Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 21 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Pandit Birju Maharaj, Padma Bhushan awardee, was a globally renowned dancer of which of the following gharanas of Kathak?

  1. ((a))

    Kalka-Bindadin

  2. ((b))

    Raigarh

  3. ((c))

    Janaki Prasad 

  4. ((d))

    Jaipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalka-Bindadin

The correct answer is Kalka-Bindadin

Key Points

  • Pandit Birju Maharaj was an Indian dancer, composer, singer, and exponent of the Lucknow "Kalka-Bindadin" Gharana of Kathak dance in India.
  • He was a descendant of the Maharaj family of Kathak dancers, which includes his two uncles, Shambhu Maharaj and Lachhu Maharaj, and his father and guru, Acchan Maharaj.
  • He was born on 4 February 1938 in Handia and died on 17 January 2022 in Delhi.
  • He was awarded Padma Vibhushan and Filmfare Award for Best Choreography and more.
  • Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance. It is the classical dance form of Uttar Pradesh. The origin of Kathak is traditionally attributed to the traveling bards of ancient northern India known as Kathakars or storytellers.

Additional Information

GharanaFounded ByKey FeaturesSpecial Bols/Techniques
Delhi GharanaSiddhar Khan (18th century)Soft and delicate playing style, clarity of bols, balanced use of both hands (bayan and dayan).Tirakita, Dha-Ti-Te, Dhere Dhere
Ajrada GharanaKallu Khan and Miru KhanIntricate bols, complex rhythmic patterns, mastery of rela and peshkar.DhirDhir, Gadagadi, Tirakita
Lucknow GharanaModu KhanEmphasis on grace, melodious patterns, and decorative playing.Laggi and Chakradar compositions
Banaras GharanaRam SahaiBold and powerful style, heavy bayan usage, special focus on tabla solo performances.Tihai, Benarsi Qaida
Farrukhabad GharanaHaji Vilayat Ali KhanBlend of boldness and subtlety, intricate compositions, and expressive playing style.Tukra, Mukhda, Chalan
Punjab GharanaLala BhawanidasRobust style influenced by Pakhawaj, focus on Dhamar, Rupak, and compositions with clarity.Parans, Chakradars, Gats
2

In which of the following cases is a member of the State Legislature NOT required to vacate his/her seat?

  1. ((a))

    Disqualification

  2. ((b))

    Double membership

  3. ((c))

    Absence for a week without permission

  4. ((d))

    Resignation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Absence for a week without permission

The correct answer is Absence for a week without permission

Key Points

  • A member of the State Legislature is not required to vacate their seat in the case of "Absence for a week without permission";
  • therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.
  • However, if a member is absent for 60 days or more without permission, the seat is declared vacant (Article 190(4)).
  • While a short absence without permission might not automatically vacate a seat,
  • It prolonged absences without authorization can lead to actions being taken to declare the seat vacant depending on the specific rules of the legislative body.

Additional Information

  • Disqualification​
  • A member is required to vacate their seat if disqualified. Disqualification can occur due to various reasons such as:
  • Holding an office of profit.
  • Being of unsound mind or undischarged insolvent.
  • Not being a citizen of India.
  • Violating the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law.
  • (Relevant Articles: 190(3), 191, and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution)
  • Double Membership
  • If a person is elected to both the Parliament and a State Legislature, or to two seats in the same house of the legislature, they cannot retain both positions.
  • They must resign from one seat, or one seat will be vacated automatically as per law.

(Relevant Articles: 101 and 190 of the Constitution)

  • Resignation​
  • A member can resign from their position by submitting a resignation to the Speaker (for the Legislative Assembly) or the Chairman (for the Legislative Council).
  • Once the resignation is accepted, the seat becomes vacant.

(Relevant Article: 190(3)(b))

3

Name the monument constructed by Akbar in 1575 to celebrate his victory over Gujarat. 

  1. ((a))

    Jama Masjid

  2. ((b))

    Buland Darwaja

  3. ((c))

    Sheikh Salim Chisti Dargah

  4. ((d))

    Panch Mahal 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Buland Darwaja

The correct answer is Buland Darwaja

Key Points

  • Buland Darwaza or the garret gateway at Fatehpur Sikri was constructed by the great Mughal emperor, Akbar in 1575.
  • Akbar constructed the Buland Darwaza to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.
  • It is made of red and buff sandstone and finished by carving and inlaying white and black marble.
  • An inscription on the central face of the Buland Darwaza throws light on Akbar's religious tolerance and broad-mindedness.

Additional InformationAkbar's monuments 

MonumentsLocation
Agra FortAgra
Fatehpur SikriAgra
Buland DarwazaAgra
Humayun's TombDelhi
Akbar's TombSikandra
4

What does ‘E’ stand for in SEBI?

  1. ((a))

    Electronic

  2. ((b))

    Electronically

  3. ((c))

    Exchange

  4. ((d))

    Energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Exchange

The correct answer is  Exchange 

Key Points

  • The "E" in SEBI stands for "Exchange".
  • SEBI Stands for the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
  • The SEBI was set up as an administrative body in April 1988.
  • It was given statutory status on 30.1.92 by the promulgation of the SEBI ordinance.
  • The ordinance is considered to be an Act of parliament.
  • Objectives:
  • The basic purpose of establishing SEBI is to protect the interest of the investors in securities.
  • To promote, develop and regulate the securities market and deal with the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Additional Information 

  • Features of SEBI:
  • The SEBI shall be a body corporate established under SEBI ACT, with perpetual succession and a common seal.
  • The head office of the board shall be in Mumbai. SEBI can have branch offices at other places in India.
  • The board shall consist of six members.
  • The general superintendence, direction, and management of the SEBI shall vest in the Board of members. Those members exercise all powers and do all acts and things which may be exercised by the Board (SEBI)
  • Central Government shall have the power to remove a member of the chairman appointed to the Board
  • The central government shall provide finance and also make appropriate grants to the Board.
  • The central government has the power to issue direction to the board on the policy matters and shall supersede the board in the event of default by the Board.
5

Pandit Bhimsen Joshi is associated with the ________.

  1. ((a))

    Banaras gharana 

  2. ((b))

    Patiala gharana 

  3. ((c))

    Agra gharana 

  4. ((d))

    Kirana gharana 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kirana gharana 

The correct answer is Kirana gharana 

Key Point

  • Pt Bhimsen Joshi is known for the khayal form of singing, as well as for his popular renditions of devotional music (bhajans and abhangs).
  • Joshi belongs to the Kirana gharana tradition of Hindustani Classical Music.
  • He received his training in singing and harmonium from Shamacharya Joshi.
  • Joshi heard Ustad Abdul Kareem Khan and decided to sing like him.

