Delhi Police Constable (Executive) (Held On: 31 Dec, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• The Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross (Grande Colar da Ordem Nacional do Cruzeiro do Sul) is the highest civilian decoration awarded by Brazil to foreign dignitaries, specifically reserved for Heads of State.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with this honor in July 2025, signifying the deep-rooted strategic partnership and mutual respect between India and Brazil.
• The award recognizes his exceptional leadership in promoting South-South cooperation and his efforts in strengthening bilateral ties across sectors like renewable energy, pharmaceuticals, and defense.
• The conferment typically takes place during high-level diplomatic visits, such as the BRICS Summit or bilateral state visits, highlighting India's growing influence in the Global South and international forums like the G20.
• This honor adds to the long list of highest civilian awards received by the Prime Minister from various nations, reinforcing India's diplomatic reach across different continents.

 Additional Information

• National Order of the Southern Cross:
• Origin: Established by Emperor Pedro I in 1822 as the Imperial Order of the Southern Cross to mark Brazilian independence.
• Re-establishment: It was re-instituted as a republican order in 1932 to recognize distinguished foreigners.
• Symbolism: The order features the Crux constellation, a significant national symbol appearing on the Brazilian flag.
• Droupadi Murmu:
• The 15th President of India and the first person from a tribal community to hold the post.
• She was awarded the Grand Order of the Chain of the Star of Suriname, the highest civilian honor of Suriname, in June 2023.
• S. Jaishankar:
• The current Minister of External Affairs of India and a former career diplomat who served as the Foreign Secretary.
• He is instrumental in articulating India's strategic autonomy and managing complex relations with major global powers.

The correct answer is Namibia.

Key Points

• The Order of the Most Ancient Welwitschia Mirabilis is the highest civilian honor of the Republic of Namibia, reserved for heads of state and eminent individuals who have made significant contributions to the nation or humanity.
• In July 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with this prestigious award during his state visit to the African nation to enhance bilateral cooperation and strategic ties.
• The award is named after the Welwitschia mirabilis, a unique desert plant endemic to the Namib Desert. This plant is known as a living fossil because it can survive for over 1,000 years in extreme arid conditions, symbolizing resilience and endurance.
• The conferment highlights the growing importance of the India-Namibia partnership, particularly in sectors like renewable energy, defense, and capacity building.
• Prime Minister Modi has received numerous highest civilian honors from various countries, reflecting India's expanding diplomatic footprint and leadership in the Global South.

 Additional Information

• Honors from other countries mentioned in the options:
• Fiji: In May 2023, PM Modi was awarded the Companion of the Order of Fiji (CF), the highest honor of the country, in recognition of his global leadership.
• Brazil: Brazil's highest honor for foreigners is the National Order of the Southern Cross, which is typically awarded to foreign dignitaries for promoting diplomatic relations.
• Ghana: The Order of the Star of Ghana is the supreme national award given for outstanding service to the country, often presented during Independence Day celebrations.

The correct answer is Holi.

Key Points

• Holi is a major Hindu festival celebrated with great enthusiasm in Rajasthan, signifying the end of winter and the arrival of the Spring (Vasant) season.
• The festival is observed on the Purnima (full moon) of the Hindu lunar month of Phalguna, which usually falls in the month of March.
• Popularly known as the Festival of Colors, it involves the tradition of smearing Gulal (colored powder) and splashing water on others to celebrate joy and communal harmony.
• The celebration begins with Holika Dahan, a bonfire ritual that represents the victory of the devotee Prahlad over the demoness Holika, symbolizing the triumph of good over evil.
• In Rajasthan, unique cultural variations exist, such as the Pathar-mar Holi in Barmer, Kodamar Holi in Vinay, and the performance of the traditional Gair dance in the Mewar and Marwar regions.
• Therefore, Holi is the festival that marks the arrival of spring and involves throwing colored powders in Rajasthan.

 Additional Information

• Gangaur:
• Celebrated in the month of Chaitra, it is one of the most vital festivals in Rajasthan dedicated to Goddess Gauri and Lord Shiva.
• It involves elaborate processions and rituals performed by women for marital bliss and well-being.
• Teej:
• Refers to monsoon festivals like Hariyali Teej and Kajari Teej celebrated during Sawan and Bhadrapada.
• It marks the union of Lord Shiva and Parvati and is famous for traditional swings and sweets like Ghevar.
• Makar Sankranti:
• Observed on January 14th, it marks the sun’s entry into the Makara (Capricorn) zodiac sign.
• In Rajasthan, it is widely celebrated with kite-flying and donating sesame-based sweets.

The correct answer is Shad Suk Mynsiem.

Key Points

• Shad Suk Mynsiem, also known as the Dance of Peaceful Hearts, is a major thanksgiving festival of the Khasi tribe in Meghalaya.
• The festival is celebrated annually in the month of April (Spring season) to mark the onset of the new agricultural cycle while offering gratitude for the previous harvest.
• It involves elaborate rituals where prayers are offered to Mother Earth (Ka Mei Ramew) and the Sun as the creators and sustainers of life on earth.
• The celebration emphasizes the sanctity of agricultural tools and the environment, which are essential for ensuring a bountiful harvest and the economic stability of the community.
• The dance is performed at the Weiking Grounds in Shillong, where unmarried men and women participate in traditional attire, representing the fertility of the land and the continuity of the clan.
• Therefore, Shad Suk Mynsiem is the festival that specifically involves the worship of nature and tools to ensure agricultural prosperity.

 Additional Information

• Wangala:
• Commonly referred to as the 100 Drums Festival, it is the most popular festival of the Garo tribe.
• It is held in honor of Saljong, the Sun-god of fertility, marking the end of the agricultural year and the beginning of winter.
• Behdienkhlam:
• This is the most important festival of the Pnar (Jaintia) people, celebrated in July.
• The primary objective is to drive away the demon of cholera or plague and seek blessings for a good harvest through the immersion of Rot (tall structures) in water.
• Nongkrem:
• A five-day religious festival of the Khasis held at Smit, the headquarters of the Hima Mylliem.
• It involves the Pomblang (sacrifice of goats) to the goddess Ka Blei Synshar for a rich harvest and general well-being.

The correct answer is Chand Bardai.

Key Points

• Chand Bardai was the Rajkavi (court poet) and a close friend of the Chahamana ruler Prithviraj Chauhan (Prithviraj III), who reigned over Delhi and Ajmer during the late 12th century.
• He is the author of Prithviraj Raso, a massive epic poem composed in an early form of Hindi known as Brajbhasha, which serves as a primary source for the legends surrounding the Chauhan dynasty.
• The text describes the heroic exploits of the king, including his military campaigns against Muhammad Ghori during the First and Second Battles of Tarain in 1191 and 1192 respectively.
• It also chronicles the romantic narrative of Prithviraj and Sanyogita (the daughter of King Jaichand of Kannauj), providing deep insights into the Rajput code of chivalry and honor.
• While the poem contains historical kernels, it is also noted for its poetic embellishments and the inclusion of the Agnikula myth regarding the origin of Rajputs.

 Additional Information

• Kalhana:
• He was a Kashmiri author who wrote Rajatarangini (The River of Kings) in Sanskrit around 1148–1149.
• His work is celebrated as the first systematic and chronological historical account of the kings of Kashmir.
• Banabhatta:
• He served as the Asthana Kavi in the court of King Harshavardhana during the 7th century.
• He authored Harshacharita, a biography of Harsha, and Kadambari, which is considered one of the earliest novels in Sanskrit literature.
• Amir Khusrau:
• An iconic Sufi musician and poet known as the Tuti-e-Hind (Parrot of India), who lived during the Delhi Sultanate.
• He is credited with influential works such as Khazain-ul-Futuh and Tughlaq Nama, and is regarded as the Father of Qawwali and Urdu literature.

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Ibn Battuta, a famous Moroccan traveler and scholar from Tangier, arrived in India through the mountains of Afghanistan in 1333 AD.
• He reached the court of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq in Delhi, who was well-known for his patronage of arts, philosophy, and learned scholars from the Islamic world.
• The Sultan was deeply impressed by Ibn Battuta's knowledge and appointed him as the Qazi (Judge) of Delhi, a position he held for approximately eight years.
• During his stay, he recorded his observations in a famous travelogue titled Rihla (The Journey), written in Arabic, which provides an invaluable account of the socio-economic and political life of 14th-century India.
• In 1341 AD, Muhammad bin Tughlaq appointed him as his ambassador to the Mongol Ruler of China (Yuan Dynasty), highlighting the international diplomatic relations of the Tughlaq Dynasty.

 Additional Information

• Ghiyassuddin Tughlaq:
• He was the founder of the Tughlaq Dynasty in 1320 AD and established the city of Tughlaqabad.
• His reign was relatively short, ending in 1325 AD, after which his son Jauna Khan (Muhammad bin Tughlaq) ascended the throne.
• Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
• He succeeded Muhammad bin Tughlaq in 1351 AD and is primarily remembered for his administrative reforms and public works.
• He established various departments like Diwan-i-Khairat (charity) and built several cities, including Firozabad, Hissar, and Jaunpur.
• Mahmud Tughlaq:
• Also known as Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, he was the last Sultan of the Tughlaq Dynasty.
• His reign is most notably associated with the invasion of Timur in 1398 AD, which led to the ultimate decline of the dynasty.

The correct answer is Tulsidas.

Key Points

• Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623) was a prominent saint-poet and philosopher of the Bhakti movement, specifically the Ram-bhakti tradition.
• He began the composition of the Ramcharitmanas in 1574 CE (Vikrami Samvat 1631) in Ayodhya and completed it in Varanasi.
• The work is an epic retelling of the Ramayana written in Awadhi, a vernacular dialect of Hindi, which made the story of Lord Rama accessible to the common people who did not understand Sanskrit.
• Tulsidas was a contemporary of the Mughal Emperor Akbar (reigned 1556–1605). Although he was not a court poet, he was a close friend of Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khana, one of Akbar's Navaratnas.
• The Ramcharitmanas is divided into seven chapters known as Kands, including the Bal Kand, Ayodhya Kand, and Sundar Kand.

 Additional Information

• Kabir
• A 15th-century mystic poet and saint whose writings influenced the Bhakti movement and Sikhism.
• He was known for his Dohas and the compilation titled Bijak.
• Surdas
• A 16th-century blind devotional poet and contemporary of Akbar, famous for his work Sursagar.
• He was a devotee of Lord Krishna and wrote primarily in the Braj Bhasha dialect.
• Nanak
• Guru Nanak Dev (1469–1539) was the founder of Sikhism and the first of the ten Sikh Gurus.
• His teachings are registered in the form of 974 hymns in the Guru Granth Sahib.

The correct answer is Civil Disobedience Movement.

Key Points

• The Dandi March, also referred to as the Salt Satyagraha, was a direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly in colonial India.
• The march began on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad and concluded on April 6, 1930, at the coastal village of Dandi in the Navsari district of Gujarat.
• Mahatma Gandhi led a group of 78 designated satyagrahis on a 24-day journey covering a distance of approximately 240 miles (roughly 385 kilometers).
• By symbolically picking up a handful of salt from the shores of Dandi, Gandhi broke the Salt Act of 1882, which prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt and mandated a high government tax on a basic necessity.
• This symbolic act served as the official launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement, a nationwide struggle that saw millions of Indians boycotting foreign goods, refusing to pay taxes, and resigning from government services.

 Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched in 1920 following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, this movement aimed to grant Swaraj or self-rule. It was called off by Gandhi in February 1922 after the violent Chauri Chaura incident.
• Quit India Movement:
• Also known as the August Kranti, it was launched on August 8, 1942, during World War II at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, where Gandhi gave the famous call of Do or Die.
• Swadeshi Movement:
• Started in 1905 as a reaction against the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon. It emphasized the use of indigenous products and the boycott of British-made cloth and sugar.

The correct answer is Lord Dalhousie.

Key Points

• Lord Dalhousie, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, is famously regarded as the Father of Indian Railways due to his visionary railway minutes of 1853.
• The first commercial passenger train in India was flagged off on April 16, 1853, marking a significant milestone in the country's transport history.
• The journey took place between Bori Bunder (now known as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus) in Bombay and Thane.
• The train covered a total distance of approximately 34 kilometers (21 miles) and carried 400 passengers in 14 carriages.
• The operation was powered by three steam locomotives named Sahib, Sindh, and Sultan, which were operated by the Great Indian Peninsula Railway (GIPR).
• The primary motive behind introducing the railway was to facilitate the efficient transport of raw materials to ports and to ensure the swift movement of British military forces across the vast Indian territory.

 Additional Information

• Lord Canning (1856–1862):
• He served as the last Governor-General and the first Viceroy of India after the Government of India Act 1858.
• His tenure witnessed the Revolt of 1857 and the official withdrawal of the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Lord Curzon (1899–1905):
• He is primarily remembered for the controversial Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• He established the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and passed the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act 1904.
• Lord William Bentinck (1828–1835):
• Recognized as a liberal reformer, he was instrumental in the Abolition of Sati in 1829.
• He passed the English Education Act 1835, which introduced English as the medium of instruction in higher education.
• Other Dalhousie Reforms:
• He introduced the first Electric Telegraph line connecting Calcutta to Agra in 1854.
• He established the Public Works Department (PWD) and enacted the Post Office Act 1854, introducing modern postage stamps.

The correct answer is Lord Ripon.

Key Points

• The first synchronous census in India was conducted in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884.
• This census was the first to be conducted simultaneously across the entire country (excluding some remote and inaccessible areas), ensuring a uniform snapshot of the population for the first time.
• It established the practice of the decennial census, meaning the population survey would be held once every 10 years without interruption.
• W.C. Plowden was the Census Commissioner for the 1881 census, and the exercise highlighted significant demographic data including religion, occupation, and literacy levels.
• The census covered a total population of approximately 254 million people across the provinces and princely states of British India.

