors in India. This statement is correct.
• It acts as a nodal agency for exporters and provides financial assistance, information, and guidance. This statement is correct.
• The primary objective of APEDA is to enhance the quality and quantity of agricultural and processed food exports from India. It facilitates the development of infrastructure for export promotion. This statement is correct.

Additional Information

• About APEDA:
• Established: APEDA was established in 1985 through an act passed by the Parliament, named the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act.
• Purpose: The main purpose of APEDA is the development and promotion of the export of scheduled products such as fruits, vegetables, meat, and dairy products, among others.
• Functions: APEDA is responsible for setting standards and specifications for scheduled products, improving packaging, promoting exports, and providing financial assistance to exporters. It also provides training and technical assistance.
• Scheduled Products under APEDA:
• APEDA covers a wide range of products, including fruits, vegetables, meat, poultry, dairy products, confectionery, and organic produce, among others.
• Example: Mangoes, a significant export product, have been promoted under APEDA’s guidelines to enhance their global acceptance and quality standards.
• APEDA’s Contribution:
• APEDA has contributed significantly to India’s agricultural exports, making India one of the leading exporters of rice, spices, and meat products globally.
• It has helped in promoting India’s organic farming sector, ensuring that Indian organic produce meets international standards.

Important Points

• Functions of APEDA:
• It provides financial assistance for the development of infrastructure, such as cold storage facilities, warehouses, and processing plants.
• It conducts surveys, feasibility studies, and market research to help exporters identify global market opportunities.
• APEDA organizes training programs for exporters and undertakes promotional activities like participation in international trade fairs.
• Recent Developments:
• APEDA has been actively promoting the export of organic and sustainable agricultural products in recent years, responding to the growing demand for such products globally.
• It has also taken initiatives to boost the export of Geographical Indication (GI) tagged products like Darjeeling Tea, Alphonso Mangoes, and Basmati Rice.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Banawali is an important archaeological site situated in the state of Haryana, India.
• It is located in the district of Fatehabad, Haryana, and is associated with the Indus Valley Civilization, which dates back to the period of approximately 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.
• The site was excavated under the guidance of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), revealing significant evidence of the Harappan culture. Hence, Haryana is the correct answer.
• Banawali is notable for its distinct rectangular layout, fortified settlement patterns, and artifacts that depict the advanced urban planning and craftsmanship of the Harappan Civilization.
• The excavations at Banawali have uncovered items such as terracotta figurines, beads, pottery, and tools, which provide insights into the daily life and economic activities of the people who lived there.
• This site is one of the key locations that demonstrate the transition from rural to urban settlements in the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Banawali holds immense importance in understanding the spread and development of Harappan culture across northern India. Hence, Haryana is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Indus Valley Civilization:
• Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, was one of the world's oldest urban civilizations, flourishing around 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.
• It was characterized by advanced town planning, including drainage systems, granaries, and organized streets.
• Major sites of the civilization include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Banawali, Rakhigarhi, and Lothal.
• Banawali Archaeological Site:
• Location: Banawali is situated in the Fatehabad district of Haryana.
• Excavations: The site was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under R.S. Bisht.
• Findings: Discoveries include terracotta figurines, pottery, tools, and beads, which depict the lifestyle and trade practices of the Harappan people.
• Key Features of the Harappan Sites:
• The Harappan sites exhibit urban planning with well-organized streets and drainage systems.
• Artifacts such as seals, ornaments, and terracotta toys highlight the artistic skills of the Harappan people.
• Trade: Evidence of trade relations with Mesopotamia and other regions has been found.

Important Points

• Other Major Harappan Sites:
• Mohenjo-Daro: Located in present-day Pakistan, Mohenjo-Daro is known for its Great Bath and advanced drainage system.
• Harappa: Another significant site in Pakistan, Harappa revealed granaries and seals used for trade.
• Rakhigarhi: Situated in Haryana, Rakhigarhi is one of the largest Harappan sites discovered.
• Lothal: Located in Gujarat, Lothal is famous for its dockyard and evidence of maritime trade.
• Significance of Banawali:
• Banawali is unique because of its rectangular layout, which differs from other Harappan sites that were mostly grid-based.
• The site provides insights into the transition from rural to urban settlements in the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Its location in Haryana highlights the geographical spread of the Harappan culture into northern India.

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Key Points

• The Swaraj Party was established in the year 1923 by prominent leaders Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das to express their dissatisfaction with the policies and methods of the Indian National Congress, particularly after the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• Its primary objective was to enter the legislative councils and obstruct or influence British policies from within, rather than boycotting the councils entirely.
• Motilal Nehru served as the Secretary of the Swaraj Party, while Chittaranjan Das became its President. This leadership division was essential in organizing the party's activities and strategies effectively. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The Swaraj Party aimed at achieving ‘Swaraj’ (self-governance) through constitutional means, unlike the revolutionary or extremist groups that sought immediate independence through more aggressive measures.
• Their goal was to use their presence in legislative councils to expose the flaws of British administration, demand reforms, and press for greater autonomy for Indians. Hence, the correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Additional Information

• Context Behind the Formation of Swaraj Party:
• The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, came to an abrupt end in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent clash resulted in the death of several policemen. This led to disillusionment among many leaders.
• Leaders like Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das, who were moderate in approach, believed in working within the system rather than boycotting it entirely.
• The Swaraj Party was thus formed to act as an opposition within the councils and push for reforms and self-rule.
• Main Objectives of the Swaraj Party:
• Legislative Obstruction: To enter the councils and obstruct the functioning of colonial government policies that were detrimental to Indian interests.
• Demand Reforms: To press for constitutional reforms, such as greater representation for Indians in governance.
• Expose British Policies: To use their presence in councils as a platform to expose the exploitative nature of British rule.
• Role of Swaraj Party Leaders:
• Motilal Nehru: As the Secretary, he played a pivotal role in formulating the party’s strategies and organizing its activities in legislative councils.
• Chittaranjan Das: As the President, he provided the ideological foundation and leadership for the party.
• Outcome of the Swaraj Party:
• The Swaraj Party succeeded in gaining a significant number of seats in the 1923 elections to the legislative councils.
• It used its presence to highlight the inadequacies of British administration and demand reforms.
• However, the party gradually lost momentum after the death of Chittaranjan Das in 1925 and due to internal differences.

Important Points

• Motilal Nehru: A senior Congress leader, lawyer, and politician, Motilal Nehru played a crucial role in the Indian freedom struggle and later became a prominent member of the Swaraj Party.
• Chittaranjan Das: Known as ‘Deshbandhu’ (Friend of the Nation), he was a prominent nationalist leader, lawyer, and the first President of the Swaraj Party.
• Legacy: The Swaraj Party laid the groundwork for future political movements and was instrumental in bringing constitutional reforms to the forefront of the freedom struggle.

The correct answer is Marooni.

Key Points

• Marooni is a traditional group dance performed by the Nepali community in the state of Sikkim, India.
• It is primarily associated with festive occasions and is known for its vibrant and energetic movements accompanied by traditional Nepali music.
• This dance is often performed during Dasain and Tihar festivals, which are prominent festivals in the Nepali community.
• Marooni is characterized by coordinated group movements, colorful costumes, and the use of traditional musical instruments such as the madal (a hand drum).
• The dance reflects the cultural heritage and social unity of the Nepali community in Sikkim, showcasing their rich traditions and artistic expressions.
• Other options mentioned, such as Damaha, Isamta, and Turahi, are not group dances specific to the Nepali community in Sikkim. Hence, they are not the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Details about the Marooni Dance:
• Origin: The dance originates from the Nepali community in the Himalayan region, particularly practiced in Sikkim.
• Occasions: It is performed during important festivals such as Dasain (equivalent to Dussehra in other parts of India) and Tihar (the Nepali version of Diwali).
• Costumes: Performers wear traditional Nepali attire, which includes vibrant and colorful dresses, enhancing the visual appeal of the performance.
• Music: The dance is accompanied by traditional Nepali musical instruments such as the madal, which adds rhythm and energy to the performance.
• Other Options Explained:
• Damaha: It is a traditional Nepali musical instrument, a type of kettledrum, used in various cultural and religious ceremonies. It is not a dance form.
• Isamta: This term does not refer to any specific traditional group dance of the Nepali community in Sikkim, making it an incorrect choice.
• Turahi: Like Damaha, Turahi is also a traditional instrument played during ceremonial events and is not related to dance.

Important Points

• Cultural Significance of Marooni:
• The dance promotes community bonding and serves as a medium to preserve the Nepali heritage and traditions in Sikkim.
• It is a way of expressing joy and gratitude during important festivals and celebrations.
• Recognition:
• Efforts are being made to preserve and promote Marooni as part of the cultural identity of the Nepali community in Sikkim.
• The dance is often showcased in cultural programs and events to highlight the rich traditions of the region.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Key Points

• Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin. It dissolves in water and is easily absorbed by the body.
• Water-soluble vitamins, such as Vitamin C, are not stored in the body for long periods. Instead, they are excreted through urine, requiring regular replenishment through diet.
• Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, which helps in wound healing, tissue repair, and maintaining skin elasticity. Hence, Vitamin C is classified as water-soluble.
• Sources of Vitamin C include citrus fruits (like oranges and lemons), berries, kiwis, bell peppers, broccoli, and leafy greens.
• Vitamin C acts as a powerful antioxidant, protecting cells from damage caused by free radicals. Hence, the statement regarding Vitamin C being water-soluble is correct.
• The other options — Vitamin A, Vitamin K, and Vitamin E — are fat-soluble vitamins. These are stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver for longer periods and do not dissolve in water. Hence, these statements are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Water-soluble vitamins:
• Water-soluble vitamins include Vitamin C and the B-complex vitamins (such as B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9, and B12).
• These vitamins are absorbed directly into the bloodstream and travel freely in the body. As they are not stored, a daily intake is essential for maintaining optimal health.
• Fat-soluble vitamins:
• Fat-soluble vitamins include Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin E, and Vitamin K. These require dietary fat for absorption and are stored in the liver and fatty tissues.
• Fat-soluble vitamins play crucial roles, such as immune support, vision, bone health, and blood clotting.
• Example: Vitamin A helps maintain healthy vision, while Vitamin K is vital for blood clotting.
• Importance of Vitamin C:
• Scurvy is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C. Symptoms include bleeding gums, joint pain, and fatigue.
• Daily Recommended Intake: Adults typically need about 65 to 90 mg of Vitamin C daily, with an upper limit of 2,000 mg to avoid side effects like nausea and diarrhea.
• Applications: Vitamin C is commonly used in dietary supplements, skincare products, and treatments for common colds and immunity boosting.

Important Points

• Key Characteristics of Water-Soluble Vitamins:
• Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body, and excess amounts are excreted through urine. Hence, they must be consumed regularly through diet.
• They are highly sensitive to heat and can be destroyed during cooking or food processing.
• Distinction Between Water-Soluble and Fat-Soluble Vitamins:
• Fat-soluble vitamins are stored for longer durations, while water-soluble vitamins need daily replenishment.
• Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed alongside dietary fats, while water-soluble ones dissolve in water and are absorbed directly.

The correct answer is 1990.

Key Points

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, was posthumously conferred the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in the year 1990. This is the correct year as per the question.
• The Bharat Ratna is awarded in recognition of exceptional service or performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor. Dr. Ambedkar's contributions to social reform, law-making, and the empowerment of marginalized communities made him a deserving recipient.
• Dr. Ambedkar passed away in 1956, and the conferral of the Bharat Ratna in 1990 was a posthumous honor that recognized his lasting impact on Indian society and governance.
• The award was presented during the tenure of the then Prime Minister V.P. Singh, who sought to honor Dr. Ambedkar's role in shaping modern India.
• The years mentioned in the question — 1909, 1956, and 1949 — are historically significant for Dr. Ambedkar but not relevant to the conferral of the Bharat Ratna. These years pertain to other events in his life, such as his education and legislative contributions.

Additional Information

• About Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (1891–1956) was a social reformer, jurist, economist, and politician. He played a pivotal role in the drafting of the Indian Constitution.
• He was a staunch advocate for the rights of the Dalits and other marginalized communities, working tirelessly for their upliftment.
• Dr. Ambedkar converted to Buddhism in 1956 with thousands of followers, marking a significant moment in Indian history.
• The Bharat Ratna Award:
• Instituted in 1954, the Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India. It is awarded without distinction of race, occupation, or position.
• The award consists of a peepal-leaf-shaped medallion and a certificate signed by the President of India.
• Recipients of this award include notable figures such as Mahatma Gandhi (posthumously recommended but not conferred), Jawaharlal Nehru, and Mother Teresa.

Important Points

• Dr. Ambedkar's Legacy:
• He was the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, which enshrined principles of equality, justice, and liberty.
• He established the Scheduled Castes Federation and worked to abolish social evils such as the caste system and untouchability.
• His contributions to labor laws, women’s rights, and education reforms remain highly relevant even today.
• Bharat Ratna for Social Reformers:
• Other social reformers who received the Bharat Ratna include Mother Teresa (1979) and Nelson Mandela (1990).
• The award has been instrumental in recognizing individuals who have dedicated their lives to the betterment of society.

The correct answer is Buildings.

Key Points

• Immovable Property under the Registration Act, 1908 refers to property that cannot be moved from one place to another without causing damage.
• Examples of immovable property include land, buildings, and permanent structures.
• Standing timber, growing crops, and grass are excluded from the definition of immovable property as they can be moved or separated from the land. Hence, these are not classified as immovable property.
• Buildings, being permanent structures attached to the land, are classified as immovable property under the Act. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Fruit upon and juice in trees are considered movable as they can be separated from the tree or land without damaging the property. Hence, this is not immovable property.
• Thus, the correct answer is Buildings.

Additional Information

• Definition of Immovable Property:
• Immovable property is broadly defined under the Registration Act, 1908 and includes land, buildings, and attached fixtures.
• It excludes items like timber, crops, grass, and fruit as these are considered movable and not permanently affixed to the land.
• Examples of Immovable Property:
• Examples include houses, factories, roads, wells, and trees that are rooted or permanently attached to the land.
• Movable items such as standing timber or crops are excluded because they can be harvested or removed.
• Legal Implications:
• Under the Registration Act, 1908, transactions involving immovable property must be registered to ensure legal validity.
• Registration provides a legal record of ownership and prevents disputes over property rights.

Important Points

• Key Legal Considerations:
• Immovable property transactions require registration under the Registration Act, 1908 to ensure enforceability and prevent fraud.
• Movable items like crops or timber do not require registration as they are not considered immovable property.
• Examples of Cases:
• Example: Sale or lease of land and buildings requires registration under the Act.
• Harvesting timber or crops does not fall under the purview of immovable property transactions.