Additional Information

GharanaFounded ByKey FeaturesSpecial Bols/Techniques
Delhi GharanaSiddhar Khan (18th century)Soft and delicate playing style, clarity of bols, balanced use of both hands (bayan and dayan).Tirakita, Dha-Ti-Te, Dhere Dhere
Ajrada GharanaKallu Khan and Miru KhanIntricate bols, complex rhythmic patterns, mastery of rela and peshkar.DhirDhir, Gadagadi, Tirakita
Lucknow GharanaModu KhanEmphasis on grace, melodious patterns, and decorative playing.Laggi and Chakradar compositions
Banaras GharanaRam SahaiBold and powerful style, heavy bayan usage, special focus on tabla solo performances.Tihai, Benarsi Qaida
Farrukhabad GharanaHaji Vilayat Ali KhanBlend of boldness and subtlety, intricate compositions, and expressive playing style.Tukra, Mukhda, Chalan
Punjab GharanaLala BhawanidasRobust style influenced by Pakhawaj, focus on Dhamar, Rupak, and compositions with clarity.Parans, Chakradars, Gats
6

The ‘Kachin Manaw Festival’ is associated with which of the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    Maldives

  2. ((b))

    Myanmar

  3. ((c))

    Sri Lanka

  4. ((d))

    Pakistan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Myanmar

The correct answer is Myanmar

Key Points

  • The Kachin Manaw Festival is celebrated in Myanmar.
  • This festival is a significant cultural event for the Kachin people, one of the major ethnic groups in Myanmar.
  • The festival features traditional dances, music, and rituals, and it is a time for the Kachin community to come together and celebrate their heritage.
  • The Kachin Manaw Festival usually takes place in January and is marked by vibrant festivities and communal harmony.

Additional Information

  • Myanmar, formerly known as Burma, is a country in Southeast Asia bordered by India, Bangladesh, China, Laos, and Thailand.
  • The country has a rich cultural heritage with over 135 distinct ethnic groups, each with its own traditions and festivals.
  • The Kachin people primarily inhabit the Kachin State in northern Myanmar, which is known for its mountainous terrain and rich natural resources.
  • The Kachin Manaw Festival is one of the most important cultural celebrations for the Kachin people and attracts visitors from across the country and beyond.
  • Myanmar's diverse cultural landscape includes a variety of other festivals such as the Thingyan Water Festival, the Tazaungdaing Festival of Lights, and the Thadingyut Festival.
7

Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the Special Economic Zone?

  1. ((a))

    Development of infrastructure

  2. ((b))

    Providing employment

  3. ((c))

    Promoting export

  4. ((d))

    Promoting clean technology 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Promoting clean technology 

The correct answer is Promoting clean Technology

Key Points

  • A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) primarily aims to develop infrastructure, provide employment,
  • It promote exports by creating a favorable environment for businesses within a designated area, but "promoting clean technology" is not typically considered a core objective of an SEZ.
  • SEZs are designed to have well-developed infrastructure like roads, ports, and utilities to facilitate business operations.
  • The main goal of an SEZ is to encourage companies to export goods and services by offering tax benefits and streamlined procedures.

Additional Information

  • Special Economic Zones Act, 2005
  • It is an Act that's provided for the institutions, development and management of the Special Economic Zones for the promotion of exports and for matters connected with that or incidental to that.
  • Objectives of SEZs Act are:
  • To create further economic activity.
  • To encourage the export of goods and services.
  • To provide employment.
  • To boost domestic and foreign investments.
  • To develop infrastructure facilities.
8

Gurmeet Bawa, who received the Padma Bhushan posthumously in 2022, hails from which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Uttarakhand

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Punjab

The correct answer is Punjab

Key Points

  • Gurmeet Bawa was a renowned Punjabi folk singer known for her powerful voice and unique singing style.
  • She was celebrated for her ability to sing hek, a traditional Punjabi singing technique where she could hold a note for an extended period. She played a significant role in promoting Punjabi folk music on the global stage.
  • In recognition of her immense contribution to Indian music, Gurmeet Bawa was awarded the Padma Bhushan posthumously in 2022, one of the highest civilian honors in India.
  • She hailed from the state of Punjab, where she was deeply connected to the cultural roots and traditions of Punjabi music.

Additional Information

  • Below is the list of Padma Awardees 2022:

Padma Vibhushan(4):

NameField
Ms Prabha AtreArt
Shri Radheyshyam Khemka (Posthumous)Literature and Education
General Bipin Rawat (Posthumous)Civil Service
Shri Kalyan Singh (Posthumous)Public Affairs

Padma Bhushan(17):

NameField
Shri Ghulam Nabi AzadPublic Affairs
Shri Victor BanerjeeArt
Ms. Gurmeet Bawa (Posthumous)Art
Shri Buddhadeb BhattacharjeePublic Affairs
Shri Natarajan ChandrasekaranTrade and Industry
Shri Krishna Ella and Smt. Suchitra
Ella* (Duo)
Trade and Industry
Ms. Madhur JafferyOthers-Culinary
Shri Devendra JhajhariaSports
Shri Rashid KhanArt
Shri Rajiv MehrishiCivil Service
Shri Satya Narayana NadellaTrade and Industry
Shri Sundararajan PichaiTrade and Industry
Shri Cyrus PoonawallaTrade and Industry
Shri Sanjaya Rajaram (Posthumous)Sci and Engg
Ms. Pratibha RayLiterature and Education
Swami SachidanandLiterature and Education
Shri Vashishth TripathiLiterature and Education
9

Which weather phenomenon is defined as the movement of large-scale winds around a central region of high atmospheric pressure?

  1. ((a))

    Tropical cyclone

  2. ((b))

    Extratropical cyclone

  3. ((c))

    Polar cyclone

  4. ((d))

    Anticyclone

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Anticyclone

The correct answer is Anticyclone

Key Points

  • ​The weather phenomenon defined as the movement of large-scale winds around a central region of high atmospheric pressure is called an anticyclone.
  • They are associated with high atmospheric pressure at their center. ​
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, winds in an anticyclone rotate clockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere they rotate counterclockwise.
  • Anticyclones are often associated with clear skies and dry conditions.

Additional Information

AspectTropical CycloneExtratropical CyclonePolar Cyclone
Formation RegionWarm tropical and subtropical oceansMid-latitudes (30° to 60° latitude)Polar regions (60° latitude and above)
Energy SourceWarm ocean waters (latent heat release)Temperature gradients (baroclinic instability)Cold air masses and temperature contrasts
Core TemperatureWarm-core systemCold-core systemCold-core system
SizeRelatively smaller (100–1,000 km in diameter)Larger (1,000–2,500 km in diameter)Smaller than extratropical cyclones
DurationDays to a few weeksDays to over a weekFew hours to a few days
SeasonalityCommon in warm seasons (e.g., summer, fall)Occur year-roundMost common in winter
Wind SpeedHigh, often exceeding 119 km/h (hurricane strength)Moderate, rarely exceeding tropical cyclone strengthModerate to strong, but short-lived
10

Which of the following Acts created a unified administration system for India?

