Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 24 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

In which year did Anil Kumble take 10 wickets in a cricket test match?

  1. ((a))

    1987

  2. ((b))

    1986

  3. ((c))

    1998

  4. ((d))

    1999

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1999

The correct answer is 1999.

Key Points

  • Anil Kumble is famously known as "Jumbo" in the cricketing fraternity.
  • He earned this nickname due to his fast bowling speeds and his large, imposing physical presence.
  • Kumble is one of the most successful bowlers in the history of cricket, with over 600 wickets in Test matches.
  • Anil Kumble
  • Born - October 17, 1970
  • Role - Former Indian Cricketer, Coach
  • Specialty - Leg Spin Bowler

Additional Information

  • The full form of BCCI is the Board of Control for Cricket in India.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is the governing body for cricket in India and is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, the Government of India.
  • It is an autonomous organization and does not come under the National sports federation of India.
  • The board was formed in December 1928 as a society, registered under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act.
  • BCCI is an autonomous body and does not review any grants or fundings from the Sports Ministry of India.
2

In which city of Maharashtra is Kalidasa Festival organised every year?

  1. ((a))

    Nasik

  2. ((b))

    Nagpur

  3. ((c))

    Pune

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nagpur

The correct answer is Nagpur.

Key Points 

The Kalidasa Festival is organized every year in the city of Ramtek, Nagpur, Maharashtra, India.

Here's a breakdown of the key facts about this festival:

  • Honoring a Literary Giant: The festival is a tribute to the legendary Sanskrit poet and playwright, Kalidasa, widely regarded as one of the greatest figures in classical Indian literature. His works, including plays like "Shakuntala" and "Malavikagnimitra," and poems like "Meghaduta" and "Raghuvamsa," are celebrated for their beauty, depth, and enduring influence.
  • Ramtek's Significance: Ramtek holds a special connection to Kalidasa. It is believed that he spent considerable time in this region, and the natural beauty of the area is said to have inspired many of his works. The festival's location in Ramtek adds a unique dimension, allowing attendees to experience the landscape that shaped Kalidasa's imagination.
  • A Celebration of Arts and Culture: The Kalidasa Festival is a vibrant showcase of Indian arts and culture. Over two days, the festival features a diverse range of performances, including:  
  • Music: Renowned musicians present classical Indian vocal and instrumental music, often with renditions of compositions based on Kalidasa's works.
  • Dance: Exponents of various Indian classical dance forms, such as Bharatanatyam, Kathak, and Odissi, present captivating performances that bring Kalidasa's characters and stories to life.
  • Drama: The festival stages plays based on Kalidasa's works, providing audiences with a dramatic interpretation of his literary creations.
3

As per Article 170 of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of NOT more than __________ members.

  1. ((a))

    500

  2. ((b))

    450

  3. ((c))

    300

  4. ((d))

    250

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

500

The correct answer is 500.

Key Points

  • Article 170 of the Constitution of India deals with the composition of the Legislative Assemblies of States.
  • The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members.
  • This limitation ensures that the size of the Legislative Assembly is manageable and can effectively represent the population of the state.
  • There are exceptions to this rule, such as in the cases of smaller states like Sikkim, which have fewer than 60 members due to their smaller population.

 Additional Information

  • Legislative Assembly:
  • Also known as Vidhan Sabha, it is the lower house of the state legislature in India.
  • Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) are directly elected by the people of the state.
  • The term of the Legislative Assembly is five years, unless dissolved sooner.
  • The Assembly is responsible for making laws on subjects enumerated in the State List of the Constitution.
  • Article 170:
  • This article of the Indian Constitution specifies the composition of the Legislative Assemblies of States.
  • It sets the maximum and minimum limits for the number of members in a state's Legislative Assembly.
  • The size of each Legislative Assembly is based on the population of the state as per the last Census.
  • Exceptions:
  • Some states with smaller populations, such as Sikkim, Goa, and Mizoram, have Legislative Assemblies with fewer than 60 members.
  • These exceptions are made to accommodate the unique demographic and geographic characteristics of these states.
  • State List:
  • The State List is a list of subjects under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  • It enumerates the areas in which only the state governments can legislate.
  • Examples of subjects in the State List include police, public health, and agriculture.
4

Who appoints the Attorney-General of India?

  1. ((a))

    Chief Minister

  2. ((b))

    Governor

  3. ((c))

    Prime Minister 

  4. ((d))

    President

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

President

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

  • The Attorney General is a part of the Union Executive.
  • He is the highest law officer in the country.
  • Article 76 provides for the Attorney General of India, hence it is a constitutional office.
  • His term is not fixed by the constitution and he works at the pleasure of the President.
  • Functions-
  • To advise, the government upon such legal matters, referred by the President.
  • To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in the High Court.
  • To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143.
  • To discharge the functions conferred on him by the constitution or any other law.

Additional Information

  • He can take part in proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament but can't vote.
  • He enjoys the same privileges and immunities as enjoyed by members of parliament.
  • He does not fall into the category of government servants.
  • He is assisted by the Solicitor Generals of India.
5

Which Indian cricketer has written the book ‘The Test of My Life’?

  1. ((a))

    Yuvraj Singh

  2. ((b))

    MS Dhoni

  3. ((c))

    Sachin Tendulkar

  4. ((d))

    Kapil Dev

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yuvraj Singh

The correct answer is Yuvraj Singh.

Key Points

The Test of My Life is an autobiography of Yuvraj Singh.

  • In his debut book 'The Test of My Life', he reveals how, plagued with insomnia, coughing fits that left him vomiting blood, and an inability to eat, he made a deal with God.
  • Yuvraj Singh is a former Indian cricketer and a cancer survivor.
  • In 2011, he emerged as the player of the tournament in the ICC World Cup.
  • 'Playing It My Way' is the autobiography of former Indian cricketer Sachin Tendulkar.

Additional Information

BookAuthor
Golden hat-trickBalveer Singh
IdolsSunil Gavaskar
How I Play GolfTiger Woods
Sunny daysSunil Gavaskar
Cricket my styleKapil Dev
Playing it my waySachin Tendulkar
6

Which of the following is a negative impact of globalisation on Indian economy? 

  1. ((a))

    Rise of straight-jacketed approach to leadership styles 

  2. ((b))

    Rise in female participation in employment

  3. ((c))

    Rise in relative deprivation 

  4. ((d))

    Loss of child labour 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rise in relative deprivation 

The correct answer is Rise in relative deprivation.

Key Points 

  • While globalization has brought several advantages to the Indian economy, it has also had its share of negative impacts. Here are some of them:
  • Increased Competition: Globalization has led to increased competition for domestic industries from multinational corporations. This has made it difficult for some domestic companies to survive and thrive.
  • Job Displacement: The influx of cheaper imported goods has led to the closure of some domestic industries, resulting in job losses for Indian workers.
  • Exploitation of Labor: In some sectors, globalization has led to the exploitation of cheap labor in India, with workers being paid low wages and working in poor conditions.
  • Widening Income Gap: Globalization has contributed to the widening of the income gap between the rich and the poor in India. The benefits of globalization have mostly accrued to the wealthy, while the poor have been left behind.
  • Environmental Degradation: The increased industrial activity and consumerism associated with globalization have led to environmental degradation in India, with increased pollution and depletion of natural resources.
  • Loss of Cultural Identity: The influx of foreign goods and culture has led to concerns about the loss of India's cultural identity and traditional values.
  • Dependence on Foreign Capital: Globalization has made India more dependent on foreign capital, which can make the economy vulnerable to external shocks.
  • Increased Inequality: Globalization has exacerbated existing inequalities in India, with some regions and communities benefiting more than others.
  • Rise of Consumerism: Globalization has led to a rise in consumerism in India, with people increasingly focused on buying material goods, often at the expense of traditional values and sustainable living.
  • Neglect of Agriculture: The focus on industrialization and services in the era of globalization has led to the neglect of the agricultural sector, which employs a large proportion of the Indian population.
  • Rural-Urban Divide: Globalization has contributed to the widening of the gap between rural and urban areas in India, with urban areas benefiting more from globalization than rural areas.
  • Brain Drain: Globalization has led to a brain drain from India, with skilled professionals migrating to other countries for better opportunities.
  • Increased Vulnerability to Global Shocks: The increased integration of the Indian economy with the global economy has made it more vulnerable to global economic shocks, such as financial crises and pandemics.
  • Loss of Sovereignty: Some argue that globalization has led to a loss of sovereignty for India, with international organizations and agreements dictating economic policies.
  • Unfair Trade Practices: Developing countries like India often face unfair trade practices from developed countries, which can hinder their economic growth.
  • Dumping of Cheap Goods: Developed countries sometimes dump cheap goods in India, which can harm domestic industries.
  • Intellectual Property Issues: Globalization has raised concerns about intellectual property rights, with some arguing that it has led to the exploitation of Indian knowledge and innovations.
  • Limited Access to Technology: While globalization has brought some technological advancements to India, access to technology remains limited for a large section of the population.
  • Digital Divide: Globalization has exacerbated the digital divide in India, with some people having access to the internet and technology while others are left behind.
  • Social Disruption: The rapid changes associated with globalization have led to social disruption in some parts of India, with communities struggling to adapt to the new economic and social order.
7

According to the National Jute Board 2022-23, which state is the largest producer of jute?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh 

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • The cultivation of jute in India is mainly confined to the eastern region of the country .
  • The jute crop is grown in  nearly  83  districts  of seven states -  West Bengal ,  Assam ,  Orissa , Bihar , Uttar Pradesh , Tripura and Meghalaya .
  • West Bengal alone accounts for over 50 percent raw jute production.
  • The  leading  world's  jute producing  countries are India , Bangladesh , China and Thailand .
  • India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and jute goods , contributing to over 50 percent and 40 percent respectively of global production.
  • Jute crop requires humid  climate  with  temperature  fluctuating between 24 degree Celsius and 38 degree Celsius.
  • Minimum  rainfall  required  for  jute  cultivation is  1000  mm .
  • New  grey  alluvial  soil of  good  depth receiving  silt  from  annual  floods is most suitable  for  jute  growth.
  • However, jute  is grown widely in sandy looms and clay loams.

Additional Information

  • India is the world's largest producer of milk, pulses and Jute.
  • India ranks as the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane, groundnut, vegetables, fruit and cotton.
  • It is also one of the leading producers of spices, fish, poultry, livestock and plantation crops.
  • Jute:
  • Jute Textile Industry is one of the major industries in Eastern India, particularly in West Bengal.
  • India is one of the largest producers of products, the production process in the Jute Industry goes through a variety of activities, which include cultivation of raw jute, processing of jute fibres, spinning, weaving, bleaching, dyeing, finishing and marketing of both, the raw jute and its finished products.
  • Thus, Jute supports around 40 Lakh farm families and provides direct employment to 2.6 Lakh Industrial Workers and 1.4 Lakh in the tertiary sector and also earns valuable foreign exchange through exports.
8

The density of population in India (Census 2011) is __________________ persons per sq km.

  1. ((a))

    296

  2. ((b))

    357

  3. ((c))

    382

  4. ((d))

    284

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

382

The correct answer is 382.

Key Points

  • The density of population in India is calculated by dividing the total population of India by the total area of the country.
  • As per the 2011 Census, the total population of India was 1.21 billion and the total area was 3.17 million sq km.
  • Therefore, the density of population in India in 2011 was 382 persons/sq km.
  • This density is relatively high, considering the fact that India is the second-most populous country in the world after China.

Additional Information

  • The definition of a census is the process of gathering and recording data regarding the population.
  • The first comprehensive census was done in 1881, but it had been conducted every ten years since Viceroy Lord Mayo took office in 1872.
  • Since 1949, it has been managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, through the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
9

Which of the following is/are correct about curd formation?

Statement 1. The bacteria present in milk breakdown lactose into lactic acid.

Statement 2. Production of lactic acid reduces the pH of the milk, coagulating it to form curd.

Statement 3. Curd and yoghurt are the synonyms and their texture and taste is exactly same.

  1. ((a))

    Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  3. ((c))

    All statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

  4. ((d))

    Only statement 3 is correct 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

The correct answer is Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

  • Curd contains several microorganisms. Of these, the bacterium Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd.
  • Lactobacillus is a gram-negative bacteria
  • It is rod-shaped and a beneficial bacteria that can be found in fermented foods and supplements.

Additional Information

  • Microorganisms are classified into four major groups. These groups are bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and some algae.
  • Microorganisms may be single-celled like bacteria, some algae, and protozoa, or multicellular, such as algae and fungi.
  • They can survive under all types of environments, ranging from ice-cold climates to hot springs and deserts to marshy lands.
  • They are also found inside the bodies of animals including humans.
  • Microorganisms play an important role in our lives. Some of them are beneficial in many ways whereas some others are harmful and cause diseases
  • Microorganisms are used for various purposes. They are used in the preparation of curd, bread, and cake.
10

Which of the following rivers passes through the maximum number of states in India?

  1. ((a))

    Damodar

  2. ((b))

    Indus

  3. ((c))

    Ganga

  4. ((d))

    Mahanadi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ganga

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

  • River Ganga:
  • The River Ganga originates from the Gangotri glacier in Uttarakhand.
  • Alaknanda River joins Bhagirathi at Devprayag and from there the river is called Ganga.
  • Yamuna(Largest right bank tributary of Ganga), Damodar (Sorrow of Bengal), Ghagra, Gomti, Gandak, Ramganga, Kosi (Sorrow of Bihar), Son, Mahananda are major tributaries of River Ganga.
  • It flows through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
  • It is a transboundary river, flows through India and Bangladesh.
  • The total length of the river is 2525 km

Additional Information

  • Damodar River
  • The origin of Damodar River is the Chotanagpur plateau (Culha Pani of Lohardaga district) and the estuary is Hooghly.
  • It is the longest, largest and most polluted river of Jharkhand.
  • The main tributaries of Damodar River are Barakar, Konar, Jamunia, Bokaro and Katari.
  • Damodar River is also known as Dev River.
  • Its drainage area is Hazaribagh, Chatra, Dhanbad, Bokaro, Ranchi, Latehar and Lohardaga.
  • Damodar River is the most important river of Jharkhand which flows through a rift or fault valley.
  • Damodar River is also known as Damuda. Damu means holy and da means water.
  • The Damodar River is a rain-fed river with a prolonged dry season followed by a turbulent monsoon.
  • The river's basin area is 23,371 km² and is known for its mineral resources and large-scale mining and industrial activity.
  • Damodar River was earlier a very dangerous river due to the severity of floods, due to which it was also known as the Sorrow of Bengal.
  • Indus River
  • The Indus River is one of the longest rivers in the world, with a length of approximately 2900 kilometers.
  • It originates in the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Mansarovar in China.
  • The Indus River flows through the regions of Ladakh in India and the entire length of Pakistan before emptying into the Arabian Sea near Karachi.
  • The river plays a crucial role in the irrigation and agriculture of the region, particularly in Pakistan, where it is the primary water source for the country's breadbasket.
  • Mahanadi River
  • The Mahanadi river has its source in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh, about 6 kilometers from the village of Pharsiya.
  • The river then flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Mahanadi is the third largest river in peninsular India after the Godavari and Krishna rivers.
  • It is a major source of water for irrigation, drinking, and hydroelectric power generation in the two states.
  • Here are some other interesting facts about the Mahanadi river:
  • ​The name "Mahanadi" comes from the Sanskrit words "maha" (great) and "nadi" (river).
  • The Mahanadi is about 900 kilometers long.
  • The river's drainage basin covers an area of about 132,000 square kilometers.
  • The Mahanadi has a number of tributaries, including the Seonath, Hasdeo, Mand, and Ib rivers.
  • The Hirakud Dam, the longest earthen dam in the world, is located on the Mahanadi river.
  • The Mahanadi is an important economic resource for the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
11

The correct order of percentage of gases in atmosphere is:

  1. ((a))

    N2>O2>Ar>CO2

  2. ((b))

    N2>O2>CO2>Ar

  3. ((c))

    N2>Ar>O2>CO2

  4. ((d))

    O2>N2>Ar>CO2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N2>O2>Ar>CO2

The correct answer is N2>O2>Ar>CO2.

Key Points

Earth's Atmosphere:

  • Composition: Primarily nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%), with trace amounts of argon, carbon dioxide, and other gases.
  • Layers: Troposphere (where weather occurs), stratosphere (contains the ozone layer), mesosphere (where meteors burn up), thermosphere (where auroras occur), and exosphere (the outermost layer).
  • Importance: Essential for life, providing breathable air, regulating temperature, protecting from harmful radiation, and driving weather patterns.

