Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 28 Nov, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

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General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

The structures of temples located in India are classified as phamsana and latina on the basis of which of their parts?

  1. ((a))

    Garbagriha

  2. ((b))

    Amalaka

  3. ((c))

    Shikhara

  4. ((d))

    Mandap

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shikhara

The correct answer is Shikhara.

Key Points

  • The classification of temple structures into phamsana and latina styles is based on the design of the Shikhara.
  • Phamsana temples generally have a broader base and a gradual incline, resembling a pyramid-like structure.
  • Latina temples have a more curvilinear and vertical rising Shikhara, often resembling a beehive shape.
  • These classifications are primarily found in North Indian temple architecture, specifically in the Nagara style.

Additional Information

  • Garbagriha:
  • The Garbagriha, or sanctum sanctorum, is the innermost chamber of a temple where the main deity is enshrined.
  • It is the most sacred part of the temple and is usually located directly under the Shikhara.
  • Amalaka:
  • An Amalaka is a stone disk, often ribbed, placed atop the Shikhara.
  • It symbolizes the fruit of the amla tree and represents the sun.
  • Mandap:
  • The Mandap is a pavilion or hall, often used for public rituals and ceremonies.
  • It is typically located in front of the Garbagriha and may be open or enclosed.
  • Nagara Style:
  • The Nagara style is a distinct form of North Indian temple architecture characterized by its towering Shikharas.
  • It contrasts with the Dravidian style found in South India, which features pyramidal towers and intricate sculptures.
2

Which of the following is the major reservoir of carbon on earth?

  1. ((a))

    Ponds

  2. ((b))

    Rivers

  3. ((c))

    Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Lakes

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ocean

The correct answer is Ocean.

Key Points

  • The ocean is the largest reservoir of carbon on Earth, containing about 50 times more carbon than the atmosphere.
  • Oceans absorb roughly one-quarter of the carbon dioxide (CO2) emitted by human activities each year.
  • Marine organisms, such as phytoplankton, play a significant role in the oceanic carbon cycle by absorbing CO2 during photosynthesis.
  • The deep ocean stores carbon for long periods, often over centuries, making it a crucial component of the global carbon cycle.

Additional Information

  • Carbon Cycle:
  • The carbon cycle is the process by which carbon is exchanged between the Earth's oceans, soil, rocks, and atmosphere.
  • It includes processes such as photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, and sedimentation.
  • Understanding the carbon cycle is essential for predicting climate change and managing carbon emissions.
  • Phytoplankton:
  • Phytoplankton are microscopic marine algae that form the base of the ocean food web.
  • They absorb CO2 during photosynthesis and produce oxygen, contributing significantly to the oceanic carbon cycle.
  • Carbon Sequestration:
  • Carbon sequestration refers to the process of capturing and storing atmospheric CO2.
  • Oceans, forests, and soil are natural carbon sinks that sequester carbon, helping to mitigate climate change.
  • Ocean Acidification:
  • Ocean acidification occurs when CO2 is absorbed by seawater, leading to chemical reactions that reduce pH levels.
  • This process can harm marine life, particularly organisms with calcium carbonate shells or skeletons.
3

If nominal GDP is ₹1,800 and real GDP is ₹1,000. What will be the value of GDP deflator?

  1. ((a))

    180%

  2. ((b))

    200%

  3. ((c))

    190%

  4. ((d))

    150%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

180%

The correct answer is 180%.

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is calculated using the following formula:

GDP Deflator=(Nominal GDPReal GDP)×100\text{GDP Deflator} = \left(\frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{Real GDP}}\right) \times 100

In this case, the Nominal GDP is ₹1,800 and the Real GDP is ₹1,000.

Therefore,

GDP Deflator=(18001000)×100=180%

4

Which of the following dance forms is performed by the tribal people of Andhra Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Bihu

  2. ((b))

    Garba

  3. ((c))

    Jawara

  4. ((d))

    Dhimsa

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dhimsa

The correct answer is Dhimsa.

Key Points

  • Dhimsa is a traditional folk dance performed by the tribal people of Andhra Pradesh.
  • This dance is primarily showcased by the Porja tribal community.
  • Dhimsa is performed during festivals and community gatherings, symbolizing unity and joy.
  • The dance is accompanied by traditional instruments like dappu (a type of drum) and features participants dressed in colorful attire.

Additional Information

  • Tribal Dances in India:
  • India is home to a rich tapestry of tribal dances, each unique to its region and culture.
  • These dances often serve as a means of storytelling, preserving history, and celebrating rituals.
  • Costumes and Instruments:
  • Tribal dance costumes are typically made from locally sourced materials, reflecting the community's heritage and environment.
  • Instruments used in these dances vary, with drums, flutes, and string instruments being common.
  • Significance:
  • Tribal dances hold significant cultural importance, serving as a conduit for passing down traditions and values.
  • They also play a role in social cohesion, bringing communities together in celebration and worship.
  • Other Tribal Dances:
  • Other notable tribal dances in India include Ghoomar from Rajasthan, Santhal from West Bengal, and Ghumura from Odisha.
5

At what degree from the epicentre does the seismograph record the arrival of P-waves but NOT S-waves?

  1. ((a))

    Beyond 105°

  2. ((b))

    Between 90° and 115°

  3. ((c))

    Beyond 145°

  4. ((d))

    Within 90°

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Beyond 145°

The correct answer is Beyond 145º.

Key Points

  • Seismographs record the arrival of P-waves but not S-waves at angles beyond 145º from the earthquake's epicenter.
  • This is due to the presence of the Earth's liquid outer core, which S-waves cannot travel through.
  • P-waves, or primary waves, are compressional waves that can travel through both solid and liquid layers of the Earth.
  • S-waves, or secondary waves, are shear waves and can only travel through solid materials.
  • The shadow zone for S-waves is created because they are blocked by the liquid outer core.

Additional Information

  • Seismology:
  • Seismology is the scientific study of earthquakes and the propagation of elastic waves through the Earth.
  • It plays a crucial role in understanding the Earth's internal structure and dynamics.
  • Epicenter and Focus:
  • The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus, where an earthquake originates.
  • The focus is the location within the Earth where the earthquake rupture starts.
  • Types of Seismic Waves:
  • P-waves (Primary waves): Compressional waves that travel fastest through the Earth.
  • S-waves (Secondary waves): Shear waves that travel slower than P-waves and cannot pass through liquids.
  • Surface waves: Travel along the Earth's surface and generally cause the most damage during an earthquake.
  • Seismic Shadow Zones:
  • The area of the Earth that does not receive any direct P-waves is called the P-wave shadow zone, typically found between 104º and 140º from the earthquake's epicenter.
  • The S-wave shadow zone extends from 104º to 180º, as S-waves are completely blocked by the liquid outer core.
6

Which of the following statements is/are true about globalisation?

I. It is about integration with world economies

II. It promotes competition among producers

III. Appreciation of domestic currency improves exports

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only I

  4. ((d))

    Only II and III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II

The correct answer is 1) Only I and II.

Key Points

  • Globalisation involves integration with world economies: It includes the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. (Source: World Bank)
  • Promotes competition among producers: Globalisation leads to increased competition as companies from different countries compete in the global market. (Source: OECD)
  • Appreciation of domestic currency: Generally makes exports more expensive and less competitive, reducing export levels. (Source: International Monetary Fund)

Additional Information

  • Trade Liberalisation: The removal or reduction of trade barriers or restrictions on the free exchange of goods between nations. (Source: World Trade Organization)
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): An investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country. (Source: UNCTAD)
  • Exchange Rates: The value of one currency for the purpose of conversion to another. Affects international trade and investments. (Source: Federal Reserve)
  • Multinational Corporations (MNCs): Companies that operate in multiple countries. They play a significant role in globalisation. (Source: Harvard Business Review)
7

What was the fraction of sales price collected as tax under the Mauryans?

  1. ((a))

    110\frac{1}{10}

  2. ((b))

    115\frac{1}{15}

  3. ((c))

    15\frac{1}{5}

  4. ((d))

    120\frac{1}{20}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

110\frac{1}{10}

The correct answer is (1)/(10).

Key Points

  • Under the Mauryan Empire, a fraction of the sales price collected as tax was (1)/(10).
  • This tax was known as "Bhaga," which means a share or portion.
  • The Mauryan administration was known for its efficient revenue collection system.
  • Taxation was a primary source of revenue for the Mauryan state to maintain its large army and administrative machinery.

Additional Information

  • Arthashastra:
  • The Arthashastra, written by Kautilya (Chanakya), was a treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy during the Mauryan period.
  • It provides detailed insights into the Mauryan taxation system, including the collection of taxes and duties.
  • Revenue Sources:
  • Other significant sources of revenue included taxes on land (Bhaga), tolls, customs duties, and fines.
  • Land tax, which was usually one-sixth of the produce, was a major contributor to the state’s revenue.
  • Administration:
  • The Mauryan administration was highly centralized, with the king at the top, followed by ministers and other officials.
  • Revenue officers, known as Samaharta, were responsible for the collection of taxes.
  • Infrastructure Development:
  • The revenue collected was used for infrastructure development, including the construction of roads, irrigation systems, and public buildings.
  • The state also maintained granaries and warehouses to ensure food security.
8

In which of the following years was the Arjuna Award started in India?

  1. ((a))

    1963

  2. ((b))

    1961

  3. ((c))

    1964

  4. ((d))

    1962

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1961

The correct answer is option 2 (1961).

Key Points

  • The Arjuna Award is one of the prestigious sports awards in India.
  • It was instituted in the year 1961 by the Government of India.
  • The award is given annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • It recognizes outstanding achievement in sports and games.
  • The award includes a bronze statue of Arjuna, a certificate, and a cash prize.

Additional Information

  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
  • It is the highest sporting honor of the Republic of India.
  • Instituted in 1991–1992, it is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • It is given for the most outstanding performance in sports over a period of four years.
  • Dronacharya Award:
  • This award is given to coaches for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events.
  • It was instituted in 1985.
  • The award includes a bronze statue of Dronacharya, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award:
  • Renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021.
  • It was initially named after former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
  • The award carries a medal, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • Padma Awards:
  • These are one of the highest civilian honors in India.
  • They are awarded in three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
  • These awards recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
9

Hydrogenation of vegetable oils is catalysed by ___________.

  1. ((a))

    Al

  2. ((b))

    Cu

  3. ((c))

    Ni

  4. ((d))

    Fe

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ni

The correct answer is Ni.

Key Points

  • Nickel (Ni) is widely used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
  • The hydrogenation process helps to convert liquid oils into semi-solid forms, such as margarine and shortening.
  • Nickel catalysts facilitate the addition of hydrogen atoms to the unsaturated carbon bonds in vegetable oils.
  • This process increases the melting point of the oils, making them more stable and suitable for use in various food products.

Additional Information

  • Hydrogenation Process
  • Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction that involves the addition of hydrogen (H2) to another compound.
  • It is commonly used in the food industry to convert unsaturated fats to saturated fats.
  • This process helps to increase the shelf life and stability of food products.
  • Trans Fats
  • Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils can lead to the formation of trans fats.
  • Trans fats are associated with an increased risk of heart disease and other health issues.
  • Regulations in many countries now limit the use of trans fats in food products.
  • Alternative Catalysts
  • Other metals like platinum (Pt) and palladium (Pd) can also be used as catalysts in hydrogenation, but they are more expensive than nickel.
  • Research is ongoing to develop more efficient and sustainable catalysts for industrial applications.
10

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that ‘The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply the Principles in making laws’?

  1. ((a))

    Article 51

  2. ((b))

    Article 38

  3. ((c))

    Article 37

  4. ((d))

    Article 36

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 37

The correct answer is Article 37.

Key Points

  • Article 37 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • It mandates that it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
  • Although the DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, they are crucial for governance.
  • These principles aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
  • The Directive Principles act as guidelines to the central and state governments of India to frame laws and policies.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • DPSPs are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Article 36 to Article 51.
  • These principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland.
  • The aim is to establish a just society in India, and they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • Non-Justiciable Nature:
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
  • However, they are considered essential for the understanding and governance of the country.
  • Categories of DPSPs:
  • DPSPs are classified into three categories: Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual.
  • Socialistic principles aim at providing social and economic justice.
  • Gandhian principles reflect the vision of Mahatma Gandhi for a self-sufficient village economy.
  • Liberal-Intellectual principles are based on liberal ideals of justice, liberty, and equality.
  • Relation with Fundamental Rights:
  • There has been a debate on the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
  • Fundamental Rights are justiciable and legally enforceable, while DPSPs are not.
  • However, the Supreme Court of India has often interpreted Fundamental Rights and DPSPs harmoniously.
11

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a flagship programme of the government of India, that was started in 2001 to achieve ________.

  1. ((a))

    Universalisation of Higher Education (UHE)

  2. ((b))

    Universalisation of School Education (USE)

  3. ((c))

    Universalisation of Pre-primary Education (UPPE)

  4. ((d))

    Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE)

The correct answer is Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE).

Key Points

  • Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is the Government of India's flagship program for achieving Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE).
  • Launched in 2001, SSA aims to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years.
  • The program focuses on bridging gender and social gaps in education.
  • SSA is aligned with the mandate of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which makes education a fundamental right.