  1. ((a))

    Pitt’s India Act of 1784

  2. ((b))

    Regulating Act of 1793 

  3. ((c))

    Regulating Act of 1813

  4. ((d))

    Regulating Act of 1773

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Regulating Act of 1773

The correct answer is Regulating Act of 1773

Key Points

  • The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step toward centralizing the administration of British India.
  • It created a unified system by:
  • Establishing the post of the Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General).
  • Giving the Governor-General's council authority over the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras in matters of governance, creating a centralized administration.
  • Introducing a Supreme Court at Calcutta to administer justice.

Additional Information

FeaturePitt’s India Act (1784)Charter Act of 1793Charter Act of 1813
ObjectiveTo bring British control over the East India Company’s administration and ensure dual control by the Crown and the Company.To renew the East India Company’s charter for another 20 years and consolidate earlier provisions.To renew the East India Company’s charter for another 20 years and end its monopoly in trade, except for tea and opium with China.
Key Provisions- Created a Board of Control (appointed by the British Crown) to supervise the Company’s affairs.
- Distinguished between the Company’s commercial and political functions.
- Reaffirmed the powers of the Governor-General and Council.
- Allowed missionaries to spread religion in British India.
- Ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company (except tea and opium).
- Encouraged Indian trade with other British merchants.
- Allocated funds for education and the spread of Western knowledge.
GovernanceDual government: Board of Control (Crown-appointed) for political matters, and the Court of Directors (Company-appointed) for commercial matters.Strengthened the authority of the Governor-General over provinces.
Reinforced centralization of governance.
Centralized administration further. Allowed Indians and private British citizens to engage in trade.
Impact on IndiaIncreased British control over Indian territories and policies.Continued Company dominance but tightened Crown oversight.Began the process of reducing the Company’s monopoly, paving the way for British free trade in India.
SignificanceMarked the beginning of Crown intervention in Indian administration.Strengthened the Governor-General’s role in administration.First step toward liberalization of Indian trade policies. Also marked the start of state funding for education in India.
11

Meenakshisundaram Pillai, a dance guru from the village of Pandanallur, was famous for which of the following dance forms?

  1. ((a))

    Mohiniyattam

  2. ((b))

    Odissi 

  3. ((c))

    Bharatnatyam 

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bharatnatyam 

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

  • Meenakshisundaram Pillai was widely recognised for Bharatnatyam, which is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
  • He was a descendant of the Thanjavur Quartet, a group of four brothers who were court composers in the early 19th century.
  • He trained many famous Bharatanatyam dancers, including Devadasis like Pandanallur Jayalakshmi and Thangachi Ammal.
  • He also trained other dancers, including Mrinalini Sarabhai, Rukmini Devi, and Tara Chaudhri.
  • Pillai's son-in-law, Chokkalingam Pillai, became the doyen Guru of the Pandanallur style after him
  • Bharatnatyam is known for its intricate footwork, hand gestures, facial expressions and body movements that narrate a story or convey a message.

Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam​
  • Mohiniyattam is one of the two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala, the other one being Kathakali.
  • Mohiniyattam gets its name from the word ‘Mohini’, the feminine form of Lord Vishnu, the word means ‘dance of Mohini’.
  • Dr. Sunanda Nair became the first in India to acquire a Master’s degree in Mohiniyattam. She completed her Ph.D. thesis in Intrinsic Lyrical Feminism in Mohiniyattam from Mumbai University.
  • Mohiniyattam is based on Natya Shastra’s lasya style.
  • It has delicate movements and more feminine facial expressions.
  • The movements are gentle and glide-like. They do not have terse rhythmic steps.
  • More emphasis is on the facial expressions and hand gestures
  • Odissi 
  • Odissi, a renowned classical dance form of India, hails from the beautiful state of Odisha.
  • Known for its sensuousness and lyrical beauty, this dance form, often depicted as a dance of love, seamlessly blends the human and divine aspects of life.
  • It beautifully captures the subtle nuances of life, as well as the everyday mundane.
  • The origins of Odissi can be traced back to an early dance style known as Odhra Magadha.
  • This style is referred to as the southeastern style of classical dance in the Natya Shastra, which describes various dance forms.
12

Which of the following forts is located in Goa?

  1. ((a))

    Jaigarh Fort

  2. ((b))

    Bekal Fort 

  3. ((c))

    Fort Aguada

  4. ((d))

    Chandragiri Fort

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fort Aguada

The correct answer is Fort Aguada

Key Points

  • Fort Aguada is a well-known Portuguese fort located in Goa, India.
  • It was constructed in 1612 to guard against Dutch and Maratha invasions and is a popular tourist attraction in the state.
  • It is a 13-meter-high lighthouse, a freshwater spring, and stunning views of the Arabian Sea.
  • Built in 1612, it was once the grandstand of 79 cannons.
  • It has the capacity of storing 2,376,000 gallons of water, one of the biggest freshwater storage of the time in whole of Asia.

Additional Information

Fort NameLocationBuilt ByStateKey Features
Jaigarh FortNear Amer, JaipurSawai Jai Singh II (1726)RajasthanHouses the world’s largest cannon on wheels, robust defense architecture.
Bekal FortKasaragod DistrictShivappa Nayaka (17th C.)KeralaKeyhole-shaped structure overlooking the Arabian Sea.
Chandragiri FortKasaragodSivappa Nayaka (17th C.)KeralaHilltop fort with scenic views of the Chandragiri River.
13

‘Lone Fox Dancing’ is an autobiography by which of the following novelists?

  1. ((a))

    Arvind Adiga 

  2. ((b))

    Amitav Ghosh

  3. ((c))

    Ruskin Bond

  4. ((d))

    Khushwant Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ruskin Bond

The correct answer is Ruskin Bond

Key Points

  • Lone Fox Dancing is an autobiography by Ruskin Bond.
  • The book describes his childhood, his love for reading, and the inspiration for his writing.
  • It also describes his love for reading and the inspiration for his books
  • The book takes readers back in time to the British rule of India
  • It also describes Bond's life in the mountains, particularly Landour

Additional Information

AuthorBooks
Aravind AdigaThe White Tiger, Last Man in Tower, Selection Day, Amnesty
Khushwant SinghTrain to Pakistan, The Company of Women, Delhi: A Novel, The History of Sikhs, Why I Supported the Emergency
Amitav GhoshThe Shadow Lines, The Glass Palace, Sea of Poppies, Gun Island, The Nutmeg's Curse
14

Which of the following is needed for the formation of haemoglobin?

  1. ((a))

    Cu

  2. ((b))

    P

  3. ((c))

    Fe

  4. ((d))

    Ca

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fe

The correct answer is Fe

Key Points

  • Iron is needed for the formation of haemoglobin.
  • Haemoglobin is a part of red blood cells that carry oxygen and remove carbon dioxide (a waste product) from the body.
  • Iron is mostly stored in the body in the haemoglobin.
  • About one-third of iron is also stored as ferritin and hemosiderin in the bone marrow, spleen, and liver.
  • Red blood cells can't transport enough oxygen to body tissues if they don't have enough iron.
  • Iron deficiency causes anaemia.
  • Sources of iron are meat, fish, liver, eggs, green vegetables, turnip, germinating wheat grains and yeast.

