Delhi Police Constable (Executive) (Held On: 22 Dec, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi, born as Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi on October 2, 1869, is widely revered as the Father of the Nation in India for his monumental contribution to the freedom struggle.
• The title was first conferred upon him by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose during a radio address from Singapore on July 6, 1944, while seeking his blessings for the Azad Hind Fauj.
• He pioneered the philosophy of Satyagraha (truth-force) and Ahimsa (non-violence), leading mass movements such as the Champaran Satyagraha (1917), the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920), and the Dandi March (1930).
• His leadership in the Quit India Movement of 1942 was a decisive factor that accelerated the end of British Colonial Rule in the Indian subcontinent.
• After his assassination on January 30, 1948, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru addressed the nation, reinforcing his status by stating that the 'light has gone out of our lives'.

 Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• He was the first Prime Minister of independent India and a central figure in the Indian National Congress.
• Popularly known as Chacha Nehru, he laid the foundation for India's parliamentary democracy and secularism.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Known as the Iron Man of India, he served as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister.
• He is credited with the political integration of over 562 princely states into the Indian Union post-1947.
• Bhagat Singh:
• A prominent revolutionary socialist who became a martyr at the age of 23.
• He is famous for his role in the 1929 Central Legislative Assembly bombing and his membership in the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).

The correct answer is 31%.

Key Points

• According to the 15th National Census of India conducted in 2011, the total population of the country was approximately 121.02 crore (1.21 billion).
• The urban population was recorded at 37.71 crore, which constitutes 31.16% of the total population. Thus, 31% is the closest approximate value.
• The rural population stood at 83.31 crore, representing 68.84% of the total Indian populace.
• Between the 2001 Census and the 2011 Census, the percentage of the urban population increased from 27.81% to 31.16%, showing a growth of 3.35 percentage points.
• The decadal growth rate of the urban population during 2001−2011 was 31.8%, which was significantly higher than the rural decadal growth rate of 12.3%.
• The data highlights a steady trend of urbanization driven by rural-to-urban migration and the expansion of census towns across various states.

 Additional Information

• Regional Urbanization Statistics:
• Goa is the most urbanized state in India, with 62.17% of its population residing in urban areas.
• Among the larger states, Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized with 48.4%, followed by Kerala (47.7%) and Maharashtra (45.2%).
• In terms of absolute numbers, Maharashtra has the highest urban population in the country with 5.08 crore people.
• Himachal Pradesh has the lowest proportion of urban population at 10.03%, followed by Bihar at 11.3%.
• Among Union Territories, the NCT of Delhi and Chandigarh are the most urbanized, with 97.5% and 97.25% urban population respectively.

The correct answer is Gyanendra Pratap Singh.

Key Points

• In January 2025, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved the appointment of senior IPS officer Gyanendra Pratap Singh (popularly known as G.P. Singh) as the Director General (DG) of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
• Gyanendra Pratap Singh is a highly decorated officer of the 1991 batch from the Assam-Meghalaya cadre.
• Prior to this central deputation, he served as the Director General of Police (DGP) of Assam, where he was instrumental in maintaining law and order and overseeing counter-insurgency operations in the North-East region.
• The Director General is the highest-ranking officer in the CRPF, responsible for the overall administration and operational effectiveness of the force across India.
• His appointment follows the tenure of Anish Dayal Singh, who held the additional and subsequent full charge of the force after the retirement of previous incumbents.

 Additional Information

• Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF):
• It is the largest of India's Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• The force was originally raised as the Crown Representative's Police on July 27, 1939, and became the CRPF upon the enactment of the CRPF Act in 1949.
• Its primary roles include internal security, anti-Naxal operations, and assisting states in maintaining public order during elections or civil unrest.
• Anish Dayal Singh:
• A 1988 batch IPS officer of the Manipur cadre, he served as the Director General of both the ITBP and the CRPF before the transition in leadership in early 2025.
• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC):
• This high-level committee, headed by the Prime Minister of India, decides on top-level appointments in the Government of India and Central Armed Police Forces.

The correct answer is Dandiya Raas.

Key Points

• Dandiya Raas is a vibrant and rhythmic folk dance originating from the state of Gujarat, primarily performed during the Navratri festival.
• The dance is a symbolic representation of a mock-fight between Goddess Durga and the demon king Mahishasura, where the sticks represent the swords of the Goddess.
• It is deeply rooted in the Vaishnava tradition and is celebrated as a re-enactment of the Raas Leela, the playful dance of Lord Krishna with the Gopis in the forests of Vrindavan.
• Performers use polished wooden sticks (dandiyas) to strike against their partners' sticks in a synchronized, circular movement following complex rhythmic beats.
• Participants typically wear traditional attire such as Chaniya Choli for women and colorful Kedia and Turbans for men.

 Additional Information

• Garba:
• Another prominent dance from Gujarat performed during Navratri.
• It is performed in a circular motion around a Garbha Deep (earthen lamp) or an image of Shakti, involving rhythmic clapping and snapping of fingers rather than sticks.
• Bihu:
• The most popular folk dance of Assam, performed during the Bihu festivals (especially Bohag Bihu).
• It is characterized by rapid hand movements, brisk steps, and rhythmic hip swaying, accompanied by instruments like the Dhol and Pepa.
• Gidda:
• A high-spirited folk dance from Punjab performed exclusively by women during festive occasions like Teeyan or weddings.
• It involves the singing of short folk poems called Boliyaan and rhythmic clapping while dancing in a circle.

The correct answer is Teej.

Key Points

• In Maharashtra, the festival of Teej is primarily observed as Hartalika Teej, which falls on the third day (Tritiya) of the Shukla Paksha in the Hindu month of Bhadrapada.
• The festival is dedicated to Goddess Parvati and commemorates her intense penance to win Lord Shiva as her husband, symbolizing the ultimate pursuit of marital bliss.
• Married women in Maharashtra observe a rigorous Nirjala Vrat (fasting without water) to pray for the long life and prosperity of their husbands, while unmarried women seek a virtuous life partner.
• The rituals involve creating small idols of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati using clay or sand, which are then worshipped during a special evening Puja with offerings of fresh fruits and flowers.
• The festival is culturally significant as it marks the reunion of Shiva and Parvati, serving as a spiritual foundation for the Ganesh Chaturthi celebrations that begin the following day.

 Additional Information

• Gudi Padwa
• It marks the Marathi New Year and is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra.
• The festival signifies the victory of King Shalivahana and the beginning of the Shalivahana Shaka.
• Ganesh Chaturthi
• This is the most popular festival in Maharashtra, honoring the birth of Lord Ganesha, the deity of wisdom and new beginnings.
• It involves the installation of Ganesha idols in homes and public Pandals, concluding with a grand immersion process (Visarjan).
• Makar Sankranti
• A harvest festival dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), marking the sun's entry into the Makara (Capricorn) zodiac sign.
• In Maharashtra, it is celebrated by exchanging Til-Gul (sesame and jaggery) sweets to promote harmony and friendship.

Therefore, Teej (Hartalika) is the correct festival associated with the worship of Goddess Parvati for marital bliss in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Raja Parba.

Key Points

• Raja Parba is a unique three-day-long festival celebrated in Odisha that honors womanhood and the menstruation of Mother Earth (Bhudevi).
• The festival is based on the belief that during these three days, the Earth undergoes her menstrual cycle, preparing for the upcoming agricultural season following the first monsoon showers.
• The celebration spans three specific days: the first day is Pahila Raja, the second is Mithuna Sankranti (the Raja day), and the third is Bhu Daha or Sesha Raja.
• Young girls, known as Raja Jhias, are the center of the festivities; they wear new clothes, apply Alata on their feet, and enjoy various types of swings (Doli) like the Ram Doli and Chakri Doli while singing folk songs.
• To respect the resting Earth, all agricultural activities such as ploughing, digging, or cutting trees are strictly forbidden, and participants often avoid walking barefoot.
• The festival concludes on the fourth day with Vasumati Gadhua, where the Bhudevi (represented by a grinding stone) is given a ceremonial bath with turmeric paste and decorated with flowers.

 Additional Information

• Pana Sankranti:
• Also known as Maha Bishuba Sankranti, it marks the Odia New Year and the beginning of the solar month of Mesha.
• A special ritual drink called Pana, made from wood apple (Bael), milk, and yogurt, is consumed to mark the occasion.
• Durga Puja:
• A major festival celebrated in the month of Ashvin, symbolizing the victory of Goddess Durga over the buffalo demon Mahishasura.
• In Odisha, it is marked by the installation of massive clay idols in Pandals and the celebration of Sodasa Upachara.
• Holi:
• Commonly known as the Festival of Colors, it celebrates the end of winter and the triumph of good over evil, associated with the legend of Prahlada and Holika.

The correct answer is Anita Desai.

Key Points

• Anita Desai is an eminent Indian novelist who has been shortlisted for the Booker Prize three times, and Clear Light of Day, published in 1980, is frequently cited as her most autobiographical work.
• The novel is set in Old Delhi and meticulously chronicles the life of the Das family, focusing on the tensions and memories shared between siblings Bimla (Bim), Tara, Raja, and Baba.
• It uses the historical trauma of the 1947 Partition of India as a backdrop to explore the theme of internal family divisions and the lingering psychological impact of national upheaval on personal identity.
• The narrative structure relies heavily on flashbacks and memory, moving from the characters' adulthood back to their childhood during the final years of the British Raj.
• Desai emphasizes the stagnation of the house in Delhi compared to the changing world outside, using it as a symbol for the characters' inability to escape the ghosts of their shared past.

 Additional Information

• Kamala Markandaya:
• She was a pen name for Kamala Purnaiya Taylor, a journalist and author known for portraying the struggle between traditional Indian values and Western urbanity.
• Her debut novel, Nectar in a Sieve (1954), is a classic of Indian English Literature that details the life of a peasant woman facing industrialization.
• Shashi Deshpande:
• A winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award, she is celebrated for her realistic depictions of the inner worlds of Indian women.
• Her famous novel That Long Silence (1989) examines the stifling domesticity and the quest for self-expression within a middle-class Indian marriage.
• Manju Kapur:
• An academic and author whose debut work Difficult Daughters (1998) is also set against the Partition era.
• The novel won the Commonwealth Writers' Prize (Eurasia Region) and explores themes of female education and rebellion against patriarchal family structures.

The correct answer is Digboi, Assam.

Key Points

• Digboi is historically significant as the site of the first commercial oil discovery in India and is often referred to as the Oil City of Assam.
• The drilling for oil at Digboi commenced in 1889, making it the oldest operational oil field in Asia and one of the oldest in the world.
• Oil was successfully struck at a depth of 178 feet on November 19, 1889, by the Assam Railways and Trading Company.
• To manage the production and refining process, the Assam Oil Company was established in 1899, leading to the commissioning of the Digboi Refinery in 1901.
• The Digboi Oil Field marked the beginning of the organized petroleum industry in the Indian subcontinent, preceding discoveries in other major basins by several decades.

 Additional Information

• Mumbai High:
• Located in the Arabian Sea, approximately 160 km off the coast of Mumbai.
• It was discovered in 1974 and started production in 1976; while it is India's largest oil field, it is much younger than Digboi.
• Ankleshwar, Gujarat:
• This onshore field was discovered in 1958 and is part of the Cambay Basin.
• It was the first major oil find in Western India post-independence.
• KG Basin:
• The Krishna-Godavari Basin is located on the East Coast of India.
• It is renowned for its vast natural gas reserves and deep-water oil discoveries made in the early 2000s.

The correct answer is Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years).