Additional Information

  • Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009:
  • Ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years in India.
  • Mandates 25% reservation for disadvantaged sections in private schools.
  • Sets norms and standards for pupil-teacher ratios, infrastructure, and teacher qualifications.
  • Mid-Day Meal Scheme:
  • Provides free lunches on working days for children in primary and upper primary classes.
  • Aims to improve nutritional status of children and encourage school attendance.
  • National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
  • Aims to overhaul the Indian education system and improve the quality of education.
  • Focuses on early childhood care and education, foundational literacy, and numeracy.
  • Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA):
  • Launched in 2009 to enhance access to secondary education and improve its quality.
  • Aims to achieve a gross enrollment ratio of 100% in secondary education by 2030.
12

The Finance Commission submits its report to the:

  1. ((a))

    President of India

  2. ((b))

    Finance Minister

  3. ((c))

    Prime Minister of India

  4. ((d))

    Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

President of India

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

  • The Finance Commission of India is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The primary function of the Finance Commission is to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments.
  • The Finance Commission submits its report to the President of India, who then presents it to the Parliament.
  • The report contains recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States themselves.
  • The President lays the report of the Finance Commission along with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken upon the recommendations before each House of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Provisions:
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, as per Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
  • It is appointed every five years to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states.
  • Composition:
  • The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President of India.
  • The members should have expertise in public affairs, finance, and administration.
  • Historical Context:
  • The first Finance Commission was established in 1951, and till now, several commissions have been constituted to address fiscal federalism in India.
  • Recent Developments:
  • The 15th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, was constituted in 2017 and submitted its report for 2021-2026.
  • Recent recommendations include the allocation of funds for disaster management and health sector improvement.
13

Which among the following states has the lowest poverty ratio as per the Multidimensional Poverty Index (2021) of the NITI Aayog?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Goa

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kerala has the lowest poverty ratio in India as per the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report by NITI Aayog in 2021.
  • The state recorded a poverty ratio of only 0.71%, the lowest among all Indian states.
  • This low poverty ratio is attributed to Kerala's robust social welfare schemes and high human development indicators.
  • Kerala has consistently performed well in areas such as health, education, and standard of living, contributing to its low poverty levels.
  • The state's effective implementation of public policies and high literacy rates are key factors in reducing poverty.

Additional Information

  • Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
  • MPI is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering over 100 developing countries.
  • It identifies multiple deprivations at the household and individual level in health, education, and standard of living.
  • Developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • NITI Aayog's MPI report is an important tool for formulating poverty alleviation policies in India.
  • Kerala's Social Welfare Programs
  • Kerala has numerous social security schemes like the Kudumbashree program aimed at women empowerment and poverty eradication.
  • The state offers comprehensive healthcare services through its primary health centers and the Aardram Mission.
  • High literacy rates are maintained through initiatives such as the Akshara Keralam project focusing on adult education.
  • The Public Distribution System (PDS) in Kerala ensures food security for its citizens.
  • Human Development Index (HDI)
  • HDI is a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic aspects of human development: health, education, and income.
  • Kerala has consistently scored high on HDI due to its effective social policies.
  • It provides insights into long-term progress in various dimensions of human development.
  • Economic Indicators in Kerala
  • Kerala's economy is driven by sectors such as tourism, remittances from the diaspora, and agriculture.
  • The state has a relatively high per capita income compared to other Indian states.
  • Investments in education and health have resulted in a skilled and healthy workforce.
14

The ‘Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana’ (VAMBAY) was launched in which year by the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    2007

  2. ((b))

    2003

  3. ((c))

    2001

  4. ((d))

    2005

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2001

The correct answer is 2001.

Key Points

  • The 'Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana' (VAMBAY) was launched in the year 2001 by the Government of India.
  • It was initiated under the Ministry of Urban Employment and Poverty Alleviation.
  • The scheme aims to provide shelter or upgrade the existing shelter for people living below the poverty line in urban slums.
  • VAMBAY also focuses on improving the living conditions of slum dwellers by providing better sanitation facilities.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)
  • Launched in 2015, it aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor by 2022.
  • It includes two components: PMAY-U (Urban) and PMAY-G (Gramin) for urban and rural areas, respectively.
  • The scheme provides interest subsidies on home loans under the Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS).
  • Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY)
  • Launched in 1985, it focuses on providing housing for the rural poor in India.
  • Renamed as Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) in 2016.
  • It aims to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all houseless households and those living in kutcha and dilapidated houses.
  • Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY)
  • Launched in 2011, it aimed to make India slum-free by encouraging states and union territories to bring all existing slums within the formal system.
  • Provided property rights to slum dwellers and improved their living conditions.
  • Basic Services to the Urban Poor (BSUP)
  • Part of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) launched in 2005.
  • Aimed at providing basic services like water supply, sewerage, and sanitation to the urban poor.
  • Focused on integrated development of slums through projects for providing shelter, basic services, and other related civic amenities.
15

The Teesta low dam is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Sikkim

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Tripura

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • The Teesta Low Dam is situated in the state of Sikkim, India.
  • It is located on the Teesta River, which is one of the major rivers in Sikkim.
  • The dam is part of a hydroelectric project aimed at generating hydropower for the region.
  • The project is crucial for meeting the energy needs of Sikkim and neighboring regions.
  • The Teesta Low Dam Hydroelectric Project is managed by NHPC Limited, a Government of India enterprise.

Additional Information

  • Teesta River:
  • The Teesta River originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake in North Sikkim.
  • It flows through Sikkim and West Bengal before merging with the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh.
  • The river is vital for irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric projects in the region.
  • Hydropower in Sikkim:
  • Sikkim has abundant water resources, making it an ideal location for hydroelectric projects.
  • Hydropower is a major source of renewable energy in Sikkim, contributing significantly to the state's energy supply.
  • Several hydropower projects, including the Teesta Low Dam, are operational in the state.
  • NHPC Limited:
  • NHPC Limited (National Hydroelectric Power Corporation) is a premier organization in India dedicated to the development of hydropower.
  • It was incorporated in 1975 and has since been a key player in the hydroelectric sector.
  • NHPC manages multiple hydroelectric projects across India, including the Teesta Low Dam.
  • Sikkim's Geography:
  • Sikkim is a mountainous state in northeastern India, known for its diverse terrain and scenic landscapes.
  • It shares borders with Nepal to the west, Tibet to the north and northeast, Bhutan to the east, and West Bengal to the south.
  • The state's topography makes it suitable for hydropower projects, which harness the energy of its fast-flowing rivers.
16

The main source of ocean heat is __________.

  1. ((a))

    gases under water

  2. ((b))

    air

  3. ((c))

    sunlight

  4. ((d))

    minerals under water

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

sunlight

The correct answer is sunlight.

Key Points

  • Sunlight is the primary source of heat for the Earth's oceans.
  • Solar radiation penetrates the ocean surface, warming the water and contributing to temperature variations.
  • The energy from sunlight drives oceanic currents and influences global climate patterns.
  • Approximately 71% of the Earth's surface is covered by oceans, and sunlight is crucial for maintaining their thermal balance.

Additional Information

  • Greenhouse Effect
  • The greenhouse effect is a process where certain gases in the Earth's atmosphere trap heat, leading to a warming effect.
  • It helps maintain the Earth's temperature but excessive greenhouse gases can lead to global warming.
  • Ocean Currents
  • Ocean currents are large-scale movements of water within the world's oceans, driven by wind, water density differences, and the Coriolis effect.
  • They play a key role in regulating the Earth's climate by redistributing heat around the planet.
  • Thermocline
  • The thermocline is a distinct layer in the ocean where the temperature gradient is steeper than the layers above and below it.
  • It acts as a barrier to the mixing of surface and deep water layers, affecting marine life and nutrient distribution.
  • Albedo Effect
  • The albedo effect refers to the reflectivity of the Earth's surface; higher albedo surfaces reflect more sunlight, reducing heat absorption.
  • Oceans have a low albedo, meaning they absorb more heat compared to land or ice-covered surfaces.
17

Swami Vivekananda established which of the following social organisations in 1897?

  1. ((a))

    Arya Samaj

  2. ((b))

    Prarthana Samaj

  3. ((c))

    Paramhansa Sabha

  4. ((d))

    Ramakrishna Mission

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ramakrishna Mission

The correct answer is Ramakrishna Mission.

Key Points

  • Swami Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission on 1 May 1897.
  • The organization was named after Swami Vivekananda's guru, Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
  • The mission aims to work towards the welfare of the poor and the spiritual development of individuals.
  • It combines spiritual practices with social service, promoting the teachings of Vedanta.
  • Headquarters of the Ramakrishna Mission is located in Belur Math, West Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Swami Vivekananda:
  • Born on 12 January 1863 as Narendranath Datta in Kolkata, India.
  • Known for his speech at the Parliament of World Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he introduced Hinduism to the Western world.
  • He was a key figure in the introduction of Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
  • Ramakrishna Paramahamsa:
  • Born on 18 February 1836 in Kamarpukur, West Bengal, India.
  • A renowned mystic and spiritual leader, his teachings emphasized the universality of religions.
  • He is regarded as an incarnation of God by his disciples, including Swami Vivekananda.
  • Vedanta:
  • One of the six orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy.
  • Focuses on the teachings found in the Upanishads, Brahma Sutras, and the Bhagavad Gita.
  • Emphasizes the idea of Brahman (universal soul) and Atman (individual soul) as one.
  • Belur Math:
  • The headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and Mission, established by Swami Vivekananda.
  • Located on the west bank of the Hooghly River, near Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • The Math is noted for its architecture, which fuses Hindu, Islamic, and Christian styles as a symbol of unity of all religions.
18

‘Kim’, the English novel about a boy, was written by which of the following authors?

  1. ((a))

    Joseph Conrad

  2. ((b))

    Ruskin Bond

  3. ((c))

    Jerome K Jerome

  4. ((d))

    Rudyard Kipling

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rudyard Kipling

The correct answer is Rudyard Kipling.

Key Points

  • Kim is a novel by Rudyard Kipling, first published in book form in 1901.
  • The novel is set against the backdrop of the Great Game, the political conflict between Russia and Britain in Central Asia.
  • Rudyard Kipling was an English journalist, short-story writer, poet, and novelist.
  • He is best known for his works of fiction such as "The Jungle Book" and "Kim".

Additional Information

  • The Great Game:
  • A political and diplomatic confrontation between the British Empire and the Russian Empire.
  • It took place during the 19th century and early 20th century.
  • The rivalry was centered on Afghanistan and surrounding regions of Central and South Asia.
  • Rudyard Kipling:
  • Born on December 30, 1865, in Bombay, British India (now Mumbai, India).
  • He received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1907.
  • His other famous works include "The Man Who Would Be King" and "If—".
  • Kim:
  • The novel explores themes such as British colonialism, espionage, and the clash of cultures.
  • The protagonist, Kimball O'Hara, is an orphaned boy who grows up on the streets of British India.
  • Kim becomes involved in espionage as a spy for the British Secret Service.
19

In which of the following years was the Central Vigilance Commission set up by the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    1975

  2. ((b))

    1964

  3. ((c))

    1970

  4. ((d))

    1984

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1964

The correct answer is 1964.

Key Points

  • The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was set up by the Government of India in 1964.
  • The establishment of the CVC was recommended by the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K. Santhanam.
  • The CVC was initially created to address governmental corruption and to oversee vigilance activities in various organizations under the central government.
  • It operates independently of any executive authority, ensuring its autonomy in functioning.

Additional Information

  • Role and Functions:
  • The CVC supervises the vigilance activities of the Central Government and its organizations.
  • It advises various authorities in central government organizations on vigilance matters and on planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work.
  • Amendments and Empowerment:
  • The Central Vigilance Commission Act was enacted in 2003, which provided statutory status to the CVC.
  • This Act empowers the CVC to exercise superintendence over the functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) for investigation of offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
  • Appointment and Composition:
  • The CVC is headed by a Central Vigilance Commissioner and can have up to two Vigilance Commissioners.
  • The appointment of the Commissioners is done by the President of India based on the recommendations of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  • Recent Developments:
  • In recent years, the CVC has been focusing on leveraging technology to enhance transparency and efficiency in its operations.
  • It has introduced various initiatives such as the Integrity Index and e-pledge to promote a culture of integrity and accountability.
20

Tamladu is the religious festival of the Digaru Mishmis tribe of which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Tamladu is a significant religious festival celebrated by the Digaru Mishmi tribe.
  • The festival takes place in the northeastern state of Arunachal Pradesh, India.
  • Tamladu is observed on 15th February every year.
  • It involves rituals and prayers to the forest and river gods for protection and prosperity.
  • The festival is also a time for the community to come together and celebrate their cultural heritage.