Additional Information

  • Lithosphere
  • The Lithosphere is the rigid, outermost shell of the Earth, encompassing both the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.
  • It is divided into tectonic plates that float on the semi-fluid asthenosphere beneath it.
  • The thickness of the Lithosphere varies, being thinnest at mid-ocean ridges and thickest beneath continental crust.
  • The Lithosphere is crucial for plate tectonics, as its movements and interactions cause earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the creation of mountain ranges.
  • Stratosphere
  • The Stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere, lying above the Troposphere and below the Mesosphere.
  • It extends from about 10 km to 50 km above Earth's surface.
  • This layer contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.
  • Commercial jet aircraft typically fly in the lower stratosphere.
  • Troposphere
  • The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from Earth's surface up to about 8-15 km.
  • It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and 99% of its water vapor and aerosols.
  • Weather events occur in the Troposphere.
  • Mesosphere
  • The Mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere above the Stratosphere and below the Thermosphere.
  • It extends from about 50 km to 85 km above the Earth's surface.
  • This layer is where most meteorites burn up upon entering the Earth's atmosphere.
  • The temperature decreases with altitude in the Mesosphere.
12

Who led the Young Bengal Movement?

  1. ((a))

    Henry Vivian Derozio

  2. ((b))

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  3. ((c))

    Keshav Chandra Sen

  4. ((d))

    Devendra Nath Tagore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Henry Vivian Derozio

The correct answer is Henry Vivian Derozio.

Key Points

  • Henry Vivian Derozio was an Indian poet and teacher of Anglo-Indian descent, and he is known for his influential role in the Young Bengal Movement.
  • Derozio was a radical thinker, poet, and a teacher at Hindu College in Calcutta (now Kolkata) who inspired his students to question traditional societal norms and values.
  • The Young Bengal Movement, initiated by Derozio, was characterized by its emphasis on rational thinking, freedom of expression, and the advocacy for social reforms.
  • Derozio's followers, known as Derozians, played a significant role in spreading progressive ideas and promoting the spirit of nationalism among the youth of Bengal during the early 19th century.

Additional Information

  • Young Bengal Movement:
  • The Young Bengal Movement was a group of radical Bengali free thinkers emerging from Hindu College, Calcutta, in the early 19th century.
  • They were inspired by the teachings of Henry Vivian Derozio, who encouraged them to challenge conventional practices, caste distinctions, and social injustices.
  • The movement was marked by its emphasis on rationalism, secularism, and scientific thought.
  • Despite facing opposition from conservative sections of society, the movement significantly influenced the intellectual and social landscape of Bengal.
  • Henry Vivian Derozio:
  • Derozio was born in 1809 in Kolkata to an Indo-Portuguese father and an English mother.
  • He was a brilliant student and later became a teacher at Hindu College, where his progressive ideas left a lasting impact on his students.
  • Derozio's poetry reflected his passion for freedom and reform, with notable works including "To India - My Native Land" and "The Harp of India".
  • He passed away at a young age of 22 in 1831, but his legacy continued to inspire future generations of reformers and intellectuals in Bengal.
  • Hindu College (now Presidency University):
  • Hindu College was established in 1817 in Kolkata and became a leading center for Western education in India.
  • The college played a pivotal role in the Bengal Renaissance, a period of cultural, social, and intellectual awakening in Bengal.
  • It produced many notable alumni who went on to become prominent figures in various fields, including literature, science, and politics.
  • In 1855, the college was renamed Presidency College and later achieved university status in 2010, becoming Presidency University.
13

Select the INCORRECT pair of festival and the respective state.

  1. ((a))

    Chhath Puja – Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Maghi – Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Dang Darbar – Gujarat 

  4. ((d))

    Sarhul – Tamil Nadu

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sarhul – Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Sarhul – Tamil Nadu.

Key Points 

  • Sarhul:
  • Tribal Celebration: Sarhul is a significant festival celebrated by the Munda, Ho, Oraon, and Santhal tribes of Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal in India. It marks the beginning of the new year in the tribal Sarna religion.
  • Nature Worship: Sarhul is deeply connected to nature. The festival celebrates the sal tree (Shorea robusta) and its blossoming, which is a sign of the arrival of spring. The sal tree holds immense cultural and religious significance for these tribes.
  • Spring Festival: It is a spring festival, usually celebrated in the Hindu month of Chaitra, which corresponds to March-April. The exact date varies depending on the lunar calendar.
  • Rituals and Offerings: The festival involves various rituals, including the offering of prayers to the village deity (Gram Devta) and the sal trees. The priests, known as 'Pahan' or 'Pujari', play a crucial role in the ceremonies. Offerings of rice beer (Handia), new fruits, and flowers are made.
  • Dance and Music: Sarhul is a joyous occasion marked by traditional dances and music. The 'Sarhul dance' is a special highlight, performed by both men and women in colorful attire. Drums, flutes, and other traditional instruments accompany the dances.
  • Community Bonding: The festival is a time for community bonding and social gatherings. People come together to celebrate, share food and drinks, and participate in the festivities. It strengthens social ties and reinforces cultural identity.
  • Significance of Sal Blossoms: The sal blossoms are a central symbol of Sarhul. They represent new life, renewal, and the fertility of nature. The tribals use sal leaves and flowers in their rituals and decorations.
  • Agricultural Significance: Sarhul also has agricultural significance, as it marks the beginning of the agricultural cycle. The tribals believe that the blessings of the deities will ensure a good harvest.
  • Preservation of Culture: Sarhul plays a vital role in preserving the tribal culture and traditions. It is a way for the tribals to connect with their roots and pass on their heritage to future generations.
  • Tourism Potential: Sarhul is a unique and colorful festival that has the potential to attract tourists and promote cultural tourism in the region.

Additional Information

  • Chhath Puja:
  • Sun Worship: Chhath Puja is a major Hindu festival dedicated to Surya, the Sun God. It is primarily observed in the states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Nepal.
  • Vedic Origins: The festival has ancient Vedic origins and is mentioned in various scriptures. It is believed that performing Chhath Puja bestows blessings of health, wealth, and prosperity.
  • Four-Day Festival: Chhath Puja is a four-day festival, with each day having its own significance and rituals. The rituals include fasting, bathing in holy waters, and offering prayers to the Sun God.
  • Strict Observances: The festival involves strict observances, including a 36-hour fast without water and food. Devotees observe celibacy and maintain purity during the festival.
  • Offerings to the Sun: The main ritual of Chhath Puja involves offering 'Arghya' (obeisance) to the setting and rising sun. Devotees stand in waist-deep water and offer prayers, along with fruits, flowers, and other offerings, to the Sun God.
  • Significance of 'Supa' and 'Daliya': 'Supa' (winnowing fan) and 'Daliya' (basket) are important ritualistic items used during Chhath Puja. They are filled with offerings and carried by devotees to the river banks.
  • Community Participation: Chhath Puja is a community festival, with families and neighbors coming together to celebrate. The atmosphere is filled with devotion, music, and folk songs.
  • Cleanliness and Purity: Cleanliness and purity are paramount during Chhath Puja. The surroundings are kept clean, and devotees maintain a high level of personal hygiene.
  • Fasting and Devotion: The rigorous fasting and devotion displayed by devotees during Chhath Puja are remarkable. It is a testament to their faith and belief in the power of the Sun God.
  • Environmental Consciousness: Chhath Puja also promotes environmental consciousness, as it involves worshipping the Sun, water, and nature. It highlights the importance of respecting and preserving the environment.
  • Maghi (Makar Sankranti):
  • Solar Festival: Maghi, also known as Makar Sankranti, is a Hindu festival dedicated to Surya, the Sun God. It marks the sun's transit into the Makara (Capricorn) zodiac sign.
  • Winter Solstice: It usually falls on January 14th or 15th every year and marks the end of the winter solstice and the beginning of longer days. It's a significant harvest festival.
  • Auspicious Time: Makar Sankranti is considered an auspicious time for undertaking new ventures and charitable activities. It is believed that donating to the needy during this time brings good fortune.
  • Ritual Bath: Taking a holy dip in rivers or other water bodies is a common ritual on Makar Sankranti. It is believed to cleanse the body and soul. Special gatherings are held at holy places.
  • Tilgul and Sweets: The exchange of 'Tilgul' (sesame seeds and jaggery sweets) is a characteristic feature of Makar Sankranti, particularly in Maharashtra. It symbolizes friendship and goodwill.
  • Kite Flying: Kite flying is a popular tradition associated with Makar Sankranti in many parts of India. The skies are filled with colorful kites, creating a festive atmosphere.
  • Harvest Festival: Makar Sankranti is also a harvest festival, celebrating the reaping of crops and the arrival of spring. It is a time to express gratitude for the bounty of nature.
  • Regional Variations: The festival is celebrated in different ways in different parts of India. While the core theme of worshipping the Sun remains the same, the rituals and traditions vary.
  • Pongal in South India: In South India, Makar Sankranti is celebrated as Pongal, a major harvest festival. It is a four-day festival, with each day having its own significance.
  • Lohri in North India: In North India, Makar Sankranti is preceded by Lohri, a bonfire festival. People gather around bonfires, sing folk songs, and offer prayers to the fire god.
  • Dang Darbar:
  • Tribal Festival: The Dang Darbar is a significant tribal festival celebrated by the Dangi people in the Dang district of Gujarat, India. It is a unique cultural event that showcases the tribal traditions and heritage of the region.
  • Religious Significance: The festival has religious significance and is associated with the worship of various deities. It is a time for prayers, rituals, and offerings.
  • Annual Gathering: The Dang Darbar is an annual gathering that brings together tribals from different villages and communities. It is a time for social interaction, cultural exchange, and celebration.
  • Folk Music and Dance: Folk music and dance are an integral part of the Dang Darbar. The tribals perform traditional dances and sing folk songs, accompanied by traditional musical instruments.
  • Colorful Attire: The tribals wear colorful attire during the festival, adding to the vibrant atmosphere. They adorn themselves with traditional jewelry and accessories.
  • Cultural Performances: The Dang Darbar features various cultural performances, including plays, skits, and storytelling sessions. These performances showcase the rich cultural heritage of the Dangi people.
  • Local Crafts and Cuisine: The festival also provides a platform for local artisans and craftspeople to showcase their products. Visitors can sample traditional Dangi cuisine and purchase local handicrafts.
  • Tourism Attraction: The Dang Darbar is a unique cultural event that attracts tourists from across India and beyond. It offers a glimpse into the tribal way of life and the rich cultural traditions of the Dang region.
  • Preservation of Tribal Culture: The festival plays a vital role in preserving the tribal culture and traditions of the Dangi people. It is a way for them to connect with their roots and pass on their heritage to future generations.
  • Community Bonding: The Dang Darbar is a time for community bonding and social harmony. It strengthens social ties and reinforces the sense of belonging among the Dangi peoples.
14

Which of the following books was written by Kautilya, Prime Minister of Chandragupta Maurya? 

  1. ((a))

    Bhagavati Sutra

  2. ((b))

    Arthashstra

  3. ((c))

    Anguttara Nikaya

  4. ((d))

    Purva Mimamsa Sutras

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arthashstra

The correct answer is Arthashstra.

Key Points

  • Chandragupta's life and the establishment of the Mauryan dynasty are well documented not just in Indian texts, such as the Puranas and the writings of Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta), but also in Greek historical texts.
  • After Alexander the Great's incursion into India in 326 BC, there was a period of political vacuum and disarray in the northwest regions of the subcontinent.
  • This period set the stage for Chandragupta's rise to power. With the counsel of his advisor, Chanakya, Chandragupta was able to capitalize on the prevailing conditions, leading to the overthrow of the Nanda Dynasty and the foundation of the Mauryan Empire by around 321 BC.

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Additional Information

  • Kautilya
  • He is popularly referred to as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, the author of the Arthashastra, an ancient Indian political treatise that dates from the 4th century BCE to the 3rd century CE.
  • He is regarded as India's political science and economics pioneer, and his work is regarded as an essential forerunner to classical economics.
  • Chanakya aided Chandragupta, the first Mauryan emperor, in his climb to power. He is usually recognized as being a key figure in the creation of the Maurya Empire.
  • Both Chandragupta and his son Bindusara had Chanakya as their principal counsel.
  • Kautilya (Chanakya), the famed author of the Arthasastra, was the Prime Minister of the Mauryan Empire's (326–200 b.c.e.) emperor Chandragupta (r. 326–301 b.c.e.).
15

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    Part III – Fundamental Rights

  2. ((b))

    Part I – The Union and its Territory

  3. ((c))

    Part VIII – The Union Territories

  4. ((d))

    Part II – Fundamental Duties

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Part II – Fundamental Duties

The correct answer is Part II – Fundamental Duties.

Key Points

  • Fundamental Duties
  • In the Constitution of India, fundamental duties are mentioned in Article 51A.
  • There was no list of fundamental duties in the original constitution.
  • Fundamental duties were added to the Indian constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 on the recommendation of the Sardar Swarn Singh committee.
  • the 42nd constitutional amendment added Part IV A and Article 51A to the Indian constitution.
  • Initially, there were only 10 fundamental duties in the constitution.
  • The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002 added one more fundamental duty to the constitution.
  • Currently, there are 11 fundamental duties in the Indian constitution.
  • The idea of fundamental duties was borrowed from the Russian constitution.
  • Fundamental duties are non-justiciable in nature.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights
  • The fundamental rights are enshrined in PART III of the constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
  • The fundamental rights are meant to promote the ideal of Political Democracy.
  • The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
  • There are 6 Fundamental Rights 
Fundamental RightsArticles
Right to equality14-18
Right to freedom19-22
Right against exploitation23-24
Right to freedom of religion25-28
Cultural and educational rights29-30
Right to constitutional remedies32
  • The Union and its Territory
  • The subject "The Union and its territory" is given in Part-I of the Indian Constitution.
  • It is given between Articles 1-4 of the Constitution.
  • Part - I contains the law of establishing, renaming, merging, or changing the borders of the Indian states.
  • Article 1 of the constitution says that India, that is Bharat, is a union of states and territories.
  • On 5 August 2019, the government revoked Article 370  which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, and proposed that the state be bifurcated into two union territories, Jammu and Kashmir and Laddakh. They are now two new union territory of India.
16

Which of the following is NOT a major jute producing state in India?

  1. ((a))

    Meghalaya

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal 

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Assam

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • The cultivation of jute in India is mainly confined to the eastern region of the country .
  • The jute crop is grown in  nearly  83  districts  of seven states -  West Bengal ,  Assam ,  Orissa , Bihar , Uttar Pradesh , Tripura and Meghalaya .
  • West Bengal alone accounts for over 50 percent raw jute production.
  • The  leading  world's  jute producing  countries are India , Bangladesh , China and Thailand .
  • India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and jute goods , contributing to over 50 percent and 40 percent respectively of global production.
  • Jute crop requires humid  climate  with  temperature  fluctuating between 24 degree Celsius and 38 degree Celsius.
  • Minimum  rainfall  required  for  jute  cultivation is  1000  mm .
  • New  grey  alluvial  soil of  good  depth receiving  silt  from  annual  floods is most suitable  for  jute  growth.
  • However, jute  is grown widely in sandy looms and clay loams.

Additional Information

  • India is the world's largest producer of milk, pulses and Jute.
  • India ranks as the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane, groundnut, vegetables, fruit and cotton.
  • It is also one of the leading producers of spices, fish, poultry, livestock and plantation crops.
  • Jute:
  • Jute Textile Industry is one of the major industries in Eastern India, particularly in West Bengal.
  • India is one of the largest producers of products, the production process in the Jute Industry goes through a variety of activities, which include cultivation of raw jute, processing of jute fibres, spinning, weaving, bleaching, dyeing, finishing and marketing of both, the raw jute and its finished products.
  • Thus, Jute supports around 40 Lakh farm families and provides direct employment to 2.6 Lakh Industrial Workers and 1.4 Lakh in the tertiary sector and also earns valuable foreign exchange through exports.
17

Whose name among the following is associated with the second five-year plan? 

  1. ((a))

    Jayanta Kumar Ghosh

  2. ((b))

    Kantilal Mardia

  3. ((c))

    Debabrata Basu

  4. ((d))

    Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis

The correct answer is Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis.

Key Points

  • 1956-61 was the duration of the Second Five Year Plan.
  • The Second Five Year Plan was based on Mahalanobis Model.
  • ​Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
  • P. C. Mahalanobis was a famous Indian statistician who founded the Indian Statistical Institute.
  • The plan lagged behind the target growth rate of 4.5% and achieved a growth rate of 4.27%.

Additional Information

  • The five-year plans were one of the central plans.
  • The plans were formulated and were financed by the central government.
  • These were launched in 1951, with the first five-year plans covering the years 1951-56.
  • There were three breaks in five-year plans during 1966-69, 1978-80, and 1991-92.
  • "Twelfth Five Year Plan" duration is from 2012 to 2017, and it was under the leadership of Manmohan Singh.
  • It was the last five-year plan because Niti Aayog replaced it with the planning commission.
  • Its main theme was “Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth”.
  • Its growth rate target was 8%.​

18

‘Permanent Settlement’ in Bengal was started by which of the following GovernorGenerals?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Minto

  2. ((b))

    Thomas Munro 

  3. ((c))

    Alexander Reed 

  4. ((d))

    Lord Cornwallis 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lord Cornwallis 

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

  • Lord Cornwallis:
  • Military and Administrative Leader: Charles Cornwallis, 1st Marquess Cornwallis, was a prominent British general and administrator. He served as the Governor-General of India twice, from 1786 to 1793 and again briefly in 1805.
  • Permanent Settlement: Cornwallis is best known for introducing the Permanent Settlement in Bengal in 1793. This system fixed land revenue, making zamindars (landlords) the owners of the land and peasants their tenants. It had far-reaching consequences for the agrarian structure of India.
  • Judicial Reforms: Cornwallis also implemented significant judicial reforms, separating the judiciary from the executive and establishing a system of civil and criminal courts. He introduced the Cornwallis Code, which codified laws and procedures.
  • Military Successes: Cornwallis achieved notable military victories, including the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo-Mysore War. He expanded British territories in India.
  • Legacy: Cornwallis's legacy is complex. While he introduced some important administrative and legal reforms, the Permanent Settlement had detrimental effects on the peasantry, leading to economic hardship and social unrest.

