Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 29 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The Correct answer is Tabla.

Key Points

• The Tabla is a widely popular percussion instrument in Indian classical music, consisting of two drums – the Dayan (right drum) and the Bayan (left drum).
• Allah Rakha and Sabir Khan were renowned tabla maestros known for their contributions to Indian classical music and fusion performances.
• Pandit Kishan Maharaj and Pandit Gyan Prakash Ghosh were also celebrated tabla players whose expertise elevated the instrument’s prominence in Hindustani classical music.
• Sandip Das is another well-known tabla artist who specializes in Indian classical music and has collaborated in global fusion music projects.
• The Tabla is used in various forms of music, including Hindustani classical, devotional, film music, and fusion genres.
• The instrument is known for its versatility, capable of producing intricate rhythms and dynamic tones that enhance musical compositions.
• The Tabla has two primary components: the smaller, higher-pitched drum (Dayan) made of wood, and the larger, bass-pitched drum (Bayan), often made of metal or clay.

Additional Information

• Mridangam
• The Mridangam is a percussion instrument primarily used in Carnatic classical music.
• It is a barrel-shaped drum with two heads, producing a rich and resonant tone.
• The Mridangam is considered the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic concerts.
• It is made from jackfruit wood and is played using both hands.
• Famous Mridangam players include Palghat Mani Iyer and Umayalpuram K. Sivaraman.
• Pakhavaj
• The Pakhavaj is a traditional Indian drum used in Dhrupad music, a genre of Hindustani classical music.
• It is a cylindrical drum with two heads, and its playing technique is similar to the Mridangam.
• The Pakhavaj has a deep, resonant sound and is considered the precursor to the tabla.
• It is commonly used in devotional and classical music.
• Ghatam
• The Ghatam is a percussion instrument made of clay and is widely used in Carnatic classical music.
• It is a pot-like instrument played with fingers, palms, and sometimes knuckles.
• The Ghatam produces a unique metallic tone and is known for its rhythmic versatility.
• Famous Ghatam players include T.H. Vikku Vinayakram and S. Karthick.

The Correct answer is Production Approach.

Key Points

• The Production Approach is one of the three main methods used in national income accounting to calculate a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• It involves classifying production centres into three major sectors: primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors.
• Primary Sector: This includes activities related to the extraction and harvesting of natural resources such as agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining.
• Secondary Sector: This includes industrial activities that involve the manufacturing and processing of goods, such as factories and construction industries.
• Tertiary Sector: This includes services like banking, education, healthcare, trade, and transport.
• The approach calculates GDP by summing up the value added at each stage of production across all sectors.
• The method avoids the issue of double counting by focusing on the value added at each production stage rather than the total value of sales.
• It provides a clear picture of the contribution of different sectors to the economy, which helps policymakers in planning and resource allocation.

Additional Information

• Residual Approach
• The Residual Approach is not a standard method of calculating national income. However, it is sometimes used in specific cases to calculate the income of certain sectors when direct measurement is not possible.
• This method relies on indirect estimation by subtracting known components from the total to derive the unknown component.
• Income Approach
• The Income Approach calculates GDP by summing up all incomes earned by individuals and businesses, including wages, rents, interests, and profits.
• This method focuses on the distribution side of the economy rather than the production side.
• Expenditure Approach
• The Expenditure Approach calculates GDP by summing up all spending on final goods and services in the economy, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
• This method is useful for analyzing the demand side of the economy.

The Correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The world's longest highway tunnel, as of July 2023, is the Atal Tunnel, which is located in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• The Atal Tunnel is named after Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the former Prime Minister of India.
• This engineering marvel is located under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.
• The tunnel is approximately 9.02 km long, making it the longest highway tunnel in the world at high altitude.
• It connects Manali to the Lahaul-Spiti Valley, ensuring year-round connectivity, which was previously cut off during heavy snowfall in winter.
• The tunnel reduces the distance between Manali and Leh by around 46 km, saving significant travel time.
• The construction of the Atal Tunnel was completed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), under the Ministry of Defence, India.
• This tunnel is equipped with state-of-the-art facilities, such as an advanced air quality monitoring system, emergency escape tunnels, and fire hydrants at regular intervals.
• It is a significant infrastructure project that boosts tourism, improves connectivity, and strengthens the socio-economic development of the region.

Additional Information

• West Bengal
• West Bengal is known for its historical landmarks and natural attractions such as the Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
• It is not known for hosting major highway tunnels but is significant for its contribution to industries and culture in India.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat is famous for its industrial growth and cultural heritage, including the Statue of Unity, the tallest statue in the world.
• It does not have any notable highway tunnels like the Atal Tunnel but is a major hub for economic activities in India.
• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan is predominantly a desert state, known for its Thar Desert and historical forts.
• It is not known for highway tunnels but is renowned for its rich cultural heritage and tourism.

The Correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

• Prarthana Samaj was a socio-religious reform movement founded in the year 1867 in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• It was deeply influenced by the Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, and sought to reform Hindu society by discarding caste distinctions and promoting monotheism.
• Atmaram Pandurang, a social reformer, was the founder of Prarthana Samaj.
• R.G. Bhandarkar and Govind Ranade were prominent members who actively supported and worked for the objectives of the movement.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, although a key figure in India's freedom struggle and a social reformer in his own right, was not associated with the Prarthana Samaj. His focus was more on political awakening and nationalistic ideals.
• The primary aim of the Prarthana Samaj was to promote social and religious equality, education for women, and the abolition of untouchability and child marriage.

Additional Information

• R. G. Bhandarkar
• R. G. Bhandarkar was a prominent Indologist and social reformer.
• He played a significant role in the Prarthana Samaj and contributed to its activities in promoting reformist ideas.
• Bhandarkar was also known for his scholarly contributions to Indian history and culture.
• Govind Ranade
• Govind Ranade was a jurist, economist, and a strong proponent of social reforms in India.
• He was a key member of the Prarthana Samaj and played a pivotal role in addressing issues like caste discrimination and women's emancipation.
• Ranade believed in combining education and social reform to bring about progressive changes in Indian society.
• Atmaram Pandurang
• Atmaram Pandurang was the founder of the Prarthana Samaj in 1867.
• He was a medical doctor by profession but was deeply committed to the cause of social and religious reform.
• His vision was to create a more egalitarian and progressive society by promoting the values of monotheism and universal brotherhood.

The Correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Lakshadweep has the highest male literacy rate among all the Union Territories in India.
• The male literacy rate in Lakshadweep is recorded at an impressive 96.11%, which reflects the region's commitment to education despite its geographical isolation.
• Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands in the Arabian Sea and is the smallest Union Territory of India in terms of area.
• The administration of Lakshadweep has made consistent efforts to improve educational infrastructure, access to schools, and awareness about education among the people.
• The high literacy rate is attributed to the Union Territory's emphasis on free and compulsory education policies and the region's cultural inclination towards knowledge and learning.
• It is also notable that Lakshadweep has a smaller population, which makes it easier to implement effective educational programs.

Additional Information

• Delhi
• Delhi, the capital city of India, also records a high literacy rate, but its male literacy rate is lower than that of Lakshadweep.
• Delhi is known for its extensive network of educational institutions, including schools, colleges, and universities.
• It is one of the most urbanized Union Territories, which contributes to its relatively high literacy rate.
• Daman & Diu
• Daman & Diu had a good literacy rate in Census 2011, but it is not the highest among Union Territories.
• It is a small Union Territory located on the western coast of India, known for its historic Portuguese influence.
• Efforts have been made to improve education in this region, but challenges such as access to remote areas have limited its progress compared to Lakshadweep.
• Puducherry
• Puducherry, located in southern India, is another Union Territory with a relatively high literacy rate.
• It is known for its French colonial heritage and a well-established education system.
• However, its male literacy rate is lower than that of Lakshadweep as per Census 2011.

The Correct answer is 9th Schedule.

Key Points

• The 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India was introduced by the First Amendment in 1951.
• It contains certain laws that are beyond the scope of judicial review. These laws were initially aimed at protecting land reform and agrarian laws from being challenged in courts.
• The concept of judicial immunity was introduced to ensure the implementation of socio-economic reforms without legal hindrance.
• However, in 2007, the Supreme Court in the landmark case of I.R. Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu ruled that laws placed in the 9th Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Thus, while the laws under the 9th Schedule initially enjoyed complete immunity, this immunity is now conditional based on the principle of the basic structure doctrine.
• The 9th Schedule is significant for the protection of laws that aim to bring about socio-economic justice and reduce inequalities.

Additional Information

• 4th Schedule
• The 4th Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to various states and union territories.
• It is based on the population of each state, as per the last census.
• This schedule does not have immunity from judicial review.
• 6th Schedule
• The 6th Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states of India, such as Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• It provides for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils to manage tribal affairs and safeguard their rights.
• While it is significant for tribal governance, it does not enjoy immunity from judicial review.
• 10th Schedule
• The 10th Schedule deals with provisions related to anti-defection in India.
• It specifies the grounds on which a member of the legislature can be disqualified for defection, and the role of the Presiding Officer in deciding such cases.
• It does not have immunity from judicial review; decisions under the 10th Schedule can be challenged in courts.

The Correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Mahabodhi Temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the Indian state of Bihar.
• It is situated in Bodh Gaya, a place of immense significance in Buddhism, as it is the location where Gautama Buddha is believed to have attained enlightenment.
• The temple's history dates back to the 3rd century BCE, when Emperor Ashoka, a follower of Buddhism, is said to have built the original structure.
• The Mahabodhi Temple complex includes the Vajrasana (Diamond Throne), the sacred Bodhi Tree under which Buddha meditated, and several other shrines and stupas.
• The architecture of the temple is a blend of Nagara style (north Indian temple architecture) and elements inspired by Buddhist symbolism.
• The temple attracts thousands of pilgrims and tourists from across the world every year, making it a center for Buddhist spirituality and heritage.
• The Mahabodhi Temple is closely associated with promoting the teachings of Buddhism and preserving its historical and cultural legacy.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh is another state significant in the context of Buddhism, as it is home to Sarnath, where Buddha delivered his first sermon, and Kushinagar, where he attained Mahaparinirvana.
• However, the Mahabodhi Temple is located in Bihar and not in Uttar Pradesh.
• Chhattisgarh
• Chhattisgarh is known for its natural beauty, tribal culture, and ancient temples, but it does not have any historical connection to the Mahabodhi Temple.
• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh is known for its historical sites such as Sanchi Stupa, a major Buddhist site, but the Mahabodhi Temple is not located here.

The Correct answer is Cell is a functional unit of life.

Key Points

• The cell is the basic structural, functional, and biological unit of all living organisms. It is often referred to as the building block of life.
• All living organisms, from the smallest bacteria to the largest plants and animals, are composed of one or more cells, making it the functional unit of life.
• Cells carry out essential processes such as metabolism, growth, reproduction, and energy transformation.
• The cell theory, proposed by Schleiden and Schwann, states that all living organisms are made of cells and that the cell is the fundamental unit of structure and function in all organisms.
• The cell contains various organelles such as the nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and ribosomes, which perform specialized functions to sustain life.
• Cells are classified into two types: prokaryotic cells (e.g., bacterial cells) and eukaryotic cells (e.g., plant and animal cells).
• This fundamental characteristic of cells makes them the functional unit of life, as they are responsible for carrying out all life processes.

Additional Information

• Bacterial cell contains cellulose.
• Bacterial cells do not contain cellulose. Instead, their cell walls are made up of peptidoglycan, a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids.
• Cellulose is a major component of the cell walls of plants, not bacteria.
• Powerhouse of a cell is plastid.
• The powerhouse of the cell is the mitochondria, not plastid. Mitochondria generate ATP, the energy currency of the cell.
• Plastids, such as chloroplasts, are involved in photosynthesis and other functions in plant cells but are not responsible for energy production.
• Cell membrane of a cell is hard and rigid.
• The cell membrane is a flexible and semi-permeable structure made of a phospholipid bilayer. It is not hard and rigid.
• It controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell and provides structural support to the cell.

The Correct answer is Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq).

Key Points

• A double displacement reaction occurs when two compounds exchange ions or elements to form two new compounds.
• In the reaction Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq), there is an exchange of ions between sodium sulfate (Na₂SO₄) and barium chloride (BaCl₂).
• The barium ions (Ba²⁺) react with sulfate ions (SO₄²⁻) to form an insoluble precipitate of barium sulfate (BaSO₄), which is a characteristic of double displacement reactions.
• The sodium ions (Na⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻) form sodium chloride (NaCl), which remains dissolved in the aqueous solution.
• This reaction demonstrates the concept of precipitation, where one of the products (BaSO₄) is insoluble and forms a solid in the solution.
• Double displacement reactions are commonly used in qualitative analysis and occur in aqueous solutions.
• This reaction is also a classic example of how ionic compounds interact in water to produce new compounds.