 Additional Information

• Lord Mayo (1869−1872):
• He initiated the first population census in India in 1872, but it was non-synchronous and did not cover all parts of the country simultaneously.
• He is also known for the Resolution of 1870, which started the process of financial decentralization.
• Lord Lytton (1876−1880):
• Known for his reactionary policies, including the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 and the Indian Arms Act of 1878.
• He organized the Delhi Durbar of 1877 where Queen Victoria was proclaimed as Kaiser-i-Hind.
• Lord Dufferin (1884−1888):
• His tenure saw the formation of the Indian National Congress in December 1885.
• He was also the Viceroy during the Third Anglo-Burmese War (1885), which resulted in the complete annexation of Burma.

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

• Jharkhand was officially established as the 28th state of the Indian Union on November 15, 2000.
• The state was created by carving out the southern districts of Bihar, encompassing the Chota Nagpur plateau and Santal Pargana divisions.
• The legal framework for this creation was the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000, which was passed by the Indian Parliament during the tenure of the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government.
• The date November 15 was specifically chosen to coincide with the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader and folk hero who led the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan) against the British colonial authorities in the late 19th century.
• The formation of the state was the culmination of a long-standing movement led by the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) and other regional groups seeking autonomy for the tribal populations of the region.

 Additional Information

• Statehood Timeline in 2000:
• Chhattisgarh: Formed as the 26th state on November 1, 2000, separated from Madhya Pradesh.
• Uttarakhand: Established as the 27th state (then named Uttaranchal) on November 9, 2000, separated from Uttar Pradesh.
• Year 2014:
• The state of Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh on June 2, 2014, becoming the 29th state (though currently there are 28 states after the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir).
• Jharkhand Geography and Economy:
• The state capital is Ranchi, while Dumka serves as its sub-capital.
• Known as the Land of Forests, it is rich in mineral resources, accounting for nearly 40 percent of India's mineral wealth including Coal, Iron Ore, and Copper.

The correct answer is Art-359.

Key Points

• Article 359 of the Indian Constitution authorizes the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency declared under Article 352.
• Unlike Article 358, which automatically suspends the rights under Article 19, Article 359 does not suspend the rights themselves but only their legal remedy or enforcement through courts for a period specified by the Presidential Order.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a crucial safeguard, stating that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty).
• A Presidential Order issued under this article must be laid before each House of Parliament as soon as possible for approval.

 Additional Information

• Article 301:
• Part of Part XIII of the Constitution, it mandates that trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
• It prevents state governments from creating discriminatory barriers that hinder the free flow of goods and services across state borders.
• Article 108:
• Provides the mechanism for a Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to resolve a deadlock over the passage of a bill.
• The President summons the joint sitting, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Article 312:
• Relates to the creation of All-India Services, such as the IAS, IPS, and IFS.
• The Rajya Sabha holds the power to pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting to authorize Parliament to create such services in the national interest.

The correct answer is President Droupadi Murmu.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the President of Angola conducted an official State Visit to India, marking a significant milestone in the diplomatic relations between the two nations.
• According to international diplomatic protocol, when a Head of State visits India, the President of India serves as the primary host for ceremonial events.
• President Droupadi Murmu hosted a grand banquet at Rashtrapati Bhavan to welcome the Angolan leader and his delegation.
• The banquet served as a platform to celebrate the shared history and growing strategic partnership between India and Angola.
• During the event, both leaders emphasized the importance of South-South Cooperation and reviewed progress in sectors such as energy, diamond trading, and pharmaceuticals.
• State banquets of this nature are integral to official visits, facilitating cultural exchange and strengthening personal rapport between national leaders.
• Therefore, the correct option is President Droupadi Murmu.

 Additional Information

• Protocol for State Visits:
• A State Visit is the highest category of foreign visit, involving a formal welcome ceremony at the forecourt of Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• While the Prime Minister leads the bilateral talks and signs Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs), the President performs the Head of State duties.
• India-Angola Bilateral Ties:
• Angola is the third-largest trading partner of India in the Sub-Saharan African region, largely due to crude oil exports.
• The Government of India has extended multiple Lines of Credit (LOC) to Angola for projects in agriculture, railways, and power transmission.
• Both nations are members of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and the United Nations, often collaborating on global governance reform.

The correct answer is Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar.

Key Points

• Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar visited Jaipur on 15th May 2025 to mark the 15th death anniversary of the former Vice-President, Bhairon Singh Shekhawat.
• During this visit, he inaugurated the Bhairon Singh Shekhawat Memorial Library, which is dedicated to preserving the literary collections, personal archives, and historical documents of the late leader.
• The event was organized to honor the legacy of Shekhawat, who was a pivotal figure in the political landscape of Rajasthan and served as the 11th Vice-President of India.
• The inauguration highlights the institutional respect shown by the current Vice-President towards his predecessor, emphasizing the continuity of democratic traditions and the preservation of political history.
• The library is expected to serve as a significant research center for scholars interested in the administrative and political evolution of Rajasthan and India during Shekhawat's era.

 Additional Information

• Bhairon Singh Shekhawat:
• Commonly referred to as 'Babosa', he served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan three times (1977–1980, 1990–1992, and 1993–1998).
• He held the office of the Vice-President of India from 2002 to 2007 under the Presidency of A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
• Jagdeep Dhankhar:
• He is the 14th Vice-President of India, assuming office in August 2022.
• Prior to his current role, he served as the Governor of West Bengal and is originally from the Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan.
• President Droupadi Murmu:
• She is the 15th President of India and the first person belonging to a tribal community to hold the office.
• Governor of Rajasthan:
• The Governor serves as the constitutional head of the state, appointed by the President under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Vaibhav Suryavanshi.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted with the young cricketing sensation Vaibhav Suryavanshi at the Patna Airport in May 2025. The Prime Minister took the opportunity to appreciate the child prodigy's achievements and encouraged him to continue his hard work in the field of sports.
• Vaibhav Suryavanshi, a resident of Samastipur district in Bihar, is a left-handed opening batsman who has gained nationwide fame for his extraordinary talent at a very young age.
• He made headlines across the sporting world by becoming one of the youngest players ever to debut in the Ranji Trophy, India's premier domestic first-class cricket tournament.
• The young cricketer earned his first-class debut for the Bihar state team against Mumbai in January 2024. At the time of his debut, he was only 12 years and 284 days old, making him the fourth-youngest Indian to play first-class cricket.
• Before his Ranji Trophy debut, Vaibhav had already demonstrated his prowess in the Vinoo Mankad Trophy and represented the India B Under-19 team in a Quadrangular series held in late 2023.
• The meeting underscores the Government of India's commitment to recognizing and nurturing grassroots talent through flagship programs like Khelo India, aiming to transform India into a global sporting powerhouse.

 Additional Information

• Sachin Dhas:
• He is a prominent middle-order batsman from Maharashtra who rose to fame during the 2024 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup.
• Known for his ability to hit big sixes, he played several match-winning innings for the India Under-19 team, particularly in the knockout stages of the tournament.
• Musheer Khan:
• He is a versatile all-rounder representing Mumbai and the younger brother of Indian international player Sarfaraz Khan.
• He was a leading run-scorer in the 2024 Under-19 World Cup and has made significant contributions to Mumbai's Ranji Trophy success, including scoring a double century in the 2023-24 season.

The correct answer is Homai Vyarawalla.

Key Points

• Homai Vyarawalla, popularly known by her pseudonym Dalda 13, is celebrated as India first female photojournalist.
• She began her professional career in the late 1930s, a period when the field was almost entirely dominated by men, thereby breaking significant gender barriers in Indian journalism.
• Her career spanned over three decades, during which she documented the transition of India from a British colony to an independent nation, including the first Independence Day flag hoisting at the Red Fort on August 15, 1947.
• She captured iconic photographs of prominent political figures such as Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Muhammad Ali Jinnah, and Indira Gandhi, as well as visiting world leaders like Queen Elizabeth II and Jackie Kennedy.
• The pseudonym Dalda 13 was derived from her birth year 1913, her marriage at the age of 13, and the registration number of her first car, DLD 13.
• In recognition of her exceptional contribution to the arts and photography, the Government of India honored her with the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award, in 2011.

 Additional Information

• Kiran Bedi
• She made history in 1972 by becoming the first woman officer to join the Indian Police Service (IPS).
• She is well-known for her social activism and served as the Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry.
• Leela Samson
• A distinguished Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer, and author.
• She has served as the chairperson of the Sangeet Natak Akademi and the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).
• Nilima Sheikh
• A renowned contemporary visual artist based in Baroda.
• Her work is noted for its focus on female identity, displacement, and the use of traditional formats like scrolls and Pichhwai paintings.

The correct answer is '2015'

Key Points

• Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS):
• The Gold Monetisation Scheme was launched by the Government of India on November 5, 2015.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to mobilize the idle gold held by households and institutions in the country and put it into productive use.
• By encouraging people to deposit their physical gold with banks, the government aims to reduce the country's reliance on gold imports, thereby narrowing the Current Account Deficit (CAD).
• The scheme allows depositors to earn interest on their idle gold holdings, which otherwise remain unproductive in lockers or homes.

Additional Information

• 2013:
• In 2013, India faced a significant economic challenge with a high Current Account Deficit, largely driven by gold imports.
• While various restrictive measures like the 80:20 rule (requiring 20% of imported gold to be exported) were introduced during this period, the comprehensive Gold Monetisation Scheme was not yet launched.
• 2017:
• By 2017, the Gold Monetisation Scheme was already operational. During this year, the government focused on integrating the scheme with other financial regulations like the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
• This period also saw the continued issuance of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), which were launched alongside GMS in 2015.
• 2019:
• In 2019, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) made several amendments to the GMS to make it more attractive to the public and charitable institutions.
• These updates included changes in the minimum deposit requirements and allowing more entities to participate, but the foundational launch year remains 2015.

Important Points

• The GMS replaced the existing Gold Deposit Scheme (1999) and the Gold Metal Loan Scheme (1998).
• Deposits can be made for three different terms: Short Term (1-3 years), Medium Term (5-7 years), and Long Term (12-15 years).
• The minimum deposit required under the scheme is 30 grams of raw gold (in the form of bars, coins, or jewelry).
• One of the major benefits of GMS is that the interest earned is exempt from Income Tax and Capital Gains Tax.
• The gold deposited is melted and refined, and the depositor receives the value of the gold plus interest at the time of maturity, either in cash or in gold (depending on the scheme terms).

The correct answer is ₹50,000.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched by the Government of India on April 8, 2015, to provide financial assistance to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro-enterprises.
• The scheme is structured into three distinct categories based on the stage of growth and funding requirements of the beneficiary: Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun.
• The Shishu category is specifically designed for entrepreneurs who are either in the startup phase or require a small amount of capital to establish their business units.
• Under the Shishu loan segment, beneficiaries can avail of loans up to a maximum limit of ₹50,000.
• These loans are collateral-free, meaning the borrower does not need to provide any security to the bank, which encourages self-employment among the lower-income groups.
• The primary objective of this category is to provide 'funding to the unfunded' at the grassroots level, focusing on micro-units such as shopkeepers, artisans, and small service providers.

 Additional Information

• The other two categories under MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency) include:
• Kishor: This category caters to businesses that have already started operations and seek additional funds for expansion. It covers loan amounts above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh.
• Tarun: This is the highest tier of the scheme, designed for established businesses requiring significant capital for further growth or diversification. It covers loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh.
• MUDRA acts as a refinancing agency; it does not lend directly to individuals but provides liquidity to Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, NBFCs, and Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs).
• There is generally no processing fee for Shishu loans, and the repayment period can extend up to 5 years depending on the discretion of the lending bank.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is H.J. Bhabha.

Key Points

• Homi Jehangir Bhabha was a pioneering nuclear theoretical physicist widely recognized as the 'Father of the Indian Nuclear Programme'.
• In 1944, he wrote to the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust seeking financial support to build a state-of-the-art scientific research facility in India.
• With the support of J.R.D. Tata, the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) was established on June 1, 1945, and H.J. Bhabha was appointed as its first Director.
• The institute initially carried out its operations at the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, before shifting to its permanent campus in Colaba, Mumbai, which was formally inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in 1962.

 Additional Information

• Vikram Sarabhai:
• He is widely celebrated as the 'Father of the Indian Space Programme'.
• He established the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad in 1947 and spearheaded the creation of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 1969.
• M.G.K. Menon:
• He was a renowned physicist specializing in cosmic rays and particle physics.
• Following the sudden death of H.J. Bhabha in 1966, he took over as the second Director of TIFR.
• Satish Dhawan:
• He was a distinguished aerospace engineer regarded as the 'Father of Experimental Fluid Dynamics' in India.
• He served as the long-standing Chairman of ISRO, leading the country's early space exploration milestones including the development of the SLV-3.

The correct answer is 'Jaswant Thada'

Rajput architecture is a testament to the grandeur and cultural heritage of Rajasthan, encompassing a wide variety of structures including formidable forts, ornate palaces, and commemorative cenotaphs. While forts were primarily built for defense and palaces for royal residence, cenotaphs (known as 'Chhatris') were constructed as memorials to honor deceased rulers and members of the royal family. These structures often feature intricate carvings and reflect the architectural fusion of Rajput and Mughal styles.