Additional Information

  • Arunachal Pradesh:
  • It is located in the northeastern part of India.
  • The state capital is Itanagar.
  • Arunachal Pradesh is known for its diverse tribal cultures and traditions.
  • The state shares international borders with Bhutan, China, and Myanmar.
  • Digaru Mishmi Tribe:
  • They are one of the indigenous tribes of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The tribe is known for its rich cultural heritage and traditional practices.
  • They primarily reside in the Lohit district of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Traditional Festivals of Arunachal Pradesh:
  • Other notable festivals include Losar, Mopin, and Solung.
  • These festivals showcase the state's cultural diversity and traditional customs.
  • Geographical Significance:
  • Arunachal Pradesh is known for its scenic beauty, with lush valleys, rivers, and mountains.
  • The state is home to several national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
21

Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

  1. ((a))

    To develop the scientific temper

  2. ((b))

    To pay income tax in time

  3. ((c))

    To value rich heritage

  4. ((d))

    To protect the natural environment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To pay income tax in time

The correct answer is To pay income tax in time.

Key Points

  • Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A.
  • The Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • There are eleven Fundamental Duties listed in the Indian Constitution.
  • Paying income tax in time is not listed as one of the Fundamental Duties.
  • Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, and safeguarding public property among others.

Additional Information

  • Article 51A of the Indian Constitution outlines the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
  • The Fundamental Duties emphasize the importance of a citizen's responsibility towards the nation.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act, which introduced the Fundamental Duties, is often referred to as the "mini-Constitution" due to the extensive changes it brought.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts.
22

Name the employee of the East India Company who deciphered Asokan Brahmi in 1830s.

  1. ((a))

    James Prinsep

  2. ((b))

    James Mills

  3. ((c))

    William Risley

  4. ((d))

    William Crookes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

James Prinsep

The correct answer is James Prinsep.

Key Points

  • James Prinsep, an employee of the East India Company, successfully deciphered the Brahmi script in the 1830s.
  • He identified the inscriptions on the pillars and rock edicts of Ashoka, facilitating the understanding of ancient Indian history.
  • The decipherment of Brahmi script was a monumental breakthrough in epigraphy and the study of ancient Indian scripts.
  • James Prinsep published his findings in the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, which significantly advanced the field of Indian epigraphy.

Additional Information

  • Brahmi Script:
  • One of the oldest writing systems used in the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is the ancestor of most of the modern scripts of South and Southeast Asia.
  • It was used primarily during the Maurya and Gupta periods.
  • Ashoka:
  • The third emperor of the Maurya Dynasty who ruled almost all of the Indian subcontinent.
  • He is remembered for his propagation of Buddhism and his inscriptions on pillars and rocks.
  • Ashoka's edicts provide valuable insights into his reign and policies.
  • Epigraphy:
  • The study of inscriptions or epigraphs as writing.
  • It is a primary tool for understanding ancient civilizations and their languages.
  • Epigraphists analyze historical inscriptions to reconstruct historical events and understand cultural contexts.
  • Asiatic Society of Bengal:
  • Founded in 1784 by Sir William Jones in Kolkata.
  • It played a crucial role in the development of the study of Asian history, culture, and literature.
  • The society's journal was a prominent publication for scholarly research during the 19th century.
23

In 2022, Air India was privatised. Which of the following private business groups has taken over Air India?

  1. ((a))

    Adani

  2. ((b))

    Birla

  3. ((c))

    TATA

  4. ((d))

    Reliance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

TATA

The correct answer is TATA.

Key Points

  • Air India was officially handed over to the Tata Group on January 27, 2022.
  • The Tata Group won the bid for Air India with an enterprise value of Rs 18,000 crore.
  • This acquisition marks the return of Air India to the Tata Group after 69 years.
  • The Tata Group had originally founded Air India in 1932 as Tata Airlines.

Additional Information

  • Tata Group:
  • One of India's largest and oldest conglomerates, founded in 1868 by Jamsetji Tata.
  • Operates in over 100 countries across six continents in sectors like steel, automobiles, IT, telecommunications, and hospitality.
  • Air India:
  • Founded by J.R.D. Tata in 1932 as Tata Airlines; became Air India in 1946.
  • Nationalized in 1953 and operated as the national carrier of India.
  • Privatization of Public Sector Enterprises:
  • Refers to the transfer of ownership, management, and control of public sector enterprises to the private sector.
  • Aimed at improving efficiency, productivity, and competitiveness.
  • Indian Aviation Sector:
  • One of the fastest-growing aviation markets in the world.
  • Has seen significant growth due to rising incomes, increased tourism, and government policies.
24

The Halda festival of Himachal Pradesh is primarily celebrated by which religious community?

  1. ((a))

    Hindu

  2. ((b))

    Jain

  3. ((c))

    Buddhist

  4. ((d))

    Parsi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Buddhist

The correct answer is Buddhist.

Key Points

  • The Halda festival is primarily celebrated by the Buddhist community in Himachal Pradesh.
  • This festival marks the New Year for the Lahaul valley's Buddhist population.
  • It is celebrated with great enthusiasm and involves traditional rituals and customs.
  • Halda is similar to the Diwali festival celebrated in other parts of India, focusing on light and prosperity.

Additional Information

  • Buddhist Festivals:
  • Other major Buddhist festivals include Buddha Purnima and Losar.
  • Buddha Purnima marks the birth, enlightenment, and death of Gautama Buddha.
  • Losar is the Tibetan New Year celebrated with various traditional customs and rituals.
  • Himachal Pradesh:
  • Known for its rich cultural heritage and diverse traditions.
  • Home to various tribal communities including Gaddis, Kinnars, and Lahaulis.
  • Popular for its scenic landscapes and hill stations like Shimla, Manali, and Dharamshala.
  • Buddhism in India:
  • Buddhism originated in India around the 5th century BCE with Gautama Buddha.
  • It played a significant role in the development of Indian art and architecture.
  • Major Buddhist sites in India include Bodh Gaya, Sarnath, and Kushinagar.
25

Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?

  1. ((a))

    Valuing the rich heritage of our culture

  2. ((b))

    Promotion of co-operative societies

  3. ((c))

    Uniform civil code for the citizens

  4. ((d))

    Separation of judiciary from executive

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Valuing the rich heritage of our culture

The correct answer is Valuing the rich heritage of our culture.

Key Points

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government, laid down in Part IV of the Constitution of India.
  • The DPSPs aim to establish a just society in India and are not enforceable by any court, but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • Promotion of co-operative societies, Uniform civil code for the citizens, and Separation of judiciary from executive are examples of Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Valuing the rich heritage of our culture is not listed as a Directive Principle of State Policy but is mentioned in the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(f) of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy:
  • They are inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland.
  • They aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
  • They emphasize the welfare state model of governance.
  • These principles are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the judiciary.
  • Fundamental Duties:
  • Fundamental Duties are listed under Article 51A in Part IVA of the Constitution of India.
  • They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • There are 11 Fundamental Duties prescribed for every citizen of India.
  • They are meant to serve as a constant reminder to citizens about their duties towards the nation.
  • Uniform Civil Code:
  • It refers to the proposal to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set governing every citizen.
  • Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy sets its implementation as a goal.
  • Separation of Judiciary from Executive:
  • It ensures the independence of the judiciary from the executive branch of the government.
  • This principle is enshrined in Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
26

In which year did India qualify for the FIFA World Cup?

  1. ((a))

    1958

  2. ((b))

    1954

  3. ((c))

    1946

  4. ((d))

    1950

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1950

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

  • India qualified for the 1950 FIFA World Cup, which was held in Brazil.
  • This was the first and only time India qualified for the FIFA World Cup.
  • India's qualification came after several teams withdrew from the tournament.
  • Despite qualifying, India did not participate in the 1950 World Cup.
  • One of the reasons cited for not participating was the lack of proper football boots for the players.

Additional Information

  • FIFA World Cup:
  • The FIFA World Cup is an international football competition contested by the senior men's national teams of the members of FIFA.
  • It is held every four years and is one of the most widely viewed sporting events worldwide.
  • The first World Cup was held in 1930, hosted by Uruguay.
  • India's Football History:
  • India has a rich history in football, with the sport being popular in various regions such as West Bengal, Kerala, and Goa.
  • The All India Football Federation (AIFF) is the governing body for football in India, established in 1937.
  • Reasons for Withdrawal:
  • There were multiple reasons cited for India's withdrawal from the 1950 World Cup, including travel costs, team preparation, and the insistence on playing barefoot.
  • These factors led to India's absence from the tournament despite qualifying.
  • Indian Football Achievements:
  • India has won the AFC Asian Cup in 1964 and has been a significant force in the South Asian region.
  • The country has produced notable footballers like Baichung Bhutia and Sunil Chhetri.
27

In India, there are various crops produced. Which group of crops belong to the pulses?

  1. ((a))

    Tea and coffee

  2. ((b))

    Jute and cotton

  3. ((c))

    Wheat and rice

  4. ((d))

    Gram and tur

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gram and tur

The correct answer is Gram and tur.

Key Points

  • Gram (chickpea) and tur (pigeon pea) are two of the most commonly grown pulse crops in India.
  • These pulses are a major source of protein in the Indian diet, especially for vegetarians.
  • Pulses like gram and tur play a crucial role in crop rotation and soil health improvement due to their nitrogen-fixing ability.
  • India is one of the largest producers and consumers of pulses in the world, contributing significantly to the global pulse market.

Additional Information

  • Other Common Pulses in India:
  • Other important pulses grown in India include lentils (masoor), mung beans, urad beans, and peas.
  • These pulses are cultivated across various states, each having its specific climatic and soil preferences.
  • Nutritional Value:
  • Pulses are rich in proteins, dietary fiber, vitamins, and essential minerals like iron, magnesium, and potassium.
  • They are considered vital for nutritional security, especially in regions with high rates of malnutrition.
  • Agricultural Practices:
  • Pulses are often grown in rotation with cereal crops to enhance soil fertility and reduce pest and disease cycles.
  • They require less water compared to other crops and can thrive in semi-arid conditions, making them suitable for diverse agro-climatic zones.
  • Economic Importance:
  • The cultivation of pulses provides livelihood to millions of farmers across India.
  • Pulses have significant export potential, contributing to the country's economy.
28

Which of the following Statutory Commissions was set up to study the working of the government after the Government of India Act 1919 was passed?

  1. ((a))

    The Hunter Commission

  2. ((b))

    The Butler Commission

  3. ((c))

    The Simon Commission

  4. ((d))

    The Campbell Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The Simon Commission

The correct answer is The Simon Commission.

Key Points

  • The Simon Commission was constituted in 1927 to review the working of the constitutional system in India as per the Government of India Act 1919.
  • It was a seven-member commission chaired by Sir John Simon.
  • The commission was boycotted by Indian political parties because it did not include any Indian members.
  • The report of the Simon Commission led to the Government of India Act 1935, which introduced provincial autonomy and the establishment of federal courts.

Additional Information

  • Government of India Act 1919
  • Also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
  • Introduced a dual system of governance (dyarchy) in the provinces.
  • Separate electorates were expanded and more power was given to the provincial legislative councils.
  • Government of India Act 1935
  • This act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation.
  • It introduced provincial autonomy, allowing elected Indian representatives to form governments.
  • It also established a federal court and expanded the franchise.
  • Butler Commission
  • Set up in 1927 to examine the relationship between the princely states and the British Crown.
  • Recommended that the relationship should be direct and not through the Government of India.
  • Hunter Commission
  • Formed in 1919 to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
  • Condemned the actions of General Dyer, who ordered the massacre, but did not impose any severe penalties.
29

Kummi dance, usually performed during harvest festivals and Navratri, is a popular dance of which southern state?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Kummi is a traditional dance form of Tamil Nadu, often performed during harvest festivals and the Navratri celebrations.
  • This dance is performed by women in a circle, clapping their hands rhythmically while dancing.
  • Kummi is a popular folk dance that showcases the cultural heritage of the Tamil people.
  • The dance is characterized by its simple movements and the absence of musical instruments, relying instead on clapping and singing.

Additional Information

  • Harvest Festivals: In Tamil Nadu, harvest festivals such as Pongal are celebrated with great fervor, and Kummi dance is an integral part of these celebrations.
  • Navratri Celebrations: During Navratri, Kummi dance is performed to honor the goddess and celebrate the victory of good over evil.
  • Folk Dance Forms: Tamil Nadu is home to various folk dance forms, including Karagattam, Mayilattam, and Oyilattam, each with its unique style and significance.
  • Clapping Rhythms: The synchronization of clapping patterns in Kummi dance is a key feature, adding to the rhythm and unity of the performance.
30

Which mountain range includes the Shiwalik range as a part?

  1. ((a))

    Western Ghats

  2. ((b))

    Eastern Ghats

  3. ((c))

    Himalayas

  4. ((d))

    Aravalli

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Himalayas

The correct answer is Himalayas.

Key Points

  • The Shiwalik range is the outermost range of the Himalayas, also known as the Sub-Himalayas or the Outer Himalayas.
  • This range extends from the Indus River in Pakistan in the west to the Brahmaputra River in India in the east.
  • The elevation of the Shiwalik range varies from 600 meters to 1200 meters.
  • It is primarily composed of unconsolidated sediments like sandstone, conglomerates, and mudstone, which were brought down by rivers from the higher Himalayas.