The correct answer is 306.

Key Points

• Section 306 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 deals with the abetment of suicide. It defines that if a person abets another person to commit suicide, they shall be punished as per the provision mentioned under this section.
• The punishment for this offense is imprisonment up to 10 years and may also include a fine. This section aims to penalize those who instigate or encourage others to take their own lives.
• The term "abetment" includes acts of instigation, conspiracy, or assistance provided for committing suicide. The court examines the relationship between the accused and the victim and the circumstances leading to the suicide. Hence, this section specifically deals with abetment of suicide.
• It is important to note that proving abetment requires strong evidence of the accused's role in encouraging or aiding the act of suicide. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Section 299 (IPC):
• Section 299 defines "culpable homicide," which refers to causing the death of a person with the intention of causing death or bodily harm. This section does not relate to abetment of suicide but rather to homicide.
• It is distinguished from murder under Section 300 of IPC based on the degree of intention and severity of the act.
• Section 300 (IPC):
• Section 300 deals with "murder," which is a more severe form of culpable homicide. It defines acts committed with deliberate intention to cause death or bodily harm that leads to death.
• This section is not related to abetment of suicide but pertains to intentional killing.
• Section 312 (IPC):
• Section 312 deals with causing miscarriage voluntarily and defines punishment for anyone who does so without lawful grounds.
• This section is related to medical or reproductive rights and does not involve abetment of suicide.
• Important Case Laws:
• Case Example: In Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab (1996), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 306 IPC, stating that abetment of suicide is a punishable offense.
• In cases like Sanju vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (2002), the court emphasized the need for direct instigation or evidence to establish abetment under Section 306.

Important Points

• Key Legal Considerations:
• The offense under Section 306 IPC is non-bailable, cognizable, and triable by a court of session.
• Proving abetment requires establishing a direct nexus between the accused's actions and the victim's decision to commit suicide.
• Social Impact:
• The section aims to deter individuals from engaging in behavior that might push vulnerable individuals towards suicide.
• Awareness and education on mental health play a crucial role in addressing issues related to suicide and its abetment.

The correct answer is Calcutta (Now Kolkata).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was originally established in Calcutta in 1935, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• The Central Office of the Reserve Bank of India, which houses the Governor's office, was first set up in Calcutta. This was the initial location of the headquarters.
• In 1937, the RBI's headquarters was permanently moved to Bombay (now known as Mumbai) due to strategic and administrative reasons. Hence, the correct answer is Calcutta (Now Kolkata).
• The Reserve Bank of India, established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, began operations on April 1, 1935. It is India's central banking institution responsible for regulating the monetary policy of the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• Historical Background of RBI:
• The Hilton Young Commission in 1926 recommended the establishment of a central bank to address issues of economic regulation and currency management in India.
• The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 was passed to provide the legal framework for the establishment of the RBI.
• The RBI began operations on April 1, 1935, with its headquarters initially located in Calcutta.
• Reasons for Moving the Headquarters:
• The decision to move the headquarters to Bombay (now Mumbai) was influenced by strategic considerations, including Bombay's prominence as a financial hub and its better connectivity to other parts of India.
• Bombay was emerging as the center of trade and commerce during the pre-independence era, making it a more suitable location for the central bank's headquarters.
• Functions of RBI:
• The RBI plays a crucial role in formulating monetary policy, managing inflation, issuing currency, and maintaining financial stability in India.
• It regulates and supervises banks, manages foreign exchange, and acts as a lender of last resort for the Indian banking system.

Important Points

• Structure of the Reserve Bank of India:
• The RBI is headed by a Governor, supported by Deputy Governors and other officials. The central office in Mumbai is the focal point of its operations.
• It operates through various regional offices located across India to ensure smooth functioning and regulatory oversight.
• Historical Developments:
• Over the years, the RBI has evolved to address changing economic needs, including the introduction of financial inclusion initiatives, digital payment systems, and inflation targeting frameworks.
• It has played a pivotal role in shaping India's economic policies post-independence.

The correct answer is Jan Dhan Darshak.

Key Points

• Jan Dhan Darshak is a mobile application launched by the Government of India to aid citizens in locating financial service touchpoints such as banks, ATMs, post offices, and Common Service Centres (CSCs).
• This application works as a citizen-centric platform and provides a geo-location-based service to help citizens find financial services in their area.
• It supports the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), which aims to ensure access to financial services like bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions for all citizens.
• The app covers over 1.5 lakh banking touchpoints, allowing individuals to access the nearest services quickly and easily. Hence, this is the correct answer.
• It is available in multiple languages to ensure user-friendliness and accessibility for a diverse Indian population.
• The app helps in financial inclusion, a key goal of the Indian government, by bridging the gap between citizens and financial services.

Additional Information

• DigiLocker:
• DigiLocker is an initiative under the Digital India program, launched by the Government of India. It provides a secure cloud-based platform for storing, sharing, and verifying documents and certificates digitally.
• It allows users to upload documents like Aadhaar, PAN cards, driving licenses, and school certificates, eliminating the need for physical copies.
• MADAD:
• MADAD is an application developed by the Ministry of External Affairs to address the grievances of Indian citizens abroad.
• It ensures that complaints related to consular services like passport issues, visa problems, and harassment are addressed efficiently and swiftly.
• UMANG:
• UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is an app that integrates over 1200 services from 200+ government departments on a single platform.
• It allows users to access services like EPFO, PAN, Aadhaar, scholarships, and utility bill payments through one application.

Important Points

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):
• Launched in 2014, this flagship program focuses on financial inclusion by providing affordable access to financial services such as banking, credit, insurance, and pensions.
• As of August 2023, more than 50 crore bank accounts have been opened under this scheme.
• Role of Technology in Financial Inclusion:
• Applications like Jan Dhan Darshak play a crucial role in ensuring that rural and underserved areas have access to financial touchpoints.
• Geo-tagging of financial institutions ensures transparency and helps identify regions that need more resources.

The correct answer is Godavari River.

Key Points

• The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) is a multi-purpose irrigation project constructed on the Godavari River in the state of Telangana, India.
• The project is considered one of the largest lift irrigation systems in the world and aims to address water scarcity and support agricultural activities in Telangana.
• The Godavari River, the second-longest river in India, originates in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before draining into the Bay of Bengal. Hence, option Godavari is correct.
• KLIP involves lifting water from the Godavari River at various stages to supply water to regions that suffer from low rainfall and water shortages.
• The project is designed to irrigate approximately 18.25 lakh acres of agricultural land and provide drinking water to several districts of Telangana. Hence, the Godavari River is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Key Features of the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project:
• The KLIP is spread across several districts in Telangana, including Medak, Karimnagar, Nizamabad, and Warangal.
• The project uses pumps and reservoirs to lift water from the Godavari River and transfer it to upland areas. It involves three main barrages: Medigadda, Annaram, and Sundilla.
• The maximum lift in the project is approximately 500 meters, making it one of the most ambitious lift irrigation systems in the world.
• Godavari River:
• The Godavari River is known as the "Dakshin Ganga" due to its significance in southern India.
• It originates near Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows through states like Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
• The river supports numerous irrigation projects, including KLIP, Polavaram Project, and Sriram Sagar Project.
• Other Rivers in the Options:
• Narmada River: Originating in Madhya Pradesh, the Narmada is famous for projects like the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
• Mahanadi River: Known for the Hirakud Dam, it flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
• Indus River: Primarily flowing through Pakistan, it is one of the longest rivers in Asia.

Important Points

• Significance of KLIP:
• The project is a major boost for agriculture, drinking water supply, and industrial purposes in Telangana.
• It is expected to address the challenges posed by climate change and ensure water availability during dry spells.
• Economic Impact:
• KLIP contributes significantly to the state's economy by improving agricultural productivity and creating employment opportunities.
• The project also enhances the potential for industrial development in the region.

The correct answer is 68 days.

Key Points

• Property Registration Process: According to the Economic Survey 2020, the process of registering a property in Mumbai takes approximately 68 days. This duration includes all steps like document preparation, submission, verification, and final approval. Hence, the correct answer is 68 days.
• The property registration process is governed by the Registration Act, 1908, which mandates that all transactions related to immovable property be registered to ensure legal ownership.
• Factors contributing to the duration include administrative processes, verification of ownership, tax clearance, and compliance with legal norms. These steps are essential to avoid disputes and ensure transparency in property transactions.
• Comparative Duration: The time taken for property registration in Mumbai is longer compared to other cities in India due to the high volume of transactions, complex legal procedures, and stringent compliance requirements.
• The duration is also influenced by the city's dense population, real estate demand, and administrative workload, making it relatively time-consuming. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Registration Act, 1908:
• This act governs the registration of documents related to immovable property transactions in India. It ensures legal ownership and prevents fraud.
• Under this act, property buyers must register the sale deed within a specific timeframe to secure ownership rights.
• Factors Affecting Registration Time:
• The time required for property registration depends on factors like location, documentation completeness, verification process, and administrative efficiency.
• Mumbai's high real estate activity and dense population lead to longer registration times compared to smaller cities.
• Economic Survey 2020 Insights:
• The Economic Survey 2020 highlighted procedural delays and administrative bottlenecks as key reasons for the longer duration in Mumbai.
• The survey emphasizes reforms to streamline processes, reduce paperwork, and enhance transparency in property transactions.

Important Points

• Key Legal Considerations:
• Property registration requires submission of documents like sale deed, tax receipts, and ownership proof. Any discrepancies can delay the process.
• Stamp duty payment is mandatory before registration. In Mumbai, this is calculated based on the property's market value or agreement value, whichever is higher.
• Government Initiatives:
• The government is working on digitizing the registration process to reduce time and increase efficiency.
• E-registration and online payment systems are being introduced to simplify procedures and minimize delays.

The correct answer is Divya Deshmukh.

Key Points

• Divya Deshmukh is a young and talented Indian chess player. She has made significant contributions to the chess community and is recognized globally for her performances.
• She was born on December 8, 2005, in Nagpur, Maharashtra, India.
• Divya has achieved the title of Woman Grandmaster (WGM) at a very young age, showcasing her exceptional skill and dedication to chess.
• She has represented India in various international chess tournaments and has won several accolades, including medals at the World Youth Chess Championships.
• In 2021, she won the National Women’s Chess Championship, further solidifying her position as one of India's leading chess players.
• Her achievements have earned her recognition as a rising star in the chess world. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Komalika Bari:
• Komalika Bari is an Indian archer, not a chess player.
• She specializes in recurve archery and has won several awards, including a gold medal at the World Archery Youth Championships in 2021.
• She is considered a promising talent in Indian archery.
• Rani Rampal:
• Rani Rampal is an Indian hockey player, renowned for her contribution to Indian women's hockey.
• She has served as the captain of the Indian women's hockey team and played a crucial role in securing India’s victory in various international tournaments.
• She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2020 for her achievements in sports.
• Shikha Pandey:
• Shikha Pandey is an Indian cricketer who has represented the Indian women’s cricket team in various formats.
• She is an all-rounder, known for her bowling and batting skills.
• Shikha has played pivotal roles in many international cricket matches and tournaments.

Important Points

• Indian Chess Players:
• India has a rich legacy of chess players, with names like Viswanathan Anand, Koneru Humpy, Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa, and Divya Deshmukh gaining international recognition.
• Chess is deeply rooted in Indian culture, with its origins traced back to the ancient game of Chaturanga.
• Divya Deshmukh’s Achievements:
• She has played in prestigious tournaments like the Chess Olympiad and various Grandmaster events.
• Her success at a young age has inspired many young chess enthusiasts in India.

The correct answer is 4.3%.

Key Points

• Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures inflation by tracking changes in the prices of goods traded in bulk at the wholesale level.
• The Macro-Economic Framework Statement in the Union Budget 2020-21 reported the inflation rate based on WPI to be 4.3% for the financial year 2018-19. Hence, statement is correct.
• WPI includes goods such as primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products.
• The reported inflation rate of 4.3% reflects the price changes in these categories and highlights the economic stability during the fiscal year 2018-19.
• The WPI data is essential for policymakers as it assists in understanding price changes and their impact on production and supply chain. Hence, the statement aligns correctly with the given data.

Additional Information

• Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
• WPI is a key economic indicator used by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, to measure inflation at the wholesale level.
• It measures the price of goods before they reach the retail level, hence capturing the inflationary trends in the production and distribution stages.
• WPI is expressed as a percentage change compared to a base year, which is currently 2011-12.
• Components of WPI:
• WPI consists of three main categories: Primary Articles (e.g., food, minerals), Fuel and Power (e.g., coal, electricity), and Manufactured Products (e.g., machinery, chemicals).
• Changes in these categories are tracked to measure price movements in the wholesale market.
• Significance of Inflation Data:
• Inflation data based on WPI helps policymakers in adjusting fiscal and monetary policies to stabilize the economy.
• It is used by industries, businesses, and the government to understand cost pressures and plan pricing strategies.

Important Points

• Key Features of WPI:
• WPI is different from the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which measures inflation at the consumer level.
• WPI inflation is generally used for industrial and economic analysis, whereas CPI is used to track retail price inflation affecting consumers.
• Recent Trends:
• Over the years, WPI inflation has shown variations due to factors such as global oil price changes, economic policies, and supply chain disruptions.
• The reported WPI inflation of 4.3% in 2018-19 reflects a relatively stable economic condition compared to higher inflation rates in earlier years.

The correct answer is Chocolate brown.

Key Points

• The base colour of the ₹10 denomination banknotes in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series, issued by the Reserve Bank of India in 2018, is chocolate brown. This statement is correct.
• These banknotes feature a portrait of Mahatma Gandhi on the obverse side, which is a standard feature of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series.
• The reverse side of the ₹10 note displays an image of the Konark Sun Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Odisha. This highlights the cultural heritage of India.
• The dimensions of the ₹10 banknote in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series are 123 mm x 63 mm, making it smaller and more compact than the previous designs.
• The note also incorporates various security features such as a windowed security thread, watermarks, and intaglio printing to prevent counterfeiting.
• The design and colour of these notes were introduced to enhance their aesthetic appeal and to align with the evolving needs of the Indian currency system.
• The introduction of the new ₹10 banknotes was part of the Reserve Bank of India’s efforts to update the currency in circulation and improve its durability and security features.