Key Points

• Jaswant Thada:
• Jaswant Thada is a magnificent white marble cenotaph located in Jodhpur, Rajasthan, built in 1899 by Maharaja Sardar Singh in memory of his father, Maharaja Jaswant Singh II.
• Unlike the massive forts or residential palaces of the region, this monument serves specifically as a commemorative site and a crematorium for the royal family of Marwar.
• It is often referred to as the "Taj Mahal of Marwar" due to its use of polished white marble and its intricate architectural beauty.
• The monument features carved gazebos, a tiered garden, and a small lake, creating a serene atmosphere distinct from the military focus of nearby Mehrangarh.
• The marble used in its construction is extremely thin and polished, allowing the sun's rays to create a warm, ethereal glow on the structure during the day.

Additional Information

• Amer Fort:
• Located in Amer (near Jaipur), this is a massive fort-palace complex built by Raja Man Singh I.
• It served as the primary residence and administrative seat of the Kachwaha Rajputs before the capital shifted to Jaipur.
• It is famous for its artistic Hindu style elements, including the Sheesh Mahal (Mirror Palace) and Diwan-e-Aam.
• Mehrangarh:
• One of the largest and most formidable forts in India, Mehrangarh towers over the city of Jodhpur.
• Built by Rao Jodha in 1459, it was designed as a military stronghold with thick walls and several gates to withstand enemy attacks.
• Within its boundaries lie several highly decorated palaces like Moti Mahal and Phool Mahal, but its primary identity is that of a defensive fort.
• Hawa Mahal:
• Known as the "Palace of Winds," this iconic structure in Jaipur was built in 1799 by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh.
• It is a unique five-story palace extension designed with 953 small windows (Jharokhas) to allow royal women to observe everyday life and festivals in the street below without being seen.
• It is an architectural marvel of red and pink sandstone, but it is a palace structure rather than a memorial or cenotaph.

Important Points

• The Jaswant Thada grounds also house three other cenotaphs and serve as the traditional cremation ground for Jodhpur rulers.
• The monument contains rare portraits of the various Maharajas and rulers of Jodhpur, serving as a historical gallery of the Rathore dynasty.
• Its location provides a stunning panoramic view of the Mehrangarh Fort and the "Blue City" of Jodhpur.

The correct answer is 'Dubai, UAE'

Key Points

• COP 28 (Dubai, UAE):
• The 28th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP 28) to the UNFCCC was held from November 30 to December 13, 2023, in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
• The conference was hosted at Expo City Dubai and was presided over by Dr. Sultan Ahmed Al Jaber.
• A major milestone of COP 28 was the conclusion of the first-ever Global Stocktake (GST), which evaluated the collective progress made by nations toward the goals of the 2015 Paris Agreement.
• The conference resulted in the "UAE Consensus," a historic agreement that, for the first time in COP history, explicitly called on nations to transition away from fossil fuels in energy systems.
• Another significant achievement was the formal operationalization of the Loss and Damage Fund, designed to provide financial assistance to vulnerable nations most affected by climate change impacts.

Additional Information

• New Delhi, India:
• India hosted the 8th Conference of the Parties (COP 8) in New Delhi in 2002.
• While New Delhi was a major diplomatic hub in 2023 as it hosted the G20 Summit, it was not the venue for the UN Climate Change Conference that year.
• Paris, France:
• Paris is globally recognized for hosting COP 21 in 2015, which led to the landmark Paris Agreement.
• The Paris Agreement set the goal of limiting global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
• Berlin, Germany:
• Berlin was the host city for the very first UN Climate Change Conference, COP 1, held in 1995.
• Germany remains a key player in climate diplomacy and frequently hosts technical climate negotiations in Bonn, but Berlin did not host COP 28.

Important Points

• The UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) was adopted in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations.
• The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the supreme decision-making body of the Convention, meeting annually to review implementation and negotiate new commitments.
• The Global Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pledge was also launched at COP 28, aiming to triple the world’s installed renewable energy generation capacity to at least 11,000 GW by 2030.
• The next session, COP 29, is scheduled to take place in Baku, Azerbaijan, in 2024.

The correct answer is Air pollution.

Key Points

• The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in January 2019.
• It serves as a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy to tackle the increasing air pollution problem across India in a comprehensive manner.
• The primary goal of the programme is to achieve a 20% to 30% reduction in the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM₁₀ and PM_2.5) by the year 2024.
• The programme identifies 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration levels to track progress in air quality improvement.
• It targets 131 non-attainment cities across the country that did not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) between 2011 and 2015.
• The strategy involves expanding the air quality monitoring network, capacity building for pollution control boards, and implementing city-specific action plans.

 Additional Information

• Water Pollution:
• In India, water quality is primarily managed through the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• Key initiatives include the Namami Gange Programme, which aims to abate pollution and conserve the River Ganga.
• Soil Erosion:
• This refers to the displacement of the upper layer of soil, often addressed through the Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) and afforestation projects.
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) also helps in soil conservation through better water management.
• Noise Pollution:
• It is regulated under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) monitors noise levels through a dedicated National Ambient Noise Monitoring Network in major cities.

The correct answer is 'Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980'

Key Points

• Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023:
• The Indian Parliament passed the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill in 2023 to amend the original Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980.
• The primary objective of the 2023 amendment is to bring clarity to the types of land to which the Act applies, thereby streamlining various strategic and security-related projects.
• The Act has been renamed as Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980, which translates to Forest (Conservation and Augmentation) Act.
• It specifies that the Act will only apply to lands that have been declared or notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, or those recorded as forests in government records on or after October 25, 1980.
• The amendment provides exemptions for certain types of land, such as forest land situated alongside a railway line or a public road, and land located within 100 km of international borders for strategic projects of national importance.

Additional Information

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
• This Act provides a legal framework for the protection of various species of wild animals and plants, the management of their habitats, and the regulation of trade in wild animals and their products.
• While it underwent a major amendment in 2022 (which came into effect in 2023) to implement CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), the primary legislative focus of the 2023 parliamentary session regarding forest land was the 1980 Act.
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974:
• This was the first major environmental law in India, enacted to prevent and control water pollution and maintain or restore the wholesomeness of water.
• It led to the establishment of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).
• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
• Enacted in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, this is an "umbrella" legislation designed to provide a framework for central government coordination of the activities of various central and state authorities.
• It gives the Union government wide powers to take measures to protect and improve the quality of the environment and prevent environmental pollution.

Important Points

• The 2023 amendment addresses the ambiguity created by the Supreme Court's 1996 Godavarman judgment, which had extended the Act's protection to all areas that resembled forests dictionary-wise, regardless of ownership or notification.
• The new amendment aims to encourage plantation on non-forest lands to help India achieve its target of Net Zero emissions by 2070 and create a carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent.
• Exemptions are also granted for security-related infrastructure and defense-related projects to ensure national safety is not compromised by lengthy clearance processes.
• The amendment allows for the establishment of zoos, safaris, and eco-tourism facilities in forest areas (excluding protected areas), aiming to integrate conservation with sustainable public use.

The correct answer is 'Rajendra I'

Key Points

• Rajendra I:
• Rajendra I (1014–1044 CE) was one of the greatest monarchs of the Chola Empire, succeeding his father, Rajaraja I.
• He is most famous for his daring military expedition to Northern India, where his armies reached the banks of the River Ganga.
• To commemorate this victory over the Pala king Mahipala, he assumed the title 'Gangaikonda', which literally means 'The Conqueror of the Ganga'.
• He established a new capital city called Gangaikondacholapuram (The City of the Chola who conquered the Ganga) in the Ariyalur district of present-day Tamil Nadu.
• In the new capital, he constructed a magnificent temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, which is a masterpiece of Chola architecture and a UNESCO World Heritage site.
• His reign also saw the expansion of the Chola navy, leading to successful expeditions across the Bay of Bengal to Southeast Asia, including the Srivijaya Empire.

Additional Information

• Rajaraja I:
• He was the father of Rajendra I and is considered the architect of the Chola Empire's golden age.
• He built the world-famous Brihadisvara Temple (also known as the Big Temple) at Thanjavur.
• He initiated the policy of land surveys and reorganized the administrative system into Valanadus.
• Aditya I:
• He was the son of Vijayalaya (the founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty).
• He is credited with ending the Pallava supremacy by defeating the last Pallava king, Aparajita, in 897 CE.
• He expanded the Chola territory into the Tondaimandalam region.
• Kulothunga I:
• He was a prominent later Chola king who united the Eastern Chalukya and Chola dynasties.
• He is famously known as 'Sungam Thavirtha Cholan' (The Chola who abolished tolls) for his reforms in trade and commerce.
• He maintained diplomatic relations with distant lands, even sending a trade mission to China.

Important Points

• The Chola dynasty was renowned for its local self-government system, particularly the village assemblies known as the 'Ur' and 'Sabha'.
• The Uttaramerur Inscription provides detailed information about the qualifications and election process for village council members during the Chola period.
• Under Rajendra I, the Chola Empire became a dominant maritime power, controlling trade routes in the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal.
• To celebrate his northern conquest, Rajendra I also created a massive artificial lake called Cholagangam near his new capital, which was filled with water brought from the Ganga.

The correct answer is 'Subramania Bharati'

Key Points

• Subramania Bharati:
• Subramania Bharati, popularly known as 'Mahakavi Bharathiyar,' was a renowned Tamil poet, writer, journalist, and Indian independence activist.
• The title 'Mahakavi' (Great Poet) was conferred upon him for his revolutionary contributions to Tamil literature and his ability to blend traditional poetic forms with modern themes.
• He is considered a pioneer of modern Tamil poetry, breaking away from the complex grammatical structures of the past to write in a simple, accessible language that resonated with the common people.
• His works often focused on themes of nationalism, social reform, women's rights, and the eradication of the caste system, making him a central figure in the cultural and political awakening of South India.
• Some of his most famous works include 'Panchali Sabatham,' 'Kuyil Pattu,' and 'Kannan Pattu,' which are celebrated for their lyrical beauty and profound philosophical insights.

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore:
• Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music. He is best known as the author of 'Gitanjali' and was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
• While he is often referred to as 'Gurudev' or 'Vishwakavi' (World Poet), the title 'Mahakavi' in the specific context of Tamil literary tradition is associated with Bharati.
• Harivansh Rai Bachchan:
• Harivansh Rai Bachchan was a distinguished Hindi poet and a prominent figure of the 'Nayi Kavita' (New Poetry) movement in the early 20th century.
• He is most famous for his work 'Madhushala.' Although a giant in Hindi literature, his contributions are distinct from the Tamil poetic tradition.
• Jaishankar Prasad:
• Jaishankar Prasad was one of the most famous figures in modern Hindi literature and a pioneer of the 'Chhayavad' (Neo-romanticism) movement.
• His epic poem 'Kamayani' is considered a masterpiece of Hindi literature, but he is not the poet associated with the honorary title in the Tamil context.

Important Points

• Subramania Bharati was born in Ettayapuram (modern-day Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu) in 1882.
• He received the title 'Bharathi' at the age of 11 from the Raja of Ettayapuram, recognizing his exceptional poetic talent.
• He served as an assistant editor for the Tamil daily Swadesamitran and later edited the weekly India, which was the first paper in Tamil Nadu to publish political cartoons.
• Bharati spent a significant portion of his life in exile in Pondicherry (then a French colony) to escape British arrest, where he produced some of his greatest literary works.
• His patriotic songs, such as 'Senthamizh Nadenum Pothinile,' played a crucial role in mobilizing the masses during the Indian independence movement in the Madras Presidency.

The correct answer is 'Goods accessible to all and non-rival'

Key Points

• Public Goods:
• In economics, a public good refers to a commodity or service that is made available to all members of a society. These goods are characterized by two main attributes: non-excludability and non-rivalry.
• Non-excludability: This means that it is costly or impossible to exclude someone from using the good. If the good is provided, everyone can enjoy its benefits regardless of whether they paid for it or not.
• Non-rivalry: This means that one person's consumption of the good does not reduce its availability or utility for others. For example, if one person breathes clean air, it does not leave less clean air for someone else.
• Public goods are often associated with the "free-rider problem," where individuals consume the good without paying for it, leading to a situation where the private market may under-produce or fail to provide the good entirely.

Additional Information

• Goods produced only by government:
• While many public goods are provided by the government (like national defense or street lighting) because the private sector lacks the profit incentive to do so, the definition of a public good is based on its economic characteristics (non-rivalry and non-excludability), not on who produces it.
• Some goods produced by the government are actually "merit goods" or "private goods" (like public housing or postal services) which could technically be excludable.
• Goods that are excludable:
• Excludable goods are those where consumers can be prevented from accessing them if they do not pay. This is a defining characteristic of Private Goods (like a loaf of bread) or Club Goods (like a private gym or Netflix subscription).
• Since public goods are by definition non-excludable, this description is the opposite of what constitutes a public good.
• Goods exported abroad:
• This refers to the international trade status of a product. Whether a good is exported or imported depends on comparative advantage and global demand.
• Exported goods are typically private goods produced by businesses for profit and have no inherent connection to the economic definition of public goods.

Important Points

• The modern theory of public goods was formalized by economist Paul Samuelson in his 1954 paper, "The Pure Theory of Public Expenditure."
• Examples of Public Goods: National defense, basic scientific research, public parks, lighthouses, and clean air.
• Common Resources: These are goods that are non-excludable but rival in consumption (e.g., fish stocks in international waters). They often suffer from the "Tragedy of the Commons."
• Quasi-Public Goods: These are goods that have some characteristics of public goods but are not fully non-rival or non-excludable, such as roads (which can become congested, making them rivalrous).

The correct answer is 'Selling shares of PSUs'

Key Points

• Disinvestment:
• Disinvestment refers to the action of a government selling or liquidating its assets or stakes in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), projects, or other fixed assets.
• In the context of the government budget, it specifically involves the sale of the government's equity share capital in public enterprises to the private sector or the general public.
• The primary objective of disinvestment is to reduce the financial burden on the government, improve the efficiency of these enterprises through private management, and encourage a wider shareholding among the public.
• Disinvestment receipts are classified as Capital Receipts in the government budget because they result in a reduction in the assets of the government.