Additional Information

ElementSymbolAtomic NumberAtomic Mass (u)Category
CalciumCa2040.08Alkaline Earth Metal
PhosphorusP1530.97Non-metal
CopperCu2963.55Transition Metal
15

In which of the following years did the badminton player PV Sindhu win the Olympics Medal?

  1. ((a))

    2004 and 2008

  2. ((b))

    2008 and 2012 

  3. ((c))

    2012 and 2020

  4. ((d))

    2016 and 2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2016 and 2020

The correct answer is 2016 and 2020

Key Points

  • PV Sindhu won Olympic medals in 2016 and 2020.
  • She won a silver medal in 2016 and a bronze medal in 2020.
  • PV Sindhu is a professional badminton player from Hyderabad, Telangana.
  • She has also won medals in the World Championships and Asian Games

Additional Information

  • Pusarla Venkata Sindhu​ is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal.
  • She broke into the top 20 of the BWF World Ranking in September 2012, at the age of 17.
  • She won a Bronze medal at Tokyo Olympics, in 2020.
  • She fetched the Silver medal at Rio Olympics, in 2016, South Asian Games, in 2016, and Commonwealth Games held at Gold Coast Australia, in 2018.
  • She won the Badminton World Federation (BWF) Championships and clinched a Gold.
  • She has been honored with Arjuna Award (2013), Padma Shri (2015), Major Dhyanchand Khel Ratna (2016), and Padma Bhushan (2020).
16

Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals with _________ .

  1. ((a))

    the Right to Freedom and Religion

  2. ((b))

    the Right to Constitutional Remedies

  3. ((c))

    Cultural and Educational Rights

  4. ((d))

    the Right to Freedom

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the Right to Constitutional Remedies

The correct answer is Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Key Points

  • It is one of the fundamental rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled to.
  • It entitles the citizens of India to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of these rights.
  • In the Constituent Assembly debate, Dr. B.R Ambedkar said that Article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution.
  • Article 32 falls under Part III of the Constitution which includes the fundamental rights of individuals.

Additional Information

  • Article 32 of the UCMJ requires any service member accused of violating any Punitive Article of the UCMJ to undergo a preliminary hearing.
  • An article 32 hearing is required before a defendant can be referred to a general court-martial, in order to determine whether there is enough evidence to merit a general court-martial.
  • An Article 32 hearing is a proceeding under the united States Uniform Code of Military justice, similar to that of a preliminary hearing in civilian law.
  • The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution.
17

Where was the Prarthana Samaj established in the 1860s?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Bengal 

  3. ((c))

    United Provinces

  4. ((d))

    Madras

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key PointsPrarthana Samaj

  • The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867.
  • It was founded by Atmaram Pandurang.
  • Prarthana Samaj played a very important role in the Maharashtra Renaissance.
  • It focused on religious and social reform in Maharashtra.
  • Veeresalingam Pantulu was the Telugu reformer who encouraged the Prarthana Samaj in South India.
  • Keshav Chandra Sen, an influential leader of the Brahmo community, came to Mumbai.
  • Guided the people by giving lectures in the context of social reform.
  • This lecture inspired society and the reformers.
  • Dr. Atmaram Pandurang established Prarthana Samaj in Mumbai on 31st March 1867. ​

Additional Information Other important organizations

Reformist Organization/MovementFounder(s)YearObjective/Purpose
Brahmo SamajRaja Ram Mohan Roy1828Abolition of social evils like Sati, child marriage, and promotion of monotheism.
Arya SamajSwami Dayananda Saraswati1875Revival of Vedic traditions and removal of caste-based discrimination.
Aligarh MovementSir Syed Ahmad Khan1875Educational upliftment and modernization of the Muslim community.
Ramakrishna MissionSwami Vivekananda1897Religious and social service, promoting harmony between different faiths.
Satya Shodhak SamajJyotirao Phule1873Upliftment of lower castes and eradication of untouchability and caste discrimination.
Theosophical SocietyMadame Blavatsky & Col. Olcott1875Promotion of spiritual development and cultural revival in India.
Young Bengal MovementHenry Louis Vivian Derozio1820sAdvocating rational thinking, social reforms, and freedom from orthodox practices.
Servants of India SocietyGopal Krishna Gokhale1905Training Indians for social service and promoting national unity.
18

Football 2027 Asian Cup will be hosted by _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Saudi Arabia

  4. ((d))

    Japan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saudi Arabia

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia

Key Points

  • The 2027 AFC Asian Cup will be hosted by Saudi Arabia.
  • The tournament will take place from January 7 to February 5, 2027.
  • The Asian Football Confederation (AFC) announced Saudi Arabia as the host country in 2023.
  • This will be the first time Saudi Arabia hosts the AFC Asian Cup.
  • The tournament will be held in Riyadh, Jeddah, and Al Khobar.
  • The official logo for the 2027 AFC Asian Cup is "Forward for Asia".

Additional Information

  • The Asian Cup is governed by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC) and was first held in 1956, with South Korea winning the inaugural title.
  • The first Asian Cup took place in Hong Kong and was contested by the 12 founding members of the AFC.
  • The event was thereafter held in various Asian countries every four years, with an exception in 2007 when the quadrennial cycle was moved forward one year.
19

Where did Dadabhai Naoroji establish the East India Company Association?

  1. ((a))

    Paris

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    London

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

London

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

  • Dadabhai Naoroji founded The East India Association in 1866.
  • He founded it with Indian members and retired British officials in London.
  • It was supplanted by the London Indian Society.
  • The objective behind the association was:
  • to provide a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India,
  • and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.
  • Dadabhai Naoroji delivered the first lecture at the Association on 2 May 1867.
  • The first President of the East India Association was Lord Lyveden.
  • The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association in 1949 and became the Britain, India, and Pakistan Association.
  • In 1966 it amalgamated with the former India Society, now Royal India, Pakistan, and Ceylon Society, to become the Royal Society for India, Pakistan, and Ceylon.

Additional Information

  • The London Indian Society
  • ​In 1865, the London Indian Society was founded under the guidance of Dadabhai Naoroji.
  • It was formed by Indian students as a forum to air political grievances.
  • Europeans were allowed to be honorary members but could not vote or hold office.
  • Of the founding group of students, they included W. C. Bonnerjee, Manomohun Ghose, Pherozeshah Mehta and Badruddin Tyabji.
  • In 1866, the London Indian Society was superseded by the East India Association, although it did continue to exist in some separate form for a few more years.
20

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that it is our duty to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so?