Additional Information

  • Lord Minto:
  • Governor-General: Gilbert Elliot-Murray-Kynynmound, 1st Earl of Minto, served as the Governor-General of India from 1807 to 1813.
  • Amritsar Treaty: Minto's tenure saw the signing of the Treaty of Amritsar in 1809 with Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the Sikh ruler of Punjab. This treaty defined the Sikh and British spheres of influence.
  • Expansion of British Influence: Minto expanded British influence in India through various diplomatic and military actions. He annexed territories in the Himalayas and strengthened alliances with local rulers.
  • Foreign Policy: Minto pursued a policy of non-interference in the affairs of Indian states, but he also took steps to protect British interests and maintain stability in the region.
  • Legacy: Minto's legacy is marked by his efforts to consolidate British power in India and his cautious approach to dealing with Indian states.
  • Thomas Munro:
  • Administrator and Statesman: Sir Thomas Munro was a distinguished British administrator and statesman. He served in various capacities in India, including as the Governor of Madras from 1820 to 1827.
  • Ryotwari System: Munro is renowned for introducing the Ryotwari system of land revenue in Madras. This system recognized the peasant cultivators as the owners of the land and collected revenue directly from them, bypassing the zamindars.
  • Administrative Reforms: Munro implemented various administrative reforms in Madras, focusing on improving the efficiency of the revenue system and promoting the welfare of the people.
  • Military Service: Munro also had a distinguished military career, participating in several campaigns and demonstrating his leadership skills.
  • Legacy: Munro is remembered for his efforts to improve the lives of Indian peasants and his contributions to the development of a more equitable land revenue system.
  • Alexander Read:
  • Administrator and Revenue Expert: Alexander Read was a British administrator and revenue expert who played a key role in the development of the Ryotwari system.
  • Early Ryotwari Experiments: Read conducted early experiments with the Ryotwari system in the Baramahal region of Madras in the late 18th century. His work laid the foundation for the system that was later implemented by Thomas Munro.
  • Revenue Surveys: Read conducted detailed revenue surveys to assess the land and its productivity, which helped in determining the appropriate revenue rates.
  • Legacy: Read's pioneering work in the Baramahal region and his contributions to the development of the Ryotwari system had a lasting impact on the land revenue policies in India.
19

The term ‘Protozoa’ was coined by ____________.

  1. ((a))

    Goldfuss

  2. ((b))

    Robert Grant 

  3. ((c))

    Lamarck

  4. ((d))

    Charles Darwin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goldfuss

The correct answer is Goldfuss.

Key Points

  • The term ''Protozoa'' was first coined by Goldfuss. It is the 3rd largest phylum
  • Protozoa include single-celled organisms and all the biological activities like excretion, respiration, osmoregulation is performed by this single celled body only.
  • The body performs all necessary biological activities so in them, a subcellular-physiological division of labour is found.
  • Respiration and Excretion take place by the exchange of gases through the body surface. Nitrogenous waste is ammonia.
  • Digestion in Protozoa is intracellular within food vacuoles
  • Water absorption occurs through the invagination of the general body surface. This is called cell drinking or Pinocytosis
  • Contractile vacuole mainly serves for osmoregulation however, some excretion may also occur through the contractile vacuole.
20

Identify the artist who popularised the guitar as an instrument in Indian classical music.

  1. ((a))

    N Ramani

  2. ((b))

    Sandeep Das

  3. ((c))

    EM Subramaniam

  4. ((d))

    Brij Bhushan Kabra 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Brij Bhushan Kabra 

The correct answer is Brij Bhushan Kabra.

Key Points 

  • Brij Bhushan Kabra:

  • Master of the Slide Guitar: Brij Bhushan Kabra (1937-2018) was a pioneering Hindustani classical slide guitarist. He is credited with popularizing the instrument in Indian classical music.

  • Innovative Techniques: Kabra developed unique playing techniques for the slide guitar, adapting it to the nuances of Hindustani ragas and talas. He incorporated elements of both vocal and stringed instrument styles into his playing.

  • Maihar Gharana Influence: Kabra was a disciple of the legendary Ustad Allauddin Khan of the Maihar Gharana. He imbibed the rigorous training and musical philosophy of this prestigious school.

  • Fusion and Experimentation: While rooted in traditional Hindustani music, Kabra also explored fusion and experimented with different genres. He collaborated with musicians from various backgrounds, including jazz and Western classical music.

  • Global Recognition: Kabra's music gained international recognition, and he performed extensively in India and abroad. He received numerous awards and accolades for his contributions to Indian classical music.

  • Teaching and Mentorship: Kabra was also a dedicated teacher and mentor, imparting his knowledge and skills to numerous students. He helped nurture a new generation of slide guitar players in India.

  • Unique Sound: Kabra's slide guitar playing was characterized by its soulful melodies, intricate ornamentations, and expressive improvisations. He created a distinctive sound that was both traditional and innovative.

  • Contribution to Hindustani Music: Kabra's pioneering efforts elevated the slide guitar to a prominent instrument in Hindustani classical music. He expanded its repertoire and established its place alongside traditional instruments like the sitar and sarod.

  • Legacy: Brij Bhushan Kabra's legacy lives on through his students and his recordings, which continue to inspire and captivate music lovers around the world.

  • Awards: He received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, one of India's highest honors for performing arts.

  • N Ramani:

  • Carnatic Flutist Maestro: Natesan Ramani (1934-2015), popularly known as N. Ramani, was a renowned Carnatic flutist. He was a pioneer in popularizing the flute in Carnatic music.

  • Bani of Mali: Ramani's flute playing was heavily influenced by the style of the legendary flutist T.R. Mahalingam (Mali). He adopted Mali's bani (style) and further developed it, adding his own unique touches.

  • Technical Virtuosity: Ramani was known for his exceptional technical skills on the flute. He could produce complex ragas and intricate improvisations with ease.

  • Melodic Exquisite: His flute playing was characterized by its melodious richness, smooth flow, and emotional depth. He brought out the nuances of Carnatic ragas with great sensitivity.

  • Global Performances: Ramani performed extensively in India and abroad, showcasing the beauty of Carnatic flute music to a global audience. He collaborated with musicians from various genres, including jazz and Western classical music.

  • Teaching and Mentorship: Ramani was also a dedicated teacher and mentored numerous students, helping to train the next generation of Carnatic flutists.

  • Contribution to Carnatic Music: Ramani's contributions to Carnatic music were significant. He elevated the status of the flute as a major concert instrument and expanded its repertoire.

  • Awards and Recognition: Ramani received numerous awards and accolades for his musical excellence, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

  • Legacy: N. Ramani's legacy as a Carnatic flute maestro continues to inspire and influence musicians and music lovers.

  • Popularizing the Flute: He played a critical role in making the flute a prominent and beloved instrument in Carnatic music.

  • Sandeep Das:

  • Tabla Virtuoso: Sandeep Das is a highly acclaimed tabla player and composer. He is known for his innovative approach to tabla playing and his collaborations with musicians from diverse genres.

  • Benaras Gharana Influence: Das received extensive training in the Benaras Gharana of tabla playing, one of the most traditional and respected schools of tabla.

  • Cross-Cultural Collaborations: Das is known for his cross-cultural collaborations with musicians from various genres, including Western classical, jazz, and world music. He has performed with renowned artists such as Yo-Yo Ma and the Silk Road Ensemble.

  • Innovative Compositions: Das is also a talented composer and has created innovative compositions that blend traditional Indian rhythms with contemporary musical elements.

  • Global Performances: Das has performed extensively around the world, showcasing his virtuosity and musical creativity. He is a sought-after performer at prestigious music festivals and concert halls.

  • Teaching and Mentorship: Das is also a dedicated teacher and mentor, sharing his knowledge and passion for tabla playing with students around the world.

  • Awards and Recognition: Das has received numerous awards and accolades for his contributions to music, including a Grammy Award for his work with the Silk Road Ensemble.

  • Fusion and Experimentation: While rooted in traditional tabla playing, Das is also open to experimentation and has explored various musical styles and genres.

  • Contribution to World Music: Das has played a significant role in bringing Indian percussion to a wider audience and promoting cross-cultural musical exchange.

  • Unique Style: Sandeep Das's tabla playing is characterized by its technical brilliance, rhythmic complexity, and musical sensitivity. He has developed a unique style that blends tradition with innovation.

  • E.M. Subramaniam:

  • Carnatic Vocalist: E.M. Subramaniam, also known as E.M.S., was a highly respected Carnatic vocalist known for his traditional and purist style.

  • Emphasis on Raga Bhava: Subramaniam's singing emphasized the "bhava" (emotional expression) of the raga. He conveyed the essence of the raga with great depth and sincerity.

  • Traditional Repertoire: He was well-versed in the traditional Carnatic music repertoire and performed compositions by the great masters with authenticity.

  • Lyrical Clarity: Subramaniam's vocal style was known for its clarity and precision. He paid great attention to the pronunciation and enunciation of the lyrics.

  • Gamakas and Brighas: His singing was marked by the skillful use of gamakas (glides) and brighas (rapid phrases), which are characteristic features of Carnatic vocal music.

  • Limited Public Performances: Though a highly talented vocalist, E.M.S. preferred a low-profile life and gave limited public performances. He focused more on teaching.

  • Dedicated Teacher: He was a dedicated teacher and trained many students in the traditional style of Carnatic vocal music.

  • Influence on Students: His students have gone on to become prominent Carnatic musicians, carrying forward his legacy.

  • Respect for Tradition: E.M.S. was a strong advocate for preserving the traditional values and aesthetics of Carnatic music.

  • Legacy: While he might not be as widely known as some other Carnatic vocalists, E.M. Subramaniam was highly respected within the Carnatic music community for his deep understanding of the art form and his commitment to tradition

21

PMJJBY (Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) scheme is a type of ______.

  1. ((a))

    life insurance scheme

  2. ((b))

    AD&D scheme

  3. ((c))

    pension scheme

  4. ((d))

    loan scheme 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

life insurance scheme

The correct answer is life insurance scheme.

Key Points 

  • Facts about PMJJBY:
  • Launched: May 9, 2015 in Kolkata by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • Ministry/Department:  Ministry of Finance
  • Provides: Life Insurance
  • Eligibility:
  • 18-50 Years of age.
  • People who join the scheme before completing 50 years can, however, continue to have the risk of life cover up to the age of 55 years subject to payment of premium.
  • Premium: 
  • Rs.330 per annum(Earlier). It has been revised to Rs. 436 per annum w.e.f 01.06.2022.
  • It will be auto-debited in one instalment.
  • The cover shall be for one-year period stretching from 1st June to 31st May.
  • Lien period: 30 days from the date of enrolment.
  • Risk Coverage: Rs.2 Lakh in case of death for any reason.
  • Implemented By: The scheme will be offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks for this purpose.

Additional Information 

Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)- Accidental insurance scheme that offers coverage for death or disability due to accident. - Age: 18-70 Years. - Cover: - Rs.2 lakh for death or disability due to an accident. - Rs.1 lakh is provided in case of partial disability. - Premium: Rs 20/-
Atal Pension Yojana (APY)- Initiative of the Government to provide financial security for the people in the unorganized sector. - Age: 18-40 Years. - The contributions is based on pension amount chosen. - A guaranteed minimum monthly pension of Rs 1,000 or Rs 2,000 or Rs 3,000 or Rs 4,000 or Rs 5,000 at the age of 60 years will be provided to the subscribers, based on the contributions made by the subscriber after joining APY. - Administrating Authority: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
22

Who among the following is associated with Kathakali?

  1. ((a))

    Sujata Mohapatra

  2. ((b))

    Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair 

  3. ((c))

    Swapana Sundari

  4. ((d))

    Kaushalya Reddy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair 

The correct answer is Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair.

Key Points

  • Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair was a prominent Kathakali artist from Kerala, India.
  • He was renowned for his versatility and exceptional skill in portraying a wide range of characters in Kathakali performances.
  • Kalamandalam Krishnan Nair played a pivotal role in reviving and popularizing Kathakali in the modern era.
  • He was honored with numerous awards, including the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • He was a dedicated teacher at Kerala Kalamandalam, contributing significantly to the training of the next generation of Kathakali artists.

 Additional Information

  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form that originated in Kerala, India.
  • It is known for its elaborate costumes, intricate makeup, detailed gestures, and well-defined body movements.
  • Kathakali performances are based on themes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • The dance form combines elements of dance, drama, music, and ritual.
  • Musicians and vocalists play a crucial role in Kathakali, providing the rhythmic and narrative support for the performance.
  • Bharatanatyam
  • Originating from Tamil Nadu, Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms in India.
  • It is characterized by its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures.
  • Bharatanatyam is traditionally performed by women and is known for its grace, purity, tenderness, and sculpturesque poses.
  • Kuchipudi
  • Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance form from Andhra Pradesh.
  • It involves fast rhythmic footwork, dramatic characterization, and expressive eye movements.
  • Kuchipudi performances often narrate stories from Hindu epics and mythology.
  • Mohiniyattam
  • Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, traditionally performed by women.
  • It is known for its graceful and sensuous movements, resembling the dance of the celestial enchantress Mohini.
  • Mohiniyattam includes elements of both Bharatanatyam and Kathakali in its performance style.
23

Dollu Kunitha, a high energy popular folk dance of Karnataka region is primarily performed for which of the following deities?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Shiva

  2. ((b))

    Lord Rama

  3. ((c))

    Lord Vishnu

  4. ((d))

    Lord Krishna

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lord Shiva

The correct answer is Lord Shiva.

Key Points

  • Lord Shiva:
  • The Destroyer: Shiva is one of the principal deities of Hinduism, often referred to as "The Destroyer" or "The Transformer" within the Trimurti (the Hindu trinity). This destruction is not merely negative; it is the necessary prelude to new creation.
  • Symbol of Cosmic Dance: Shiva is the god of dance, represented by the Nataraja form, depicting the cosmic dance of destruction and creation. This dance symbolizes the cyclical nature of time and the universe.
  • Ascetic and Householder: Shiva embodies seemingly contradictory aspects. He is both an ascetic, detached from worldly matters, and a householder, living with his consort Parvati and their children, Ganesha and Kartikeya.
  • Powerful Deities: Shiva is associated with several powerful deities and concepts. He is the husband of Parvati, the father of Ganesha and Kartikeya, and linked with Shakti (divine feminine energy).
  • Lingam Representation: Shiva is often represented by the lingam, a symbolic representation of divine generative energy. It is a focal point for worship and reverence.

Additional Information

  • Lord Rama:
  • Ideal Man: Lord Rama is the seventh avatar of Vishnu and is considered the epitome of virtue and righteousness. He is celebrated as the ideal man, husband, son, and king.
  • Epic Hero: Rama is the hero of the epic Ramayana, which narrates his life and heroic deeds, including his exile, the kidnapping of his wife Sita, and his victorious battle against the demon king Ravana.
  • Bow and Arrow: Rama is traditionally depicted carrying a bow and arrow, symbolizing his strength and skill as a warrior. He is known for his unwavering commitment to dharma (righteousness).
  • Devotion to Dharma: Rama's life is a lesson in adhering to dharma, even in the face of great adversity. His reign is considered a golden age of peace and prosperity.
  • Worship and Temples: Rama is widely worshipped throughout India and the world. Numerous temples are dedicated to him, and his stories are retold and enacted in various forms.
  • Lord Vishnu:
  • Preserver of the Universe: Vishnu is one of the principal deities of Hinduism and is considered the preserver and protector of the universe within the Trimurti.
  • Ten Avatars: Vishnu is known for his ten avatars (incarnations), who descend to earth in different ages to restore dharma and protect the righteous. These avatars include Rama, Krishna, and others.
  • Symbols of Royalty: Vishnu is often depicted with royal symbols, such as a crown, a mace (gada), a conch shell (shankha), and a discus (chakra). These symbolize his divine power and authority.
  • Consort Lakshmi: Vishnu's consort is Lakshmi, the goddess of wealth and prosperity. They are often worshipped together.
  • Maintainer of Cosmic Order: Vishnu is believed to be the maintainer of cosmic order (rita). His avatars ensure the balance between good and evil in the universe.
  • Lord Krishna:
  • Eighth Avatar of Vishnu: Krishna is the eighth avatar of Vishnu and is one of the most popular and beloved deities in Hinduism.
  • Divine Child and Lover: Krishna's life is filled with stories of his playful childhood, his romantic dalliances with the gopis (milkmaids), and his wise counsel as an adult.
  • Bhagavad Gita: Krishna is the central figure in the Bhagavad Gita, a philosophical and spiritual text in which he imparts profound wisdom to Arjuna on the battlefield of Kurukshetra.
  • Flute and Peacock Feather: Krishna is traditionally depicted playing the flute, symbolizing the divine call of love, and wearing a peacock feather in his crown, representing his connection to nature.
  • Divine Leela: Krishna's life is considered a "leela," a divine play, meant to guide and inspire humanity. His stories are filled with lessons about devotion, love, and duty.
24

The garbhagriha and shikhara are made in a Rekha-Prasada or Latina style and the mandapa of an old form of wooden architecture. These features of temple architecture are present in which part of India?