Additional Information

• Foreign Loans:
• Foreign loans are funds borrowed by the government from international financial institutions (like the World Bank or IMF) or foreign governments.
• While these are also Capital Receipts, they differ from disinvestment because they create a liability (the obligation to pay back) rather than reducing an asset.
• Tax Collection:
• Tax collection includes revenue generated through direct taxes (like Income Tax and Corporate Tax) and indirect taxes (like GST and Customs Duty).
• These are classified as Revenue Receipts because they neither create a liability nor lead to a reduction in the government's assets. They are the primary source of regular income for the government.
• Printing Currency:
• Printing currency is a method of deficit financing where the central bank (RBI in India) prints more money to cover the government's budget gap.
• This is not considered a "receipt" in the traditional sense of disinvestment or taxation; rather, it is a monetary tool that can lead to inflation if not managed carefully.

Important Points

• In India, the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), under the Ministry of Finance, manages the disinvestment process.
• There are different types of disinvestment:
• Minority Disinvestment: The government retains a majority stake (typically more than 51%) and management control.
• Majority Disinvestment: The government sells a majority stake, giving up management control to the private buyer.
• Strategic Disinvestment: The sale of a substantial portion of the government shareholding of a PSU (up to 50% or more) along with transfer of management control.
• The proceeds from disinvestment are often used to fund social infrastructure, welfare schemes, and to bridge the Fiscal Deficit.

The correct answer is 'Article 266'

Key Points

• Article 266:
• Article 266 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Public Account of India.
• The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important of all government funds. All revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by the Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances, and all money received by the Government in repayment of loans form one consolidated fund.
• No money can be withdrawn from this fund except under the authority of a law made by the Parliament (such as the Appropriation Act).
• Article 266 also establishes the Consolidated Fund for each State, which functions on similar principles at the state level.
• The Public Account of India (Article 266(2)) includes all other public money received by or on behalf of the Government of India (like provident fund deposits or judicial deposits), which does not require parliamentary authorization for withdrawal.

Additional Information

• Article 110:
• This article defines the "Money Bill". A bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with taxation, borrowing of money by the government, or the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final on whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
• Article 112:
• This article refers to the Annual Financial Statement, commonly known as the Union Budget.
• It mandates the President to lay before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for every financial year.
• Article 280:
• This article provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary.
• The Finance Commission primarily recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid.

Important Points

• Apart from the Consolidated Fund and Public Account, there is a third fund called the Contingency Fund of India, established under Article 267.
• The Contingency Fund is placed at the disposal of the President of India to meet unforeseen expenditure pending authorization by the Parliament.
• Expenditures from the Consolidated Fund are categorized into two: Expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund (non-votable) and Expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund (votable).
• The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India audits all these funds and submits reports to the President, who then lays them before the Parliament.

The correct answer is 'Progressive Tax'

Key Points

• Progressive Tax:
• A progressive tax is a tax system where the tax rate increases as the taxable amount (usually income) increases.
• This system is based on the "ability to pay" principle, which suggests that those with higher incomes should contribute a larger percentage of their earnings to support government services.
• In a progressive system, the tax is divided into brackets; as an individual's income moves into a higher bracket, the marginal tax rate on the additional income increases.
• The primary goal of progressive taxation is to reduce income inequality by redistributing wealth and providing a social safety net for lower-income individuals.

Additional Information

• Regressive Tax:
• A regressive tax is one where the tax rate decreases as the amount subject to taxation increases.
• While the rate might be uniform (like a sales tax), it is considered regressive because it takes a larger percentage of income from low-income earners than from high-income earners.
• Common examples include sales taxes on basic necessities and excise taxes on items like tobacco or gasoline.
• Proportional Tax:
• Also known as a "flat tax," a proportional tax applies the same tax rate to all taxpayers, regardless of their income level.
• Under this system, both low-income and high-income earners pay the same percentage of their income (e.g., a flat 15% income tax).
• Proponents argue it is simple and fair, while critics argue it places a heavier burden on those who can least afford it.
• Ad Valorem Tax:
• An ad valorem tax is a tax based on the assessed value of an item, such as real estate or personal property.
• The term is Latin for "according to value." The most common ad valorem taxes are property taxes and import duties (tariffs).
• Unlike income taxes which depend on earnings, these taxes depend on the market value of the asset being taxed.

Important Points

• The concept of Vertical Equity is central to progressive taxation, asserting that taxpayers with a greater ability to pay should pay more.
• Most modern Income Tax systems globally are designed to be progressive to ensure that the tax burden is distributed more heavily toward those with higher disposable incomes.
• Taxation structures are vital tools for fiscal policy, used by governments to manage economic growth, control inflation, and fund public infrastructure.
• The Marginal Tax Rate is the percentage of tax applied to the last dollar for each income bracket, which is a defining feature of the progressive tax structure.

The correct answer is 'Krishna Leela'

Key Points

• Krishna Leela:
• Odissi dance is deeply rooted in the Bhakti movement, and its primary narrative focus is the Krishna Leela, which depicts the divine love and playfulness of Lord Krishna.
• The most significant literary inspiration for Odissi is Jayadeva's Gita Govinda. The verses of this 12th-century poem, which describe the relationship between Krishna and Radha, are central to the Abhinaya (expressive) part of the dance.
• Performances often highlight themes of longing, separation, and union between the soul (Radha) and the divine (Krishna), expressed through intricate hand gestures (Mudras) and facial expressions.
• While Odissi honors various deities, the influence of the Jagannath cult in Odisha has solidified the Vaishnavite themes, particularly those revolving around Krishna, as the heart of its storytelling.

Additional Information

• Ramayana:
• The Ramayana tells the story of Lord Rama, his exile, and the rescue of Sita. While episodes from the Ramayana are occasionally performed in Odissi, they are not the "predominant" narrative focus compared to the lyrical themes of the Gita Govinda.
• Ramayana themes are more central to traditional folk theater forms of Odisha like Rama Leela and certain styles of Chhau dance.
• Mahabharata:
• The Mahabharata is a complex epic focusing on the Kurukshetra War and the fates of the Kauravas and Pandavas.
• In Odissi, specific stories like the Draupadi Cheer-Haran may be performed, but the epic's vast martial and philosophical narrative is less frequent than the romantic and devotional themes of Krishna.
• Shiva Tandava:
• Shiva Tandava represents the vigorous, masculine, and cosmic dance of Lord Shiva, symbolizing the cycle of creation and destruction.
• Odissi does include Shaivite elements, such as the Batu Nritya (dedicated to Batukeshwar Bhairava), but the overall character of Odissi is known for its Lasya (graceful and feminine) quality rather than the dominant Tandava power.

Important Points

• Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from the state of Odisha.
• It is characterized by two basic postures: Chowk (a square-like masculine stance) and Tribhanga (a feminine three-bend posture of the body).
• The dance was traditionally performed by Maharis (temple dancers) in the Jagannath Temple and later by Gotipuas (young boys dressed as girls).
• The modern revival of Odissi in the mid-20th century is credited to legendary gurus such as Kelucharan Mohapatra, Pankaj Charan Das, and Deba Prasad Das.
• Archaeological evidence of Odissi dates back to the 2nd century BCE, found in the carvings of the Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves near Bhubaneswar.

The correct answer is 'Rajasthan'

Key Points

• Kalbelia Dance:
• Kalbelia is one of the most sensuous and graceful folk dances of Rajasthan, performed by the tribe of the same name.
• The dance is characterized by its fluid, serpentine movements that mimic the slithering of a snake, which is why it is often referred to as the 'Snake Charmer Dance.'
• Traditionally, the Kalbelia men were known for catching snakes and trading snake venom, while the women performed dances to express their community's identity.
• The dancers wear traditional black skirts (Ghagra) heavily embroidered with silver ribbons and small mirrors, which swirl beautifully during the fast-paced performance.
• In 2010, UNESCO included the Kalbelia folk songs and dances in its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Additional Information

• Gujarat:
• Gujarat is famous for folk dances like Garba and Dandiya Raas, which are primarily performed during the Navratri festival.
• Another notable form is Bhavai, a traditional folk theatre/dance that involves balancing several clay pots on the head while dancing.
• Maharashtra:
• The most prominent folk dance of Maharashtra is Lavani, known for its powerful rhythm and erotic or social themes, performed to the beats of the Dholki.
• Other folk dances include the Koli dance (the dance of the fisherfolk) and Dhangari Gaja, performed by shepherds.
• Punjab:
• Punjab is globally recognized for Bhangra, an energetic dance performed by men, and Giddha, a graceful and vibrant dance performed by women.
• These dances are deeply rooted in the agricultural cycle, particularly celebrating the harvest season (Vaisakhi).

Important Points

• The main musical instrument used in Kalbelia is the Pungi (a woodwind instrument traditionally used to charm snakes), along with the Dufli, Been, and Khanjari.
• Gulabo Sapera is the most famous Kalbelia dancer who brought this folk art to the international stage and was awarded the Padma Shri for her contributions.
• The songs of the Kalbelia are based on stories taken from folklore and mythology, and special dances are performed during Holi.
• The dancers do not follow a fixed script or choreography; the performance is often spontaneous and increases in tempo as the music accelerates.

The correct answer is 'Toni Morrison'

Key Points

• Toni Morrison:
• Toni Morrison was a Nobel Prize and Pulitzer Prize-winning American novelist, celebrated for her examination of the Black experience, particularly the experience of Black women.
• Her novel Beloved, published in 1987, is considered a masterpiece of contemporary literature and won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1988.
• The story is set after the American Civil War and is inspired by the real-life story of Margaret Garner, an enslaved woman who escaped from Kentucky to Ohio.
• The novel explores the psychological trauma of slavery, the concept of "rememory," and the haunting legacy of the past through the character of Sethe and her daughter, Beloved.
• Morrison's writing is known for its epic themes, vivid dialogue, and richly detailed African American characters.

Additional Information

• Alice Walker:
• Alice Walker is an American novelist, short story writer, and activist. She is best known for her novel The Color Purple (1982), which won the Pulitzer Prize and the National Book Award.
• Her work often focuses on the struggles of African American women, particularly against racism, sexism, and poverty in the rural South.
• Maya Angelou:
• Maya Angelou was a world-renowned poet, memoirist, and civil rights activist. She is most famous for her series of seven autobiographies, starting with I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings (1969).
• While she was a prolific writer of prose and poetry, she is primarily recognized for her contributions to the memoir genre and her influential public speaking.
• Zadie Smith:
• Zadie Smith is a contemporary British novelist, essayist, and short-story writer. She rose to fame with her debut novel White Teeth (2000), which became an immediate best-seller.
• Her work often deals with themes of race, religion, and cultural identity in modern-day multicultural London.

Important Points

• In 1993, Toni Morrison became the first African American woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature.
• Beloved is the first installment of a trilogy that includes the novels Jazz (1992) and Paradise (1997), which together explore different eras of African American history.
• The novel was adapted into a major motion picture in 1998, produced by and starring Oprah Winfrey.
• Morrison’s work is credited with bringing African American literature into the mainstream of the global literary canon while maintaining a deep focus on the specificities of Black life and history.

The correct answer is 'Ben Okri'

Key Points

• Ben Okri:
• Ben Okri is a renowned Nigerian poet and novelist who is considered one of the foremost African authors in the post-modern and post-colonial traditions.
• His masterpiece, The Famished Road, published in 1991, is a classic of magical realism that tells the story of Azaro, an 'abiku' or spirit child.
• The novel is celebrated for its unique narrative style that weaves together the spirit world and the turbulent political reality of a pre-independence African nation.
• In 1991, Ben Okri became one of the youngest winners of the Booker Prize for this novel, bringing significant international attention to contemporary African literature.

Additional Information

• Chinua Achebe:
• Often referred to as the "father of modern African literature," Achebe is best known for his 1958 novel Things Fall Apart.
• His work primarily focuses on the clash between traditional African values and the influence of British Christian missionaries and colonial government.
• While a monumental figure in literature, his style is generally characterized by social realism rather than the magical realism found in Okri's work.
• Ngugi wa Thiong'o:
• A prominent Kenyan writer and academic, Ngugi is known for works such as Weep Not, Child and Petals of Blood.
• His writing often addresses themes of colonialism, decolonization, and the struggle for social justice in Kenya.
• He is also famous for his decision to stop writing in English and instead write in his native Gikuyu to preserve indigenous language and culture.
• Wole Soyinka:
• Soyinka is a Nigerian playwright, poet, and essayist who became the first African to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1986.
• His works, such as Death and the King's Horseman and A Dance of the Forests, often blend Western theatrical forms with African mythology and Yoruba culture.
• While he explores political themes extensively, he is most recognized for his contributions to drama and poetry.

Important Points

• The concept of the Abiku (spirit child) is central to the novel; it refers to a child who dies repeatedly before reaching maturity, only to be reborn to the same mother.
• The Famished Road is the first book in a trilogy, followed by Songs of Enchantment (1993) and Infinite Riches (1998).
• The novel's title is inspired by a poem by Wole Soyinka, and the "road" serves as a powerful metaphor for the hunger of the soul and the difficult path of a nation toward maturity.
• Okri's win was a landmark moment for African magical realism, a genre that uses supernatural elements to describe real-world social and political complexities.

The correct answer is '1950'

Key Points

• Establishment of the Planning Commission (1950):
• The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, through a Cabinet Resolution of the Government of India.
• It was created as an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it was not mentioned in the Constitution and was not created by an act of Parliament.
• The primary objective of the commission was to formulate Five-Year Plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country's resources.
• The Prime Minister of India served as the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
• It played a central role in the economic development of India for over six decades by assessing resources and determining priorities for growth.