Additional Information

• Specific Characteristics of ₹10 Notes:
• The use of chocolate brown as the base colour makes the note distinct from other denominations, aiding in easy identification by the public.
• The depiction of the Konark Sun Temple on the reverse side emphasizes India’s rich cultural and architectural heritage. It serves as a reminder of the historical significance of the temple, built during the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
• The Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series notes are designed to improve security and durability, with features such as raised printing, micro-lettering, and colour shifting ink.
• Other Denominations in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series:
• ₹50 note: Base colour is fluorescent blue with the Hampi chariot depicted on the reverse side.
• ₹200 note: Base colour is bright yellow with Sanchi Stupa on the reverse side.
• ₹500 note: Base colour is stone grey with the Red Fort depicted on the reverse side.
• Purpose of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series:
• The series was introduced to standardize the design of Indian currency, improve security features, and incorporate themes of India’s cultural and historical significance.
• The notes are designed to be visually appealing, user-friendly, and durable, catering to the needs of the public and the banking system.

Important Points

• Security Features in ₹10 Note:
• The note includes micro-letters with the words “RBI” and “10.”
• A windowed security thread with inscriptions “भारत” and “RBI” is visible when the note is held against the light.
• The watermark of Mahatma Gandhi's portrait and an electrotype (10) numeral is visible when the note is tilted.
• Evolution of ₹10 Notes:
• Prior to the introduction of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series, ₹10 notes had a base colour of orange-brown with different designs and features.
• The new design and colour were introduced to enhance the efficiency of currency management and meet the needs of the growing economy.

The correct answer is Kandla.

Key Points

• Kandla Port is one of the largest and oldest ports located on the west coast of India. It is situated in the state of Gujarat.
• It was established in 1950 primarily to serve the northern and northwestern regions of India after the partition of the country disrupted access to Karachi port.
• The port is known for its high cargo-handling capacity, especially for petroleum products, chemicals, grains, and salt, making it a significant contributor to India's economy.
• Kandla Port is equipped with modern infrastructure and facilities, including container terminals, liquid cargo terminals, and warehousing facilities. It caters to both domestic and international trade.
• The port holds strategic importance due to its proximity to the Gulf of Kutch, facilitating trade routes to the Middle East, Europe, and Africa.
• It is managed by the Kandla Port Trust (now referred to as the Deendayal Port Authority), which ensures smooth operations and maintenance of the port facilities.
• Among all major ports on the west coast, Kandla is recognized for its efficient handling of bulk cargo and its contribution to India's maritime trade. Hence, the correct answer is Kandla.

Additional Information

• Haldia Port:
• Haldia Port is located in the state of West Bengal on the eastern coast of India. It primarily handles cargo such as petrochemicals, steel, and fertilizers.
• It serves as a satellite port to Kolkata and is crucial for trade in the eastern region of India. However, it is not located on the west coast, making it an incorrect option for the question.
• Tuticorin Port:
• Also known as the V.O. Chidambaranar Port, it is situated in Tamil Nadu on the southern tip of India. It handles cargo such as coal, salt, and construction materials.
• This port is located on the eastern coast, making it an incorrect choice for identifying a major port on the west coast.
• Paradeep Port:
• Paradeep Port is located in Odisha on the eastern coast of India. It is primarily used for handling bulk cargo such as coal and iron ore.
• Due to its location on the eastern coast, it does not qualify as a major port on the west coast of India.
• Kandla Port:
• Situated in Gujarat, Kandla Port is one of India's busiest ports on the west coast. It handles a variety of cargo, including petroleum, grains, chemicals, and salt.
• It plays a pivotal role in India's trade with the Middle East, Europe, and Africa. The port is managed by the Deendayal Port Authority.

Important Points

• Major ports in India:
• India has a total of 13 major ports, which are crucial for facilitating international and domestic trade.
• Ports on the west coast include Kandla, Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT), and Mormugao, among others.
• Role of ports in trade:
• Ports act as gateways for the import and export of goods, contributing to the economic growth of the nation.
• Modern ports are equipped with state-of-the-art technology to handle large volumes of cargo efficiently.

The correct answer is Mahendragiri.

Key Points

• Mahendragiri is located in the Eastern Ghats, which stretch primarily across the states of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu in eastern India. It is the second-highest peak in the Eastern Ghats and lies in the state of Odisha.
• The mountain is situated at an elevation of approximately 1,501 meters (4,925 feet) above sea level. It is part of the Gajapati district in Odisha.
• This peak holds great mythological significance as it is associated with the Ramayana. It is believed to be the abode of Parashurama, one of the avatars of Lord Vishnu.
• The flora and fauna around Mahendragiri are rich and diverse, making it an important ecological zone in the Eastern Ghats.
• Mahendragiri is known for its tranquil environment and is a popular destination for trekkers and nature enthusiasts.

Additional Information

• Eastern Ghats:
• The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along the eastern coast of India. They spread across the states of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
• The Eastern Ghats are older than the Western Ghats and are geologically composed of metamorphic rocks and ancient rocks like granite and quartzite.
• They are not as high as the Western Ghats, with peaks like Mahendragiri standing out as significant landmarks.
• Other Options:
• Anamudi: This is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and is located in Kerala. It stands at an elevation of 2,695 meters and is not part of the Eastern Ghats. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Dodabetta: Situated in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, Dodabetta is the highest peak in the Nilgiri range. It is part of the Western Ghats and has an elevation of 2,637 meters. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Mukurthi: This peak is also located in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu and is part of the Western Ghats. It is known for the Mukurthi National Park, which is a UNESCO World Heritage site. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Important Facts:
• The Eastern Ghats are an important watershed, with rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi originating or flowing through them.
• They are home to diverse ecosystems, including tropical deciduous forests, and are rich in biodiversity.
• The Eastern Ghats are also culturally significant, with many temples and pilgrimage sites located in this region.

Important Points

• Comparison of Eastern and Western Ghats:
• The Eastern Ghats are less continuous and not as high as the Western Ghats.
• While the Western Ghats are known for their evergreen forests, the Eastern Ghats primarily have deciduous forests.
• The Eastern Ghats have many tribal communities living in and around them, and they rely on the forest for their livelihood.
• Tourism in Mahendragiri:
• The location is a major trekking destination due to its natural beauty and mythological significance.
• It is also famous for its Shivaratri celebrations, attracting devotees from across the region.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): This scheme was launched by the Government of India in December 2000, under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.
• AAY focuses on providing highly subsidized food grains to the poorest of the poor families in India. It aims to address food security issues for economically weaker sections of society.
• Initially, 25 kg of food grains per family per month were provided at subsidized rates under this scheme. Hence, statement regarding initial allocation is correct.
• In April 2002, the quantity of food grains provided under the AAY scheme was increased to 35 kg per family per month to further improve food security. Hence, the correct answer is 2002.
• The subsidized rates for food grains under AAY are highly affordable, with rice available at Rs. 3 per kg and wheat at Rs. 2 per kg.
• Families eligible for the scheme include Below Poverty Line (BPL) families, widows, disabled individuals, and senior citizens without regular income or support.
• This scheme is implemented in collaboration with state governments and Union Territories to ensure proper identification of beneficiaries and distribution of food grains. Hence, statement regarding implementation is correct.
• The increase in allocation to 35 kg per family per month was aimed at combating severe poverty and improving the nutritional intake among the most vulnerable sections of society. Hence, statement regarding nutritional focus is correct.
• Hence, the correct answer is 2002.

Additional Information

• About Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY):
• AAY was launched as part of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and aims to alleviate hunger among the poorest population.
• The scheme identifies priority households, including agricultural laborers, marginal farmers, rural artisans, and destitute individuals, for providing subsidized food grains.
• Implementation of the Scheme:
• The state governments are responsible for identifying beneficiaries based on economic and social parameters.
• The distribution is managed through Fair Price Shops (FPS) under the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• The central government supplies subsidized food grains, while the state governments handle logistics and distribution.
• Impact of the Scheme:
• It has significantly contributed to reducing hunger and malnutrition among economically weaker sections.
• The increased allocation of food grains (35 kg per family per month) in 2002 has further enhanced its impact.
• The scheme ensures that beneficiaries have access to essential food grains at affordable rates.

Important Points

• Food Security in India:
• India has implemented several schemes like the National Food Security Act (NFSA), Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) to address food security challenges.
• AAY plays a crucial role in targeting the poorest sections who are often excluded from mainstream programs.
• Significance of 2002 Allocation:
• The increase to 35 kg per family improved the nutritional intake and reduced the risk of malnutrition.
• It showcased the government’s commitment to the welfare of the most vulnerable populations.
• The scheme's impact has been observed in improved living standards of beneficiaries.

The correct answer is Colon.

Key Points

• The respiratory system is primarily responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the external environment.
• The major organs involved in the respiratory system include the lungs, trachea, bronchi, alveoli, larynx, and nasal passages.
• The bronchi are large air passages that lead from the trachea to the lungs and are essential for transporting air. Hence, Bronchi is a part of the respiratory system.
• The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, connects the larynx to the bronchi and facilitates the movement of air to the lungs. Hence, Trachea is a part of the respiratory system.
• The larynx, also known as the voice box, is involved in breathing, producing sound, and protecting the trachea against food aspiration. Hence, Larynx is a part of the respiratory system.
• The colon, on the other hand, is part of the digestive system and plays no role in respiration. It is responsible for absorbing water and nutrients from food and forming stool for excretion. Hence, Colon is not a part of the respiratory system.
• Thus, the correct answer is Colon.

Additional Information

• Functions of the Respiratory System:
• The primary function is gas exchange, where oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream and carbon dioxide is expelled.
• It regulates blood pH by controlling the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.
• It also plays a role in vocalization through the larynx and provides protection against harmful particles via mucus and cilia in the airways.
• Colon and Digestive System:
• The colon is part of the digestive system and is located in the lower abdomen.
• Its primary function is to absorb water and electrolytes from undigested food and form stool for excretion.
• Conditions like colon cancer, irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), and ulcerative colitis affect the colon.
• Comparison:
• The respiratory system deals with gas exchange and is essential for sustaining life by providing oxygen.
• The digestive system, including the colon, focuses on nutrient absorption and waste excretion.
• While these systems serve distinct functions, they work together to maintain overall body homeostasis.

Important Points

• Bronchi:
• Located within the lungs, they split into smaller branches called bronchioles.
• They play a vital role in directing air from the trachea into the lungs.
• Trachea:
• Located in the neck and chest, it is reinforced with cartilage rings to prevent collapse.
• It serves as the primary air passage to the lungs.
• Larynx:
• Located at the top of the trachea, it houses the vocal cords and is critical for speech.
• It also prevents food from entering the airways during swallowing.
• Colon:
• Part of the large intestine, it absorbs water and forms solid waste.
• It is located in the abdominal cavity and has no role in respiration.

The correct answer is Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth) is a book written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj.
• It was published in 1875 and is considered a philosophical and religious text that emphasizes the principles of Vedic knowledge.
• The book advocates for the rejection of idol worship, rituals, and superstitions, emphasizing a return to the teachings of the Vedas for spiritual and social reform.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati used this book to promote the idea of monotheism and criticized polytheism and the caste system as misinterpretations of Vedic teachings.
• It is divided into 14 chapters, discussing various aspects of religion, ethics, and social reform, along with the importance of education and rational thinking.
• The book was instrumental in spreading the ideas of the Arya Samaj and influencing social reform movements across India. Hence, the correct answer is Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Additional Information

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1824–1883) was a prominent Hindu reformer and the founder of the Arya Samaj, a socio-religious reform movement.
• Swami Dayanand believed in promoting education, especially among women, and worked to abolish practices such as child marriage and caste discrimination.
• Arya Samaj:
• The movement played a crucial role in India's freedom struggle by fostering the spirit of equality and nationalism.
• The book became a guiding light for reformers and intellectuals during the 19th century, influencing movements for social change and equality.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar: Worked for women’s education and the abolition of child marriage. He played a key role in the Widow Remarriage Act of 1856.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy: Known as the Father of the Indian Renaissance, he worked against practices like Sati and advocated for modern education and women's rights.
• Significance of Satyarth Prakash:
• Its teachings continue to inspire individuals and organizations to work towards equality, education, and social justice.

The correct answer is cardiologist.

Key Points

• Dr. SI Padmavati was known as India’s first female cardiologist. She made significant contributions to the field of cardiology and was regarded as the pioneer of modern cardiology in India.
• She was the founder of the National Heart Institute in Delhi and served as its director for several years. Her work was instrumental in the development of advanced cardiac care facilities in the country.
• Dr. Padmavati was the first woman to become the president of the Indian Society of Cardiology. Her contributions helped establish cardiology as a specialized medical field in India. Hence, the statement regarding her being a cardiologist is correct.
• Awards and Honors: She received several prestigious awards, including the Padma Bhushan in 1967 and the Padma Vibhushan in 1992, in recognition of her achievements in medicine and cardiology.
• Dr. Padmavati passed away in August 2020 at the age of 103. Her death marked the end of an era in Indian cardiology, but her legacy continues to inspire generations of medical professionals.
• She was a visionary who emphasized the importance of preventive care and the adoption of modern medical practices in India.
• Hence, the correct answer is cardiologist.

Additional Information

• Contributions to Indian Cardiology:
• Dr. Padmavati pioneered the development of cardiac catheterization laboratories and introduced advanced diagnostic methods in India.
• She was instrumental in setting up the All India Heart Foundation, an institution dedicated to improving heart health awareness and promoting research in cardiology.
• Her Role in Medical Education:
• Dr. Padmavati established training programs for young cardiologists, helping India produce skilled professionals in the field.
• She was associated with prominent institutions like the Lady Hardinge Medical College and the Maulana Azad Medical College, where she contributed to the advancement of medical education.
• Significance of Her Work:
• Her emphasis on preventive cardiology and public health awareness helped shape India’s approach to tackling cardiovascular diseases.
• She played a crucial role in bridging the gap between traditional practices and modern medical advancements.

Important Points

• Dr. SI Padmavati’s Achievements:
• She was the recipient of Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan, India’s highest civilian honors, for her outstanding contributions to medicine.
• Her establishment of the National Heart Institute and All India Heart Foundation marked a turning point in cardiac care in India.
• Legacy and Impact:
• Dr. Padmavati’s work continues to inspire cardiologists and healthcare professionals across the country.
• She is remembered for her contributions to women’s empowerment in medicine and for breaking barriers as India’s first female cardiologist.

The correct answer is Commercial disputes.