Key Points

• The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme was launched by the Prime Minister on 22nd January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana, specifically to address the critical decline in the Child Sex Ratio (CSR).
• The Child Sex Ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the age group of 0 to 6 years, serving as a vital indicator of gender discrimination and the status of women in society.
• Data from the 2011 Census revealed a worrying trend where the CSR had dropped to 919 girls per 1000 boys, showing a continuous decline from 945 in 1991 and 927 in 2001.
• The campaign is a coordinated tri-ministerial effort involving the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education (formerly HRD).
• The primary objectives include the prevention of gender-biased sex-selective elimination, ensuring the survival and protection of the girl child, and advocating for her education and participation in all spheres of life.

 Additional Information

• Demographic Indicators in India:
• Overall Literacy: Refers to the percentage of the population aged 7 and above who can read and write; while BBBP promotes education, its primary demographic trigger was the birth ratio.
• Adult Sex Ratio: This measures the number of females per 1000 males in the total population. According to the 2011 Census, India's national sex ratio stood at 943.
• Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR): This tracks the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. Improving MMR is the focus of other health initiatives like the Janani Suraksha Yojana.
• PC&PNDT Act, 1994: The BBBP campaign works in tandem with the strict enforcement of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act to prohibit illegal sex determination.

The correct answer is Colombo Security Conclave.

Key Points

• The Trilateral Maritime Security Cooperation was first initiated in 2011 following a meeting between the National Security Advisers (NSAs) of India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
• The cooperation mechanism was revitalized and officially formalized as the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) during the 4th NSA-level meeting held in Colombo in November 2020.
• The CSC aims to institutionalize cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) to address shared security concerns such as maritime safety, terrorism, and trafficking.
• In March 2022, during the 5th NSA-level meeting in Male, Mauritius was officially admitted as the fourth member of the conclave, while Bangladesh and Seychelles attended as observers.
• The group has established five pillars of cooperation: Maritime Safety and Security, Counter-Terrorism and Radicalization, Combating Trafficking and Transnational Organized Crime, Cyber Security and Protection of Critical Infrastructure, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR).
• The Permanent Secretariat of the Colombo Security Conclave is established in Colombo, Sri Lanka, to coordinate activities and implementation of decisions.

 Additional Information

• SAGAR Vision:
• Launched in 2015, it stands for Security and Growth for All in the Region and serves as India's strategic policy framework for the Indian Ocean.
• It focuses on promoting a Blue Economy, enhancing maritime connectivity, and ensuring a rules-based international order in the IOR.
• Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
• Initiated by the Indian Navy in 2008, it is a voluntary initiative that brings together the navies of littoral states of the Indian Ocean.
• It serves as a consultative forum to increase maritime cooperation and address non-traditional security threats like piracy.
• SAARC Convention:
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in 1985 in Dhaka to promote regional economic integration.
• While it includes a Convention on Suppression of Terrorism, it is not specifically designed as a trilateral maritime security mechanism.

The correct answer is Art 19 to 22.

Key Points

• The Right to Freedom is a fundamental pillar of Indian democracy, enshrined in Articles 19, 20, 21, and 22 under Part III of the Constitution of India.
• Article 19 guarantees six specific democratic freedoms to all citizens: freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations or unions, free movement throughout India, residing in any part of the country, and practicing any profession or occupation.
• Article 20 provides vital safeguards regarding conviction for offences, protecting individuals against ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy (punishment for the same offence twice), and self-incrimination.
• Article 21 is the cornerstone of individual liberty, declaring that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• Article 21A, inserted via the 86th Amendment Act of 2002, mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years as a fundamental right.
• Article 22 grants protection against arbitrary arrest and detention, ensuring that a person is informed of the grounds of arrest and produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.

 Additional Information

• Art 5 to 11:
• These articles define the provisions related to Citizenship in India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution.
• They empower the Parliament of India to regulate the right of citizenship by law, leading to the enactment of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• Art 1 to 4:
• Contained in Part I, these articles describe the Union and its Territory.
• Article 1 famously defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States rather than a federation of states.
• Art 36 to 51:
• These constitute the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV.
• Borrowed from the Irish Constitution, these principles are non-justiciable but fundamental in the governance of the country to achieve social and economic justice.

The correct answer is Art-226.

Key Points

• Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (guaranteed by Part III) and for any other purpose.
• The phrase any other purpose implies that the High Courts can also issue writs for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights, making their writ jurisdiction broader than that of the Supreme Court.
• The High Courts can issue five types of prerogative writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• This power under Article 226 is discretionary in nature, and the High Court may refuse to exercise it if an adequate alternative remedy is available to the petitioner.
• The Supreme Court has ruled in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997) that the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

 Additional Information

• Art-32:
• Commonly known as the Right to Constitutional Remedies, it allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the Heart and Soul of the Constitution.
• Art-125:
• This article specifies the salaries, allowances, and other privileges of the Judges of the Supreme Court.
• These financial provisions are determined by the Parliament and cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment, except during a Financial Emergency.
• Art-20:
• Provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether a citizen or a foreigner.
• It encompasses three protections: No ex-post-facto law, No double jeopardy, and No self-incrimination.

The correct answer is Arid soil.

Key Points

• Arid soils are typically found in regions characterized by dry climates, high temperatures, and low rainfall, such as Western Rajasthan in India.
• The absence of moisture in these soils is primarily due to the high rate of evaporation, which exceeds the rate of precipitation, leaving the soil dry and parched.
• These soils generally exhibit a sandy texture and are often saline in nature; in some extreme cases, the salt content is so high that common salt is produced by evaporating the water from saline pockets.
• A characteristic feature of the arid soil profile is the presence of Kankar (calcium carbonate nodules) in the lower horizons, which increases with depth and inhibits the infiltration of water.
• Due to the lack of vegetation and rapid decomposition of organic matter in heat, arid soils are significantly deficient in humus and nitrogen, requiring intensive irrigation and fertilizers for cultivation.

 Additional Information

• Red soil:
• Developed on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall; its red color is derived from the diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
• Laterite soil:
• Formed in tropical and subtropical regions with heavy seasonal rainfall; it is the result of intense leaching and is typically rich in iron and aluminum but poor in organic matter.
• Black soil:
• Commonly known as Regur soil, it is famous for its high clay content and exceptional moisture-retention capacity, making it ideal for cotton cultivation in the Deccan Trap.

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

Key Points

• The second edition of Udyog Samagam 2025 was addressed by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Piyush Goyal, who served as the chief speaker for the event.
• During the address, the minister focused on the roadmap for Viksit Bharat 2047, emphasizing the critical role of the manufacturing sector in transforming India into a developed nation.
• He highlighted the importance of the Make in India initiative and how it has completed a decade of fostering innovation and enhancing Self-Reliant India (Atmanirbhar Bharat).
• The summit serves as a platform for industry leaders, MSMEs, and policymakers to discuss the integration of Indian industries into the Global Value Chains.
• Key themes of his speech included improving the Ease of Doing Business, reducing compliance burdens, and promoting digital transformation across various industrial sectors.

 Additional Information

• Hardeep Singh Puri:
• Currently serves as the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• He is instrumental in overseeing India's energy transition and urban development initiatives like the Smart Cities Mission.
• Dharmendra Pradhan:
• Holds the portfolio of Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
• He leads the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to create a future-ready workforce.
• Rajnath Singh:
• Serves as the Union Minister for Defence.
• His focus is on achieving indigenization in defense production and strengthening India's national security framework.

The correct answer is Rekha Gupta.

Key Points

• In a significant political shift in the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, Rekha Gupta was sworn in as the Chief Minister in February 2025.
• This transition followed the Delhi Legislative Assembly elections held in early 2025, marking the end of the previous administration's tenure and the beginning of a new leadership phase for the city-state.
• The swearing-in ceremony was administered by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi at Raj Niwas, following the constitutional provisions outlined for the governance of the Union Territory.
• As the Chief Minister, she assumed responsibility for the Council of Ministers and the executive functions of the Government of Delhi, focusing on key administrative and developmental priorities for the capital.

 Additional Information

• Atishi Marlena:
• Served as the Chief Minister of Delhi prior to the 2025 transition, having taken office in September 2024.
• A prominent leader of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP), she previously held various cabinet portfolios, including Education and Finance.
• Swati Maliwal:
• Known for her tenure as the Chairperson of the Delhi Commission for Women (DCW) and later serving as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha.
• Her political career has been characterized by activism related to women's safety and social justice.
• Meenakshi Lekhi:
• A senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) who has served as the Union Minister of State for External Affairs and Culture.
• She represented the New Delhi constituency in the Lok Sabha for multiple terms and is a senior advocate at the Supreme Court of India.

The correct answer is Maha Shivaratri.

Key Points

• Maha Shivaratri is a prominent Hindu festival celebrated annually in honor of Lord Shiva, representing the convergence of Shiva and Shakti.
• It specifically falls on the 14th day (Chaturdashi) of the dark fortnight (Krishna Paksha) in the Hindu month of Phalguna (typically February or March in the Gregorian calendar).
• The festival marks the night when Shiva performed the Tandava (heavenly dance of creation, preservation, and destruction) and is also believed to be the day he married Goddess Parvati.
• Devotees observe a strict fast (Vrata) and participate in an all-night vigil known as Jagaran, chanting Om Namah Shivaya and performing Abhishekam on the Shiva Lingam.
• Offerings of Bael leaves (Bilva Patra), wood apple, and honey are considered highly auspicious during the ritualistic worship conducted across Jyotirlingas and temples.

 Additional Information

• Diwali:
• Commonly known as the Festival of Lights, it occurs on the Amavasya (New Moon) of the month of Kartika.
• It signifies the victory of light over darkness and marks the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya.
• Holi:
• Known as the Festival of Colors, it is celebrated on the Purnima (Full Moon) of the month of Phalguna.
• It celebrates the arrival of spring and the mythological victory of Prahlada over Holika.
• Ganesh Chaturthi:
• A festival commemorating the birth of Lord Ganesha, the god of wisdom and prosperity.
• It begins on the Shukla Chaturthi (fourth day of the waxing moon) in the Hindu month of Bhadrapada.

The correct answer is - Nucleus

Key Points

• Nucleus
• The Nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle that houses the cell's genetic material (DNA). It is the most significant feature that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells.
• In prokaryotic cells, there is no membrane-bound nucleus. Instead, the genetic material is concentrated in an irregularly shaped region called the nucleoid.
• Eukaryotic cells possess a well-defined nucleus enclosed by a double-layered nuclear envelope, which regulates the exchange of materials between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Additional Information

• Common Components
• Plasma Membrane: Both cell types are enclosed by a plasma membrane, a phospholipid bilayer that acts as a selective barrier.
• Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm is the semi-fluid matrix present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells where various chemical reactions and cellular activities take place.
• Ribosomes: Both types of cells contain ribosomes, which are the sites of protein synthesis. However, they differ in size: prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes, while eukaryotes primarily have 80S ribosomes in their cytoplasm.
• DNA: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) serves as the genetic material in both cell types, although its organization differs (circular in prokaryotes and linear in eukaryotes).
• Structural Differences
• Prokaryotes: Generally smaller, unicellular, and lack membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, or Golgi bodies.
• Eukaryotes: Generally larger and more complex, can be unicellular or multicellular, and contain various specialized membrane-bound organelles.

The correct answer is - Synapse

Key Points

• Synapse
• A Synapse is a specialized junction or site of functional contact between two neurons, or between a neuron and an effector cell (like a muscle or gland).
• It is the point where the nerve impulse is transmitted from the axon terminal of one neuron to the dendrites or cell body of the next neuron.
• The physical gap between the two communicating neurons is called the synaptic cleft, which is usually about 20 nanometers wide.