  1. ((a))

    Western

  2. ((b))

    Northern

  3. ((c))

    Southern

  4. ((d))

    Eastern

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Northern

The correct answer is Northern.

Key Points

Garbhagriha:

  • The Sanctum Sanctorum: The garbhagriha is the most sacred chamber within a Hindu temple. It houses the primary deity (the murti or idol) and is considered the dwelling place of the divine within the temple complex.
  • Small and Square: Typically, the garbhagriha is a small, windowless, and square-shaped room. Its simplicity emphasizes its sacred nature, focusing attention on the deity within.
  • Symbolic Significance: The garbhagriha represents the womb of the universe, symbolizing the origin of creation and the source of divine energy. It's a space of profound spiritual significance for devotees.
  • Placement: The garbhagriha is usually located at the very heart of the temple, directly beneath the towering shikhara (spire). This placement reinforces the connection between the deity and the cosmic axis.
  • Access: Access to the garbhagriha is often restricted, with only priests or authorized individuals allowed to enter. This preserves the sanctity of the inner sanctum.
  • Pradakshina Patha: Often, a narrow circumambulatory path, the pradakshina patha, surrounds the garbhagriha, allowing devotees to walk around the sanctum in a clockwise direction as a mark of reverence.

Shikhara (Rekha-Prasada/Latina Style):

  • The Towering Spire: The shikhara is the prominent superstructure that rises above the garbhagriha in North Indian temples (Nagara style). It's a visual marker of the temple's presence and a symbolic representation of the cosmic mountain, Meru.
  • Rekha-Prasada/Latina: This specific type of shikhara is characterized by its tall, slender, and curvilinear shape. It resembles a gradually inclining line (hence "rekha") and is often referred to as "Latina" due to its similarity to the shape of a Latin sail.
  • Nagara Style: The Rekha-Prasada shikhara is a hallmark of the Nagara style of temple architecture, prevalent in North India. This style is distinguished by its distinctive shikhara and its platform (pitha).
  • Construction: Shikharas are typically constructed of stone, although in earlier examples, brick was sometimes used. They are often elaborately carved with images of deities, celestial beings, and geometric patterns.
  • Amalaka and Kalasha: At the top of the shikhara is a crowning element called the amalaka, a disc-shaped or segmented stone. Above the amalaka sits the kalasha, a pot-shaped finial, which symbolizes abundance and auspiciousness.
  • Vertical Emphasis: The shikhara's verticality emphasizes the temple's connection to the heavens, drawing the eye upward and inspiring a sense of awe and transcendence.
  • Evolution: The Rekha-Prasada shikhara evolved over time, with regional variations and stylistic developments emerging in different parts of North India.

 Mandapa (Old Form of Wooden Architecture):

  • The Assembly Hall: The mandapa is a pillared hall or pavilion located in front of the garbhagriha. It serves as a space for devotees to gather, pray, and participate in religious ceremonies.
  • Wooden Construction: The description mentions an "old form of wooden architecture" for the mandapa. This suggests that the mandapa was likely originally constructed primarily of wood, showcasing the craftsmanship and joinery techniques of the period.
  • Intricate Carvings: Wooden mandapas were often richly carved with scenes from mythology, floral motifs, and geometric patterns. The wood allowed for greater detail and intricacy in the carvings.
  • Open Structure: Mandapas are typically open structures, allowing for natural light and ventilation. They create a welcoming space for devotees to congregate.
  • Variety of Forms: Mandapas can vary in size and shape, depending on the scale of the temple and the regional architectural traditions. They might be square, rectangular, or even circular.
  • Evolution and Adaptation: Over time, as temple architecture evolved, wooden mandapas were sometimes replaced or augmented with stone structures. However, the influence of wooden architecture often persisted in the decorative elements and overall design.
  • Regional Styles: Different regions in India developed their own unique styles of wooden architecture for mandapas, reflecting local traditions and craftsmanship
25

Consider the given the values and answer the question that follows.

GNP at market prices = ₹15,50,113 crore

Indirect taxes = ₹1,75,386 crore

Subsidies = ₹38,504

Net factor income from abroad = (-)₹13,439

What will be the value of GDP at factor cost?

  1. ((a))

    ₹13,99,792

  2. ((b))

    ₹14,13,231 

  3. ((c))

    ₹17,00,434

  4. ((d))

    ₹14,26,670

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹14,26,670

The correct answer is ₹14,26,670.

Key Points

GDP at factor cost = GNP at market prices - Indirect taxes + Subsidies - Net factor income from abroad

Calculation

  1. Substitute the given values:

GDP at factor cost = ₹15,50,113 crore - ₹1,75,386 crore + ₹38,504 crore - (-₹13,439 crore) 2. Simplify the equation:

GDP at factor cost = ₹15,50,113 crore - ₹1,75,386 crore + ₹38,504 crore + ₹13,439 crore 3. Perform the calculations from left to right:

  • ₹15,50,113 crore - ₹1,75,386 crore = ₹13,74,727 crore
  • ₹13,74,727 crore + ₹38,504 crore = ₹14,13,231 crore
  • ₹14,13,231 crore + ₹13,439 crore = ₹14,26,670 crore

Therefore, the correct value of GDP at factor cost is ₹14,26,670 crore.

26

Which of the following is not correct about Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions. 

  2. ((b))

    All citizens shall have the right to assemble peaceably and without arms

  3. ((c))

    All citizens shall have the right to move freely outside the territory of India.

  4. ((d))

    All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

All citizens shall have the right to move freely outside the territory of India.

The correct answer is All citizens shall have the right to move freely outside the territory of India.

Key Points

  • Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights related to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and the right to practice any profession or occupation. All citizens shall have the following right:-
  • Article 19(1)(a): Freedom of Speech and Expression:
  • This clause protects the right of citizens to freely express their thoughts, opinions, and ideas through speech, writing, printing, or any other form of communication.
  • Article 19(1)(b): Freedom to Assemble Peaceably:
  • Citizens have the right to assemble peacefully and without arms. This includes the right to hold meetings, demonstrations, and processions.
  • Article 19(1)(c): Freedom to Form Associations or Unions:
  • Citizens have the right to form associations, unions, or cooperative societies. This right allows individuals to come together for common interests or causes.
  • Article 19(1)(d): Freedom to Move Freely:
  • This clause guarantees the right to move freely throughout the territory of India. Citizens have the freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country.
  • Article 19(1)(e): Freedom to Reside and Settle:
  • Citizens have the right to reside and settle in any part of the country. This includes the right to choose one's place of residence and the right to move freely within the country.
  • Article 19(1)(g): Freedom to Practice any Profession or Occupation:
  • Citizens have the right to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business. However, this right is subject to certain reasonable restrictions.
27

Name the popular dance of North-West India in which dancers balance multiple pots or pitchers on their head while standing on top of glass bottles or on the rim of a brass plate. 

  1. ((a))

    Bhavai

  2. ((b))

    Ghoomar

  3. ((c))

    Garba

  4. ((d))

    Tera Tali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhavai

The correct answer is Bhavai.

Key Points

  • Bhavai
  • Bhavai is a folk dance form from Rajasthan, India.
  • It is performed by women who balance multiple pots on their heads while dancing.
  • The pots can be made of clay or metal, and can be decorated with colorful designs.
  • The dancers also perform other feats, such as dancing on broken glass or the edge of a sword.
  • Bhavai is a physically demanding dance form that requires a great deal of skill and practice.
  • It is a popular tourist attraction in Rajasthan, and is often performed at festivals and other cultural events.
  • The dance is accompanied by traditional Rajasthani music.
  • The dancers wear colorful costumes and jewelry.
  • Bhavai is a unique and mesmerizing dance form that showcases the rich culture of Rajasthan.
  • It is believed that this dance form evolved from the exceptional balancing skills of women from certain communities in Rajasthan, who would carry multiple pots of water on their heads over long distances in the desert.

Additional Information

  • Ghoomar
  • Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, India.
  • It is performed by women in groups, and is a popular dance form for celebrations and festivals.
  • The dancers wear colorful ghagras (long skirts) and odhnis (veils).
  • They move in a circular motion, twirling and swaying to the music.
  • Ghoomar is a graceful and elegant dance form that is enjoyed by people of all ages.
  • The dance is accompanied by traditional Rajasthani music, including the dhol (drum) and the shehnai (oboe).
  • Ghoomar is a symbol of Rajasthani culture and is often performed at weddings and other important occasions.
  • The dance is also a way for women to express themselves and celebrate their femininity.
  • Ghoomar is a social dance that brings people together and promotes a sense of community.
  • The dance has gained international recognition and has been performed at various cultural events around the world.
  • Garba
  • Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat, India.
  • It is performed during the Hindu festival of Navratri, which celebrates the divine feminine energy.
  • Garba is a circular dance in which women move around a central image or lamp representing the goddess Durga.
  • The dancers wear colorful chaniya cholis (traditional Gujarati outfits) and ornate jewelry.
  • Garba is a high-energy dance form that involves clapping, spinning, and synchronized movements.
  • The dance is accompanied by traditional Gujarati music, including the dhol, tabla, and other percussion instruments.
  • Garba is a social event that brings communities together and fosters a sense of unity.
  • It is a joyous celebration of faith, culture, and tradition.
  • Garba events often feature live music, elaborate decorations, and food stalls.
  • The dance has become popular worldwide and is performed by Gujarati communities around the globe.
  • Tera Tali
  • Tera Tali is a folk dance from Rajasthan, India.
  • It is performed by women who use manjiras (small cymbals) to create rhythmic patterns.
  • The dancers also incorporate other movements, such as swaying, clapping, and spinning.
  • Tera Tali is a devotional dance that is often performed in temples and during religious festivals.
  • The dance is accompanied by traditional Rajasthani music and chanting.
  • Tera Tali is a visually stunning dance form that showcases the skill and coordination of the performers.
  • The dance is believed to have originated from the nomadic tribes of Rajasthan.
  • Tera Tali is a unique and mesmerizing dance form that is an integral part of Rajasthani culture.
  • The dance is often performed by women in groups, creating a sense of community and shared devotion.
  • Tera Tali is a testament to the rich cultural heritage of Rajasthan and its diverse folk traditions.
28

Who was known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi of India’ and was the leader of North West Frontier province of British India?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  4. ((d))

    Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.

Key Points

  • About Abdul Ghaffar Khan:
  • He was born on 6 February 1890 in Charasadda, Khyber, Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan.
  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as "Frontier Gandhi", "Bachha Khan" and "Badshah Khan".
  • Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a political and spiritual leader known for his non-violent movement like Mahatma Gandhi.
  • He showed the path of non-violence to the Pathans living on the outskirts, who were always depicted as 'fighters' in history.
  • This great leader always opposed the demand for the partition of the country by the Muslim League.
  • After partition, he decided to stay with Pakistan and kept demanding an autonomous administrative unit called 'Pakhtunistan' within Pakistan.
  • He died on January 20, 1988, in Peshawar, Pakistan.

 Additional Information

  • Mahatma Gandhi
  • Mahatma Gandhi was born in the year 1869 AD.
  • Mahatma Gandhi, by name of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, (born October 2, 1869, Porbandar, India—died January 30, 1948, Delhi).
  • He was a lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer who became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India.
  • Indian Opinion newspaper was started by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa.
  • In 1917, the Satyagraha movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi from Champaran to protest against the injustice done by Britishers to the indigo farmers.
  • ​​Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India.
  • He is the Prime Minister who has had the longest term in office.
  • He served as the prime minister of India from 15th August 1947 to 1964.
  • He is the architect of the Preamble of the Indian constitution.
  • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
  • He served as the first chairman of the planning commission of India.
  • He was honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
  • The name Panchayati raj was given by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • National herald is the newspaper started by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • He is the first prime minister to die in harness.
  • Shantivan is the cremation ground of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Subhash Chandra Bose
  • He founded the Independence for India League with Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • He was elected as the President of INC at its Haripura Session (1938) and Tripuri Session (1939) but resigned from Tripuri due to differences with Mahatma Gandhi.
  • He took the charge of the Indian Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in Singapore and set up an Indian Provisional government there.
  • Subhash Chandra Bose was the one who addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation.
  • He gave the famous slogans–Dilli Chalo and Jai Hind.
  • The India Struggle was his autobiography.
  • He was called Desh Nayak by Rabindranath Tagore.
29

Which of the following equations correctly measures national income by expenditure method?

  1. ((a))

    Y= C + I + G – X + M

  2. ((b))

    Y= C + I + G + X + M

  3. ((c))

    Y= C + I + G + X – M

  4. ((d))

    Y= C – I + G + X – M

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Y= C + I + G + X – M

The correct answer is Y= C + I + G + X – M.

Key Points

  • The expenditure method is one of the primary ways to calculate a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which is a key measure of national income. It's based on the idea that all spending in an economy eventually becomes someone's income. By adding up all the expenditures on final goods and services, we can get a picture of the total economic activity within a country's borders.
  • The Formula
  • The basic formula for the expenditure method is:
  • GDP = C + I + G + (X - M)
  • Where:
  • C = Consumption: Spending by households on goods and services (e.g., food, clothing, entertainment).
  • I = Investment: Spending by businesses on capital goods (e.g., machinery, buildings) and changes in inventories.
  • G = Government Spending: Expenditures by the government on goods and services (e.g., infrastructure, education, defense).
  • X = Exports: Goods and services produced domestically and sold to other countries.
  • M = Imports: Goods and services produced in other countries and purchased domestically.
30

In which of following Yajnas was a horse let loose to wander freely and guarded by the raja’s men in ancient India?

  1. ((a))

    Ashvadhari Yajna

  2. ((b))

    Naramedha Yajna

  3. ((c))

    Brahma Yajna

  4. ((d))

    Ashvamedha Yajna 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ashvamedha Yajna 

The correct answer is Ashvamedha Yajna.

Key Points

  • The Ashvamedha yajna was a ritual sacrifice of a horse performed by ancient Indian kings to demonstrate their imperial sovereignty.
  • The horse was a symbol of power and virility, and its sacrifice was seen as a way of asserting the king's dominance over his enemies and vassals.
  • The Ashvamedha yajna was a complex and costly ritual, and it was only performed by the most powerful kings.
  • The ceremony involved a number of different steps, including the selection of the horse, its journey through the kingdom, and the final sacrifice.
  • The horse was chosen from the king's own stables, and it was decorated with gold and jewels.
  • The horse was then released to wander for a year, accompanied by a group of warriors.
  • During its journey, the horse was not allowed to be harmed or captured.
  • If any enemy tried to stop the horse, the warriors were required to fight them.
  • After one year, the horse was returned to the king's capital.
  • The Ashvamedha yajna was a powerful symbol of the king's power and authority.
  • It was a way of demonstrating to the kingdom and to the world that the king was a powerful ruler who was not to be challenged.
  • The Ashvamedha yajna was also a way of ensuring the king's prosperity and success.
  • The Ashvamedha yajna was a controversial ritual, and it was eventually abandoned by most Hindu kings.
  • However, it remains an important symbol in Hindu culture, and it is still sometimes performed today.
31

The stratosphere is located between which of the following atmospheric layers?

  1. ((a))

    Stratopause and Mesopause

  2. ((b))

    Mesopause and Exosphere 

  3. ((c))

    Mesosphere and Thermosphere

  4. ((d))

    Tropopause and Stratopause

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tropopause and Stratopause

The correct answer is Tropopause and Stratopause.

Key Points

Earth's Atmosphere:

  • Composition: Primarily nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%), with trace amounts of argon, carbon dioxide, and other gases.
  • Layers: Troposphere (where weather occurs), stratosphere (contains the ozone layer), mesosphere (where meteors burn up), thermosphere (where auroras occur), and exosphere (the outermost layer).
  • Importance: Essential for life, providing breathable air, regulating temperature, protecting from harmful radiation, and driving weather patterns.

Additional Information 

  • Lithosphere
  • The Lithosphere is the rigid, outermost shell of the Earth, encompassing both the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.
  • It is divided into tectonic plates that float on the semi-fluid asthenosphere beneath it.
  • The thickness of the Lithosphere varies, being thinnest at mid-ocean ridges and thickest beneath continental crust.
  • The Lithosphere is crucial for plate tectonics, as its movements and interactions cause earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the creation of mountain ranges.
  • Stratosphere
  • The Stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere, lying above the Troposphere and below the Mesosphere.
  • It extends from about 10 km to 50 km above Earth's surface.
  • This layer contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.
  • Commercial jet aircraft typically fly in the lower stratosphere.
  • Troposphere
  • The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from Earth's surface up to about 8-15 km.
  • It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and 99% of its water vapor and aerosols.
  • Weather events occur in the Troposphere.
  • Mesosphere
  • The Mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere above the Stratosphere and below the Thermosphere.
  • It extends from about 50 km to 85 km above the Earth's surface.
  • This layer is where most meteorites burn up upon entering the Earth's atmosphere.
  • The temperature decreases with altitude in the Mesosphere.
32

Gangwon is the host city of which of the following sports events?