Additional Information

  • Himalayas:
  • The Himalayas are the highest mountain range in the world, containing some of the planet's highest peaks, including Mount Everest.
  • They play a crucial role in regulating the climate of the Indian subcontinent by acting as a barrier to cold winds from Central Asia.
  • The range is divided into three parallel ranges: the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Shiwalik range.
  • Geological Formation:
  • The Himalayas were formed as a result of the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
  • This process started approximately 50 million years ago and continues to this day, making the Himalayas a geologically active region.
  • Flora and Fauna:
  • The Himalayas host a diverse range of flora and fauna, with various species adapted to the different climatic zones within the range.
  • Notable species include the snow leopard, red panda, and numerous endemic plant species.
  • Human Settlements:
  • Several indigenous communities live in the Himalayan region, including the Sherpas, who are well known for their mountaineering skills.
  • The Himalayas are also home to important religious sites for Hinduism and Buddhism, such as the Amarnath Cave and Lhasa.
31

Which of the following nations won the inaugural under-19 women's cricket world championship?

  1. ((a))

    New Zealand

  2. ((b))

    England

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

India

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • India won the inaugural ICC Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup held in January 2023.
  • The final match was played on 29 January 2023 at Senwes Park, Potchefstroom, South Africa.
  • India defeated England in the final by 7 wickets to clinch the title.
  • Shafali Verma captained the Indian team to their historic victory.
  • India's win in the Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup marked their first title in the tournament's history.

Additional Information

  • ICC Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup:
  • The ICC Under-19 Women's T20 World Cup is an international cricket tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
  • The tournament aims to provide a platform for young female cricketers to showcase their talent on a global stage.
  • The inaugural edition of the tournament took place in 2023.
  • India's Performance in Youth Cricket:
  • India has been a strong contender in various youth cricket tournaments, including the ICC Under-19 Men's World Cup.
  • India's success in youth cricket is attributed to a robust domestic cricket structure and a focus on nurturing young talent.
  • Shafali Verma:
  • Shafali Verma is an Indian cricketer known for her aggressive batting style.
  • She made her debut for the Indian women's national team at the age of 15.
  • Shafali Verma has been a key player in India's women's cricket, contributing significantly to their successes.
  • Women's Cricket in India:
  • Women's cricket has gained significant popularity in India over the past decade.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) has taken several initiatives to promote and develop women's cricket in the country.
  • Major tournaments like the Women's T20 Challenge have provided a platform for female cricketers to compete at a high level.
32

Schedule A of the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 comprised of industries which would be:

  1. ((a))

    in the private sector

  2. ((b))

    owned by both private and public sector

  3. ((c))

    exclusively owned by foreign nationals

  4. ((d))

    exclusively owned by the state

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

exclusively owned by the state

The correct answer is exclusively owned by the state.

Key Points

  • Schedule A of the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 included industries that were to be exclusively owned by the state.
  • The aim was to ensure state control over industries of basic and strategic importance.
  • This included sectors like defense, atomic energy, and railway transport.
  • Heavy industries like iron and steel, heavy machinery, and heavy electrical industries were also included.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1956:
  • Marked a significant shift towards a socialist model of development.
  • Classified industries into three schedules - A, B, and C.
  • Schedule B:
  • Industries where both state and private sectors could operate.
  • Included industries like machine tools, fertilizers, and road transport.
  • Schedule C:
  • Industries that were open to the private sector.
  • However, the state could intervene if deemed necessary.
  • Socialist Model of Development:
  • A model where the state plays a dominant role in the economic development.
  • Focuses on equitable distribution of wealth and resources.
33

The disintegration of the Bahamani Empire gave rise to ________ independent kingdoms in Deccan.

  1. ((a))

    four

  2. ((b))

    five

  3. ((c))

    two

  4. ((d))

    seven

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

five

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The disintegration of the Bahamani Empire in the late 15th century led to the rise of five independent kingdoms in the Deccan region.
  • These kingdoms were Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and Berar.
  • The Bahamani Empire had been established in the mid-14th century but began to weaken due to internal conflicts and external pressures.
  • The process of disintegration began around 1518 and was complete by 1527 when these five kingdoms emerged.

Additional Information

  • Bijapur: It was one of the most prominent successor states, known for its architectural contributions like the Gol Gumbaz.
  • Golkonda: Famous for its diamond mines and strong fortifications, it later became a part of the Mughal Empire.
  • Ahmadnagar: Known for its strong military and strategic importance, it was founded by Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah I.
  • Bidar: The smallest of the five kingdoms, known for its rich cultural heritage and the Bidar Fort.
  • Berar: It was the last to emerge and was eventually annexed by the Ahmadnagar Sultanate.
34

Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution does NOT deal with which issues?

  1. ((a))

    Equal justice and free legal aid

  2. ((b))

    Secure suitable legislation and living wage for workers

  3. ((c))

    Secure a social order for promotion of welfare of the people

  4. ((d))

    Control of economic fluctuations for the benefits of a person or group

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Control of economic fluctuations for the benefits of a person or group

The correct answer is Control of economic fluctuations for the benefits of a person or group.

Key Points

  • Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the government in making policies.
  • These articles are focused on promoting social and economic democracy and ensuring welfare for the people.
  • Key areas covered include equal justice, free legal aid, suitable legislation for workers, and securing a social order for the promotion of welfare.
  • Control of economic fluctuations for the benefits of a person or group is not mentioned within Articles 36 to 51.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • These principles are listed in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
  • They are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court.
  • The aim is to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
  • Article 39:
  • Directs the State to ensure that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
  • It also mandates that the ownership and control of material resources be distributed to serve the common good.
  • Article 41:
  • Mandates the State to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
  • Article 42:
  • Directs the State to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
35

The famous tripartite struggle between the Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala dynasties was fought for control over ________.

  1. ((a))

    Panipat

  2. ((b))

    Manyakheta

  3. ((c))

    Avanti

  4. ((d))

    Kannauj

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kannauj

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

  • The tripartite struggle, also known as the Kannauj Triangle Wars, occurred during the 8th to 10th centuries CE.
  • The three dynasties involved were the Gurjara-Pratihara, the Rashtrakuta, and the Pala dynasties.
  • Kannauj was a significant and strategically important city due to its location and its control over the fertile Ganges-Yamuna Doab region.
  • The control over Kannauj was seen as a symbol of sovereignty and paramount power in northern India.
  • This prolonged conflict weakened the three dynasties, eventually leading to the rise of other regional powers.

Additional Information

  • Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty
  • The Gurjara-Pratiharas were known for their strong military prowess and played a key role in resisting Arab invasions in western India.
  • They ruled over a large part of northern India, with their capital initially at Bhinmal and later at Kannauj.
  • Rashtrakuta Dynasty
  • The Rashtrakutas were a powerful dynasty in the Deccan region, known for their patronage of art and architecture.
  • They ruled from their capital at Manyakheta and were known for their extensive campaigns in northern India.
  • Pala Dynasty
  • The Palas ruled over the Bengal and Bihar regions and were renowned for their support of Buddhism and establishment of universities like Nalanda and Vikramashila.
  • Their capital was initially at Pataliputra and later at Vikrampura.
  • Significance of Kannauj
  • Kannauj was historically a major center for trade, culture, and politics in northern India.
  • Its control was often contested due to its strategic location and prosperity.
36

Which state of the matter has LEAST force of attraction between its particles?

  1. ((a))

    Solid

  2. ((b))

    Plasma

  3. ((c))

    Liquid

  4. ((d))

    Gas

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gas

The correct answer is Gas.

Key Points

  • Gases have the least force of attraction between their particles compared to solids, liquids, and plasma.
  • The particles in a gas are widely spaced and move freely and rapidly in all directions.
  • This weak force of attraction allows gases to fill any container they are placed in, taking the shape and volume of the container.
  • Due to minimal intermolecular forces, gases can be compressed easily and have low densities.
  • The kinetic energy of gas particles is higher than that of solids and liquids, leading to greater movement and lower attraction between particles.

Additional Information

  • Solid State:
  • In solids, particles are closely packed in a fixed, orderly arrangement, resulting in strong intermolecular forces of attraction.
  • This strong attraction gives solids a definite shape and volume.
  • Liquid State:
  • Liquids have a moderate level of attraction between particles, allowing them to flow and take the shape of their container while retaining a fixed volume.
  • The particles in a liquid are less tightly packed than in a solid but are closer together than in a gas.
  • Plasma State:
  • Plasma consists of highly energized particles with sufficient energy to overcome the attraction between electrons and nuclei, resulting in a collection of free-moving ions and electrons.
  • It is often referred to as the fourth state of matter and is found in stars, including the sun, and in man-made objects like neon signs and plasma TVs.
  • Kinetic Theory of Gases:
  • This theory explains the behavior of gases based on the idea that gas particles are in constant, random motion and that their collisions with the walls of a container cause pressure.
  • It also states that the temperature of a gas is proportional to the average kinetic energy of its particles.
37

Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh is a singer, song writer and activist from the state of ____________.

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Jharkhand

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jharkhand

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh is a renowned singer, songwriter, and activist from Jharkhand, known for his contributions to tribal and folk music.
  • He sings in several languages, including Nagpuri, Hindi, and other regional dialects, promoting the cultural heritage of Jharkhand.
  • His music often reflects the struggles and aspirations of the tribal communities in Jharkhand.
  • Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh has been awarded multiple accolades for his efforts in preserving and promoting the traditional music of his state.

Additional Information

  • Jharkhand's Cultural Heritage:
  • Jharkhand is known for its rich tribal culture, with over 32 different tribal communities residing in the state.
  • The state celebrates various tribal festivals such as Sarhul, Karma, and Sohrai, which are integral to its cultural identity.
  • Tribal dances like Chhau, Paika, and Jhumar are popular and often depict stories from tribal folklore and mythology.
  • Folk Music in Jharkhand:
  • Folk music is an essential part of Jharkhand's cultural landscape, with instruments like Mandar, Nagara, and Bansuri commonly used.
  • Folk songs often revolve around themes of nature, agriculture, and tribal legends.
  • Artists like Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh play a pivotal role in keeping these traditional art forms alive.
  • Tribal Activism:
  • Tribal activists in Jharkhand work towards the preservation of their cultural heritage and the rights of tribal communities.
  • Issues such as land rights, displacement, and environmental conservation are central to tribal activism in the region.
  • Artists like Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh use their platform to raise awareness about these issues through their art.
  • Recognition and Awards:
  • Madhu Mansuri Hasmukh has received several awards for his contribution to music and culture, including the prestigious Padma Shri.
  • His efforts have been recognized both nationally and internationally, bringing attention to the rich cultural heritage of Jharkhand.
38

The ‘Population Projection’ in demographics refers to _________.

  1. ((a))

    measuring the population growth rate

  2. ((b))

    identifying the sex ratio in a particular area

  3. ((c))

    calculating the population density of a region

  4. ((d))

    estimating future population size based on past data and trends

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

estimating future population size based on past data and trends

The correct answer is estimating future population size based on past data and trends.

Key Points

  • Population projection is a method used to estimate the future population size using historical data and trends.
  • It involves analyzing past demographic data such as birth rates, death rates, and migration patterns.
  • Population projections are crucial for planning and policy-making in areas such as healthcare, education, and infrastructure.
  • These projections help governments and organizations anticipate future needs and allocate resources efficiently.
  • They are typically created using statistical models and demographic theories.

Additional Information

  • Demographic Transition Model (DTM):
  • A theory that describes population change over time as a country develops economically.
  • It involves four stages: pre-industrial, transitional, industrial, and post-industrial.
  • Fertility Rate:
  • The average number of children born to a woman over her lifetime.
  • Important for understanding population growth and projections.
  • Mortality Rate:
  • The number of deaths in a given population during a specific time period.
  • Used to calculate life expectancy and population projections.
  • Migration Patterns:
  • The movement of people from one place to another which affects population size and composition.
  • Includes immigration (inflow) and emigration (outflow).
39

Part ___________________ of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Executive.

  1. ((a))

    V

  2. ((b))

    VI

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    III

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

V

The correct answer is Part V of the Constitution of India.

Key Points

  • Part V of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Executive.
  • It includes Articles 52 to 78.
  • The Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General of India.
  • The President of India is the head of the state and the supreme commander of the armed forces.
  • The executive power of the Union is vested in the President and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.

Additional Information

  • President of India:
  • The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories.
  • The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office.
  • The President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution.
  • Vice-President of India:
  • The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of Parliament.
  • He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • In the event of the death or resignation of the President, the Vice-President discharges the functions of the President.
  • Prime Minister of India:
  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is the head of the government.
  • He advises the President in the exercise of his functions.
  • The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers, which is the real executive authority.
  • Attorney General of India:
  • The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country.
  • He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both houses of Parliament but without a right to vote.
40

The term 'slip' is related to which of the following games?

  1. ((a))

    Cricket

  2. ((b))

    Hockey

  3. ((c))

    Badminton

  4. ((d))

    Football

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cricket

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

  • The term 'slip' in cricket refers to a fielding position specifically designed to catch balls that are edged by the batsman.
  • Slip fielders stand behind the batsman on the off side, usually in a line with the wicketkeeper.
  • These positions are critical for catching balls that deviate slightly after hitting the bat, especially in fast bowling.
  • The number of slips can vary based on the game situation, ranging from none to as many as four or five.

