Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 22 Nov, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is the Right to Education.

Key Points

• There are six fundamental rights enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the constitution of India.
• Fundamental rights apply universally to all citizens, irrespective of race, birthplace, religion, caste or gender.
• Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides the Right to Education.
• The RTE Act of the Parliament of India was enacted on 4 August 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010.
• The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Additional Information

• The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution are-

The correct answer is TH Vinayakram

Key Points

• T. H. Vinayakram, also known as Vikku Vinayakram, was the first South Indian musician to win a Grammy for Best World Music Album.
• He is known as the 'Master of Ghatam'.
• Mysterium Tremendum is an album by the Mickey Hart Band and this music is played along with what Hart has called 'cosmic sounds'. These sounds were created by electromagnetic radiations given by Sun, moon, etc and this sound was transformed by using computers.
• At the Edge is a band from South California.

Additional Information

• Planet of Drum is an American group of Drum and Bass artists.
• This group was founded in the summer of 2000.
• The Planet of the Drums created dramatic science fiction-style audio.
• This is a music album by Mickey Hart.
• The concept of this group was to play drum music with percussionists from different parts of the world to produce musical styles and traditions into the sound.
• Planet of drums is a two-time grammy award-winning group.

The correct answer is GDP at market price + Net factor income from abroad

Key Points

• Gross National Product (GNP) at market price is calculated by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market price.
• **Formula:**GNP at Market Price=GDP at Market Price+Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA)​
• where NFIA includes the difference between income earned by a country's residents from abroad and income earned by foreign residents within the country.
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) at Market Price:
• It represents the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given time period.
• It includes both domestic and foreign companies operating within the country.
• GNP (Gross National Product) at Market Price:
• It includes the total value of goods and services produced by the residents (nationals) of a country, irrespective of whether they are inside or outside the country.
• It considers income earned by the country's residents abroad and excludes income earned by foreigners within the country.
• Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA):
• It is the difference between income received from abroad by residents (wages, profits, interest, dividends) and income paid to foreigners working or investing in the domestic economy.
• NFIA = Income earned by residents abroad − Income earned by foreigners in the domestic country

Additional Information

• GDP at market price − Depreciation
• This gives Net Domestic Product (NDP) at market price
• NDP at factor cost + Net factor income from abroad
• ​it is based on NDP (Net Domestic Product) at factor cost, whereas GNP is calculated from GDP at market price.

The correct answer is In 1927.

Key Points

• The Indian Olympic Association was established in 1927.
• In 1923–24, a provisional All India Olympic Committee was formed, which organized the All India Olympic Games in February 1924. Eight athletes from these Games were selected to represent India at the 1924 Paris Summer Olympics along with manager Harry Crowe Buck.
• This gave impetus to the development and institutionalization of sports in India, and, in 1927, the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) was formed, with Sir Dorabji Tata as its founding president and Dr. A.G. Nohran was there.
• The year in which it was formed in 1927, the Indian Olympic Association was officially recognized by the International Olympic Committee.

Additional Information

• India first participated in the Olympics in 1900 in Paris. The country was represented by Norman Pritchard, an Anglo Indian who was holidaying in Paris during that time.
• The seeds for the creation of an organization for coordinating the Olympic movement in India were related to India’s participation in the 1920 and 1924 Olympics, when Sir Dorabji Tata suggested the need for a Sports body at the National level for promoting Olympic Sport in united India.

Important Points

• The Indian Olympic Association was established in the year 1927.
• It is registered as a Non-Profit Organisation under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
• As a member of the IOC and OCA, it is the Indian Olympic Association’s primary mission to develop, promote and protect the Olympic Movement in the country.

The correct answer is To secure a living sage

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties, as mentioned in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, do not include securing a living wage.
• Instead, securing a living wage is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Article 43, which directs the state to ensure a decent standard of life for workers.
• Fundamental Duties include safeguarding public property, cherishing national struggle ideals, and valuing rich heritage,
• These are Introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• These duties are not enforceable by law.

Additional Information

• The fundamental duties can be used by the courts to determine whether a law is constitutional.
• The Constitution of the former USSR served as inspiration for the Indian Constitution's Fundamental Duties.
• One of the most significant constitutional amendments to India was the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• The Indian National Congress, led at the time by Indira Gandhi, passed it.
• The Indian Constitution has undergone numerous revisions as a result of this act, which is why it is often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution."

The correct answer is Kiran Desai.

Key Points

• The Inheritance of Loss is the second novel by Indian author Kiran Desai.
• It was first published in 2006.
• It won a number of awards, including the Man Booker Prize for that year, the National Book Critics Circle Fiction Award in 2007, and the 2006 Vodafone Crossword Book Award.
• It was written over a period of seven years after her first book, the critically acclaimed Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard.
• Among its main themes are migration, living between two worlds, and between past and present.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Vice Chairman

Key Points

• The Chief Minister of a state acts as the Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for their state on a rotating basis.
• This role is held for a period of one year.
• The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each Zonal Council.
• The Chief Ministers of the states in each zone act as Vice-Chairmen by rotation.

Additional Information Zonal Councils

• They are the Statutory (and not the Constitutional) Bodies.
• Established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
• The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
• Each zonal council consists of the following members:
• the Home Minister of the Central government.
• Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone.
• Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
• The Administrator of each union territory in the zone.

The correct answer is Indo-Saracenic style.

Key Points

• The Gateway of India was built in the traditional Indo-Saracenic style to welcome King George V and Queen Mary to India in 1911. 
• The structure is an arch made of basalt, 26 meters (85 feet) high.
• The final design of George Wittet was sanctioned in 1914 and the construction of the monument was completed in 1924.
• The Gateway was later used as a symbolic ceremonial entrance to India for the Viceroys and the new Governors of Bombay.
• It served to allow entry and access to India.
• The Gateway of India is located on the waterfront at Apollo Bunder area at the end of Chhatrapati Shivaji Marg in South Mumbai and overlooks the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

• Indo-Saracenic style of architecture was developed by the British in British India in the late 19th century.
• This style of architecture was the combination of native Indo-Islamic architecture with the Gothic revival style of Victorian Britain.
• The buildings built in India by Indo- Saracenic style of architecture were built according to advanced British structural engineering standards of the 1800s including infrastructures of iron, steel and poured concrete.
• These types of buildings were employed with domes, pointed arch, vaulted roofs, pinnacles, minarets, pierced open arcade and open pavilions.

The correct answer is 1919

Key Points

• Background:
• In 1918, Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy, produced their scheme of constitutional reforms, known as the Montagu-Chelmsford (or Mont-Ford) Reforms, which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919.
• Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came into force in 1921.
• The sole purpose of this Act was to ensure Indians of their representation in the Government.
• The Act introduced reforms at the Central as well as Provincial levels of Government.

Additional Information

• Salient Features of the Act Central Level Government:
• Subjects:
• ​The matters, which were of National importance or related to more than one province were governed at the central level, such as Foreign Affairs, Defence, Political Relations, Communication, Public Debt, Civil and Criminal Laws, Wire services, etc.
• The Central Legislature was made more powerful and more representative by this Act.
• Executive
• ​Reforms in Legislature
• Powers of Viceroy
• Powers of Central Legislature
• Restrictions on Central Legislature​

Important Points

• Significance of the Act:
• Awakening Among Indians:
• Indians received secret information about the administration and became aware of their duties.
• This instilled a sense of nationalism and awakening among Indians and they moved towards achieving the goal of Swaraj.
• Expansion of Voting Rights:
• Election areas expanded in India and people began to understand the importance of voting.
• Self-Government in Provinces:
• The Act led to the existence of provincial self-government in India.
• The Act gave the people the power to administer and administrative pressure from the government was greatly reduced.
• It prepared Indians to discharge responsibilities in the provincial administration.

The correct answer is Modhera Sun Temple

Key Points

• The temple with a rectangular pond called “Surya Kund” in front of it is the Modhera Sun Temple, which was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Solanki Dynasty.
• The temple is located in Modhera, Gujarat, India.
• The temple is dedicated to the Hindu sun god, Lord Surya
• It was built in the early 11th century
• The temple is designed in the Maru-Gurjara style
• The temple has a three-tiered structure
• The temple has intricate carvings
• The temple has many sculptures of Gods and Goddesses
• The temple is aligned with the sun during the equinoxes​

Additional Information

• Khajuraho​
• The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is a group of Hindu temples and Jain temples lo in Chhatarpur district, Madhya Pradesh.
• They are a World Heritage site by UNESCO. The temples are famous for their architectural symbolism of the nagara-style and their erotic sculptures.
• Most Khajuraho temples were constructed by the Chandela dynasty between 950 AD and 1050 AD.
• Historical records mention that by the 12th century, the temple site of Khajuraho had 85 temples, spread over 20 square kilometres.
• A profusion of sculptures from the surviving temples with intricate details, symbolism and expressiveness of ancient Indian art adorns the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple.
• Konark Sun Temple
• Konark Sun Temple was built in 1250 AD.
• This temple is also called "Black Pagoda".
• Temple was declared World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1984.
• Famous Chandrabhaga Mela took place here every year in the month of February.
• This temple is attributed to King Narsimhadeva - I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• Temple is a classic illustration of Great Kalinga Architecture.
• Chausath Yogini​
• Chausath Yogini Temple is devoted to Goddess Durga and the 64 Yoginis who are observed to be her different forms, the Chausath Yogini Temple is constructed with local granite.
• The statues of the Yoginis have been arranged circularly and have been carved intricately.
• The Chausath Yogini Temple, Morena, also popular as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple, Stands atop an isolated hill approximately a hundred feet high, this circular temple commands a splendid view of the cultivated fields below.
• This temple is so famous due to the presence of a multitude of Shivalingas inside its cells.

The correct answer is India reduced trade restrictions due to obligations to WTO.

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on January 1, 1995.
• It was created as a successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which was established in 1948.
• The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations with a goal to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible.
• The organization officially commenced on January 1, 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 123 nations in 1994.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and its current Director-General is Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala.