  1. ((a))

    Article 51 A (d) 

  2. ((b))

    Article 51 A (g) 

  3. ((c))

    Article 51 A (e)

  4. ((d))

    Article 51 A (f) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 51 A (d) 

The correct answer is Article 51 (d)

Key Points

  • Article 51A (d) of the Constitution of India states that citizens are required to defend the country and perform national service when called upon to do so.
  • Article 51A is a part of the Indian Constitution that deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added these duties.
  • **Article 51A (**d) is one of the 11 Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.

Additional Information

Other Fundamental Duties include:

  • Cherishing and following the ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom
  • Protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
  • Respecting the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem
  • Promoting harmony and brotherhood among all citizens
21

With reference to electric charges, identify the INCORRECT statement

  1. ((a))

    Lightning conductor can be used to predict lightning strike. 

  2. ((b))

    The electrical charges produced by rubbing are called static charges.

  3. ((c))

    Lightning conductor can protect a building from lightning.

  4. ((d))

    Like charges repel and unlike charges attract each other.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lightning conductor can be used to predict lightning strike. 

The correct answer is Lightning conductor can be used to predict lightning strike. 

Key Points

  • "Lightning conductor can be used to predict lightning strike."
  • This statement is incorrect because a lightning conductor is designed to protect structures from lightning, not predict it.
  • It works by providing a path of least resistance for the lightning to follow and safely discharge into the ground.
  • The purpose of a lightning conductor is to divert the electric charge from a lightning strike, thus preventing damage to buildings or structures.
  • Predicting lightning strikes requires complex meteorological analysis, which is not something a lightning conductor can do.

Additional Information

  • Electric charge can be defined as an electrical attribute of matter which emerges as a result of electron accessibility or insufficiency.
  • There are two types of electric charges: positive and negative charges.
  • Charges which are similar repel each other, while charges that are opposite attract each other.
  • The SI unit of electric charge is Coulomb(C).
  • The formula for electric charge is given by:IQ=I*t[Q=I×t][Q=I×t[Q=I×t][Q=I×t]
  • Where Q is the charge in coulomb and t is time, I is the current in Ampere.
22

According to India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF), India has the _____ largest road network in the world (as of August 2022).

  1. ((a))

    first

  2. ((b))

    fourth

  3. ((c))

    second

  4. ((d))

    third

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

second

The correct answer is second

Key Points

  • According to the India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF), India has the second largest road network in the world as of August 2022.
  • India boasts a vast road network spanning approximately 6.7 million kilometers, placing it at the second position globally.
  • The road network comprises national highways, state highways, district roads, and rural roads.
  • The Indian government has been investing heavily in the development of roads and highways to improve connectivity and promote economic growth.

Additional Information

  • India indeed has a well-developed air network, but it is not the second-largest in the world.
  • The country has a robust domestic and international flight infrastructure, serving as a key hub in Asia.
  • However, the United States holds the distinction of having the largest air network globally, followed by China.
  • India's air network is large, but it ranks lower in terms of the total number of flights, routes, and airports.
  • Similarly, Indian Railways is one of the largest rail networks globally, with an extensive and complex system that covers more than 67,000 kilometers.
  • It plays a crucial role in the country's economy, connecting far-flung regions and facilitating the movement of goods and passengers.
  • However, it is not the second-largest road network. United States and China have more extensive road networks than India. India’s road network is substantial, though, making up a significant portion of the world's roads.
  • When it comes to India’s vast coastline, it stretches over 7,517 kilometers, making it one of the longest coastlines in the world. India is surrounded by the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, and Bay of Bengal, and its coastline includes some major ports like Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, and Kochi.
  • This coastline is vital for the country’s trade and commerce, with significant international shipping routes passing through.
  • In addition, the coastline is rich in biodiversity, providing critical ecosystems for marine life.
23

Chandertal, Renuka and Pong Dam are the three Ramsar wetland sites of which state?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Himachal Pradesh 

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh

Key Points

  • Chandertal, Renuka, and Pong Dam are Ramsar wetland sites in Himachal Pradesh.
  • Chandertal
  • It is Located in Lahaul & Spiti, Chandertal is a Ramsar wetland site in Himachal Pradesh.
  • Renuka
  • It is Located in Sirmaur, Renuka is a natural wetland in the Western Himalayas.
  • It is fed by a small stream from the lower Himalayan hills.
  • Pong Dam
  • It is Located in Kangra, Pong Dam is a Ramsar wetland site in Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is also known as the Pong reservoir or the Maharana Pratap Sagar.

Additional Information

StateDamRiver
KarnatakaKRS (Krishna Raja Sagara) DamCauvery
Tungabhadra DamTungabhadra
Almatti DamKrishna
AssamSubansiri Lower DamSubansiri
Karbi Langpi DamBorpani
GujaratSardar Sarovar DamNarmada
Ukai DamTapi
Kadana DamMahi
24

According to the Agricultural and Processed food products Export Development Authority (APEDA) 2021-2022, which state of India has the first rank in mango production?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh is the top mango producing state in India.
  • The state's favorable climate, fertile soil, and rich tradition of mango cultivation contribute to its dominance in mango production.
  • Uttar Pradesh produces around 4 million tonnes of mangoes annually.
  • The state's mango production accounts for 20.45% of the country's total mango production.
  • Uttar Pradesh's mango productivity is 17.13 MT/ha.

Additional Information

StateTop-Producing Items
Bihar- Litchi: Muzaffarpur is a major producer, known for Shahi Litchi.
- Makhana (Fox Nut): Bihar is the largest producer, especially in the Mithila region.
- Silk: Bhagalpur silk is renowned globally.
- Sugarcane: Contributes significantly to India's sugar production.
- Maize: Bihar is one of the leading maize producers in India.
Karnataka- Coffee: Karnataka produces over 70% of India’s coffee, primarily from Coorg and Chikmagalur.
- Gold: Kolar Gold Fields (historical), and Hutti in Raichur District produces gold.
- Silk: Karnataka is the top producer of mulberry silk, with Mysore and Bengaluru being key hubs.
- Arecanut: The state leads in arecanut production in India.
- Spices: Black pepper and cardamom from the Western Ghats.
Maharashtra- Sugarcane: One of the largest sugar-producing states in India.
- Grapes: Nashik is known as the "Wine Capital of India," leading in table and wine grape production.
- Mangoes: Ratnagiri Alphonso mangoes are world-famous.
- Onions: Maharashtra is the largest producer of onions in India.
25

According to the census of India 2011, which state has the second highest density of population per square kilometre?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh 

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • Population Density 
  • Population Density is expressed as the number of people per unit area
  • According to the census of 2011, the population density of India is 382 people/square km
  • The following table shows the population density of the different states
StatePopulation Density (per sq. Km) as per census 2011
Bihar1106
West Bengal1028
Uttar Pradesh829
Punjab551

Additional Information

  • The first census in India was conducted in 1872 AD in the tenure of Lord Mayo.
  • But in 1881 AD that is from the time of Lord Ripon regular decadal census was started.
  • India's population is 17.5% of the total population of the World.
26

Which of the following is NOT correct about agriculture industry?