Additional Information

  • Fielding Positions in Cricket:
  • Wicketkeeper: Positioned directly behind the stumps to catch balls the batsman misses.
  • Gully: Positioned on the off side, typically between slips and point.
  • Point: Positioned square of the wicket on the off side.
  • Mid-off: Positioned straight on the off side, closer to the bowler.
  • Bowling Techniques:
  • Fast Bowling: Involves delivering the ball at high speeds, typically above 140 km/h.
  • Spin Bowling: Involves delivering the ball with a spinning action to deceive the batsman.
  • Medium Pace: Involves delivering the ball at moderate speeds, relying on swing and seam movement.
  • Types of Catches:
  • Slip Catch: Caught by fielders positioned in the slip cordon.
  • Outfield Catch: Caught by fielders positioned in the outfield, typically on the boundary.
  • Close-in Catch: Caught by fielders positioned close to the batsman, such as short leg or silly point.
  • Cricket Formats:
  • Test Cricket: Played over five days with unlimited overs.
  • One Day International (ODI): Limited to 50 overs per side.
  • T20 International: Limited to 20 overs per side.
41

Which of the following is an example of the most ‘Liquid form of Money’?

  1. ((a))

    National savings deposits

  2. ((b))

    Currency notes

  3. ((c))

    Fixed deposit receipts

  4. ((d))

    Bonds

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Currency notes

The correct answer is Currency notes.

Key Points

  • Currency notes are the most liquid form of money as they can be readily used for transactions and are accepted universally.
  • Unlike other forms of money, such as deposits or bonds, currency notes do not need to be converted into another form to be used for purchases.
  • Currency notes are immediately available for spending, making them the most accessible form of money.
  • They are issued by the central bank and are backed by the government's guarantee.

Additional Information

  • Liquidity:
  • Liquidity refers to how quickly and easily an asset can be converted into cash without affecting its market price.
  • Higher liquidity means quicker conversion with minimal price change.
  • National Savings Deposits:
  • These are savings accounts or instruments provided by national post offices or banks.
  • They usually offer interest but are not as easily accessible as currency notes.
  • Fixed Deposits:
  • A fixed deposit is a financial instrument provided by banks that offer higher interest rates than regular savings accounts.
  • They have a fixed tenure and premature withdrawal may attract penalties.
  • Bonds:
  • Bonds are fixed-income instruments that represent a loan made by an investor to a borrower, typically corporate or governmental.
  • They have maturity periods and are less liquid compared to currency notes.
42

Who among the following established the Academy of Performing Arts and Research in Switzerland?

  1. ((a))

    Pandit Kumar Gandharva

  2. ((b))

    Pandit Bhimsen Joshi

  3. ((c))

    Dr. M Balamuralikrishna

  4. ((d))

    Pandit Jasraj

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dr. M Balamuralikrishna

The correct answer is Dr. M Balamuralikrishna.

Key Points

  • Dr. M Balamuralikrishna was a renowned Indian Carnatic vocalist, multi-instrumentalist, playback singer, and composer.
  • He established the Academy of Performing Arts and Research in Switzerland to promote Indian classical music internationally.
  • Dr. Balamuralikrishna's contributions to music have been recognized globally, and he has received numerous awards, including the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award.
  • The Academy in Switzerland focuses on providing high-quality training in various forms of Indian classical music and performing arts.

Additional Information

  • Carnatic Music:
  • Carnatic music is a system of music commonly associated with the southern part of the Indian subcontinent, with its classical traditions rooted in the Vedas.
  • It is characterized by a rich tradition of compositions (kriti) and improvisations (manodharma).
  • Key elements include ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
  • Padma Awards:
  • Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors in India, categorized into Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
  • They are awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in various fields, including the arts, science, and public affairs.
  • Indian Classical Music Institutions:
  • Several institutions in India and abroad promote Indian classical music, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi and the ITC Sangeet Research Academy.
  • These institutions offer training, conduct research, and organize performances to preserve and propagate classical music traditions.
  • Global Influence of Indian Classical Music:
  • Indian classical music has influenced many global music genres and has been embraced by international audiences.
  • Renowned artists like Ravi Shankar and L. Subramaniam have played pivotal roles in popularizing Indian classical music worldwide.
43

The interim Government was provisioned under which Plan/Act of the Government of India, by the Britishers?

  1. ((a))

    Cripps Mission Plan

  2. ((b))

    Cabinet Mission Plan

  3. ((c))

    Government of India Act, 1935

  4. ((d))

    Government of India Act, 1919

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cabinet Mission Plan

The correct answer is Cabinet Mission Plan.

Key Points

  • The Cabinet Mission Plan was announced in 1946 by the British government to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from British rule to Indian leadership.
  • It proposed the formation of an interim government that would be responsible for the administration of the country until a new constitution was framed.
  • The plan also recommended the establishment of a Constituent Assembly to draft the Constitution of India.
  • The Cabinet Mission consisted of three British Cabinet members: Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.

Additional Information

  • Cripps Mission Plan:
  • Proposed in 1942, the Cripps Mission aimed to secure Indian cooperation in World War II by offering limited self-governance.
  • It proposed an Indian Union with a dominion status post-war, which was rejected by Indian leaders.
  • Government of India Act, 1935:
  • The Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation and provincial autonomy.
  • It was the longest act passed by the British Parliament and served as a blueprint for the Constitution of India.
  • Government of India Act, 1919:
  • Also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, it introduced the dyarchy system in the provinces.
  • It marked a significant step towards the involvement of Indians in the governance of their country.
44

Who founded the Abhinav Bharat Society?

  1. ((a))

    Lala Hardayal

  2. ((b))

    Madan Lal Dhingra

  3. ((c))

    P Mitra

  4. ((d))

    Savarkar Brothers

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Savarkar Brothers

The correct answer is Savarkar Brothers.

Key Points

  • Abhinav Bharat Society was founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904.
  • Initially known as Mitra Mela, the organization aimed to inspire young Indians through revolutionary ideas.
  • It was a secret society that promoted armed rebellion against the British colonial rule.
  • The society played a significant role in the Indian independence movement by spreading nationalist sentiment and revolutionary activities.

Additional Information

  • Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:
  • Also known as Veer Savarkar, he was a prominent Indian independence activist, lawyer, and writer.
  • He is known for his work in the field of Hindutva and his contributions to the nationalist movement.
  • He was imprisoned in the Cellular Jail in Andaman and Nicobar Islands for his revolutionary activities.
  • Ganesh Damodar Savarkar:
  • Elder brother of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and a key figure in the revolutionary movement against British rule.
  • He was deeply involved in the activities of the Abhinav Bharat Society and other revolutionary organizations.
  • Revolutionary Activities:
  • Abhinav Bharat Society was involved in several revolutionary acts, including the assassination of British officials.
  • The society inspired many young Indians to take up arms against the British colonial government.
  • Legacy:
  • The activities and ideas of the Savarkar brothers and the Abhinav Bharat Society had a lasting impact on the Indian independence movement.
  • They are remembered for their courage, dedication, and contributions to India's struggle for freedom.
45

The fundamental objective of the second five year plan was to initiate and accelerate the process of ________ so that the development of Indian economy takes a firm base.

  1. ((a))

    liberalisation

  2. ((b))

    globalisation

  3. ((c))

    industrialisation

  4. ((d))

    privatisation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

industrialisation

The correct answer is industrialisation.

Key Points

  • The second five-year plan (1956-61) of India was primarily focused on industrialisation to build a self-reliant economy.
  • It was based on the Mahalanobis model, which emphasized the development of heavy industries and capital goods sectors.
  • The plan aimed at reducing import dependency by promoting the establishment of large-scale public sector enterprises.
  • Key industries such as steel, machinery, and heavy engineering received significant investments and support.
  • The plan led to the establishment of major industrial projects like the Bhilai Steel Plant and the Durgapur Steel Plant.

Additional Information

  • Mahalanobis Model
  • Developed by Indian statistician P.C. Mahalanobis, this model laid the framework for the second five-year plan.
  • It emphasized the importance of heavy industry and aimed at a rapid industrialization of the Indian economy.
  • Public Sector Enterprises
  • The second plan focused on the establishment of public sector enterprises in key industries to promote self-sufficiency.
  • PSUs like Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) were established during this period.
  • Heavy Industry
  • Heavy industries include large-scale industries such as steel, machinery, and construction.
  • These industries require significant capital investment and are crucial for building infrastructure.
  • Bhilai and Durgapur Steel Plants
  • The Bhilai Steel Plant was established in collaboration with the Soviet Union.
  • The Durgapur Steel Plant was set up with British collaboration, marking significant industrial milestones.
46

Who among the following is a famous Chhau dancer?

  1. ((a))

    Sadashiva Pradhan

  2. ((b))

    Alloka Kanungo

  3. ((c))

    Pratibha Prahlad

  4. ((d))

    Chhaya Khutegaonkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sadashiva Pradhan

The correct answer is Sadashiva Pradhan.

Key Points

  • Sadashiva Pradhan is a renowned Chhau dancer from India.
  • He is particularly known for his expertise in the Mayurbhanj Chhau style.
  • He has been honored with several awards, including the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • Sadashiva Pradhan has significantly contributed to the preservation and promotion of Chhau dance through performances and teaching.

Additional Information

  • Chhau Dance:
  • Chhau is a traditional Indian dance form that combines martial arts, acrobatics, and storytelling.
  • There are three main styles of Chhau: Seraikella Chhau, Mayurbhanj Chhau, and Purulia Chhau.
  • The dance is typically performed during regional festivals, especially during the Chaitra Parva festival.
  • Chhau dance has been recognized by UNESCO as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
  • Mayurbhanj Chhau:
  • Originates from the Mayurbhanj district in Odisha, India.
  • Unlike other Chhau styles, Mayurbhanj Chhau does not use masks.
  • It focuses on intricate footwork, graceful body movements, and expressive hand gestures.
  • Mayurbhanj Chhau often depicts themes from Hindu mythology and folklore.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award:
  • India's national academy for music, dance, and drama.
  • The award is given to artists for their outstanding contribution to the performing arts.
  • It is one of the highest honors for performing artists in India.
47

Tanjore Bala saraswati was a prominent dancer of which form of Indian Classical Dance?

  1. ((a))

    Manipuri

  2. ((b))

    Bharatanatyam

  3. ((c))

    Odissi

  4. ((d))

    Kuchipudi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bharatanatyam

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

  • Tanjore Bala Saraswati was a renowned practitioner of Bharatanatyam, a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
  • She is celebrated for her contributions to reviving and popularizing Bharatanatyam during the 20th century.
  • Bala Saraswati performed internationally, bringing global recognition to Bharatanatyam.
  • Her performances were known for their depth of expression, technical precision, and adherence to traditional elements.
  • She received numerous awards and accolades, including the Padma Bhushan in 1957 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1955.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam:
  • It is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating from the temples of Tamil Nadu.
  • Bharatanatyam is characterized by its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate footwork, hand gestures (mudras), and facial expressions.
  • The dance form is deeply rooted in Hindu religious themes and spiritual ideas, often depicting stories from Indian epics and mythology.
  • Padma Bhushan:
  • It is the third-highest civilian award in India, established in 1954.
  • It is awarded to recognize distinguished service of a high order to the nation, in any field.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award:
  • This award is conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama.
  • It recognizes outstanding achievement in the performing arts.
  • Abhinaya:
  • It refers to the art of expression in Indian classical dance.
  • Abhinaya includes facial expressions, gestures, and body movements used to convey emotions and narrate stories.
48

The Stupa sculptures found at Sanghol in Punjab belongs to which of the following schools?

  1. ((a))

    Gandhara

  2. ((b))

    Sarnath

  3. ((c))

    Amravati

  4. ((d))

    Mathura

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mathura

The correct answer is Mathura.

Key Points

  • The Stupa sculptures found at Sanghol in Punjab belong to the Mathura school of art.
  • The Mathura school of art is known for its distinctive style characterized by the depiction of Buddha in human form and elaborate decorative elements.
  • The sculptures from Mathura exhibit a strong sense of movement and vitality, often showcasing intricate carvings and detailed drapery.
  • The Mathura school flourished during the Kushan period, particularly under the patronage of rulers like Kanishka.

Additional Information

  • Gandhara School of Art:
  • The Gandhara school emerged in the region of modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan during the Kushan period.
  • It is renowned for its Greco-Roman influence, evident in the realistic representation of human figures and drapery.
  • This school primarily used grey schist stone for its sculptures.
  • Sarnath School of Art:
  • Sarnath, near Varanasi, became an important center for Buddhist art during the Gupta period.
  • The sculptures from Sarnath are noted for their serene and compassionate expressions, depicting Buddha in a more spiritual and ethereal manner.
  • Polished sandstone was commonly used in the Sarnath school.
  • Amravati School of Art:
  • The Amravati school flourished in the Andhra region, particularly around the Krishna River, during the Satavahana period.
  • It is known for its dynamic and detailed narrative panels depicting scenes from the life of Buddha.
  • White marble was often used for the sculptures from this school.
49

Select the correct sequence of the following steps during the process of photosynthesis.

i. Chlorophyll helps in absorbing light energy.

ii. Light energy is converted into chemical energy and the water molecule is split into oxygen and hydrogen molecules.

iii. Carbon dioxide is converted into carbohydrates.