Key Points

• The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted in India to ensure the speedy settlement of disputes related to family matters in a manner conducive to conciliation and peaceful resolution.
• Family courts deal specifically with family-related issues, including matrimonial disputes, child custody, maintenance, and guardianship. Hence, statement 2 (Restitution of conjugal rights) is correct.
• Under the Family Courts Act, matters related to divorce, including legal dissolution of marriage and divorce proceedings, fall within the jurisdiction of family courts. Hence, statement 3 (Divorce) is correct.
• Annulment of marriage, which involves declaring a marriage null and void, is also governed under the Family Courts Act, 1984. Hence, statement 4 (Annulment of marriage) is correct.
• However, commercial disputes, which involve business transactions, contracts, and trade-related matters, do not fall under the purview of family courts as they are not family or matrimonial disputes. Such matters are handled by commercial courts or regular civil courts. Hence, statement 1 (Commercial disputes) is not correct.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Commercial disputes.

Additional Information

• Family Courts Act, 1984:
• The Family Courts Act, 1984 was introduced to establish family courts for resolving disputes related to marriage and family issues in a peaceful manner and to promote conciliation.
• The Act covers disputes such as divorce, restitution of conjugal rights, child custody, maintenance, guardianship, and annulment of marriage.
• It aims to ensure a speedy trial and resolution of family disputes, avoiding lengthy litigation processes.
• Commercial Disputes:
• Commercial disputes involve business-related issues such as breach of contract, trade agreements, partnership disputes, and financial transactions.
• These disputes are governed under separate laws such as the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 or handled by regular civil courts, not family courts.
• Important Differences Between Family Courts and Commercial Courts:
• Family courts: Focus on family and matrimonial issues. Aim to promote conciliation and settlement in disputes such as marriage, divorce, and child custody.
• Commercial courts: Deal with trade-related matters involving businesses, contracts, and financial disputes.

Important Points

• Key Legal Considerations:
• Family courts do not handle disputes related to commercial transactions, business contracts, or trade matters.
• The establishment of family courts is meant to ensure a non-adversarial resolution of familial disputes, prioritizing reconciliation over litigation.
• Examples of Cases in Family Courts:
• Divorce proceedings: Legal dissolution of marriage under laws such as the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
• Restitution of conjugal rights: A remedy for spouses to resume marital relations.
• Child custody: Determining guardianship and access rights for children during separation or divorce.

The correct answer is Saraswati.

Key Points

• Goddess Saraswati:
• In Indian culture, Goddess Saraswati is revered as the embodiment of wisdom, learning, music, and arts.
• She is visualized wielding the musical instrument Veena, which symbolizes creativity and harmony.
• Saraswati is depicted seated on a white lotus or a swan, symbolizing purity and knowledge. Hence, Saraswati is associated with the Veena.
• Other Goddesses mentioned:
• Durga: Goddess Durga is primarily worshiped as a warrior goddess, who symbolizes strength and protection. She is depicted with weapons in her hands rather than musical instruments. Hence, Durga is not associated with the Veena.
• Kali: Goddess Kali represents destruction of evil and transformation. She is depicted with fierce attributes and is not visualized with a Veena. Hence, Kali is not associated with the Veena.
• Laxmi: Goddess Laxmi signifies wealth and prosperity. She is commonly depicted with a lotus and gold coins but does not wield the Veena. Hence, Laxmi is not associated with the Veena.
• Hence, the correct answer is Saraswati.

Additional Information

• Significance of Goddess Saraswati:
• Saraswati is considered the goddess of knowledge, wisdom, and arts in Hindu mythology. She is celebrated during the festival of Vasant Panchami, which marks the arrival of spring.
• Saraswati's Veena represents mastery over the arts, especially music. It is also symbolic of balance and discipline in creative pursuits.
• She is often associated with education and is worshiped by students, artists, and musicians for inspiration and success.
• Other Goddesses and Their Attributes:
• Durga: Worshiped during Navratri, Durga is depicted as a warrior goddess who rides a lion or tiger and carries various weapons to symbolize protection and strength.
• Kali: Known for her fierce representation, Kali is associated with the destruction of evil forces. She is often depicted with a garland of skulls and a sword.
• Laxmi: Celebrated during Diwali, Laxmi signifies wealth and prosperity. She is often portrayed seated on a lotus, with gold coins flowing from her hands.
• Importance of Musical Instruments:
• In Indian culture, musical instruments like the Veena are considered sacred and are associated with spiritual and artistic practices.
• The Veena, in particular, is seen as an instrument that connects the human soul with divine energy through music.

Important Points

• Key Cultural Symbolism:
• The Veena is not just a musical instrument but also a cultural symbol of knowledge and art in Indian traditions.
• Goddess Saraswati's association with the Veena highlights the importance of harmony, balance, and creativity in life.
• Representation in Temples and Art:
• In Indian temples, Saraswati is often depicted in sculptures and paintings holding the Veena, showcasing her connection to music and wisdom.
• Her imagery is widely used in educational institutions and cultural spaces to invoke her blessings for knowledge and artistic excellence.

The correct answer is twenty-third.

Key Points

• Parshvanath was the twenty-third Tirthankara of Jainism.
• He is considered one of the most significant figures in Jain teachings and philosophy, preceding the twenty-fourth Tirthankara, Mahavira.
• Parshvanath was born in Varanasi, India, approximately 872 BC. He belonged to the Ikshvaku dynasty, which is known for its lineage of rulers and spiritual leaders. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Parshvanath's Teachings: He propagated the fourfold principles of Jainism: Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), Aparigraha (non-possession).
• Parshvanath's teachings emphasized non-violence and the importance of ethical conduct. His principles laid the foundation for Jain teachings, which were further expanded by Mahavira. Hence, the details about his teachings are correct.
• Parshvanath attained Kevala Jnana (omniscience) and achieved liberation (moksha). He is believed to have attained nirvana at Shikharji (Jharkhand), one of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Jains.
• Parshvanath is often depicted in Jain art as having a serpent hood over his head. This symbolizes his connection with nature and his protection by serpent gods. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Tirthankaras in Jainism:
• Tirthankaras are spiritual teachers and role models in Jainism. There are a total of 24 Tirthankaras, each contributing to the development of Jain philosophy.
• The first Tirthankara was Rishabhdev, and the last was Mahavira. Each Tirthankara is associated with specific symbols and teachings.
• Significance of Parshvanath:
• Parshvanath was a reformer who simplified Jain practices by introducing the fourfold path, which was later expanded to five principles by Mahavira.
• His teachings emphasized the importance of ethical conduct and spiritual discipline for attaining liberation.
• Example: Parshvanath’s emphasis on non-violence (Ahimsa) became a cornerstone of Jain philosophy and influenced prominent leaders like Mahatma Gandhi.
• Artistic Depictions:
• Parshvanath is often depicted with a canopy of seven serpent hoods, symbolizing protection and divine connection.
• His idol is usually shown in a meditative posture, reflecting his spiritual enlightenment.

Important Points

• Fourfold Principles of Parshvanath:
• Parshvanath introduced Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya, Aparigraha as the core principles of Jainism, simplifying spiritual practices.
• These principles were expanded by Mahavira to include Brahmacharya (celibacy), forming the five principles of Jainism.
• Historical Context:
• Parshvanath lived approximately 250 years before Mahavira and played a crucial role in shaping Jain teachings.
• His teachings and practices laid the foundation for the Jain community's ethical and spiritual framework.

The correct answer is Francis Xavier.

Key Points

• The Basilica of Bom Jesus: This church is located in Old Goa, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is one of the most famous churches in India and is known for its baroque architecture.
• Saint Francis Xavier: The sacred relics of Saint Francis Xavier are preserved in this church. He was a Catholic missionary and one of the founding members of the Society of Jesus (Jesuits).
• The relics of Saint Francis Xavier are placed in a silver casket and kept for public viewing. Every 10 years, these relics are displayed during a grand public exposition. Hence, Saint Francis Xavier is the correct answer.
• History of Saint Francis Xavier: He arrived in Goa in 1542 and spent his life spreading Christianity in India and other parts of Asia, such as Japan, Malacca, and the Moluccas.
• He passed away in 1552 on Shangchuan Island (China). His body was later brought to Goa and placed in the Basilica of Bom Jesus. Hence, the significance of the relics of Saint Francis Xavier in the Basilica is immense.
• Architectural Significance: The Basilica is an example of Portuguese colonial architecture. It is constructed using laterite stones and has marble flooring with inlaid precious stones.
• The church is a symbol of Goa's rich religious and cultural heritage. Hence, it holds immense historical and spiritual significance.

Additional Information

• Saint Francis Xavier:
• Saint Francis Xavier was born in Spain in 1506. He played a crucial role in the missionary activities of the Jesuits across Asia.
• He was canonized as a saint in 1622 by Pope Gregory XV. His feast day is celebrated on 3rd December every year.
• The relics of Saint Francis Xavier are considered miraculous by many devotees, and the Basilica attracts thousands of pilgrims annually.
• The Basilica of Bom Jesus:
• It was constructed in 1594 and completed in 1605. The church is dedicated to Infant Jesus.
• The church is an important religious site for Christians and is also admired for its baroque and Jesuit architectural style.
• Other Options:
• Francis Caracciolo: He was an Italian priest and co-founder of the Clerics Regular Minor. His relics are not enshrined in the Basilica of Bom Jesus.
• Francis of Paola: He was a hermit and founder of the Order of Minims. His relics are not associated with Goa.
• Francis of Assisi: He was the founder of the Franciscan Order. His relics are not enshrined in the Basilica of Bom Jesus.

Important Points

• Relics Display:
• The relics of Saint Francis Xavier are displayed every 10 years during a public exposition. This attracts pilgrims and tourists from across the globe.
• The last exposition took place in 2014, and the next is anticipated soon.
• UNESCO Recognition:
• The Basilica of Bom Jesus is part of the group of churches and convents in Goa, which received UNESCO World Heritage status in 1986.
• This recognition highlights the historical and cultural importance of the site.

The correct answer is The SI unit of electric current is ampere..

Key Points

• The SI unit of electric current is the ampere, denoted by the symbol A.
• Electric current is defined as the flow of electric charge. In SI units, one ampere corresponds to the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
• Statement 1: "The SI unit of temperature is ampere." This statement is incorrect. The SI unit of temperature is the kelvin (K), not ampere.
• Statement 2: "The SI unit of electric current is ampere." This statement is correct. Ampere is the internationally recognized unit for measuring electric current.
• Statement 3: "The SI unit of amount is ampere." This statement is incorrect. The SI unit of the amount of substance is the mole (mol), not ampere.
• Statement 4: "The SI unit of luminous intensity is ampere." This statement is incorrect. The SI unit of luminous intensity is the candela (cd), not ampere.
• The ampere is one of the seven base units in the International System of Units (SI), and it plays a crucial role in defining other derived units such as the volt and the ohm.

Additional Information

• SI Units:
• The International System of Units (SI) provides a consistent framework for measurement across different domains of science and engineering.
• There are seven base SI units: meter (m) for length, kilogram (kg) for mass, second (s) for time, ampere (A) for electric current, kelvin (K) for temperature, mole (mol) for the amount of substance, and candela (cd) for luminous intensity.
• These base units form the foundation for derived units such as the volt (V), ohm (Ω), and joule (J).
• Characteristics of the Ampere:
• An ampere is defined based on the force between two parallel conductors carrying an electric current.
• In 2019, the ampere was redefined based on the elementary charge (e), a fundamental constant, as part of the new SI system.
• The ampere is crucial in various applications, including electric circuits, electronics, power systems, and electromagnetism.
• Applications of Ampere in Science and Engineering:
• The ampere is widely used in electronics to measure current flow in semiconductors, resistors, and capacitors.
• It is used in designing power transmission systems and calculating the efficiency of electrical appliances.
• In electromagnetism, the ampere is used to define other quantities like the magnetic field strength (tesla).

Important Points

• Key Definitions:
• Electric Current: The rate of flow of electric charge. Measured in amperes.
• Kelvin: The SI unit of temperature, defined based on the thermodynamic temperature scale.
• Mole: Represents the amount of substance containing as many elementary entities as there are atoms in 12 grams of carbon-12.
• Candela: Unit of luminous intensity, representing the power of light emitted in a particular direction.
• Applications Across Domains:
• The ampere is essential for understanding power generation, distribution, and consumption.
• It is widely used in industries for designing circuits and measuring electrical performance.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Sex Ratio: The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a given population. It is a crucial demographic indicator highlighting the gender balance in a region.
• Census of India 2011: According to the Census of India 2011, the state of Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio with 1084 females per 1000 males.
• Kerala's achievement: Kerala has consistently maintained a high sex ratio due to factors like higher literacy rates, better awareness about gender equality, and an efficient public health system. Hence, the correct answer is Kerala.
• The other states mentioned in the options — Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh — also have respectable sex ratios but fall behind Kerala. For example:
• Tamil Nadu: 996 females per 1000 males.
• Andhra Pradesh: 993 females per 1000 males.
• Chhattisgarh: 991 females per 1000 males.
• Significance of Kerala: Kerala's sex ratio reflects its progressive stance on gender equality and the implementation of effective social policies over the years.

Additional Information

• Key Statistics from Census 2011:
• The sex ratio at the national level in India, as per the 2011 Census, was 940 females per 1000 males. This marked an improvement from the 2001 Census, which recorded a sex ratio of 933 females per 1000 males.
• Kerala topped the list with a sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males, followed by Puducherry (1037) and Tamil Nadu (996).
• Factors Influencing Higher Sex Ratios:
• Literacy Rate: States with higher literacy rates, especially among women, tend to have better sex ratios. Kerala, for example, boasts a female literacy rate of 92.07%.
• Public Health: Effective healthcare systems, including maternal and child health programs, contribute to lower infant mortality rates among girls.
• Socio-cultural Factors: Progressive attitudes toward gender equality and women's empowerment also play a significant role.
• Comparison of States:
• Tamil Nadu: Despite having a respectable sex ratio of 996, Tamil Nadu falls behind Kerala due to factors like a slightly lower literacy rate and socio-cultural disparities in some regions.
• Andhra Pradesh: With 993 females per 1000 males, Andhra Pradesh has shown improvement over the years but still lags behind Kerala.
• Chhattisgarh: The sex ratio of 991 females per 1000 males reflects its tribal population's relatively balanced gender norms, although Kerala remains far ahead.

Important Points

• Significance of Sex Ratio:
• The sex ratio is an indicator of gender equality, women's status in society, and the overall health and well-being of a population.
• A balanced or higher sex ratio reflects a society's commitment to addressing gender-based disparities, including female infanticide and sex-selective abortions.
• Policy Implications:
• Government Programs: Initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aim to improve the sex ratio and empower women.
• States like Kerala serve as a model for other regions to adopt policies promoting gender equality and women's welfare.

The correct answer is Tosali.