  1. ((a))

    Green revolution enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in food grain production. 

  2. ((b))

    Green revolution started the usage of HYV seeds. 

  3. ((c))

    Green revolution resulted in the improvement in oilseeds. 

  4. ((d))

    Green revolution led to the introduction of new technology. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Green revolution resulted in the improvement in oilseeds. 

The correct answer is Green revolution resulted in the improvement in oilseeds. 

Key Points

  • The Green Revolution primarily focused on increasing the production of staple crops like wheat and rice through the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and modern irrigation techniques.
  • While it did contribute to the improvement of several crops, oilseeds were not the primary focus during the Green Revolution.
  • The improvement of oilseeds, like mustard, groundnut, and soybean, gained more attention later, during the Yellow Revolution (1980s).
  • The Yellow Revolution, led by government initiatives and research programs, specifically focused on enhancing the production of oilseeds in India.

Additional Information

  • The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural transformation in India that used modern technology to increase food production.
  • The Green Revolution introduced HYV seeds, which were more productive and had a shorter maturity period. This allowed for multiple cropping cycles per year.
  • The Green Revolution also introduced other technologies, such as irrigation facilities, tractors, pesticides, and fertilizers.
  • The Green Revolution helped India become self-sufficient in food grain production.
27

The post of Vice President has been taken from the Constitution of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    Germany 

  3. ((c))

    The UK

  4. ((d))

    The US

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The US

The correct answer is The US

 Key Points

  • The provision of the post of vice president in the Indian Constitution is taken from the US Constitution.
  • The vice president of India is the second-highest constitutional office in the country and is elected indirectly by an Electoral College consisting of members of both houses of Parliament.
  • The US Constitution also provides for a vice president who serves as the second-in-command to the President and is elected through a similar Electoral College system.
  • The Indian Constitution also draws inspiration from other constitutions, such as the British Constitution, the Irish Constitution, and the Australian Constitution.

Additional Information

CountryConstitutional Influence on Indian Constitution
Australia- Federal System: A strong central government with a federal structure.
- Concurrent List: Laws can be made by both central and state legislatures.
Germany- Directive Principles of State Policy: Inspired by the German Constitution's idea of guiding principles for governance.
- Emergency Provisions: Similar to Germany’s provisions during times of crisis.
United Kingdom- Parliamentary System of Government: The structure of the Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) is based on the British model.
- Rule of Law: Inspired by the British concept of law being supreme and applied equally to all.
- Conventions: Based on British parliamentary conventions (e.g., the office of the Prime Minister).
28

When did Dipa Karmakar win the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in Gymnastics?

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2017

  3. ((c))

    2018

  4. ((d))

    2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2016

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

  • Dipa Karmakar is an Indian artistic gymnast who gained significant recognition for her performances.
  • She was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2016, India's highest sporting honor.
  • Dipa is known for her exceptional performance in the 2016 Rio Olympics, where she finished fourth in the women's vault gymnastics event.
  • She became the first Indian female gymnast to compete in the Olympics and achieve such a high ranking.
  • The Khel Ratna Award recognizes outstanding achievements in the field of sports by Indian athletes.

Additional Information

  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
  • It is the highest sporting honor in India, named after the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
  • The award was instituted in 1991-1992 to honor athletes for their outstanding performance in sports.
  • Recipients of this award receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • Dipa Karmakar's Career Highlights
  • Born on 9 August 1993 in Agartala, Tripura, India.
  • She is one of the few gymnasts in the world to successfully execute the Produnova vault, known for its high difficulty level.
  • Dipa has won multiple medals at various international competitions, including the Commonwealth Games and Asian Gymnastics Championships.
  • She was conferred with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2017.
  • 2016 Rio Olympics
  • The 2016 Summer Olympics were held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from August 5 to August 21.
  • It marked India's largest-ever delegation to the Olympics with 117 athletes competing in 15 sports.
  • Dipa Karmakar's performance in the women's vault final brought her international acclaim despite narrowly missing out on a medal.
  • Her achievement was widely celebrated in India, highlighting the potential of Indian athletes in gymnastics.
29

The Harike Barrage has been constructed at the confluence of which two rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Beas and Sutlej

  2. ((b))

    Ganga and Yamuna 

  3. ((c))

    Luni and Subarnarekha

  4. ((d))

    Mahanadi and Damodar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Beas and Sutlej

The correct answer is Beas and Sutlej

Key Points Harike Barrage

  • It is one of the largest man-made wetlands of northern India.
  • This wetland shares its area with the Tarntaran, Ferozpur, and Kapurthala districts of Punjab.
  • It came into existence after the construction of a barrage near the confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas in 1952.
  • It is also a Ramsar site.
  • Harike is a significant site for birds migrating from across the international frontiers.
  • The wetland area is spread over about 41 km2 and supports more than 400 avian species.
  • Harike also harbours endangered aquatic mammalian as well as reptilian fauna like the Indus river dolphin, smooth-coated otter, and seven species of rare freshwater turtles.

Additional Information

River PairBarrage/Structure
Ganga and YamunaNaini Barrage (Yamuna), Farakka Barrage (Ganga)
Luni and SubarnarekhaLuni River does not have a major barrage, but the Subarnarekha River has the Subarnarekha Barrage in Jharkhand
Mahanadi and DamodarHirakud Dam (Mahanadi), Durgapur Barrage (Damodar)
30

Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of which of the following Gupta Kings?

  1. ((a))

    Chandragupta II 

  2. ((b))

    Bhanugupta 

  3. ((c))

    Samudragupta 

  4. ((d))

    Budhagupta 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandragupta II 

The correct answer is Chandragupta II.

Key Points

  • The famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
  • Chandragupta II  adopted the titles Sakari and Vikramaditya.
  • Chandragupta II conquered Western Malwa and Gujarat, from the Shaka Kshatrapas Rudrasena III.
  • He issued silver coins in the memory of the victory over Sakas.
  • He was the first Gupta ruler to issue silver coins
  • Ujjain made the second capital by Chandragupta II.

Additional Information

  • Gupta Period (319 AD-540 AD):
  • Chandragupta I was the first Gupta ruler to assume the title of Maharajadhiraja.
  • He established his authority over Magadha, Saketa and Prayaga.
  • Samudragupta was the greatest king of the Gupta dynasty.
  • Samudragupta’s military campaigns justify description of him as the Napoleon of India by V.A. Smith.
31

The study of cell structure is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    Fisheries

  2. ((b))

    Anatomy

  3. ((c))

    cytology

  4. ((d))

    Morphology

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

cytology

The correct answer is cytology

Key Points

  • Cytology is the study of individual cells of the body, in contrast to histology which is the study of whole human tissue.
  • The human body is made up of millions of cells and these can be sampled and viewed under a microscope after appropriate preparation to help diagnose medical conditions.
  • This involves looking at individual cells for abnormal changes in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm (body) of the cell.
  • The nucleus contains the genetic material that controls the cell and determines what type of cell it will become, but also controls its behavior.
  • Cytology is widely used in medicine for the prevention and diagnosis of disease.