 Additional Information

• The WTO provides a forum for negotiating agreements aimed at reducing obstacles to international trade and ensuring a level playing field for all, thus contributing to economic growth and development.
• It also provides a legal and institutional framework for the implementation and monitoring of these agreements, as well as for dispute resolution among countries over trade-related issues.
• As of the latest data, the WTO has 164 member countries, representing over 98% of global trade.
• One of the key functions of the WTO is to oversee the implementation, administration, and operation of the covered agreements and to provide a forum for further negotiations and monitoring of member countries' trade policies.

The correct answer is c.

Key Points

• Species:
• The most specific and fundamental unit of classification.
• Represents a group of individuals that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
• For instance, Homo sapiens is the species name for modern humans.
• There are an estimated 8.7 million species on Earth, though only a fraction have been identified.
• Species can be further categorized into subspecies, varieties, or breeds.
• Genus:
• A group of closely related species sharing a common ancestor.
• The genus name is always capitalized and italicized.
• For example, Panthera is the genus for lions (Panthera leo), tigers (Panthera tigris), and leopards (Panthera pardus).
• A genus can be monotypic (containing only one species) or polytypic (containing multiple species).
• Family:
• A group of related genera with similar characteristics.
• Family names typically end in "-idae" for animals (e.g., Felidae for cats) and "-aceae" for plants (e.g., Rosaceae for roses).
• Families are grouped based on shared anatomical, physiological, and genetic traits.
• For instance, the Felidae family includes all types of cats, from domestic cats to tigers.
• Order:
• A broader classification that groups together related families.
• Orders are based on more general characteristics than families.
• For example, Carnivora is the order that includes families like Felidae (cats), Canidae (dogs), and Ursidae (bears).
• Members of an order share some common traits, such as diet or limb structure.
• Class:
• A group of related orders with common characteristics.
• Classes are based on more general features than orders.
• For instance, Mammalia is the class that includes all mammals, characterized by features like mammary glands and hair.
• Other examples of classes include Reptilia (reptiles), Aves (birds), and Insecta (insects).
• Phylum:
• A major division of a kingdom, grouping together related classes.
• Phyla are based on fundamental body plan and organizational features.
• For example, Chordata is the phylum that includes all animals with a notochord (a flexible rod) at some stage of development.
• Other examples of phyla include Arthropoda (insects, crustaceans, arachnids) and Mollusca (snails, clams, squids).
• Kingdom:
• The highest level of classification, grouping together all organisms sharing fundamental characteristics.
• The most widely recognized kingdoms are Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Fungi (fungi), Protista (protists), and Monera (bacteria).
• Kingdoms are based on broad characteristics like cell structure, mode of nutrition, and reproduction.
• The classification of organisms into kingdoms is still subject to debate and revision as new evidence emerges.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• At the time of India's independence in 1947, the agricultural sector was the major employment-producing sector. This sector was the backbone of the Indian economy, employing a vast majority of the population.
• Agriculture: Agriculture was the primary source of livelihood for approximately 70-75% of the Indian population. This highlights the agrarian nature of the economy at that time.

Additional Information

• Limited Industrialization:
• The industrial sector was relatively underdeveloped, employing only about 10% of the workforce. This was partly due to the colonial policies that had hindered the growth of indigenous industries.
• Growing Service Sector:
• The service sector, though growing, was still limited in its capacity to absorb a large portion of the workforce, employing around 15-20%.
• Rural Economy:
• The Indian economy was predominantly rural, with most of the population residing in villages and dependent on agriculture for their sustenance.
• Subsistence Farming:
• A significant portion of agriculture was characterized by subsistence farming, where farmers primarily produced for their own consumption with limited surplus for trade.
• Traditional Practices: 
• Agricultural practices were largely traditional, with limited use of modern technologies and inputs, resulting in low productivity.
• Land Ownership:
• Land ownership was concentrated in the hands of a few, with many farmers being landless laborers or tenants.
• Monsoon Dependence:
• Agriculture was heavily dependent on the monsoon rains, making it vulnerable to droughts and other natural calamities.
• Stagnation:
• The agricultural sector had experienced stagnation and even decline during the British colonial rule, due to exploitative policies and lack of investment.
• Poverty and Inequality:
• ​ The dominance of agriculture, coupled with its stagnation, contributed to widespread poverty and inequality in rural areas.

The correct answer is Numismatics.

Key Points

• Numismatics:
• The study or collection of coins, tokens, paper money, and medals.
• Numismatics provides insights into history, economics, and art through the study of currency.
• It encompasses the physical attributes of money, its production, circulation, and historical context.
• Numismatics includes areas like notaphily (study of paper money) and exonumia (study of tokens and medals).
• Numerous numismatic societies exist worldwide, such as the American Numismatic Society and the Royal Numismatic Society.

Additional Information

• Almanac:
• An annual publication containing a calendar, astronomical data, and other statistical information.
• Almanacs often include weather forecasts, tide tables, sunrise and sunset times, and historical events.
• They serve as a comprehensive reference source for a wide range of information.
• Famous almanacs include "The Old Farmer's Almanac" and "Whitaker's Almanac."
• Many almanacs are now available online, offering interactive features and updated data.
• Petroglyphs:
• Rock carvings or engravings made by prehistoric people.
• Petroglyphs are created by removing the dark outer layer of rock to expose the lighter rock underneath.
• They are found in various parts of the world, often in caves or on rock faces.
• Petroglyphs provide insights into the beliefs, practices, and daily life of ancient cultures.
• Notable petroglyph sites include the Three Rivers Petroglyph Site in New Mexico and the Val Camonica in Italy.
• Curator:
• A person responsible for the care and management of a museum's or gallery's collections.
• Curators research, acquire, preserve, and exhibit artifacts or artworks.
• They possess specialized knowledge in their field, such as art history or archaeology.
• Curators typically hold advanced degrees in their area of expertise.
• They play a vital role in preserving cultural heritage and making it accessible to the public.

The correct answer is 2014 .

Key Points

• The National AYUSH Mission (NAM) was launched as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme on 29 September 2014  by the Department of AYUSH, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India during the 12th five year Plan .
• It aims to provide cost effective and equitable AYUSH health care throughout the country by improving access to the services.
• AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.
• The Mission has 4 components:
• AYUSH Services: Give universal access.
• AYUSH Educational Institutions: Strengthen them.
• Quality Control of AYUSH Drugs: Set norms and regulate them.
• Medicinal Plants: Ensure their supply.

Additional Information

• National AYUSH Mission (NAM) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that was launched during the 12th Five Year Plan by the Department of AYUSH, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India on 29 September 2014.
• The scheme aims to make AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy) healthcare cost-effective, equitable, and easily accessible throughout the country.

The correct answer is Calcium.

Key Points

• Calcium (Ca):
• Atomic Number: 20 (meaning it has 20 protons in its nucleus).
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 40.08 amu (atomic mass units).
• Electronic Configuration: [Ar] 4s² (meaning its outermost shell has 2 electrons).
• Role in the Body: Crucial for bone and teeth formation, muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting.
• Dietary Sources: Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, fortified foods.
• Deficiency: Can lead to osteoporosis, muscle cramps, and other health issues.
• Symbol: Ca

Additional Information

• Phosphorus (P):
• Atomic Number: 15 (15 protons in its nucleus).
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 30.97 amu.
• Electronic Configuration: [Ne] 3s² 3p³ (5 electrons in its outermost shell).
• Role in the Body: Essential for bone and teeth formation, energy production (ATP), DNA and RNA synthesis.
• Dietary Sources: Meat, poultry, fish, dairy, legumes, nuts.
• Deficiency: Can cause weakness, fatigue, bone pain, and impaired growth.
• Symbol: P
• Iron (Fe):
• Atomic Number: 26 (26 protons).
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 55.85 amu.
• Electronic Configuration: [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s² (8 electrons in its outermost shells).
• Role in the Body: Key component of hemoglobin (oxygen transport in red blood cells) and myoglobin (oxygen storage in muscles).
• Dietary Sources: Red meat, leafy green vegetables, beans, fortified cereals.
• Deficiency: Leads to iron-deficiency anemia, characterized by fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.
• Symbol: Fe
• Copper (Cu):
• Atomic Number: 29 (29 protons).
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 63.55 amu.
• Electronic Configuration: [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹ (11 electrons in its outermost shells).
• Role in the Body: Involved in various enzyme reactions, including energy production, iron metabolism, and neurotransmitter synthesis. Also important for immune function.
• Dietary Sources: Seafood, nuts, seeds, legumes, organ meats.
• Deficiency: Can cause anemia, fatigue, neurological problems, and impaired immune function.
• Symbol: Cu

The correct answer is Equisetum.

Key Points

• Equisetum (Horsetails):
• Ancient Lineage: Equisetum represents one of the oldest surviving genera of plants, with fossil records dating back over 300 million years to the Carboniferous period. They are considered "living fossils".
• Sphenopsida Class: They belong to the class Sphenopsida, a group of plants that were much more diverse and prominent in the past.
• Hollow Stems: Equisetum species have distinctive hollow, jointed stems that are often ribbed.
• Silica Content: Their cell walls are heavily impregnated with silica, giving them a rough texture and making them useful for scouring.
• Reproduction: They reproduce by spores, not seeds, and have underground rhizomes for vegetative spread.
• Ecological Role: Often found in damp or marshy environments.
• Common Name: Known as horsetails or scouring rushes.