Key Points

• Tosali served as the capital of the eastern province of the Mauryan Empire, which was one of the most significant empires in ancient India.
• The Mauryan Empire was established by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 BCE and expanded significantly during the reign of Emperor Ashoka.
• Tosali, also known as Tosala, was located in the present-day region of Odisha. It played a crucial role in the administration and governance of the empire's eastern territories. Hence, Tosali is the correct answer.
• The province of Tosali was significant because it was strategically located and served as a center for trade, culture, and administration in eastern India.
• Inscriptions like the Dhauli Rock Edicts, found near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, mention Tosali and provide evidence of the Mauryan administration in this region.
• Emperor Ashoka, during his rule, used Tosali as a base for spreading the principles of Dhamma (Buddhist teachings), which were inscribed on edicts in the region.
• Tosali was also important in maintaining control over the eastern provinces of the Mauryan Empire, ensuring stability and efficient governance.
• Hence, the correct answer is Tosali.

Additional Information

• The Mauryan Empire:
• The Mauryan Empire (321 BCE - 185 BCE) was founded by Chandragupta Maurya, with its capital at Pataliputra (modern-day Patna).
• It was one of the largest and most powerful empires in Indian history, encompassing most of the Indian subcontinent.
• Key Features of Tosali:
• Tosali was strategically located near the Kalinga region (modern-day Odisha), which was annexed by Ashoka after the famous Kalinga War around 261 BCE.
• It served as a provincial capital and was responsible for maintaining order and collecting taxes in the eastern regions.
• Tosali was also a center for Buddhist activities, as Ashoka promoted Buddhism extensively in this region.
• Other Capitals of the Mauryan Empire:
• Takshila: Located in the northwest, it was a major educational and administrative center.
• Ujjain: Capital of the western province, known for its trade and cultural significance.
• Suvarnagiri: Located in the southern region, it served as the administrative center for the southern provinces.

Important Points

• The Kalinga War:
• The Kalinga War (261 BCE) was fought between Emperor Ashoka and the kingdom of Kalinga. It resulted in a significant loss of life, deeply impacting Ashoka and leading to his conversion to Buddhism.
• Post-war, Ashoka focused on spreading Buddhism and maintaining peace, with Tosali playing a key role in these efforts.
• The Dhauli Rock Edicts:
• The Dhauli Rock Edicts, near Tosali, provide insights into Ashoka's policies and his efforts to spread the principles of Dhamma.
• These edicts are an important source of historical information about the administration and governance of the Mauryan Empire.

The correct answer is Pranab Mukherjee.

Key Points

• Pranab Mukherjee was the 13th President of India, serving from July 25, 2012, to July 25, 2017. He succeeded Pratibha Patil, the first female President of India.
• He was a seasoned politician with a career spanning over five decades and was part of the Indian National Congress.
• Before his presidency, Pranab Mukherjee held several significant positions, including Finance Minister, External Affairs Minister, and Defence Minister, showcasing his vast administrative experience.
• He was known for being a skilled negotiator and a respected statesman, playing a crucial role in shaping India's economic and foreign policies.
• During his tenure as President, he upheld the dignity of the highest constitutional post and emphasized the importance of education, innovation, and rural development.
• He was also awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2019, recognizing his immense contributions to public service.
• Pranab Mukherjee passed away on August 31, 2020, leaving behind a legacy of statesmanship and dedication to the nation.

Additional Information

• About Pranab Mukherjee:
• Born on December 11, 1935, in Mirati, West Bengal, Pranab Mukherjee grew up with a strong sense of dedication toward public service.
• He began his political career in the 1960s and was mentored by Indira Gandhi, under whose leadership he grew into one of the most influential leaders in the Indian National Congress.
• He held prestigious portfolios such as Finance, Defence, and External Affairs, becoming known as the party's key troubleshooter and strategist.
• Presidency Highlights:
• As President, Pranab Mukherjee emphasized the need for inclusive growth, education reform, and scientific innovation for the development of the country.
• He was a staunch advocate of the Indian Constitution and ensured its principles were upheld during his tenure.
• Legacy:
• Pranab Mukherjee's legacy includes his immense contribution to India's economic liberalization, his efforts in fostering diplomatic relationships, and his role in stabilizing the Indian economy during critical times.
• He is remembered as one of the most respected Presidents in India's history, with his experience and wisdom being invaluable to the nation.

Important Points

• Key Characteristics of Other Options:
• KR Narayanan: Served as the 10th President of India from 1997 to 2002. He was the first Dalit President of India and was known for his contributions to social justice.
• Pratibha Patil: Served as the 12th President of India from 2007 to 2012. She was the first female President of India and focused on women's empowerment and development.
• APJ Abdul Kalam: Known as the "Missile Man of India," he was the 11th President (2002–2007) and contributed significantly to India's defense and space programs.
• Significance of the Indian Presidency:
• The President is the constitutional head of the Indian Republic and is responsible for safeguarding the Constitution and ensuring the smooth functioning of the democratic system.
• The President plays a key role in legislative processes, appointing key officials, and representing India on international platforms.

The correct answer is Five crore.

Key Points

• As per the new norms notified by the Government of India in June 2020, the classification of enterprises as Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) was revised to promote economic growth and encourage investments. This new definition replaced the earlier distinction based solely on investment criteria.
• A micro enterprise is now defined as an enterprise whose investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed Rs 1 crore, and whose turnover does not exceed Rs 5 crore.
• The turnover criterion was introduced to make the classification more inclusive and reflective of the enterprise's overall performance. Hence, the turnover limit for micro enterprises is Rs 5 crore as per the correct option.
• Earlier, the classification of MSMEs was based only on the investment in plant and machinery or equipment, which created challenges for businesses with high turnover but low investment. The new norms aim to address these challenges by including turnover as a critical parameter.
• The revised definition of MSMEs aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, which seeks to strengthen the Indian economy by supporting small and medium businesses. Hence, the correct answer is Rs 5 crore.

Additional Information

• Revised MSME Classification:
• Micro Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment should not exceed Rs 1 crore, and turnover should not exceed Rs 5 crore.
• Small Enterprises: Investment should not exceed Rs 10 crore, and turnover should not exceed Rs 50 crore.
• Medium Enterprises: Investment should not exceed Rs 50 crore, and turnover should not exceed Rs 250 crore.
• Significance of the New Definition:
• The revised classification aims to encourage small businesses to scale up without the fear of losing benefits under the MSME category.
• The inclusion of the turnover criterion ensures that enterprises with high growth potential receive adequate support.
• Impact of Changes:
• This initiative is expected to benefit a large number of businesses, enabling them to participate in government schemes such as the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) and other financial incentives.
• It promotes transparency and better access to institutional finance, thereby supporting the overall growth of the MSME sector.

Important Points

• Key Features of the MSME Sector:
• Employment Generation: The MSME sector is one of the largest contributors to employment in India, providing jobs to over 11 crore people.
• Contribution to GDP: MSMEs contribute approximately 30% to India’s GDP and around 48% to the country’s exports.
• Government Initiatives: Schemes like PMEGP (Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme), CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises), and Make in India have been introduced to support the sector.
• Global Perspective:
• Many countries, including Germany, Japan, and China, have implemented similar reforms to support their small and medium businesses.

The correct answer is Cricket..

Key Points

• Mankading refers to a mode of dismissal in Cricket, where a bowler runs out the non-striker before delivering the ball if the non-striker leaves the crease prematurely.
• The term originates from an incident involving Indian cricketer Vinoo Mankad, who dismissed Australian batsman Bill Brown in this manner during a match in 1947. Hence, it is named after him.
• This dismissal is legal according to the Laws of Cricket, specifically under Law 41.16, which deals with the unfair play of the non-striker leaving the crease early. Hence, it is correct.
• Mankading has often sparked debates over the spirit of the game versus following the rules strictly. While some view it as unsportsmanlike, others believe it is a fair application of the rules. Hence, this dismissal is a valid part of cricket.

Additional Information

• Origins of Mankading:
• The term was coined after Vinoo Mankad dismissed Bill Brown during India’s tour of Australia in 1947. This dismissal highlighted the importance of the non-striker staying within the crease until the ball is delivered.
• Although the dismissal is legal, its usage remains controversial, with opinions divided among players, commentators, and fans.
• Law 41.16 of Cricket:
• This law, set by the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), allows the bowler to run out a non-striker who leaves the crease before the ball is bowled.
• The law is aimed at preventing unfair advantages gained by the non-striker, such as shortening the running distance or gaining an unfair head start.
• Examples of Mankading:
• In 2019, Indian bowler Ravichandran Ashwin dismissed Jos Buttler via Mankading in the IPL, sparking significant debate about the spirit of the game.
• Other notable instances include Kapil Dev dismissing Peter Kirsten in 1992 and Keemo Paul dismissing a Zimbabwe batsman during the U-19 World Cup.

Important Points

• Legal but Controversial:
• Mankading is officially recognized under the Laws of Cricket but is often criticized for being unsportsmanlike.
• The controversy arises because it challenges the traditional “spirit of the game,” a core element of cricket’s culture.
• Recent Changes:
• In 2022, the MCC moved Mankading from the “unfair play” section to the “run-out” section, affirming its legitimacy as a mode of dismissal.
• This change highlights the MCC’s effort to ensure clarity in cricket laws and reduce ambiguity surrounding the dismissal.

The correct answer is South-east.

Key Points

• Location of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are situated in the Bay of Bengal to the south-east of the Indian mainland. This group of islands lies closer to Southeast Asia than to mainland India.
• The islands are strategically positioned, stretching between the 6°N and 14°N latitudes and 92°E and 94°E longitudes. Hence, the given statement is correct.
• Geographical Importance: These islands act as a natural barrier between the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea, making them important for maritime navigation and security purposes.
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands consist of 572 islands, and only a few of them are inhabited. These include Port Blair, the capital of the union territory. Hence, the geographical alignment supports the south-east location.
• Neighboring Countries: These islands are close to countries like Myanmar, Thailand, and Indonesia, highlighting their south-east orientation from the Indian mainland. Hence, the statement about south-east direction is valid.

Additional Information

• Geography of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• The Andaman Islands are located in the northern part of the archipelago, while The Nicobar Islands are situated to the south.
• The islands are primarily divided into three groups: North Andaman, Middle Andaman, and South Andaman. The Nicobar Islands are separated from the Andaman group by the Ten Degree Channel.
• Strategic Importance:
• The islands have a strategic role in India’s maritime security, and they are situated along important sea routes connecting the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean.
• These islands serve as a critical base for the Indian Navy and the Coast Guard, ensuring surveillance of key shipping lanes.
• Ecological Significance:
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are known for their rich biodiversity. They are home to endemic species of plants, animals, and marine life.
• The islands are covered by tropical rainforests and are a hub for eco-tourism, offering unique natural landscapes.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands were used as a penal colony by the British during the colonial era. The Cellular Jail in Port Blair stands as a symbol of India’s freedom struggle.
• After independence, the islands became a Union Territory of India in 1956.
• Tourism and Economy:
• The islands are a popular tourist destination, offering attractions like Radhanagar Beach, Havelock Island, and Baratang.
• The local economy is primarily dependent on agriculture, fisheries, and tourism.

The correct answer is Pattadakal.

Key Points

• Pattadakal, located in the state of Karnataka, India, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is renowned for its exquisite temple architecture and as a symbol of Chalukyan art.
• The site consists of nine Hindu temples dedicated to various deities, primarily Lord Shiva, and a Jain shrine. These temples showcase a unique blend of Nagara and Dravidian architectural styles.
• Pattadakal served as a ceremonial site for the coronation of Chalukyan kings, highlighting its importance in ancient Indian history. Hence, the site is a remarkable cultural and historical landmark.
• The temples at Pattadakal include Virupaksha Temple, Kashi Vishwanatha Temple, Jain Narayana Temple, and Mallikarjuna Temple. These demonstrate advanced techniques in temple construction and intricate carvings.
• The Virupaksha Temple, built by Queen Lokamahadevi to commemorate the victory of the Chalukyan king Vikramaditya II, is one of the most famous temples at this site. Hence, the site reflects both historical and artistic significance.
• The Jain Narayana Temple is a testament to the religious tolerance of the Chalukya dynasty, as it includes the influence of Jainism along with Hinduism in the architectural designs.
• Pattadakal is a classic example of a place where artisans experimented with architectural styles and created masterpieces that have stood the test of time. Hence, it is a UNESCO-recognized heritage site.

Additional Information

• Other Important UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India:
• Bodh Gaya: Located in Bihar, Bodh Gaya is one of the most sacred sites for Buddhists. It is the place where Lord Buddha attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
• Mahabalipuram: Situated in Tamil Nadu, Mahabalipuram is known for its rock-cut temples and sculptures, including the famous Shore Temple and the Pancha Rathas.
• Sanchi: Located in Madhya Pradesh, Sanchi is renowned for its Buddhist stupas and monuments, including the Great Stupa built by Emperor Ashoka.
• Architectural Styles in Indian Temples:
• Nagara Style: Predominant in North India, characterized by curvilinear towers (shikhara) and intricate carvings.
• Dravidian Style: Common in South India, featuring pyramidal towers (vimana) and large temple complexes with multiple shrines.
• Vesara Style: A fusion of Nagara and Dravidian styles, prominently seen in the temples of Pattadakal.
• Significance of UNESCO World Heritage Sites:
• UNESCO recognizes sites that exhibit outstanding universal value in terms of cultural heritage, history, and architecture.
• These sites are protected and preserved as they represent significant human achievements and contribute to global heritage.

Important Points

• Chalukya Dynasty:
• The Chalukyas ruled from the 6th to the 12th century and were significant patrons of art and architecture. They developed unique architectural styles that influenced temple construction in South India.
• Their contributions to temple architecture are evident at sites like Pattadakal, Aihole, and Badami, which showcase their artistic and cultural legacy.
• UNESCO Recognition:
• Pattadakal was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987 due to its outstanding representation of ancient temple architecture.
• This recognition ensures the preservation and protection of the site as part of the world’s cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Plantae.