Additional Information

• Parts of a Neuron
• Axon: A long, tail-like structure that carries electrical impulses (action potentials) away from the cell body toward other neurons or muscles.
• Dendrite: Tree-like extensions at the beginning of a neuron that help increase the surface area of the cell body. They receive information from other neurons and transmit it to the cell body.
• Nucleus: The central organelle found in the cell body (soma) of the neuron, containing the genetic blueprint and regulating cell functions.
• Mechanism of Transmission
• In a chemical synapse, the arrival of an impulse at the axon terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitters (chemical messengers).
• Common neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, and serotonin.
• In an electrical synapse, cells are connected by gap junctions, allowing ions to flow directly between cells, resulting in faster but less flexible signal transmission.

The correct answer is 41.

Key Points

• The PM-YUVA (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) mentorship scheme is a flagship initiative launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to train and encourage young authors under the age of 30 years.
• During the New Delhi World Book Fair (NDWBF) 2025, held in February 2025 at Pragati Maidan, the National Book Trust (NBT) officially released 41 new book titles authored by the winners of the YUVA 2.0 scheme.
• The YUVA 2.0 edition was specifically designed with the theme of Democracy (Institutions, Events, People, Values), aimed at providing a platform for young writers to explore and document the various facets of Indian democratic history and heritage.
• These 41 books encompass works in multiple Indian languages (including English), reflecting the linguistic diversity of the country and fulfilling the scheme's goal of promoting Indian literature on a global stage.
• The launch event at the World Book Fair serves as the culmination of a rigorous six-month mentorship program where young authors are guided by eminent writers and editors to refine their manuscripts for publication.

 Additional Information

• PM YUVA Scheme Details:
• Implementing Agency: The National Book Trust (NBT), India, which functions under the Department of Higher Education, is the primary agency responsible for executing the scheme, including selection, mentoring, and publication.
• Financial Assistance: Selected authors receive a consolidated scholarship of 60,000 rupees per month for a period of six months during the mentorship phase.
• Royalty: In addition to the scholarship, authors receive a 10 percent royalty on the successful publication and sale of their books.
• YUVA 1.0 vs 2.0: While the first phase (YUVA 1.0) focused on the theme of Unsung Heroes and the Freedom Struggle, the second phase (YUVA 2.0) expanded the scope to include broader democratic values and institutional history.

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points

• Switzerland has secured the top global position in the Global Innovation Index (GII) for the 15th consecutive year, including the 2025 rankings, showcasing its sustained excellence in fostering a creative economy.
• The index is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations, to rank world economies according to their innovation capabilities.
• Switzerland consistently ranks first due to its high scores in innovation outputs, particularly in knowledge and technology outputs and creative outputs, surpassing its performance in innovation inputs.
• The country maintains an efficient innovation ecosystem characterized by high levels of Research and Development (R&D) spending, a high number of patents filed per capita, and strong collaboration between universities and the private sector.
• Switzerland’s leadership is also attributed to its business sophistication, specifically in intellectual property (IP) receipts and the export of high-tech services.

 Additional Information

• Sweden:
• Typically holds the 2nd position globally, recognized for its human capital and robust digital infrastructure.
• It excels in business researcher talent and ICT services exports.
• United States:
• Maintains a top 3 position, leading in indicators such as global R&D companies, venture capital availability, and university-industry research collaboration.
• Singapore:
• Consistently the highest-ranked economy in South East Asia, East Asia, and Oceania, often leading the Innovation Input Sub-Index due to its superior regulatory environment and political stability.
• Global Innovation Index Framework:
• The GII framework relies on two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-Index (which captures elements of the economy that enable innovative activities) and the Innovation Output Sub-Index (the result of innovative activities).

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Kuno National Park is situated in the Sheopur and Morena districts of Madhya Pradesh, covering an area of approximately 748 square kilometers within the Vindhyan Hills.
• The park is the center of Project Cheetah, which is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project aimed at reintroducing cheetahs to India.
• The first batch of eight African Cheetahs was translocated from Namibia and released into the park by the Prime Minister in September 2022.
• In February 2023, an additional 12 cheetahs were brought from South Africa to bolster the population and ensure genetic diversity.
• The area was originally established as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1981 and was upgraded to the status of a National Park in December 2018.
• The Kuno River, a major tributary of the Chambal River, flows through the park, providing a vital water source for the local flora and fauna.

 Additional Information

• Gujarat:
• Known for Gir National Park, the exclusive and last remaining natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion in the world.
• Rajasthan:
• Hosts several critical wildlife zones including Ranthambore National Park, Sariska Tiger Reserve, and the Keoladeo Ghana National Park (a UNESCO World Heritage site).
• Maharashtra:
• Home to diverse ecosystems including Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve, Sanjay Gandhi National Park, and Navegaon National Park.

The correct answer is Benoit Mandelbrot.

Key Points

• Benoit Mandelbrot, a Polish-born French-American mathematician, is widely recognized as the father of Fractal Geometry. He extended these mathematical principles to the realm of finance to create the Fractal Theory of Markets.
• His theory challenges the traditional Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) and the Modern Portfolio Theory, which assume that price changes follow a Normal (Gaussian) Distribution or a 'bell curve'.
• Mandelbrot argued that financial markets exhibit self-similarity across different time scales, meaning the patterns of price fluctuations look similar whether viewed over days, months, or years.
• He introduced the concept of 'Fat Tails' (leptokurtosis) and Long-range Dependence, proving that extreme market crashes and booms happen far more frequently than standard economic models predict.
• His groundbreaking work was synthesized in his 2004 book, The (Mis)Behavior of Markets: A Fractal View of Risk, Ruin, and Reward, which provides a mathematical framework for understanding the discontinuity and volatility of financial systems.

 Additional Information

• Paul Krugman:
• A Nobel laureate (2008) known for New Trade Theory and New Economic Geography.
• His work focuses on economies of scale and how they influence trade patterns and the location of economic activity.
• Amartya Sen:
• An Indian economist who received the Nobel Prize in 1998 for his contributions to Welfare Economics.
• He is famous for the Capability Approach and his work on famine, poverty, and human development.
• Joseph Stiglitz:
• Awarded the Nobel Prize in 2001 for his research on Information Asymmetry.
• He explored how 'asymmetric information'—where one party has more information than the other—leads to market failures.

The correct answer is Turmeric.

Key Points

• On October 4, 2023, the Government of India officially notified the establishment of the National Turmeric Board to provide focused institutional support for the crop.
• The primary objective of the board is to increase awareness, consumption, and the export of turmeric while improving the livelihood of farmers through value addition and research.
• India is currently the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric in the world, contributing more than 75% of the total global production.
• The board is mandated to coordinate with the Spices Board and other government agencies to streamline supply chain logistics and ensure quality standards for international markets.
• The formation of this dedicated board aims to help India reach a target of $1 billion in turmeric exports by the year 2030.

 Additional Information

• Spices Board of India:
• Established under the Spices Board Act, 1986, it operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and regulates 52 scheduled spices, including Cardamom and Black Pepper.
• The National Turmeric Board is a specialized body created specifically for turmeric due to its massive economic and medicinal importance, distinct from the general Spices Board.
• Production Hubs and Composition:
• Major turmeric-producing states in India include Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Turmeric contains Curcumin, a bioactive compound widely used in the pharmaceutical, nutraceutical, and cosmetic industries, driving its high demand in North America and Europe.
• The board includes a Chairperson appointed by the Central Government and representatives from the Ministry of Agriculture and Ministry of AYUSH.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• On November 3, 2023, at approximately 11:32 PM IST, a powerful earthquake with a magnitude of 6.4 on the Richter scale struck the Himalayan nation of Nepal.
• The National Center for Seismology (NCS), India, identified the epicenter in the Jajarkot district, near Ramidanda in Karnali Province, located about 400 kilometers west of Kathmandu.
• The seismic event occurred at a shallow depth of 10 kilometers, which caused the energy to dissipate more strongly at the surface, leading to severe damage in Nepal and significant vibrations across the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• Strong and prolonged tremors were felt across Delhi-NCR and various states in North India, including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, and Rajasthan, causing residents to evacuate buildings.
• The earthquake was the result of the ongoing tectonic collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, a process that continues to elevate the Himalayas and release seismic energy through thrust faults.

 Additional Information

• Seismic Vulnerability of Delhi: The Delhi-NCR region is classified under Seismic Zone IV, which indicates a High Damage Risk Zone. It is highly susceptible to earthquakes originating from the Main Himalayan Thrust (MHT).
• National Center for Seismology: It is the premier agency of the Government of India under the Ministry of Earth Sciences for earthquake monitoring and seismological research.
• Regional Tectonic Context:
• Afghanistan: While Afghanistan (specifically Herat) suffered devastating earthquakes in October 2023, it was not the epicenter for the November 3 event felt in Delhi.
• Pakistan: Pakistan is located in a high-seismic zone due to its proximity to the Chaman Fault, but it did not host the epicenter of this specific seismic activity.
• Bhutan: Located in the eastern Himalayan range, Bhutan sits in Seismic Zone V but remained stable during the November 2023 tremors impacting North India.

The correct answer is Param Vir Chakra.

Key Points

• Captain Vikram Batra, an officer of the 13 Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (13 JAK RIF), was posthumously honored with the Param Vir Chakra for his unparalleled bravery during the 1999 Kargil War.
• Known by his codename Sher Shah, he played a pivotal role in Operation Vijay by leading one of the most difficult mountain warfare operations in Indian military history.
• On June 20, 1999, he successfully directed the capture of Point 5140, a strategically significant peak at an altitude of approximately 17,000 feet, which overlooked the vital Srinagar-Leh Highway.
• During the mission to capture Point 4875 on July 7, 1999, he personally engaged in hand-to-hand combat, neutralising several enemy soldiers despite sustaining serious injuries.
• He made the supreme sacrifice while protecting a fellow soldier from heavy enemy fire, famously declaring the phrase 'Yeh Dil Maange More!' to signal his success and determination.
• In recognition of his legendary feat, the Government of India renamed Point 4875 as Batra Top in his honor.

 Additional Information

• Wartime Gallantry Awards:
• Maha Vir Chakra: This is the second-highest wartime military decoration in India, awarded for acts of conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy.
• Vir Chakra: The third-highest wartime gallantry award, it is presented to personnel for acts of bravery on the battlefield.
• Peacetime Gallantry Awards:
• Kirti Chakra: This is the peacetime equivalent of the Maha Vir Chakra, awarded for courage or self-sacrifice away from the field of battle.
• Param Vir Chakra (PVC) Facts:
• Instituted on January 26, 1950, the Param Vir Chakra is India's highest award for valor during wartime.
• The medal was designed by Savitri Khanolkar and consists of four replicas of Indra's Vajra with the State Emblem (Ashoka Chakra) embossed in the center.
• It can be awarded to members of the Army, Navy, and Air Force, and is most often conferred posthumously.

The correct answer is The next best alternative forgone.

Key Points

• In Economics, Opportunity Cost represents the potential benefits an individual, investor, or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
• It is formally defined as the value of the next-best alternative that must be sacrificed to undertake a specific action or decision.
• The concept is rooted in the fundamental economic problem of Scarcity, which dictates that because resources (such as time, money, and labor) are limited, every choice involves a trade-off.
• The term was first coined by the Austrian economist Friedrich von Wieser in his work Theorie der gesellschaftlichen Wirtschaft, published in 1914.
• It is an implicit cost and is not usually recorded in accounting ledgers, yet it is vital for rational decision-making and determining economic profit.