Additional Information

• 1947:
• This was the year India gained independence from British rule. While the idea of planning was discussed (such as the Bombay Plan or the National Planning Committee of 1938), the formal Planning Commission was not yet established as the nation was focused on partition and immediate administrative stability.
• 1948:
• In this year, the Government of India announced its first Industrial Policy Resolution, which laid the foundation for a mixed economy. However, the centralized planning body (the Commission) was still in the conceptual stage.
• 1951:
• This year marked the actual launch of the First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956). While the Commission was established in 1950, the implementation of its first major planning document began in 1951.

Important Points

• The first Chairman of the Planning Commission was Jawaharlal Nehru, and the first Deputy Chairman was Gulzarilal Nanda.
• The Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution called NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015.
• Unlike the Planning Commission, which followed a top-down approach, NITI Aayog emphasizes a bottom-up approach and cooperative federalism.
• The last Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission was Montek Singh Ahluwalia.

The correct answer is 'India's slow economic growth (around 3-4%)'

The 'Hindu Rate of Growth' is a term used to describe the low annual growth rate of the Indian economy, which remained stagnant at around 3.5% from the 1950s to the 1980s. It reflects a period of slow economic progress characterized by protectionist policies and a lack of market competition.

Key Points

• Hindu Rate of Growth:
• The term was coined by the Indian economist Raj Krishna in 1978 to describe the slow growth of the Indian economy.
• It specifically refers to the period between 1950 and 1980 when the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India grew at an average rate of around 3.5% per annum.
• During this period, while the GDP grew at 3.5%, the per capita income growth was even lower, averaging only about 1.3% because the population was growing at over 2% annually.
• The term was used to highlight how the economy was stuck in a rut of low productivity and inefficiency, largely attributed to the "License Raj" and socialist-inspired economic planning.

Additional Information

• India's high population growth:
• While India did experience high population growth during the same period (often exceeding 2% per year), the term 'Hindu Rate of Growth' specifically refers to the economic GDP output, not the demographic statistics.
• However, the high population growth was a reason why the slow economic growth felt even more stagnant for the average citizen.
• India's high spiritual growth:
• This is an incorrect interpretation of the term. The word 'Hindu' in the phrase was used by Raj Krishna to suggest a sense of fatalism or contentment with the status quo, similar to how some perceived traditional cultural attitudes, but it had nothing to do with actual spiritual or religious advancement.
• India's high import taxes:
• High import taxes and protectionism were indeed features of the Indian economy during this era (the "License Raj"). While these policies were causes of the slow economic growth, the term 'Hindu Rate of Growth' describes the result (the 3-4% growth rate) rather than the tax policy itself.

Important Points

• The stagnation ended following the economic liberalisation of 1991, after which India's growth rates began to climb significantly, often reaching 7-9% in subsequent decades.
• Raj Krishna used the term at a seminar in the FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry) to critique the government's inability to boost the economy despite several Five-Year Plans.
• The term is often contrasted with the "East Asian Miracle," where countries like South Korea and Taiwan saw double-digit growth rates during the same period.
• In recent years, the term has occasionally resurfaced in economic debates when India's quarterly GDP growth shows signs of slowing down toward the 4% mark.

The correct answer is 'Hilary Mantel'

Key Points

• Hilary Mantel and Wolf Hall:
• Wolf Hall is a historical novel published in 2009, set in the period between 1500 and 1535. It provides a fictionalized biography of the rise to power of Thomas Cromwell in the court of King Henry VIII.
• The novel is celebrated for its unique narrative voice and its sympathetic portrayal of Cromwell, who had historically been depicted as a calculating villain. Mantel reimagines him as a pragmatic, brilliant, and complex statesman.
• The book covers the political and religious upheaval in England as Henry VIII seeks to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon to marry Anne Boleyn, leading to the English Reformation.
• Wolf Hall won the Man Booker Prize in 2009 and the National Book Critics Circle Award, establishing Mantel as one of the most significant historical novelists of the 21st century.

Additional Information

• Ian McEwan:
• Ian McEwan is a prominent British novelist known for his psychological depth and meticulous prose. His famous works include Atonement, Enduring Love, and Saturday.
• While Atonement features historical settings (World War II), his body of work generally focuses on contemporary moral dilemmas and the intricacies of human relationships rather than Tudor history.
• Salman Rushdie:
• Salman Rushdie is a world-renowned author famous for his use of magical realism and his exploration of post-colonial themes, particularly in the Indian subcontinent.
• His most famous works include Midnight's Children (which won the Booker of Bookers) and The Satanic Verses. His writing style and subject matter are distinct from the grounded historical realism of Mantel's Wolf Hall.
• Kazuo Ishiguro:
• Kazuo Ishiguro is a Nobel Prize-winning British novelist known for his restrained style and themes of memory, time, and self-delusion.
• His notable works include The Remains of the Day and Never Let Me Go. While The Remains of the Day is a historical novel set in an English country house, it focuses on the 20th-century decline of the aristocracy rather than the Tudor era.

Important Points

• Wolf Hall is the first book in a highly acclaimed trilogy. It was followed by Bring Up the Bodies (2012) and The Mirror and the Light (2020).
• Hilary Mantel made history by becoming the first woman and the first British author to win the Man Booker Prize twice (for the first two books of the trilogy).
• The trilogy was adapted into a successful BBC television miniseries in 2015, starring Mark Rylance as Thomas Cromwell and Damian Lewis as Henry VIII.
• The novel is noted for its present-tense narration and its use of the pronoun "he" to refer to Cromwell, which creates an immersive, "fly-on-the-wall" perspective of the Tudor court.

The correct answer is 'From any Fair Price Shop (FPS) across the country'

Key Points

• One Nation, One Ration Card (ONORC):
• The ONORC scheme is a technology-driven initiative that allows National Food Security Act (NFSA) beneficiaries, particularly migrant workers, to claim their entitled food grains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country.
• It enables portability of food security benefits, ensuring that a person is not tied to a single ration shop in their home district or state.
• The system works through highly automated processes involving electronic Point of Sale (ePoS) devices and Aadhaar-based biometric authentication.
• This scheme is crucial for ensuring food security for internal migrants who frequently move across state borders in search of livelihood.

Additional Information

• Designated Ration Shops:
• Prior to the implementation of ONORC, beneficiaries were restricted to receiving their food grains only from the specific Fair Price Shop to which their ration card was linked.
• This traditional system caused significant hardships for migrant laborers, as they would lose their access to subsidized food whenever they moved away from their home village or town.
• Directly from Farmers:
• While the government procures food grains directly from farmers through Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations, the distribution to the public is handled through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• Ration cards are not used to buy directly from farmers; they are instruments for accessing subsidized grains from government-regulated outlets.
• Supermarkets:
• Supermarkets are private retail entities that operate on market prices and do not fall under the purview of the subsidized Public Distribution System.
• The ONORC scheme is specifically integrated with Fair Price Shops (FPS), which are authorized by the government to distribute essential commodities under the NFSA.

Important Points

• The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
• As of 2022, the ONORC plan has been successfully implemented in all 36 States/UTs across the country, making food security portable throughout India.
• To facilitate beneficiaries, the government launched the 'Mera Ration' mobile application, which provides real-time information regarding the nearest FPS and entitlement details.
• The system relies on the Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS) portal to track the movement and distribution of food grains.

The correct answer is 'Bhutan'

Key Points

• Chhukha Hydropower Project:
• The Chhukha Hydropower Project is a 336 MW run-of-the-river facility located on the Wangchu River in Bhutan.
• It was the first major hydropower project in Bhutan, commissioned between 1986 and 1988, and served as a catalyst for the country's economic development.
• The project was fully funded by the Government of India, with 60% of the cost provided as a grant and 40% as a long-term loan.
• It marked the beginning of a successful bilateral partnership in the energy sector, where Bhutan exports surplus electricity to India, generating significant revenue for the Bhutanese exchequer.

Additional Information

• Nepal:
• While India and Nepal share a long history of water resource cooperation, major bilateral projects include the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (Mahakali Treaty) and the Arun-III project.
• Nepal has immense hydropower potential, but the Chhukha project is specifically associated with the Indo-Bhutan partnership.
• Bangladesh:
• India's energy collaboration with Bangladesh primarily focuses on cross-border electricity trade through grid connectivity and the development of thermal power plants like the Maitree Super Thermal Power Project.
• Bangladesh is a deltaic country with limited hydropower potential compared to the Himalayan nations.
• Myanmar:
• India and Myanmar have discussed cooperation in the hydropower sector, such as the Tamanthi and Shwezaye projects on the Chindwin River.
• However, these projects have faced various delays and are not as historically or economically transformative as the Chhukha project was for Bhutan.

Important Points

• The success of Chhukha paved the way for even larger projects in Bhutan, such as the 1,020 MW Tala Hydropower Project and the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydropower Project.
• Hydropower is often referred to as the "White Gold" of Bhutan's economy, contributing a substantial portion to its GDP.
• The project is managed by the Druk Green Power Corporation (DGPC), which operates all major hydropower plants in Bhutan.
• This bilateral model is often cited as a unique example of win-win cooperation, providing clean energy to India and economic stability to Bhutan.

The correct answer is 'Pakistan'

The Trans-Afghan Railway project is a landmark regional connectivity initiative designed to link the landlocked nations of Central Asia with the global maritime trade routes via the Arabian Sea. By creating a direct rail link from Uzbekistan through the heart of Afghanistan to the rail network of Pakistan, the project aims to transform the economic landscape of the region.

Key Points

• Connecting Uzbekistan and Pakistan:
• The Trans-Afghan Railway project is specifically designed to connect Termez (Uzbekistan) with Peshawar (Pakistan), passing through Mazar-i-Sharif and Kabul in Afghanistan.
• The primary objective is to provide Uzbekistan and other Central Asian Republics (CARs) with the shortest and most cost-effective access to the Arabian Sea ports, specifically Karachi, Qasim, and Gwadar.
• This corridor is expected to reduce the transit time for goods between Central Asia and the Arabian Sea from approximately 30 days to less than 10 days, significantly lowering shipping costs.
• The project fosters a "win-win" scenario for the three participating nations: Uzbekistan gains a trade outlet, Afghanistan earns transit fees and infrastructure development, and Pakistan becomes a regional logistics hub.

Additional Information

• Iran:
• While Uzbekistan does utilize Iranian ports like Chabahar and Bandar Abbas for trade, this specific "Trans-Afghan Railway" project (UAP corridor) is distinct from the routes leading to Iran.
• Routes through Iran are typically part of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) or bilateral agreements between Uzbekistan and Iran, rather than the trilateral Peshawar-Kabul-Termez project.
• India:
• India is a major proponent of the Chabahar Port in Iran to bypass Pakistan and reach Central Asia. However, the Trans-Afghan Railway project terminates in Pakistan and does not provide a direct rail link to India due to existing geopolitical complexities.
• India remains interested in Central Asian connectivity but through different corridors like the INSTC.
• Russia:
• Russia is a key player in the northern rail corridors and the INSTC. While Russia supports regional stability, the Trans-Afghan Railway is a southward-oriented project aimed at diversifying trade routes away from traditional northern routes that pass through Russia.

Important Points

• The roadmap for the project was officially signed in February 2021 by representatives from Uzbekistan, Afghanistan, and Pakistan.
• The estimated length of the railway line is approximately 573 kilometers, involving significant engineering challenges due to the mountainous terrain of the Hindu Kush.
• The project is estimated to cost around $5 billion to$6 billion, with the participating countries seeking support from international financial institutions like the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank.
• Once completed, the railway is expected to have an annual transit potential of up to 20 million tons of cargo, boosting regional GDP and integration.

The correct answer is 'Bhubaneswar'

Key Points

• 68th Senior National Volleyball Championship:
• The 68th Senior National Volleyball (Men & Women) Championship 2019-20 was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• The event took place in February 2020 at the KIIT (Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology) Deemed to be University campus.
• In the Men's category, Tamil Nadu emerged as the champions by defeating Haryana in the final match.
• In the Women's category, Kerala secured the gold medal by defeating the Indian Railways team.
• The championship was organized by the Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) in collaboration with the Odisha Volleyball Association and the Government of Odisha.

Additional Information

• Chennai:
• Chennai is a major hub for volleyball in India and has hosted numerous national and international tournaments.
• While it has a strong club culture and frequently hosts matches at the Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, it was not the host for the 2020 Senior National Championship.
• Jaipur:
• Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan, has hosted various national-level sporting events, including Kabaddi and Cricket.
• However, it did not host the 68th edition of the Senior National Volleyball Championship.
• Kozhikode:
• Kozhikode (Calicut) in Kerala is often referred to as the "Mecca of Volleyball" in India due to the sport's immense popularity in the region.
• Kozhikode hosted the 67th Senior National Volleyball Championship (2018-19) at the Calicut Trade Centre, but the subsequent 2020 edition moved to Odisha.

Important Points

• The Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) is the governing body for volleyball in India, responsible for organizing national championships across various age groups.
• Bhubaneswar has emerged as the "Sports Capital of India" by hosting major international events like the FIH Hockey World Cup and various national championships in athletics, rugby, and volleyball.
• The Senior National Championship is a crucial scouting ground for the Indian National Volleyball Team, as top performers are often selected for national coaching camps.
• The 2020 championship was significant as it showcased the growing infrastructure for indoor sports in Odisha, specifically within the KIIT University sports complex.