Key Points

• Pteridophyta is a division of plants that belongs to the Kingdom Plantae. These are vascular plants, meaning they have a well-developed vascular system comprising xylem and phloem.
• Pteridophytes are non-flowering plants that reproduce through spores rather than seeds. They do not produce fruits or flowers, but their reproduction is dependent on spores. Hence, statement is correct.
• They are considered the first group of plants to have a vascular system, which facilitates the transport of water and nutrients across the plant body. This system is crucial for their survival in terrestrial environments. Hence, statement is correct.
• Pteridophytes include ferns, horsetails, and club mosses. These plants are often found in moist and shaded environments, as they require water for fertilization during reproduction. Hence, statement is correct.
• They are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms, which are photosynthetic. Their green coloration is due to the presence of chlorophyll, allowing them to perform photosynthesis. Hence, statement is correct.
• Unlike non-vascular plants such as mosses, Pteridophytes have true roots, stems, and leaves. These structures are well-developed and contribute to their adaptation to terrestrial habitats. Hence, statement is correct.
• The Kingdom Plantae is characterized by its multicellular organisms that perform photosynthesis, and Pteridophyta fits within this classification due to its plant-like features. Hence, statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Kingdom Plantae:
• The Kingdom Plantae includes all multicellular eukaryotic organisms that are autotrophic, meaning they produce their own food through photosynthesis.
• Members of this kingdom possess cell walls made of cellulose, a structural component that provides rigidity and strength to plant cells.
• Reproduction in the Plantae kingdom can occur either sexually or asexually, depending on the specific group of plants. For example, Pteridophytes reproduce asexually through spores.
• Significance of Pteridophytes:
• Pteridophytes play a significant ecological role in maintaining soil structure, preventing soil erosion, and contributing to the ecosystem's biodiversity.
• Some Pteridophytes, such as Azolla, are used as biofertilizers due to their ability to fix nitrogen.
• Comparison with Other Kingdoms:
• Monera: This kingdom includes unicellular prokaryotic organisms, such as bacteria, which lack a defined nucleus and organelles.
• Protista: Protists are primarily unicellular eukaryotic organisms, and they differ from Pteridophytes due to their lack of complex multicellular structures.
• Fungi: Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that obtain nutrients through absorption. Unlike Pteridophytes, they do not perform photosynthesis.

Important Points

• Examples of Pteridophytes:
• Ferns: Common examples include Adiantum (Maidenhair fern) and Dryopteris.
• Horsetails: These belong to the genus Equisetum and are characterized by their jointed stems.
• Club Mosses: Examples include Lycopodium and Selaginella.
• Applications:
• Pteridophytes are used for ornamental purposes in landscaping due to their unique appearance.
• Certain species, like Azolla, are cultivated as biofertilizers in agriculture.

The correct answer is Satyashodhak Samaj.

Key Points

• Pandita Ramabai was a prominent social reformer, scholar, and activist who played a pivotal role in advocating for women's rights and education in colonial India.
• She founded Sharda Sadan in 1889 in Mumbai with the goal of providing education to widowed and destitute women. Hence, this statement is correct.
• She also established the Arya Mahila Samaj in 1881 with the purpose of promoting education and welfare for women, especially widows. Hence, this statement is correct.
• The Mukti Mission, founded by Pandita Ramabai in 1897, aimed to provide a home, education, and vocational training for widows and destitute women and children. Hence, this statement is correct.
• The Satyashodhak Samaj was not established by Pandita Ramabai. It was founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 with the aim of advocating for the rights and welfare of oppressed castes in India. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Sharda Sadan:
• Founded in 1889 by Pandita Ramabai in Mumbai, the Sharda Sadan was an institution dedicated to the education and upliftment of widowed and destitute women.
• It provided a safe haven for women to learn various skills and regain their independence in a patriarchal society.
• Arya Mahila Samaj:
• Established in 1881, this organization focused on improving the status of women in society by promoting education and self-reliance.
• Pandita Ramabai emphasized the importance of reforms for widows, who were often marginalized in society.
• Mukti Mission:
• Founded in 1897, the Mukti Mission was set up in Kedgaon, Pune, to provide shelter, education, and skill development for widows, orphans, and destitute women.
• It expanded over time to include facilities such as schools, vocational training centers, and orphanages.
• Satyashodhak Samaj:
• This organization was founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 in Maharashtra.
• It aimed to fight against caste-based discrimination and promote social equality, especially for the oppressed castes.
• The organization advocated for the rights of women and the downtrodden, but it was not associated with Pandita Ramabai.

Important Points

• Pandita Ramabai:
• She was one of India’s earliest feminists and worked tirelessly for women’s education and rights, especially for widows.
• She was honored with the title of Saraswati by Calcutta University for her scholarly contributions.
• Jyotirao Phule:
• Known as the father of social reform in India, he was a strong advocate for the rights of oppressed castes and women.
• His work significantly influenced future reformers, including Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

The correct answer is Dronacharya Award.

Key Points

• Purushottam Rai, a former Indian athletics coach, passed away on 28th August 2020, just a day before he was to receive the Dronacharya Award. Hence, this statement is correct.
• The Dronacharya Award is one of the highest honors bestowed upon sports coaches in India for their outstanding contributions to sports and the development of athletes. It is awarded annually by the Government of India. This statement is correct.
• Purushottam Rai was a renowned athletics coach who had contributed significantly to Indian athletics. He had trained several top athletes and represented India as a coach in various international events. This statement is correct.
• The award ceremony was scheduled for 29th August 2020, which coincides with the celebration of National Sports Day in India, commemorating the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Unfortunately, Rai passed away due to a cardiac arrest just a day before the event. This statement is correct.
• The Dronacharya Award is named after Dronacharya, the guru of the Pandavas and Kauravas from the Mahabharata, symbolizing excellence in coaching and mentoring. This statement is correct.
• Hence, the correct answer is Dronacharya Award.

Additional Information

• About the Dronacharya Award:
• Established in 1985, the Dronacharya Award is given to coaches who have successfully trained athletes or teams to achieve outstanding results in international competitions.
• The award consists of a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial dress, and a cash prize. Over the years, it has become a prestigious recognition for sports coaches in India.
• Other Major Sports Awards in India:
• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award: Now renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, it is the highest sporting honor in India, awarded for exceptional performance in sports over a period of four years.
• Arjuna Award: Established in 1961, it recognizes outstanding achievements in sports and includes a statuette, certificate, ceremonial dress, and cash prize.
• Dhyan Chand Award: Introduced in 2002, it honors lifetime contributions to sports and includes a certificate, statuette, and cash award.
• About Purushottam Rai:
• He was a veteran athletics coach who specialized in training athletes for track and field events.
• Rai had served as a coach for the Indian athletics team at several international events, including the Asian Games and the World Championships.
• He was recognized for his significant contributions to Indian sports and was chosen for the Dronacharya Award posthumously in 2020.

Important Points

• Significance of National Sports Day:
• National Sports Day is celebrated annually on 29th August in honor of Major Dhyan Chand, one of the greatest hockey players in history.
• The day is marked by the presentation of various sports awards, such as the Khel Ratna, Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, and others.
• Recent Developments:
• 2021: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award to honor the legendary hockey player.
• The awards have continued to recognize India’s sporting talents and the significant contributions of coaches like Purushottam Rai.

The correct answer is Epilepsy.

Key Points

• Non-communicable diseases (NCDs): These are medical conditions or diseases that are not caused by infectious agents. Instead, they are chronic diseases that progress slowly and are usually the result of genetic, physiological, environmental, and behavioral factors.
• Epilepsy: It is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, which are sudden bursts of electrical activity in the brain. It is classified as a non-communicable disease because it is not infectious or transmissible from one person to another.
• Conditions like epilepsy are influenced by genetic predisposition, brain injury, or developmental disorders, not by pathogens. Hence, it is considered a non-communicable disease.
• Other options: Cholera, tuberculosis, and smallpox are all communicable diseases caused by infectious agents and can be transmitted between individuals. Hence, they do not fall under the category of non-communicable diseases.

Additional Information

• Details of each option:
• Cholera: This is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. It spreads through contaminated water and food and leads to acute diarrheal illness. Cholera is common in areas with poor sanitation and limited access to clean drinking water.
• Epilepsy: This is a chronic, non-communicable neurological disorder. It can occur due to brain damage, genetic factors, or unknown causes. Seizures in epilepsy may vary in severity, and treatment often involves anti-epileptic medication or surgery in severe cases.
• Tuberculosis (TB): This is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It primarily affects the lungs but can also spread to other parts of the body. TB spreads through airborne droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
• Smallpox: This was a highly contagious disease caused by the variola virus. It caused severe rash and fever, leading to significant mortality. However, smallpox was eradicated globally in 1980 through widespread vaccination efforts.
• Characteristics of Non-Communicable Diseases:
• NCDs are not caused by infectious agents and cannot be passed from person to person.
• Common types of NCDs include cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, chronic respiratory diseases, and neurological disorders like epilepsy.
• Risk factors for NCDs include genetic predisposition, unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, tobacco use, and alcohol consumption.
• Global Impact:
• According to the World Health Organization (WHO), NCDs are responsible for 71% of all global deaths (around 41 million people annually).
• Epilepsy affects approximately 50 million people worldwide, making it one of the most common neurological conditions.

Important Points

• Prevention and Management of Epilepsy:
• Epilepsy can be managed using anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs), which help control seizures in about 70% of patients.
• In cases where medication is ineffective, surgical procedures, ketogenic diets, or other therapies may be considered.
• Preventive measures include reducing head injuries, improving maternal and neonatal care, and controlling infections that may lead to epilepsy.
• Public Awareness:
• Stigma associated with epilepsy is a significant challenge. Public education and awareness campaigns can help reduce misconceptions and discrimination against individuals with epilepsy.
• The International Epilepsy Day, observed annually on the second Monday of February, aims to raise awareness and provide support to people with epilepsy.

The correct answer is Indian Penal Code.

Key Points

• Section 193 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, deals with the punishment for furnishing false evidence or fabricating false evidence during a judicial proceeding.
• The section states that anyone who intentionally provides false evidence or fabricates evidence to mislead a judicial proceeding can face penal consequences.
• The punishment under Section 193 includes imprisonment up to 7 years along with a fine, making it a serious offense under the IPC.
• Furnishing false evidence during a judicial proceeding undermines the judicial system and violates the principles of justice and truth. Hence, the correct answer is the Indian Penal Code.
• The following statutes or acts listed in the options, such as the National Investigation Agency Act, the Right to Information Act, and the National Tax Tribunal Act, do not deal with false evidence or fabricating evidence in judicial proceedings.

Additional Information

• Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860:
• Enacted in 1860, the IPC is the main criminal code of India. It provides the legal framework for defining crimes and prescribing punishments for such crimes.
• Section 193 specifically addresses the issue of false evidence. It is categorized as a serious offense due to the harm it causes to the integrity of the judicial system.
• The section ensures that legal proceedings are conducted fairly and truthfully, penalizing any act that seeks to corrupt the administration of justice.
• National Investigation Agency Act, 2008:
• This act establishes the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to handle cases related to terrorism and other national security threats. It does not deal with evidence fabrication in judicial proceedings.
• Right to Information Act, 2005:
• This act empowers citizens of India to access government information, ensuring transparency and accountability. It is unrelated to the submission of false evidence in judicial proceedings.
• National Tax Tribunal Act, 2005:
• This act was enacted to simplify tax-related disputes and establish a specialized tribunal for such cases. It does not address issues of false evidence.

Important Points

• Key Features of Section 193:
• Section 193 is a non-compoundable offense, meaning that the case cannot be withdrawn by the complainant. The accused must face trial, and the court decides the punishment.
• The offense is cognizable, meaning that the police can arrest the accused without a warrant and start an investigation without prior approval of the magistrate.
• The offense under this section is also non-bailable, indicating its severity and the potential for misuse of liberty by the accused if released on bail.
• Examples of False Evidence:
• Providing a forged document as proof during a trial to mislead the court.
• Deliberately giving false testimony under oath in a court of law.
• Creating or fabricating evidence that is presented as genuine in a judicial proceeding.
• Importance of Section 193:
• Acts as a deterrent against perjury and ensures that people do not misuse judicial processes for personal or unlawful gains.
• Protects the sanctity of the justice system by ensuring that only truthful evidence is presented in courts.

The correct answer is Eastern.

Key Points

• Gaudiya Nritya is a classical dance form that originates from the Eastern part of India, particularly from the state of West Bengal.
• It is deeply rooted in ancient traditions and has been described in historical texts such as the Natyashastra, which is the foundational treatise on performing arts in India.
• The dance is known for its spiritual and devotional aspects, primarily focusing on themes related to Vaishnavism, which is centered around the worship of Lord Krishna. Hence, the statement about its origin in Eastern India is correct.
• The movements and expressions in Gaudiya Nritya are a combination of graceful postures, rhythmic footwork, and symbolic hand gestures, making it a visually captivating art form.
• It is performed during religious and cultural festivals in Eastern India, particularly in West Bengal, to depict stories from Hindu mythology and scriptures. Hence, the connection to Eastern India is accurate.
• This dance form is also considered a revival of the ancient dance traditions of Bengal, which were nearly lost over time. Hence, the correct answer is Eastern India.

Additional Information

• Gaudiya Nritya:
• Gaudiya Nritya is often associated with ritualistic performances in temples and religious events in Bengal. Its origin can be traced back to ancient Bengali culture and traditions.
• It incorporates elements of storytelling, acting, and music, making it a comprehensive art form that communicates emotions and narratives effectively.
• Vaishnavism and Gaudiya Nritya:
• The dance form draws heavily from Vaishnavism, a spiritual tradition that celebrates the life and teachings of Lord Krishna. Many performances depict episodes from his life, such as the Rasa Lila.
• The name "Gaudiya" itself refers to Gauda, the ancient name for Bengal, emphasizing its cultural and geographical roots.
• Example: The Rasa Lila, a key theme of Gaudiya Nritya, represents the divine love story between Lord Krishna and Radha.
• Comparison with other classical dances:
• Unlike classical dances such as Bharatanatyam or Kathak, which have pan-Indian appeal, Gaudiya Nritya remains rooted in Bengali traditions.
• It is characterized by its fluid movements and emphasis on expressing bhakti (devotion).
• The dance form has been revived in recent decades, with efforts to preserve its unique heritage and cultural significance.

Important Points

• Characteristics of Gaudiya Nritya:
• It emphasizes expressive storytelling, using intricate facial expressions and gestures to convey emotions and narratives.
• The costumes used in performances are typically traditional Bengali attire, reflecting the regional heritage.
• Other classical dances of India:
• Southern India: Includes dances like Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, and Mohiniyattam, which are known for their intricate footwork and devotional themes.
• Western India: Includes dances such as Garba and Dandiya, which are primarily folk dances but have classical influences.
• Northern India: Includes Kathak, characterized by its storytelling and rhythmic footwork.

The correct answer is Shaka dynasty.