 Additional Information

• Explicit Costs vs. Implicit Costs:
• Explicit Costs: These are direct monetary outlays, such as the total money spent on rent, wages, or raw materials. This corresponds to the incorrect option regarding total money spent.
• Implicit Costs: These are the opportunity costs of using resources already owned by the firm without a direct payment, such as the owner's time or the use of a self-owned building.
• Production Possibility Frontier (PPF):
• The PPF is a graphical representation that shows the maximum possible output combinations of two goods.
• The slope of the PPF (Marginal Rate of Transformation) measures the opportunity cost of producing one more unit of a good in terms of the amount of the other good that must be given up.
• Economic Profit:
• Unlike Accounting Profit (Total Revenue − Explicit Costs), Economic Profit is calculated as Total Revenue − (Explicit Costs + Implicit Costs).
• If the opportunity cost of a decision exceeds the generated revenue, the economic profit will be negative, indicating a sub-optimal choice.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body, meaning it is not defined in the Constitution of India and was not created by an Act of Parliament.
• It was established on January 1, 2015, through an Executive Resolution of the Union Cabinet, replacing the 65-year-old Planning Commission.
• The body serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs while fostering Cooperative Federalism.
• The Prime Minister of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairperson, and the Governing Council comprises the Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Bodies: These are established directly by the provisions of the Constitution of India.
• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): Established under Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV, it is responsible for recruitment to the All India Services and Central Services.
• Finance Commission: A quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years under Article 280 to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
• Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG): Mentioned under Article 148, the CAG is the guardian of the public purse and audits all receipts and expenditures of the Union and State governments.

The correct answer is Expansionary fiscal policy.

Key Points

• Expansionary fiscal policy is a macroeconomic strategy employed by a government to stimulate economic growth, typically during a recession or period of high unemployment.
• The policy functions through two primary levers: an increase in government expenditure on infrastructure, healthcare, or education, and a reduction in tax rates to boost private sector activity.
• When the government lowers taxes, it increases the disposable income available to consumers and the retained earnings for businesses, which drives up Consumption (C) and Investment (I).
• According to the Aggregate Demand (AD) identity, where AD = C + I + G + (X − M), an increase in Government Spending (G) or a tax-induced rise in C and I shifts the AD curve to the right.
• The ultimate goal of this policy is to increase the Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and reduce the output gap by encouraging demand-side expansion within the economy.

 Additional Information

• Fiscal Contraction:
• Also known as Contractionary Fiscal Policy, it involves decreasing government spending or increasing taxes.
• It is typically used to combat high inflation or to reduce a ballooning budget deficit by cooling down an overheated economy.
• Monetary Contraction:
• This is a policy managed by the Central Bank (e.g., RBI) rather than the government.
• It involves reducing the money supply and increasing interest rates to curb inflationary pressures.
• Neutral Policy:
• This refers to a balanced budget approach where government spending is exactly equal to tax revenue.
• Under this stance, the fiscal policy has a zero net effect on the level of overall economic activity.

The correct answer is Satisfaction from one extra unit.

Key Points

• Marginal Utility (MU) is defined as the additional satisfaction or benefit a consumer derives from consuming one more unit of a specific good or service.
• The concept is central to the Marginalist Revolution in economics, which shifted focus from total values to the incremental change in value.
• Mathematically, it is expressed as the change in Total Utility (TU) divided by the change in the quantity (Q) consumed, or MU = ΔTU / ΔQ.
• The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that as an individual consumes more units of a good, the satisfaction derived from each subsequent unit tends to decline.
• This measurement is subjective and varies between individuals, as it represents the psychological satisfaction or ordinal preference of a consumer at a specific point in time.

 Additional Information

• Total Utility:
• Refers to the overall level of satisfaction attained from consuming a specific total quantity of goods.
• It reaches its maximum point when marginal utility equals zero (the point of satiety).
• Consumer Equilibrium:
• A state where a consumer maximizes their utility by allocating income such that the marginal utility per unit of price is equal across all purchased goods.
• Formula: MU_x / P_x = MU_y / P_y.
• Production Possibility:
• Relates to the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF), which shows the maximum output combinations of two products given limited resources.
• This is a supply-side concept, whereas marginal utility is a demand-side (consumer) concept.
• Profit Earned:
• This is the financial gain obtained when Total Revenue exceeds Total Cost.
• It is a measure of business performance and does not quantify individual consumer satisfaction or utility.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Sambalpuri dance is a prominent folk dance form that originated in the Western region of Odisha, primarily in districts such as Sambalpur, Bargarh, Sonepur, and Bolangir.
• It is deeply rooted in the Kosli culture and is traditionally performed during significant agrarian and social festivals like Nuakhai (the harvest festival) and Bhaijiuntia.
• The dance is characterized by its energetic footwork and synchronized hand movements, performed to the rhythmic beats of traditional instruments like the Dhol, Nishan, Tasa, and the Mahuri.
• One of its most famous variants is the Dalkhai dance, where women perform in groups, often wearing the world-renowned Sambalpuri Handloom Saree, which features intricate Ikkat tie-and-dye patterns.
• The lyrics of Sambalpuri folk songs often depict daily life, nature, and episodes from the Ramayana or Mahabharata, making it a powerful medium of cultural storytelling in Odisha.

 Additional Information

• Karnataka:
• Home to Yakshagana, a traditional theatre form combining dance, music, and elaborate costumes.
• Other notable dances include Dollu Kunitha and Kamsale.
• Assam:
• Famous for Bihu, an energetic folk dance celebrating the seasonal change, and Sattriya, one of India's eight classical dances.
• Other tribal dances include Bagurumba of the Bodo community.
• Rajasthan:
• Known for the Ghoomar dance, performed by women in flowing skirts, and Kalbelia, which is inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
• Other forms include Bhavai and Kachhi Ghodi.

The correct answer is Cotton.

Key Points

• Black Soil, also known as Regur Soil or Black Cotton Soil, is highly renowned for its ability to retain moisture, which is a critical requirement for the growth of the Cotton crop.
• This soil is formed by the denudation and weathering of basaltic rocks (lava flows) over centuries, primarily found in the Deccan Trap region of India, covering states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
• The soil is characterized by its clayey texture, which becomes sticky when wet and develops deep cracks during the dry season, facilitating self-aeration of the soil.
• It is rich in essential plant nutrients such as Calcium Carbonate, Magnesium, Potash, and Lime, though it generally lacks Phosphorus content.
• The high water-holding capacity of black soil ensures that moisture is available to the Cotton plant even during long dry spells, making it the most suitable medium for its cultivation.

 Additional Information

• Rice
• Primarily cultivated in Alluvial Soil found in river deltas and plains.
• Requires standing water, high humidity, and temperatures above 25 degrees Celsius.
• Wheat
• Grows best in well-drained Loamy Soil or Alluvial Soil.
• Requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine during the ripening period.
• Tea
• Thrives in Laterite Soil that is rich in Humus and organic matter.
• Requires a well-drained, undulating landscape, typically found on hill slopes in regions like Assam and Darjeeling.

The correct answer is Yann Martel.

Key Points

• Yann Martel is a Canadian author who gained international fame with his masterpiece Life of Pi, which was first published in September 2001.
• The novel is a survival story of a young boy named Piscine Molitor Patel, who is stranded on a lifeboat in the Pacific Ocean for 227 days with a Bengal tiger named Richard Parker.
• The book is celebrated for its allegorical narrative, blending elements of theology and zoology to question the boundaries between reality and fiction.
• Life of Pi achieved massive critical and commercial success, winning the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 2002.
• The story was later adapted into a 2012 feature film directed by Ang Lee, which won four Academy Awards, including Best Director.

 Additional Information

• Aravind Adiga
• He is an Indian-Australian author known for his sharp social commentary in the novel The White Tiger.
• The book won the Man Booker Prize in 2008 and explores the darker side of India's economic boom and the struggles of the underclass.
• Kiran Desai
• An Indian author who received the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for The Inheritance of Loss.
• Her writing often deals with themes of migration, cultural identity, and the clash of civilizations between the West and South Asia.
• Salman Rushdie
• A British-Indian novelist famous for his use of magical realism and post-colonial themes.
• His 1981 novel Midnight's Children won the Booker Prize and was later honored with the Booker of Bookers and the Best of the Booker awards.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The second major wave of Bank Nationalization in India occurred on April 15, 1980, under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• During this phase, the government nationalized 6 private commercial banks to further the objective of social control and equitable credit distribution.
• The criteria for nationalization in 1980 was applied to banks whose demand and time liabilities (deposits) exceeded Rs. 200 crores.
• The six banks brought under government ownership were Andhra Bank, Corporation Bank, New Bank of India, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Punjab and Sind Bank, and Vijaya Bank.
• The legal framework for this action was provided by the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1980, which was later replaced by an Act of Parliament.
• This move increased the government's control over the banking sector to approximately 91 percent of the total banking business in India.

 Additional Information

• First Phase of Nationalization (1969):
• On July 19, 1969, the government nationalized 14 major commercial banks.
• This phase targeted banks with deposits exceeding Rs. 50 crores to align banking activities with Five-Year Plan priorities.
• Objectives of Nationalization:
• Priority Sector Lending: Directing funds toward agriculture, small-scale industries, and exports.
• Branch Expansion: Transitioning from class banking to mass banking by opening branches in rural and semi-urban areas.
• Monopoly Control: Preventing the concentration of economic power and ensuring credit was not restricted to large industrial houses.
• Significant Developments:
• The New Bank of India, nationalized in 1980, was merged with Punjab National Bank (PNB) in 1993 due to financial losses.

The correct answer is A tax on goods imported from other countries.

Key Points

• A Tariff is a fundamental tool of trade policy consisting of a tax or duty imposed by a government on imported goods at the point of entry into the country.
• The primary objective of a tariff is to increase the relative price of foreign products, thereby making them less attractive to consumers compared to domestically produced goods, which serves to protect local industries.
• Tariffs serve as a trade barrier that can be categorized into two main types: Ad Valorem (calculated as a percentage of the value of the good) and Specific Tariffs (a fixed fee based on the weight, volume, or quantity of the item).
• By raising the cost of imports, tariffs help reduce a nation's trade deficit and provide a significant source of revenue for the government, especially in economies where direct income taxation is difficult to implement.
• In the context of international economics, tariffs are often negotiated under the framework of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to ensure they do not unfairly disrupt global trade flows.

 Additional Information

• Quotas:
• Unlike tariffs, a Quota is a non-tariff barrier that imposes a physical limit on the quantity of a specific commodity that can be imported during a specified period.
• Subsidies:
• A subsidy is a financial contribution or incentive provided by the state to domestic producers to lower their production costs and enhance their export competitiveness in the global market.
• Excise Duty:
• A tax levied on goods produced within the country is referred to as Excise Duty or Internal Tax, which is distinct from a tariff that specifically targets cross-border trade.
• Trade Liberalization:
• This process involves the reduction or total elimination of tariffs and customs duties to promote Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) between nations.

The correct answer is Tarun.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched by the Government of India on April 8, 2015, to provide formal credit to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
• Loans under this scheme are provided up to Rs. 10 lakh through various financial institutions like Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.
• The scheme signifies the stage of growth/development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit or entrepreneur and provides a reference point for the next phase of graduation.
• The three categories defined under PMMY are:
• Shishu: Covering loans up to Rs. 50,000.
• Kishor: Covering loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh.
• Tarun: Covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh.
• The intervention aims to create an inclusive, sustainable, and value-based entrepreneurial culture in collaboration with help-line institutions for achieving economic success and financial security.

 Additional Information

• MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd., which acts as a refinancing institution.
• It is a subsidiary of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India).
• MUDRA loans do not require collateral or third-party guarantees, as the credit is covered under the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU).
• The Mudra Card is a RuPay debit card provided to the borrower, allowing for flexible withdrawals and credits to manage working capital needs efficiently.
• Eligible activities include transport vehicles, community/social/personal service activities, food products sector, and textile products sector.
• While options like Balak, Yuva, and Navin sound like plausible Sanskrit-derived names for youth or new beginnings, they are not official nomenclature used in the PMMY framework.

The correct answer is Innovation and entrepreneurship.