The correct answer is 'Kerala'

Key Points

• 1987 National Games in Kerala:
• The 1987 edition of the National Games was the 27th edition of the event and was hosted by the state of Kerala.
• This was a landmark event for the state as it was the first time Kerala hosted the National Games, utilizing multiple venues across cities like Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi, and Kozhikode.
• The 1987 Games were the second edition to be held in the modern format, which was initiated to mimic the Olympic Games style of multi-sport competition.
• The event played a crucial role in developing world-class sports infrastructure in Kerala and identifying local talent that later represented India on international platforms.

Additional Information

• Guwahati:
• Guwahati, the largest city in Assam, hosted the 33rd National Games in 2007.
• This edition was significant for the North-Eastern region of India, leading to the construction of the Sarusajai Sports Complex and other major sporting facilities.
• Tamil Nadu:
• Tamil Nadu (specifically Chennai, then Madras) has a rich history of hosting national events, including the National Games in 1968.
• The state is known for its strong contribution to sports like Tennis, Squash, and Chess in the national circuit.
• New Delhi:
• New Delhi hosted the first-ever modern National Games in 1985.
• The capital city also holds the distinction of hosting the very first Indian Olympic Games (the precursor to the National Games) in 1924 and the Asian Games in 1951 and 1982.

Important Points

• The National Games are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to promote sports and harmony among different states.
• The Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy is awarded to the overall champion team (the state or union territory) that secures the highest number of gold medals in the games.
• The modern format of the National Games was introduced to ensure that the games are held on the lines of the Olympics, featuring a wide array of disciplines and a centralized Athletes' Village.
• Kerala hosted the games again in 2015 (the 35th edition), where the Great Hornbill, named Ammu, was the official mascot.

The correct answer is 'Rakhine State'

The Rohingya are a stateless Indo-Aryan ethnic group who predominantly follow Islam and have resided in Myanmar for generations. Their primary homeland is the coastal region of western Myanmar, which has been the site of significant communal tension and military operations, leading to one of the largest humanitarian crises in recent history.

Key Points

• Rakhine State:
• Rakhine State (formerly known as Arakan) is located on the western coast of Myanmar, bordering the Bay of Bengal to the west and Bangladesh to the northwest.
• The Rohingya community has lived in this region for centuries, with historical roots tracing back to the 8th century, though the Myanmar government often disputes their indigenous status.
• Since the early 1990s and most acutely in 2017, Rakhine State has been the epicenter of violence and systemic persecution against the Rohingya, forcing hundreds of thousands to flee across the border.
• The region is geographically isolated from the rest of Myanmar by the Arakan Mountains, which has contributed to its distinct cultural and demographic landscape.

Additional Information

• Shan State:
• Shan State is the largest of the 14 administrative divisions in Myanmar, located in the eastern part of the country bordering China, Laos, and Thailand.
• It is home to several ethnic groups, primarily the Shan people, and is known for its complex history of ethnic armed conflict and the production of gemstones and opium.
• While it faces its own humanitarian challenges, it is not the ancestral or primary region of the Rohingya community.
• Yangon:
• Yangon (formerly Rangoon) is the largest city and the former capital of Myanmar. It serves as the country's most important commercial hub and gateway to the world.
• While Yangon has a diverse population including various religious and ethnic minorities, it is an urban center in the south and not the region where the Rohingya are concentrated or originate from.
• Kachin State:
• Kachin State is the northernmost state of Myanmar, bordering China and India. It is predominantly inhabited by the Kachin people, many of whom are Christians.
• The region is famous for its jade mines and has seen prolonged conflict between the Kachin Independence Army (KIA) and the Myanmar military, but it is geographically and demographically distinct from the Rohingya crisis in the west.

Important Points

• The 1982 Citizenship Law passed by the Myanmar government effectively stripped the Rohingya of their citizenship, rendering them stateless and denying them basic rights.
• In August 2017, a major military crackdown in Rakhine State triggered a mass exodus, with over 700,000 Rohingya fleeing to Bangladesh, settling primarily in the Cox's Bazar district.
• The United Nations has described the military operations against the Rohingya as a "textbook example of ethnic cleansing."
• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) has been involved in legal proceedings against Myanmar regarding allegations of genocide against the Rohingya population in Rakhine State.

The correct answer is 'It restricted the definition of 'forest''

Key Points

• Restricting the Definition of Forest:
• The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, primarily aims to clarify and limit the scope of the original 1980 Act regarding which lands are protected.
• The amendment specifies that the Act will only apply to lands that have been declared or notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, or those recorded as forest in government records on or after October 25, 1980.
• This change effectively bypasses the 1996 Supreme Court judgment in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad case, which had expanded the definition of "forest" to include any land that satisfied the dictionary meaning of the term, regardless of ownership or classification.
• By narrowing this definition, the government can allow the diversion of "deemed forests" (lands that look like forests but are not officially recorded) for non-forest purposes without seeking prior central permission.

Additional Information

• Banning the cutting of trees:
• This is incorrect. The 2023 Amendment actually makes it easier to cut trees in certain areas by providing broad exemptions for infrastructure and strategic projects.
• It allows for the clearing of forests for "non-forest" purposes like zoos, safaris, and eco-tourism facilities, which critics argue could lead to increased deforestation.
• Declaring all cities as forests:
• This is incorrect. The Act does not contain any provision that classifies urban areas or cities as forest land. Its focus remains on the regulation of rural and wilderness forest tracts.
• Adding more land to forest areas:
• This is incorrect. While the government argues the Act encourages private plantations to increase carbon sinks, the primary criticism is that it removes legal protection from vast tracts of existing unrecorded forest land.
• Instead of expanding the legal definition to protect more land, the amendment restricts the legal umbrella to only officially recorded areas.

Important Points

• The Act provides significant exemptions for strategic projects. For instance, forest land situated within 100 km of international borders can be diverted for "strategic linear projects of national importance and concerning national security" without central clearance.
• It exempts security-related infrastructure up to 10 hectares and projects like "Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected areas" up to 5 hectares.
• The amendment has faced backlash from environmentalists and tribal communities who fear it will lead to the loss of biodiversity and infringe upon the rights of forest-dwelling communities protected under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
• The primary objective stated by the government is to achieve Net Zero Emissions by 2070 by encouraging the creation of carbon sinks through plantations on non-forest lands.

The correct answer is 'Abnormal warming of Pacific Ocean surface'

Key Points

• Abnormal warming of Pacific Ocean surface:
• El Niño is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
• Under normal conditions, trade winds blow west along the equator, taking warm water from South America towards Asia. To replace that warm water, cold water rises from the depths—a process called upwelling.
• During El Niño, these trade winds weaken or even reverse. As a result, the warm surface water is pushed eastward toward the west coast of the Americas.
• This shift in ocean temperatures has a massive impact on the atmosphere, altering the path of jet streams and disrupting global weather patterns, leading to floods in some regions and severe droughts in others.

Additional Information

• Increased monsoon rainfall in India:
• Contrary to this point, El Niño is typically associated with a reduction in monsoon rainfall in India.
• The warming of the Pacific shifts the moisture-laden winds away from the Indian subcontinent, often leading to below-average rainfall or drought conditions, which can severely impact Indian agriculture.
• Strengthening of trade winds:
• The strengthening of trade winds is a characteristic of La Niña, not El Niño.
• During La Niña, the trade winds are even stronger than usual, pushing more warm water toward Asia and increasing the upwelling of cold water off the coast of the Americas, leading to cooler-than-average sea surface temperatures.
• Formation of polar vortex:
• The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. It is an atmospheric phenomenon related to the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
• While El Niño can influence the position of the jet stream which might interact with polar air masses, it is not the cause of the formation of the polar vortex itself.

Important Points

• The term El Niño means "The Little Boy" or "Christ Child" in Spanish. It was originally recognized by fishermen off the coast of South America in the 1600s, with the appearance of unusually warm water in the Pacific Ocean around Christmas time.
• El Niño is the warm phase of a larger cycle called the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), while La Niña is the cool phase.
• It significantly affects marine life; because the warm water lacks the nutrients found in the cold, upwelled water, fish populations often migrate or die off, impacting the fishing industry in South America.
• El Niño events typically occur every two to seven years and can last anywhere from nine months to two years.

The correct answer is Radioactive decay of uranium and thorium

Key Points

• The primary source of helium-4 on Earth is the alpha decay of heavy radioactive elements, specifically uranium and thorium, found in the Earth's crust.
• During the process of radioactive decay, these heavy nuclei emit alpha particles, which are essentially helium nuclei consisting of two protons and two neutrons.
• Over millions of years, these alpha particles capture electrons from their surroundings to become stable helium atoms.
• Because helium is a non-reactive noble gas, it migrates through the crust and becomes trapped in impermeable rock formations, often accumulating in the same reservoirs as natural gas (methane).
• Photosynthesis is incorrect as it is a biological process that produces oxygen and glucose from carbon dioxide and water.
• Cosmic rays interact with the upper atmosphere to produce small amounts of helium-3 and tritium, but they are not the source of the vast underground helium deposits used commercially.
• Mantle convection refers to the physical movement of the Earth's mantle due to heat, which helps transport gases but is not the nuclear process that generates helium.

Additional Information

• Helium is the second most abundant element in the observable universe, but it is relatively rare on Earth because it is light enough to escape Earth's gravity and leak into space.
• Most of the world's commercial helium is extracted through fractional distillation of natural gas, where helium concentrations can reach up to 7 percent.
• The United States, Qatar, and Algeria are among the top global producers of helium.
• Helium is critical for high-tech applications, including cooling superconducting magnets in MRI scanners, manufacturing semiconductors, and as a lifting gas for balloons and airships.
• Because it is produced over geological timescales (millions of years) and escapes into space once released, helium is considered a non-renewable resource.

The correct answer is 'Decreasing the value of a currency'

Key Points

• Devaluation:
• Devaluation is a deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, a group of currencies, or a standard such as gold.
• This policy tool is typically used by countries that have a fixed or semi-fixed exchange rate regime, where the government or central bank sets the value of the currency.
• The primary objective of devaluation is often to improve a country's balance of trade by making its exports cheaper and more competitive in the international market.
• Simultaneously, devaluation makes imports more expensive for domestic consumers, which helps in reducing the demand for foreign goods and narrowing a trade deficit.

Additional Information

• Increasing the value of a currency:
• This is known as Revaluation. It is a calculated upward adjustment of a country's official exchange rate relative to a chosen baseline.
• Revaluation makes exports more expensive and imports cheaper, which can be used to combat high inflation or reduce a large trade surplus.
• Printing new currency:
• This refers to increasing the Money Supply in an economy. While central banks print money to manage liquidity, excessive printing can lead to inflation or hyperinflation.
• This is a monetary policy action but is not synonymous with devaluation, although it may lead to a decrease in currency value over time through market forces.
• Banning a currency:
• This is known as Demonetization. It involves stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender.
• This is usually done to replace old currency with new units, to combat "black money," or to move toward a digital economy, rather than to adjust the exchange rate value.

Important Points

• It is important to distinguish between Devaluation and Depreciation. Devaluation occurs in a fixed exchange rate system by government decree, while depreciation occurs in a floating exchange rate system due to market forces (supply and demand).
• While devaluation can boost exports, it carries the risk of increasing inflation because the cost of imported raw materials and consumer goods rises.
• Devaluation can also increase the burden of foreign-denominated debt, as it requires more of the local currency to pay back the same amount of foreign currency.
• Historically, India has devalued the Rupee on several occasions, most notably in 1966 and 1991, to address severe balance of payments crises.

The correct answer is 'French Open'

Key Points

• French Open (Roland-Garros):
• The French Open is the only Grand Slam tournament played on red clay courts, which are actually composed of layers of crushed brick, limestone, and volcanic rock.
• The clay surface significantly slows down the ball and produces a high bounce compared to grass or hard courts. This characteristic reduces the effectiveness of big serves and favors players who excel at baseline rallies.
• Playing on clay requires specific movement techniques, most notably the "clay-court slide," where players slide into their shots to maintain balance and cover more ground.
• Because points tend to last longer on this surface, the French Open is considered one of the most physically demanding tournaments in the world, requiring immense stamina and mental fortitude.
• It is held annually over two weeks at the Stade Roland-Garros in Paris, France, typically starting in late May.

Additional Information

• Australian Open:
• The Australian Open is played on hard courts (currently GreenSet). It is the first Grand Slam of the calendar year, held in Melbourne.
• The surface is medium-fast, offering a consistent bounce that suits a variety of playing styles, though extreme heat often becomes a major factor for players.
• Wimbledon:
• Wimbledon is the oldest tennis tournament in the world and the only Grand Slam played on natural grass.
• Grass is the fastest surface in tennis; the ball stays low and skids, favoring players with powerful serves and good net play (serve-and-volley style).
• It is held at the All England Club in London and is famous for its strict "all-white" dress code for players.
• US Open:
• The US Open is played on hard courts (Laykold surface) at the USTA Billie Jean King National Tennis Center in New York City.
• It is the final Grand Slam of the year. The surface is generally faster than the Australian Open but slower than Wimbledon, providing a balanced environment for power hitters and tactical players alike.

Important Points

• The term "Grand Slam" refers to winning all four major championships in a single calendar year.
• Rafael Nadal is widely regarded as the "King of Clay," having won a record 14 French Open titles, demonstrating unparalleled dominance on the red dirt.
• Historically, the Australian Open and the US Open were also played on grass before switching to hard courts (the US Open also had a brief period on clay in the 1970s).
• The French Open is the only major tournament that does not utilize a final-set tie-break in the same manner as others historically, though rules have recently been unified across all Slams to feature a 10-point tie-break at 6-6 in the final set.

The correct answer is 'Technical Knockout'

Key Points

• Technical Knockout (TKO):
• A Technical Knockout (TKO) is a term used in combat sports, such as boxing and mixed martial arts, to describe a stoppage by the referee.
• It occurs when the referee determines that a fighter cannot safely continue the match, even if they have not been knocked unconscious.
• The decision is typically made when a fighter is taking excessive punishment, is unable to intelligently defend themselves, or has sustained a serious injury (like a severe cut).
• Unlike a standard Knockout (KO), where a fighter fails to stand up before the referee's count of ten, a TKO is a proactive measure taken to ensure the athlete's long-term health and safety.