Additional Information

  • Robert Hooke was the first scientist to use the word 'cell' in 1665 when he looked at slices of cork through a lit compound microscope and observed very small, irregular boxes that reminded him of tiny rooms, or cells.
  • Hooke wrote about his findings and drew the structures he saw in his book Micrographia, which was published in 1665.
  • The earliest cell theory was developed in 1838 by plant scientist Matthias Schleiden and animal scientist Theodor Schwann.
  • They each came to the same conclusion that the living things they studied were composed of cells.
32

Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Indian President to constitute a GST Council by an order? 

  1. ((a))

    Article 279-A

  2. ((b))

    Article 277-A

  3. ((c))

    Article 280-A

  4. ((d))

    Article 278-A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 279-A

The correct answer is Article 279A.

Key Points 

  • GST Council
  • It is a constitutional body under Article 279A.
  • It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
  • The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
  • It is considered as a federal body where both the center and the states get due representation.
  • Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting

Additional Information In India, GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill).

  • This got approval in 2016 and was renumbered in the statute by Rajya Sabha as The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016.
  • Its provisions:
  • Central GST to cover Excise duty, Service tax, etc, State GST to cover VAT, luxury tax, etc.
  • Integrated GST to cover inter-state trade. IGST per se is not a tax but a system to coordinate state and union taxes.
  • Article 246A – states have the power to tax goods and services.​
  • Excise Duty :
  • Excise duty is a form of tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing, and sale.
  • Today, excise duty applies only to petroleum and liquor.
  • Excise duty was levied on manufactured goods and levied at the time of removal of goods, while GST is levied on the supply of goods and services.
  • Value Added Tax :
  • Value-added tax (VAT) is a type of indirect tax levied on goods and services for value-added at every point of production or distribution cycle, starting from raw materials and going all the way to the final retail purchase.
  • Because the consumer bears the entire tax, VAT is also a consumption tax.
  • Service Tax :
  • Service tax is a tax levied by the government on service providers on certain service transactions but is actually borne by the customers.
  • It is categorized under Indirect Tax and came into existence under the Finance Act, 1994.
  • This tax is not applicable in the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
33

Kolayat festival is celebrated in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Jharkhand

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

  • The annual fair of Kolayat is organized in Bikaner, Rajasthan.
  • It is also called the Kapil Muni Mela.
  • The fair is organized at the bank of the Kolayat river.
  • The fair is organized in the month of Karthik of the Hindu Calendar.

Additional Information

Fairs of Rajasthan

FairsDistricts
Karni Mata MelaBikaner
Brith Hari MelaAlwar
Kalyan Ji ka MelaTonk
Pushkar MelaAjmer
Beneshwar MelaDungarpur
Khatu Shyam Ji MelaSikar
Karjali Teej MelaBundi
Kaila Devi MelaKarauli
Lakhi MelaSawai Madhopur
34

In which of the following Articles of India is it mentioned that “it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom”?

  1. ((a))

    51A (b)

  2. ((b))

    51A (f)

  3. ((c))

    51A (a)

  4. ((d))

    51A (i) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

51A (b)

The correct answer is 51(b)

Key Points

  • The duty of Indian citizens to follow the ideals that inspired the country's struggle for freedom is mentioned in Article 51A(b) of the Constitution of India.
  • This article is part of the Fundamental Duties of the Constitution.
  • Article 51A of the Indian Constitution lays down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
  • It was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, and it specifies various duties that every citizen is expected to follow to promote the welfare of the nation​

Additional Information

  • Some of the key duties mentioned in this article include:
  • Article 51A (a): To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
  • Article 51A (c): To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • Article 51A (d): To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • Article 51A (e): To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.
  • Article 51A (f): To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  • Article 51A (g): To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • Article 51A (h): To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • Article 51A (i): To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  • Article 51A (j): To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
35

Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam has gained global recognition for the spread of which of the following classical dance forms of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Bharatanatyam

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi 

  3. ((c))

    Sattriya  

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kuchipudi 

The correct answer is Kuchipudi

Key Points 

  • Vempati Chinna Satyam
  • Vempati Chinna Satyam(1929-2012) was an Indian dancer and a guru of the Kuchipudi dance form.
  • Born in a brahmin family, in Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh.
  • He refined the art form, bringing it closer to the standards of Natya Shastra and giving it a whole new perspective, and introducing new elements, i.e chari(leg movements) of Natya Shastra.
  • He has started the Kuchipudi Art Academy at Madras in 1963.
  • He was awarded by many state governments of India such as Kalaimamani by the Government of Tamil Nadu and Kalidas Puraskar by the Government of Madhya Pradesh.
  • He was honored with a Doctorate degree from Andhra University.
  • He was also awarded the Padma Bhushan by the Government of India, the third highest civilian award.

Additional Information 

  • | Classical Dance Form | Prominent Exponent(s) | | --- | --- | | Bharatanatyam | Rukmini Devi Arundale, Padma Subrahmanyam, Alarmel Valli | | Kathak | Birju Maharaj, Pandit Chitresh Das, Shovana Narayan | | Odissi | Sanjukta Panigrahi, Kelucharan Mohapatra, Kumudini Lakhia | | Kuchipudi | Vempati Chinna Satyam, Swapnasundari, Shobha Naidu | | Manipuri | Sanjibani Devi, Kalavati Devi, Bimbavati Devi | | Mohiniyattam | Kalamandalam Kalyani, Guru Gopinath, Dr. Sanjukta Panigrahi | | Sattriya | Bhabananda Barbayan, Guru Hiteshwar Saikia | | Kathakali | Guru Gopinath, Matta, Kottakkal Sivaraman |
36

Who among the following is the author of the book Kitab-ul-Hind?

  1. ((a))

    Al Masudi

  2. ((b))

    Al-Biruni

  3. ((c))

    Shihabuddin al-Umari 

  4. ((d))

    Ibn Battuta

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Al-Biruni

The correct answer is Al -beruni.

Key Points

  • Kitab-ul-Hind was written by Al-Biruni.
  • It is a famous Arabic text wherein he comments on Indian Sciences, Hindu religious beliefs, customs, and Social organization.
  • Al-Biruni was the First Muslim Scholar to study India and its Brahmanical tradition.
  • He is called the father of Indology and the first anthropologist.
  • He is called one of the earliest and greatest polymaths of the Islamic World.
  • Alberuni in his book Kitab-ul-Hind appreciated a very high degree of proficiency of Indians in the construction of Tanks and reservoirs at holy places.