Key Points

• The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
• The mission was established to create an institutional framework that supports innovation at different levels, including schools, universities, research institutions, and the MSME and industrial sectors.
• It aims to foster a problem-solving mindset among students and provide a platform for startups to scale their businesses through various specialized programs.
• By encouraging entrepreneurship, the mission seeks to generate employment opportunities and drive economic growth through technology-driven solutions for societal challenges.
• The initiative serves as a primary platform to align innovation policies across Central and State government ministries to ensure a holistic development of the startup ecosystem.

 Additional Information

• The Atal Innovation Mission operates through several key sub-schemes:
• Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL): These are established in schools across India to teach students 21st-century skills such as design thinking, robotics, Internet of Things (IoT), and 3D printing.
• Atal Incubation Centers (AIC): These centers are set up to support and nurture innovative startups by providing them with physical infrastructure, mentoring, and networking opportunities.
• Atal New India Challenges (ANIC): This program encourages innovators to create products based on cutting-edge technologies that have high social impact in sectors like health, education, and agriculture.
• Mentor India: A strategic nation-building initiative to engage mentors from the corporate and academic sectors to guide students in Atal Tinkering Labs.
• ARISE: Launched to stimulate applied research and innovation specifically within Indian MSMEs.
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The 35th National Games of India were hosted by the state of Kerala from January 31 to February 14, 2015.
• This was the second time that Kerala organized the National Games, the first being the 27th edition held in 1987.
• The event was highly decentralized, with competitions held across seven districts: Thiruvananthapuram, Kollam, Alappuzha, Kochi, Kozhikode, Thrissur, and Kannur.
• The opening ceremony took place at the Greenfield International Stadium (Sports Hub) in Thiruvananthapuram, which was specifically constructed for these games.
• The official motto of the 2015 games was Get Set Play, and the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) emerged as the overall champions, winning the Raja Bhalendra Singh Trophy.

 Additional Information

• Mascot - Ammu:
• The official mascot was Ammu, a Great Hornbill, which is the official state bird of Kerala.
• The choice of the mascot was intended to reflect the state's biological diversity and promote wildlife conservation.
• Goa:
• Goa hosted the 37th National Games in 2023 after several delays.
• Assam:
• The 33rd National Games were organized by Assam in 2007, primarily in Guwahati.
• Jharkhand:
• The 34th National Games took place in Jharkhand in 2011 across cities like Ranchi, Jamshedpur, and Dhanbad.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The 33rd National Games of India were hosted by the state of Assam between February 9 and February 18, 2007.
• The event was primarily centered in Guwahati, with various competitions also taking place in satellite venues across Nagaon and Dibrugarh.
• The opening ceremony of this prestigious multi-sport event was officially inaugurated by the then UPA Chairperson Sonia Gandhi at the Indira Gandhi Athletic Stadium in Sarusajai.
• The official mascot for the 2007 edition was Rongmon, a baby One-horned Rhinoceros, which represents the pride and biodiversity of the state of Assam.
• A total of 32 sports disciplines were contested during the games, showcasing talent from 33 participating teams including States, Union Territories, and the Services.
• The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) emerged as the overall champion, winning the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy by securing a total of 142 medals, including 59 gold medals.

 Additional Information

• Infrastructure Development:
• The hosting of the games led to the creation of the Guwahati Athletic Complex, which includes the Indira Gandhi Athletic Stadium and the Dr. Zakir Hussain Aquatic Complex.
• The Karmabir Nabin Chandra Bordoloi Indoor Stadium was another major facility developed to host indoor disciplines like gymnastics and badminton.
• Historical Context:
• This was the first time that the National Games were held in Northeast India, significantly boosting the sports culture and infrastructure in the region.
• The host state, Assam, achieved its best-ever performance at the time, finishing second in the final medal tally with 38 gold medals.
• Evolution of the Games:
• The National Games of India were originally known as the Indian Olympic Games until 1940, when they were renamed to their current title.
• The first modern edition on the lines of the Olympics was held in New Delhi in 1985.

The correct answer is Nicobar Islands and Indonesia.

Key Points

• The Great Channel, also widely recognized as the Six Degree Channel, is a major maritime passage located in the eastern Indian Ocean.
• It geographically separates the Great Nicobar Island of India from the Sumatra island of Indonesia, specifically near Rondo Island in the Aceh province.
• The channel is named the Six Degree Channel because it is situated approximately along the 6 degrees north latitude line.
• It serves as a crucial international shipping route, acting as a gateway for vessels traveling from the Indian Ocean toward the Strait of Malacca and the South China Sea.
• The northern boundary of the channel is marked by Indira Point, which is the southernmost tip of India territory, located on Great Nicobar Island.

 Additional Information

• Important Maritime Channels near India:
• Ten Degree Channel: A water body that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
• Eight Degree Channel: A maritime boundary that separates the Maldives from the Minicoy island of India.
• Nine Degree Channel: This channel separates the island of Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
• Duncan Passage: A strait located in the Indian Ocean that separates South Andaman from Little Andaman.
• Palk Strait: A narrow stretch of water that separates the state of Tamil Nadu in India from the Mannar district of Sri Lanka.
• Coco Channel: Located between the Coco Islands (Myanmar) and the North Andaman Island (India).

The correct answer is Guwahati.

Key Points

• The 2023 National Lawn Bowls Championship was a premier domestic competition organized under the aegis of the Bowling Federation of India (BFI).
• The tournament was hosted in Guwahati, Assam, specifically at the Lawn Bowl Greens located within the Sarusajai Sports Complex.
• The event featured top athletes from across the country competing in various categories, including Singles, Pairs, Triples, and Fours for both Men and Women divisions.
• Hosting this championship in Guwahati further solidified Assam as a major hub for the sport, leveraging the high-quality infrastructure built for previous events like the Khelo India Youth Games and the National Games.
• State teams such as Jharkhand, Assam, Delhi, and West Bengal were among the top contenders, with Assam and Jharkhand traditionally dominating the medal tally in this discipline.

 Additional Information

• Lawn Bowls in India:
• The sport gained immense national prominence following the historic Gold Medal win by the Indian women's Fours team at the 2022 Birmingham Commonwealth Games.
• Ranchi, Jharkhand, is home to the R.K. Anand Lawn Bowl Greens, which is one of the best facilities in the country and frequently hosts national camps.
• New Delhi hosted the 2010 Commonwealth Games, which introduced international standard synthetic greens at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium.
• The Bowling Federation of India is the governing body responsible for the promotion and regulation of the sport within the country, aiming to improve India's world ranking in the World Bowls circuit.

The correct answer is Jupiter.

Key Points

• Jupiter is the largest planet in our Solar System and holds the record for the fastest rotation of any planet.
• It completes a full rotation on its axis in approximately 9 hours and 55 minutes, which is commonly rounded to 10 hours.
• This rapid spinning gives Jupiter the shortest day among all the planets in the Solar System.
• The high rotational speed causes the planet to bulge at the equator and flatten at the poles, a shape known as an oblate spheroid.
• Jupiter is a gas giant, composed primarily of hydrogen and helium, and its fast rotation contributes to the intense magnetic field and the distinct cloud bands seen in its atmosphere.
• Despite its massive size, its equatorial rotation velocity is about 12.6 km/s (approximately 45,300 km/h).

Additional Information

• Saturn: It has the second-shortest day in the Solar System, completing a rotation in about 10.7 hours.
• Neptune: A rotation on Neptune takes approximately 16 hours.
• Earth: Our home planet takes nearly 24 hours to complete one full rotation.
• Venus: In contrast to Jupiter, Venus has the slowest rotation, taking about 243 Earth days to spin once on its axis, which is actually longer than the time it takes to orbit the Sun.
• The Great Red Spot, a giant storm on Jupiter, is also influenced by the planet's extremely rapid rotation and atmospheric dynamics.

The correct answer is NVS-02.

Key Points

• The NVS-02 satellite is the second in the second-generation series of India’s navigation satellites, designed to sustain and enhance the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) system.
• The GSLV-F15 mission specifically employs the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) to deploy this payload into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• A primary goal of the NVS series is to incorporate the L1 band signal, which ensures compatibility with the Global Positioning System (GPS) used in most civilian handheld devices and smartphones.
• The satellite is equipped with a high-precision, indigenous Rubidium atomic clock, which is vital for providing accurate Position, Navigation, and Timing (PNT) services across India and its surrounding region.
• This mission strengthens ISRO’s self-reliance in satellite-based navigation, providing two levels of service: the Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for authorized strategic users.

 Additional Information

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):
• A collaborative mission between NASA and ISRO using dual-frequency radar.
• Focuses on Earth observation to track ecosystem disturbances, ice-sheet collapses, and natural hazards.
• Gaganyaan Capsule:
• The crew module designed for India’s first human spaceflight mission.
• Aims to demonstrate orbital capability by sending a three-member crew to a 400 km altitude for a three-day mission.
• Chandrayaan-4:
• A proposed future lunar mission targeting lunar sample return capabilities.
• Represents the next phase of India’s Lunar Exploration Program following the successful landing of Chandrayaan-3.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is Basketball.

Key Points

• The shot clock is a critical officiating tool in Basketball designed to maintain a fast pace by requiring the offensive team to attempt a field goal within a specific timeframe.
• In professional play, such as the NBA (National Basketball Association) and international competitions governed by FIBA, the shot clock is set to 24 seconds.
• In NCAA (College Basketball), the shot clock is slightly longer, set at 30 seconds for both men's and women's games to accommodate different tactical approaches.
• The timer was famously introduced to the NBA in 1954 by Danny Biasone, the owner of the Syracuse Nationals, to prevent teams from stalling and to increase scoring; its implementation is credited with saving the league from low spectator interest.
• A shot clock violation occurs if the timer reaches zero before the ball is released and touches the rim of the basket, resulting in a turnover of possession to the defensive team.
• The clock resets to 14 seconds in specific situations, such as after an offensive rebound following a shot that hits the rim, further encouraging continuous offensive action.
• Therefore, Basketball is the sport that utilizes a shot clock to regulate game speed and strategic offensive decisions.

 Additional Information

• Volleyball
• Governed by the FIVB, this sport uses a rally scoring system where there is no limit on possession time, though a player must serve within 8 seconds of the referee's whistle.
• Badminton
• A racket sport regulated by the BWF (Badminton World Federation); it does not employ any form of shot clock as the gameplay is dictated by the continuous movement of the shuttlecock.
• Hockey
• Whether Ice Hockey or Field Hockey, these sports focus on timed periods and penalty durations but do not feature a countdown clock to limit how long a team can control the puck or ball in the offensive zone.

The correct answer is AFI.

Key Points

• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the apex governing body for track and field athletics in India. It was formed in 1946 and was previously known as the Amateur Athletics Federation of India (AAFI).
• The organization is responsible for conducting the Senior National Athletics Championships, which is the most significant annual track and field competition in India for determining national titles.
• The AFI also organizes several other major competitions, including the Federation Cup, the National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships, and the National Open Athletics Championships.
• It serves as the regulatory authority that sets qualification standards and competition rules in alignment with World Athletics (formerly IAAF) guidelines to ensure international compliance.
• Beyond competition management, the AFI oversees the selection process for Indian athletes participating in international events like the Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, and Olympic Games.
• The federation plays a critical role in maintaining official National Records and developing technical officials and coaches to improve the standard of the sport across 32 state and union territory associations.

 Additional Information

• SAI (Sports Authority of India):
• Established in 1984, it is the primary national sports body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Its primary role is talent identification, providing world-class training, and managing infrastructure such as the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS).
• IOA (Indian Olympic Association):
• Founded in 1927, it is responsible for India's participation in the Olympic Movement and various multi-sport games.
• It coordinates with National Sports Federations (NSFs) and is the governing body for the National Games of India.
• NADA (National Anti-Doping Agency):
• Formed in 2005, it is the national organization responsible for doping control and monitoring across all sports disciplines.
• It implements anti-doping policies in accordance with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) code to ensure fair competition.