  1. ((a))

    Summer Olympics 2024

  2. ((b))

    Summer Youth Olympic Games 2024

  3. ((c))

    Winter Youth Olympic Games 2024 

  4. ((d))

    Winter Olympics 2024 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Winter Youth Olympic Games 2024 

The correct answer is Winter Youth Olympic Games 2024.

Key Points

  • The fourth edition of the Winter Youth Olympic Games 2024 was held in Gangwon province in the cities of Pyeongchang and Gangneung (Republic of Korea).
  • The 2018 Olympic Winter Games 2018 also held in the same city.
  • The motto of the 4th Edition is " Grow Together, Shine Together".
  • The games are scheduled to be held between 19 January and 2 February 2024.

 Additional Information

  • The 2022 Winter Olympic Games was held in Beijing.
  • The official Mascot of the 2022 Winter Olympics Games is Bing Dwen.
  • The 2024 Summer Olympics is scheduled to take place from 26 July to 11 August 2024 in Paris, France.
  • Olympics 2020 was held in Tokyo, Japan from 23 July to 8 August 2021.
  • The motto of the 2020 Olympics was United by Emotion.
  • The United States topped the tally with a total of 113 medals.
  • India ranked 48th with a total of 7 Medals (1 Gold, 2 Silver and 4 Bronze).
33

Bacteria are the sole members of which of the following kingdoms?

  1. ((a))

    Animalia

  2. ((b))

    Plantae

  3. ((c))

    Protista

  4. ((d))

    Monera

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Monera

The correct answer is Monera.

Key Points

  • Monera (or Bacteria and Archaea)
  • Prokaryotic Cells: Monerans are characterized by their simple cell structure. They lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Their genetic material (DNA) is not enclosed within a membrane.
  • Unicellular: Monerans are single-celled organisms, although they may live in colonies.
  • Diverse Metabolism: They exhibit a wide range of metabolic strategies. Some are autotrophs (making their own food like plants), while others are heterotrophs (relying on external food sources like animals).
  • Reproduction: Monerans typically reproduce asexually through binary fission, where one cell divides into two identical cells.
  • Ubiquitous: They are found in virtually all habitats on Earth, from extreme environments like hot springs and deep sea vents to more familiar places like soil and the human body.
  • Ecological Roles: Monerans play crucial roles in nutrient cycling, decomposition, and various symbiotic relationships.
  • Examples: Bacteria like E. coli and Streptococcus, as well as archaea like methanogens and halophiles.
  • Cell Wall: Most monerans have a cell wall, but its composition differs from that of plants and fungi.
  • Motility: Some monerans are motile, using flagella or other mechanisms to move.
  • Genetic Diversity: Despite their simple structure, monerans have a high degree of genetic diversity, allowing them to adapt to a wide range of conditions.
  • Human Impact: Monerans have a profound impact on human life, both beneficial (e.g., in food production and our gut microbiome) and harmful (e.g., causing diseases).

Additional Information

  • Animalia (Animals)
  • Eukaryotic Cells: Animals have complex cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
  • Multicellular: Animals are multicellular organisms with specialized cells organized into tissues and organs.
  • Heterotrophic Nutrition: Animals are heterotrophs, meaning they cannot make their own food and must consume other organisms for energy.
  • Mobility: Most animals are motile at some stage in their life cycle, allowing them to actively seek food and mates.
  • Sexual Reproduction: Animals typically reproduce sexually, with the fusion of sperm and egg cells.
  • No Cell Walls: Animal cells lack cell walls, which allows for greater flexibility and movement.
  • Diverse Forms: The animal kingdom is incredibly diverse, encompassing a vast range of organisms from sponges to insects to mammals.
  • Ecological Roles: Animals play diverse ecological roles, including predators, prey, herbivores, decomposers, and pollinators.
  • Examples: Insects, fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals, including humans.
  • Nervous System: Most animals have a nervous system that allows them to sense and respond to their environment.
  • Digestive System: Animals have a digestive system to break down food and absorb nutrients.
  • Plantae (Plants)
  • Eukaryotic Cells: Plant cells have a nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, and a rigid cell wall made of cellulose.
  • Multicellular: Plants are multicellular organisms with specialized tissues and organs, such as roots, stems, and leaves.
  • Autotrophic Nutrition: Plants are primarily autotrophs, using photosynthesis to convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into sugars for energy.
  • Immobile (Mostly): Most plants are rooted in place and cannot move freely like animals.
  • Sexual and Asexual Reproduction: Plants can reproduce both sexually and asexually, depending on the species.
  • Chlorophyll: Plants contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis.
  • Ecological Importance: Plants are essential for life on Earth, producing oxygen, forming the base of most food chains, and providing habitats.
  • Examples: Mosses, ferns, conifers, and flowering plants.
  • Adaptations: Plants have evolved a wide array of adaptations to survive in different environments.
  • Alternation of Generations: Plants exhibit a life cycle called alternation of generations, alternating between haploid and diploid stages.
  • Economic Importance: Plants provide humans with food, medicine, timber, and other resources.
  • Protista (Protists)
  • Eukaryotic Cells: Protists have eukaryotic cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
  • Unicellular or Multicellular: Protists can be unicellular (like amoebas) or multicellular (like some algae).
  • Diverse Nutrition: Protists exhibit a wide range of nutritional strategies, including autotrophy, heterotrophy, and mixotrophy (combining both).
  • Diverse Structures: Protists are a very diverse group, and their body structures vary greatly.
  • Reproduction: Protists can reproduce both sexually and asexually, depending on the species.
  • Habitats: They are found in a variety of moist environments, including water, soil, and even inside other organisms.
  • Ecological Roles: Protists play important roles in aquatic food webs, as well as in various symbiotic relationships.
  • Examples: Algae (like seaweed), protozoa (like amoebas and paramecium), and slime molds.
  • Evolutionary Significance: Protists are a diverse group that includes some of the earliest eukaryotes, providing insights into the evolution of more complex organisms.
  • Parastic Protists: Some protists are parasites that can cause diseases in humans and other animals (e.g., malaria).
  • Classification Challenges: Because of their diversity, classifying protists has been a long-standing challenge for biologists.
34

Which of the following awards is given in the field of dance by the government of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Nandi Award for Best Choreographer

  2. ((b))

    Kalidas Samman

  3. ((c))

    Sanatan Sangeet Sanskriti

  4. ((d))

    Tagore Ratna

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kalidas Samman

The correct answer is Kalidas Samman.

Key Points

  • The Indian state of Madhya Pradesh annually bestows the Kalidas Samman, a prize for the arts.
  • The honour bears Kalidasa's name, a well-known Classical Sanskrit author from ancient India.
  • In 1980, the Kalidas Samman was first given out.
  • Initially, it was awarded every other year in the categories of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual arts.​

Additional Information

  • Kalidasa:
  • The greatest poet and playwright of ancient India, Kalidasa, wrote in Classical Sanskrit.
  • The Vedas, the Ramayaa, the Mahabharata, and the Puraas are the main sources for his plays and poetry.
  • He wrote Raghuvamsa, which details Raghuvamsa's whole family genealogy, from Dilipa to Rama.
  • "Meghaduta" is the name of a poem he penned.
  • The epic Kumarasambhava, written by Kalidas, is a significant work.
  • Many poems about the beginnings of the goddess Parvati can be found in Kumarasambhava.
35

In India, poverty estimations are based on surveys conducted by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO). Under which ministry does the NSSO function?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Consumer Affairs

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Finance

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Labour and Employment 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

The correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Key Points

  • The method commonly used by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) of India to collect information is known as Survey or Sampling method.
  • They use stratified sampling techniques to gather information on a variety of socioeconomic parameters across the vast demographics of India.
  • The NSSO conduct large-scale sample surveys throughout India.
  • The employees of the NSSO are from the Indian Statistical Service (appointed through the UPSC) and the Subordinate Statistical Service (appointed through the Staff Selection Commission).

 Additional Information

  • The main divisions of NSSO are:
  • Survey design and research division- headquarters located in Kolkota.
  • Field's operation division- Headquarters located in Delhi/Faridabad.
  • Data Processing division- Headquarters in Kolkata.
  • Coordination and publication division- Headquarters in Delhi.
36

Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian to win the prestigious ______ Final in Switzerland in 2022. 

  1. ((a))

    National Open Athletics Championships

  2. ((b))

    European Athletics Championships

  3. ((c))

    World Athletics Championships

  4. ((d))

    Zurich Diamond League

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Zurich Diamond League

The correct answer is Zurich Diamond League.

Key Points

  • Neeraj Chopra achieved a remarkable feat by winning the prestigious Zurich Diamond League Final 2022 with an outstanding throw of 88.44 meters, setting a new personal best and claiming the title of the best throw of the year.
  • Despite starting with a foul, Chopra quickly ascended to the top spot with his exceptional throw of 88.44 meters in his second attempt, marking his fourth career best.
  • This remarkable performance secured his victory in the competition. In his subsequent throws, Chopra recorded distances of 88.00 meters, 86.11 meters, 87.00 meters, and 83.60 meters, showcasing his consistent prowess in the event.
  • Olympic silver medalist Jakub Vadlejch of the Czech Republic secured the second position with his best throw of 86.94 meters, achieved in his fourth attempt, while Julian Weber of Germany claimed the third spot with a best throw of 83.73 meters.
  • Neeraj Chopra's impressive victory at the Zurich Diamond League Final reaffirmed his status as one of the world's leading javelin throwers and highlighted his exceptional talent and skill in the sport.
37

‘A shot at History’ is an autobiography of whom among the following Olympic medal awardees?

  1. ((a))

    PV Sindhu

  2. ((b))

    Abhinav Bindra

  3. ((c))

    Sushil Kumar

  4. ((d))

    Leander Paes 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Abhinav Bindra

The correct answer is Abhinav Bindra.

Key Points

  • Abhinav Bindra is an Indian sport shooter from Uttarakhand and is the first Indian to win the Olympic Gold medal in Beijing Olympics in 2008.
  • He won seven medals at the Commonwealth Games (4 Gold and 2 Silver) and three at the Asian Games (1 silver).
  • In 2018, he became the first Indian to elect as the chairman of the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) Athletes Committee.
  • In 2011, Abhinav Bindra published an autobiography titled A Shot at History. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Hunting the Hard Way was a book written by Howard Hill, a bowman from the US who was regarded as the world's greatest bowman.
  • Firing Point is a techno-thriller novel written by Mike Maden, an American novelist who writes mostly Spy Fiction and Crime fiction genres.

 Additional Information

  • Some of the autobiographies written by sports persons are listed below:
Sports personAutobiography
The Race of My LifeMilkha Singh
No SpinShane Warne
Ace Against OddsSania Mirza
The Greatest: My Own StoryMuhammad Ali
Faster Than Lightning: My AutobiographyUsain Bolt
38

Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was founded?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Elgin II 

  2. ((b))

    Lord Dufferin

  3. ((c))

    Lord Lansdowne

  4. ((d))

    Lord Ripon

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lord Dufferin

The correct answer is Lord Dufferin.

Key Points

  • Lord Dufferin
  • Lord Dufferin was Viceroy of India from 1884 - 1888.
  • Important events during his viceroyalty include:
  • 3rd Burmese War, 1885 - In this war upper and lower Burma were annexed.
  • Establishment of Indian National Congress in 1885.

Additional Informatio

  • Lord Elgin II served as Viceroy of India from 1894 to 1899.
  • A terrible epidemic called bubonic plague broke out in Bombay during the reign of Elgin.
  • Sir James Lyall's commission was appointed by Lord Elgin II to analyse the Indian famine of 1896 to 1897.
  • Lord Lansdowne
  • Lord Lansdowne served as Governor-General and Viceroy of India from 1888 to 1893.
  • During his tenure the Indian Council Act, 1892 was enacted and a system of indirect elections started in India.
  • The Factory Act, 1891 which made the requirements for fencing machinery more stringent was also passed during his time.
  • Under his viceroyship, Durand Commission was set up to define the boundary between India and Afghanistan, popularly referred to as the Durand line.
  • In modern times it marks the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
  • It was fixed by British civil servant Sir Henry Mortimer Durand and the then Afghan Emir, Abdur Rahman Khan in 1893.
  • British considered Afghanistan to be an independent state at the time although they controlled its foreign affairs and diplomatic relations.
  • The Durand Line cuts through the Pashtun tribal areas and further south through the Balochistan region, politically dividing ethnic Pashtuns, as well as the Baloch and other ethnic groups, who live on both sides of the border.
  • It demarcates Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Balochistan and Gilgit-Baltistan of northern and western Pakistan from the northeastern and southern provinces of Afghanistan.
  • From a geopolitical and geostrategic perspective, it has been described as one of the most dangerous borders in the world.
  • Lord Ripon
  • Lord Ripon introduced Ilbert Bill in 1883.
  • A controversial bill that sought to allow senior Indian judges to preside over cases involving British and European subjects in India.
  • The bill was enacted by the Indian Legislative Council on Jan 25, 1884.
  • Lord Ripon was appointed Viceroy of India in 1880 and he held the office until 1884.
39

The Directive Principle of State Policy that requires the State ‘to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities’ was added by the _________________Constitution Amendment Act.

  1. ((a))

    44th

  2. ((b))

    40th

  3. ((c))

    43rd

  4. ((d))

    41st

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

44th

The correct answer is 44th.

Key Points

Directive Principle of State Policy:

  • Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • DPSP consists of all the ideals that the State should follow and keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws for the country.
  • The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution.
  • Directive Principles are affirmative directions on the other hand, Fundamental Rights are negative or prohibitive in nature because they put limitations on the State.
  • The DPSP is not enforceable by law; it is non-justiciable.​

Additional Information

  • It is important to note that DPSP
ArticleDPSP
38State to secure a social order for the promotion
of the welfare of the people
39Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State
39-AEqual justice and free legal aid
40Organisation of village panchayats
41Right to work, to education and to public
assistance in certain cases
42Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
43Living wage, etc., for workers
43-AParticipation of workers in management of
industries
43-BPromotion of co-operative societies
44Uniform civil code for the citizens
45Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
46Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections
47Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health
48Organisation of agriculture and animal
husbandry
48-AProtection and improvement of environment
and safeguarding of forests and wildlife
49Protection of monuments and places and
objects of national importance
50Separation of judiciary from executive
51Promotion of international peace and security
40

Who among the following discovered the ruins of Hampi in1800?

  1. ((a))

    Robert Fitzroy

  2. ((b))

    Colonel Colin Mackenzie

  3. ((c))

    Robert Mackenzie

  4. ((d))

    Colin Fitzroy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Colonel Colin Mackenzie

The correct answer is Colonel Colin Mackenzie.

Key Points

  • The Rediscovery of Hampi: A Lost City Unveiled
  • While the statement that Hampi was "discovered" in 1800 is a simplification, it's true that the ruins of this magnificent city were brought to wider attention around that time. Here's a more nuanced explanation:
  • Hampi's History Before 1800
  • Ancient Origins: Hampi's history stretches back centuries before the Vijayanagara Empire. It's mentioned in ancient Hindu texts like the Ramayana and Puranas as Pampakshetra.
  • Vijayanagara Empire: Hampi rose to prominence as the capital of the powerful Vijayanagara Empire (1336-1565 CE). It was a thriving city, renowned for its wealth, trade, and magnificent temples.
  • Decline and Abandonment: After the Vijayanagara Empire's defeat in 1565, Hampi was sacked and largely abandoned. Over time, the once-grand city fell into ruin, its structures overgrown and forgotten by much of the world.