Additional Information

• 2Pb(NO₃)₂(s) + Heat → 2PbO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)
• This is an example of a decomposition reaction, where a single compound breaks down into multiple simpler substances.
• Lead nitrate decomposes upon heating to form lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide gas, and oxygen gas.
• Decomposition reactions are often triggered by heat, light, or electricity.
• ZnO + C → Zn + CO
• This is a reduction reaction, where zinc oxide is reduced to zinc metal by carbon.
• Carbon acts as a reducing agent, converting zinc oxide into metallic zinc while itself getting oxidized to carbon monoxide.
• Such reactions are frequently seen in metallurgical processes for extracting metals from their ores.
• Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)
• This is an example of a single displacement reaction, where iron displaces copper from copper sulfate to form iron sulfate and copper metal.
• Single displacement reactions typically occur when a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound.
• In this case, iron is more reactive than copper, which drives the reaction forward.

The Correct answer is Gastric glands.

Key Points

• Gastric glands are located in the walls of the stomach and play a significant role in the process of digestion.
• They secrete gastric juice, which contains several important substances such as hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen, and mucus.
• Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic environment in the stomach, which is crucial for activating the enzyme pepsin.
• Pepsin, an enzyme secreted by the gastric glands, breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.
• Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the corrosive effects of hydrochloric acid.
• The secretion of gastric juice is regulated by hormones such as gastrin and neural signals to ensure proper digestion.
• The gastric glands are a part of the digestive system, which works together with other organs to break down food and absorb nutrients.

Additional Information

• Kidney
• The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering blood, removing waste products, and balancing electrolytes and fluids in the body.
• They are part of the excretory system and play no direct role in digestion.
• The kidneys also regulate blood pressure and produce hormones such as erythropoietin for red blood cell production.
• Hands
• Hands are primarily involved in performing tasks and physical activities, such as holding or preparing food, but they do not participate in the physiological process of digestion.
• They are part of the musculoskeletal system, which aids in movement and coordination.
• Heart
• The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body via the circulatory system.
• It does not have any function related to digestion but ensures that oxygen and nutrients are delivered to digestive organs.
• The heart is vital for maintaining cardiovascular health and overall body function.

The correct answer is 1P/Halley.

Key Points

• 1P/Halley, commonly known as Halley's Comet, is one of the most famous comets in the Solar System.
• It has an albedo of 0.03, which makes it one of the darkest and least reflective objects in the Solar System.
• An albedo of 0.03 means that Halley's Comet reflects only 3% of the sunlight that falls on it, absorbing the rest.
• The comet is composed of dark organic compounds mixed with other elements like silicates and water ice, which contribute to its low reflectivity.
• Halley's Comet is a periodic comet and is visible from Earth approximately every 75-76 years. Its last appearance was in 1986, and it is expected to return in 2061.
• It was named after Edmond Halley, who successfully predicted its periodic return after studying historical records of comet appearances.
• Because of its dark surface and unique characteristics, Halley's Comet provides significant insights into the composition and behavior of comets.

Additional Information

• 9P/Tempel 1
• 9P/Tempel 1 is another periodic comet in the Solar System.
• It was the target of the Deep Impact mission conducted by NASA in 2005, which studied its composition by colliding a spacecraft probe with its surface.
• This comet has a higher albedo than Halley's Comet and reflects more sunlight.
• 2P/Encke
• 2P/Encke is known for having the shortest orbital period of any known comet, completing a trip around the Sun approximately every 3.3 years.
• Its albedo is higher than Halley's Comet, making it more reflective.
• 19P/Borrelly
• 19P/Borrelly is another periodic comet that has been studied closely by spacecraft.
• It was visited by NASA's Deep Space 1 mission in 2001, which provided detailed images of its nucleus.
• Its albedo is slightly higher than Halley's Comet, but it is still relatively dark compared to other celestial bodies.

The Correct answer is 61st Constitutional Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
• This amendment was introduced to encourage greater youth participation in the electoral process and strengthen democracy.
• The change was made by amending Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which governs elections to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
• The amendment recognized the importance of youth in shaping the nation's future and gave them the right to vote at an earlier age.
• The reduction in voting age aimed to empower the younger generation and ensure their voices and opinions are represented in the political process.
• This decision was a landmark in the democratic history of India as it expanded the electorate significantly, adding millions of new voters.

Additional Information

• 51st Constitutional Amendment Act
• The 51st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1984 provided for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram in the Lok Sabha.
• This amendment aimed to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes in these states.
• It is unrelated to the reduction of the voting age.
• 71st Constitutional Amendment Act
• The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, making them official languages of India.
• This amendment dealt with linguistic diversity rather than voting rights.
• 41st Constitutional Amendment Act
• The 41st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 extended the term of office for members of Parliament and state legislatures during emergencies.
• This amendment was passed to address political stability during times of national crisis.
• It does not relate to voting age changes.

The Correct answer is PR Sreejesh.

Key Points

• PR Sreejesh is a celebrated Indian hockey player who played as a goalkeeper for the Indian men's hockey team.
• He was awarded the prestigious Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021, which is India's highest sporting honor.
• The award recognizes his exceptional performance and contribution to Indian hockey, particularly during the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• At the Tokyo Olympics, PR Sreejesh played a crucial role in helping India win a historic bronze medal in hockey, marking India's return to the Olympic podium after 41 years.
• Sreejesh has been a vital part of the Indian hockey team since 2006 and has participated in multiple international tournaments, earning accolades for his goalkeeping skills and leadership.
• He hails from Kerala and is widely regarded as one of the finest hockey goalkeepers in the world.

Additional Information

• Lovlina Borgohain
• Lovlina Borgohain is an Indian boxer who specializes in the women's welterweight category.
• She won a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in boxing, making her the third Indian boxer to win an Olympic medal.
• Lovlina hails from the state of Assam and has received the Arjuna Award for her achievements.
• Sumit Antil
• Sumit Antil is an Indian para-athlete who competes in javelin throw.
• He won a gold medal in the Men’s Javelin Throw F64 category at the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics.
• Sumit set a world record during the event with a throw of 68.55 meters.
• Ravi Kumar Dahiya
• Ravi Kumar Dahiya is an Indian wrestler who competes in the men's freestyle 57 kg category.
• He won a silver medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, showcasing exceptional skill and determination.
• Ravi hails from Sonipat, Haryana, and is regarded as one of India's most promising young wrestlers.

The Correct answer is Fourth Five Year Plan - Poverty Removal Goal.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five Year Plan (1969–1974) primarily focused on growth with stability and emphasized self-reliance in agriculture and industrial production.
• Although the issue of poverty was recognized, the explicit goal of poverty removal was not the focus of this plan.
• The poverty alleviation programs, such as the Garibi Hatao initiative, were formally introduced during the Fifth Five Year Plan under the leadership of Indira Gandhi.
• The Fourth Plan also dealt with challenges such as the Bangladesh Liberation War, a severe drought, and the oil crisis, which impacted its outcomes.
• The Plan aimed at achieving 4.4% growth, but the actual growth rate remained around 3.3% due to economic and geopolitical challenges.
• Key features of this plan included the Green Revolution, which increased agricultural productivity, and the focus on reducing dependence on foreign aid.

Additional Information

• First Five Year Plan - Agricultural Development
• The First Five Year Plan (1951–1956) focused on the agricultural sector, recognizing its importance in the Indian economy.
• Major initiatives included the Community Development Program and investments in irrigation projects like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar Model for economic growth.
• Second Five Year Plan - Nehru Mahalanobis Model
• The Second Five Year Plan (1956–1961) was based on the Mahalanobis Model, which emphasized rapid industrialization, particularly in the capital goods sector.
• This plan laid the foundation for public sector undertakings (PSUs) like the Bhilai Steel Plant and Durgapur Steel Plant.
• It focused on achieving a socialist pattern of society as envisioned by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Third Five Year Plan - Gadgil Plan
• The Third Five Year Plan (1961–1966) is also known as the Gadgil Plan, named after D.R. Gadgil, who was associated with its formulation.
• It focused on achieving self-reliance in food production and emphasized the development of the agricultural sector.
• The plan faced challenges due to the 1962 Indo-China War, the 1965 Indo-Pak War, and drought conditions.

The Correct answer is Sanskrit.

Key Points

• The inscription on the Allahabad pillar was composed by Harishena, the court poet and minister of Samudragupta, a prominent ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
• The inscription is written in classical Sanskrit language, which was widely used during the Gupta period for administrative, literary, and historical purposes.
• It is written in the script of Brahmi, which was commonly used for Sanskrit inscriptions during ancient India.
• The content of the inscription provides a detailed account of Samudragupta's military conquests, his victories over different rulers, and his achievements as a ruler.
• The Allahabad pillar inscription is also known as the Prayag Prashasti, where "Prashasti" means eulogy, as it glorifies the deeds of Samudragupta.
• The Gupta period is often referred to as the "Golden Age of India", during which the Sanskrit language and literature flourished.
• This inscription is an important historical source for understanding the political, cultural, and military history of ancient India.

Additional Information

• Persian
• Persian was introduced to India much later during the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal Empire.
• It became the court language of several dynasties but was not used during the time of the Guptas.
• Famous Persian works in India include the Ain-i-Akbari and the Baburnama.
• Prakrit
• Prakrit was a vernacular language widely used in ancient India for inscriptions, especially during the Mauryan and post-Mauryan periods.
• It was often used in the Ashokan edicts but declined in prominence during the Gupta period, which saw the rise of Sanskrit.
• Pali
• Pali is the language of the Theravada Buddhist scriptures, particularly the Tripitaka.
• It was primarily used in Buddhist contexts and was not associated with Gupta inscriptions.

The correct answer is 21.9%.

Key Points

• As per the Economic Survey 2013-14 released by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, the percentage of people below the poverty line in India during the year 2011-12 was calculated to be 21.9%.
• This data is based on the Tendulkar Methodology, which takes into account both rural and urban poverty.
• The poverty line is determined by considering the minimum income or expenditure required to meet basic needs like food, clothing, housing, and education.
• In terms of absolute numbers, this percentage implies that approximately 269 million people were living below the poverty line in India in 2011-12.
• The Planning Commission of India played a crucial role in estimating poverty figures during this period.
• The poverty ratio was higher in rural India (25.7%) compared to urban India (13.7%) as per the same survey.
• Efforts by the Government of India, such as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and National Food Security Act, were aimed at alleviating poverty and improving the standard of living.

Additional Information

• 12.4%
• This figure does not align with the poverty estimates provided by the Economic Survey 2013-14 or other accepted methodologies during this period.
• 10.2%
• The value is significantly lower than the actual poverty rate calculated for India during 2011-12, and it does not represent the conditions accurately as per official surveys.
• 0.187
• This appears to be a misrepresentation or incorrect format of data. It is likely not related to the percentage of people below the poverty line.
• Additional Key Points
• The Economic Survey is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance that reviews the economic development of the country over the past year.
• The Tendulkar Methodology, introduced by the Suresh Tendulkar Committee, marked a shift from calorie-based poverty estimation to one based on per capita consumption expenditure.
• India has seen a decline in poverty rates over the years due to various socio-economic reforms and government welfare schemes.

The Correct answer is Taimur Lang.

Key Points

• Taimur Lang, also known as Tamerlane, was a Turkic-Mongol ruler and the founder of the Timurid Empire in Central Asia.
• He invaded India in 1398 with the primary intention of plundering wealth, rather than establishing a long-term empire in the region.
• Taimur's invasion targeted the Delhi Sultanate, which was under the rule of Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Tughlaq of the Tughlaq dynasty.
• He defeated the Sultanate's forces in the Battle of Delhi and captured the city, subjecting it to widespread looting, destruction, and massacre.
• The invasion caused immense devastation, leading to the decline of the Tughlaq dynasty and weakening of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Taimur justified his invasion by claiming to spread Islam, although his actual motivation was the accumulation of wealth and power.
• Despite the destruction, Taimur did not stay in India for long. After the plunder, he returned to his capital in Samarkand with immense riches.
• His invasion left a significant impact on Indian history, as it created a power vacuum and paved the way for subsequent invasions, including that of the Mughals, who were descended from his lineage.

Additional Information

• Shahrukh Mirza
• Shahrukh Mirza was a Timurid ruler and the son of Taimur Lang.
• He ruled over the eastern part of the Timurid Empire, including regions like Khorasan, Persia, and Transoxiana.
• Unlike Taimur, he is known for his administrative abilities and contributions to art and culture, particularly in the city of Herat.
• Genghis Khan
• Genghis Khan was the founder of the Mongol Empire, which became the largest contiguous empire in history.
• He lived in the 12th and 13th centuries and led conquests across Central Asia, China, and parts of Europe.
• Although Genghis Khan's forces reached regions near India, he did not invade the Indian subcontinent directly.
• Guyuk Khan
• Guyuk Khan was the third Great Khan of the Mongol Empire and the grandson of Genghis Khan.
• He ruled from 1246 to 1248 and is primarily known for consolidating Mongol power rather than military campaigns.
• Guyuk did not have any direct connection to India's invasions.

The Correct answer is Asthenosphere.