Additional Information

• Psilotum (Whisk Ferns):
• Ancient and Simple: Psilotum is another ancient lineage of vascular plants, often referred to as "living fossils." They are considered among the simplest of extant vascular plants.
• Lack of True Roots and Leaves: They lack true roots and leaves, instead having rhizoids for anchorage and photosynthetic stems.
• Dichotomous Branching: Their stems exhibit dichotomous branching, meaning they split into two equal branches.
• Synangia: They reproduce via sporangia fused together into structures called synangia, which produce spores.
• Whisk-like Appearance: Their common name "whisk fern" comes from their slender, upright stems.
• Related to Ferns: Though simpler in structure, they are classified with ferns in the broader group of Pteridophytes.
• Dryopteris (Shield Ferns):
• True Fern: Dryopteris is a genus of true ferns, belonging to the family Dryopteridaceae.
• Vascular Plants: They are vascular plants, meaning they have specialized tissues for transporting water and nutrients.
• Fronds: They possess characteristic large, divided leaves called fronds, which are often the most recognizable part of the fern.
• Sori: Spores are produced in structures called sori, located on the underside of the fronds.
• Habitat: They thrive in moist, shaded environments.
• Medicinal Uses: Some species have been used traditionally in herbal medicine.
• Adiantum (Maidenhair Ferns):
• Delicate Fronds: Adiantum ferns are known for their delicate, often lacy fronds, which are often divided into small pinnules.
• Distinctive Shape: The shape of the fronds is often described as fan-shaped or maidenhair-like.
• Sori Location: Sori are typically located along the margins of the pinnules, often covered by a reflexed flap of tissue.
• Habitat: They prefer moist, shady habitats, often growing on rocks or near waterfalls.
• Cultivation: Many Adiantum species are popular in horticulture due to their attractive foliage.
• Common Name: Known as maidenhair ferns.

The correct answer is Sonal Mansingh.

Key Points

• In 2003, Sonal Mansingh was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, recognizing her contributions to Indian classical dance.
• She is renowned for her proficiency in Bharatanatyam and Odissi, two major classical dance forms of India.
• Beyond performance, Mansingh is also known for her efforts in dance education, choreography, and promoting Indian cultural heritage globally.
• Apart from the Padma Vibhushan, she has received numerous other awards, including the Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

Additional Information

• Established in 1954, the award is given for "exceptional and distinguished service" in any field including the arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, and social service.
• Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu, known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork, while Odissi is from Odisha, characterized by its fluid movements and expressive gestures.
• Sonal Mansingh has often been described as a cultural ambassador of India, using her performances to convey Indian mythology and folklore to international audiences.
• She has been actively involved in educational initiatives, conducting workshops and lectures that emphasize the role of dance in enhancing personal and social wellbeing.

The correct answer is Globalisation.

Key Points

• The primary outcome of the liberalization and privatization initiatives under the New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1991 was Globalization.
• India's New Economic Policy (NEP) -
• It was signed on July 24, 1991 by the then Union Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao started it.
• The main objective of this policy was to globalize the Indian economy.
• So that the Indian economy can take advantage of the opportunities available in the global economy.

Additional Information

• At present, there are only 5 sectors in the country (related to security, strategic and environmental concerns) in which the private sector will need to get a license to enter.
• To capitalize on the benefits of liberalization and globalization -
• The number of industries reserved for the public sector has been reduced.
• During the year 2014 -Private investment in rail infrastructure has also been allowed.
• At present, only 2 industrial areas are reserved for the public sector and all other sectors have been opened to the private sector.
• The areas reserved for the public sector are -
• Nuclear Energy
• railway operations

The correct answer is Iron and manganese.

Key Points

• Iron (Fe)
• Atomic Number: 26
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 55.85 u
• Electron Configuration: [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
• Key Properties:
• A lustrous, silvery-white metal.
• It is magnetic.
• Iron is the most abundant element on Earth by weight.
• It is a key component of steel, the world's most important engineering material.
• Iron is essential for living organisms, particularly in hemoglobin for oxygen transport.
• It is found in minerals like hematite and magnetite.
• Iron is used in construction, transportation, and various industrial applications.
• Iron was known to ancient civilizations and played a crucial role in the Iron Age.
• It is a relatively hard metal, with a Mohs hardness of 4.
• Iron has a high melting point of 1538 °C (2800 °F).
• Manganese (Mn)
• Atomic Number: 25
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 54.94 u
• Electron Configuration: [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s²
• Key Properties:
• A hard, brittle, silvery-gray metal.
• It is essential for steel production, improving its strength, hardness, and workability.
• Manganese is a cofactor in various enzymes, playing a role in metabolism and antioxidant defense.
• It is found in minerals like pyrolusite and rhodochrosite.
• Manganese is used in batteries, ceramics, and as a nutrient in fertilizers.
• It is a relatively reactive metal, readily oxidizing in air.
• Manganese was recognized as an element in the late 18th century.
• It is a transition metal, with a wide range of oxidation states.
• Manganese has a melting point of 1246 °C (2275 °F).
• It is less abundant than iron but still widely distributed in the Earth's crust.

Additional Information

• Uranium (U)
• Atomic Number: 92 (meaning it has 92 protons in its nucleus)
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 238.03 u (atomic mass units)
• Electron Configuration: [Rn] 5f³ 6d¹ 7s² (where [Rn] represents the electron configuration of radon)
• Key Properties:
• A silvery-white, radioactive metal.
• Naturally occurring uranium is composed of three isotopes: uranium-238 (99.27%), uranium-235 (0.72%), and uranium-234 (0.005%).
• Uranium-235 is fissile, meaning it can readily undergo nuclear fission, making it crucial for nuclear power generation and nuclear weapons.
• Uranium is found in various minerals like uraninite and carnotite.
• It is primarily used as a fuel in nuclear reactors to produce electricity.
• Depleted uranium (mostly uranium-238) is used in armor-piercing projectiles and counterweights due to its high density.
• Uranium compounds are toxic and chemically hazardous.
• Uranium was discovered in 1789 by Martin Klaproth and named after the planet Uranus.
• It is a dense metal, about 19 times as dense as water.
• Uranium has a high melting point of 1135 °C (2075 °F).
• Copper (Cu)
• Atomic Number: 29
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 63.55 u
• Electron Configuration: [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹
• Key Properties:
• A reddish-orange, malleable, and ductile metal.
• An excellent conductor of heat and electricity.
• It is found in various minerals like chalcopyrite and bornite.
• Copper is widely used in electrical wiring, plumbing, and construction.
• It is also used in alloys like brass and bronze.
• Copper is essential for human health, involved in various enzymatic reactions.
• It has antimicrobial properties, making it useful in healthcare settings.
• Copper was one of the first metals to be worked by humans.
• It is a relatively soft metal, with a Mohs hardness of 3.
• Copper has a melting point of 1085 °C (1985 °F).
• Gold (Au)
• Atomic Number: 79
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 196.97 u
• Electron Configuration: [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d¹⁰ 6s¹
• Key Properties:
• A soft, lustrous, yellow metal.
• It is highly malleable and ductile, making it easy to shape into wires and sheets.
• Gold is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity.
• It is chemically inert, resisting corrosion and oxidation.
• Gold is one of the most prized precious metals, used in jewelry, coinage, and electronics.
• It is also used in dentistry and as a heat shield in aerospace applications.
• Gold occurs naturally in its metallic form, often found in veins and alluvial deposits.
• Gold has been known and valued by humans for millennia.
• It is a very dense metal, about 19 times as dense as water.
• Gold has a melting point of 1064 °C (1947 °F).
• Graphite (C)
• Atomic Number: 6
• Atomic Mass: Approximately 12.01 u
• Electron Configuration: [He] 2s² 2p²
• Key Properties:
• A form of carbon with a layered, hexagonal structure.
• It is a soft, black, slippery solid.
• Graphite is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat.
• It is used in pencils, lubricants, and as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
• Graphite is also used in high-temperature applications like crucibles and rocket nozzles.
• It is chemically inert and resistant to high temperatures.
• Graphite is one of the allotropes of carbon, along with diamond and fullerenes.
• It occurs naturally in metamorphic rocks.
• Graphite has a high melting point of over 3600 °C (6512 °F).
• It is a relatively inexpensive material with diverse applications.
• Petroleum (Crude Oil)
• A naturally occurring fossil fuel formed from ancient organic matter.
• It is a complex mixture of hydrocarbons (compounds of hydrogen and carbon) along with other impurities.
• Petroleum is a major source of energy, used to produce gasoline, diesel fuel, and other transportation fuels.
• It is also a feedstock for the petrochemical industry, used to make plastics, synthetic fibers, and various chemicals.
• Petroleum is extracted from underground reservoirs through drilling.
• It is a non-renewable resource, and its extraction and use have significant environmental impacts.
• The composition of petroleum varies depending on its source.
• It is a vital component of modern economies but faces increasing scrutiny due to its contribution to climate change.
• Petroleum refining is a complex process that separates the various hydrocarbon components.
• The future of petroleum use is uncertain due to the growing adoption of renewable energy sources.
• Coal
• A combustible sedimentary rock formed from ancient plant matter.
• It is primarily composed of carbon, along with varying amounts of other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, and nitrogen.
• Coal is a major source of energy, used to generate electricity in power plants.
• It is also used in industrial processes like steelmaking and cement production.
• Coal is extracted from underground mines or surface mines.
• It is a non-renewable resource, and its extraction and use have significant environmental impacts.
• Coal is classified into different types (anthracite, bituminous, subbituminous, lignite) based on its carbon content and energy content.
• It is an abundant fossil fuel but faces increasing scrutiny due to its contribution to climate change.
• Coal combustion releases pollutants like sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter.
• The future of coal use is uncertain due to the growing adoption of cleaner energy sources.

The correct answer is Puri.

Key Points

• By the end of the 11th Century A.D. and early 12th Century, the Ganga dynasty captured political power over Odisha.
• The first ruler of this dynasty, Ananta Varman Chodaganga Deva (1078- 1147) started the construction of the great Jagannath Temple at Puri.
• The Ganga dynasty was succeeded by another glorious dynasty known as the Suryavamsi Gajapatis.
• The first Gajapati King was Kapilendra Deva (1435-1466) who extended his empire by winning wars against the neighbouring powers.
• His son Purusottam Deva consolidated the empire.
• But during the rule of his successor Pratap Rudra Deva, the Gajapati dynasty and its kingdom Kalinga suffered a political and military decline.
• During the 8th and 9th centuries, a powerful dynasty known as the Bhaumakara dynasty ruled over the territories of Utkal.
• Bhaumakara dynasty was followed by the rule of Somvansi rulers.
• The Somavamshi dynasty ruled parts of present-day Odisha in eastern India between the 9th and the 12th centuries.
• Their capitals included Yayatinagara (modern Binka) and Abhinava-Yayatinagara (modern Jajpur).