Additional Information

  • The Role of Colin Mackenzie
  • 1800: A Turning Point: In 1800, Colonel Colin Mackenzie, a Scottish officer with the East India Company, visited Hampi. He was the first Surveyor General of India and an avid antiquarian.
  • Survey and Documentation: Mackenzie conducted a survey of the site, creating the first detailed maps and documenting the ruins. His work brought Hampi to the attention of scholars and the wider world.
  • Not a "Discovery": It's important to note that local people and those living nearby likely knew of the ruins. Mackenzie's contribution was in bringing this lost city to the attention of a broader audience and initiating its study.
  • Hampi After 1800
  • Increased Interest: Mackenzie's work sparked interest in Hampi, leading to further exploration and study of the site.
  • Archaeological Efforts: Over the years, archaeologists began excavating and restoring some of the structures, revealing the grandeur of the lost city.
  • UNESCO World Heritage Site: In 1986, Hampi was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, acknowledging its historical and cultural significance.
  • Ongoing Research: Today, research and preservation efforts continue at Hampi, shedding more light on its history and culture.
  • Hampi's Significance
  • Architectural Marvel: Hampi's ruins showcase the incredible architectural skills of the Vijayanagara Empire, with intricate temples, palaces, and other structures.
  • Cultural Legacy: Hampi provides valuable insights into the history, culture, and religious practices of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Tourism and Heritage: Hampi is now a popular tourist destination, attracting visitors from around the world who are drawn to its historical and archaeological wonders.
  • A Reminder of the Past: Hampi serves as a reminder of the rise and fall of empires, the enduring power of culture, and the importance of preserving our heritage.
  • Beyond the Ruins
  • Living Heritage: While much of Hampi is in ruins, the site still holds religious significance for Hindus. The Virupaksha Temple, for example, remains an active place of worship.
  • Local Communities: Hampi is also home to local communities who have lived in the area for generations. Their lives and traditions are intertwined with the history of the site.
  • Conservation Challenges: Preserving Hampi's ruins faces ongoing challenges, including weathering, tourism, and development pressures.
  • Hampi Today
  • A Blend of Past and Present: Hampi is a unique blend of ancient ruins and contemporary life, offering visitors a glimpse into a glorious past while also being a living cultural landscape.
  • A Place of Wonder: Hampi continues to inspire awe and wonder, reminding us of the rich tapestry of human history and the remarkable achievements of past civilizations.
  • A Destination for All: Whether you're interested in history, architecture, or simply exploring a fascinating place, Hampi has something to offer everyone.
41

The official mascot of the Commonwealth Games 2022 was _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Perry

  2. ((b))

    Miraitova

  3. ((c))

    La’eeb

  4. ((d))

    Bing Dwen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Perry

The correct answer is Perry.

Key Points

  • The official mascot for the Commonwealth Games 2022 is Perry.
  • Perry is a multi-coloured bull, symbolizing strength, unity, and diversity.
  • The mascot was designed to represent the cultural heritage and spirit of Birmingham, the host city.
  • Perry was chosen after a nationwide competition in the UK, involving hundreds of schoolchildren.

Additional Information

  • Commonwealth Games:
  • The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event held every four years, involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations.
  • The first Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
  • It includes various sports such as athletics, swimming, and cycling, among others.
  • Previous Mascots:
  • The 2018 Commonwealth Games mascot was Borobi, a blue koala representing the Gold Coast, Australia.
  • The 2014 Games in Glasgow had Clyde, a thistle-inspired character.
  • Birmingham 2022:
  • Birmingham was announced as the host city for the 2022 Commonwealth Games in December 2017.
  • The event will feature 19 sports and 8 para-sports.
  • It is expected to significantly boost the local economy and promote tourism.
  • Significance of Mascots:
  • Mascots play a crucial role in promoting the event and engaging the public.
  • They often embody the cultural and social values of the host city.
42

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the establishment of Central Public Sector Undertakings in India?

  1. ((a))

    They are established to fulfil the objective of a self-reliant India

  2. ((b))

    They are supposed to reduce the importance of the private sector in India

  3. ((c))

    They are only expected to generate greater profits to fund the Indian budget. 

  4. ((d))

    They are established solely for export-oriented industrialisation. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

They are established to fulfil the objective of a self-reliant India

The correct answer is They are established to fulfil the objective of a self-reliant India.

Key Points

  • Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) are established with the primary objective of achieving a self-reliant India, focusing on critical sectors like energy, infrastructure, and manufacturing.
  • They play a pivotal role in driving the nation's economic development by investing in large-scale industrial projects and ensuring the availability of essential goods and services.
  • CPSUs help in reducing dependency on imports, promoting indigenous production, and fostering technological advancements within the country.
  • They contribute significantly to employment generation, skill development, and regional development, thereby supporting overall socio-economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Role of CPSUs in Strategic Sectors
  • CPSUs are often established in strategic sectors such as defense, energy, and heavy industries to ensure national security and self-sufficiency.
  • They contribute to the development of critical infrastructure, including power plants, highways, and ports, which are essential for economic growth.
  • Economic Contributions
  • CPSUs significantly contribute to the national exchequer through dividends, taxes, and other forms of revenue, aiding in the financial stability of the government.
  • They also play a crucial role in stabilizing the economy during financial crises by maintaining steady production and employment levels.
  • Employment and Skill Development
  • CPSUs are major employers in the country, providing direct and indirect employment to millions of individuals.
  • They invest in training and skill development programs, enhancing the employability and productivity of the workforce.
  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • Many CPSUs actively engage in CSR activities, contributing to community development, education, healthcare, and environmental sustainability.
  • These initiatives help in improving the quality of life for the underprivileged sections of society and promote inclusive growth.
43

Contingency Fund of India is operated by the __________.

  1. ((a))

    Executive action

  2. ((b))

    Reserve Bank’s action

  3. ((c))

    Judicial action

  4. ((d))

    Parliamentary action

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Executive action

The correct answer is Executive action.

Key Points

  • The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267 of the Constitution of India.
  • This fund is used to meet unforeseen expenditures that cannot wait for the authorization of the Parliament.
  • The Contingency Fund of India is at the disposal of the President of India.
  • It is operated by the executive branch of the Government, specifically the Ministry of Finance.
  • The fund is placed at the disposal of the President to enable advances to be made for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Parliamentary Approval:
  • Any expenditure from the Contingency Fund needs subsequent approval from the Parliament.
  • The amount withdrawn is recouped to the fund after Parliament authorizes the necessary expenditure through the Appropriation Acts.
  • Amount in the Fund:
  • The corpus of the Contingency Fund of India is Rs. 500 crore.
  • This amount can be modified by the Parliament if needed.
  • State Contingency Funds:
  • States in India also have their own contingency funds for meeting urgent and unforeseen expenditures.
  • The operation of state contingency funds is similar to that of the central fund, controlled by the respective state governments.
  • Similar Funds:
  • Other specific funds like the Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account of India also play crucial roles in the financial management of the country.
  • The Consolidated Fund is the chief fund where all revenues received by the government, loans raised, and money received in repayment of loans are credited.
44

In 2009, AR Rehman won Oscars in which of the given pair of categories?

  1. ((a))

    Best Sound Mixing and Best Original Song

  2. ((b))

    Best Original Musical and Best Sound Mixing

  3. ((c))

     Best Original Score and Best Sound Mixing 

  4. ((d))

    Best Original Score and Best Original Song

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Best Original Score and Best Original Song

The correct answer is Best Original Score and Best Original Song.

Key Points

  • In 2009, AR Rahman won two Oscars for his work on the film Slumdog Millionaire.
  • He received the award for Best Original Score for the film's musical score.
  • He also won the award for Best Original Song for the song "Jai Ho" from the same film.
  • These wins made AR Rahman the first Indian to win two Oscars in a single night.
  • The soundtrack of "Slumdog Millionaire" was widely acclaimed and played a significant role in the film's global success.

Additional Information

  • AR Rahman:
  • AR Rahman, also known as the "Mozart of Madras," is a renowned Indian composer, singer, and music producer.
  • He has composed music for numerous Indian and international films, earning him multiple awards and accolades.
  • Slumdog Millionaire:
  • Directed by Danny Boyle, "Slumdog Millionaire" is a 2008 British-Indian film that tells the story of a young man from the slums of Mumbai who competes on the Indian version of "Who Wants to Be a Millionaire?"
  • The film was a critical and commercial success, winning eight Academy Awards, including Best Picture and Best Director.
  • Academy Awards:
  • The Academy Awards, also known as the Oscars, are annual awards presented by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences to recognize excellence in cinematic achievements.
  • The awards are considered the most prestigious in the film industry.
  • Best Original Score:
  • This award is presented to the composer of the best original music score written specifically for a film.
  • Best Original Song:
  • This award is presented to the songwriters who have composed the best original song written specifically for a film.
  • The song "Jai Ho" from "Slumdog Millionaire" was composed by AR Rahman, with lyrics by Gulzar.
45

The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called ____________.

  1. ((a))

    electroplating

  2. ((b))

    photocatalysis

  3. ((c))

    photoelectrochemical

  4. ((d))

    electrolysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

electroplating

The correct answer is electroplating.

Key Points

  • Electroplating is a process used to coat the surface of a metal with a thin layer of another metal using an electric current.
  • It is commonly used for decorative purposes, corrosion protection, and to improve wear resistance.
  • The process involves immersing both the item to be plated and the plating metal in an electrolyte solution and applying a current.
  • The plating metal acts as the anode, and the item to be plated acts as the cathode, causing metal ions to move and deposit on the item.
  • Materials commonly used for electroplating include gold, silver, nickel, and chromium.

Additional Information

  • Electrolysis:
  • Electrolysis is a broader term that refers to the decomposition of a substance by passing an electric current through it.
  • It is used in various applications, including electroplating, electrorefining, and electrolysis of water to produce hydrogen and oxygen.
  • Anode and Cathode:
  • In electroplating, the anode is the metal that will be deposited, and the cathode is the item that is being plated.
  • The anode is positively charged, while the cathode is negatively charged.
  • Electrolyte Solution:
  • The electrolyte solution is a liquid that contains ions and conducts electricity, facilitating the movement of metal ions from the anode to the cathode.
  • Common electrolytes include solutions of metal salts, such as copper sulfate for copper plating.
  • Applications of Electroplating:
  • Electroplating is used in various industries, including automotive, jewelry, electronics, and aerospace.
  • It enhances the appearance, durability, and conductivity of the plated items.
46

According to Census of India 2011, in how many States / Union Territories was the female literacy rate recorded more than 90%?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Three

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

One

The correct answer is One

Key Points

  • According to the Census of India 2011, the female literacy rate in one state/union territories was recorded above 90%.
  • The one region with female literacy rates above 90% was Kerala.
  • Kerala had the highest female literacy rate at 92.07%.
  • Mizoram and Lakshadweep followed closely with female literacy rates of 89.27% and 88.25%, respectively.

Additional Information

  • Literacy Rate in India:
  • The overall literacy rate in India as per the Census of 2011 was 74.04%.
  • Male literacy stood at 82.14%, while female literacy was recorded at 65.46%.
  • Kerala's Education System:
  • Kerala is known for its high literacy rates and strong emphasis on education.
  • The state has a robust network of schools and educational institutions.
  • Mizoram's Literacy:
  • Mizoram also ranks high in literacy due to effective educational policies.
  • The state's literacy rate is among the highest in the Northeastern region of India.
  • Female Literacy Initiatives:
  • Various government initiatives have been undertaken to improve female literacy rates, including the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme.
  • Efforts have been made to enhance educational infrastructure and access to education for girls.
47

Which is the following is abolished, and its practice forbidden in any form, according to Article 17 of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Untouchability 

  2. ((b))

    Exploitation

  3. ((c))

    Discrimination

  4. ((d))

    Freedom of speech

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Untouchability 

The correct answer is Untouchability.

Key Points

  • Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • The abolition of untouchability is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution.
  • The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is an offense punishable by law.
  • This Article aims to eradicate social discrimination and promote equality among all citizens of India.
  • It is supported by the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, which prescribes punishments for practices of untouchability.

Additional Information

  • Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
  • This Act was enacted to enforce the provisions of Article 17 of the Constitution.
  • It prescribes penalties for preventing anyone from entering public places or using public facilities due to untouchability.
  • Violators can face imprisonment and fines, ensuring the eradication of untouchability practices.
  • Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
  • This Act provides specific measures to prevent atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • It also addresses issues of discrimination and social injustice faced by these communities.
  • The Act includes provisions for special courts to expedite the trial of offenses under it.
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Part III of the Indian Constitution enshrines the fundamental rights guaranteed to all citizens.
  • These rights include equality before the law, freedom of speech, and protection against discrimination.
  • Article 17 is part of this section, emphasizing the right to equality.
  • Social Equality
  • Social equality refers to a state where all individuals within a society have equal rights and opportunities.
  • Efforts to promote social equality in India include various legal measures and affirmative action policies.
  • These measures aim to uplift marginalized communities and ensure their inclusion in mainstream society.
48

Famous Scholar Al-Biruni wrote Kitab-ul-Hind in ________ language.

  1. ((a))

    Sanskrit

  2. ((b))

    Arabic

  3. ((c))

    Urdu

  4. ((d))

    Persian

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Arabic

The correct answer is 2) Arabic.

Key Points

  • Al-Biruni, a renowned scholar and polymath, wrote the book Kitab-ul-Hind.
  • Kitab-ul-Hind, also known as "The Book of India," was authored in the Arabic language.
  • The book is a comprehensive work on Indian culture, philosophy, science, and social customs.
  • Al-Biruni wrote Kitab-ul-Hind during his time in India in the early 11th century.
  • This work is considered one of the most important sources of information on medieval India.

Additional Information

  • Al-Biruni:
  • Born in 973 CE in Khwarezm (present-day Uzbekistan), Al-Biruni was a Persian scholar.
  • He made significant contributions to various fields, including astronomy, mathematics, and geography.
  • Al-Biruni traveled extensively, including to India, where he studied its culture and traditions.
  • Kitab-ul-Hind:
  • This book is a detailed account of Indian life, covering topics such as religion, science, literature, and customs.
  • It is one of the earliest works by a foreign scholar on Indian society and culture.
  • The book reflects Al-Biruni's deep respect for Indian knowledge and his objective approach to documenting it.
  • Al-Biruni's Methodology:
  • Al-Biruni used a scientific and analytical approach in his studies, emphasizing direct observation and evidence-based conclusions.
  • He learned Sanskrit to understand Indian texts and scriptures better.
  • Historical Significance:
  • Kitab-ul-Hind remains a valuable resource for understanding medieval India from an outsider's perspective.
  • It provides insights into the interaction between Islamic and Indian civilizations during the early medieval period.
49

Lost wax casting technique was used to make _________ statues during Harappan civilisation. 

  1. ((a))

    bronze

  2. ((b))

    marble

  3. ((c))

    wood

  4. ((d))

    rock

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bronze

The correct answer is bronze.

Key Points

  • The lost wax casting technique was primarily used to create bronze statues during the Harappan civilization.
  • This technique involved creating a wax model of the statue, which was then covered in clay to form a mold.
  • The wax was melted and drained away, leaving a hollow mold, into which molten bronze was poured.
  • After the bronze cooled and solidified, the clay mold was broken away to reveal the finished statue.
  • The famous "Dancing Girl" statue found in Mohenjo-Daro is one of the most well-known examples of this technique.

Additional Information

  • Lost Wax Casting Technique:
  • This ancient method is also known as "cire perdue" and has been used for thousands of years.
  • It allows for intricate and detailed designs that are difficult to achieve with other casting methods.
  • The technique was not only used in the Harappan civilization but also in various other ancient cultures around the world.
  • The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro:
  • This statue is about 10.8 cm high and depicts a young woman in a dancing pose.
  • It is one of the earliest known bronze sculptures in the world, dating back to around 2500 BCE.
  • Harappan Civilization:
  • The Harappan civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, flourished around 2600-1900 BCE.
  • It was noted for its advanced urban planning, architecture, and social organization.
  • Bronze Usage in Ancient Times:
  • Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin, known for its strength and durability.
  • It was commonly used for making tools, weapons, and sculptures in ancient civilizations.
50

Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) was launched by the Government of India in _________ .Under this scheme, one can deposit their gold in any form in a GMS account to earn interest as the price of the gold metal goes up.

  1. ((a))

    2005

  2. ((b))

    2015

  3. ((c))

    2020

  4. ((d))

    2010

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • The Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) was launched by the Government of India in November 2015.
  • Under this scheme, individuals and institutions can deposit their gold in any form and earn interest on it as the price of gold appreciates.
  • The scheme aims to mobilize idle gold lying with households and institutions and put it to productive use.
  • Deposits can be made for short-term (1-3 years), medium-term (5-7 years), and long-term (12-15 years).
  • Interest earned on gold deposits is exempt from capital gains tax, wealth tax, and income tax.

Additional Information

  • Eligibility: The scheme is available to individuals, HUFs (Hindu Undivided Families), trusts, and companies.
  • Process: Gold can be deposited in the form of bars, coins, or jewellery, which is then melted and assayed to determine purity and weight.
  • Redemption: On maturity, the depositor can redeem the principal either in gold or its cash equivalent, along with the interest accrued.
  • Security: The gold deposited under the scheme is kept secure in the vaults of banks and is fully insured.
  • Objectives: The scheme aims to reduce India's reliance on gold imports, provide a fillip to the gems and jewellery sector, and bring down the current account deficit.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

GMU, IKW, KIY, MGA, ?

  1. ((a))

    OEC

  2. ((b))

    OIC

  3. ((c))

    OEB

  4. ((d))

    OCI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

OEC

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

52

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

512, 490, 468, 446, 424, ?

  1. ((a))

    402

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    399

  4. ((d))

    396

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

402

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

53

Seven people - A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of B. Only three people sit between G and B. D sits second to the right of A. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. E sits to the immediate right of F. Who among the following sits at the extreme left end of the line?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

Given: Seven people - A, B, C, D, E, F and G - are sitting in a straight row, facing north. 

1) Only two people sit to the left of B.

2) Only three people sit between G and B.

3) D sits second to the right of A.

4) D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

5) E sits to the immediate right of F.