Key Points

• The Asthenosphere is a part of the Earth's interior and lies beneath the lithosphere.
• It extends from approximately 100 km to 300 km below the Earth's surface.
• The asthenosphere is composed of semi-molten rock known as magma, which allows tectonic plates to move over it.
• This layer plays a crucial role in plate tectonics, facilitating the movement of Earth's lithospheric plates.
• The asthenosphere is characterized by its low rigidity and high viscosity compared to the lithosphere.
• The heat and pressure in this region result in partial melting of rocks, making it ductile and deformable.
• The asthenosphere is important for geological processes such as volcanism, earthquakes, and mountain-building.
• It is part of the Earth's upper mantle and is located between the lithosphere and the more solid lower mantle.

Additional Information

• Stratosphere
• The Stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere, located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
• It extends from approximately 10 km to 50 km above Earth's surface.
• The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
• This layer is characterized by a gradual increase in temperature with altitude due to the absorption of UV radiation.
• The stratosphere is primarily important for aviation, as commercial aircraft often fly in this layer to avoid weather disturbances.
• Thermosphere
• The Thermosphere is the fourth layer of Earth's atmosphere, located above the mesosphere and below the exosphere.
• It extends from approximately 80 km to 700 km above Earth's surface.
• The thermosphere is characterized by high temperatures, which can reach up to 2,500°C or more due to solar activity.
• This layer is home to the International Space Station (ISS) and satellites, as it is where Earth's atmosphere transitions into outer space.
• The auroras, such as the Northern Lights, occur in this layer due to interactions between solar wind and Earth's magnetic field.
• Troposphere
• The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface to approximately 8-15 km above sea level.
• This layer contains the majority of Earth's weather phenomena, including clouds, rain, and storms.
• The troposphere is where the Earth's air pressure and temperature are highest compared to other layers of the atmosphere.
• It is crucial for life on Earth as it contains most of the oxygen and other gases required for survival.
• The temperature in the troposphere decreases with altitude at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometer.

The correct answer is External Commercial Borrowings.

Key Points

• External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) refer to loans that are raised by Indian companies from foreign sources or institutions.
• ECBs are used primarily for expansion, modernization, or investment in infrastructure projects and other long-term purposes.
• These borrowings can be in the form of bank loans, bonds, debentures, trade credits, or other financial instruments.
• ECBs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under its guidelines to ensure proper usage and prevent economic risks.
• They provide companies with access to cheaper funds compared to domestic sources, as interest rates in international markets are often lower.
• However, since these borrowings are in foreign currency, they carry risks such as exchange rate fluctuations and the need for repayment in foreign currency.
• Companies in sectors such as power, telecommunication, transport, steel, and real estate frequently utilize ECBs for their projects.

Additional Information

• Essential Commercial Borrowings
• This term does not exist in financial or economic terminology.
• It may be confused with ECBs, but the correct term is External Commercial Borrowings.
• Essential Common Borrowings
• This term is not recognized in the context of external debt or international finance.
• It does not refer to any specific borrowing mechanism or financial instrument.
• External Common Borrowings
• This term is incorrect and not used in the financial world.
• The correct term is External Commercial Borrowings, which refers to loans from foreign sources.

The Correct answer is Sattriya.

Key Points

• Sattriya is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• It originated in the northeastern state of Assam.
• This dance form was introduced by the great saint and reformer Srimanta Sankar Dev in the 15th century.
• Sattriya was initially performed in Vaishnavite monasteries, known as Sattras, as a form of devotional art to spread the teachings of Lord Krishna.
• The dance form combines expressive gestures (abhinaya), a distinctive rhythm, and a unique style of storytelling to depict mythological narratives, primarily from the Bhagavata Purana.
• It is characterized by its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressions that portray devotion and spirituality.
• Sattriya dance has been recognized as one of the Classical Dances of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, highlighting its cultural and historical significance.

Additional Information

• Odissi
• Odissi is one of the oldest surviving classical dance forms in India, originating from the state of Odisha.
• This dance form is primarily based on the Natya Shastra and revolves around themes of devotion to Lord Jagannath.
• It is known for its fluid movements, tribhangi posture, and intricate gestures.
• Manipuri
• Manipuri is a classical dance form that originates from Manipur, a northeastern state of India.
• It is deeply rooted in Vaishnavism and often portrays the Ras Leela of Radha and Krishna.
• This dance form is known for its gentle and flowing movements and lack of vigorous foot tapping.
• Kathak
• Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in North India.
• It is known for its intricate footwork, spins, and expressive storytelling based on mythological and historical tales.
• The word "Kathak" is derived from "Katha," meaning story, emphasizing its storytelling roots.

The Correct answer is National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM).

Key Points

• National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India.
• Under its component Shelter for Urban Homeless (SUH), the aim is to provide permanent housing with essential services to the urban homeless in a phased manner.
• The SUH scheme supports the construction of night shelters equipped with all necessary amenities such as water supply, sanitation, and electricity.
• The focus is on addressing the needs of the urban homeless population, especially those living in conditions of extreme poverty or destitution.
• The mission also emphasizes convergence with other schemes like the Swachh Bharat Mission for sanitation and Skill India for livelihood generation.
• NULM aims to create a sustainable model that reduces urban poverty by enhancing livelihood opportunities and providing shelter and basic infrastructure.
• The implementation of SUH involves collaboration between Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and other stakeholders to ensure inclusivity and efficiency.

Additional Information

• Rural Housing Scheme
• The Rural Housing Scheme is focused on providing housing solutions for the rural poor rather than the urban homeless.
• It includes programs like Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana (PMGAY), which targets rural areas for affordable housing construction.
• Rajiv Awas Yojana
• Rajiv Awas Yojana was launched with the goal of achieving a slum-free India by providing basic facilities in slum areas and enabling housing upgrades.
• This scheme targeted urban slum dwellers but did not specifically focus on the urban homeless population.
• Prime Minister Housing Scheme
• The Prime Minister Housing Scheme refers to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), which encompasses housing for all by 2022 but is not specifically centered around the urban homeless.
• It addresses the needs of both urban and rural populations for affordable housing solutions.

The Correct answer is Railway.

Key Points

• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was established in 1851, primarily for the purpose of exploring and studying the coal reserves in India.
• The primary motivation for the establishment of GSI was the growing need for coal to support the development of railways in India.
• During the mid-19th century, the railway network in India was expanding rapidly under British colonial rule.
• Coal was a crucial source of fuel to power the steam locomotives used in railways during this period.
• GSI's role included surveying and mapping the coal reserves to ensure the availability of sufficient resources for railway operations.
• The establishment of GSI marked a significant step in the development of the industrial sector in India, as coal mining and railway expansion were interlinked.
• Over time, GSI expanded its scope to include other areas of geological research and exploration, but its initial focus on coal exploration was pivotal for the progress of India's railway infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Export to Japan
• India has historically exported several commodities to Japan, including minerals and textiles, but coal was not a significant export to Japan during the mid-19th century.
• Japan's industrialization began later in the 19th century, and its dependence on imported coal was relatively low compared to other nations during that time.
• Sea Transport
• Coal was not primarily explored for sea transport in India during the 19th century.
• While coal was used in ships, the focus in India at that time was primarily on utilizing coal for railways and industrial purposes.
• Textile Mill
• Textile mills do require energy, but during the mid-19th century in India, the primary focus of coal exploration was to support railway development rather than textile production.
• Textile mills in India started gaining prominence later, especially during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

The Correct answer is Shah Jahan.

Key Points

• The Peacock Throne was commissioned by Shah Jahan, the fifth Mughal emperor of India.
• Shah Jahan was renowned for his patronage of art and architecture, evident in structures like the Taj Mahal.
• The throne was crafted in the 17th century and adorned with a variety of precious stones, including diamonds, rubies, pearls, and emeralds.
• It was designed to be a representation of the emperor's grandeur, symbolizing the opulence and power of the Mughal Empire.
• The throne's design incorporated a canopy resembling the feathers of a peacock, hence its name.
• Shah Jahan's reign is marked as a period of great cultural and architectural achievements, and the Peacock Throne is one of the most illustrious examples of Mughal craftsmanship.
• It was later looted by Nadir Shah of Persia during his invasion of India in 1739.
• The Peacock Throne is considered one of the most expensive and exquisite creations in history, symbolizing the wealth and artistic brilliance of the Mughal Empire.

Additional Information

• Aurangzeb
• Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal emperor, is known for his military campaigns and expansion of the empire but is not associated with commissioning grand structures like the Peacock Throne.
• His reign marked a shift towards a more conservative and orthodox approach to governance.
• Aurangzeb is primarily remembered for his policies that led to the eventual decline of the Mughal Empire.
• Humayun
• Humayun was the second Mughal emperor, and his reign was disrupted by his defeat at the hands of Sher Shah Suri.
• He is not linked to the commissioning of the Peacock Throne, as the Mughal Empire was still consolidating its power during his reign.
• Humayun's Tomb, a significant architectural marvel, was built later by his son Akbar.
• Akbar
• Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, is known for his administrative reforms and cultural integration policies.
• Though Akbar contributed significantly to Mughal architecture, the Peacock Throne was commissioned much later during Shah Jahan's reign.
• Akbar's contributions include the construction of Fatehpur Sikri and the development of a unique architectural style blending Persian and Indian elements.

The Correct answer is Only A and B.

Key Points

• Privatization refers to the process of transferring ownership, management, or control of government-owned enterprises or assets to private entities.
• Disinvestment involves the sale or liquidation of the government’s stake in public sector enterprises. It reduces government ownership and encourages private participation, thus promoting privatization.
• Outsourcing is the practice of contracting out services or functions to private companies. This allows private firms to handle specific tasks or operations, fostering privatization in service delivery and operations.
• Urbanization is a demographic process involving the migration of people from rural to urban areas and the expansion of urban centers. It does not directly promote privatization.
• Since both Disinvestment and Outsourcing are mechanisms that encourage privatization, the correct answer is Only A and B.

Additional Information

• Disinvestment
• Definition: The government reduces its stake in public enterprises by selling shares to private entities or the general public.
• Purpose: To generate revenue, improve efficiency, and reduce the fiscal burden on the government.
• Examples: Sale of government stakes in companies like Air India or BPCL.
• Outsourcing
• Definition: A process where businesses or governments contract private entities to perform certain tasks or services.
• Applications: IT services, customer support, cleaning, security, and transportation.
• Examples: Outsourcing ticketing services to private companies by Indian Railways.
• Urbanization
• Definition: The process of people moving to urban areas, leading to the growth of cities.
• Impact: Urbanization impacts society, economy, and infrastructure but does not directly relate to privatization.
• Examples: Expansion of cities like Mumbai, Delhi, and Bengaluru.

The Correct answer is Article 49.

Key Points

• Article 49 of the Indian Constitution falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It states that it shall be the duty of the State to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historical interest.
• The article emphasizes the preservation of India’s rich cultural heritage.
• It is linked to ensuring the protection of national monuments from destruction, disfigurement, or removal.
• The implementation of this article is a responsibility of the government to ensure that historical and cultural landmarks remain intact for future generations.
• It is part of the broader framework of DPSPs, which aim to establish a welfare state and provide guidance to governments for achieving socio-economic goals.
• This article serves as the legal basis for various heritage preservation initiatives undertaken by the government, including the protection of UNESCO World Heritage sites in India.

Additional Information

• Article 51
• Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is related to international peace and security.
• This article directs the State to promote international law, treaty obligations, and peaceful relations with other nations.
• It is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and focuses on fostering global cooperation and mutual respect.
• Article 47
• Article 47 deals with the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition, standard of living, and public health.
• It directs the State to prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to health.
• This article highlights the government's role in ensuring public health and welfare.
• Article 45
• Article 45 originally provided for free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years.
• It was amended by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002) to make education a fundamental right under Article 21A.
• Now, Article 45 focuses on providing early childhood care and education for children below the age of six years.

The Correct answer is Federal Plan.

Key Points

• The Government of India Act, 1935 laid the foundation for the federal structure in India.
• It introduced the concept of a Federal Plan, dividing powers between the Central Government and the Provincial Governments.
• The Act provided for three lists of subjects: the Federal List, the Provincial List, and the Concurrent List, which were later incorporated into the Indian Constitution.
• The Federal Plan established the principle of division of powers, which is now a key feature of India's Constitutional framework.
• The Act also introduced the system of autonomy for provinces, marking the beginning of decentralization in governance.
• This federal structure continues to be a significant feature of the Constitution of India, as seen in Articles related to the division of powers and responsibilities between the Union and the States.

Additional Information

• Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
• The provision for the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency is derived from the Weimar Constitution of Germany, not the Government of India Act, 1935.
• In India, it is specifically provided under Article 359 of the Constitution.
• This mechanism allows the President to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a national emergency.
• Joint Sitting of the Two Houses of Parliament
• The concept of a Joint Sitting is derived from the Australian Constitution.
• In India, it is mentioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
• It is convened to resolve disagreements between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a particular bill.
• The Idea of a Republic
• The idea of India being a Republic was inspired by the French Revolution.
• A Republic signifies a form of government where the head of the state is elected, rather than a hereditary monarch.
• This concept is reflected in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

The Correct answer is 40%.