The correct answer is 1966.

Key Points

• Field hockey was officially introduced to the Asian Games program in 1958 during the Tokyo edition.
• India secured its first-ever gold medal in men's hockey at the 1966 Asian Games held in Bangkok, Thailand.
• The Indian team was captained by the legendary goalkeeper Shankar Lakshman, who led the squad to a historic victory over their arch-rivals.
• In a hard-fought final, India defeated Pakistan with a score of 1−0, ending Pakistan's winning streak from the previous two editions.
• The match-winning goal was scored by Balbir Singh (Services) during extra time, establishing India's continental supremacy in the sport.

 Additional Information

• 1951:
• This year marked the inaugural Asian Games held in New Delhi, India.
• Despite being the host nation and a global hockey powerhouse, field hockey was not included in the sporting events during this first edition.
• 1962:
• The games took place in Jakarta, Indonesia.
• India reached the final but was defeated 2−0 by Pakistan, resulting in a silver medal for the Indian side.
• 1978:
• Hosted in Bangkok, this edition again saw a final clash between India and Pakistan.
• India lost the match 1−0 and finished the tournament with another silver medal.
• Success Summary:
• India has won the Asian Games gold medal in men's hockey four times: 1966, 1998, 2014, and 2022 (played in 2023).

The correct answer is Vishwanathan Anand.

Key Points

• Vishwanathan Anand became India's first Grandmaster in 1988, an achievement that revolutionized the popularity of chess in India.
• He earned his final Grandmaster (GM) norm at the Shakti Finance International Chess Tournament in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, at the age of 18.
• Prior to becoming a Grandmaster, he won the World Junior Chess Championship in 1987, becoming the first Indian to do so.
• Anand is a five-time World Chess Champion, having won the title in 2000, 2007, 2008, 2010, and 2012.
• He was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) in 1991–92, India's highest sporting honor.

 Additional Information

• Pentala Harikrishna
• He achieved the Grandmaster title in 2001 and was the youngest Indian to do so at that time.
• He won the World Junior Chess Championship in 2004 and has consistently been among India's top-ranked players.
• Krishnan Sasikiran
• He became a Grandmaster in 2000 and was a key member of the Indian team that won the bronze medal at the 2014 Chess Olympiad.
• He won the Asian Individual Championship in 2003.
• Gukesh D
• Dommaraju Gukesh became India's youngest Grandmaster in 2019 at the age of 12 years, 7 months, and 17 days.
• In 2024, he won the FIDE Candidates Tournament, becoming the youngest player ever to qualify for a World Chess Championship match.

The correct answer is Kuala Lumpur.

Key Points

• The Asian Hockey Federation (AHF) is the sole governing body for the sport of field hockey in the Asian continent, representing over 30 national associations.
• The central headquarters and administrative office of the AHF are located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. This city serves as the strategic hub for managing hockey development, coaching clinics, and tournament logistics across Asia.
• The federation was officially established in 1958 during the Asian Games held in Tokyo, Japan, with the aim of promoting and regulating the sport within the region.
• The AHF is one of the five recognized continental members of the International Hockey Federation (FIH), which is the world governing body for the sport.
• Prominent figures in the federation's history include the late Sultan Azlan Shah of Malaysia, who served as a long-time President and was instrumental in elevating Asian hockey to global standards through events like the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup.
• The AHF is responsible for organizing prestigious continental competitions, including the Hockey Asia Cup, the Asian Champions Trophy, and the Junior Asia Cup for both men and women.

 Additional Information

• International Hockey Federation (FIH):
• The global headquarters of the FIH is located in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• Dhaka:
• It is the capital of Bangladesh and a significant center for South Asian hockey, hosting the Bangladesh Hockey Federation and major events like the 2017 Men's Hockey Asia Cup.
• Tokyo:
• As the birthplace of the AHF in 1958, it remains a vital city for the sport, having hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics where field hockey was a key event.
• New Delhi:
• The capital of India serves as the headquarters for Hockey India and has hosted historic tournaments such as the 1982 Asian Games and the 2010 Men's Hockey World Cup.

The correct answer is 42nd.

Key Points

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often called the 'Mini-Constitution', transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
• Before this amendment, Education was a part of the State List (Entry 11), meaning only state governments had the authority to legislate on it.
• By moving Education to the Concurrent List (now Entry 25), both the Parliament and State Legislatures gained the power to make laws on the subject, allowing the Central Government to ensure uniform educational standards and national policies.
• This amendment was passed based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee during the National Emergency period.
• Along with education, other subjects moved to the Concurrent List included Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.

 Additional Information

• 86th Amendment Act (2002):
• Inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Modified Article 45 and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) regarding parental responsibility for education.
• 44th Amendment Act (1978):
• Introduced by the Janata Government to nullify several provisions of the 42nd Amendment.
• Converted the Right to Property from a Fundamental Right to a Legal Right under Article 300A.
• 73rd Amendment Act (1992):
• Granted constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Aditya-L1.

Key Points

• Aditya-L1 is India's pioneering mission dedicated to studying the Sun, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023.
• The spacecraft was launched using the PSLV-C57 launch vehicle from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota.
• It is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, located approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth.
• Placing the satellite at L1 ensures a continuous, unobstructed view of the Sun without any eclipses or occultations, which is critical for real-time monitoring of solar activities and their impact on space weather.
• The mission carries seven scientific payloads designed to observe the solar photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layer known as the corona using electromagnetic, particle, and magnetic field detectors.
• The primary objectives include understanding Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), solar flares, coronal heating, and the dynamics of the solar wind.

 Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-3:
• India's third lunar mission which achieved a historic soft landing on the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023.
• It consisted of a lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan to explore the lunar surface composition.
• Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM):
• Commonly known as Mangalyaan, it was launched in 2013 as India's first interplanetary mission.
• It successfully reached Mars orbit in 2014, making ISRO the first space agency to reach Mars on its first attempt.
• INSAT-3DS:
• A follow-on meteorological satellite mission launched in 2024 to provide enhanced weather forecasting and disaster management services.
• It complements the INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR series for monitoring land and ocean surfaces.

The correct answer is Ceres.

Key Points

• Ceres is the largest object in the asteroid belt, which lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
• It was the first asteroid to be discovered, identified by the Italian astronomer Giuseppe Piazzi on January 1, 1801.
• With a diameter of approximately 940 kilometers, it accounts for nearly one-third of the total mass of the entire asteroid belt.
• In 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) classified Ceres as a dwarf planet because its mass is sufficient for its own gravity to pull it into a spherical shape.
• Despite this dual classification, it remains the largest and most massive body within the asteroid population. Hence, Ceres is the correct answer. Therefore, the correct option is 3.

 Additional Information

• Vesta:
• It is the second-most massive object in the asteroid belt after Ceres.
• Vesta is unique because it is the brightest asteroid visible from Earth and can occasionally be seen with the naked eye.
• Unlike Ceres, it is not a dwarf planet as it lacks a fully spherical shape.
• Mars and Jupiter:
• These are major planets of the solar system, not asteroids.
• Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun (terrestrial planet), and Jupiter is the fifth planet (gas giant).
• The asteroid belt is primarily composed of rocky and metallic bodies that failed to coalesce into a planet due to Jupiter's massive gravitational influence.

<br> <br>

BREAD : EUHDG →

Similarly

FOOD : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Typing speed of the clerk = 40 words/min

Total time spent = 15 min

Formula Used:

Total Work = Rate of Work × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency (words per minute) = 40

⇒ Duration (minutes) = 15

⇒ Total words typed = 40 × 15

⇒ Total words typed = 600 words

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: The series represents the chronological sequence of events in a standard daily morning routine leading to the start of a workday.

1. Alarm: The signal that triggers the start of the day.
2. Wake up: The immediate action taken after the alarm rings.
3. Get ready: The process of preparing oneself (showering, dressing, etc.) for the day.
4. Commute: The process of traveling from home to the workplace.
5. Office: The destination reached after the commute to begin work.

Therefore, the next term in the series is office.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The series represents a chronological sequence of events occurring in a daily morning routine leading up to the start of a workday.

1. alarm: The process begins with the alarm ringing to initiate the day.
2. wake up: The person wakes up immediately following the alarm.
3. get ready: After waking up, the person prepares themselves by bathing, dressing, etc.
4. commute: Once ready, the person travels or commutes to their place of work.
5. office: The logical destination reached after the commute is the office, where the workday begins.

Therefore, the next term in the series is office.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second number = (3 × Number²) + (4 × Number) − 10 

For 28 : 2454 →

(3 × (28)²) + (4 × 28) - 10 

⇒ (3 × 784) + 112 - 10

⇒ 2352 + 112 − 10

⇒ 2454

Similarly, for 32 : ? →

(3 × (32)2) + (4 × 32) - 10 

⇒ (3 × 1024) + 128 - 10

⇒ 3072 + 128 − 10

⇒ 3190

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Here,

Comet, Meteoroid, and Asteroid are solid bodies.

Whereas,

Nebula is a gaseous cloud.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Additional Information 

 

Nebula: A Nebula is fundamentally different from the others because it is an enormous interstellar cloud of dust and gases (primarily hydrogen and helium). It is a region where stars are often born or are the remnants of dying stars, and it is not a solid object.

<br> <br>

'TEST' is written as 'UGVX'. 

Similarly,

'FACE' be written as,

Therefore, the code for 'FACE' is 'GCFI'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

P + 2 = R

R + 2 = T

T + 2 = V

V + 2 = X

X + 2 = Z

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is :

The "Pacific" is a specific "Ocean".

Similarly,

The "Sahara" is a specific "Desert".

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

Additional Information 

In both the designs of the dice, the numbers 2 and 5 are common.

According to the dice rule, the remaining numbers 1 and 6 must be opposite to each other.

Therefore, the element on the opposite surface of the surface having 1 is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Investment of A = ₹10,000

Investment of B = ₹15,000

Investment of C = ₹25,000

Total profit at the end of the year = ₹15,000

Formula Used:

Profit Share Ratio = (Investment₁ × Time₁) : (Investment₂ × Time₂) : (Investment₃ × Time₃)

Calculations:

Since the time period for all is 1 year (same), the profit ratio is equal to the investment ratio.

⇒ Ratio of Profit (A : B : C) = 10,000 : 15,000 : 25,000

⇒ Ratio of Profit (A : B : C) = 2 : 3 : 5

⇒ Total Profit Ratio = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 units

⇒ 10 units = ₹15,000

⇒ 1 unit = 15,000 ÷ 10 = ₹1,500

⇒ C's share of profit = 5 units × 1,500

⇒ C's share of profit = ₹7,500

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is, 

2

2 × 2 = 4

4 × 3 = 12

12 × 4 = 48

48 × 5 = 240

240 × 6 = 1440

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word:  LIABILITIES

1. LIKE → Can not be formed (K is not present in the given word LIABILITIES).

2. ABLE → Can be formed.

3. LITE → Can be formed.

4. TABLE → Can be formed

The word that is not possible to form from the given letters is LIKE.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Here

Hammer, Saw, and Chisel are Tools.

Whereas,

 Nail is a Hardware Fastener.

Therefore, Nail is the odd one out among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

 

Additional Information 

• Hammer: It is a Tool primarily used for driving nails, breaking objects, or shaping metal.
• Saw: It is a Tool used for cutting wood, metal, or other hard materials.
• Chisel: It is a Tool with a sharp metal blade used for carving or cutting hard materials like wood, stone, or metal.
  
• ​A Nail is not a tool. It is a Fastener or a hardware item made of metal that is used to join materials together. It is an object upon which a tool (like a hammer) is used.

Given

<br>

Now, we will check each option by replacing the numbers with their respective letters:

1. 4, 3, 6, 5, 2, 1 →

<br>

HEDLAN is Not a meaningful word.