Additional Information

• Technical Keep Out:
• This is an incorrect term and does not exist in the official rules or terminology of boxing or any recognized combat sport.
• It is likely used as a distractor because it shares the same first word as the correct answer.
• Total Knockout:
• While "Total" might imply a complete defeat, it is not the official technical term used by boxing commissions or governing bodies.
• The term "Technical" is preferred because the stoppage is based on a technical assessment of the fighter's condition rather than a physical failure to beat a count.
• Time Knockout:
• This is not a recognized term in professional boxing. While time is vital in boxing (rounds, 10-counts, and rest periods), it is never used to define a referee's stoppage decision.

Important Points

• A TKO can also be declared if a ringside physician determines the fighter is unfit to continue due to injury.
• If a fighter's corner "throws in the towel" to stop the fight, it is also officially recorded as a Technical Knockout.
• In some boxing jurisdictions, the "Three-Knockdown Rule" is in effect, where three knockdowns in a single round result in an automatic TKO.
• The primary objective of a TKO is injury prevention, specifically to avoid unnecessary brain trauma when a fighter is clearly outmatched.

The correct answer is 'Public health'

The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States in India is governed by the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. This schedule categorizes subjects into three lists: the Union List (List I), the State List (List II), and the Concurrent List (List III). The Union List contains subjects of national importance where only the Parliament can legislate, while the State List contains subjects of local or state importance where State Legislatures have exclusive power.

Key Points

• Public health:
• Public health and sanitation, including hospitals and dispensaries, fall under Entry 6 of the State List (List II).
• This means that the primary responsibility for organizing health services, maintaining hygiene, and managing medical institutions lies with the State Governments.
• States have the authority to formulate policies and laws tailored to the specific health needs and demographic challenges of their respective regions.
• While the Union government provides funding and national frameworks (like the National Health Mission), the actual implementation and legislative control remain a state subject.

Additional Information

• Atomic energy:
• Atomic energy and mineral resources necessary for its production are listed under Entry 6 of the Union List.
• Due to its critical importance to national security, international relations, and high-tech energy policy, only the Central Government (Parliament) has the power to legislate on this subject.
• Banking:
• Banking is included in the Union List under Entry 45.
• Uniformity in financial regulations, currency management, and the stability of the banking sector across the country necessitates that it be managed at the federal level.
• Citizenship:
• Citizenship, naturalization, and aliens are covered under Entry 17 of the Union List.
• Since citizenship defines the legal identity of an individual in relation to the entire nation, it is a matter of national sovereignty and is handled exclusively by the Parliament.

Important Points

• The legislative division is detailed in Article 246 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Union List originally had 97 subjects (now 100), the State List originally had 66 subjects (now 61), and the Concurrent List originally had 47 subjects (now 52).
• In case of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject in the Concurrent List, the central law generally prevails.
• Residuary powers (subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists) are vested in the Union Parliament as per Article 248.

The correct answer is 'High Court'

Key Points

• High Court as a Court of Record:
• According to Article 215 of the Constitution of India, every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
• As a court of record, the High Court has two main characteristics:
• The judgments, proceedings, and acts of the High Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any subordinate court.
• It has the power to punish for contempt of itself, which includes both civil contempt and criminal contempt.
• This status ensures that the decisions of the High Court serve as legal precedents for the subordinate courts within its jurisdiction.
• The power to punish for contempt is essential to maintain the dignity and authority of the judicial institution.

Additional Information

• District Court:
• District Courts are subordinate to the High Court and function at the district level.
• While they maintain records of their proceedings, they are not constitutionally designated as a 'Court of Record' with the same inherent powers of contempt as the High Court or Supreme Court.
• Their decisions do not carry the same weight of legal precedent across the state as those of the High Court.
• Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the State Executive and not a judicial body.
• The Governor has the power to grant pardons and appoint judges of the district courts in consultation with the High Court, but the office does not function as a court of law or a court of record.
• State Legislature:
• The State Legislature is the law-making body of the state, consisting of the Legislative Assembly and, in some states, the Legislative Council.
• While the legislature has certain privileges and the power to punish for breach of its privileges, it is not a judicial 'Court of Record' responsible for maintaining judicial proceedings or punishing for contempt of court.

Important Points

• Just like the High Court, the Supreme Court of India is also a Court of Record under Article 129 of the Constitution.
• The High Court has the power to review its own decisions, a power that is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but is inherent in its status as a court of record.
• The jurisdiction of a High Court extends to the territorial limits of the state or states/union territories it serves.
• Contempt of court can be Civil (willful disobedience to any judgment or order) or Criminal (publication of matter that scandalizes the court or interferes with judicial proceedings).

DREAM : GUHDP →

Similarly,

NIGHT : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

KEY : NHB →

Similarly,

LOCK : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

a = 4, b = 3

a ! b = 2(a − b)² + 3a − 3

Calculations:

Substitute the values of a and b into the expression:

⇒ 4 ! 3 = 2(4 − 3)² + 3 × 4 − 3

⇒ 4 ! 3 = 2(1)² + 12 − 3

⇒ 4 ! 3 = 2(1) + 9

⇒ 4 ! 3 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 39@21$3#56∗7

<br>

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 39 + 21 × 3 - 56 ÷ 7

⇒ 39 + 21 × 3 - 56 ÷ 7

⇒ 39 + 63 - 56 ÷ 7

⇒ 39 + 63 - 8

⇒ 39 + 63 - 8

⇒ 102 - 8

⇒ 94

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Sum of digits of 105: 1 + 0 + 5 = 6 (Divisible by 3)

Sum of digits of 165: 1 + 6 + 5 = 12 (Divisible by 3)

Sum of digits of 195: 1 + 9 + 5 = 15 (Divisible by 3)

Sum of digits of 205: 2 + 0 + 5 = 7 (Not divisible by 3)

Therefore, 205 is the odd one out because it is the only number in the group that is not divisible by 3 or 15.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Here,

• Lentils, Chickpeas, and Soybeans are commonly classified as pulses/legumes consumed primarily as pulses.

Whereas,

• Peanuts, although botanically a legume, are generally classified and used as an oilseed/nut crop rather than a pulse. 
  

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Given equation: 64 − 8 × 9 ÷ 8 = 64

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) × and −

After interchange:

64 × 8 − 9 ÷ 8 = 64

⇒ 512 − 1.125

⇒ 510.875

Since 510.875 ≠ 64, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) ÷ and ×

After interchange:

64 − 8 ÷ 9 × 8 = 64

⇒ 64 − 8 ÷ 9 × 8

⇒ 64 − 7.111...

⇒ 56.889...

Since 56.889... ≠ 64, this option is incorrect.

Option 3) × and +

There is no + sign in the given equation, so interchange is not possible.

Hence, this option is incorrect.

Option 4) − and +

After interchange:

64 + 8 × 9 ÷ 8 = 64

⇒ 64 + 8 × 9 ÷ 8

⇒ 64 + 9

⇒ 73

Since 73 ≠ 64, this option is incorrect.

Hence, none of the given interchanges makes the equation correct.

Answer: None of the options

Given:

<br>

Let's check each option one by one using BODMAS:

Option 1) 15÷5×2−6+3=28

15 − 5 + 2 × 6 ÷ 3 = 28

⇒ 15 − 5 + 2 × 6 ÷ 3

⇒ 15 − 5 + 12 ÷ 3

⇒ 15 − 5 + 4

⇒ 10 + 4

⇒ 14 ≠ 28 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) 15×5+2−6+3=56.5

15 + 5 ÷ 2 × 6 ÷ 3 = 56.5

⇒ 15 + 5 ÷ 2 × 6 ÷ 3

⇒ 15 + 2.5 × 6 ÷ 3

⇒ 15 + 15 ÷ 3

⇒ 15 + 5

⇒ 20 ≠ 56.5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 15+5−2÷6×3=3

15 ÷ 5 × 2 − 6 + 3 = 3

⇒ 15 ÷ 5 × 2 − 6 + 3

⇒ 3 × 2 − 6 + 3

⇒ 6 − 6 + 3

⇒ 0 + 3

⇒ 3 = 3 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 15−5+2×6÷3=43

15 × 5 ÷ 2 + 6 − 3 = 43

⇒ 15 × 5 ÷ 2 + 6 − 3

⇒ 75 ÷ 2 + 6 − 3

⇒ 37.5 + 6 − 3

⇒ 43.5 − 3

⇒ 40.5 ≠ 43 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

<br> <br>

'N' is coded as '28',

'G' is coded as '14',

'V' is coded as '44' 

'DUST' in the same coded language,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

BAT is coded as 2012 →

Similarly,

let's find the code for GATE:

Therefore, the code for 'GATE' is 52017.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

'OVERLAY' is written as 'YALREVO'.

Similarly,

'MOBILE' in that code language,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

P - 2 = N

N - 2 = L

L - 2 = J

J - 2 = H

H - 2 = F

F - 2 = D

D - 2 = B

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

10 × 2 = 20

20 × 3 = 60

60 × 2 = 120

120 × 3 = 360

360 × 2 = 720

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

JLNP : OQSU

Similarly,

SIRT : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is :

A "Bird" lives in a "Nest".

Similarly,

A "Bee" lives in a "Hive".

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

Additional Information 

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

There is no common face in both designs of dice.

Any of the face from dice 1 is opposite to any of the face from dice 2.

So,

Element can be on opposite surface of the surface having 1 is 4 or 5 or 6.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of 10 books = ₹250

Number of books to find CP for = 18

Formula used:

Cost of n items = (Total Cost ÷ Total Quantity) × n

⇒ Cost of 1 book = 250 ÷ 10

⇒ Cost of 1 book = ₹25

⇒ Cost of 18 books = 18 × 25

⇒ Cost of 18 books = ₹450

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

<br>

We need to check which equation is correct by replacing the symbols and applying BODMAS.

Option 1) 3 W 3 X 3 Y 3 = 41

3 + 3 - 3 × 3 = 41

⇒ 3 + 3 - 3 × 3

⇒ 3 + 3 - 9

⇒ 6 - 9

⇒ -3 ≠ 41

Since LHS ≠ RHS, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) 9 Y 8 X 7 Z 9 = 17

9 × 8 - 7 ÷ 9 = 17

⇒ 9 × 8 - 7 ÷ 9

⇒ 72 - 0.78

⇒ 71.22 ≠ 17

Since LHS ≠ RHS, this option is incorrect.

Option 3) 8 X 6 Z 4 Y 3 = 15

8 - 6 ÷ 4 × 3 = 15

⇒ 8 - 6 ÷ 4 × 3

⇒ 8 - 1.5 × 3

⇒ 8 - 1.5 × 3

⇒ 8 - 4.5

⇒ 3.5 ≠ 15

Since LHS ≠ RHS, this option is incorrect.

Option 4) 6 W 7 X 9 Y 8 = -59

6 + 7 - 9 × 8 = -59

⇒ 6 + 7 - 9 × 8

⇒ 6 + 7 - 72

⇒ 13 - 72

⇒ -59 = -59

Since LHS = RHS, this option is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

From both the positions,

9 and 10 are common in both positions.

Remaining, 12 is opposite to 8.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: p_qqp_ _q_ppq_qp

(1) q, p, q, p, q → pqqqp/ pqqpp/ pqqqp (Does not repeat any pattern).

(2) q, p, q, q, q → pqqqp/ pqqqp/ pqqqp (Follow pattern "pqqqp")

(3) p, q, p, p, q → ppqqp/ qpqpp/ pqqqp (Does not repeat any pattern)

(4) p, p, q, q, p → ppqqp/ pqqqp/ pqpqp (Does not repeat any pattern)

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Shortcut Trick

The average of 4 scores is 10, so the net deviation from this average must be zero.

Deviations of the three known scores: (6 − 10) = −4; (9 − 10) = −1; (11 − 10) = +1.

Sum of these deviations = −4 − 1 + 1 = −4.

To balance this, the fourth score must have a deviation of +4.

Fourth score = 10 + 4 = 14.

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given: Average = 10, Total observations (n) = 4, Known scores = 6, 9, 11.

Formula Used: Total Sum = Average × Number of observations

⇒ Total sum of 4 scores = 10 × 4 = 40

⇒ Sum of three known scores = 6 + 9 + 11 = 26

⇒ Let the fourth score be x.

⇒ 26 + x = 40

⇒ x = 40 − 26

⇒ x = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

Properties of Averages

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant k, the new average also increases or decreases by k.

Weighted Average

The combined average of two groups is given by (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n and x represent size and average respectively.

Net Deviation Rule

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always equal to zero.

Shortcut Trick

The Selling Price (SP) is calculated by subtracting the Discount from the Marked Price (MP).

Direct Calculation: SP = 50 − 5 = 45.

∴ The correct answer is ₹45.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Marked Price (MP) of the notebook = ₹50

⇒ Flat Discount allowed = ₹5

Formula Used:

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) − Discount

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price = 50 − 5

⇒ Selling Price = 45

The shopkeeper sells the notebook for ₹45 after reducing the marked price by the discount amount.

∴ The correct answer is ₹45.

Additional Information

Discount Percentage

It is the discount expressed as a percentage of the Marked Price: Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Marked Price (MP)

Also known as the List Price or Tag Price, it is the price printed on the item before any discounts are applied.

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are given one after another, the net discount is calculated on the reducing balance or using the formula: a + b − (ab ÷ 100).

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula for the difference between Circumference and Diameter: 2r(π − 1) = Difference.