Key Points

• The Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1992 as part of India's economic reforms.
• Under LERMS, 40% of foreign exchange earnings were required to be converted at the official exchange rate, while the remaining 60% could be converted at market-determined rates.
• This dual exchange rate system was implemented to address the foreign exchange shortage India faced in the early 1990s.
• The system aimed to increase foreign exchange inflows, reduce the balance of payments crisis, and bring more flexibility to the exchange rate policy.
• LERMS was a transitional measure that eventually led to the full convertibility of the Indian rupee on the current account.
• It marked a significant step in India's shift toward a market-oriented economy and liberalisation of its trade and financial systems.

Additional Information

• Key Impact of LERMS:
• LERMS helped improve India's foreign exchange reserves by encouraging exporters to bring in more foreign exchange earnings.
• It created a more competitive environment for Indian exporters as they could access market-determined exchange rates for a portion of their earnings.
• The system provided a gradual transition toward a unified exchange rate system, which was adopted in 1993.
• Background of Economic Reforms:
• India faced a severe balance of payments crisis in 1991, with foreign exchange reserves barely sufficient to cover a few weeks of imports.
• The economic reforms initiated in 1991 included measures such as trade liberalisation, industrial policy reforms, and fiscal consolidation, along with LERMS.

The Correct answer is C.A. Bhavani Devi.

Key Points

• C.A. Bhavani Devi is the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Olympics.
• She represented India in fencing at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• Fencing is a combat sport involving swords, and Bhavani Devi competes in the individual sabre event.
• She has won several medals in international competitions such as the Commonwealth Fencing Championships and the Asian Championships.
• Bhavani Devi has been a trailblazer in fencing for India, inspiring many young athletes to consider the sport.
• She trained in various countries like Italy and France, which are hubs for fencing expertise.
• The sport of fencing has three main categories: foil, sabre, and épée, and Bhavani specializes in the sabre category.

Additional Information

• Navjeet Kaur Dhillon
• Navjeet Kaur Dhillon is an Indian athlete specializing in discus throw.
• She won a bronze medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games held in Gold Coast, Australia.
• She is one of India's prominent names in track and field events, specifically in discus throw competitions.
• Parul Chowdhary
• Parul Chowdhary is an Indian athlete who competes in middle-distance running events like the 1500 meters and 3000 meters steeplechase.
• She has represented India in various international competitions and is known for her exceptional stamina and speed.
• Hima Das
• Hima Das is popularly known as the Dhing Express and is an Indian sprinter.
• She is the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championships.
• Hima specializes in the 400 meters sprint and has brought laurels to India in various international events.

The Correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Telangana Legislative Assembly was established in the year 2014, following the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh.
• Telangana became the 29th state of India on June 2, 2014.
• The bifurcation was a result of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, which was passed by the Indian Parliament.
• The Telangana Legislative Assembly is the unicameral legislature of the state of Telangana.
• It consists of 119 members, who are directly elected by the people of Telangana.
• The first Chief Minister of Telangana was K. Chandrashekar Rao, who played a pivotal role in the Telangana statehood movement.
• The assembly sessions are conducted at the Legislative Assembly Building, located in Hyderabad, which is the capital of Telangana.
• The formation of Telangana was a significant step in recognizing the regional identity, aspirations, and development needs of the people in the region.

Additional Information

• 2012
• The year 2012 marks the period during which the demand for a separate Telangana state gained significant momentum, but the state was not officially formed yet.
• The Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS), led by K. Chandrashekar Rao, intensified its movement for statehood during this time.
• 2013
• 2013 was a crucial year in the Telangana statehood movement as the Union Cabinet approved the creation of Telangana on October 3, 2013.
• This decision set the stage for the passage of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
• 2010
• The year 2010 witnessed several agitations and protests demanding the formation of Telangana as a separate state.
• Although discussions about the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh were ongoing, no formal decision was made in this year.

The Correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• In a standard game of cricket, an over consists of 6 legal deliveries bowled by a bowler.
• The concept of 6-ball overs was officially standardized in international cricket by the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) in the 20th century.
• Each over allows the bowler to deliver 6 balls consecutively unless interrupted by a no-ball or wide, which require additional deliveries.
• The system of 6-ball overs ensures that the game progresses at a regulated pace and allows batsmen and bowlers to strategize effectively.
• Historically, cricket in some countries used varying numbers of balls per over, such as 4, 5, or 8, but these variations were eventually phased out in favor of the 6-ball standard.
• Modern cricket formats, including Test matches, One-Day Internationals (ODIs), and T20s, all adhere to the 6-ball over rule.
• Overs are a key structural component of cricket matches, determining the number of balls bowled in a game, with 50 overs per innings in ODIs and 20 overs per innings in T20 matches.

Additional Information

• Historical Variations in Overs
• In the early days of cricket, the number of balls in an over varied depending on the country or region.
• For instance, Australia used an 8-ball over format in domestic cricket until 1979-80.
• England and other countries settled on the 6-ball over standard due to its efficiency and widespread acceptance in international matches.
• No-Balls and Wides
• If a bowler bowls a no-ball or a wide, it does not count as one of the 6 legitimate balls in the over.
• The bowler must bowl an additional delivery to complete the over, ensuring fairness to the batting side.

The Correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Assam is globally renowned for its extensive tea plantations.
• The state is one of the largest tea producers in India and contributes significantly to the world's tea production.
• The tea produced in Assam is known for its robust flavor, rich aroma, and bright color, making it highly sought after.
• The Brahmaputra River Valley provides fertile soil and a humid climate, ideal for tea cultivation.
• Assam tea is classified as black tea and is often used in blends like English Breakfast Tea.
• The Assam Tea Gardens are spread across districts like Dibrugarh, Tinsukia, Sivasagar, and Jorhat.
• Tea cultivation in Assam started in the early 19th century during British colonial rule.
• The Assam Tea Auction Centre in Guwahati is one of the largest tea auction centers in the world.

Additional Information

• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan is known for its desert terrain, particularly the Thar Desert.
• The state is famous for its camel breeding, historical forts, and palaces but does not support tea cultivation due to its arid climate and sandy soil.
• Rajasthan is a leading producer of mustard seeds, bajra, and marbles.
• Punjab
• Punjab is located in the northern part of India and is known as the granary of India due to its high agricultural productivity.
• The state specializes in the cultivation of crops like wheat, rice, and sugarcane but does not have suitable climatic conditions for tea plantations.
• Punjab is famous for its robust irrigation system and the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat is known for its industries, especially in textiles, chemicals, and diamonds, rather than tea cultivation.
• Its agricultural focus is on crops like cotton, groundnut, and tobacco due to its semi-arid climate.
• The state is home to the Gir Forest National Park, famous for its Asiatic lions.

The Correct answer is Chromatin.

Key Points

• Chromatin refers to the highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein filaments present in the nucleus of a cell when it is not dividing.
• It is composed of DNA, RNA, and protein, primarily histones.
• During the non-dividing phase (interphase), chromatin exists in a relaxed state, allowing for essential processes such as DNA replication and gene expression.
• Chromatin is organized into two forms: euchromatin, which is transcriptionally active, and heterochromatin, which is densely packed and transcriptionally inactive.
• When the cell prepares for division, chromatin condenses into visible structures known as chromosomes.
• Chromatin plays a crucial role in regulating genetic activity and ensuring proper organization of genetic material during the cell cycle.
• The understanding of chromatin structure and function is central to areas such as genetics, molecular biology, and epigenetics.

Additional Information

• Fibromatin
• This term is not commonly used in scientific literature to describe the structure of nuclear material. It does not accurately represent the chromatin complex.
• Bromatine
• The term Bromatine appears to be incorrect or non-existent in the context of cellular biology and nuclear material.
• Tubulin
• Tubulin is a protein that forms microtubules, which are components of the cytoskeleton and play a crucial role in cell shape, intracellular transport, and cell division.
• It is unrelated to chromatin, as it is not involved in the organization of genetic material within the nucleus.

The correct answer is Article 163.

Key Points

• Article 163 of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor of a state is aided and advised by the Council of Ministers in exercising his functions, except where he is required to act in his discretion.
• This article explicitly mentions that "the advice tendered by the Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into by any Court."
• The provision ensures the confidentiality of the advice given by the Council of Ministers to the Governor, preserving the sanctity of the constitutional process.
• This article is crucial for maintaining the separation of powers and ensuring that the executive's internal workings remain immune from judicial scrutiny.
• The Governor's discretion is limited to specific areas as mentioned in the Constitution, and in most other matters, he is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• This provision upholds the principle of responsible governance under the parliamentary system, where the Council of Ministers holds collective responsibility.
• By shielding the advice tendered from judicial review, Article 163 safeguards the democratic functioning of state governments.

Additional Information

• Article 167
• Article 167 of the Indian Constitution lays down the duties of the Chief Minister in relation to the Governor.
• It states that the Chief Minister shall communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor and furnish any information related to the administration of the state.
• The Chief Minister may also submit proposals for consideration by the Council of Ministers if required by the Governor.
• This provision ensures a smooth flow of information and coordination between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
• Article 161
• Article 161 gives the Governor the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute sentences in cases relating to offenses against laws in the state.
• This is similar to the President's power under Article 72, but is limited to state laws.
• This article highlights the Governor's role in the criminal justice system of the state.
• Article 168
• Article 168 establishes the structure of the state legislature, which consists of the Governor and either one or two houses depending on the state.
• In states with a bicameral legislature, the two houses are called the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.
• This article highlights the legislative framework of state governments in India.

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

• Sujata Mohapatra is one of the most renowned practitioners of the Odissi dance form, a classical dance originating from Odisha, India.
• The Odissi dance form is characterized by its graceful movements, expressive gestures (mudras), and intricate footwork.
• Sujata Mohapatra is a disciple and daughter-in-law of the legendary Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra, who revived and popularized Odissi dance in the modern era.
• She has performed at numerous national and international platforms, showcasing the beauty and intricacies of Odissi dance.
• The dance form is deeply rooted in the devotional tradition and is often performed as an offering to Lord Jagannath, a prominent deity worshipped in Odisha.
• Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• The dance is known for its distinctive tribhangi posture (three bends of the body) and the depiction of mythological stories through dance.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam
• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
• It is known for its fixed upper torso, intricate footwork, hand gestures (mudras), and facial expressions.
• This dance form is primarily performed as a devotional offering to deities in temples.
• The stories depicted in Bharatanatyam are often based on Hindu mythology.
• Sattriya
• Sattriya is a classical dance form originating from Assam, India.
• It was introduced by the Vaishnavite saint Sankardev in the 15th century as a form of worship.
• Sattriya dance is traditionally performed in monasteries (satras) by celibate monks.
• It is known for its themes revolving around Lord Krishna and Vaishnavism.
• Kathak
• Kathak is a classical dance form from North India.
• It is characterized by its spinning movements, intricate footwork, and use of ghungroos (ankle bells).
• Kathak often narrates stories from Hindu epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• This dance form has both Hindu and Mughal influences, blending devotional and courtly traditions.

The Correct answer is mridangam.

Key Points

• Karaikudi R Mani is a renowned Indian player of the mridangam, a traditional South Indian percussion instrument.
• The mridangam is a double-sided drum primarily used in Carnatic music performances, which is a classical music genre of South India.
• Karaikudi R Mani is widely regarded for his virtuosity, technical mastery, and innovative rhythmic patterns on the mridangam.
• He has contributed significantly to the field of Carnatic music by blending traditional techniques with modern interpretations.
• The mridangam is made of wood and has two drum heads, which are tuned to different pitches to produce a wide range of sounds.
• It holds a central role in Carnatic music ensembles, providing rhythmic support to vocalists and instrumentalists.
• Karaikudi R Mani has performed globally and collaborated with various artists, bringing the rich heritage of mridangam to international audiences.

Additional Information

• Santoor
• The santoor is a traditional Indian stringed instrument originating from Kashmir.
• It is played using a pair of wooden mallets and is commonly used in Indian classical music.
• Its sound is delicate and melodic, contrasting with the percussion nature of the mridangam.
• Violin
• The violin is a bowed string instrument primarily used in Western classical music but also features prominently in Carnatic and Hindustani music.
• Indian violinists adapt the instrument to the nuances of Indian classical music, often playing in a seated posture.
• Sitar
• The sitar is a plucked string instrument and one of the most iconic instruments in Hindustani classical music.
• It is widely recognized for its distinctive sound and association with artists like Ravi Shankar.

The Correct answer is Chhau.