Key Points

• King Rudradaman was a prominent ruler of the Shaka dynasty, which is also referred to as the Western Kshatrapas.
• He is renowned for his contributions to Indian history, particularly for his skill as an able administrator and a patron of arts and culture.
• Rudradaman ruled over a vast territory covering parts of present-day Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. This highlights the geographical extent of his empire.
• He is credited with the repair of the Sudarshana Lake, an ancient reservoir in Gujarat, showcasing his administrative efficiency and focus on public works.
• Rudradaman’s Junagarh Rock Inscription is one of the earliest inscriptions written in classical Sanskrit. It highlights his achievements and his proficiency in Sanskrit.
• He was a follower of Hinduism, but he also showed tolerance towards other religions, reflecting the cultural diversity of his time.
• The Shaka dynasty originated from the Scythians, who migrated to India, and they are known for their contributions to Indian culture, governance, and architecture.

Additional Information

• Shaka Dynasty:
• The Shaka dynasty, also known as the Western Kshatrapas, was a branch of the Scythians who migrated to India around the 2nd century BCE.
• They ruled large parts of western and central India and played a crucial role in shaping the political and cultural landscape of the region.
• Junagarh Rock Inscription:
• The Junagarh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman is one of the most important historical records, written in 150 CE.
• This inscription is significant because it is one of the earliest examples of classical Sanskrit and provides detailed information about Rudradaman's reign.
• It mentions the repair of the Sudarshana Lake in Saurashtra, highlighting his focus on public welfare and infrastructure development.
• Other Options Explained:
• Satavahana Dynasty: This dynasty ruled primarily in the Deccan region of India. They are known for their contributions to trade, culture, and architecture but have no connection with King Rudradaman.
• Shishunaga Dynasty: This dynasty was an ancient ruling family in Magadha, much earlier than the time of Rudradaman.
• Sunga Dynasty: The Sunga dynasty ruled after the fall of the Mauryan Empire in northern India. They do not have any direct association with Rudradaman or the Shaka dynasty.

Important Points

• Rudradaman’s Contributions:
• Rudradaman is considered one of the greatest rulers of the Shaka dynasty. His contributions to Sanskrit literature and his administrative reforms are noteworthy.
• He maintained peace and stability in his empire and promoted trade and commerce, which significantly contributed to the prosperity of his kingdom.
• Legacy of the Shaka Dynasty:
• The Shakas introduced several cultural practices and administrative systems that influenced Indian society.
• They also contributed to the development of art and architecture, with many surviving sculptures and inscriptions attributed to them.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Mann Ki Baat is a monthly radio programme hosted by Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister of India.
• The programme began on October 3, 2014, and it is broadcast on the All India Radio, DD National, and other platforms.
• In this programme, the Prime Minister shares his views on various social, economic, cultural, and environmental issues, aiming to connect directly with the citizens of India.
• Mann Ki Baat is not a political programme but rather focuses on inspiring and motivating the citizens through stories of individuals and organizations working for the betterment of society.
• The programme has been instrumental in promoting social campaigns like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Digital India, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao.
• Narendra Modi uses Mann Ki Baat as a platform to address issues such as water conservation, climate change, and the importance of the Indian Constitution.
• Hence, the correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Additional Information

• About Narendra Modi:
• Narendra Modi is the current Prime Minister of India, serving since May 26, 2014.
• He is known for his innovative initiatives like Mann Ki Baat, which aims to reach out to citizens in a non-political manner.
• Born on September 17, 1950, in Vadnagar, Gujarat, Modi has been a proactive leader with a focus on development and governance.
• Significance of Mann Ki Baat:
• The programme is unique as it emphasizes the stories of ordinary citizens, their achievements, and their contributions to society.
• It has emerged as a platform to highlight grassroots innovations and solutions to societal problems.
• Mann Ki Baat has been broadcast in multiple languages to ensure a wide reach across the country.
• Impact of Mann Ki Baat:
• The programme has successfully engaged citizens in social campaigns such as water conservation, cleanliness drives, and health initiatives.
• It has inspired many individuals and organizations to contribute towards nation-building and societal development.

Important Points

• Achievements of Mann Ki Baat:
• The programme has completed over 100 episodes, with citizens actively participating and sharing their stories.
• Mann Ki Baat has been commended for addressing issues like mental health awareness and environmental conservation.
• Global Recognition:
• The initiative has drawn international attention for its innovative approach to governance and public engagement.
• The programme has also been studied for its impact on public behavior and policy implementation.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The State of Telangana was officially formed on June 2, 2014, following the enactment of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, 2014.
• This Act was passed by the Indian Parliament and signed into law by the President of India in March 2014.
• The formation of Telangana was the result of a long-standing demand for a separate state due to cultural, linguistic, and geographical differences from Andhra Pradesh. Hence, the correct answer is 2014.
• The Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act laid out the division of assets, resources, and administration between the new state of Telangana and the residual Andhra Pradesh.
• Telangana became the 29th state of India, with Hyderabad as its shared capital for a period of 10 years between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. This event marks a significant milestone in Indian history.

Additional Information

• Historical Background of Telangana:
• Telangana was historically part of the Hyderabad State under the rule of the Nizams. It merged with Andhra Pradesh in 1956 following the States Reorganization Act.
• Cultural and regional differences led to dissatisfaction among the people of Telangana, fueling the demand for a separate state for decades.
• Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, 2014:
• This Act provided the legal framework for the division of Andhra Pradesh into two states: Telangana and residual Andhra Pradesh.
• Key provisions of the Act included the allocation of water resources, power generation facilities, financial assets, and administrative services between the two states.
• Hyderabad was designated as a joint capital for 10 years, during which time Andhra Pradesh was expected to establish its new capital.
• Key Features of Telangana:
• Telangana is located in southern India and comprises 33 districts.
• It is known for its rich cultural heritage, including its unique cuisine, art forms, and festivals.
• The state has significant natural resources, including the Godavari and Krishna rivers, which are vital for agriculture and irrigation.

Important Points

• Key Legal Considerations:
• The formation of Telangana was legally sanctioned through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, following extensive discussions and debates in Parliament.
• The Act required the approval of the President of India, and the division was implemented under the constitutional provisions of Article 3.
• Significant Developments:
• 2014: Telangana became the 29th state of India, fulfilling the aspirations of millions of people seeking autonomy.
• The bifurcation emphasized the importance of addressing regional disparities and ensuring equitable development across states.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• India launched its National Programme for Family Planning in the year 1952, becoming the first country in the world to adopt such a policy.
• The primary goal of this programme was to control the population growth and improve the health and welfare of families.
• The programme initially focused on promoting the use of contraceptives and spreading awareness about the importance of family planning. Hence, the statement about the year 1952 is correct.
• Over time, the programme evolved to include broader aspects like maternal health, child health, and reproductive health, aligning with international goals such as the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and later, the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• Family planning in India has played a crucial role in reducing the fertility rates and enhancing awareness about the importance of reproductive health. Hence, the emphasis on family welfare and health is valid.
• The programme has significantly contributed to the reduction in population growth rates over the years, although challenges like regional disparities and accessibility to healthcare still persist.
• The introduction of newer methods like sterilization, intrauterine devices (IUDs), and injectable contraceptives has expanded the scope of India's family planning initiatives. Hence, it is correct to highlight the evolution of the programme.
• India's efforts in family planning have been recognized globally, and the programme continues to be pivotal in achieving healthcare equity and improving quality of life in the country. Hence, its global recognition is valid.

Additional Information

• Objectives of the Family Planning Programme:
• The programme aims to reduce the fertility rate and achieve population stabilization by promoting the use of contraceptive methods and raising awareness about family planning.
• It also focuses on enhancing the health of mothers and children, reducing maternal mortality rates (MMR) and infant mortality rates (IMR).
• Evolution of the Programme:
• Initially, the programme focused on voluntary sterilization and distribution of contraceptives. Over time, newer methods like intrauterine devices (IUDs) and injectable contraceptives were introduced.
• The programme also includes components like adolescent health, sex education, and reproductive health services to address broader healthcare needs.
• It aligns with global health initiatives like the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to ensure universal access to reproductive healthcare.
• Government Policies and Initiatives:
• The Indian government has launched various schemes like the Mission Parivar Vikas to accelerate family planning efforts in high-focus districts.
• Efforts like the promotion of condoms and oral contraceptives aim to enhance accessibility to family planning methods.
• Awareness campaigns like the ‘Hum Do, Hamare Do’ slogan have played a significant role in promoting the programme.

Important Points

• Global Recognition:
• India was the first country to launch a nationwide family planning programme, setting an example for other nations.
• The programme has received support from global organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO) and United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA).
• Impact on Population Growth:
• India's family planning efforts have significantly reduced the fertility rate from over 5 in the 1950s to around 2.0 in recent years.
• The programme's success has led to improved maternal and child health indicators, though challenges remain in achieving universal healthcare access.

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = 400

Loss = 20%

Formula used:

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) / 100

Calculation:

400 = CP × (100 − 20) / 100

⇒ 400 = CP × 80 / 100

⇒ 400 = 0.8 CP

⇒ CP = 400 / 0.8

⇒ CP = 500

∴  Cost Price = 500.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "55" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Leaves, Fruits, Cucumbers

Fruits, Bananas, Grapes

India, Maharashtra, Mumbai

Mothers, Females, Carpenters

So, Banana and Grapes both are Fruits.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic:  Every image have stars in them.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The area of the shapes collided are shaded.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Figure 1 (H): Composed of 3 straight line segments (two vertical, one horizontal).

Figure 2 (E): Composed of 4 straight line segments (one vertical, three horizontal).

Figure 3 (I): Composed of 3 straight line segments (one vertical, two horizontal).

Figure 4 (N): Composed of 3 straight line segments (two vertical, one diagonal).

So, Figure 2 is different from other given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic:

A Dice is a cube which have 6 faces. 

Each face is opposite to the other.

Now, 

So, From Dice 1, Dice 2, Dice 3, Dice 4.

R  is the letter that will be on the face opposite to the face showing "M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: Similar shapes are place in different direction.

In Figure 1 and Figure 2 →

Similarly;

In Figure 3 and Figure 4 →

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed here is:

All follow a pattern: +3, +4, +5.

Here, BKEM don't follow the pattern:

So, 'BKEM' is different from all the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'REBELS' is written as "FSFCTM

Similarly, for 'KNIGHT'

So, 'ELNJ' will be written as OLHJUI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is used in the answer image.

Hence, the correct  answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is;

In a Row:

(Centre − Left) = X and (Right − Centre) = −X/2.

Row 1:

Centre − Left = 625 − 545 = 80

Right − Centre = 585 − 625 = −40 = −(80/2)

And, 

Row 3:

Centre − Left = 346 − 228 = 118

Right − Centre = 287 − 346 = −59 = −(118/2)

Similarly, 

Row 2:

Centre − Left = 436 − 332 = 104

So Right − Centre = −(104/2) = −52

Thus Right = 436 − 52 = 384

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "523" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The image should complete the pattern inside the triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shapes inside the image is arranged in a unique order that each position is taken by all different shapes in the setup.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 27 - 36 + 48 ÷ 3 x 8 = 9  = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

Option 1) 27 and 3

27 - 36 + 48 ÷ 3 x 8 = 9 

⇒ 3 − 36 + 48 ÷ 27 × 8 = ?

→ 48 ÷ 27 × 8 = (1.777...) × 8 = 14.22

→ 3 − 36 + 14.22 = −18.78 ≠ 9 

Option 2) 27 and 3

27 - 36 + 48 ÷ 3 x 8 = 9 

27 − 36 + 48 ÷ 8 × 3 = ?

→ 48 ÷ 8 × 3 = 6 × 3 = 18

→ 27 − 36 + 18 = 9 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The shapes inside the image is arranged 2 set of directions, in alternate way and each square have different shape inside the image.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The image should complete the pattern inside the Square.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

From the given open Dice:

Horizontal Row: K, M, P

Vertical/Connected Column: Z (above P), S (right of Z), T (right of S)

Now,

The opposite pairs are:

K ↔ P

Z ↔ T

M ↔ S

So, The opposite pairs will be T and Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The image should complete the pattern embedded  inside the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'

The logic followed here is:

Logic: the relation is “tool → its primary function/use.”

A pulley is a tool/mechanism whose primary purpose (or common use) is lifting or changing the direction/amount of force to lift loads.

Here,

Stitching — relates to a needle/needle & thread, not scissors.

Carving — done with chisels or knives, not the primary function of scissors.

Iron — a tool for pressing clothes, not a function; unrelated.

Similarly,

Cutting — exactly the primary function of scissors

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

The second number is the square of the first digit of the first number.

The second number is the cube of the quantity obtained by doubling the second digit of the first number.

Now,

For, 91: 81 

⇒ 91 → 9² = 81

Similarly, for 14 : ?

⇒ 14 ⇒  (Second Digit x 2)³ ⇒ (4 x 2)³ = 8³ = 512

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Married Persons: Represented by the Circle.

Vehicle Owners: Represented by the Rectangle.

NOT Shop-keepers: Must be outside the Triangle.

Here,

The number 12 is inside the Triangle (meaning they are shop-keepers).

The number 10 is outside the Triangle (meaning they are NOT shop-keepers).

So, the number of married persons who are vehicle owners but are NOT shop-keepers is 10.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

Divisors: 16, 24, 40, 64, 72

Remainder: 1

Formula Used:

LCM of divisors = Least common multiple of 16, 24, 40, 64, 72

Required number = LCM + Remainder

Calculation:

⇒ Prime factorization: 16 = 2⁴, 24 = 2³ × 3, 40 = 2³ × 5, 64 = 2⁶, 72 = 2³ × 3²

⇒ LCM = 2⁶ × 3² × 5

⇒ LCM = 64 × 9 × 5

⇒ LCM = 2880

⇒ Required number = LCM + 1

⇒ Required number = 2880 + 1

⇒ Required number = 2881

∴ The correct answer is 2881.

Given:

Rate of interest (R) = 6% p.a.

Increase in value = 36%

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Increase in value = SI / Principal × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Increase in value = 36%

⇒ 36 = (Principal × 6 × Time) ÷ 100 ÷ Principal × 100

⇒ 36 = 6 × Time

⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 6

⇒ Time = 6 years

∴ The correct answer is 6 years.

Given:

Stock sold at 25% gain = (3/4) of total stock

Remaining stock sold at 19% gain = (1/4) of total stock

Formula Used:

Total percentage gain = (Percentage gain for first part × fraction of stock) + (Percentage gain for second part × fraction of stock)

Calculation:

⇒ Total percentage gain = (25 × 3/4) + (19 × 1/4)

⇒ Total percentage gain = (75/4) + (19/4)

⇒ Total percentage gain = 94/4

⇒ Total percentage gain = 23.5%

∴ The correct answer is 23.5%.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹24,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 16% p.a.