2r(22/7 − 1) = 44 ⇒ 2r(15/7) = 44.

r = (44 × 7) / 30 = 308 / 30 ≈ 10.27 cm.

Rounding to the nearest option, we get 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is ≈ 10 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference between Circumference and Diameter = 44 cm

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Circumference of a circle = 2πr

Diameter of a circle = 2r

Calculations:

⇒ Circumference − Diameter = 44

⇒ 2πr − 2r = 44

⇒ 2r(π − 1) = 44

⇒ 2r(22/7 − 1) = 44

⇒ 2r((22 − 7) / 7) = 44

⇒ 2r(15/7) = 44

⇒ 30r / 7 = 44

⇒ 30r = 44 × 7

⇒ 30r = 308

⇒ r = 308 / 30

⇒ r = 10.266... cm

⇒ r ≈ 10.27 cm

Rounding to the nearest integer as per the options provided, the Radius is approximately 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is ≈ 10 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Circle

The total space enclosed within the boundary of a circle is called its Area, calculated as A = πr².

Relationship between C and D

The ratio of the Circumference to the Diameter of any circle is always a constant called π (π = C/D).

Semi-Circle Perimeter

The perimeter of a semi-circle is not just half the circumference, but includes the diameter: Perimeter = πr + 2r.

Shortcut Trick

If the discount is 30%, the Selling Price (SP) is simply 70% of the Marked Price (MP).

SP = (100 − 30)% of 900

SP = 70% × 900 = 0.7 × 900

SP = 630

∴ The correct answer is ₹630.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹900

Discount Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = (Discount% ÷ 100) × Marked Price

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price − Discount Amount

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = (30 ÷ 100) × 900

⇒ Discount Amount = 0.3 × 900 = ₹270

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 900 − 270

⇒ SP = ₹630

∴ The correct answer is ₹630.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Selling Price

Marked Price (MP) is the price printed on an item. The Selling Price (SP) is the actual amount after deducting the discount from the MP.

Discount Percentage Formula

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100. Always remember that discount is calculated on the Marked Price.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the Equivalent Discount = [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

Shortcut Trick

The relationship between Speed, Time, and Distance is direct.

Distance = Speed × Time

Distance = 12 km/h × 5 hr = 60 km

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average Speed of the cycle = 12 km/h

Total Time spent cycling = 5 hr

Formula Used:

Total Distance = Average Speed × Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Distance = 12 × 5

⇒ Distance = 60 km

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Additional Information

Basic Distance Formula

The distance traveled is the product of speed and time: D = S × T. Similarly, Speed = D/T and Time = D/S.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

Average speed is defined as the Total Distance divided by the Total Time taken for the entire journey.

Shortcut Trick

Increase = 450 − 400 = 50.

Ratio of Increase to Original = 50 / 400 = 1 / 8.

Since 1 / 8 is equivalent to 12.5%, the percentage increase is 12.5%.

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial marks = 400

Final marks = 450

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = [(New Value − Old Value) / Old Value] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Actual Increase = 450 − 400 = 50

⇒ Percentage Increase = (50 / 400) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = (1 / 8) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Formula

The percentage change is calculated as (Change / Original Value) × 100. It is positive for an increase and negative for a decrease.

Common Fractional Conversions

Memorizing common fractions helps in speed: 1/4 = 25%, 1/5 = 20%, 1/8 = 12.5%, 1/10 = 10%, 1/12 = 8.33%.

Base Value Importance

Always ensure the Initial Value (the value before the change) is used in the denominator when calculating percentage growth.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit to Cost Price = 120 : 600

⇒ Profit : CP = 1 : 5

Fractional conversion: 1/5 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹600

Profit = ₹120

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit % = (120 ÷ 600) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Selling Price Formula

Selling Price (SP) can be calculated as CP + Profit or CP − Loss.

Loss Percentage

Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Note that both profit and loss are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise.

Profit in terms of SP and CP

Profit = SP − CP. If SP > CP, the trader makes a profit; if CP > SP, the trader incurs a loss.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of Car = 180 ÷ 3 = 60 km/h.

Given Speed Ratio (Car : Bus) = 3 : 2.

Since 3 units = 60 km/h, then 1 unit = 20 km/h.

Bus Speed = 2 units = 40 km/h.

Distance covered by Bus in 2 hr = 40 × 2 = 80 km.

∴ The correct answer is 80 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed Ratio (Car : Bus) = 3 : 2

Distance (Car) = 180 km, Time (Car) = 3 hr

Time (Bus) = 2 hr

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of Car = 180 ÷ 3

⇒ Speed of Car = 60 km/h

⇒ According to ratio, 3x = 60

⇒ x = 20

⇒ Speed of Bus = 2x = 2 × 20 = 40 km/h

⇒ Distance covered by Bus = Speed_Bus × Time

⇒ Distance = 40 × 2

⇒ Distance = 80 km

∴ The correct answer is 80 km.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance Relation

When Time is constant, Distance is directly proportional to Speed (D₁/D₂ = S₁/S₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18.

Average Speed

If a body travels two equal distances at speeds x and y, the Average Speed = 2xy / (x + y).

Shortcut Trick

Distance in meters = 2.7 × 1000 = 2700 m

Time = Total Distance ÷ Speed

Time = 2700 ÷ 90 = 30 min

∴ The correct answer is 30 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the person = 90 m/min

Total Distance to walk = 2.7 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Distance = 2.7 × 1000 meters

⇒ Distance = 2700 m

⇒ Time = 2700 ÷ 90

⇒ Time = 30 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 30 min.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert kilometers to meters, multiply by 1000 (1 km = 1000 m). To convert hours to minutes, multiply by 60.

Speed-Distance-Time Triangle

The core relationship is Distance = Speed × Time. From this, Speed = Distance ÷ Time and Time = Distance ÷ Speed.

Speed Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Product of ratio parts: 2 × 3 = 6 units².

Area calculation: 6 units² = 150 ⇒ 1 unit² = 25 ⇒ 1 unit = 5 cm.

Rectangle sides: 2 × 5 = 10 cm and 3 × 5 = 15 cm.

Triangle sides: 10, √150 = 5√6, and 15 ÷ 2 = 7.5.

Perimeter: 10 + 7.5 + 5√6 = 17.5 + 5√6 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 + 5√6 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area = 150 cm², Side Ratio = 2 : 3.

Formula Used: Area of Rectangle = Length × Breadth; Perimeter of Triangle = Sum of all sides.

Let the sides of the rectangle be 2x and 3x.

⇒ Area = 2x × 3x = 6x²

⇒ 6x² = 150

⇒ x² = 25 ⇒ x = 5 cm

⇒ Smaller side = 2 × 5 = 10 cm

⇒ Larger side = 3 × 5 = 15 cm

Triangle sides construction:

⇒ Side 1 = Smaller side = 10 cm

⇒ Side 2 = Square root of area = √150 = √(25 × 6) = 5√6 cm

⇒ Side 3 = Half of larger side = 15 ÷ 2 = 7.5 cm

⇒ Perimeter of the triangle = 10 + 5√6 + 7.5

⇒ Perimeter = 17.5 + 5√6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 + 5√6 cm.

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Rectangle

The total distance around the rectangle is given by 2 × (Length + Breadth).

Heron's Formula for Triangle Area

For a triangle with sides a, b, and c, Area = √(s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)), where s = (a+b+c)/2.

Relationship between Square and Rectangle

For a given perimeter, a square has a larger area than any other rectangle.

Pythagorean Triplets

If a triangle is right-angled, its sides satisfy a² + b² = c², such as 3-4-5 or 5-12-13.

Shortcut Trick

The Area of a square can be directly calculated from its diagonal using the formula: Area = (Diagonal²) ÷ 2.

Given Diagonal = 10√2 cm.

Area = (10√2)² ÷ 2

Area = (100 × 2) ÷ 2 = 100 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Diagonal of the square = 10√2 cm

Formula Used:

⇒ Diagonal of a square = Side × √2

⇒ Area of a square = Side²

Calculations:

⇒ 10√2 = Side × √2

⇒ Side (s) = 10 cm

⇒ Area = (10 cm)²

⇒ Area = 100 cm²

⇒ Thus, the result matches Option (2).

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm².

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Square

The total boundary length of a square is given by the formula Perimeter = 4 × side.

Diagonal Property

The diagonal of a square is the longest line segment connecting two opposite vertices, equal to s√2.

Area in terms of Diagonal

The Area can also be expressed as (d²)/2, which is useful when the side length is not directly known.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of sides = 3 : 3 : 2 (since the triangle is isosceles).

Total perimeter units = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8 units.

8 units = 32 cm ⇒ 1 unit = 4 cm.

Sides are 12 cm, 12 cm and base is 8 cm.

Area = (Base/4) × √(4×Side² − Base²) = (8/4) × √(4×144 − 64) = 2 × √512 ≈ 45.25 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 45.25 cm².

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter of triangle = 32 cm, Ratio of equal sides to base = 3 : 2.

Formula Used: Area = 1/2 × Base × Height; Height (h) = √(Side² − (Base/2)²).

⇒ Let the equal sides be 3x and the base be 2x.

⇒ Perimeter = 3x + 3x + 2x = 8x.

⇒ 8x = 32 ⇒ x = 4.

⇒ Equal sides (a) = 3 × 4 = 12 cm; Base (b) = 2 × 4 = 8 cm.

⇒ Height (h) = √(12² − (8/2)²) = √(144 − 16) = √128 = 8√2 cm.

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 8 × 8√2 = 32 × 1.4142 ≈ 45.2544 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 45.25 cm².

Additional Information

Heron's Formula

Used to find the area of any triangle when all sides (a, b, c) are known: Area = √(s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)), where s = (a+b+c)/2.

Isosceles Triangle Properties

An isosceles triangle has two equal sides and two equal base angles. The altitude from the vertex bisects the base at a right angle.

Area of Isosceles Triangle

The specific formula for the area is (b/4) × √(4a² − b²), where 'a' is the length of equal sides and 'b' is the base.

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 12, 18, 24) = 72 units.

Efficiencies: A = 6, B = 4, C = 3 (Total = 13 units/day).

Work done in first 4 days = 13 × 4 = 52 units.

Remaining work = 72 − 52 = 20 units.

Additional days for A and B = 20 ÷ (6 + 4) = 2 days.

∴ The correct answer is 2 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A takes 12 days, B takes 18 days, and C takes 24 days. C leaves after 4 days.

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of A + B + C = 6 + 4 + 3 = 13 units/day

⇒ Work completed in 4 days = 13 × 4 = 52 units

⇒ Remaining work = Total work − Completed work = 72 − 52 = 20 units

⇒ Efficiency of A + B = 6 + 4 = 10 units/day

⇒ Additional days required = Remaining work ÷ (Efficiency of A + B)

⇒ Additional days = 20 ÷ 10 = 2 days

∴ The correct answer is 2 days.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to Time and Work, but inlet pipes have positive efficiency and outlet (leakage) pipes have negative efficiency.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done or the efficiency ratio (if time is same).

Alternate Day Work

Calculate the total work done in one complete cycle (e.g., 2 days or 3 days) and then find the nearest multiple to the total work.

Shortcut Trick

To find the Ratio P : Q : R from 8P = 4Q = 2R, find the LCM of coefficients (8, 4, 2).

LCM of 8, 4, and 2 is 8.

Divide the LCM by each coefficient: P = 8/8, Q = 8/4, R = 8/2.

P : Q : R = 1 : 2 : 4.

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 2 : 4.

Alternate Method

Given: 8P = 4Q = 2R

Formula Used: If aP = bQ = cR, then P : Q : R = (1/a) : (1/b) : (1/c)

Let 8P = 4Q = 2R = k (where k is a constant)

⇒ 8P = k → P = k/8

⇒ 4Q = k → Q = k/4

⇒ 2R = k → R = k/2

⇒ P : Q : R = (k/8) : (k/4) : (k/2)

⇒ P : Q : R = 1/8 : 1/4 : 1/2

⇒ To remove fractions, multiply by the LCM of denominators (8, 4, 2) which is 8:

⇒ P : Q : R = (1/8 × 8) : (1/4 × 8) : (1/2 × 8)

⇒ P : Q : R = 1 : 2 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 2 : 4.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion in Ratios

When terms are related by multiplication (aP = bQ), their Ratio is the Inverse of their coefficients. Larger coefficients result in smaller ratio parts.

Ratio Simplification Rule

A Ratio remains unchanged if all its terms are multiplied or divided by the same non-zero quantity.

Continued Proportion

If P/Q = Q/R, then P, Q, and R are in Continued Proportion, and Q² = P × R.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of bicycle = 180 ÷ 15 = 12 km/hr

Speed of moped = 250% of 12 = 12 × 2.5 = 30 km/hr

Distance covered by moped in 2.5 hr = 30 × 2.5 = 75 km

∴ The correct answer is 75 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance covered by bicycle = 180 km

Time taken by bicycle = 15 hr

Ratio of speed of moped to bicycle = 250 : 100 = 2.5 : 1

Time taken by moped = 2¹/₂ hr = 2.5 hr

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Bicycle Speed = 180 ÷ 15 = 12 km/hr

⇒ Moped Speed = (250 ÷ 100) × 12

⇒ Moped Speed = 2.5 × 12 = 30 km/hr

⇒ Distance covered by moped = 30 km/hr × 2.5 hr

⇒ Distance = 75 km

∴ The correct answer is 75 km.

Additional Information

Speed, Distance, and Time Relation

The fundamental relation is Distance = Speed × Time. If speed is constant, distance is directly proportional to time.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Percentage Change in Speed

If speed increases by x%, the new speed is Initial Speed × (100 + x)/100. Here, 250% of the speed means a 150% increase.