Key Points

• Chhau is a traditional Indian dance form that combines elements of martial arts, folk dance, and storytelling.
• The dance is primarily performed in the eastern Indian states of Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
• It has three distinct styles: Purulia Chhau (West Bengal), Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha), and Seraikella Chhau (Jharkhand).
• Chhau often depicts stories from Indian epics such as the Mahabharata and Ramayana, as well as local folklore.
• The dance form is noted for its vibrant costumes, elaborate masks (especially in Purulia Chhau), and dynamic movements.
• It is traditionally performed during festivals and cultural events, particularly during the Chaitra Parva (spring festival).
• Makar Dhwaja Darogha is recognized for his exceptional contributions to this art form, which earned him the Padma Shri, one of India’s highest civilian honors.

Additional Information

• Kalbelia
• Kalbelia is a traditional folk dance form of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan, who are known for their nomadic lifestyle.
• The dance is performed by women in flowing black skirts, symbolizing the movement of snakes.
• It is accompanied by traditional Rajasthani music, primarily featuring instruments like the pungi and dholak.
• The dance is recognized as an Intangible Cultural Heritage by UNESCO.
• Mohiniattam
• Mohiniattam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Kerala.
• The dance is characterized by graceful movements, subtle expressions, and feminine themes.
• It is closely associated with temple rituals and devotional performances.
• The term "Mohiniattam" derives from Mohini, a mythological enchantress from Hindu mythology.
• Kathak
• Kathak is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, known for its intricate footwork and spins.
• It originated in the northern regions of India and has influences from both Hindu and Mughal cultures.
• The dance often narrates stories from Hindu mythology, but it also incorporates Persian and Central Asian elements.
• Music accompanying Kathak includes instruments like the tabla and sitar.

The Correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• Ravi Shastri, a former Indian cricketer, represented the Mumbai team in the Ranji Trophy, which is India’s premier domestic cricket tournament.
• Mumbai has a rich history in Indian cricket and is considered one of the strongest teams in the Ranji Trophy, having won the tournament a record number of times.
• Ravi Shastri was known for his excellent all-round skills as a batsman and bowler during his playing career and played a significant role in Mumbai's domestic cricket success.
• He made his debut for Mumbai in the Ranji Trophy at a young age and went on to achieve great success, eventually becoming a key player for the Indian national team.
• Mumbai has produced numerous legendary cricketers, including Sachin Tendulkar, Sunil Gavaskar, and Ajinkya Rahane, who have also represented the team in the Ranji Trophy.
• The Ranji Trophy is named after Kumar Shri Ranjitsinhji, and it serves as the backbone of Indian domestic cricket, providing a platform for players to showcase their talent.

Additional Information

• Calcutta (now Kolkata)
• Calcutta has a cricketing culture and has produced players who represented Bengal in the Ranji Trophy.
• Bengal has performed well in domestic cricket but does not have the dominance of Mumbai in the Ranji Trophy.
• Some famous cricketers from Bengal include Sourav Ganguly, who went on to captain the Indian national team.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is another successful team in the Ranji Trophy and has produced great cricketers such as Rahul Dravid and Anil Kumble.
• It is known for its strong cricketing infrastructure and has won multiple Ranji Trophy titles.
• Delhi
• Delhi is a prominent team in the Ranji Trophy and has produced players like Virat Kohli, Gautam Gambhir, and Shikhar Dhawan.
• Delhi has a strong cricketing culture and has contributed significantly to Indian cricket.

The Correct answer is Only (ii) is true.

Key Points

• Privatization refers to the process of transferring ownership, management, or control of government-owned or public sector enterprises to private sector entrepreneurs.
• Privatization can occur in various forms, including complete transfer of ownership, partial ownership transfer, or management control transfer.
• The statement "Transfer of management of public sector enterprises to private sector entrepreneurs" correctly reflects one form of privatization. Often, governments retain ownership but allow private entities to manage operations to improve efficiency and profitability.
• The statement "Non-transfer of ownership of public sector enterprises to private sector entrepreneurs" contradicts the core concept of privatization, as privatization inherently involves some level of private sector involvement, whether in ownership or management.
• Privatization aims to enhance efficiency, productivity, and competitiveness by reducing bureaucratic control and introducing market-driven practices.
• Examples of privatization include the outsourcing of services, sale of public sector enterprises, or allowing private sector participation in previously government-controlled industries like telecommunications, energy, and transportation.

Additional Information

• Non-transfer of ownership
• The concept of non-transfer of ownership does not align with privatization, as privatization inherently involves some level of transfer of ownership or control to the private sector.
• This idea may be more relevant to public-private partnerships (PPP), where the government retains ownership but collaborates with private entities for management or operations.
• Transfer of management
• The transfer of management is a common form of privatization, often referred to as management contracts.
• It allows private entities to operate and manage public sector enterprises without full ownership transfer, ensuring better operational efficiency while retaining government control over strategic assets.
• Privatization Examples
• Countries like India have privatized several entities, including Air India, telecom companies, and energy firms, to improve efficiency and reduce government expenditure.
• Privatization has been widely adopted globally, with examples like the British Rail privatization and Japan Post Holdings.

The Correct answer is London.

Key Points

• Shyamji Krishnavarma was an Indian revolutionary, lawyer, and journalist who played a crucial role in India's freedom struggle.
• He founded the India Home Rule Society in the year 1905 in London.
• The organization was commonly referred to as India House and served as a hub for Indian students and revolutionaries in England.
• The primary aim of the India Home Rule Society was to promote the cause of self-rule (Swaraj) for India and to support revolutionary activities against British colonial rule.
• India House in London became a center for young Indian nationalists, including revolutionaries like Madam Bhikaji Cama, Veer Savarkar, and Madan Lal Dhingra.
• The activities of the India Home Rule Society and India House inspired revolutionary movements and were instrumental in creating awareness about the Indian freedom struggle on an international level.
• Shyamji Krishnavarma also started a publication called "The Indian Sociologist," which propagated revolutionary ideas and criticized British imperialism.

Additional Information

• Berlin
• Berlin was not the location where India House or the India Home Rule Society was established.
• However, Berlin did serve as a base for some Indian revolutionaries during World War I, particularly those associated with the Ghadar Party and the Indian Independence Committee.
• The city played a role in the Berlin Committee, which was formed to secure German support for India's independence during the war.
• San Francisco
• San Francisco was a significant center for the Ghadar Movement, which was a revolutionary movement initiated by Indian immigrants in the United States and Canada.
• The Ghadar Party was formed in San Francisco in 1913 to overthrow British rule in India.
• The Ghadarites published a newspaper called "Ghadar," advocating for armed revolution against British imperialism.
• Paris
• Paris served as an important hub for Indian nationalists and revolutionaries in the early 20th century.
• Prominent figures like Madam Bhikaji Cama operated from Paris and supported revolutionary activities, including the publication of revolutionary literature like "Bande Mataram."
• It was in Paris that Madam Cama unfurled the first version of the Indian national flag at the International Socialist Congress in 1907.

The Correct answer is Lord Ripon.

Key Points

• Lord Ripon served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884.
• He is considered a liberal reformer who introduced several progressive policies during his tenure.
• He repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, which was widely unpopular as it restricted the freedom of the Indian press.
• Lord Ripon is often referred to as the Father of Local Self-Government in India due to his efforts to decentralize administration and empower local municipalities.
• Under his reforms, municipalities were given greater powers and autonomy to manage local affairs, which marked a significant step toward democratic governance.
• His tenure also saw the introduction of the Ilbert Bill, which aimed to allow Indian judges to preside over cases involving Europeans, though it faced severe backlash from European communities.
• Lord Ripon's policies laid the foundation for the growth of modern administrative systems in India and were pivotal in shaping the concept of local governance.

Additional Information

• Lord Ilbert
• Lord Ilbert was associated with the Ilbert Bill, which was introduced during Lord Ripon's tenure as Viceroy.
• The Ilbert Bill proposed granting Indian judges the power to try cases involving European defendants, but it faced opposition due to racial biases prevalent during the colonial period.
• Although Lord Ilbert’s name is linked with this bill, he did not serve as a Viceroy; his contribution was more legal and administrative.
• Lord Dufferin
• Lord Dufferin served as the Viceroy of India from 1884 to 1888.
• He is known for his role in shaping the modern Indian National Congress during the early stages of its formation.
• Lord Dufferin also emphasized improving agricultural conditions and strengthening British rule in India.
• Lord Lytton
• Lord Lytton served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880.
• He enacted the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, which restricted the freedom of the Indian press and was widely criticized.
• Lord Lytton also organized the Delhi Durbar of 1877 to proclaim Queen Victoria as Empress of India.
• His tenure is often criticized for being authoritarian and indifferent to the needs of the Indian population.

The Correct answer is Rock-Cut.

Key Points

• The Kailash Temple at Ellora and the Rath Temple at Mahabalipuram are prime examples of rock-cut architecture.
• Rock-cut architecture involves carving structures directly into natural rock formations, often out of a single rock or cliff.
• These temples are examples of the monolithic style, where the entire structure is hewn out of a single block of stone.
• The Kailash Temple, located in the Ellora Caves (Maharashtra, India), is a magnificent specimen of Hindu temple architecture carved out of a single rock. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• The Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu, India) are part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site and represent the Pallava dynasty's architectural brilliance.
• These structures reflect the artistic and engineering ingenuity of ancient Indian craftsmen, as they required precise planning and expertise to carve intricate designs.
• Unlike other forms of architecture where materials like bricks and wood are used, rock-cut architecture demands exceptional skill in sculpting stone surfaces directly.
• Such architecture is prevalent in ancient Indian temples, monasteries, and caves, showcasing the cultural and religious heritage of the time.

Additional Information

• Panchaytan
• The Panchaytan style refers to a temple layout where a central shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines, forming a quincunx pattern.
• This style is commonly seen in Nagara-style temples in North India, such as the Kandariya Mahadev Temple in Khajuraho.
• Low Base
• The term Low Base is often used to describe temple architecture with a low plinth or foundation, which is uncommon in grand temple designs like those of Ellora or Mahabalipuram.
• Such structures are generally seen in early or modest temple constructions.
• Giant
• The term Giant might refer to the massive scale of temple structures, but it is not a recognized term in the classification of Indian temple architecture.
• While the Kailash Temple at Ellora is indeed massive, it is specifically categorized under rock-cut architecture.

The Correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Vempati Chinna Satyam was an acclaimed Indian dancer and teacher who brought immense recognition to the classical dance form of Kuchipudi.
• Kuchipudi is one of the eight major classical dance forms of India, with its origins in the village of Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
• This dance form combines fast rhythmic footwork with graceful movements and is often performed as a dance-drama, incorporating both acting and dancing.
• Vempati Chinna Satyam is credited with systematizing and modernizing Kuchipudi while retaining its traditional essence, thereby making it accessible to a global audience.
• For his contributions to the preservation and promotion of Kuchipudi, he was honored with the prestigious Padma Bhushan award in the year 1998.
• He trained numerous students, both in India and abroad, and authored works that codified the techniques of Kuchipudi.
• Kuchipudi performances are often based on themes from Hindu mythology, especially stories from texts like the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas.

Additional Information

• Kathak
• Kathak is a classical dance form originating from North India.
• It is characterized by intricate footwork, spins, and expressive gestures, often accompanied by classical Hindustani music.
• Kathak performances often narrate tales from Indian epics and folklore.
• Kathakali
• Kathakali is a classical dance-drama originating from the state of Kerala in South India.
• It is known for its elaborate costumes, face painting, and intricate hand gestures.
• Kathakali performances are usually based on stories from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and other ancient texts.
• Bharatanatyam
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms in India, originating in Tamil Nadu.
• It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate footwork, and hand gestures called mudras.
• Bharatanatyam is often performed as an expression of devotion and is based on themes from Hindu mythology.

The correct answer is 97th Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 97th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution was enacted in 2011.
• This amendment introduced the concept of cooperative societies as a part of the fundamental rights under Article 19(1)(c).
• It explicitly provided that all citizens have the fundamental right to form cooperative societies.
• The amendment also added a new Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43B, which emphasizes the promotion of cooperative societies.
• The objective was to strengthen the functioning of cooperative societies and enhance their autonomy, democratic functioning, and accountability.
• The act sought to create an environment where cooperative societies could thrive, aiding in the economic and social development of the nation.
• This amendment applies to all states and union territories across India, ensuring uniformity in governance and rights concerning cooperative societies.

Additional Information

• 89th Amendment Act
• The 89th Amendment Act provided for the bifurcation of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate commissions: one for Scheduled Castes and another for Scheduled Tribes.
• 99th Amendment Act
• The 99th Amendment Act was related to the establishment of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
• However, the NJAC was later struck down by the Supreme Court, declaring it unconstitutional.
• 91st Amendment Act
• The 91st Amendment Act introduced provisions to limit the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly.
• This amendment aimed at reducing the burden of an excessively large executive and promoting efficient governance.

The Correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Key Points

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a prominent Indian political leader during the Indian independence movement.
• He was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi.
• After Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915, it was Gopal Krishna Gokhale who advised him to travel across India to understand the conditions of the people and the country.
• Gokhale’s advice helped Gandhi develop a better understanding of the social, economic, and political realities of India.
• Gokhale was known for his moderate approach to political reform and for his belief in non-violent methods, which greatly influenced Gandhi's philosophy.
• He was also the founder of the Servants of India Society, which aimed to promote education and social reforms in India.