  1. ((a))

    Step i and step ii always occur together and step iii can occur any other time

  2. ((b))

    They always occur sequentially in the order i −> ii −> iii

  3. ((c))

    Step i occurs first and steps ii and iii occur together next

  4. ((d))

    These steps need not occur one after another immediately

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

They always occur sequentially in the order i −> ii −> iii

The correct answer is They always occur sequentially in the order i -> ii -> iii.

Key Points

  • During photosynthesis, light energy is first absorbed by chlorophyll in the chloroplasts, initiating the process.
  • The absorbed light energy is then converted into chemical energy, leading to the splitting of water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen.
  • Oxygen is released as a by-product of the splitting of water molecules.
  • The hydrogen molecules are used in the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrates.

Additional Information

  • Chlorophyll: A green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, responsible for the absorption of light energy during photosynthesis.
  • Calvin Cycle: Also known as the light-independent reactions or dark reactions, this cycle uses ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent reactions to fix carbon dioxide into carbohydrates.
  • Photosystems: Complexes of chlorophyll and proteins in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts that play a crucial role in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
  • ATP and NADPH: These are energy carriers produced during the light-dependent reactions and are used in the Calvin cycle to synthesize carbohydrates.
  • Stomata: Small openings on the surface of leaves that allow the exchange of gases (CO₂ and O₂) necessary for photosynthesis.
50

Which of the following cricketers has written the autobiography titled ‘At the Close of Play’?

  1. ((a))

    Ricky Ponting

  2. ((b))

    Matthew Hayden

  3. ((c))

    Kevin Pieterson

  4. ((d))

    Chris Gayle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ricky Ponting

The correct answer is Ricky Ponting.

Key Points

  • Ricky Ponting, the former Australian cricket captain, authored the autobiography titled 'At the Close of Play'.
  • The book was released in 2013 and provides an in-depth look into Ponting's illustrious cricket career.
  • Ricky Ponting is one of the most successful captains in cricket history, leading Australia to numerous victories including two World Cup wins in 2003 and 2007.
  • The autobiography covers his personal and professional life, including his early years, rise to fame, and insights into the world of cricket.

Additional Information

  • Ricky Ponting's Career Highlights:
  • Ricky Ponting scored over 27,000 international runs across Test and ODI formats.
  • He is the second highest run-scorer in Test cricket history, only behind Sachin Tendulkar.
  • Ponting has played 168 Test matches, amassing 13,378 runs with an average of 51.85.
  • In ODIs, he scored 13,704 runs in 375 matches with an average of 42.03.
  • Australian Cricket Team Achievements:
  • Under Ponting's captaincy, Australia won 48 out of 77 Test matches, a winning percentage of 62.3.
  • Australia also secured 165 ODI wins under his leadership, including a record 34 consecutive wins in World Cup matches.
  • Impact on Cricket:
  • Ricky Ponting's aggressive yet strategic approach to the game significantly influenced modern cricket.
  • He played a crucial role in the development of young Australian cricketers and remains an influential figure in cricket coaching and commentary.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All bats are balls.

All balls are wickets.

Conclusions:

I. All wickets are balls.

II. All bats are wickets.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) All wickets are balls → Does not follow (As all balls are wickets. So it is possible but not definite.)

(II) All bats are wickets → Follow (As all bats are balls and all balls are wickets. As whole bats comes in balls which whole comes in wickets, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

52

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(3, 198, 6)

(5, 495, 9)

  1. ((a))

    (9, 1288, 12)

  2. ((b))

    (5, 424, 8)

  3. ((c))

    (4, 352, 8)

  4. ((d))

    (7, 827, 11)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(4, 352, 8)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 3rd number × 11 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, (3, 198, 6)

⇒ 3 × 6 × 11 = 198.

For, (5, 495, 9)

⇒ 5 × 9 × 11 = 495.

Similarly, for (4, 352, 8)

⇒ 4 × 8 × 11 = 352.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

53

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

54

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series →

The first element of 2nd column and 2nd row elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The corner elements of the 2nd row interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

55

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.

KGMQ : EQGA :: LZUD : FJON :: JRCO : ?

  1. ((a))

    DNSY

  2. ((b))

    DBWY

  3. ((c))

    KXWB

  4. ((d))

    KRWY

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DBWY

The logic followed here is:

KGMQ : EQGA

And,

LZUD : FJON

Similarly,

JRCO : ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

56

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series →

The elements at the corners interchange positions diagonally.

The center element rotates 90º clockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The elements at the corners shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The center element rotates 90º clockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

57

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

58

Seven friends, Gauri, Vinod, Ridima, Jiya, Ritik, Vishal and Karishma, are sitting on a circular bench, facing towards the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Vinod and Jiya are not the neighbours of Ritik. Karishma is sitting third to the left of Ritik. Gauri is sitting to the immediate right of Karishma. Ridima is sitting to the immediate left of Ritik. Who is sitting second to the right of Gauri?

  1. ((a))

    Vinod

  2. ((b))

    Jiya

  3. ((c))

    Ridima

  4. ((d))

    Ritik

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ritik

Given: Seven friends, Gauri, Vinod, Ridima, Jiya, Ritik, Vishal and Karishma, are sitting on a circular bench, facing towards the centre.

1) Karishma is sitting third to the left of Ritik.

2) Gauri is sitting to the immediate right of Karishma.

3) Ridima is sitting to the immediate left of Ritik.

4) Vinod and Jiya are not the neighbours of Ritik.

After positioning Vinod and Jiya only one position is left which will be occupied by only person left i.e. Vishal.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, Ritik is sitting second to the right of Gauri.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

59

Six letters P, Q, R, S, T and U are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find the letter on the face opposite to 'R'.

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

S

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As T and U are common on both the dices, it is clear that the remaining will be opposites

Opposite pairs:

S → R

So, the opposite side of "R" will be side "S".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

60

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is NOT allowed.)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

​

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

61

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

62

If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, what is the value of the following expression?

8 – 2 + 6 × 3 ÷ 5

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

19

Given Equation: 8 – 2 + 6 × 3 ÷ 5 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Symbol+–×÷
Meaning−×÷+

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 8 × 2 − 6 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 8 × 2 − 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 16 − 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 21 − 2 = 19.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

63

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

64

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

RTV, PQR, ?, LKJ, JHF

  1. ((a))

    MNO

  2. ((b))

    MNM

  3. ((c))

    NOM

  4. ((d))

    NNN

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

NNN

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

65

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

66

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

​

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option figure 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

67

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

68

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option figure 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

69

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

5 : 45 :: 4 : ? :: 12 : 108

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

36

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 9 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 5 : 45

⇒ (5 × 9) = 45.

For, 12 : 108

⇒ (12 × 9) = 108.

Similarly, for 4 ∶ ?

⇒ (4 × 9) = 36.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

70

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

7, 11, 23, 59, 167, ?

  1. ((a))

    324

  2. ((b))

    678

  3. ((c))

    491

  4. ((d))

    346

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

491

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

71

How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

23

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

  1. Number of triangles = [Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2 = Total triangles

= [2 × (1 + 2)] ÷ 2

= [2 × 3] ÷ 2

= 6 ÷ 2

= 3

2) Number of triangles = (Number of parts × Number of diagonals)

= 4 × 2 ⇒ 8 

Here, as there are two same parts, therefore '8 + 8' = 16 triangles

3) Number of triangles as marked = 4

Thus, total number of triangles are 3 + 16 + 4 = 23

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

72

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

73

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165

  1. ((a))

    = ÷ ×− +

  2. ((b))

    ÷ ×− + =

  3. ((c))

    × ÷ − + =

  4. ((d))

    ÷ × + − =

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

÷ ×− + =

Given: 658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) = ÷ ×− +

658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165 ⇒ 658 = 14 ÷ 3 × 32 - 56 + 165

⇒ 658 = 14 ÷ 3 × 32 - 56 + 165

⇒ 658 = 4.67 × 32 - 56 + 165

⇒ 658 = 149.44 + 165 - 56

⇒ 658 = 314.44 - 56

⇒ 658 ≠ 258.44 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) ÷ ×− + =

658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165 ⇒ 658 ÷ 14 × 3 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 658 ÷ 14 × 3 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 47 × 3 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 141 + 56 - 32 = 165

⇒ 197 - 32 = 165

⇒ 165 = 165 (LHS = RHS)

Option  3) × ÷ − + =

658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165 ⇒ 658 × 14 ÷ 3 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 658 × 14 ÷ 3 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 658 × 4.67 - 32 + 56 = 165

⇒ 3072.86 + 56 - 32 = 165

⇒ 3128.86 - 32 = 165

⇒ 3096.86 ≠ 165 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) ÷ × + − =

658 * 14 * 3 * 32 * 56 * 165 ⇒ 658 ÷ 14 × 3 + 32 - 56 = 165

⇒ 658 ÷ 14 × 3 + 32 - 56 = 165

⇒ 47 × 3 + 32 - 56 = 165

⇒ 141 + 32 - 56 = 165

⇒ 173 - 56 = 165

⇒ 117 ≠ 165 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

74

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series →

The bottom element and the last two of elements of the 2nd row from the left shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The 1st row elements shift clockwise subsequently.

The 2nd row elements shift clockwise subsequently.

No change in the bottom element.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

75

In a certain code language, ‘PENCIL’ is written as ‘NEPLIC’ and ‘ERASER’ is written as ‘ARERES’. How will ‘GEOMETRY’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    MEOGRYTE

  2. ((b))

    MEOGRRTE

  3. ((c))

    MOEGYRTE

  4. ((d))

    MEOGYRET

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MOEGYRTE

The logic followed here is:

‘PENCIL’ is written as ‘NEPLIC’

And,

‘ERASER’ is written as ‘ARERES’

Similarly,

‘GEOMETRY’ is written as

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

In a chief election, a candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 6% of the total votes were declared invalid. If the total number of votes is 30,000, then the number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate is:

  1. ((a))

    15,510

  2. ((b))

    15,000

  3. ((c))

    16,000

  4. ((d))

    15,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15,510

Given:

Total number of votes = 30,000

Invalid votes = 6% of total votes

Votes received by the candidate = 55% of valid votes

Formula Used:

Valid votes = Total votes - Invalid votes

Votes in favor of the candidate = 55% of valid votes

Calculation:

Invalid votes = 6% of 30,000

Invalid votes = 0.06 × 30,000

Invalid votes = 1,800

Valid votes = 30,000 - 1,800

Valid votes = 28,200

Votes in favor of the candidate = 55% of 28,200

Votes in favor of the candidate = 0.55 × 28,200

Votes in favor of the candidate = 15,510

The number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate is 15,510.

77

Namita deposited ₹9,000 which amounted to ₹10,200 after 3 years at simple interest per annum. Had the interest been 2% more, what amount (in ₹) would she get?

  1. ((a))

    11400

  2. ((b))

    12480

  3. ((c))

    10740

  4. ((d))

    11260

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10740

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹9,000

Amount (A) = ₹10,200

Time (T) = 3 years

Simple Interest (SI) = A - P = ₹10,200 - ₹9,000 = ₹1,200

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) / 100

New Simple Interest Rate = Old Rate + 2%

New Amount = Principal + New Simple Interest

Calculation:

Let's find the old interest rate first:

⇒ ₹1,200 = (₹9,000 × R × 3) / 100

⇒ 120,000 = 27,000R

⇒ R = 120,000 / 27,000

⇒ R = 40/9%

New Interest Rate = 40/9% + 2% = 58/9%

New Simple Interest:

⇒ SI = (₹9,000 × 58/9 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹1,740

New Amount:

⇒ A = ₹9,000 + ₹1,740

⇒ A = ₹10,740

The amount Namita would get if the interest rate had been 2% more is ₹10,740.

78

Anil's income is 18% more than Ramesh’s income. By what percentage is Ramesh’s income less than Anil's income?

  1. ((a))

    15.25%

  2. ((b))

    10.25%

  3. ((c))

    12.25%

  4. ((d))

    18.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15.25%

Given:

Anil's income is 18% more than Ramesh's income.

Formula Used:

Percentage decrease = DifferenceOriginal×100\frac{\text{Difference}}{\text{Original}} \times 100

Calculation:

Let Ramesh's income be R .

Anil's income = R + 0.18R = 1.18R .

Difference = Anil's income - Ramesh's income

Difference = 1.18R - R = 0.18R

Percentage decrease in Ramesh's income = 0.18R1.18R×100\frac{0.18R}{1.18R} \times 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in Ramesh's income = 0.181.18×100\frac{0.18}{1.18} \times 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in Ramesh's income ≈ 15.25%

The correct answer is option 1.