Time (T) = 9 months = 9/12 years = 3/4 years

Compounding Frequency = Quarterly

Number of compounding periods per year (n) = 4

Formula Used:

A = P × (1 + R/(n × 100))^n×T

Calculation:

Quarterly Rate of Interest = R/n = 16/4 = 4%

Time in quarters = n × T = 4 × 3/4 = 3

⇒ A = 24,000 × (1 + 4/100)³

⇒ A = 24,000 × (1 + 0.04)³

⇒ A = 24,000 × (1.04)³

⇒ A = 24,000 × 1.124864

⇒ A = ₹26,996.74

∴ The correct answer is ₹26,996.74.

Given:

Total amount = ₹21,500

Ratio of A to B = 20:23

Donation by A = ₹1,000

Donation by B = ₹1,000

Formula Used:

Share of A = (Ratio of A ÷ Total ratio) × Total amount

Share of B = (Ratio of B ÷ Total ratio) × Total amount

New ratio = (Share of A after donation):(Share of B after donation)

Calculation:

Total ratio = 20 + 23

⇒ Total ratio = 43

Share of A = (20 ÷ 43) × 21,500

⇒ Share of A = ₹10,000

Share of B = (23 ÷ 43) × 21,500

⇒ Share of B = ₹11,500

Share of A after donation = ₹10,000 - ₹1,000

⇒ Share of A after donation = ₹9,000

Share of B after donation = ₹11,500 - ₹1,000

⇒ Share of B after donation = ₹10,500

New ratio = 9,000:10,500

⇒ New ratio = 6:7

∴ The correct answer is 6:7.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹800

Discount = 25%

Gain = ₹50

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP − (Discount% of MP)

Cost Price (CP) = SP − Gain

Gain% = (Gain ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 800 − (25% of 800)

⇒ SP = 800 − 200 = ₹600

⇒ CP = 600 − 50 = ₹550

⇒ Gain% = (50 ÷ 550) × 100

⇒ Gain% = 9.09%

∴ Gain% ≈ 9% (nearest integer)

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = 1,296

Loss = 19%

Required Gain = 19%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = SP ÷ (1 - Loss%)

Required Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + Gain%)

Calculation:

⇒ CP = 1,296 ÷ (1 - 19/100)

⇒ CP = 1,296 ÷ 0.81

⇒ CP = 1,600

⇒ Required SP = 1,600 × (1 + 19/100)

⇒ Required SP = 1,600 × 1.19

⇒ Required SP = 1,904

∴ The correct answer is 1,904.

Given:

144 ÷ 0.144 = 14.4 ÷ x

Formula Used:

Cross-multiplication: a ÷ b = c ÷ d ⇒ a × d = b × c

Calculation:

⇒ 144 × x = 0.144 × 14.4

⇒ x = (0.144 × 14.4) ÷ 144

⇒ x = 2.0736 ÷ 144

⇒ x = 0.0144

∴ The correct answer is 0.0144.

Given:

Speed of boat in still water = 16 km/h

Distance downstream = 35 km

Time taken = 1 hour 45 minutes = 1.75 hours

Formula Used:

Speed downstream = Distance ÷ Time

Speed downstream = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of stream

Calculation:

⇒ Speed downstream = 35 ÷ 1.75

⇒ Speed downstream = 20 km/h

⇒ Speed of stream = Speed downstream − Speed of boat in still water

⇒ Speed of stream = 20 − 16

⇒ Speed of stream = 4 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 4 km/h.

Given:

Dimensions of the metallic cuboid: 100 cm × 40 cm × 16 cm

Metallic cuboid melted and recast into a cube

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = length × breadth × height

Volume of cube = side³

Surface area of cube = 6 × (side²)

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of cuboid = 100 × 40 × 16

⇒ Volume of cuboid = 64000 cm³

⇒ Volume of cube = Volume of cuboid

⇒ side³ = 64000

⇒ side = ∛64000

⇒ side = 40 cm

⇒ Surface area of cube = 6 × (40²)

⇒ Surface area of cube = 6 × 1600

⇒ Surface area of cube = 9600 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 9600.

Given:

Difference between 83% and 74% of the same number = 72

To find 58% of the number

Formula Used:

Percentage difference = (Percentage1 − Percentage2) × Number

Required value = Percentage × Number

Calculation:

⇒ (83% − 74%) × Number = 72

⇒ 9% × Number = 72

⇒ Number = 72 ÷ 9%

⇒ Number = 72 ÷ 0.09

⇒ Number = 800

⇒ 58% of the number = 58% × 800

⇒ 58 ÷ 100 × 800 = 464

∴ The correct answer is 464.

Given:

Let breadth = x m

Length = 3x − 4 m

Perimeter = 28 m

Formula used:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(L + B)

Area = L × B

Calculations:

⇒ 2(3x − 4 + x) = 28

⇒ 2(4x − 4) = 28

⇒ 8x − 8 = 28

⇒ 8x = 36

⇒ x = 4.5 m

⇒ Length = 3(4.5) − 4 = 13.5 − 4 = 9.5 m

⇒ Area = 9.5 × 4.5 = 42.75 m²

∴ Area of the rectangle = 42.75 m²

Given:

x = (633)²⁴ + (266)⁴⁰

Formula used:

To find units digit, consider only the units digit of each base number.

Calculations:

⇒ Units digit of 633 = 3

⇒ Units digit of 266 = 6

Now, find units digit of 3²⁴ and 6⁴⁰

For 3ⁿ, units digits repeat every 4 terms: 3, 9, 7, 1

24 ÷ 4 = 6 (remainder 0) ⇒ last digit = 1

For 6ⁿ, units digit is always 6

⇒ Units digit of x = 1 + 6 = 7

∴ Units digit of x = 7.

Given:

1 man can complete the work in 12 days

1 woman can complete the work in 8 days

Formula used:

Work = LCM of time taken

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Time taken together = Total work ÷ (Total efficiency)

Calculations:

⇒ LCM of 12 and 8 = 24 units (Total work)

⇒ Man’s 1-day work = 24 ÷ 12 = 2 units

⇒ Woman’s 1-day work = 24 ÷ 8 = 3 units

⇒ Efficiency of 2 men + 3 women = (2×2) + (3×3) = 4 + 9 = 13 units/day

⇒ Time taken = 24 ÷ 13 = 24/13 = $1\frac{11}{13}$ days

∴ 2 men and 3 women can complete the work in $1\frac{11}{13}$ days.

Given:

Three numbers = a, b, c

According to the question:

(a + b)/2 + c = 177 …(1)

(b + c)/2 + a = 163 …(2)

(c + a)/2 + b = 138 …(3)

Formula used:

Average of any two numbers added to the third gives the given sums. We solve the three equations to find a, b, and c.

Calculations:

Multiply all equations by 2 to remove the fractions:

(1) ⇒ a + b + 2c = 354 …(i)

(2) ⇒ 2a + b + c = 326 …(ii)

(3) ⇒ a + 2b + c = 276 …(iii)

Subtract (ii) from (i):

(a + b + 2c) − (2a + b + c) = 354 − 326

⇒ −a + c = 28 ⇒ c = a + 28 …(iv)

Subtract (ii) from (iii):

(a + 2b + c) − (2a + b + c) = 276 − 326

⇒ −a + b = −50 ⇒ b = a − 50 …(v)

Substitute (iv) and (v) into (ii):

2a + (a − 50) + (a + 28) = 326

⇒ 4a − 22 = 326

⇒ 4a = 348

⇒ a = 87

⇒ b = a − 50 = 87 − 50 = 37

⇒ c = a + 28 = 87 + 28 = 115

∴ The largest number = 115.

The correct answer is Un capitalize each word.

Key Points

• Changing Casing in MS Word: Microsoft Word provides several features to change the case of text. These include options like Sentence case, lowercase, UPPERCASE, Capitalize Each Word, and tOGGLE cASE. These features are designed to assist users in formatting text efficiently.
• Sentence case: This feature capitalizes the first letter of the first word in a sentence and converts the remaining text to lowercase. For example, "hello world!" becomes "Hello world!". This is a valid feature in MS Word.
• Capitalize Each Word: This feature capitalizes the first letter of each word in the selected text while keeping the rest of the letters lowercase. For example, "hello world!" becomes "Hello World!". This is also a valid feature in MS Word.
• tOGGLE cASE: This feature reverses the current casing of the selected text. For example, "HeLLo WoRLD!" becomes "hEllO wOrld!". This is a valid feature in MS Word.
• Un capitalize each word: Unlike the other three options, "Un capitalize each word" is not an actual feature in MS Word. MS Word does not offer an option explicitly named "Un capitalize each word". Instead, users can achieve similar results by manually converting text to lowercase using the "lowercase" option. Hence, this is the correct answer.
• Hence, the correct answer is Un capitalize each word.

Additional Information

• Changing Case in MS Word:
• Location: The case-changing options in MS Word can be found under the "Home" tab in the "Font" group. The "Change Case" button (represented by an "Aa" icon) provides access to these options.
• Use Cases: These features are particularly useful for formatting titles, headings, or sentences without manually retyping text in the desired case.
• Available Case Options:
• Sentence case: Converts the first letter of the first word in a sentence to uppercase and the rest to lowercase.
• lowercase: Converts all the letters in the selected text to lowercase.
• UPPERCASE: Converts all the letters in the selected text to uppercase.
• Capitalize Each Word: Converts the first letter of each word in the selected text to uppercase while keeping the rest lowercase.
• tOGGLE cASE: Reverses the current case of each letter in the selected text.
• Notable Limitations:
• "Un capitalize each word" is not explicitly available in MS Word. Users can achieve similar results by selecting the "lowercase" option.
• These features are dependent on the selected text. If no text is selected, the case-changing options will not apply.

Important Points

• Shortcut for Changing Case: Users can quickly change the case of selected text using the shortcut Shift + F3. This toggles between "Sentence case", "UPPERCASE", and "lowercase".
• Practical Applications: These features are widely used in creating professional documents, formatting academic papers, and standardizing text in presentations.
• Examples in Real Use:
• While preparing a report, headings can be converted to "Capitalize Each Word" for better readability.
• For legal or technical documents, text may need to be converted to "UPPERCASE" for emphasis.

The correct answer is Orientation.

Key Points

• Orientation: The Orientation option in MS Word 2007 under Print Preview allows users to switch the page layout between Portrait (vertical layout) and Landscape (horizontal layout).
• Portrait Layout: This option sets the page layout vertically, which is commonly used for documents like letters, reports, and essays. Hence, this is a correct feature of Orientation.
• Landscape Layout: This option changes the page layout to horizontal, which is often used for presentations, spreadsheets, or wide tables. Hence, this is a correct feature of Orientation.
• Access: The Orientation option can be accessed directly through the Print Preview menu or through the Page Layout tab in MS Word 2007. Hence, the statement regarding accessibility is correct.
• Switching between Portrait and Landscape layouts is useful for creating documents that require different formatting styles. Hence, this functionality aligns with the Orientation feature.
• Hence, the correct answer is Orientation.

Additional Information

• Understanding Page Layout Options:
• Page Orientation: It refers to the way content is positioned on a page. Portrait is taller than it is wide, while Landscape is wider than it is tall.
• Usage of Orientation: Portrait orientation is suited for textual documents, whereas Landscape orientation is preferred for graphical content and tables.
• Other Features in Print Preview:
• Margin: Adjusts the white space around the content on the page.
• Size: Allows users to select the page size such as A4, Legal, or Letter.
• Magnifier: Provides a zoom-in and zoom-out functionality to view the content more closely.
• Applications in MS Word:
• The Orientation option is widely used in creating documents like certificates, flyers, and posters that require horizontal layouts.
• It is also essential for formatting official documents, ensuring that the content fits appropriately based on user requirements.

Important Points

• Quick Access:
• The Orientation feature can be quickly accessed via the Page Layout tab, under the Page Setup group, or directly through Print Preview.
• It is a commonly used feature in MS Word to adjust the formatting of documents effectively.
• Significance of Orientation:
• Switching between Portrait and Landscape is essential for optimizing the layout of content in various types of documents.
• The orientation affects how the document is printed, displayed, and shared, making it a critical aspect of document creation.

The correct answer is NEFT.

Key Points

• NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer, a system introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to facilitate the electronic transfer of funds across bank accounts in India.
• It allows individuals, firms, and corporate entities to transfer funds electronically from one bank branch to another within the country, provided both branches are part of the NEFT network.
• NEFT operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis, where transactions are settled in batches at specific intervals during the day, ensuring smooth fund transfer. Hence, this system is highly efficient and reliable.
• The system supports both credit and debit transactions, allowing users to send money to individuals or organizations and also facilitate payments such as salaries or vendor payments.
• NEFT is regulated and supervised by the Reserve Bank of India, ensuring compliance with national standards and security protocols. Hence, NEFT is one of the most widely used e-banking systems in India.
• Users need to provide the recipient's account number, IFSC code, and bank branch details to execute a NEFT transaction, ensuring accuracy in fund transfer.
• NEFT transactions are secure as they are carried out using encrypted data, minimizing the risk of fraudulent activities. Hence, NEFT ensures safety and transparency in fund transfers.
• The NEFT system is available for customers during the bank's operating hours and can be accessed through various channels such as online banking, mobile banking, or physical bank branches. Thus, NEFT provides convenience and accessibility to users.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of NEFT:
• NEFT transactions are processed in hourly batches, ensuring smooth fund transfers throughout the day.
• The system supports both retail and corporate transactions, making it versatile for various financial activities.
• Functions of NEFT:
• NEFT can be used for diverse purposes such as transferring salaries, paying bills, sending remittances, or transferring funds between accounts.
• It is an effective alternative to traditional payment methods like cheques or demand drafts, offering faster and more secure transactions.
• Example: A corporate entity can use NEFT to pay its vendors or suppliers, ensuring timely settlement of dues.
• Advantages of NEFT:
• NEFT is a cost-effective method of transferring funds, with minimal transaction fees.
• The system ensures transparency and accountability, as both sender and receiver can track the status of transactions.
• NEFT transactions are secure and reliable, minimizing the risks associated with cash transactions.

Important Points

• Key Features of NEFT:
• NEFT transactions do not have a maximum limit for fund transfers, making it suitable for large-scale transactions.
• The system is accessible through online platforms, mobile apps, and physical branches, providing convenience to users.
• Role of RBI in NEFT:
• The Reserve Bank of India manages and regulates the NEFT system, ensuring compliance with national standards and guidelines.
• RBI periodically updates the system to enhance its efficiency and security, ensuring smooth operations.
• Example: The introduction of 24x7 NEFT services in December 2019 by RBI further enhanced the accessibility of this system.