Additional Information

• Chittaranjan Das
• Chittaranjan Das, also known as Deshbandhu, was a prominent freedom fighter and political leader.
• He was a key figure in the Swaraj Party and worked for the cause of self-rule in India.
• Das was a strong advocate for the use of non-cooperation to oppose British rule.
• However, he was not directly associated with advising Gandhi on his initial approach to India's conditions.
• Bipin Chandra Pal
• Bipin Chandra Pal was one of the prominent leaders of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, which advocated for extremist nationalist ideals.
• He was a key figure in the Swadeshi Movement and promoted self-reliance and the boycott of British goods.
• While he contributed significantly to India's independence, he was not connected to Gandhi's early travels in India.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, known as Lokmanya Tilak, was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement.
• He was a member of the extremist faction in the Indian National Congress and is often remembered for his slogan, "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it."
• Tilak was a contemporary of Gandhi but was not directly involved in advising him during his initial years in India.

The Correct answer is Abhijnana Shakuntala.

Key Points

• Abhijnana Shakuntala is a Sanskrit play written by the renowned classical poet and dramatist Kalidasa during the Gupta period.
• The play is based on the love story of King Dushyant and Shakuntala, a maiden born to sage Vishwamitra and the celestial nymph Menaka.
• It is considered one of the greatest works of Indian literature and is a masterpiece of classical Sanskrit drama.
• The play is divided into seven acts, showcasing themes of love, separation, and reunion, with a touch of divine intervention.
• It gained immense popularity not only in India but also influenced world literature, being translated into multiple languages, including English, German, and French.
• The story highlights the concept of ‘Abhijnana’ or recognition, where a lost ring helps Dushyant remember Shakuntala after a curse causes him to forget her.
• Kalidasa’s poetic brilliance and ability to portray human emotions make this play a significant contribution to Indian classical drama and culture.

Additional Information

• Raghuvansham
• Raghuvansham is another famous work by Kalidasa, which is an epic poem describing the lineage of the Raghu dynasty, to which Lord Rama belonged.
• It is written in classical Sanskrit and is known for its poetic excellence and vivid descriptions of the Raghu dynasty’s kings and their heroic deeds.
• Vikramorvashi
• Vikramorvashi, also written by Kalidasa, is a Sanskrit play that narrates the love story of King Pururavas and the celestial nymph Urvashi.
• The play is known for its romantic and mythological elements, showcasing Kalidasa’s expertise in blending human emotions with divine themes.
• Kumarasambhava
• Kumarasambhava is another celebrated work by Kalidasa, which is an epic poem describing the birth of Kartikey (Kumara), the son of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati.
• It is renowned for its rich descriptions of nature and the divine romance between Shiva and Parvati.

The Correct answer is Me Dum Me Fee.

Key Points

• Me Dum Me Fee is an important festival celebrated by the Ahom community in Northeast India.
• The festival is observed to pay homage to the ancestors of the community.
• It is celebrated on January 31 every year with traditional costumes, rituals, and pomp.
• During the festival, people gather at a common place to perform rituals and worship their ancestors as part of their traditional belief system.
• The name "Me Dum Me Fee" translates to "offering oblations to the dead" in the Ahom language, signifying the cultural importance of honoring ancestors.
• This festival reflects the cultural heritage and traditional practices of the Ahom community in Assam.

Additional Information

• Doljatra
• Doljatra, also known as Dol Purnima, is a Hindu festival celebrated primarily in Bengal and Odisha.
• It coincides with Holi and involves worship of Lord Krishna.
• Devotees place idols of Krishna and Radha on a palanquin and celebrate with colors and songs.
• Jonbeel Fair
• Jonbeel Fair is a unique fair held in Assam near Jagiroad.
• It is one of the few fairs in India where barter system is still practiced.
• People from tribal communities exchange goods without monetary transactions.
• Rongkar
• Rongkar is another festival celebrated in Assam, mostly by tribal communities.
• It is primarily a harvest festival, marking the beginning of the agricultural season.
• The festival involves prayers for a good harvest and protection from natural calamities.

The Correct answer is Matters of Discretion.

Key Points

• Matters of Discretion is an autobiography of I.K. Gujral, who served as the Prime Minister of India from April 1997 to March 1998.
• The book provides a detailed account of his political career, including his role in shaping India’s foreign policy, domestic politics, and his contribution to the nation as a politician and diplomat.
• I.K. Gujral is known for the Gujral Doctrine, a set of five principles that guided India’s relations with its neighbors, emphasizing non-reciprocal cooperation and peaceful coexistence.
• The autobiography offers insights into the workings of Indian politics during his time, and his experiences while serving in key positions such as the Minister of External Affairs and later as the Prime Minister.
• The book also sheds light on his personal life, his values, and his vision for a progressive and peaceful India.
• Matters of Discretion is a valuable resource for understanding the political history of India and the life of one of its most respected leaders.

Additional Information

• From the Corridors of Power
• This book is an autobiography of P.C. Alexander, a former Indian civil servant and Governor of Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra.
• It reflects his experiences in Indian administration and diplomacy.
• The book provides insights into his tenure as the Principal Secretary to Prime Ministers Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi.
• My Times
• This autobiography was written by J.B. Kripalani, an Indian politician and independence activist.
• It discusses his role in the freedom struggle and his political journey post-independence.
• J.B. Kripalani is also known as the founder of the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party.
• Living History
• Living History is the autobiography of Hillary Rodham Clinton, former First Lady of the United States, Senator, and U.S. Secretary of State.
• The book provides insights into her political career, personal life, and her experiences in American politics.

The Correct answer is Helen Keller.

Key Points

• Helen Keller was an American author, disability rights advocate, political activist, and lecturer.
• Her autobiography, 'The Story of My Life', was published in 1903.
• The book provides a detailed account of her life struggles and achievements, particularly after losing her sight and hearing at the age of 19 months due to an illness.
• She learned to communicate using Braille and sign language, with the help of her teacher and lifelong companion, Anne Sullivan.
• The autobiography is considered an inspirational text and highlights her journey of overcoming the challenges posed by her disabilities.
• Keller's story has inspired countless individuals globally, making her a symbol of hope and resilience.

Additional Information

• Steve Jobs
• Steve Jobs was the co-founder of Apple Inc., known for his contributions to the technology industry.
• He is not associated with any autobiography called 'The Story of My Life', but his life has been documented in the biography 'Steve Jobs' by Walter Isaacson.
• Jobs is best known for innovations such as the iPhone, iPad, and MacBook.
• Anne Frank
• Anne Frank was a Jewish girl who wrote 'The Diary of a Young Girl', documenting her life in hiding during the Holocaust.
• Her writings are not an autobiography but rather a diary, which provides a unique perspective on the atrocities of World War II.
• The diary was published posthumously and is one of the most famous accounts of the Holocaust.
• Mahatma Gandhi
• Mahatma Gandhi wrote his autobiography titled 'The Story of My Experiments with Truth', which is different from 'The Story of My Life'.
• His autobiography focuses on his journey of self-discovery and his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa).
• It was originally written in Gujarati and later translated into English.

The Correct answer is M3.

Key Points

• M3 is referred to as the measure of money supply that represents the 'total monetary resources of the society.'
• It includes M1 (currency notes and coins with the public, demand deposits with banks, and other deposits with the Reserve Bank of India) plus time deposits with banks.
• M3 is also known as broad money because it provides a more comprehensive view of the money supply available in the economy.
• The inclusion of time deposits in M3 captures the savings and investment potential of the economy, making it an important indicator for policy formulation and economic analysis.
• M3 is widely used in macroeconomic analysis to assess liquidity, inflation trends, and the overall health of the financial system.
• This measure is crucial for understanding the availability of money for investment, consumption, and economic growth.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) frequently monitors M3 as part of its monetary policy framework to manage inflation and ensure financial stability.

Additional Information

• M1
• M1 is the most liquid measure of money supply, also known as narrow money.
• It consists of currency notes and coins with the public, demand deposits with banks, and other deposits with the RBI.
• Being highly liquid, M1 is used for immediate transactions and payments.
• M2
• M2 includes all components of M1 plus savings deposits with post offices.
• This measure adds slightly less liquid assets to the highly liquid components of M1.
• M2 is typically used for short-term economic analysis.
• M4
• M4 includes all components of M3 plus total deposits with post offices (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• This is the broadest measure of money supply but is less commonly used compared to M3.

The Correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Bihu is the most important and widely celebrated festival in the northeastern state of Assam.
• Bihu is celebrated three times a year: Bohag Bihu (Rongali Bihu), Kongali Bihu (Kati Bihu), and Bhogali Bihu (Magh Bihu). Each marks a different agricultural phase.
• Bohag Bihu, celebrated in April, is the Assamese New Year and the most vibrant of the three Bihus. It marks the arrival of spring and the Assamese New Year.
• Kongali Bihu, observed in October, is a solemn and austere festival focused on prayer and offerings for a good harvest.
• Bhogali Bihu, celebrated in January, signifies the end of the harvest season and is marked with feasts, bonfires, and community celebrations.
• During the Bihu celebrations, traditional songs and dances called Bihu Geet are performed, reflecting the culture and heritage of Assam.
• Special dishes such as Pitha (rice cakes) and Laru (sweetmeats) are prepared and enjoyed during the festivities.
• Bihu is a symbol of unity for the people of Assam, transcending religion, caste, and creed.

Additional Information

• Goa
• Goa is famous for its carnivals, which are vibrant celebrations with parades, music, dance, and cultural performances.
• The state also celebrates religious festivals such as Shigmo and Feast of St. Francis Xavier.
• Maharashtra
• The major festivals celebrated in Maharashtra include Ganesh Chaturthi, which is dedicated to Lord Ganesha and is observed with grandeur.
• Other important festivals include Gudi Padwa, marking the Marathi New Year, and Diwali.
• Kerala
• Onam is the most famous festival celebrated in Kerala, marking the harvest season and the homecoming of King Mahabali.
• The festival is known for its Pookalam (floral carpets), Vallam Kali (boat races), and traditional feasts (Onam Sadya).

The logic followed here is:

(13, 5, 87)

(13 - 5) × 9 + (5 + 10) = 87

8 × 9 + 15 = 87

72 + 15 = 87

87 = 87 (LHS = RHS)

And,

(17, 6, 115)

(17 - 6) × 9 + (6 + 10) = 115

11 × 9 + 16 = 115

99 + 16 = 115

115 = 115 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (21, 7, 153) 

(21 - 7) × 9 + (7 + 10) = 153

14 × 9 + 17 = 153

126 + 17 = 153

143 ≠ 153 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) (9, 4, 6) 

(9 - 4) × 9 + (4 + 10) = 6

5 × 9 + 14 = 6

45 + 14 = 6

59 ≠ 6 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) (29, 9, 207) 

(22 - 9) × 9 + (9 + 10) = 207

13 × 9 + 19 = 207

117 + 19 = 207

136 ≠ 207 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) (25, 8, 171)

(25 - 8) × 9 + (8 + 10) = 171

17 × 9 + 18 = 171

153 + 18 = 171

171 = 171 (LHS = RHS)

Thus, out of all '(25, 8, 171)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 65 * 81 * 9 * 10 * 8 * 8

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) + ÷ − × =  

65 * 81 * 9 * 10 * 8 * 8 ⇒ 65 + 81 ÷ 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 81 ÷ 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 9 - 80 = 8

⇒ 74 - 80 = 8

⇒ -6 ≠ 8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) ÷ + − × =

65 * 81 * 9 * 10 * 8 * 8 ⇒ 65 ÷ 81 + 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 ÷ 81 + 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 0.8 + 9 - 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 0.8 + 9 - 80 = 8

⇒ 9.8 - 80 = 8

⇒ -70.2 ≠ 8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) + ÷ − = × 

65 * 81 * 9 * 10 * 8 * 8 ⇒ 65 + 81 ÷ 9 - 10 = 8 × 8

⇒ 65 + 81 ÷ 9 - 10 = 8 × 8

⇒ 65 + 9 - 10 = 64

⇒ 74 - 10 = 64

⇒ 64 = 64 (LHS = RHS)

Option  4) + − ÷ × =

65 * 81 * 9 * 10 * 8 * 8 ⇒ 65 + 81 - 9 ÷ 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 81 - 9 ÷ 10 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 81 - 0.9 × 8 = 8

⇒ 65 + 81 - 7.2 = 8

⇒ 146 - 7.2 = 8

⇒ 138.8 ≠ 8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. The top element and last two elements of 2nd row  from the left shift anticlockwise subsequently.

2. The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

3. Alternately the 3rd column elements are replaced by new elements starting from the second box.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The bottom elements and 2nd elements or 2nd column shift clockwise subsequently.

The top element is replaced by a new element.

The rest of the elements interchange positions.