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir and Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

NHAI has taken up some major projects in the country under different phases:

• Golden Quadrilateral is a high-density traffic corridor that connects four big metro cities of India i.e. Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata.
• It is designated as one of the longest highways in the world.
• It was former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's first dream project and is enshrined as the biggest infrastructure intervention in the roadways sector in post-Independent India.
• North-South and East-West Corridors: 
• The North-South corridor aims at connecting Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
• The East-West corridor has been planned to connect Silchar in Assam with the port town of Porbandar in Gujarat with 3,640-km of road length.

From the above, it is clear that four major cities are connected by Golden Quadrilateral i.e. Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata.

Additional Information

• National Highways Authority of India:
• It was established in 1988.
• It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• Sukhbir Singh Sandhu is the present Chairman of NHAI.
• The main function of NHAI is to develop, maintain and manage the national highways and any other highways which come under the Government of India.

The correct answer is Lal Kot.

Key Points

• Qutbuddin Aibak
• He was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who became the ruler after the death of his master, founded the Slave Dynasty.
• He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate and also the founder of the Slave dynasty.
• He was a great builder who built the majestic 238 feet high stone tower known as Qutub Minar in Delhi.
• In 1210, Qutb-ud-din Aibak died in an accident while he was playing polo. He fell from the horseback and was severely injured.

Additional Information

• Iltutmish
• He is known as “slave of a slave”.
• He was the slave and the successor of Qutubbuddin Aibak.
• He launched the silver tanka and the copper jital as the regular currency.
• Iltutmish started the system of Iqtadari.
• Chahalgani or chalisa was formed by Iltutmish.
• He was the first to make Delhi the capital.

The correct answer is Proportional Representation.

Key Points

• Rajya Sabha:
• Rajya Sabha or the ‘Council of States’ is the second chamber of the Indian parliament, which traces its origin to the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
• Rajya Sabha as the second chamber of the parliament intended to play certain roles as a permanent house.
• It never dissolves like Lok sabha.
• It is called upper house of parliament and it never dissolves.
• One-third of its members retire every two years, revisionary house (reconsidering bills passed by the Lok Sabha), and offers a degree of continuity in the underlying policies of laws passed by parliament. .
• Its member shall not be less than 30 years of age.

Additional Information

• Representing the Vulnerable Sections:
• Women, religious, ethnic, and linguistic minority groups are not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha (due to first past the post-election system).
• An indirect form of election (through propositional representation) to the Rajya Sabha, therefore, would give them a chance to get involved in the nation’s law-making process.
• Thus, Rajya Sabha can make a place for people who may not be able to win a popular mandate.
• Special Powers of Rajya Sabha:
• The Upper House also has some special powers, such as:
• Power to transfer a subject from the State List to Union List for a specified period (Article 249).
• To create additional All-India Services (Article 312).
• To endorse Emergency under Article 352 for a limited period when the Lok Sabha remains dissolved.

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress was founded by Allan Octavian Hume in 1885.
• A.O. Hume was a retired Civil Service Officer.
• He saw a growing political consciousness among the Indians and wanted to give it a safe, constitutional outlet so that their resentment would not develop into popular agitation against the British rule in India.
• He was supported in this scheme by the Viceroy, Lord Dufferin, and by a group of eminent Indians.
• Womesh Chandra Banerjee of Calcutta was elected as the first President.
• The Indian National Congress represented an urge of the politically conscious Indians to set up a national organization to work for their betterment.
• Its leaders had complete faith in the British Government and in its sense of justice.
• They believed that if they would place their grievances before the government reasonably, the British would certainly try to rectify them.
• Among the liberal leaders, the most prominent were Firoz Shah Mehta, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Dada Bhai Naoroji, Ras Behari Bose, Badruddin Tayabji, etc.

The correct answer is 9.

Key Points

Nine Rasas(Navarasa):

• The Navarasa, in India’s traditional arts and literature, refers to the nine expressions or human emotions that humans show.
• These are the nine emotions that are known to evoke an audience during an experience of a dance, music, or drama performance according to the Natyashastra.
• The nine rasas are:
• Shringaara(Love)
• Roudra (Anger)
• Bibhitsa (Disgust) Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Veera (Heroism)
• Shaant (Peace & Tranquility)
• Hasya (Laughter & Comedy)
• Karuna(Tragedy)
• Bhayanak (Horror)
• Adbhuta (Wonder)
• Just as life without rasas is incomplete, literature or film without rasas in proper proportion is deficient.

The correct answer is Hygrometer.

Key Points

• A hygrometer is an instrument that is used in meteorological science for measuring the humidity or amount of water vapour in the air.
• The ideal range of humidity for Humans is between 30 and 50 percent.
• The relative humidity of the atmosphere is calculated by the hygrometer. It shows results in the percentage
• A hygrometer contains two thermometers one is called a dry bulb and the second is a wet bulb.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Samudragupta .

Key Points

• Samudragupta was the second ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
• He is also called Napoleon of India because of his ambition of the military.
• He is regarded as the greatest ruler of the Gupta dynasty as he held major military campaigns.
• He is known for his first Aryavart war and Southern campaign.
• He ruled around 330-380 CE and contributed greatly to expanding the territory of the Gupta Empire.
• He is behind capturing of Ganga Yamuna doab.
• His empire extended to Tamil Nadu as well.
• At its peak, he captured almost entire North India and his empire stretched from southern and eastern parts of the country as well.
• He fought many wars and thus he was awarded the title of 'Prithivyah Pratham Veer' which means the first powerful man of the world.
• Chandragupta, was the first ruler of the Gupta dynasty to adopt the grand
  

title of maharaj-adhiraja, a title that Samudragupta also used.

• At a pillar in Allahabad, the details of the wars he fought are described.

Additional Information

• Kharavela
• He was the first great historical monarch of ancient Kalinga who belonged to the soil, and styled himself as Chetaraja-Vamsa Vardhana, and Kalingadhipati.
• His personality is known from the Hatigumpha Inscription. It says that he possessed many auspicious signs on his body, was gifted with many qualities.
• Well-versed in Gandharvan music, Kharavela entertained the city with festive gatherings which included singing, dancing and instrumental music.
• Harshavardhana belonged to the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
• It was founded by Naravardhana close to the 5th or beginning of the 6th century A.D.
• The dynasty flourished under Prabhakarvardhana (father of Harshavardhana).
• He assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja.
• Harshavardhana succeeded the throne in 606 A.D.
• Harsha was also known as Sakalottarapathanatha.
• He conquered Magadha.
• He established his capital at Kannauj.
• His empire extended from Punjab to northern Orissa and from the Himalayas to the bank of Narmada.
• The period of Harsha is well documented in Harshacharitra written by Banabhatta.
• Chinese scholar Hiuen-Tsang visited Harsha's court in 631 A.D.
• The empire came to an end along with the death of Harshavardhana in 647 A.D.
• Harshavardhan wrote three Sanskrit plays viz. Nagananda, Ratnavali and Priyadarshika.
• Hiuen-Tsang mentioned the grand assembly held at Kannauj in 643 A.D. which was attended by twenty kings, four thousand Buddhist monks and about three thousand Jains and Brahmans.
• He also organised Mahamoksha Harishad, a religious festival, at Prayaga (Allahabad).
• Emperor Ashoka (304 - 232 BCE) was the third king of the Maurya Dynasty. Remorseful after his bloody campaign and conquest of Kalinga, Ashoka embraced Buddhism.
• Ashoka:
• Ashoka was the emperor of India's Maurya Dynasty from 268 to 232 BCE.
• Ashoka is referred to as Buddhsakya in Maski Inscription and Dharmakosa in his Sarnath Inscription.
• He was known as Devampiya i.e. beloved of Goda, and as Piyadassi i.e. of pleasing appearance.
• Ashoka believed in the policy of Dhamma.
• Ashoka's visit to Lumbini and exemption of Lumbini from tax was mentioned in Rumminidei Pillar Inscription.
• The Kandhar Inscription speaks about the success of his policy with the hunters and fishermen.
• Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription: It mentions that Ashoka increased the height of the stupa of Buddha Konakamana to its double size.

The correct answer is Rs. 10 crore.

Key Points

• Small-scale industries:
• Industries in which manufacturing, production, and servicing of goods are done on a small scale.
• The total investment of these types of industries does not exceed over 10 crore.
• Small-scale industries have single ownership.
• These industries are labor intensive so there is only limited use of technology.
• These work in local areas and fulfill the demands of locals.

Additional Information

• Large-scale industries:
• ​​have a huge infrastructure, and raw materials and require large numbers of workers.
• The capital requirement is also large and industries that have fixed assets of more than 10 crores are considered large-scale industries.
• There are several large-scale industries in India like Iron and steel, automobile, textile, silk industry, etc.
• These industries use the latest technology and machines.
• Their contribution to the country's economy is also huge.
• These require skilled workers that provide employment.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Manipur: Annual festival - Mera Houchongba to be celebrated in Imphal.
• In Manipur, the annual festival - Mera Houchongba will be celebrated at Kangla in Imphal.
• The festival is held to foster and consolidate relations among hill tribes and valley people of the State.
• Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh along with the titular king of Manipur and Member of Rajya Sabha Leishemba Sanajaoba will inaugurate the festival at Kangla, the erstwhile royal palace of Manipur. A ritual ceremony will be held there.

The correct answer is Article 21-A

Key Points

• 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002, was of immense importance as it led to the insertion of Article 21A.
• According to this article, the government must provide free and compulsory education to children between the age of 6-14 years.
• This amendment led to the substitution of a new article for article 45 by adding a new provision to it that focuses on the education of children below six years of age and early childhood care.
• 86th Constitutional Amendment also added a clause (k) to article 51A that specifies the duty of the parents/guardians to provide education to their children between the age of 6 to 14 years.

Additional Information

• The process of amendment is mentioned in Article 368 of the Constitution.
• Three methods of the amendment have been adopted in it -
• Amendment by ordinary law,
• An amendment by a special majority of Parliament, and
• Special majority of Parliament and approval of State Legislatures.
• The Ninth Schedule was included under the 'First Constitution Amendment (1951)'.