79

P and Q can finish a work individually in 30 and 45 days, respectively. P starts the work and works alone for 5 days. Then Q joins him and they work together for 6 days, after which P leaves. The part of the work left at that point is:

  1. ((a))

    0.5

  2. ((b))

    0.6

  3. ((c))

    0.2

  4. ((d))

    0.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.5

Given:

P can finish the work in = 30 days

Q can finish the work in = 45 days

P works alone for 5 days

Then P and Q work together for 6 days

Then P leaves

Formula used:

Use LCM of 30 and 45 to assume total work

Calculation:

LCM(30, 45) = 90 units (Assume total work = 90 units)

P's 1 day work = 9030=3 \frac{90}{30} = 3 units/day

Q's 1 day work = 9045=2 \frac{90}{45} = 2 units/day

P works for 5 days:  5 × 3 = 15  units

P + Q work together for 6 days:  6 × (3 + 2) = 6 ×5 = 30  units

Total work done = 15+30=45 15 + 30 = 45 units

Work left =  90 - 45 = 45  units

Fraction of work left = 4590=12 \frac{45}{90} = \frac{1}{2}  = 0.5

∴ The part of the work left is 0.5.

80

What is the area of a triangle whose sides are of lengths 9 cm, 40 cm and 41 cm?

  1. ((a))

    170 cm2

  2. ((b))

    180 cm2

  3. ((c))

    160 cm2

  4. ((d))

    210 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

180 cm2

Given:

Sides of the triangle are 9 cm, 40 cm, and 41 cm.

Formula Used:

Area of a right-angled triangle = (1/2) × base × height

Calculation:

In the given triangle, the sides 9 cm and 40 cm can be considered as the base and height respectively, because the hypotenuse (longest side) is 41 cm.

Area = (1/2) × base × height

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 9 cm × 40 cm

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 360 cm2

⇒ Area = 180 cm2

The area of the triangle is 180 cm2.

81

If 66 cm3 of silver is drawn into a wire having a diameter of 2 mm, then the length of the wire, in m, will be: (Use π = 22/7)

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

21

Given:

Volume of silver, V = 66 cm3

Diameter of the wire, d = 2 mm = 0.2 cm

Radius of the wire, r = d/2 = 0.1 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder, V = πr2h

Where,

π = 22/7

r = radius

h = height (or length of the wire)

Calculation:

Using the formula for the volume of a cylinder, we have:

66 = (22/7) × (0.1)2 × h

Simplifying the equation:

⇒ 66 = (22/7) × 0.01 × h

⇒ 66 = (22/700) × h

⇒ 3 = (1/700) × h

⇒ h = 2100

Convert the length from cm to m:

⇒ h = 2100 / 100

⇒ h = 21 m

The length of the wire is approximately 21 m.

82

A train moving at uniform speed crosses a pole in 3 seconds and a 700 m long bridge in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train?

  1. ((a))

    150 m/s

  2. ((b))

    110 m/s

  3. ((c))

    120 m/s

  4. ((d))

    100 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

100 m/s

Given:

Time taken to cross a pole = 3 sec

Time taken to cross a 700 m bridge = 10 sec

Formula used:

Speed = DistanceTime \frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Time}}

When crossing a bridge: Distance = Length of train + Length of bridge

Calculation:

Let length of train = L meters

Train crosses pole in 3 sec ⇒ L = Speed × 3

Train crosses 700 m bridge in 10 sec ⇒ L + 700 = Speed × 10

From first equation: L = 3 × Speed

Substitute in second:

⇒ 3 × Speed + 700 = 10 × Speed

⇒ 700 = 10 × Speed - 3 × Speed = 7 × Speed

⇒ Speed = 7007=100 \frac{700}{7} = 100 m/s

∴ Speed of the train = 100 m/s

83

Simplify 6.1×6.1×6.1−16.1×6.1+6.1+1\frac{6.1 \times 6.1 \times 6.1-1}{6.1 \times 6.1+6.1+1}

  1. ((a))

    3.1

  2. ((b))

    5.1

  3. ((c))

    4.1

  4. ((d))

    6.1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5.1

Shortcut Trick

The given expression follows the algebraic pattern: (a3 − b3) ÷ (a2 + ab + b2) = a − b.

Here, replacing a with 6.1 and b with 1 perfectly matches the terms in the question.

Directly calculating a − b gives the final result.

Result = 6.1 − 1 = 5.1

∴ The correct answer is 5.1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = (6.1 × 6.1 × 6.1 − 1) ÷ (6.1 × 6.1 + 6.1 + 1)

Formula Used:

a3 − b3 = (a − b)(a2 + ab + b2)

Calculation:

⇒ Numerator = (6.1)3 − 13

⇒ Denominator = (6.1)2 + 6.1 × 1 + 12

⇒ Expression = [(6.1)3 − 13] ÷ [(6.1)2 + 6.1 + 1]

⇒ Applying the formula for the difference of cubes in the numerator:

⇒ Expression = [(6.1 − 1)((6.1)2 + 6.1 × 1 + 12)] ÷ [(6.1)2 + 6.1 + 1]

⇒ The term ((6.1)2 + 6.1 + 1) is common in both numerator and denominator.

⇒ Canceling the common term, we are left with:

⇒ Expression = 6.1 − 1

⇒ Expression = 5.1

∴ The correct answer is 5.1.

Additional Information

Sum of Cubes Formula

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2). This identity is frequently used to rapidly simplify fraction expressions containing positive cubic terms.

Difference of Squares Formula

a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b). It helps in instantly factoring and reducing fractions containing squared differences.

Perfect Square Formulas

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 and (a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2. These are primary tools for algebraic expansion and solving polynomial equations.

84

The average of the prime numbers between 57 and 99 (both inclusive) is: (Rounded off to one decimal place)

  1. ((a))

    85.6

  2. ((b))

    75.4

  3. ((c))

    87.7

  4. ((d))

    79.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

75.4

Given:

We need to find the average of the prime numbers between 57 and 99 (both inclusive).

Formula Used:

Average of prime numbers = (Sum of prime numbers) / (Number of prime numbers)

Calculation:

Prime numbers between 57 and 99 are: 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97

Sum of these prime numbers = 59 + 61 + 67 + 71 + 73 + 79 + 83 + 89 + 97

Sum of prime numbers = 679

Number of prime numbers = 9

Average of prime numbers = 679 / 9

Average of prime numbers = 75.4

The average of the prime numbers between 57 and 99 (both inclusive) is 75.4.

85

Let N be a three-digit positive integer such that the unit digit of N is prime and the product of all the digits of N is also prime. The number of possible values of N is:

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Given:

N is a 3-digit number

Unit digit of N is prime

Product of all digits of N is also prime

Concept used:

Prime digits = 2, 3, 5, 7 (for unit place)

A product of digits is prime ⇒ only one digit is prime, rest digits must be 1 (since 1 × prime = prime)

Calculation:

Let N = xyz, where x, y, z are digits (x ≠ 0)

Product x × y × z = prime ⇒ only one digit among x, y, z is a prime number (2, 3, 5, 7), others must be 1

Try placing prime digit at units place (z), as given:

If z = 2 → x, y = 1 ⇒ N = 112

If z = 3 → x, y = 1 ⇒ N = 113

If z = 5 → x, y = 1 ⇒ N = 115

If z = 7 → x, y = 1 ⇒ N = 117

Total 4 valid numbers if prime digit is at units place

Try placing prime digit at tens place (y): But unit digit must also be prime → contradiction unless y = prime & z = prime → product will not be prime (e.g., 3 × 3 = 9)

Only valid case: one digit is prime, others = 1, and prime is at unit place

∴ The number of possible values of N is 4.

86

The ratio of the sixth and seventh terms of the sequence 1, 3, 6, 10, … is:

  1. ((a))

    4 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    3 ∶ 5

  3. ((c))

    5 ∶ 3

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 ∶ 4

Given:

Sequence: 1, 3, 6, 10, …

Formula Used:

n-th term of the sequence, TnT_n = n(n+1)2\frac{n(n+1)}{2}

Calculation:

Sixth term, T6T_6 :

T6=6(6+1)2T_6 = \frac{6(6+1)}{2}

T6=6×72T_6 = \frac{6 \times 7}{2}

T6=21T_6 = 21

Seventh term, T7T_7 :

T7=7(7+1)2T_7 = \frac{7(7+1)}{2}

T7=7×82T_7 = \frac{7 \times 8}{2}

T7=28T_7 = 28

Ratio of sixth and seventh terms, T6T7\frac{T_6}{T_7} :

2128=34\frac{21}{28} = \frac{3}{4}

The ratio of the sixth and seventh terms of the sequence is 3 ∶ 4.

87

The average of 6 terms is 30. The first term is twice the sum of the remaining terms. Find the first term.

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

120

Given:

The average of 6 terms = 30

The first term is twice the sum of the remaining terms.

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of terms / Number of terms

Calculation:

Let the first term be x . Let the sum of the remaining 5 terms be S .

Since the average of 6 terms is 30:

Sum of all terms = 30 × 6 = 180

So, x + S = 180

Given that the first term is twice the sum of the remaining terms:

x = 2S

Substitute x = 2S into the sum equation:

2S + S = 180

3S = 180

S = 60

Now, x = 2S

x = 2 × 60

x = 120

The first term is 120.

88

A book is sold at three successive discounts of 20%, 30% and 10%. The net discount in percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    49.60%

  2. ((b))

    60%

  3. ((c))

    37.60%

  4. ((d))

    47.60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49.60%

Given:

Three successive discounts: 20%, 30%, and 10%

Formula used:

Successive Discount Formula:

Net Discount % = A + B + C - (AB + AC + BC)/100 + (ABC)/10000

Where A = 20, B = 30, C = 10

Calculation:

Net Discount % = 20 + 30 + 10 - (20×30 + 20×10 + 30×10)/100 + (20×30×10)/10000

⇒ = 60 - (600 + 200 + 300)/100 + 6000/10000

⇒ = 60 - 11 + 0.6 = 49.6%

∴ The net discount is 49.6%.

89

A moneylender borrows money at 4% per annum and pays the interest at the end of the year. He lends it at 8% per annum compound interest, compounded half-yearly, and receives the interest at the end of the year. In this way, he gains ₹166.4 a year. Find the amount of money he borrows.

  1. ((a))

    ₹4,500

  2. ((b))

    ₹6,500

  3. ((c))

    ₹5,050

  4. ((d))

    ₹4,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹4,000

Given:

Borrowing Rate = 4% per annum.

Lending Rate = 8% per annum compounded half-yearly.

Gain = ₹166.4 per year.

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula for half-yearly = A = P(1+r2×100)2tP \left(1 + \frac{r}{2 \times 100}\right)^{2t}

Simple Interest Formula = SI = P×r×t100\frac{P \times r \times t}{100}

Calculation:

Let the amount of money borrowed be ₹P.

Interest paid at the end of the year = P×4×1100=0.04P\frac{P \times 4 \times 1}{100} = 0.04P

Interest received at the end of the year (compounded half-yearly) = P(1+82×100)2−PP \left(1 + \frac{8}{2 \times 100}\right)^{2} - P

Interest received = P(1+0.04)2−PP \left(1 + 0.04\right)^{2} - P

Interest received = P(1.042)−PP \left(1.04^{2}\right) - P

Interest received = P(1.0816)−PP \left(1.0816\right) - P

Interest received = 1.0816P - P

Interest received = 0.0816P

Gain = Interest received - Interest paid

₹166.4 = 0.0816P - 0.04P

₹166.4 = 0.0416P

⇒ P = 166.40.0416\frac{166.4}{0.0416}

⇒ P = 4000

The amount of money he borrows is ₹4,000.

90

A dealer sells an item for ₹500 by making a profit of 25%. He sells another item at a loss of 10%, and on the whole, makes neither profit nor loss. What did the second item cost him?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹500

  3. ((c))

    ₹750

  4. ((d))

    ₹800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1,000

Given:

Selling Price of 1st item = ₹500

Profit on 1st item = 25%

Loss on 2nd item = 10%

Overall profit/loss = 0 (no profit, no loss)

Formula used:

Cost Price (CP) = \( \frac{SP}{1 + \frac{Profit%}{100}} \) (for profit)

CP = \( \frac{SP}{1 - \frac{Loss%}{100}} \) (for loss)

Total CP (both items) = Total SP (since no profit, no loss)

Calculation:

CP of 1st item = 5001+25100=5001.25=₹400 \frac{500}{1 + \frac{25}{100}} = \frac{500}{1.25} = ₹400

Let CP of 2nd item = x

Loss = 10% ⇒ SP = x−10x100=0.9x x - \frac{10x}{100} = 0.9x

Total SP = ₹500 + 0.9x

Total CP = ₹400 + x

Given: Total SP = Total CP

⇒ 500 + 0.9x = 400 + x

⇒ 100 = 0.1x

⇒ x = ₹1,000

∴ The second item cost him ₹1,000.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following chart types is best suited for showing trends over time?

  1. ((a))

    Line chart

  2. ((b))

    Scatter plot

  3. ((c))

    Pie chart

  4. ((d))

    Bar chart

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Line chart

The correct answer is Line chart.