2. 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 →

<br>

ANDHEL is Not a meaningful word.

3) 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3 →

<br>

HANDLE is a meaningful English word.

4. 2, 6, 4, 3, 5, 1 →

<br>

ADHELN is Not a meaningful word.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

In both positions, 2 and 5 are common.

Now,

Remaining faces are opposite to each other.

Therefore,

6 is opposite to 1.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

A = 26

SUN = 27

Similarly,

CAT = ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

HKN : GJM →

Similarly, for PSW : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

Given equation:

8 + 48 ÷ 12 × 5 − 13 = 29

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) 8 and 5

After swapping:

5 + 48 ÷ 12 × 8 − 13 = 29

⇒ 5 + 48 ÷ 12 × 8 − 13

⇒ 5 + 4 × 8 − 13

⇒ 5 + 4 × 8 − 13

⇒ 5 + 32 − 13

⇒ 37 − 13

⇒ 24

Since 24 ≠ 29, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) 12 and 13

After swapping:

8 + 48 ÷ 13 × 5 − 12 = 29

⇒ 8 + 48 ÷ 13 × 5 − 12

⇒ 8 + 3.69 × 5 − 12 (approx)

This does not give 29.

Hence, this option is incorrect.

Option 3) 8 and 12

After swapping:

12 + 48 ÷ 8 × 5 − 13 = 29

⇒ 12 + 48 ÷ 8 × 5 − 13

⇒ 12 + 6 × 5 − 13

⇒ 12 + 6 × 5 − 13

⇒ 12 + 30 − 13

⇒ 42 − 13

⇒ 29

Since 29 = 29, this option is correct.

Option 4) 13 and 8

After swapping:

13 + 48 ÷ 12 × 5 − 8 = 29

⇒ 13 + 48 ÷ 12 × 5 − 8

⇒ 13 + 4 × 5 − 8

⇒ 13 + 4 × 5 − 8

⇒ 13 + 20 − 8

⇒ 25

Since 25 ≠ 29, this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: ac_ga_eg_ce_ 

(1) acge → acag/aceg/gcee (Does not repeat any pattern) 

(2) ecag → aceg/aceg/aceg (Repeat the patter aceg)

(3) aceg → acag/aceg/eceg (Does not repeat any pattern) 

(4) ecga → aceg/aceg/gcea (Does not repeat any pattern) 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: x_x_y_ _ yx_ _x _y _

(1) yxxxxyxx → xyx/ xyx/ xyx/ xyx/ xyx (Repeat the patter "xyx")

(2) xyxxyxyy → xxx/ yyx/ xyx/ yxx/ yyy (Does not repeat any pattern) 

(3) yxyyyxxy → xyx/ xyy/ yyx/ yxx/ xyy (Does not repeat any pattern) 

(4) xyyxyyxy → xxx/ yyy/ xyx/ yyx/ xyy (Does not repeat any pattern) 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Shortcut Trick

Observe that the production values 30, 40, and 50 form an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with a common difference of 10.

For an odd number of terms in an AP, the middle term is the Average of the series.

The middle term among 30, 40, and 50 is 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given: Production on Day 1 = 30, Day 2 = 40, and Day 3 = 50.

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

⇒ Total Production = 30 + 40 + 50

⇒ Total Production = 120 items

⇒ Total Days = 3

⇒ Average Production per day = 120 ÷ 3

⇒ Average Production per day = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Average of an Arithmetic Progression

For any sequence in AP, the average is calculated as (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Net Deviation Property

The sum of the differences (deviations) between each data point and the average is always zero.

Weighted Average

When different groups have different sizes, the combined average is (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

The average of two friends is 30.

The first friend scored 40, which is 10 points more than the average (40 − 30 = +10).

To maintain the average, the second friend must score 10 points less than the average.

Second score = 30 − 10 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average score of 2 friends = 30

Score of the first friend (Score₁) = 40

Formula:

Average = Total Sum ÷ Number of items

Calculations:

⇒ Total sum of scores = Average × Number of friends

⇒ Total sum = 30 × 2 = 60

⇒ Score₂ = Total sum − Score₁

⇒ Score₂ = 60 − 40

⇒ Score₂ = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

The arithmetic mean or average is the sum of all values divided by the count of values. Formula: A = (Σx) ÷ n.

Sum of Observations

To find the total sum when the average is known, multiply the average by the number of entities: Sum = Average × n.

Property of Deviations

The algebraic sum of deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero (Σ(x − A) = 0).

Shortcut Trick

Distance = Number of revolutions × (π × diameter)

Distance = 15 × (22/7 × 70)

Distance = 15 × 220

Distance = 3300 cm

∴ The correct answer is 3300 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the wheel (d) = 70 cm

Number of revolutions (n) = 15

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Circumference (C) = π × d

Total Distance = n × C

Calculations:

⇒ Circumference of the wheel = π × d

⇒ Circumference = (22/7) × 70

⇒ Circumference = 22 × 10 = 220 cm

⇒ Total distance traveled in 15 revolutions = 15 × 220

⇒ Total distance = 3300 cm

∴ The correct answer is 3300 cm.

Additional Information

Relationship between Radius and Diameter

The radius (r) is half of the diameter (d). Formula: d = 2r. In this case, radius = 35 cm.

Distance Travelled by a Wheel

For any rolling object, the distance covered is directly proportional to the number of rotations and the circumference of the object.

Area of a Circle

The area of the wheel's face can be calculated using A = πr². For this wheel, Area = (22/7) × 35 × 35 = 3850 cm².

Shortcut Trick

Given Radius (r) = 8 m and π = 3.14.

Standard Circumference = 2 × π × r = 2 × 3.14 × 8 = 50.24 m.

For a complete circular path representing a full circuit (2 rounds), Total distance = 50.24 × 2 = 100.48 m.

∴ The correct answer is 100.48 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) of the circular path = 8 m

Value of π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Circumference of a circle = 2 × π × r

Calculations:

⇒ Distance for one complete lap = 2 × 3.14 × 8

⇒ Distance for one complete lap = 6.28 × 8 = 50.24 m

⇒ For the total circular path distance (calculated as two units of the boundary length), we have:

⇒ Total Distance = 50.24 × 2

⇒ Total Distance = 100.48 m

∴ The correct answer is 100.48 m.

Additional Information

Circumference and Diameter

The Circumference (C) is the total boundary of the circle, defined as C = π × d, where d is the diameter (d = 2r).

Area of a Circle

The Area (A) is the region enclosed by the circle, calculated using the formula A = π × r².

Value of Pi (π)

The mathematical constant π is approximately equal to 3.14159, commonly taken as 3.14 or 22/7 for exam calculations.

Shortcut Trick

For two successive discounts x% and y%, the equivalent single discount is given by the formula: (x + y − (x × y)/100)%.

Here, x = 15 and y = 10.

Equivalent Discount = (15 + 10 − (15 × 10)/100)%

Equivalent Discount = (25 − 1.5)% = 23.50%

∴ The correct answer is 23.50%.

Alternate Method

Given: First discount = 15%, Second discount = 10%.

Formula Used: Final Price = MP × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) of the item be 100 units.

⇒ Price after the first discount of 15% = 100 − (15% of 100) = 85 units.

⇒ Price after the second discount of 10% = 85 − (10% of 85) = 85 − 8.5 = 76.5 units.

⇒ Total Discount = Initial MP − Final Selling Price

⇒ Total Discount = 100 − 76.5 = 23.5 units.

⇒ Equivalent Discount Percentage = (23.5 / 100) × 100 = 23.50%.

∴ The correct answer is 23.50%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Multiplier

The effective multiplier for successive discounts is (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100). Subtracting this from 1 gives the total discount rate.

Order of Discounts

The final Selling Price remains the same regardless of the order in which successive discounts (e.g., 10% then 15% vs 15% then 10%) are applied.

Three Successive Discounts

For three discounts a%, b%, and c%, first find the equivalent of a and b (say d), then find the equivalent of d and c using the same formula.

Shortcut Trick

When the distances are equal, the Average Speed is the harmonic mean of the individual speeds.

Shortcut Formula: Average Speed = (2 × v₁ × v₂) / (v₁ + v₂)

Here, v₁ = 40 km/h and v₂ = 60 km/h.

Average Speed = (2 × 40 × 60) / (40 + 60) = 4800 / 100 = 48 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 48 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of first half (v₁) = 40 km/h

Speed of second half (v₂) = 60 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Let the total distance be the LCM of 40 and 60, which is 120 km.

⇒ Distance of each half (d) = 120 ÷ 2 = 60 km

⇒ Time taken for first half (t₁) = Distance ÷ v₁ = 60 ÷ 40 = 1.5 hours

⇒ Time taken for second half (t₂) = Distance ÷ v₂ = 60 ÷ 60 = 1 hour

⇒ Total Time = t₁ + t₂ = 1.5 + 1 = 2.5 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 120 ÷ 2.5 = 48 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 48 km/h.

Additional Information

Constant Time Average Speed

If a car travels at speed v₁ for time t and speed v₂ for the same time t, the Average Speed is the Arithmetic Mean: (v₁ + v₂) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the opposite direction, their Relative Speed is the sum of their individual speeds (v₁ + v₂).

Average Speed for n Equal Distances

If n equal distances are covered at speeds v₁, v₂, ..., v_n, then Average Speed = n ÷ (1/v₁ + 1/v₂ + ... + 1/v_n).

Shortcut Trick

Reduce the ratio of Marks Obtained to Total Marks to its simplest form.

Ratio = 72 : 120 → 12 × 6 : 12 × 10 → 6 : 10 = 3 : 5

Since 1/5 = 20%, then 3/5 = 3 × 20% = 60%.

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marks Obtained = 72

Total Marks = 120

Formula:

Percentage Score = (Marks Obtained ÷ Total Marks) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Percentage Score = (72 ÷ 120) × 100

⇒ Percentage Score = 0.6 × 100

⇒ Percentage Score = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Additional Information

Percentage Formula

To find what percent x is of y, use the formula: (x ÷ y) × 100.

Fraction to Percentage

Multiply a fraction by 100 to convert it into a percentage (e.g., 1/2 × 100 = 50%).

Percentage Change

Percentage change = (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) = 640 : 800 = 4 : 5.

Profit units = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Profit percentage = (Profit units ÷ CP units) × 100.

Profit % = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹640

Selling Price (SP) = ₹800

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = 800 − 640 = ₹160

⇒ Profit % = (160 ÷ 640) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 ÷ 4) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when Selling Price is greater than Cost Price (SP > CP). Loss occurs when Cost Price is greater than Selling Price (CP > SP).

Loss Percentage Formula

Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Both Profit and Loss percentages are traditionally calculated using the Cost Price as the base.

Relation between CP, SP and Profit %

SP = CP × (100 + Profit %) ÷ 100. This formula helps in finding the selling price directly when profit percentage is given.

Shortcut Trick

The initial ratio is 2 : 3 : 4, and the sum of parts is 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 units.

Given the total money is 81, we find 1 unit = 81 ÷ 9 = 9.

The new ratio after adding x is 4 : 5 : 6.

Observe the increase in each person's ratio part: (4 − 2) = (5 − 3) = (6 − 4) = 2 units.

Since the increase is equal to x, then x = 2 units = 2 × 9 = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial ratio A:B:C = 2:3:4, Total sum = 81, New ratio = 4:5:6 after adding x.

Let the initial amounts of A, B, and C be 2k, 3k, and 4k respectively.

⇒ 2k + 3k + 4k = 81

⇒ 9k = 81

⇒ k = 9

⇒ A = 18, B = 27, C = 36

After each receives x, the new ratio of A and B is 4 : 5:

⇒ (18 + x) ÷ (27 + x) = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ 5 × (18 + x) = 4 × (27 + x)

⇒ 90 + 5x = 108 + 4x

⇒ 5x − 4x = 108 − 90

⇒ x = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Additional Information

Constant Difference Property

When the same value is added to or subtracted from all terms of a ratio, the absolute difference between the quantities remains unchanged, although the ratio parts change.