 

The correct answer is Solid state

Key Points

• he kinetic energy of the constituent molecules of matter is related to their motion.
• The kinetic energy of the constituent molecules of matter is minimum for its solid state.
• In a solid, the molecules are tightly packed together and can only vibrate in place,
• It results in the lowest kinetic energy compared to liquids and gases where molecules have more freedom of movement.

Additional Information

• Liquid State (Moderate Kinetic Energy)
• In liquids, molecules are loosely arranged and have weaker intermolecular forces compared to solids.
• They can move around each other, giving liquids a definite volume but no fixed shape.
• Since molecules have more freedom of movement than in solids, kinetic energy is higher than in solids but lower than in gases.
• Gaseous State (Maximum Kinetic Energy)
• In gases, molecules are widely spread out with very weak intermolecular forces.
• They move randomly at high speeds in all directions.
• Since gas molecules are in constant motion with high velocity, they possess the maximum kinetic energy.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• The festival of flowers Bathukamma is a festival of Telangana.
• Bathukamma is a colorful and vibrant festival of Telangana and celebrated by women, with flowers that grow exclusively in each region.
• This festival is a symbol of Telangana's cultural identity.
• Bathukamma comes during the latter half of monsoon, before the onset of winter.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 2.24m

Key Points

• The official net height for women's volleyball, as per FIVB (Fédération Internationale de Volleyball) regulations, is 2.24 meters.
• In volleyball, the official net height varies based on gender, age, and the level of play.
• Volleyball is a dynamic and exciting sport that has captured the attention of people all over the world.
• From its origins as a fun game played on a beach to its current status as an Olympic sport, Volleyball has well and truly come a long way.

Additional Information

• The history of Volleyball can be traced back to the late 19th century.
• The game was first created by William G. Morgan, a physical education instructor at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association) in Holyoke, Massachusetts, USA.
• In 1895, Morgan was looking for a new game that could be played indoors to provide an alternative to basketball, which had gained immense popularity during that time.
• Thus, he developed Volleyball, originally known as "Mintonette."

The correct answer is 29.

Key Points 

• Population enumeration is the phase 2 processes in a census after House listing and Housing Census.
• During the 2011 census process, the population enumeration was conducted from 9th February to 28th February 2011.
• The government will collect a set of demographic, social and economic data on every person in the country by population enumeration.
• There were 29 questions canvassed during population enumeration in the Census of 2011.
• To collect information on more than 120 crore people in just 20 days, the government called on government employees to participate as enumerators.
• Teachers were the main source of enumerators.

Additional Information

• A population Census is a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing and disseminating demographic, social, cultural and economic data relating to all persons in the country, at a particular time in ten years interval.
• The Census of 2011 was the 7th number after the Independence and 15th edition when counted from 1872.
• The first Census in India was conducted in 1872 during the British period.
• The first Census of Independent India was conducted in 1951.
• The first phase House listing and Housing Census has been conducted between April to June 2010 in different States and UTs.
• The House listing and Housing Census of 2011 contains 34 questions.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The 11th fundamental duty was added to the Constitution of India, by the 86th Constitutional Amendment.
• The Indian Constitution formulated Article 51A under Part IVA in the 42nd Amendment in the year 1976 completely dedicated to the Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
• Article 51A lays down all the Fundamental Duties that a citizen should obey and perform in order to thrive towards achieving the welfare of a democratic nation.

Additional Information

• 11 Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
• Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six to fourteen years (86th Amendment).

The correct answer is Bhil

Key Points

• As of the 2011 census, the Bhil are the largest tribal group in India, with a population of 4.61 million, constituting 37.7% of the total scheduled tribe population.
• They are spread across the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Gond are the second largest tribal group, with a population of 3.2 million, constituting 26.2% of the total scheduled tribe population.
• They are spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Troposphere.

Key Points 

• Troposphere: Average height is 13 km.
• The air we breathe exists here.
• This layer contains dust particles and water vapour.
• All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
• Almost all the weather phenomena like clouds, rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer.
• This is the most important layer for all biological activity.

Additional Information

• Stratosphere: up to an altitude of 50 km from the earth’s surface.
• Almost free from clouds, most ideal for flying aeroplanes, Contains a layer of ozone gas (Ozonosphere).
• Temperature increases with height in this layer.
• Mesosphere: Up to an altitude of 80 km. Meteorites burn up in this layer on entering from the space.
• Temperature decreases with height in this layer.
• Thermosphere: It extends between 80-400 km. In the thermosphere, the temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height.
• The ionosphere is a part of this layer. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as the ionosphere.
• Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
• This layer helps in radio transmission.
• The International Space Station and satellites orbit in this layer. Temperature increases with height in this layer.
• Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is known as an exosphere.
• This layer has very thin air. Light gases like helium and hydrogen float into space from here.

The correct answer is 24%

Key Points

• According to the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) 2019-25, the energy sector projects account for approximately 24% of the total estimated capital expenditure of Rs. 111 lakh crore.
• The NIP outlines that major sectors like energy, roads, urban development, and railways constitute a significant portion of the projected infrastructure investments
• The NIP is an ambitious plan aimed at creating world-class infrastructures across India.
• This will enhance the overall quality of life for its citizens.
• The NIP will also boost project preparations and attract both domestic and foreign direct investments into the Indian economy.

Additional Information

• The NIP aims to capture key greenfield and brownfield projects for investments across all economic and social infrastructure sub-sectors on a best-effort basis
• NIP is a collection of projects and programs totalling INR 102 lakh crore in infrastructure development over the next five years.
• It follows the government's goal of making India a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25.
• NIP covers economic and social infrastructure projects in sectors such as  Roads (19%), Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) that account for almost 70% of India's expected infrastructure capital spending.

The correct answer is pakhawaj.

Key Points

• The pakhavaj is a barrel-shaped, two-headed drum, originating from the Indian subcontinent, the oldest version of the double-sided drum and its descendants are the mridangam of Southern India and the kendang of Maritime Southeast Asia and other South Asian double-headed drums.
• It is the percussion instrument most commonly used in the dhrupad style of Indian classical music and less often used as a rhythm accompaniment for various other sub-forms of music and dance performances (e.g. kathak, Odissi, Marathi).
• It was originally made from clay and you still can find clay versions, but very rarely.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 48

Key Points

• Tokyo Olympics 2020 :
• Tokyo Olympics 2020 was an international multi-sport event held from 23 July to 8 August 2021 in Tokyo, Japan, with some preliminary events that began on 21 July.​
• India finished 48th on the medal tally in Tokyo, its highest ranking in over four decades.
• India marched at the 21st number with the boxer Mary Kom and men’s hockey captain Manpreet Singh as flag-bearers.
• The teams entered the stadium in alphabetical order according to the language selected by the organizing committee, generally the dominant language in the host city.
• The 2024 Summer Olympics will be held in Paris. And all the way out in 2028, Los Angeles will play host.

Additional Information

• Apurvi Chandela:
• Apurvi Chandela born on (4 January 1993) is a sports shooter who will be representing India in a 10m air rifle at the Tokyo Olympics.
• She qualified for the Tokyo Olympics after she finished fourth at the 2018 ISSF World Championship in Changwon, South Korea.
• Arjun Lal Jat :
• Arjun Lal Jat born on (7 February 1997) will represent India in the men's lightweight double sculls event of rowing at the Tokyo Olympics.
• His partner for this event is Arvind Singh and both qualified for the Olympics in men's lightweight double sculls event after finishing second in the final race of the Asia Continental Qualifying in Tokyo.
• These two rowers will be the only representation from India at Tokyo Olympics 2021.
• Divyansh Singh Panwar :
• Divyansh Singh Panwar born on (19 October 2002) is a sports shooter who will be representing India in the men's 10m air rifle & 10m air rifle mixed team event at the Tokyo Olympics.
• In April 2019, he secured an Olympic quota place by winning a silver medal in the ISSF World cup in Beijing.
• The 18-years-old would be pairing up with Elavenil Valarivan in the 10m air rifle mixed team event at the Olympics.
• Bhawna Jat :
• Bhawna Jat born on (3 January 1996) is a track athlete who will be representing India in 20 Kilometres Race walking at Tokyo Olympics.
• The Olympic qualification mark was set at 1hour 31 minutes and she clocked 1hour 29minutes and 54seconds at the National Championship in Ranchi to qualify for the Olympics.

The correct answer is Golf.

Key Points

• Jeev Milkha Singh is a professional golfer from India who has won multiple international tournaments.
• He is the son of legendary Indian athlete Milkha Singh, also known as the "Flying Sikh".
• In 1998, he became the first Indian player to compete on the European Tour.
• In October 2006, he became the first golfer from India to enter the top 100 of the Official World Golf Ranking.
• In 2007, the Indian government bestowed upon him the Padma Shri, a civilian honor.
• Additionally, he received the 1999 Arjuna Award.

Additional Information

• The golf game was introduced in Europe around the 15th century.
• The golf field is wide and full of green-grass.
• This ground is called 'Golf Course'.​

The correct answer is Jayalakshmi Eshwar and Shama Bhate

Key Points

• The correct pair of Indian dancers who received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards 2021 for their contributions in Bharatanatyam and Kathak, respectively, is Jayalakshmi Eshwar and Shama Bhate.
• Jayalakshmi Eshwar (Bharatanatyam):
• Jayalakshmi Eshwar is a renowned Bharatanatyam dancer who has made significant contributions to the promotion and preservation of this classical dance form.
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest and most revered classical dance forms of India, originating in Tamil Nadu.
• Shama Bhate (Kathak):
• Shama Bhate is a well-known Kathak dancer and choreographer.
• Kathak is a classical dance form originating from the northern part of India, particularly from the courts of North India.
• Shama Bhate is recognized for her creative and expressive performances in this art form.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi
• Sangeet Natak Akademi, the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country, was formed in 1953.
• It was set up for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India's diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance, and drama.
• The management of the Akademi vests in its General Council.
• Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar Karaikudi was the first to receive the Sahitya Natak Akademi award.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Puraskar is an award given by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance & Drama.
• The Sangeet Natak Academy was established on 31 May 1952 by a resolution of the Ministry of Human Resource development.
• The Akademi was officially inaugurated on 28 January 1953 by the first President of India Rajendra Prasad and PV Rajmannar was appointed as its first Chairman.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi

Key Points

• Deepa Sashindran is a Kuchipudi dancer, and Raja Reddy and Radha Reddy are famous Kuchipudi exponents.
• Deepa Sashindran:
• A Kuchipudi dancer and choreographer who has performed in India and abroad.
• She has created original works, including solo performances, dance dramas, and features.
• She has also taught workshops and performed in Doha, Dubai, and Abu Dhabi.
• Raja and Radha Reddy are Indian Kuchipudi dancing couples, gurus, and choreographers.
• They are renowned as exponents of the south Indian dance form of Kuchipudi.
• Their names are synonymous with Kuchipudi dance and are regarded solely responsible for bringing it on the cultural map of the world.
• For their services to the field of arts, the Government of India has conferred on them the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan awards.