After positioning E and F only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. C.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, F sits at the extreme left end of the line.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

54

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

55

In a certain code language, ‘WONDER’ is written as ‘KLTWCI’ and 'SPRING' is written as 'OKPRTT'. How will ‘PLAYER’ be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    RTLSUX

  2. ((b))

    ROGBCI

  3. ((c))

    RPLSWZ

  4. ((d))

    RBOICG

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ROGBCI

The logic followed here is:

‘WONDER’ is written as ‘KLTWCI’

And,

'SPRING' is written as 'OKPRTT'

Similarly,

‘PLAYER’ is written as

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

56

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

57

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its consttuent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(184, 23), (264, 33)

  1. ((a))

    (376, 47) 

  2. ((b))

    (270, 39) 

  3. ((c))

    (341, 41)

  4. ((d))

    (250, 36) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(376, 47) 

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number ÷ 8 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 184 : 23

⇒ (184 ÷ 8) = 23.

For, 264 : 33

⇒ (264 ÷ 8) = 33.

Similarly, for 376 : ?

⇒ (376 ÷ 8) = 47.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

58

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All potatoes are vegetables

All carrots are vegetables. 

Conclusions:

I. Some carrots are potatoes.

II. All vegetables are carrots.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some carrots are potatoes → Does not follow (As all potatoes are vegetables and all carrots are vegetables. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. All vegetables are carrots → Does not follow (As all carrots are vegetables. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is not allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the option figure 1 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

60

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Find the number on the face opposite to the one showing '6'.

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 1 is common on both the dices figure 1 and figure 2, it is clear that 2, 4, 6, and 5 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 3 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

2 → 5

4 → 6

1 → 4

So, the opposite side of "6" will be side "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

61

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46

  1. ((a))

    ×, ÷ , + , – , =

  2. ((b))
    • , ÷ ,×, – , =
  3. ((c))

    – , ÷ , + , ×, =

  4. ((d))

    – , ÷ , ×, + , =

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

– , ÷ , ×, + , =

Given: 36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) ×, ÷ , + , – , = 

36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46 ⇒ 36 × 16 ÷ 4 + 20 - 90 = 46

⇒ 36 × 16 ÷ 4 + 20 - 90 = 46

⇒ 36 × 4 + 20 - 90 = 46

144 + 20 - 90 = 46

164 - 90 = 46

⇒ 74 ≠ 46 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) + , ÷ ,×, – , =

36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46 ⇒ 36 + 16 ÷ 4 × 20 - 90 = 46

⇒ 36 + 16 ÷ 4 × 20 - 90 = 46

⇒ 36 + 4 × 20 - 90 = 46

⇒ 36 + 80 - 90 = 46

116 - 90 = 46

⇒ 26 ≠ 46 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) – , ÷ , + , ×, =

36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46 ⇒ 36 - 16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 90 = 46

⇒ 36 - 16 ÷ 4 + 20 × 90 = 46

⇒ 36 - 4 + 20 × 90 = 46

⇒ 36 + 1800 - 4 = 46

⇒ 1836 - 4 = 46

⇒ 1832 ≠ 46 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) – , ÷ , ×, + , =

36 * 16 * 4 * 20 * 90 * 46 ⇒ 36 - 16 ÷ 4 × 20 + 90 = 46

⇒ 36 - 16 ÷ 4 × 20 + 90 = 46

⇒ 36 - 4 × 20 + 90 = 46

⇒ 36 + 90 - 80 = 46

⇒ 126 - 80 = 46

⇒ 46 = 46 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

62

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

1) The number of element is increasing subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

63

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

1) Number of triangles = [Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2

= [2 × (1 + 2)] ÷ 2

= [2 × 3] ÷ 2

= 6 ÷ 2

= 3

As there are 3 same types of triangles, therefore total number of triangles will be (3 × 4) = 12 

2) Number of triangles = 4

Thus, there are a total of (12 + 4) = 16 triangles.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

64

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure that will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

65

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series →

The center element is replaced by new element.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

  1. Second box series → 

The 2nd column elements shift anticlockwise in the downward direction subsequently.

The 1st column elements shift to the 3rd column diagonally.

The 3rd column elements shift to the 1st column at the same position.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

66

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

67

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

68

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

69

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.

KFCZ : HLZF :: LVEG : IBBM :: PROD : ?

  1. ((a))

    MXLJ

  2. ((b))

    IHEX

  3. ((c))

    IBNX

  4. ((d))

    MKXJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MXLJ

The logic followed here is:

KFCZ : HLZF

And,

LVEG : IBBM

Similarly,

PROD : ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

70

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160

  1. ((a))

    ×, ÷ , – , + , =

  2. ((b))
    • , ÷ , ×, – , =
  3. ((c))

    ÷ , ×, – , + , =

  4. ((d))

    – , ÷ , ×, + , = 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))
  • , ÷ , ×, – , =

Given: 60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) ×, ÷ , – , + , =

60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160 ⇒ 60 × 40 ÷ 10 - 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 × 40 ÷ 10 - 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 × 4 - 50 + 100 = 160

240 + 100 - 50 = 160

⇒ 340 - 50 = 160

⇒ 290 ≠ 160 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) + , ÷ , ×, – , =

60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160 ⇒ 60 + 40 ÷ 10 × 50 - 100 = 160

⇒ 60 + 40 ÷ 10 × 50 - 100 = 160

⇒ 60 + 4 × 50 - 100 = 160

⇒ 60 + 200 - 100 = 160

260 - 100 = 160

⇒ 160 = 160 (LHS = RHS)

Option  3) ÷ , ×, – , + , =

60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160 ⇒ 60 ÷ 40 × 10 - 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 ÷ 40 × 10 - 50 + 100 = 160

1.5 × 10 - 50 + 100 = 160

15 + 100 - 50 = 160

⇒ 115 - 50 = 160

⇒ 65 ≠ 160 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) – , ÷ , ×, + , =

60 * 40 * 10 * 50 * 100 * 160 ⇒ 60 - 40 ÷ 10 × 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 - 40 ÷ 10 × 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 - 4 × 50 + 100 = 160

⇒ 60 + 100 - 200 = 160

⇒ 160 - 200 = 160

⇒ -40 = 160 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

71

Six numbers, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, are written on the different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown (Figures 1-3). Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing ‘2’.

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 2 is common on both the dices figure 1 and figure 2, it is clear that 1, 5, 6, and 3 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 4 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 6

5 → 3

2 → 4

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

72

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

73

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series:

The 1st column elements shift to the 3rd column. 

The 2nd column elements shift clockwise in the downward direction subsequently.

The 3rd column elements shift to the 1st column diagonally. 

The last element of 3rd column is replaced by new element.

  1. Second box series:

The 3rd column element and center element shift anticlockwise.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

74

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

75

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

15 : 135 :: 13 : ? :: 24 : 216

  1. ((a))

    121

  2. ((b))

    117

  3. ((c))

    104

  4. ((d))

    91

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

117

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 9 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 15 : 135

⇒ 15 × 9 = 135.

For, 24 : 216

⇒ 24 × 9 = 216.

Similarly, for 13 ∶ ?

⇒ 13 × 9 = 117.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

Find the sum of all those prime numbers which are less than 28. 

  1. ((a))

    97

  2. ((b))

    120

  3. ((c))

    110

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

100

Shortcut Trick

List the prime numbers less than 28: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.

Group the numbers to simplify the addition: (2 + 3 + 5) + (7 + 13) + (11 + 19) + (17 + 23).

Step 1: 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 = 100.

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Alternate Method

Given: We need to find the sum of all prime numbers smaller than 28.

Definition: A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

⇒ Identify prime numbers between 1 and 28: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.

⇒ Sum = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + 19 + 23

⇒ Sum = (2 + 3 + 5) + (7 + 11 + 13) + (17 + 19 + 23)

⇒ Sum = 10 + 31 + 59

⇒ Sum = 100.

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Additional Information

Definition of Prime Numbers

Numbers that have exactly two factors, 1 and the number itself. Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11...

Even Prime Number

2 is the only even prime number and it is the smallest prime number.

Composite Numbers

Numbers having more than two factors are called composite numbers. 1 is neither prime nor composite.

Twin Primes

Pairs of prime numbers that have a difference of 2 are called twin primes (e.g., 3 and 5, 5 and 7).

77

0.630.\overline{63} expressed in the form pq\frac{p}{q} equals:

  1. ((a))

    911\frac{9}{11}

  2. ((b))

    311\frac{3}{11}

  3. ((c))

    711\frac{7}{11}

  4. ((d))

    611\frac{6}{11}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

711\frac{7}{11}

Given:

Repeating decimal: 0.630.\overline{63}

Calculation:

Let x = 0.636363...

Multiply by 100:

100x = 63.636363...

Subtract x from 100x:

100x - x = 63.636363... - 0.636363...

99x = 63

⇒ x = 63 / 99 = 7 / 11

0.63 expressed in the form p/q is 7/11.

78

Select the correct statement.

  1. ((a))

    Loss% = SPCPCP×100\rm \frac{SP-CP}{CP}\times 100

  2. ((b))

    Profit% = SPCPCP×100\rm \frac{SP-CP}{CP}\times 100

  3. ((c))

    Profit% = CPSPCP×100\rm \frac{CP-SP}{CP}\times 100

  4. ((d))

    Loss% = SP+CPCP×100\rm \frac{SP+CP}{CP}\times 100

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Profit% = SPCPCP×100\rm \frac{SP-CP}{CP}\times 100

Given:

Formulas for Loss% and Profit%

Formula used:

Profit = Selling Price (SP) - Cost Price (CP)

Loss = Cost Price (CP) - Selling Price (SP)

Profit% = (Profit / CP) × 100

Loss% = (Loss / CP) × 100

Calculation:

  1. Analyze each statement:

1) Loss% = (SP - CP) / CP × 100

This formula is incorrect.

Loss% should be (CP - SP) / CP × 100.

2) Profit% = (SP - CP) / CP × 100

This formula is correct.

Profit% = (Profit / CP) × 100, and Profit = SP - CP.

3) Profit% = (CP - SP) / CP × 100

This formula is incorrect.

Profit% should be (SP - CP) / CP × 100.

4) Loss% = (SP + CP) / CP × 100

This formula is incorrect.

Loss% should be (CP - SP) / CP × 100.

∴ The correct statement is: Profit% = (SP - CP) / CP × 100

79

Let x = 65\frac{6}{5}, then arrange the numbers 6x, 376\frac{37}{6} , 6 - x and 5 + x in ascending order.

  1. ((a))

    6 - x, 376\frac{37}{6}, 5 + x, 6x

  2. ((b))

    6 - x, 5 + x, 6x, 376\frac{37}{6}

  3. ((c))

    6 - x, 5 + x, 376\frac{37}{6}, 6x

  4. ((d))

    6 - x, 376\frac{37}{6}, 6x, 5 + x

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6 - x, 376\frac{37}{6}, 5 + x, 6x

Given:

x = 6/5

Numbers: 6x, 37/6, 6 - x, 5 + x

Calculation:

6x = 6 × (6/5) = 36/5 = 7.2

6 - x = 6 - (6/5) = (30/5) - (6/5) = 24/5 = 4.8

5 + x = 5 + (6/5) = (25/5) + (6/5) = 31/5 = 6.2

37/6 = 6.1666...

The numbers are in ascending order:

4.8 < 6.1666... < 6.2 < 7.2

24/5 < 37/6 < 31/5 < 36/5

6 - x < 37/6 < 5 + x < 6x

∴ The ascending order is: 6 - x, 37/6, 5 + x, 6x.

80

The LCM of 910,1215,1835,2140\frac{9}{10}, \frac{12}{15}, \frac{18}{35}, \frac{21}{40} is:

  1. ((a))

    1009\frac{100}{9}

  2. ((b))

    2525\frac{252}{5}

  3. ((c))

    9100\frac{9}{100}

  4. ((d))

    1517\frac{151}{7}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2525\frac{252}{5}

Given:

Fractions: 9/10, 12/15, 18/35, 21/40

Formula used:

LCM of fractions = (LCM of numerators) / (HCF of denominators)

Calculation:

LCM of the numerators (9, 12, 18, 21):

9 = 3 × 3

12 = 2 × 2 × 3

18 = 2 × 3 × 3

21 = 3 × 7

LCM(9, 12, 18, 21) = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 = 252

HCF of the denominators (10, 15, 35, 40):

10 = 2 × 5

15 = 3 × 5

35 = 5 × 7

40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5

HCF(10, 15, 35, 40) = 5

LCM of the fractions is,

LCM = (LCM of numerators) / (HCF of denominators)

LCM = 252 / 5

The LCM of 9/10, 12/15, 18/35, 21/40 is 252/5.

81

The sum of money A initially had was 20% less than the sum of money B had. If B gave 16% of her money to her brother, by what percentage should A’s sum increase so that A and B finally have identical amounts?

  1. ((a))

    4.5%

  2. ((b))

    5%

  3. ((c))

    4%

  4. ((d))

    6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5%

Given:

A's money is 20% less than B's money.

B gives 16% of her money to her brother.

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part / Whole) × 100

Calculation:

Let B's initial money be 100x.

A's initial money is 20% less than B's:

A's money = 100x - (20/100) × 100x = 100x - 20x = 80x

B gives 16% of her money to her brother:

Money given = (16/100) × 100x = 16x

B's remaining money = 100x - 16x = 84x

For A and B to have identical amounts, A's money should be 84x.

Increase in A's money:

Increase = 84x - 80x = 4x

Percentage increase in A's money = (Increase / A's initial money) × 100

Percentage increase = (4x / 80x) × 100

Percentage increase = (1/20) × 100

Percentage increase = 5%

∴ A's sum should increase by 5%.

82

A, B and C can do a piece of work in 10 days, 20 days and 40 days, respectively. On the first day A is assisted by B, and on the second day C assists A. This 2-day cycle is repeated starting with A and B, till the work gets completed. How long (in whole number of days) would it take to complete the work?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8

Given:

A can do the work in 10 days.

B can do the work in 20 days.

C can do the work in 40 days.

First day: A and B work together.

Second day: A and C work together.

Formula used:

Total work = LCM of the number of days

Work done per day = Total work / Number of days

Calculation:

LCM(10, 20, 40) = 40

Let the total work be 40 units.

A's work per day = 40 / 10 = 4 units

B's work per day = 40 / 20 = 2 units

C's work per day = 40 / 40 = 1 unit

Work done on the first day (A and B):

Work done (A + B) = 4 + 2 = 6 units

Work done on the second day (A and C):

Work done (A + C) = 4 + 1 = 5 units

Work done in the 2-day cycle:

Work done (2 days) = 6 + 5 = 11 units

2-day cycles are needed:

Number of cycles = 40 / 11 = 3.63...

So, 3 full cycles are completed.

Work done in 3 cycles (6 days):

Work done (6 days) = 3 × 11 = 33 units

Remaining work = 40 - 33 = 7 units

Work done on the 7th day (A and B):

Work done (A + B) = 6 units

Remaining work = 7 - 6 = 1 unit

Work done on the 8th day (A and C):

Work done (A + C) = 5 units

Since only 1 unit of work remains, A and C will complete it.

Fraction of 8th day needed = 1/5

Total days to complete the work:

6 days + 1 day + 1/5 day = 7 and 1/5 days.

Since we need the whole number of days, the work will be completed in 8 days.

It would take 8 days to complete the work.

83

Find the compound interest (in ₹) on ₹24,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years?

  1. ((a))

    7044

  2. ((b))

    7200

  3. ((c))

    7494

  4. ((d))

    7944

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7944

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹24,000

Rate (r) = 10% per annum

Time (t) = 3 years

Formula used:

Amount (A) = P × (1 + r/100)t

Compound Interest (CI) = Amount (A) - Principal (P)

Calculation:

A = 24000 × (1 + 10/100)3

A = 24000 × (1 + 0.1)3

A = 24000 × (1.1)3

A = 24000 × 1.331 = 31944

Now,

CI = A - P

CI = 31944 - 24000

CI = 7944

∴ The compound interest is ₹7944.

84

The vertical height of a conical tent is 42 decimetre and the diameter of its base is 5.4 m. Find the number of persons it can accommodate if each person is to be allowed 2,673 cu. decimetre of space. (Use π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

Given:

Vertical height of conical tent (h) = 42 decimeters

Diameter of base (d) = 5.4 meters

Space per person = 2673 cubic decimeters

Formula used:

Volume of cone (V) = (1/3) × π × r2 × h

Number of persons = Volume of cone / Space per person

Calculation:

1 meter = 10 decimeters

5.4 meters = 5.4 × 10 = 54 decimeters

r = d / 2 = 54 / 2 = 27 decimeters

Volume of the cone:

V = (1/3) × (22/7) × (27)2 × 42

V = (1/3) × (22/7) × 729 × 42

V = 22 × 243 × 6 = 32076 cubic decimeters

Now, Number of persons = V / Space per person

Number of persons = 32076 / 2673 = 12

∴ The conical tent can accommodate 12 persons.

85

The area of a right triangle is 48 m2 and one of the two sides containing the right angle is 8 m long. What is the length (in m) of the other side containing the right angle?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

Given:

Area of right triangle = 48 m2

One side containing right angle = 8 m

Formula used:

Area of a right triangle = (1/2) × base × height

Calculation:

Let the other side containing the right angle be 'x' meters.