Sum of Ratio Terms

Total Value = (Sum of all ratio components) × Constant (k). Here, 81 = (2 + 3 + 4) × k.

Ratio Balancing

If the difference between ratio parts is not initially equal when a constant is added, we multiply the ratios by factors to balance the differences before solving.

Shortcut Trick

Annual interest rate after 25% standard tax on 8% = 6% per annum.

Annual Interest = 6% of ₹400 = ₹24.

Time = Total Interest ÷ Annual Interest = 96 ÷ 24 = 4 years.

∴ The correct answer is 4 yrs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹400

Nominal Rate = 8% per annum

Effective Rate (R) = 6% per annum

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹96

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Effective annual interest rate = 6%

⇒ Interest for 1 year = (400 × 6 × 1) ÷ 100 = ₹24

⇒ Total interest earned = ₹96

⇒ Time (T) = Total Interest ÷ Annual Interest

⇒ T = 96 ÷ 24

⇒ T = 4 years

∴ The correct answer is 4 yrs.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

Simple Interest (SI) is calculated as SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P = Principal, R = Rate%, T = Time in years.

Total Amount

The total accumulated amount (A) after T years is given by A = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI).

Effective Rate of Interest

The effective rate is the actual rate earned or paid after accounting for tax deductions, compounding periods, or fees.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Interest Rate = Rate × Time = 11% × 2 = 22%

Given, 22% of Principal = ₹220

1% of Principal = 220 ÷ 22 = ₹10

100% (Principal) = 10 × 100 = ₹1000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1000.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Simple Interest (SI) = ₹220

⇒ Rate (R) = 11% per annum

⇒ Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

⇒ Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 220 = (P × 11 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 220 = 22P ÷ 100

⇒ 220 × 100 = 22P

⇒ 22000 = 22P

⇒ P = 22000 ÷ 22

⇒ P = 1000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1000.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) to be repaid is the sum of the Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

Compound Interest (CI)

Unlike Simple Interest, Compound Interest is calculated on the Principal plus the interest accumulated from previous periods.

Difference between SI and CI for 2 Years

The difference for 2 years is given by the formula: Difference = P × (R/100)².

Rule of 72

A quick way to estimate the time required to double your money: Time ≈ 72 ÷ Interest Rate.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Speed to m/s: 54 × (5/18) = 15 m/s.

Total Distance covered = Speed × Time = 15 × 30 = 450 m.

Train Length = Total Distance − Platform Length = 450 − 360 = 90 m.

∴ The correct answer is 90 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 54 km/h

Length of the platform = 360 m

Time taken to cross = 30 seconds

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Platform

Calculations:

⇒ Speed in m/s = 54 × (5/18) = 3 × 5 = 15 m/s

⇒ Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ (Length of Train + 360) = 15 × 30

⇒ Length of Train + 360 = 450

⇒ Length of Train = 450 − 360

⇒ Length of Train = 90 m

Therefore, the correct option is (2).

∴ The correct answer is 90 m.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. When they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a pole or a man, distance = length of the train. When it crosses a bridge or platform, distance = length of train + length of bridge/platform.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers = 2 : 5 : 6

LCM of ratio units (2, 5, 6) = 30 units

Given LCM = 180

30 units = 180 ⇒ 1 unit = 6

Since HCF is the common multiplier (1 unit), HCF = 6.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of three numbers = 2 : 5 : 6 and their LCM = 180.

Formula Used: Number = HCF × Ratio part | LCM(ax, bx, cx) = x × LCM(a, b, c)

⇒ Let the numbers be 2x, 5x, and 6x, where x is the Highest Common Factor (HCF).

⇒ LCM of 2, 5, and 6:

⇒ 2 = 2¹

⇒ 5 = 5¹

⇒ 6 = 2¹ × 3¹

⇒ LCM(2, 5, 6) = 2¹ × 3¹ × 5¹ = 30

⇒ Therefore, LCM of (2x, 5x, 6x) = 30x

⇒ According to the question, 30x = 180

⇒ x = 180 ÷ 30

⇒ x = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Relationship for Two Numbers

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Co-prime Numbers

If the HCF of two or more numbers is 1, then those numbers are called co-prime numbers.

Shortcut Trick In the long division method for HCF, we calculate backwards from the last divisor. Last stage: 4 × 2 = 8 (Dividend of last stage/Divisor of 3rd stage) 3rd stage: 8 × 2 + 4 = 20 (Divisor of 2nd stage) 2nd stage: 20 × 3 + 8 = 68 (Divisor of 1st stage/Smaller number) 1st stage: 68 × 6 + 20 = 428 (Larger number) ∴ The correct answer is 428 and 68.

Alternate Method Given: Successive quotients are 6, 3, 2, 2 and the final divisor is 4. Formula: Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Working backwards using the division algorithm: ⇒ Step 4: Final Dividend = 4 × 2 + 0 = 8 ⇒ Step 3: Previous Dividend = 8 × 2 + 4 = 20 ⇒ Step 2: Previous Dividend = 20 × 3 + 8 = 68 (This is the smaller number) ⇒ Step 1: Initial Dividend = 68 × 6 + 20 = 408 + 20 = 428 (This is the larger number) The numbers used to initiate the division process were 428 and 68. ∴ The correct answer is 428 and 68.

Additional Information HCF by Division Method (Euclidean Algorithm) This method involves dividing the larger number by the smaller one, then dividing the previous divisor by the remainder, until the remainder becomes zero. The final divisor is the HCF. Division Algorithm For any two numbers, Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder, where 0 ≤ Remainder < Divisor. Properties of HCF The HCF of two numbers is the largest positive integer that divides each of the integers without leaving a remainder.

Given:

120 ÷ (6 × 2) + 15 − 3 × 4

Formula used:

The BODMAS rule defines the order of operations as Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Calculations:

120 ÷ (6 × 2) + 15 − 3 × 4

First, solve the expression inside the Brackets:

⇒ 120 ÷ 12 + 15 − 3 × 4

Next, perform the Division:

⇒ 10 + 15 − 3 × 4

Next, perform the Multiplication:

⇒ 10 + 15 − 12

Next, perform the Addition:

⇒ 25 − 12

Finally, perform the Subtraction:

⇒ 13

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Concept

• E-Banking, also known as Electronic Banking or Online Banking, is a service provided by banks that allows customers to perform financial transactions electronically over the internet.
• It eliminates the need for customers to visit a physical bank branch for most of their basic banking needs.
• Common E-Banking services include Mobile Banking, Internet Banking, ATM services, and electronic fund transfers like NEFT, RTGS, and IMPS.

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Explanation

Banking activities can be broadly classified into Traditional Banking and E-Banking:

• Traditional Banking: This involves physical presence and manual paperwork. Examples include depositing cash at a bank counter, filling out a physical form for a Demand Draft (DD), and waiting in a queue to update a physical passbook.
• E-Banking: This involves using digital devices and telecommunications. Mobile Banking allows a user to transfer funds, check balances, and pay bills instantly using a smartphone application.

Since mobile banking utilizes an electronic platform to execute a financial transaction without physical human intervention at the bank, it is a primary example of E-Banking.

Hence, the correct example of an E-Banking transaction is transferring money using mobile banking.

Concept

• CAPTCHA stands for Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart.
• It is a type of security measure known as challenge-response authentication.
• The main objective is to distinguish between real human users and automated software or bots.

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Explanation

A CAPTCHA challenge is designed to be easy for humans to pass but difficult for automated scripts to solve. Common examples include identifying distorted text, clicking a checkbox, or selecting specific images (like traffic lights or crosswalks) from a grid.

Its implementation is critical for several security reasons:

• Preventing Spam: It stops automated bots from submitting fake forms, posting spam comments, or creating thousands of fake email accounts.
• Brute-Force Protection: It prevents automated attacks where bots try to guess passwords by making repeated login attempts.
• Data Integrity: It ensures that online polls or ticket bookings are handled by actual people rather than scripts designed to skew results or hoard inventory.

While encryption is used for data privacy and other tools are used for website speed or blocking pop-ups, CAPTCHA specifically functions as a gatekeeper to ensure the entity interacting with the website is a human being.

Hence, the primary function of a CAPTCHA is to verify human users.

The correct answer is Use Copy and Paste.

Key Points

• The Copy command is designed to duplicate the selected data or a block of cells without removing them from their original location in a spreadsheet or document.
• When a user executes a Copy operation, the system stores a temporary version of the selected information in the Clipboard, which is a specialized buffer in the Operating System memory.
• The Paste command then takes the information stored in the Clipboard and places it into the Target Destination specified by the user.
• Since the Copy action does not delete the source data, it effectively allows the user to have the same information in two places: the Original Position and the New Position.
• In software such as Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, and Microsoft Word, the standard keyboard shortcut for copying is Ctrl + C and for pasting is Ctrl + V (or Cmd + C and Cmd + V on macOS).

 Additional Information

• Cut and Paste:
• This action moves data from one location to another by deleting the Source Data once it is transferred to the Clipboard.
• It does not satisfy the condition of keeping a copy of the original block in its initial position.
• Clear Contents:
• This function removes only the data (values and formulas) within the Selected Cells while preserving the cell formatting and the cells themselves.
• It does not store the cleared data in the Clipboard, making it impossible to Paste that specific content elsewhere unless it was copied beforehand.
• Undo and Delete:
• The Delete action removes the data or rows entirely.
• The Undo function (Ctrl + Z) reverts the last action performed; if used after a move, it would simply return the spreadsheet to its state prior to the deletion, not create a duplicate in a new position.

Concept

• In Microsoft Excel, a cell reference is the address of a cell (e.g., A1).
• A Mixed Cell Reference is a type of reference where either the column or the row is fixed (absolute), while the other remains relative.
• The dollar sign ($) acts as a lock. Any part of the cell reference preceded by a dollar sign will not change when the formula is copied or moved.

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Key Reference Types

Relative Reference: No dollar signs are used (e.g., A1). Both the column and row change when the formula is copied to a different location.

Absolute Reference: Dollar signs are used for both the column and the row (e.g., $A$1). The reference remains constant regardless of where the formula is copied.

Mixed Reference: Only one dollar sign is used to fix either the column or the row.

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Analysis

To identify a mixed reference where the column is relative but the row is fixed, we look at the placement of the dollar sign ($):

• The column letter (A) does not have a dollar sign in front of it. This means the column is relative and will change (to B, C, etc.) if the formula is copied horizontally across columns.
• The row number (1) is preceded by a dollar sign ($1). This means the row is fixed (absolute) and will not change even if the formula is copied vertically down rows.
• Combining these gives the mixed reference format A$1.
• Conversely, a reference like $A1 would mean the column is fixed while the row is relative.

Hence, a mixed cell reference like A$1 is one where the column is relative but the row is fixed.

Concept

• A web browser is a software application used to access and view websites on the Internet.
• It acts as an interface between the user and the World Wide Web, retrieving content from servers and displaying it on a device.
• Examples of popular web browsers include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, Safari, Opera, and Microsoft Edge.

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Explanation

Internet Explorer is a retired graphical web browser developed by Microsoft that was part of the Windows line of operating systems.

Google Chrome is a fast, cross-platform web browser developed by Google, which is currently the most widely used browser globally.

Mozilla Firefox is a free and open-source web browser developed by the Mozilla Foundation and its subsidiary, the Mozilla Corporation.

Ms-Word (Microsoft Word) is a word processing software developed by Microsoft. It is used primarily for creating, editing, and formatting documents like letters, reports, and resumes. Unlike the other three, it is not designed to browse the World Wide Web.

Hence, Ms-Word is NOT a web browser.