Additional Information

• Kuchipudi:
• Kuchipudi is a major classical dance form of India that originated in a village of the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• Kuchipudi involves different foot movements and is generally a team performance.
• The central them of Kuchipudi is Bhagavata puran.
• The dancers of Kuchipudi came to be known as Bhagavathalus.
• Bharatnatyam:
• Bharatanatyam is the oldest and major classical dance form of India that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, ancient treaties on theatre written by the mythic priest Bharata.
• Kathakali:
• Kathakali is a classical Indian dance form which is a story play genre of art and is the folk dance form of Kerala.
• It is a 'story play' genre of art, but one distinguished by the elaborately colorful make-up, costumes, and face masks that the traditionally male actor-dancers wear.

The correct answer is Shaikh Mubarak.

Key Points

• Akbar issued a Declaration or Mahzar.
• Mahzar means pronouncement, declaration or an opinion.
• It also implies petition.
• He removed the Chief Preacher at Fatehpur Sikri and himself mounted the Pulpit of Jama Masjib, Fatehpur Sikri on June 22, 1579 and read the Khutba in his own names as the prophet and caliphs.
• The Khutba was composed in verse by Faizi.
• Mahzar was issued in September 1579 and it was prepared by Sheikh Mubarak.
• Mahzar was signed by all the prominent Muslim theologians and divines of the Mughal empire.
• It was also signed by Makhdum-ul-Mulk and Abdun Nabi, although they were known to be bitter critics of Akbar's liberal religious policy.
• As instituted under the Mahzar, it was decided that Akbar would have the right to be the supreme arbiter or interpreter of Islamic laws, and he could decide in the matter of differing opinions on all religious questions.

Additional Information

• Abul Fazl ​
• Abul Fazl (1547–1602) was a prominent scholar, historian, and one of the most notable figures in the Mughal Empire during the reign of Emperor Akbar.
• He is best known for his work as the author of the Akbarnama, a detailed historical account of Akbar’s reign, and for his role in Akbar's court.
• Abul Fazl was a trusted advisor and one of the "Navaratnas" (Nine Gems) in Akbar’s court.
• Abdun Nabi
• ​Abdun Nabi was a prominent figure during the reign of Emperor Akbar in the Mughal Empire, though his life and role are less widely documented than some of the other notable figures of that period.
• The name Abdun Nabi could refer to multiple historical figures, but the most well-known context for Abdun Nabi is in the administrative and military domains of the Mughal Empire.
• Faizi ​
• Faizi was a highly regarded Persian poet and a scholar of Arabic, Persian, and Indian languages. He was deeply involved in the literary and intellectual activities of Akbar’s court.
• He was well-versed in Persian literature and made significant contributions to it. His work includes poetry that blended classical Persian traditions with the Mughal cultural environment.
• He was also a mentor to Abul Fazl, and their intellectual contributions are often discussed together in the context of the flourishing of Mughal culture.

The correct answer is Islam

Key Points

• The state religion of the Maldives is Sunni Islam.
• The 2008 Constitution established Islam as the official religion of the country.
• T he constitution also states that citizenship is based on adherence to Islam, making the country's citizens 100% Muslim.
• It is illegal to promote any religion other than Islam.
• Penalties for violating this regulation include house arrest, imprisonment, or deportation.
• In 2014, the Maldivian law incorporated the death penalty for apostasy from Islam

Additional Information

• Christianity
• ​Christianity constitutes a minority religion within the Maldives.
• Scholar Felix Wilfred from Oxford University conducted research in 2013 estimating the Christian population in the Maldives to be approximately 1,400 individuals, representing about 0.4% of the total population
• Buddhism
• ​Buddhism was the state religion of Maldives before 1153 CE
• Buddhist relics and ruins of monasteries have been found in many islands.
• Additional evidence of a Buddhistic past was found in late 12th century copperplate grants, translated in the 1980s.
• Hinduism
• ​Before embracing Buddhism as their way of life, Maldivians had practised an ancient form of Hinduism, ritualistic traditions known as Śrauta, in the form of venerating the Surya (the ancient ruling caste were of Aadheetta or Suryavanshi origins)
• Evidence suggests that Hinduism had a presence in pre-Islamic Maldives.
• Archaeological remains survive from the 8th or 9th century CE portraying Hindu deities such as Shiva, Lakshmi and the sage Agastya.

The correct answer is 15,7

Key Points

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament has 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.
• The PAC is one of the three Financial Parliamentary committees.
• The PAC was established in 1921.
• The members of the PAC are elected by the Parliament every year.

Additional Information

• The term of office of the members is one year.
• A minister cannot be a member of the PAC.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the PAC from among its members.
• The PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• The PAC examines public expenditure from the point of view of economy, prudence, and propriety. ​

The correct answer is Amrita Pritam

Key Points

• Amrita Pritam was an Indian novelist, essayist and poet, who wrote in Punjabi and Hindi.
• A prominent figure in Punjabi literature, she is the recipient of the 1956 Sahitya Akademi.
• Raseedi Ticket is Amrita Pritam's celebrated autobiography, which tells us how she felt distressed at the influence of hate;
• she was traumatised by the horrors of the Partition, out of which her poem 'Vaaris Shah' was born.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Douglas Kingsford 

Key Points

• The Alipore Bombay Case Trial refers to an attempt to murder the district judge of Muzaffarpur.
• Aurobindo Ghosh was defended by Chittaranjas Das in the Alipore bomb case.
• The Alipore Bomb case conspiracy took place in the year 1908.
• It is also known as the Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukar conspiracy.
• Douglas Kingsford the unpopular British Chief Magistrate was the target of the bomb thrown at Muzaffarpur (Northern Bihar).

Additional Information

The correct answer is National income

Key Points

• National income is equivalent to the Net National Product at factor cost.
• At factor costs, the Net National Product (NNP) equals the national revenue.
• The Gross National Product (GNP) of an economy is the GNP less the "depreciation" loss. It can be calculated using the following formula: NNP = GNP - Depreciation.
• National income is another name for Net National Product at Factor Cost. The sum of value added at factor cost, net domestic product at factor cost, and net factor income from overseas is known as the "Net National Product at Factor Cost."

Additional Information

• The entire income of all country's citizens is referred to as the national income. As a result, it represents the nation's overall income.
• It is regarded as one of the most crucial characteristics for contrasting the growth of nations. A nation's economic activity determines its national income.
• By calculating the national income, the government may assess a nation's economic development, make plans for future growth, and establish its economic policy.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 3rd number) + 3 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 2, 9, 3

⇒ (2 × 3) + 3 = 6 + 3 = 9.

For, 5, 23, 4

⇒ (5 × 4) + 3 = 20 + 3 = 23.

Similarly, for (10, 33, 3)

⇒ (10 × 3) + 3 = 30 + 3 = 33.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

he paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left and bottom-right and top-right and bottom-left elements are interchanging their position respectively.

All 4 middle element are shifting their position in anticlockwise direction.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Bottom-left and bottom-right symbols are shifting top-right and top-left position respectively.

Middle-bottom-left and middle-bottom-right symbols are bottom-left and bottom-right position respectively.

Middle-top-left and middle-top-right symbols are middle-bottom-right and middle-bottom-left position respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

‘RADICAL’ is written as ‘BBDEJMS’

‘SUSPECT’ is written as ‘DFQTTUV’

Similarly, 'VIRTUAL’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "BJMSUVW ".

Counting triangles are there in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left, Bottom-left and middle-surface elements are shifting in a clockwise direction.

Top-right, bottom-right and middle-surface element are shifting in a clockwise direction.

Middle 2 elements are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Top 2 corner symbols and middle 2 symbols are shifting in an anticlockwise direction.

Middle-surface 2 symbols and bottom 2 corner symbols are shifting in a clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

All students are teachers.

No teacher is the Principal.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. No principal is student. - True (because All students are teachers, and No teacher is the Principal. So, No principal is student too)

II. All teachers are students. - False (because All students are teachers given. So, All teachers are students it can be possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

Given equation: 15324122*5

Option 1) +, ×, –, =, ÷

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 15 + 3 × 24 - 12 = 2 ÷ 5

⇒ 15 + 72 - 12 = 0.4

⇒ 87 - 12 = 0.4

⇒ 75 ≠ 0.4

Option 2) +, –, ×, ÷, =

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 15 + 3 - 24 × 12 ÷ 2 = 5

⇒ 15 + 3 - 24 × 6 = 5

⇒ 15 + 3 - 144 = 5

⇒ 18 - 144 = 5

⇒ -126 ≠ 5

Option 3) +, ×, –, ÷, =

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 15 + 3 × 24 - 12 ÷ 2 = 5

⇒ 15 + 3 × 24 - 6 = 5

⇒ 15 + 72 - 6 = 5

⇒ 87 - 6 = 5

⇒ 81 ≠ 5

Option 4) ÷, +, –, ×, =

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 24 - 12 × 2 = 5

⇒ 5 + 24 - 12 × 2 = 5

⇒ 5 + 24 - 24 = 5

⇒ 29 - 24 = 5

⇒ 5 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is "÷, +, –, ×, =".

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Synonyms

Here,

Brim : Edge → Edge is a synonym of Brim.

Similarly,

Kind : Benevolent → Benevolent is a synonym of Kind.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "78".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number)² ÷ 5 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 45 : 405

⇒ (45)² ÷ 5 = 2025 ÷ 5 = 405.