Substitute the given values into the formula:

48 = (1/2) × 8 × x

48 = 4 × x

x = 48 / 4 = 12

∴ The length of the other side containing the right angle is 12 m.

86

A shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on an article and gains 15%. Calculate the marked price of an article which he purchased for₹1,350.

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,450

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,550

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,630

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,725

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹1,725

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1350

Discount = 10%

Gain = 15%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + Gain/100)

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

Selling price (SP):

SP = 1350 × (1 + 15/100)

SP = 1350 × (1 + 0.15)

SP = 1350 × 1.15 = ₹1552.50

Let the marked price (MP) be x.

SP = MP × (1 - Discount/100)

1552.50 = x × (1 - 10/100)

1552.50 = x × (1 - 0.1)

1552.50 = x × 0.9

x = 1552.50 / 0.9

x = 1725

∴ The marked price of the article is ₹1725.

87

If the income of P is 25% less than Q, then the combined income of P and Q is what percentage more than P?

  1. ((a))

    75%

  2. ((b))

    133.33%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    125%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

133.33%

Given:

P's income is 25% less than Q's income.

Formula used:

Percentage increase = (Difference / Original value) × 100

Calculation:

Let Q's income be 100x.

P's income = 100x - (25/100) × 100x = 100x - 25x = 75x

Combined income of P and Q:

Combined income = 75x + 100x = 175x

Difference between the combined income and P's income:

Difference = 175x - 75x = 100x

Percentage more than P = (Difference / P's income) × 100

⇒ (100x / 75x) × 100 = (4/3) × 100 = 400/3 %

Percentage more than P = 133.33%

∴ The combined income of P and Q is 133.33% more than P.

88

The average of 24, 39 and y is 33. What is the value of y?

  1. ((a))

    37

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

36

Given:

Numbers: 24, 39, y

Average = 33

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / (Number of numbers)

Calculation:

33 = (24 + 39 + y) / 3

⇒ 33 × 3 = 24 + 39 + y

⇒ 99 = 63 + y

⇒ y = 99 - 63 = 36

∴ The value of y is 36.

89

Ramu takes 1 hour 20 minutes in walking a distance and riding back to the starting place. He could walk both ways in 2 hours 30 minutes. The time taken by him to ride back both ways is:

  1. ((a))

    22 minutes

  2. ((b))

    20 minutes

  3. ((c))

    18 minutes

  4. ((d))

    10 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 minutes

Given:

Walk + Ride = 1 hour 20 minutes = 80 minutes

Walk + Walk = 2 hours 30 minutes = 150 minutes

Formula used:

Ride + Ride = 2 x (Walk + Ride) - (Walk + Walk)

Calculation:

Walk + Ride = 1 hour 20 minutes = 80 minutes

2 x (Walk + Ride) = 2 x 80 minutes = 160 minutes

Walk + Walk = 2 hours 30 minutes = 150 minutes

Ride + Ride = 2 x (Walk + Ride) - (Walk + Walk)

Ride + Ride = 160 minutes - 150 minutes

Ride + Ride = 10 minutes

∴ The time taken by him to ride back both ways is 10 minutes.

90

Radha invested a certain sum on simple interest, which will amount to ₹16,200 in 3 years and to ₹17,400 in 4 years. Find the sum she invested.

  1. ((a))

    ₹11,400 

  2. ((b))

    ₹14,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹12,600

  4. ((d))

    ₹13,800

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹12,600

Given:

Amount after 3 years = ₹16,200

Amount after 4 years = ₹17,400

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × r × t) / 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculation:

SI for 1 year = ₹17,400 - ₹16,200 = ₹1,200

SI for 3 years = 3 × ₹1,200 = ₹3,600

Principal (P) = Amount after 3 years - SI for 3 years

P = ₹16,200 - ₹3,600

P = ₹12,600

∴ The sum she invested is ₹12,600.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which is the correct syntax for writing SUMIF() function in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    SUMIF(criteria) 

  2. ((b))

    SUMIF(range, criteria, [sum_range])

  3. ((c))

    SUMIF(range, criteria)

  4. ((d))

    SUMIF(range)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

SUMIF(range, criteria, [sum_range])

The correct answer is SUMIF(range, criteria, [sum_range]).

Key Points

  • The SUMIF function in MS Excel is used to sum the values in a range that meet specific criteria.
  • The correct syntax is SUMIF(range, criteria, [sum_range]).
  • The "range" is the group of cells you want to apply the criteria to.
  • The "criteria" defines the condition that must be met for the cells to be included in the sum.
  • The "[sum_range]" is optional and specifies the actual cells to add if different from the range.

Additional Information

  • SUMIFS Function
  • The SUMIFS function allows for multiple criteria to be applied, using the syntax SUMIFS(sum_range, criteria_range1, criteria1, [criteria_range2, criteria2], ...).
  • It sums the values in a range that meet multiple criteria.
  • Example Usage
  • To sum the values in cells A1 to A10 that are greater than 100, you would use: =SUMIF(A1:A10, ">100").
  • To sum the values in cells B1 to B10 where the corresponding cells in A1 to A10 are "Apples", you would use: =SUMIF(A1:A10, "Apples", B1:B10).
  • Common Errors
  • #VALUE! error occurs if the criteria argument is not valid.
  • If sum_range and range are not the same size, SUMIF will return incorrect results.
  • Comparison with SUM Function
  • The SUM function simply adds up values without any criteria, using the syntax SUM(number1, [number2], ...).
  • SUMIF provides conditional summing capabilities, making it more versatile for data analysis.
92

_________ is used to describe the page direction in which the contents of the page are to be displayed or printed in MS Word 365.

  1. ((a))

    Columns

  2. ((b))

    Page margin 

  3. ((c))

    Page orientation

  4. ((d))

    Page size

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Page orientation

The correct answer is Page orientation.

Key Points

  • Page orientation in MS Word 365 determines the direction in which a document is displayed or printed.
  • There are two types of page orientations: Portrait and Landscape.
  • Portrait orientation is taller than it is wide, commonly used for letters and documents.
  • Landscape orientation is wider than it is tall, often used for spreadsheets and presentations.
  • You can change the page orientation by navigating to the Layout tab and selecting the desired option.

Additional Information

  • Page Margin:
  • The blank space around the edges of the page, which can be adjusted to make room for headers, footers, and binding.
  • Page Size:
  • Refers to the dimensions of the paper being used, such as A4, Letter, Legal, etc.
  • Columns:
  • Used to split text into multiple vertical sections, often used in newspapers and magazines.
  • Header and Footer:
  • Sections at the top and bottom of the page where you can add text or graphics that will appear on every page, such as page numbers, titles, or dates.
93

Which of the following is used to move a selected text from one place to another in MS word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Cut-Copy

  2. ((b))

    Cut-Paste

  3. ((c))

    Copy-Copy

  4. ((d))

    Copy-Paste

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cut-Paste

The correct answer is Cut-Paste.

Key Points

  • The "Cut" command in MS Word removes the selected text from its original location.
  • The "Paste" command inserts the cut text into the new location where the cursor is placed.
  • This functionality helps in efficiently moving text within a document without the need for retyping.
  • Keyboard shortcuts for Cut (Ctrl + X) and Paste (Ctrl + V) can speed up the process.
  • Cut-Paste ensures that the text is moved rather than duplicated, unlike Copy-Paste which duplicates the text.

Additional Information

  • Clipboard: The temporary storage area where cut or copied text is stored before it is pasted.
  • Undo and Redo: Commands that allow users to revert or reapply the last action, enhancing editing flexibility.
  • Drag and Drop: An alternative method to move text by dragging it with the mouse to a new location.
  • Formatting Preservation: When text is cut and pasted, MS Word retains the formatting of the text.
  • Context Menu: Right-clicking on selected text provides options for Cut, Copy, and Paste among other editing commands.
94

Which Internet access technique uses the existing cable television infrastructure to provide high-speed Internet access to users?

  1. ((a))

    Cable Internet

  2. ((b))

    DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)

  3. ((c))

    Dial-up

  4. ((d))

    Fiber-optic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cable Internet

The correct answer is 1) Cable Internet.

Key Points

  • Cable Internet utilizes the existing cable television infrastructure to provide high-speed Internet access to users.
  • It operates by transmitting data over the coaxial cables that are used for cable television services.
  • The service is typically provided by cable television operators who offer bundled packages that include both television and Internet services.
  • Cable modems are used to connect the user's device to the cable network, enabling Internet access.
  • This technology offers high-speed data transfer rates, making it suitable for activities such as streaming, gaming, and large file downloads.

Additional Information

  • DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)
  • DSL is a family of technologies that provide Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network.
  • Unlike cable Internet, DSL operates on existing telephone lines and does not share bandwidth with neighbors.
  • Dial-up
  • Dial-up Internet access is a form of Internet access that uses the facilities of the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to establish a connection to an Internet service provider (ISP).
  • It is significantly slower than both DSL and cable Internet.
  • Fiber-optic Internet
  • Fiber-optic Internet uses fiber-optic cables to transmit data at very high speeds, often faster than both DSL and cable Internet.
  • It provides a more stable and reliable connection with higher bandwidth.
  • Coaxial Cables
  • Coaxial cables are a type of electrical cable consisting of a central conductor, an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer.
  • They are commonly used for cable television and Internet services due to their ability to carry high-frequency signals with low interference.
95

Which of the following is a unique identifier for each user, typically in the format of [email protected]?

  1. ((a))

    Password

  2. ((b))

    Email server

  3. ((c))

    Email address

  4. ((d))

    Email client 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Email address

The correct answer is 3) Email address.

Key Points

  • An email address is a unique identifier for each user, typically in the format of [email protected].
  • Email addresses are used to send and receive electronic messages over the internet.
  • They consist of two main parts: the local part (before the @ symbol) and the domain part (after the @ symbol).
  • The domain part usually represents the email service provider, such as gmail.com or yahoo.com.
  • Each email address must be unique to ensure that messages are delivered to the correct recipient.

Additional Information

  • Local Part
  • The local part of an email address can include letters, numbers, and certain special characters such as periods, underscores, and hyphens.
  • It is case-insensitive, meaning [email protected] and [email protected] are considered the same.
  • Domain Part
  • The domain part follows the @ symbol and typically represents the email service provider's domain name.
  • Common domains include gmail.com, yahoo.com, and outlook.com.
  • It can also include custom domains, such as yourcompany.com.
  • Email Protocols
  • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send emails.
  • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 (Post Office Protocol) are used to retrieve emails from a server.
  • Email Clients
  • Email clients are software applications used to access and manage a user's email. Examples include Microsoft Outlook, Mozilla Thunderbird, and Apple Mail.
96

Which of the following tabs in the MS Word 365, ribbon has the Spelling and Grammar option?

  1. ((a))

    Review

  2. ((b))

    Layout

  3. ((c))

    Insert 

  4. ((d))

    Edit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Review

The correct answer is Review.

Key Points

  • The "Review" tab in MS Word 365 contains tools for checking spelling and grammar in a document.
  • Users can access the Spelling & Grammar option to identify and correct spelling and grammatical errors.
  • This feature helps in enhancing the quality and professionalism of the document by ensuring it is error-free.
  • The Review tab also includes other tools like Track Changes, Comments, and Compare for collaborative editing and review.

Additional Information

  • Track Changes:
  • This feature allows users to see the edits made to a document by different reviewers, making it easier to review and accept or reject changes.
  • Comments:
  • Users can insert comments in the document to provide feedback or notes without altering the actual text.
  • Thesaurus:
  • The Thesaurus tool in the Review tab helps users find synonyms and antonyms, enhancing vocabulary and writing style.
  • Word Count:
  • This tool provides a quick count of words, characters, paragraphs, and pages, useful for meeting word limits and other formatting requirements.
97

In MS Excel 365, which option in Microsoft Excel allows you to move the selected text or cells to a different worksheet or workbook?

  1. ((a))

    Paint

  2. ((b))

    Copy

  3. ((c))

    Move

  4. ((d))

    Cut

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cut

The correct answer is Cut.

Key Points

  • The "Cut" option in MS Excel 365 allows you to move the selected text or cells to a different location, including different worksheets or workbooks.
  • When you use the "Cut" command, the selected data is removed from its original location and placed on the clipboard.
  • You can then use the "Paste" command to insert the cut data into the desired new location.
  • This functionality helps in organizing and managing large datasets by allowing easy transfer of data between different sections of your workbook or even different workbooks.

Additional Information

  • Copy vs. Cut:
  • While the "Copy" command duplicates the data, the "Cut" command removes the data from its original location.
  • Both "Copy" and "Cut" place the selected data on the clipboard, from where it can be pasted elsewhere.
  • Clipboard:
  • The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
  • Excel's clipboard can hold multiple items, allowing you to paste any of them when needed.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts:
  • The keyboard shortcut for "Cut" is Ctrl+X.
  • For "Copy," it is Ctrl+C, and for "Paste," it is Ctrl+V.
  • Moving Data Across Sheets:
  • You can move data across different sheets within the same workbook by cutting the data from one sheet and pasting it into another.
  • To move data between different workbooks, both workbooks need to be open in Excel.
98

In MS Excel 365, what is the shortcut to move to the last cell on a worksheet, to the lowest used row of the rightmost used column? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Home

  2. ((b))

    Shift + Home

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + End

  4. ((d))

    Shift + End

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + End

The correct answer is Ctrl + End.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + End is used to move to the last cell on a worksheet, to the lowest used row of the rightmost used column.
  • It helps users quickly navigate to the end of the data, which is useful for large worksheets.
  • This shortcut works in all versions of Excel, including Excel 365.
  • It ensures that users can efficiently manage and analyze data by quickly reaching the end of the data set.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + Home: This shortcut moves the cursor to the beginning of the worksheet (cell A1).
  • Shift + Home: This shortcut is used to extend the selection of cells to the beginning of the row.
  • Ctrl + Shift + End: This shortcut extends the selection of cells to the last used cell on the worksheet (lower-right corner).
  • Shift + End: This shortcut extends the selection of cells to the last cell in the current row that contains data.
  • Using these shortcuts can greatly enhance productivity and efficiency when working with large datasets in Excel.
99

What is the primary purpose of creating a table in Microsoft Word 365?

  1. ((a))

     For enhancing the page layout and margins

  2. ((b))

    For organising and presenting information in rows and columns

  3. ((c))

    For adding decorative elements to the document 

  4. ((d))

    For applying font styles and colours to text

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

For organising and presenting information in rows and columns

The correct answer is For organising and presenting information in rows and columns.

Key Points

  • Tables in Microsoft Word 365 are used primarily for organising and presenting data systematically in rows and columns.
  • This feature helps in structuring information clearly and concisely, making it easy to read and understand.
  • Tables can be utilized for a variety of purposes including data comparison, schedules, and listings.
  • They provide a visual framework that enhances the readability of complex data.
  • Microsoft Word 365 offers a range of table templates and customization options to suit different needs.

Additional Information

  • Table Tools:
  • Microsoft Word 365 includes Table Tools such as Design and Layout tabs to customize the appearance and structure of tables.
  • Users can add or delete rows and columns, merge cells, and apply different styles and shading for better visualization.
  • Data Alignment:
  • Tables allow for precise data alignment, including left, center, and right alignment within cells.
  • Content can also be aligned vertically to improve the presentation of data.
  • Sorting and Filtering:
  • Tables can be sorted and filtered to organize data in a meaningful order, such as alphabetical or numerical order.
  • This makes it easier to analyze and interpret large sets of data.
  • Formulas and Calculations:
  • Tables in Word 365 support basic formulas and calculations to automate data processing.
  • Users can perform functions such as sum, average, and count directly within the table cells.
  • Integration with Excel:
  • Tables in Word can be linked to or embedded from Excel spreadsheets for advanced data manipulation and analysis.
  • This integration allows users to leverage Excel's powerful data tools while maintaining the formatting and layout of Word documents.
100

Where is the Help button located in MS-Word 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Lower left corner

  2. ((b))

    Top left corner

  3. ((c))

    Lower right corner 

  4. ((d))

    Top right corner 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Top right corner 

The correct answer is Top right corner.

Key Points

  • The Help button in MS-Word 2010 is located in the top right corner of the window.
  • It is symbolized by a question mark (?) icon.
  • Clicking this button opens the Word Help window where users can search for assistance on various features and issues.
  • The Help button provides access to the Microsoft Office Help system, which includes articles, tutorials, and troubleshooting tips.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Office Help System:
  • The help system is an integrated feature in Microsoft Office applications, providing detailed documentation and support.
  • Users can access help topics, how-to guides, and troubleshooting tips for various features and functionalities.
  • F1 Key:
  • Pressing the F1 key on the keyboard also opens the Help window in MS-Word 2010.
  • This shortcut is a quick way to access help without navigating to the Help button.
  • Online Support:
  • In addition to the built-in help system, users can access the Microsoft Office website for more comprehensive support.
  • The website includes forums, community discussions, and official support channels for troubleshooting.
  • Ribbon Interface:
  • MS-Word 2010 features a Ribbon interface, where tools and commands are organized into tabs for ease of use.
  • The Help button is consistently located in the top right corner across all tabs, ensuring easy access at all times.

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