2) Second box series →

The bottom elements and 2nd elements or 2nd column shift clockwise subsequently.

The 2nd element of the 2nd column is replaced by a new element.

The rest of the elements interchange positions.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series: D _ P _ U D N _ T _ _ _ P T U D _ _ T U

Option 1) TNUPDNNP → D T P N U D N U T P D N P T U D N P T U → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 2) NTUPNDPN → D N P T U D N U T P N D P T U D P N T U → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 3) TNPUNDPN → D T P N U D N P T U N D P T U D P N T U → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 4) NTPUDNNP → D N P T U D N P T U D N P T U D N P T U → (It follows the pattern of: DNPTU - DNPTU - DNPTU - DNPTU)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As K is common on both the dices, it is clear that J, N, L, and O are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. M will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

J → L

N → O

K → M

So, the opposite side of "M" will be side "K".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Six persons U, V, W, X, Y, Z are sitting in a circle facing each other. 

1) Z is to the immediate right of X.

2) V is between X and W.

3) U is between Y and W. 

Thus, according to the final arrangement, Y is an immediate neighbour of both U and Z.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 82 − 14 = 148

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1) = and ×

16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 82 − 14 = 148 ⇒ 16 ÷ 4 + 20 = 82 − 14 × 148

⇒ 16 ÷ 4 + 20 = 82 − 14 × 148

⇒ 4 + 20 = 82 − 2072

⇒ 24 ≠ -1990 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) + and − 

16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 82 − 14 = 148 ⇒ 16 ÷ 4 - 20 × 82 + 14 = 148

⇒ 16 ÷ 4 - 20 × 82 + 14 = 148

⇒ 4 - 20 × 82 + 14 = 148

⇒ 4 + 14 - 1640 = 148

⇒ 18 - 1640 = 148

⇒ -1622 ≠ 148 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) + and ×

16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 82 − 14 = 148 ⇒ 16 ÷ 4 × 20 + 82 − 14 = 148

⇒ 16 ÷ 4 × 20 + 82 − 14 = 148

⇒ 4 × 20 + 82 − 14 = 148

⇒ 80 + 82 − 14 = 148

⇒ 162 − 14 = 148

⇒ 148 = 148 (LHS = RHS)

Option  4) + and =

16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 82 − 14 = 148 ⇒ 16 ÷ 4 = 20 × 82 − 14 + 148

⇒ 16 ÷ 4 = 20 × 82 − 14 + 148

⇒ 4 = 1640 + 148 − 14

⇒ 4 = 1788 − 14

⇒ 4 ≠ 1774 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

15 - 20 - 17 - 2 - 7 - 0 - 18 - 5 denotes PURCHASE

And,

14 - 17 - 3 - 4 - 18 denotes ORDER

Similarly,

15 - 17 - 14 - 2 - 4 - 18 - 19 denotes

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

​

∴ Here, the option figure 1 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. Top element → Shift diagonally and is flipped horizontally.

2) Bottom element → Shift diagonally and is replaced by the new element subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 14 triangles.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 311 : 1244

⇒ (311 × 4) = 1244.

For, 531 : 2124

⇒ (531 × 4) = 2124.

Similarly, for ? : 1760

? = 1760 ÷ 4 = 440.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

INCH : EKAG

And,

INKS : EKIR

Similarly,

IDOL : ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some Cakes are Baskets → Follow (As some Baskets are Cakes. As some part of baskets is common with cakes, therefore it is true.)

II. Some Tarts are Cakes → Follow (As some Cakes are Tarts. As some part of cakes is common with tarts, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Radius (r) = 1.65 cm

Formula used:

Surface Area of Sphere = 4$\pi r^2$

Calculation:

Surface Area = 4$\pi (1.65)^2$

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × $\pi (2.7225)$

⇒ Surface Area = 10.89$\pi$

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

The ratio of boys to girls = 9 ∶ 13

Total number of boys and girls = 2134

Formula used:

Total = Boys + Girls

Boys = $\frac{9}{9+13} \times \text{Total}$

Calculations:

Boys = $\frac{9}{9+13} \times 2134$

⇒ Boys = $\frac{9}{22} \times 2134$

⇒ Boys = $\frac{19206}{22}$

⇒ Boys = 873

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Price of the computer (Original Price) = ₹34,000

Reduction Percentage = 17%

Formula used:

Reduced Price = Original Price × (1 - Reduction Percentage/100)

Calculation:

Reduced Price = 34,000 × (1 - 17/100)

⇒ Reduced Price = 34,000 × (1 - 0.17)

⇒ Reduced Price = 34,000 × 0.83

⇒ Reduced Price = ₹28,220

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Average height of 16 students = 160 cm

Average height of first 6 students = 150 cm

Average height of last 8 students = 165 cm

Formula used:

Total height = Average × Number of students

Remaining students' average height = Remaining students' total height ÷ Number of remaining students

Calculation:

Total height of 16 students = 160 × 16

⇒ Total height = 2560 cm

Total height of first 6 students = 150 × 6

⇒ First 6 students' height = 900 cm

Total height of last 8 students = 165 × 8

⇒ Last 8 students' height = 1320 cm

Remaining students' total height = 2560 - (900 + 1320)

⇒ Remaining students' total height = 2560 - 2220

⇒ Remaining students' total height = 340 cm

Remaining students' average height = 340 ÷ 2

⇒ Remaining students' average height = 170 cm

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

The salaries of P and Q together amount to ₹4,32,000.

P spends 75% of his salary, and Q spends 61% of his salary.

P's savings = Q's savings.

Formula used:

Savings = Salary - Expenses

Total salaries of P and Q = ₹4,32,000.

Calculations:

Let P's salary be ₹x, then Q's salary = ₹(4,32,000 - x).

P's savings = Q's savings

⇒ x - 0.75x = (4,32,000 - x) - 0.61(4,32,000 - x)

⇒ 0.25x = 4,32,000 - x - 0.61 × 4,32,000 + 0.61x

⇒ 0.25x = 4,32,000 - 0.61 × 4,32,000 - x + 0.61x

⇒ 0.25x = 4,32,000 - 2,63,520 + 0.61x - x

⇒ 0.25x = 1,68,480 - 0.39x

⇒ 0.25x + 0.39x = 1,68,480

⇒ 0.64x = 1,68,480

⇒ x = 1,68,480 ÷ 0.64

⇒ x = 2,63,250

∴ The correct answer is option (3): ₹2,63,250.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹24,000

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹7,200

Time (t) = 3 years

Formula used:

SI = $\frac{P \times r \times t}{100}$

CI = P$(1+\frac{r}{100})^t - 1$

Calculation:

For Simple Interest:

7200 = $\frac{24000 \times r \times 3}{100}$

⇒ r = $\frac{7200 \times 100}{24000 \times 3}$

⇒ r = 10%

For Compound Interest:

CI = 24000$(1+\frac{10}{100})^3 - 1$

⇒ CI = 24000$(1.1)^3 - 1$

⇒ CI = 24000$(1.331 - 1)$

⇒ CI = 24000 × 0.331

⇒ CI = ₹7,944

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Diameter of hemisphere = 14 cm

Radius of hemisphere (r) = Diameter/2 = 7 cm

$\pi = \frac{22}{7}$

Formula used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a hemisphere = 3$\pi r^2$

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a hemisphere = 2$\pi r^2$

Difference = TSA - CSA

Calculation:

Total Surface Area = 3$\pi r^2$

⇒ TSA = 3 × $\frac{22}{7} × 7^2$

⇒ TSA = 3 × $\frac{22}{7} × 49$

⇒ TSA = 3 × 154 = 462 cm²

Curved Surface Area = 2$\pi r^2$

⇒ CSA = 2 × $\frac{22}{7} × 7^2$

⇒ CSA = 2 × $\frac{22}{7} × 49$

⇒ CSA = 2 × 154 = 308 cm²

Difference = TSA - CSA

⇒ Difference = 462 - 308

⇒ Difference = 154 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut TrickDifference = TSA - CSA

⇒ Difference =  3$\pi r^2$  - 2$\pi r^2$

⇒ Difference = $\pi r^2$

$\pi = \frac{22}{7}$

⇒ Difference = 22/7 × 7²

Difference = 22/7 × 49 = 154 cm2

Given:

A garrison of 1500 men has provisions for 12 days.

The garrison is increased to 2000 men.

Formula used:

Provisions are inversely proportional to the number of men.

Men₁ × Days₁ = Men₂ × Days₂

Calculation:

1500 × 12 = 2000 × Days₂

⇒ Days₂ = (1500 × 12) ÷ 2000

⇒ Days₂ = 18000 ÷ 2000

⇒ Days₂ = 9

∴ The provisions will last for 9 days, and the correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Number = 1560

Formula used:

Prime Factorization of a number = Find all prime factors of the number and sum them.

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 1560 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 13

⇒ Prime factors = 2, 3, 5, 13

Sum of prime factors = 2 + 3 + 5 + 13

⇒ Sum of prime factors = 23

Given options:

Option 1: 21

Option 2: 22

Option 3: 23

Option 4: 41

From the options, the number greater than the sum of prime factors (23) is:

⇒ Option 4: 41

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Calculating the Total Interest

Since the interest is calculated on the original principal for the entire duration, the total simple interest for 4 years will be:

Total Interest = Principal × Rate × Time

Total Interest = ₹30,000 × (20/100) × 4

Total Interest = ₹30,000 × 0.20 × 4

Total Interest = ₹6,000 × 4

Total Interest = ₹24,000

Calculating the Total Amount to be Repaid

The total amount Ram needs to repay is the principal plus the total interest:

Total Amount = Principal + Total Interest

Total Amount = ₹30,000 + ₹24,000

Total Amount = ₹54,000

Calculating the Amount of Each Instalment

Ram agrees to repay this total amount in four equal annual installments:

Amount of Each Instalment = Total Amount / Number of Instalments

Amount of Each Instalment = ₹54,000 / 4

Amount of Each Instalment = ₹13,500

Therefore, the amount of each instalment will be ₹13,500.

Given:

Simplify (0.85 × 3.4 × 2.4) ÷ 0.3

Formula used:

To simplify: Perform multiplication first, then divide.

Calculations:

(0.85 × 3.4 × 2.4) ÷ 0.3

⇒ (2.89 × 2.4) ÷ 0.3

⇒ 6.936 ÷ 0.3

⇒ 23.12

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹1,500

Discount = 10%

Cost Price (CP) = MP / 1.2 (as MP is 20% above CP)

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount/100)

Profit Percentage = ((SP - CP) / CP) × 100

Calculation:

Marked price is 20% above the cost price

CP = ₹1,500 / 1.2

⇒ CP = ₹1,250

SP = ₹1,500 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ SP = ₹1,500 × 0.9

⇒ SP = ₹1,350

Profit Percentage = ((₹1,350 - ₹1,250) / ₹1,250) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (₹100 / ₹1,250) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 8%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Total cost price = ₹1800

First case: Profit% = 12% and 20%

Second case: Profit% = 20% and 12%

Difference in total amount = ₹36

Formula used:

Profit = (Profit Percentage × Cost Price)/100

Calculation:

Let: Cost price of first chair = ₹x

Cost price of second chair = ₹(1800 − x)

Case 1 – Original profit:

Selling price = x + 12% of x + (1800 − x) + 20% of (1800 − x)

Selling price = x + 0.12x + (1800 − x) + 0.20(1800 − x)

Case 2 – Swapped profit:

Selling price = x + 20% of x + (1800 − x) + 12% of (1800 − x)

Selling price = x + 0.20x + (1800 − x) + 0.12(1800 − x)

Difference between second and first case = ₹36

⇒ (x + 0.20x + 1800 − x + 0.12(1800 − x)) − (x + 0.12x + 1800 − x + 0.20(1800 − x)) = 36

⇒ (1.20x + 1800 − x + 216 − 0.12x) − (1.12x + 1800 − x + 360 − 0.20x) = 36

⇒ (0.08x + 2016) − (−0.08x + 2160) = 36

⇒ 0.08x + 2016 + 0.08x − 2160 = 36

⇒ 0.16x − 144 = 36

⇒ 0.16x = 180

⇒ x = 180 ÷ 0.16 = 1125

Cost price of first chair = ₹1125

Cost price of second chair = ₹1800 − ₹1125 = ₹675

∴ Required difference = ₹1125 − ₹675 = ₹450

∴ The correct answer is option (1): ₹450

Given:

LCM = 18 × HCF

LCM + HCF = 855

One number = 81

Formula used:

For two numbers, LCM × HCF = Product of the numbers

Calculation:

Let HCF = x

⇒ LCM = 18 × x

LCM + HCF = 855

⇒ 18x + x = 855

⇒ 19x = 855

⇒ x = 855 ÷ 19

⇒ x = 45

HCF = 45, LCM = 18 × 45 = 810

Let the other number = y

Using the formula: LCM × HCF = Product of the numbers

⇒ 810 × 45 = 81 × y

⇒ y = (810 × 45) ÷ 81

⇒ y = 450

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Formula used:

Distance (D) = Speed (S) × Time (T)

Let the normal speed = S km/h

Let the distance = D km

Calculations:

Normal time taken = D/S hours

Condition 1: If speed = (S + 4) km/h, time taken = D/(S + 4) hours

Condition 2: If speed = (S - 2) km/h, time taken = D/(S - 2) hours

From the given conditions:

⇒ Normal time - Time with increased speed = 3 minutes

⇒ D/S - D/(S + 4) = 3/60

⇒ (D × (S + 4) - D × S) / (S × (S + 4)) = 1/20

⇒ 4D / (S × (S + 4)) = 1/20

⇒ 80D = S × (S + 4) ...(i)

From the second condition:

⇒ Time with reduced speed - Normal time = 2 minutes

⇒ D/(S - 2) - D/S = 2/60

⇒ (D × S - D × (S - 2)) / (S × (S - 2)) = 1/30

⇒ (2D) / (S × (S - 2)) = 1/30

⇒ 60D = S × (S - 2) ...(ii)

From equations (i) and (ii):

⇒ 80D = S² + 4S

⇒ 60D = S² - 2S

Subtract equation (ii) from (i):

⇒ 20D = 6S

⇒ D = 6S / 20 = 3S / 10

Substitute D = 3S/10 in equation (ii):

⇒ 60 × (3S/10) = S² - 2S

⇒ 18S = S² - 2S

⇒ S² - 20S = 0

⇒ S(S - 20) = 0

⇒ S = 20 (as S = 0 is not valid)

Substitute S = 20 in D = 3S/10:

⇒ D = 3 × 20 / 10 = 6 km

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The Correct answer is In Gmail, If your file is greater than 25 MB, Gmail automatically adds a Google Drive link in the email instead of including it as an attachment.