For, 20 : 80

⇒ (20)2 ÷ 5 = 400 ÷ 5 = 80.

Similarly, for 85 ∶ ?

⇒ (85)2 ÷ 5 = 7225 ÷ 5 = 1445.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: M N _ _ Q M _ O _ Q _ N _ P Q M N O _ _  

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) PONPMOQP → M N P O Q / M N O P Q / M N O P Q / M N O Q P

Option 2) OPNPMOPQ → M N O P Q / M N O P Q / M N O P Q / M N O P Q

Here, 'M N O P Q' is the pattern.

Option 3) OPPNMOQP → M N O P Q / M P O N Q / M N O P Q / M N O Q P

Option 4) PONPOMPQ→ M N P O Q / M N O P Q / O N M P Q / M N O P Q

Hence, the correct answer is "OPNPMOPQ".

Given: Seven students, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are standing in a straight line facing north.

1) B is standing to the immediate right of A and to the immediate left of C.

2. D is standing to the immediate left of E but to the immediate right of C.

3. Similarly, F is standing to the immediate left of G, who is standing at the extreme right end.

So, C is standing at the third position from the left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The logic followed here is:

Top-right corner symbol shifts in bottom-left corner and getting reversed (become water image).

Bottom-left corner symbol is replaced by a new symbol as it shifts to Top-right corner position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

To find the opposite surface of 'six dots', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, one and two dots are common. So, remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

So, 'Three' dots will be the opposite face of 'Six dots'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Three"

Given Equation: (8 B 4 A 3) D 7 = 33 D 11 A ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ (8 × 4 + 3) ÷ 7 = 33 ÷ 11 + ?

⇒ (32 + 3) ÷ 7 = 3 + ?

⇒ 35 ÷ 7 = 3 + ?

⇒ 5 = 3 + ?

⇒ ? = 5 - 3 = 2.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given:

Distance between city A and city B = 480 km

A car starts from A at (3/5) of its original speed and reaches B late by 80 minutes

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Let the original speed of the car be x km/h

Original time taken = 480 / x hours

New speed = (3/5) × x = 3x/5 km/h

New time taken = 480 / (3x/5) hours

New time taken = 480 × (5/3x) hours

New time taken = 800 / x hours

New time taken is 80 minutes (or 80/60 = 4/3 hours) more than the original time taken

Therefore, 800 / x = 480 / x + 4/3

⇒ 800 / x - 480 / x = 4/3

⇒ (800 - 480) / x = 4/3

⇒ 320 / x = 4/3

⇒ 320 × 3 = 4x

⇒ 960 = 4x

⇒ x = 960 / 4

⇒ x = 240 km/h

The original speed of the car is 240 km/h.

Given:

Number leaves a remainder of 8 when divided by 15, 30, and 45.

Formula Used:

Required number = LCM(15, 30, 45) × k + Remainder

Calculation:

LCM of 15, 30, and 45:

15 = 3 × 5

30 = 2 × 3 × 5

45 = 3² × 5

LCM = 2 × 3² × 5 = 90

Required number = 90k + 8

For k = 0,

⇒ Required number = 90 × 0 + 8 = 8

For k = 1,

⇒ Required number = 90 × 1 + 8 = 98

The least number which, when divided by 15, 30, and 45, leaves a remainder of 8 is 98.

Given:

Number 1 = 216, remainder = 9

Number 2 = 358, remainder = 13

Number 3 = 454, remainder = 17

Formula Used:

We need to find the largest positive integer that divides the differences of the given numbers and their remainders.

Calculation:

Let the required number be x.

216 - 9 = 207

358 - 13 = 345

454 - 17 = 437

We need to find the largest positive integer that will divide 207, 345, and 437.

First, find the GCD of 207 and 345:

207 = 3 × 3 × 23

345 = 3 × 5 × 23

GCD(207, 345) = 3 × 23 = 69

Next, find the GCD of 69 and 437:

69 = 3 × 23

437 = 19 × 23

GCD(69, 437) = 23

The largest positive integer that will divide 216, 358, and 454 leaving remainders 9, 13, and 17 respectively is 23.

Given:

The ratio of the incomes of Ram and Ganga is 3 ∶ 4.

The ratio of their expenditures is 2 ∶ 3.

Each person saves Rs. 2,000.

Formula Used:

Total income together = Income of Ram + Income of Ganga

Total expenditure together = Expenditure of Ram + Expenditure of Ganga

Income - Expenditure = Savings

Calculation:

Let the income of Ram be 3x and the income of Ganga be 4x.

Let the expenditure of Ram be 2y and the expenditure of Ganga be 3y.

Savings of Ram: 3x - 2y = 2000

Savings of Ganga: 4x - 3y = 2000

We have two equations:

1. 3x - 2y = 2000

2. 4x - 3y = 2000

Multiply equation 1 by 3 and equation 2 by 2:

9x - 6y = 6000

8x - 6y = 4000

Subtract the second equation from the first:

⇒ (9x - 6y) - (8x - 6y) = 6000 - 4000

⇒ x = 2000

Substitute x = 2000 into equation 1:

⇒ 3(2000) - 2y = 2000

⇒ 6000 - 2y = 2000

⇒ 2y = 4000

⇒ y = 2000

Income of Ram = 3x = 3 × 2000 = 6000

Income of Ganga = 4x = 4 × 2000 = 8000

Expenditure of Ram = 2y = 2 × 2000 = 4000

Expenditure of Ganga = 3y = 3 × 2000 = 6000

Total income together = 6000 + 8000 = 14000

Total expenditure together = 4000 + 6000 = 10000

Ratio of their total income together to their total expenditure together:

⇒ 14000 : 10000 = 14 : 10 = 7 : 5

The correct answer is option 2 (7 ∶ 5).

Given:

Investment amount = Rs. x

Return = 12%

Extra amount received = Rs. 12,000

Formula Used:

Return = Principal × Rate × Time / 100

Calculation:

Let the investment amount be Rs. x.

The return on investment is 12%.

Extra amount received = 12% of x

12% of x = 12,000

12/100 × x = 12,000

⇒ x = 12,000 × 100 / 12

⇒ x = 1,200,000 / 12

⇒ x = 100,000

The investment amount is Rs. 100,000.

Given:

Simple interest rate for 3 years.

Interest difference if rate is 5% higher = Rs. 270.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Let the principal be P.

Rate difference = 5%

Time = 3 years

Interest difference = Rs. 270

Using the formula for simple interest:

⇒ (P × 5 × 3) / 100 = 270

⇒ P × 15 / 100 = 270

⇒ P × 0.15 = 270

⇒ P = 270 / 0.15

⇒ P = 1800

The sum invested was Rs. 1800.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 2,400

Amount (A) = Rs. 3,650.10

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: $A = P \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^T$

Calculation:

$3,650.10 = 2,400 \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^3$

Dividing both sides by 2,400:

$\frac{3,650.10}{2,400} = \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^3$

⇒ 1.520875 = $\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^3$

Taking the cube root of both sides:

⇒ 1 + $\frac{R}{100}$ = $\sqrt[3]{1.520875}$

⇒ 1 + $\frac{R}{100}$ = 1.146

Subtracting 1 from both sides:

⇒ $\frac{R}{100}$ = 0.146

Multiplying both sides by 100:

⇒ R = 0.146 × 100

⇒ R = 14.6% ≈ 15%

The yearly rate of compound interest is 15%.

Given:

A can finish the work in 15 days.

B can finish the work in 20 days.

B starts the work on 1 October, and they work on alternate days.

Formula Used:

Total work = Time × Efficiency 

Calculation:

Total work = LCM(15, 20) = 60 units

Efficiency of A = 60/15 = 4

Efficiency of B = 60/20 = 3

If B starts work on 1 October then A starts work on 2 October,

Work done in 2 days = 3 + 4 = 7 units

Multiply both sides by 8

8 × 2 days = 8 × 7 units

Work complete in 16 days = 56 units

After 17 days = 56 + 3 = 59 units

On 18 day A complete the remaining 1 unit of work.

Therefore, the work will be finished on Sat Oct 18 2025.

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Expression: [0.7 - {4.3 - 3.6 - (6.1 - 4.7 - 2.3)}]

Formula Used:

We will use the BODMAS/BIDMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction) to solve the expression.

Calculation:

[0.7 - {4.3 - 3.6 - (6.1 - 7)}]

[0.7 - {4.3 - 3.6 + 0.9}]

[0.7 - {5.2 - 3.6}]

[0.7 - 1.6]

• 0.9 = - 9/10

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

The ratio of the numbers of boys and girls in a school is 6 ∶ 5.

25% of the boys are scholarship holders.

36% of the girls are scholarship holders.

Formula Used:

Percentage of students who do not get scholarships = 100% - Percentage of students who get scholarships.

Calculation:

Given, ratio of number of boys and girls in a school is 6 ∶ 5.

Let the number of boys and girls be 6a and 5a respectively. Where a is any constant

Given, 25% of the boys and 36% of the girls are scholarship holders.

Total number of boys who are not getting scholarship = 75% of 6a = 4.5a

Total number of girls who are not getting scholarship = 64% of 5a = 3.2a

Total number of students not getting scholarship = 4.5a + 3.2a = 7.7a

% of students not getting the scholarship = $\frac{7.7a}{11a} \times 100$ = 70%

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

The average of two numbers is 24.

The average of three other numbers is 29.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all numbers) / (Total numbers)

Calculation:

Let the sum of the first two numbers be S₁.

S₁ / 2 = 24

⇒ S₁ = 24 × 2 = 48

Let the sum of the other three numbers be S₂.

S₂ / 3 = 29

⇒ S₂ = 29 × 3 = 87

Total sum of all five numbers = S₁ + S₂

Total sum of all five numbers = 48 + 87 = 135

Total number of numbers = 5

Average = Total sum of all five numbers / Total number of numbers

Average = 135 / 5

⇒ Average = 27

The average of these five numbers is 27.

Given:

In 2001, production decreased by 30%.

In 2002, production increased by 25%.