Key Points

  • A line chart is specifically designed to display data points over time to show trends.
  • It is used to connect individual data points through straight lines, making it easier to visualize changes over periods.
  • Line charts are ideal for tracking metrics such as sales, stock prices, and other time-series data.
  • They can effectively highlight trends and patterns over intervals, aiding in forecasting and decision-making.
  • Line charts are valuable in data analysis for their ability to present continuous data clearly.

Additional Information

  • Bar Chart:
  • Used to compare data across categories.
  • Ideal for showing discrete data.
  • Bars can be displayed vertically or horizontally.
  • Pie Chart:
  • Best for showing proportions and percentages.
  • Not suitable for showing trends over time.
  • Limited in handling large data sets.
  • Scatter Plot:
  • Used to determine the relationship between two variables.
  • Shows how much one variable is affected by another.
  • Useful in identifying correlations and distribution trends.
  • Area Chart:
  • Similar to line charts but with areas below the lines filled in.
  • Used to show the magnitude of trends over time.
  • Effective for displaying cumulative totals.
92

Which of the following options quickly changes the font of the selected text in Microsoft Word 365 without opening the Font dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    Right-click and select "Font"

  2. ((b))

    Press Ctrl + + F

  3. ((c))

    Use the Font drop-down menu on the Status bar

  4. ((d))

    Double-click the text

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Right-click and select "Font"

The correct answer is Option 1 - Right-click and select "Font".

Key Points

  • Right-clicking on selected text in Microsoft Word 365 opens a context menu that provides quick access to various text formatting options, including changing the font.
  • The "Font" option in the context menu allows users to change the font without the need to open the Font dialog box, making it a faster method for font customization.
  • This method is particularly useful for users who want to quickly apply a different font style to specific portions of their document without navigating through multiple menus.
  • Using the right-click context menu for font changes is a common practice in Word processing applications, enhancing user efficiency and document editing speed.

Additional Information

  • Keyboard Shortcuts
  • Microsoft Word provides a variety of keyboard shortcuts to enhance productivity, such as Ctrl + B for bold, Ctrl + I for italics, and Ctrl + U for underline.
  • These shortcuts help users quickly format text without using a mouse, making the editing process more efficient.
  • Font Dialog Box
  • The Font dialog box in Microsoft Word offers advanced text formatting options, including font style, size, color, and effects like strikethrough and shadow.
  • It can be accessed by pressing Ctrl + D or through the Home tab on the Ribbon.
  • Ribbon Interface
  • The Ribbon interface in Microsoft Word organizes commands into tabs such as Home, Insert, and Review, making it easier for users to find and use different features.
  • Font-related options are primarily located in the Home tab, under the Font group.
  • Contextual Menus
  • Contextual menus in Word provide quick access to commonly used commands based on the current selection or task, improving user experience and workflow.
  • Right-clicking text, images, or other elements in a document will display a contextual menu with relevant options.
93

The ________ symbol is employed to separate the username and domain name within an email address.

  1. ((a))

    &

  2. ((b))

    . (dot)

  3. ((c))

    @

  4. ((d))

    $

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

@

The correct answer is @.

Key Points

  • The at (@) symbol is employed to separate the username and domain name within an email address. Here are 4-5 key points about it:
  • Standard Email Format: The "@" symbol is a critical part of the standard email format: [email protected]. It separates the local part (username) from the domain part of the address.
  • Historical Significance: The "@" symbol was chosen by Ray Tomlinson in 1971, as it was rarely used in programming languages and allowed for clarity in distinguishing between the user and the host.
  • Domain Identification: The part after the "@" symbol (domain name) identifies the email server hosting the recipient's mailbox (e.g., "gmail.com").
  • Internationalization: In some non-English languages, the "@" symbol is referred to by different names, such as "at" in English, "arroba" in Spanish, or "arobase" in French.
  • Security: While it’s an essential part of email addresses, the "@" symbol has also become a target for spammers, who use it in phishing attempts or to generate fraudulent email addresses.
94

Which of the following is NOT a Change Case option in MS word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Sentence case

  2. ((b))

    Page case

  3. ((c))

    Uppercase

  4. ((d))

    Toggle case

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Page case

The correct answer is Page case.

Key Points

  • MS Word 365 provides several options to change the case of selected text.
  • Options available include Sentence case, Lowercase, Uppercase, Capitalize Each Word, and Toggle case.
  • These options can be accessed from the "Home" tab in the "Font" group.
  • "Page case" is not a valid text case option in MS Word 365.

Additional Information

  • Sentence case:
  • Capitalizes the first letter of the first word in the selected sentence.
  • Lowercase:
  • Converts all the letters in the selected text to lowercase.
  • Uppercase:
  • Converts all the letters in the selected text to uppercase.
  • Capitalize Each Word:
  • Capitalizes the first letter of each word in the selected text.
  • Toggle case:
  • Switches the case of each letter in the selected text, making uppercase letters lowercase and vice versa.
95

What is the primary differentiating factor between broadband and dialup connections offered by ISPs?

  1. ((a))

    Dialup connections offer higher security levels than broadband.

  2. ((b))

    Broadband provides faster internet speeds compared to dialup.

  3. ((c))

    Dialup connections are wireless, while broadband requires wired connections.

  4. ((d))

    Dialup offers unlimited data usage, unlike broadband.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Broadband provides faster internet speeds compared to dialup.

The correct answer is Broadband provides faster internet speeds compared to dialup..

Key Points

  • Broadband connections offer significantly higher data transfer speeds compared to dialup connections, providing a more efficient and faster internet experience.
  • Broadband internet is always on, meaning there is no need to dial in each time you want to connect to the internet, unlike dialup.
  • Broadband allows for simultaneous use of internet and telephone services, whereas dialup uses the telephone line, making it unavailable for calls during internet usage.
  • Broadband connections can support modern internet applications such as streaming, gaming, and large file downloads, which are difficult to manage on slower dialup connections.

Additional Information

  • Dialup Connection:
  • Dialup connection uses a modem and a standard telephone line to connect to an ISP.
  • Typical dialup speeds are up to 56 kbps, which is significantly slower than broadband.
  • Dialup connections often experience busy signals and require manual connection setup each time.
  • Broadband Types:
  • DSL (Digital Subscriber Line): Utilizes existing telephone lines but offers higher speeds without tying up the phone line.
  • Cable Internet: Uses the cable television infrastructure to provide high-speed internet access.
  • Fiber Optic: Provides the fastest internet speeds by using light to transmit data through fiber optic cables.
  • Satellite Internet: Uses satellite communication for internet access, useful in remote areas.
  • Latency:
  • Latency refers to the delay in data transmission. Broadband connections generally have lower latency compared to dialup.
  • Lower latency is crucial for real-time applications such as video conferencing and online gaming.
  • Data Cap and Unlimited Plans:
  • Broadband plans may come with data caps or unlimited data usage options, offering flexibility based on user needs.
  • Dialup connections typically offer unlimited usage but are limited by slow speeds.
96

What is the purpose of the Help feature in Microsoft Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    To provide access to online tutorials and resources

  2. ((b))

    To provide assistance in creating documents

  3. ((c))

    To allow customisation of the user interface

  4. ((d))

    To offer grammar and spelling suggestions

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To provide assistance in creating documents

The correct answer is To provide assistance in creating documents.

Key Points

  • ​The Help feature in Microsoft Word 365 serves several important functions to assist users in navigating the software and resolving issues. Here are 4-5 key points about its purpose:
  • Access to Instructions and Guidance: The Help feature provides users with access to detailed instructions on how to use various tools and features within Microsoft Word, making it easier to learn and use the software effectively.
  • Searchable Knowledge Base: Users can search for specific topics, keywords, or commands, and the Help feature provides relevant articles, tips, and troubleshooting guides related to their query.
  • Contextual Help: It offers context-sensitive help, which means that when you're using a particular feature, the Help feature can suggest assistance specifically related to that task, enhancing efficiency.
  • Training and Tutorials: The Help feature includes links to training materials, video tutorials, and other resources, helping both beginners and advanced users to master Word 365.
  • Access to Online Support: It provides direct access to Microsoft's online support, where users can contact customer support, report issues, or get help from the community forums.
97

How do you change the font style and size of selected text in MS-Excel 365?

  1. ((a))

    Access the ‘Home’ tab, use the ‘Font’ group.

  2. ((b))

    Apply a new cell style to the selected text.

  3. ((c))

    Press the ‘Ctrl+F’ shortcut keys together.

  4. ((d))

    Right-click the text and choose ‘Font’.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Access the ‘Home’ tab, use the ‘Font’ group.

The correct answer is Access the ‘Home’ tab, use the ‘Font’ group.

Key Points

  • To change the font style and size of selected text in Microsoft Excel 365, here are 4-5 key steps:
  • Select the Text or Cell: First, highlight the cell or range of cells containing the text you want to modify. You can also click into a specific cell and start typing to change the font of new content.
  • Font Style:
  • Navigate to the Home tab on the Ribbon.
  • In the Font group, click the drop-down menu next to the Font field (it shows the current font style).
  • Choose your desired font from the list (e.g., Arial, Times New Roman, Calibri).
  • Font Size:
  • In the Font group on the Home tab, next to the font style, there’s a Font Size box.
  • Click the drop-down arrow to select a new font size, or manually type a value (e.g., 12, 14, 18).
  • Keyboard Shortcuts:
  • Change Font Style: Use Ctrl + Shift + F to open the Font dialog box, where you can adjust font style and size in more detail.
  • Increase or Decrease Font Size: Use Ctrl + Shift + > to increase the font size, or Ctrl + Shift + < to decrease it.
  • Additional Options:
  • In the Font group, you can also apply bold, italic, underline, or change the font color by using the respective buttons in the toolbar.
98

Which of the following is the correct option to create a table in MS-Word 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Home Tab -> Create Table

  2. ((b))

    Home Tab -> Insert Table

  3. ((c))

    Create Tab -> Insert Table

  4. ((d))

    Insert Tab -> Table Button

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Insert Tab -> Table Button

The correct answer is Insert Tab -> Table Button.

Key Points

  • To create a table in Microsoft Word 2010, here are 4-5 key points explaining the process:
  • Navigate to the "Insert" Tab:
  • First, click on the Insert tab in the Ribbon at the top of the screen.
  • Click "Table":
  • In the Tables group, click the Table button. A drop-down menu will appear.
  • Choose the Table Size:
  • You can use the grid displayed in the drop-down menu to select the number of rows and columns. Hover over the grid to highlight the number of rows and columns you need, then click to insert the table.
  • Insert Table Manually:
  • Alternatively, you can select Insert Table from the drop-down menu. A dialog box will appear where you can manually set the number of rows and columns.
  • Quick Tables:
  • There’s also an option for Quick Tables in the Table drop-down menu, where you can choose from predefined table templates for easier insertion.
99

Which of the following functions is executed in MS Word 365 when Ctrl + V is used?

  1. ((a))

    Copy the data

  2. ((b))

    Cut the data

  3. ((c))

    Paste the data

  4. ((d))

    Select all the data

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Paste the data

The correct answer is Paste the data.

Key Points

  • When Ctrl + V is used in Microsoft Word 365, the following function is executed:
  • Paste the Clipboard Content:
  • Ctrl + V is the keyboard shortcut for pasting whatever content is currently on the clipboard into the document. This could be text, images, tables, or any other type of data you have copied or cut earlier.
  • Here are 4-5 key points related to this function:
  • Inserts Copied or Cut Content:
  • It can paste text, images, or objects that were copied using Ctrl + C or cut using Ctrl + X.
  • Maintains Formatting (by Default):
  • By default, when you paste with Ctrl + V, it retains the original formatting of the content from the source, including font, size, and style. However, you can adjust the paste options by clicking the paste icon that appears after you use Ctrl + V.
  • Paste Special Options:
  • After using Ctrl + V, you can access more paste options by clicking the small arrow under the Paste button on the Home tab. This includes pasting as plain text, keeping source formatting, or pasting as an image, etc.
  • Quick Editing:
  • Ctrl + V is often used for quick editing or inserting content into your document without having to manually type it.
100

In a worksheet, there is a list of student scores in a column. To count the number of students who scored above 90, which Excel 365 function should be used?

  1. ((a))

    COUNT

  2. ((b))

    COUNTIF

  3. ((c))

    COUNTBLANK

  4. ((d))

    COUNTA

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

COUNTIF

The correct answer is COUNTIF.

Key Points

  • To count the number of students who scored above 90 in a worksheet, the appropriate Excel 365 function to use is COUNTIF. Here's how you can do it:
  • COUNTIF Function:
  • The COUNTIF function counts the number of cells that meet a specific condition. In this case, the condition is that the score should be greater than 90.
  • Formula Structure:
  • The syntax for the COUNTIF function is:

=COUNTIF(range, criteria)

  • Steps:
  • range: Select the range of cells where the student scores are listed.
  • criteria: Use the condition ">90" to count scores greater than 90.
  • Example:
  • If the student scores are in column B (from B2 to B20), the formula would be:

=COUNTIF(B2:B20, ">90")

  • This formula will return the number of students who have scores greater than 90.
  • COUNTIF is useful for single-condition counting in Excel.
  • You can modify the condition (criteria) for different ranges, such as counting scores less than a certain value or equal to a specific number.

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