Key Points

• Gmail has a size limit for email attachments, which is 25 MB.
• If an attachment exceeds 25 MB, Gmail automatically uploads the file to Google Drive, a cloud storage service provided by Google.
• Once uploaded to Google Drive, Gmail includes a Google Drive link in the email instead of attaching the file directly.
• This feature ensures that users can share large files seamlessly without encountering issues related to file size limitations.
• Recipients can access the file through the provided link, which redirects them to Google Drive.
• This integration between Gmail and Google Drive enhances the functionality of email services and provides a convenient solution for sending large files.
• The file-sharing feature is part of Google’s ecosystem, which also includes services like Google Docs, Sheets, and Slides.

Additional Information

• Writing a subject field is mandatory while sending an attachment
• It is not mandatory to write a subject while sending an email with an attachment. However, it is a best practice to include a subject to provide clarity to the recipient.
• We can't use CC field while sending an attachment
• This statement is incorrect. The CC (Carbon Copy) field can be used in emails regardless of whether an attachment is included or not. It is used to send a copy of the email to other recipients.
• We can't attach an audio file in an email attachment
• This is incorrect. Audio files can be attached to emails as long as their size does not exceed the attachment limit (e.g., 25 MB for Gmail).

The Correct answer is Page Setup.

Key Points

• The Page Setup option in MS Word 365 enables users to customize critical aspects of a document's layout.
• It allows adjustments to paper size, such as A4, Letter, Legal, etc., suitable for different printing needs.
• Users can modify the margins of a document, which affects the spacing between text and the edges of the paper.
• The orientation feature lets users switch between Portrait (vertical) and Landscape (horizontal) layouts.
• With the Page Setup tool, users can define page numbering, including formats, positioning, and starting numbers.
• This tool is essential for creating professional documents that require specific formatting and layout standards, such as reports, brochures, and academic papers.
• Page Setup is located under the Layout Tab in MS Word 365, making it accessible for customization.

Additional Information

• Document Inspector
• The Document Inspector is a tool used to check for hidden metadata, personal information, or sensitive details in a document.
• It helps in ensuring the document is clean and free of unintended information before sharing or publishing.
• It is not related to customizing the layout of the document.
• Print Layout View
• The Print Layout View displays the document as it will appear when printed, including margins, page breaks, and layout.
• It is a visual representation and does not allow customization of layout settings.
• Navigation Pane
• The Navigation Pane in MS Word is used to view and navigate through headings, pages, or search results in a document.
• It is helpful for quickly moving across sections but does not control the document layout.

The Correct answer is It is always private.

Key Points

• Communication on the internet is not always private because online interactions can be subject to surveillance, hacking, data breaches, or monitoring by third parties.
• Many platforms and services collect user data for analytics, personalization, and advertising, which compromises privacy.
• Activities like email exchanges, social media interactions, and file sharing often involve third-party servers or intermediaries, which can access or store data.
• Encryption and other security measures can improve privacy, but they do not guarantee absolute confidentiality.
• Users often rely on terms of service and privacy policies of platforms, which might include clauses allowing data usage or sharing.
• Even private conversations can be exposed due to phishing attacks, malware, or inadequate security practices.
• Thus, while the internet enables global and interactive communication, it is inaccurate to consider it always private.

Additional Information

• It is asynchronous
• Asynchronous communication refers to interactions where participants do not need to be present at the same time, such as emails, forums, and text messages.
• The internet facilitates asynchronous communication, allowing users to respond at their convenience.
• This characteristic makes the internet suitable for remote work, education, and collaborative projects.
• It is interactive
• The internet is inherently interactive, enabling real-time communication through chats, video calls, and collaborative tools.
• It supports user engagement through features like comments, likes, and feedback on social media platforms and websites.
• Interactive communication is essential for education, entertainment, and business applications.
• It is global
• The internet connects people across the world, enabling global communication, collaboration, and access to information.
• It has revolutionized industries like trade, education, and media by removing geographical barriers.
• Examples include international e-commerce platforms, remote work, and social media networks.

The Correct answer is It hides the row.

Key Points

• In MS Excel 365, setting the row height to 0 effectively hides the row. The content in the row remains intact but becomes invisible, making it a useful feature for managing large datasets.
• A hidden row can be unhidden by adjusting the row height back to a visible value or using the Unhide option from the context menu.
• This feature is commonly used to temporarily hide data that is not immediately relevant without deleting it from the sheet.
• When the row height is set to 0, Excel automatically interprets this as a command to hide the row instead of displaying it with zero height.
• It is important to note that hiding rows does not affect formulas or calculations in Excel; they continue to reference the hidden data.
• The ability to hide rows is a part of Excel's data management tools, enhancing flexibility and organization in working with large spreadsheets.

Additional Information

• Option 2: It asks for a new value
• This is incorrect because Excel does not prompt the user for a new value when setting the row height to 0; it directly hides the row.
• Option 3: It sets the default height
• This option is incorrect as setting the row height to 0 does not restore the default height; it hides the row instead.
• Option 4: It returns to the last entered value
• This is incorrect because Excel does not revert to the previously set height when a row height is explicitly set to 0.

The Correct answer is Today().

Key Points

• The Today() function in Microsoft Excel 365 is used to display the current date.
• It returns only the date component (day, month, and year) without the time component.
• The syntax for using the Today() function is simple: =TODAY().
• It automatically updates to show the current date whenever the worksheet is recalculated or reopened.
• The Today() function is commonly used in applications that require dynamic date calculations, such as tracking deadlines, generating daily reports, or calculating age.
• This function does not accept any arguments, making it straightforward to use.
• For example, if today's date is October 10, 2023, the Today() function will return 10/10/2023 in the default date format of your system.

Additional Information

• Time()
• The Time() function is used to return a specific time based on the input values for hour, minute, and second.
• For example, =TIME(14, 30, 0) would return 2:30 PM.
• Now()
• The Now() function returns both the current date and time.
• For example, if the current date and time are October 10, 2023, 3:00 PM, the =NOW() function will return 10/10/2023 3:00 PM.
• It is useful when you need to track both date and time dynamically.
• Day()
• The Day() function extracts the day component from a specific date.
• For instance, =DAY("10/10/2023") will return 10.
• It is often used in conjunction with other date functions for custom date calculations.

The Correct answer is ALT + H then O and then I.

Key Points

• In MS Excel 365, the keyboard shortcut ALT + H then O and then I is used to automatically adjust the width of a column to fit the content.
• This shortcut is part of the Alt Key Tips feature in Excel, which allows users to access commands and features via the keyboard instead of the ribbon.
• Here’s how it works:
• ALT + H: Activates the Home tab on the Excel ribbon.
• O: Selects the Format option under the Home tab.
• I: Executes the AutoFit Column Width command.
• The AutoFit Column Width feature ensures that the column width is adjusted to fit the content of the cells, making the data more readable and organized.
• This shortcut is especially useful for handling spreadsheets with large amounts of data or when copying and pasting data from external sources.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + W
• The Ctrl + W shortcut is used to close the current workbook or document in Excel.
• This shortcut does not affect column width or formatting.
• Ctrl + Spacebar
• The Ctrl + Spacebar shortcut is used to select the entire column in Excel.
• It does not adjust the column width.
• Ctrl + A
• The Ctrl + A shortcut is used to select all the content within the sheet or specific data range.
• It is a general-purpose selection shortcut and does not impact column width.

The Correct answer is Centers the contents on the page.

Key Points

• Pressing Ctrl + E in MS Word 365 centers the text or content within the current paragraph or the selected text.
• Center alignment is one of the four types of text alignment available in MS Word, alongside left alignment, right alignment, and justified alignment.
• This shortcut is particularly useful for formatting titles, headings, or any content that needs to be visually centered on the page.
• The centered text is aligned to the middle of the page, maintaining an equal distance from both the left and right margins.
• Shortcut keys, such as Ctrl + E, enhance productivity by reducing the time required to navigate through menus for commonly used functions.
• MS Word is widely used for text formatting and document creation, and mastering such shortcuts can significantly improve efficiency.

Additional Information

• It selects the whole content on the file
• To select all content in the file, the shortcut Ctrl + A is used instead of Ctrl + E.
• This command is helpful for performing actions like formatting, copying, or deleting the entire text in a document.
• Right aligns the contents on the page
• Pressing Ctrl + R aligns the text or content to the right margin.
• Right alignment is often used for specific formatting needs, such as aligning dates or author names in formal letters.
• Left aligns the contents on the page
• The shortcut for left alignment is Ctrl + L, which is the default alignment for most text in MS Word.
• Left alignment is commonly used for body text, ensuring readability and a clean layout.

The Correct answer is Cut.

Key Points

• The Cut action in MS Word 365 removes the selected text from its original location and places it onto the clipboard.
• The content stored on the clipboard can then be pasted into a new location within the document or into another document.
• This action is especially useful when you want to rearrange text without creating duplicates.
• To perform the Cut action, users can either press the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + X or use the Ribbon menu by clicking on the "Cut" icon in the Home tab.
• When text is cut, it remains on the clipboard until it is either overwritten by other copied/cut content or until the MS Word application is closed.
• This feature enhances the editing and formatting capabilities of MS Word, allowing users to efficiently manage their documents.

Additional Information

• Copy
• The Copy action creates a duplicate of the selected text and places it on the clipboard without removing it from its original location.
• This is useful when you need to replicate content across various sections of the document or other documents.
• The keyboard shortcut for the Copy action is Ctrl + C.
• Paste
• The Paste action inserts the content stored on the clipboard into a new location within the document.
• It complements the Cut and Copy actions, allowing users to place the text where desired.
• The keyboard shortcut for Paste is Ctrl + V.
• Select All
• The Select All action highlights all the content within the document, including text, images, and other elements.
• It is often used for performing bulk actions, such as changing the font style or size across the entire document.
• The keyboard shortcut for Select All is Ctrl + A.

The Correct answer is Ctrl + V.

Key Points

• The shortcut key Ctrl + V is universally used to paste text or other content in various applications, including MS Word 365.
• It is part of the standard set of keyboard shortcuts developed by Microsoft Windows and adopted by other operating systems for basic functions like copy, cut, and paste.
• When a user copies or cuts content, it is stored in the clipboard. Using Ctrl + V, the content from the clipboard can be pasted at the cursor's location.
• This shortcut enhances productivity by eliminating the need for manual pasting through the context menu or toolbar.
• Ctrl + V works across different versions of MS Word, including Office 365, 2019, 2016, 2013, 2010, and earlier versions.
• Users who rely on keyboard shortcuts for efficiency find Ctrl + V indispensable for editing and formatting tasks.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + Shift + V
• The shortcut key Ctrl + Shift + V is used in certain applications (such as Google Docs or web applications) to paste text without formatting.
• However, this functionality is not available in MS Word 365.
• In MS Word, pasting without formatting can be done manually via the "Paste Special" option in the ribbon.
• Shift + V
• Shift + V is not a valid shortcut for pasting text in MS Word 365 or any other version of MS Word.
• This shortcut has no assigned function related to pasting content in Microsoft Office applications.
• Ctrl + C
• Ctrl + C is the shortcut key used to copy content to the clipboard in MS Word and other applications.
• This function works in tandem with Ctrl + V, as content must first be copied or cut before it can be pasted.