Formula Used:

Resulting change = Initial production × (1 - Decrease %) × (1 + Increase %)

Calculation:

Let the initial production be 100 units.

Production after a 30% decrease in 2001:

Production = 100 × (1 - 0.30)

Production = 100 × 0.70

Production = 70 units

Production after a 25% increase in 2002:

Production = 70 × (1 + 0.25)

Production = 70 × 1.25

Production = 87.5 units

Resulting change in production = 87.5 - 100

Resulting change = -12.5 units

Percentage change = (-12.5 / 100) × 100%

Percentage change = -12.5%

Therefore, the resulting change in production over these two years is a decrease of 12.5%.

Given:

Marked price = Cost price + 65% of Cost price

Discount allowed = 35%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount

Profit Percentage = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100.

Marked Price (MP) = CP + 65% of CP

⇒ MP = 100 + 65% of 100

⇒ MP = 100 + 65 = 165

Discount = 35% of MP

⇒ Discount = 35% of 165

⇒ Discount = (35/100) × 165 = 57.75

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount

⇒ SP = 165 - 57.75 = 107.25

Profit = SP - CP

⇒ Profit = 107.25 - 100 = 7.25

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (7.25 / 100) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 7.25%

The percentage of his profit is 7.25%.

Given:

Radius of the spherical ball (r) = 14 cm

Rate of painting = Rs. 10 per cm²

Formula Used:

Surface Area of Sphere = 4πr²

Cost of Painting = Surface Area × Rate

Calculation:

Surface Area of Sphere = 4πr²

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × (22/7) × 14²

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × (22/7) × 196

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × 22 × 28

⇒ Surface Area = 2464 cm²

Cost of Painting = 2464 × 10 = 24640

The cost of painting the spherical ball is Rs. 24,640.

Given:

Width of cloth = 6 m

Radius of the base of the tent = 6 m

Height of the tent = 8 m

Formula Used:

Surface Area of the cone = πrl

Length of the cloth required = (Surface Area) / (Width of cloth)

Calculation:

First, find the slant height (l) using the Pythagorean theorem:

⇒ l = $\sqrt{r^2 + h^2}$

⇒ l = $\sqrt{6^2 + 8^2}$

⇒ l = $\sqrt{36 + 64}$ = $\sqrt{100}$

⇒ l = 10 m

Now, calculate the surface area of the cone:

Surface Area = πrl

⇒ Surface Area = $\frac{22}{7} × 6 × 10$

⇒ Surface Area = $\frac{1320}{7}$

Length of cloth required:

Length = (Surface Area) / (Width of cloth)

⇒ Length = $\frac{ \frac{1320}{7}}{6}$

⇒ Length = $\frac{220}{7}$ m = 31$\frac{3}{7}$

The length of cloth required is 31$\frac{3}{7}$ m.

The correct answer is Ctrl+N

Key Points

• The keyboard shortcut to open a new blank document in Microsoft Word 365 is Ctrl + N.
• Using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + N allows users to quickly start a new document without navigating through the menu options.
• Keyboard shortcuts can significantly enhance productivity by reducing the time taken to perform common tasks.

Additional InformationHere are some other keyboard shortcuts for Microsoft Word: 

Ctrl + S: Saves a document

Ctrl + C: Copies selected text

Ctrl + V: Pastes copied text

Ctrl + Z: Undoes the last action

Ctrl + Home: Goes to the start of the document

Ctrl + Enter: Inserts a page break

Shift + Enter: Creates a new line in a paragraph

Ctrl + R: Aligns the line or selected text to the right of the screen

The correct answer is Justify

Key Points

• In Microsoft Word 365, the Justify alignment is used to format the text so that it extends to both the left and right margins, ensuring the text fills the entire width of the line.
• This alignment adjusts the spacing between words to make the text look uniform on both sides,
• It create straight edges on both the left and right sides of each paragraph.
• Example: "The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog."
• The words are spaced out so that the left and right edges are aligned, creating a clean, block-like appearance.

Additional Information

• Right alignment:
• This aligns the text to the right margin, leaving the left side ragged.
• It’s useful for right-to-left languages or when formatting elements like dates in certain documents.
• Example:The quick brown fox The text starts from the right and leaves the left side uneven.
• Center:
• ​This aligns the text to the center of the page, leaving both sides uneven.
• It’s often used for titles, headings, or decorative text.
• Left alignment:
• This aligns the text to the left margin, leaving the right side ragged.
• It’s the default alignment used for most documents in Word.

The correct answer is Upper and lower bounds for row heights are 409 and 0, respectively.

Key Points

• In MS Excel 2010, the row height refers to the vertical size of a row, which determines how much space each row occupies in the worksheet.
• The maximum row height in Excel 2010 is 409 points.
• A point is a unit of measurement used in Excel, where 1 point equals 1/72 of an inch.
• When you increase the row height to its maximum value, the height of the row is 409 points, which is quite large and suitable for displaying content that requires a lot of vertical space (like larger font sizes, multiple lines of text, etc.).
• The minimum row height is 0 points.
• A height of 0 means the row is completely collapsed and won't be visible.
• Essentially, a row with a height of 0 points won't take up any space in the worksheet.

The correct answer is Dial up

Key Points

• The type of internet connection that uses a telephone line for data transmission is Dial up.
• Dial-up internet directly utilizes the existing telephone line to connect to the internet, requiring you to "dial" a number to establish a connection.
• It is an older, slower internet connection that uses a standard phone line to connect
• Dial-up is prone to interruptions and slowdowns

Additional Information

• Satellite:
• A type of internet connection that uses orbiting satellites to transmit data,
• It is often used in remote areas where other options are unavailable; considered a form of broadband when delivering high speeds.
• Broadband:
• ​It is a general term for high-speed internet connections
• It includes options like cable, DSL, and fiber optic, offering significantly faster speeds than dial-up.
• Fibre optic:
• ​It is a type of broadband connection that transmits data using light signals through glass fibers, considered the fastest and most reliable wired internet option.

The correct answer is Mailings

Key Points

• In Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2016, the Mail Merge feature is used to create personalized documents such as letters, labels, envelopes, and emails by merging a data source (like a spreadsheet) with a template document.
• It will find the "Start Mail Merge" option under the Mailings tab.
• This tab specifically contains all the options related to creating and managing mail merges.
• After clicking Start Mail Merge, you'll be prompted to select the document type you want to create (e.g., Letters, Envelopes, Labels, Email Messages).

Additional InformationTypes of Mail Merge:

• Letters: Personalized letters for each individual based on the data.
• Envelopes: Personalized address information for each recipient on different envelopes.
• Labels: Personalized labels, often used for bulk mailing.
• Email Messages: Used to send personalized emails to each recipient from your data source.
• Directory: A document listing personal details for multiple people, like a phonebook.

The correct answer is Line spacing

Key Points

• In MS Word 365, Paragraph Formatting refers to adjusting the settings that control the appearance and structure of paragraphs in your document.

• Line Spacing:

• This is a part of paragraph formatting.

• It controls the amount of space between lines in a paragraph.

• You can adjust it to set single, 1.5, double, or custom spacing.

• It's a key aspect of making text more readable.

Additional Information

The correct answer is The cell in the third column and the tenth row

Key Points

• In an electronic spreadsheet like Microsoft Excel or Google Sheets, each cell is identified by a unique address, which is a combination of a column letter and a row number.
• Columns are labeled with letters (A, B, C, D, etc.). After Z, the labels go to double letters (AA, AB, AC, etc.).
• Rows are numbered (1, 2, 3, 4, etc.)
• So, "C" refers to the third column, and "10" refers to the tenth row

Additional Information

• The CELL function returns information about the formatting, location, or contents of a cell.

MS-Excel Worksheets

• The term Worksheet used in Excel documents is a collection of cells organized in rows and columns.
• It is the working surface you interact with to enter data.
• Each worksheet contains 1048576 rows and 16384 columns and serves as a giant table that allows you to organize information.

The correct answer is Ctrl + ]

Key Points

• To increase the font size of selected text in Microsoft Word, you can use the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + ] or Ctrl + Shift + >.
• This shortcut increases the font size of the selected text by one point each time you press it.
• For example, if the text is set to 12-point font, pressing Ctrl + ] will increase it to 13-point font.
• Each press of the shortcut increases the size by one increment.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Password

Key Points

• During the process of authentication, a system needs to verify that the person trying to access it is who they say they are.
• This verification typically involves checking the user's identity against information stored in the system.
• A "password" is the secret string of characters used to verify a user's identity during the authentication process.
• This is the secret code that only the user knows and is used to confirm their identity when logging into a system.
• The password helps ensure that even if someone knows the username, they cannot access the account without the password.

Additional Information

• Username:
• This is a unique identifier for the user, often used in combination with a password.
• Domain Name:
• This refers to the name of a website or online service, like "google.com."
• Website:
• This is the address or platform you visit online, like a social media platform or an email provider.

The correct answer is B3

Key Points

• In MS Excel, cell addresses are specified by a combination of column letters and row numbers:
• Columns are labeled alphabetically (A, B, C, D, etc.).
• The first column is "A," the second column is "B," and so on.
• Rows are numbered starting from 1, going downwards (1, 2, 3, 4, etc.).
• Second column: As mentioned, the second column is labeled B.
• Third row: The third row is labeled as 3.

Additional Information In Excel, you can use three types of cell references:

• Relative Reference (e.g., A1):
• The most common type of reference.
• When you copy a formula with a relative reference, the reference adjusts based on the position of the new cell.
• Example: If you copy a formula from cell B2 (where the formula is referencing cell A1), and paste it into B3, the reference will automatically adjust to A2.
• Absolute Reference (e.g., $A$1):
• An absolute reference locks the column and row in place, meaning that when you copy the formula, the reference will not change.
• Example: If you copy a formula from cell B2 with the reference $A$1, it will always reference cell A1, no matter where you paste the formula.
• Mixed Reference (e.g., $A1 or A$1):
• In a mixed reference, either the column (e.g., $A1) or the row (e.g., A$1) is fixed, while the other part is relative.
• Example: If you copy a formula from B2 with the reference $A1, the row (1) remains fixed, but the column (A) will change when copied across columns.