Additional Information

  • Ibn Battuta 
  • Ibn Battuta was a Muslim Moroccan scholar.
  • Ibn Batuta's book name is Rihia that is written in Arabic, provides extremely rich and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth century.
  • Al-Masudi
  • Al Masudi an Arab explorer from Baghdad, gave an account of the reversal of ocean currents and the monsoon winds over the north Indian plain.
  • Al-Masudi was an Arab historian, geographer, and traveler. He is sometimes referred to as the "Herodotus of the Arabs".
37

Kelucharan Mohapatra has been awarded the Padma Bhushan for which form of classical dance?

  1. ((a))

    Odissi 

  2. ((b))

    Bharatanatyam

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odissi 

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

  • ​Kelucharan Mohapatra was a well-known guru, performer, and exponent of Indian classical dance.
  • In the 20th century, he is credited with bringing back and popularizing this classical dancing style.
  • He is the first recipient of Odisha's Padma Vibhushan.
  • Odissi dance:
  • The temples of Odisha are where the odissi dance had its start.
  • Throughout its history, women predominately performed odissi.
  • Through songs, it conveyed spiritual and religious beliefs, particularly those of Vaishnavism.
  • The concepts of other traditions, such as those relating to the Hindu Gods Shiva and Surya and Hindu Goddesses, have also been conveyed through odissi performances.

Additional Information

Dance FormExponents
BharatanatyamRukmini Devi Arundale, Balasaraswati, Alarmel Valli, Yamini Krishnamurthy
KathakBirju Maharaj, Uma Sharma, Shovana Narayan, Pandit Lachhu Maharaj
KathakaliGuru Gopinath, Kalamandalam Gopi, Guru Radha Radhakrishnan
OdissiSanjukta Panigrahi, Kelucharan Mohapatra, Sanchita Bhattacharya
KuchipudiVempati Chinna Satyam, Dr. Shobha Naidu, Raja and Radha Reddy
ManipuriBiren Singh, Konika Dutta, Chitra Visweswaran
MohiniyattamThankamani Kutty, Bharati Shivaji, Madhavi Mudgal
SattriyaBhabananda Barbayan, Rajkumar Pritam, Shankarlal Bhuyan
38

Who among the following Indian reformers is credited with the campaign for widow remarriage and on whose suggestion a law was passed by the British officials in 1856, permitting the same?

  1. ((a))

    Ayyankali

  2. ((b))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 

  3. ((c))

    Mumtaz Ali

  4. ((d))

    Savitri Bai Phule

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 

The correct answer is Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Key Points

  • Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry.
  • His suggestion was adopted by British officials, and a law was passed in 1856 permitting widow remarriage.
  • Those who were against the remarriage of widows opposed Vidyasagar and even boycotted him.
  • The Indian reformer credited with campaigning for widow remarriage and influencing the British officials to pass a law permitting it in 1856 is Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar. 

By the second half of the nineteenth century, the movement in favor of widow remarriage spread to other parts of the country.

  • In Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage.
  • Young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay pledged themselves to work for the same cause.
  • In the north, Swami Dayanand Saraswati also supported widow remarriage.

Additional Information

Social ideas supported by some great leaders

  • Rammohun Roy
  • Spread of Western education
  • Reforming Hinduism
  • Greater freedom and equality for women
  • Upliftment of widows Campaigned against the practise of sati
  • Dayanand Saraswati
  • Reforming Hinduism
  • Supported widow remarriage
  • Education for girls
  • Veerasalingam Pantulu 
  • Supported widow remarriage
  • Jyotirao Phule
  • Education for girls
  • Critical of the caste system
  • Critical of all forms of inequality
39

Identify the correct statements about Independence Day and Republic Day of India.

i) Independence Day is celebrated on 15th August since 1947.

ii) Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January since 1950.

iii) Independence Day is celebrated as Independence from British rule.

iv) Republic day is celebrated since the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India in 1949.

  1. ((a))

    i, iii and iv 

  2. ((b))

    ii, iii and iv

  3. ((c))

     i, ii and iii

  4. ((d))

    i, ii and iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 i, ii and iii

The correct answer is i,ii and iii

Key Points

  • i**) Independence Day is celebrated on 15th August since 1947.**
  • This statement is True
  • Independence Day marks the day India gained independence from British rule on 15th August 1947.
  • The British ended their colonial rule, and India became an independent nation on that day.
  • The first Independence Day was celebrated in 1947, and since then, it has been celebrated annually on the same date.
  • ii) Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January since 1950.
  • This statement is True
  • Republic Day is celebrated to honor the date when the Constitution of India came into effect on 26th January 1950, making India a Republic.
  • The day marks the transition from a British Dominion to a fully sovereign nation, where the Indian Constitution became the supreme law of the land.
  • Even though the Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, it was only enforced on 26th January 1950, which is why Republic Day is celebrated on this date.
  • iii) Independence Day is celebrated as Independence from British rule.
  • This statement is True
  • Independence Day is a celebration of India's freedom from British colonial rule.
  • After nearly 200 years of British control, India gained its independence on 15th August 1947.
  • It marks the end of British rule and the beginning of self-governance.

Additional Information

  • iv) Republic Day is celebrated since the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India in 1949.
  • This statement is not true
  • The Constituent Assembly did adopt the Constitution on 26th November 1949, but Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January, the day in 1950 when the Constitution was implemented and India officially became a Republic.
  • While the Constitution was adopted in 1949, it only came into effect on 26th January 1950, and that's why Republic Day is celebrated on that date.
40

The 11th Fundamental Duty was added to the Indian Constitution by the ________ Constitutional Amendment Act.

  1. ((a))

    87th

  2. ((b))

    84th

  3. ((c))

    88th

  4. ((d))

    86th

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

86th

The correct answer is 86th.

Key Points

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
  • The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 later added the 11th fundamental duty to the list.
  • The Swaran Singh Committee suggested the adoption of Fundamental Duties in 1976 after they were deemed necessary amid the internal problems of 1975–1977.
  • The Fundamental Duties are covered by Article 51A of Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
  • The basic requirements imposed by the 42nd Amendment Act of the Constitution in 1976 offer the legislature more ability to uphold these commitments in regard to the fundamental rights, in addition to promoting and producing culture.

Additional Information

  • The importance of fundamental duties:
  • They serve as a reminder to Indian citizens of their obligations to society, their fellow citizens, and the country.
  • They caution people to avoid engaging in anti-social and anti-national behavior.
  • They motivate others and instill a sense of devotion and discipline in them.
  • They assist the courts in reviewing and determining whether the statute is constitutional.
  • There are 11 Fundamental Duties:
  • ​To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
  • To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002)
41

Who converted Menander to Buddhism?

  1. ((a))

    Bhadrabahu

  2. ((b))

    Buddhaghosh

  3. ((c))

    Nagasena

  4. ((d))

    Asvaghosha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nagasena

The correct answer is Nagasena

Key Points

  • The Buddhist monk Nagasena converted the Indo-Greek king Menander to Buddhism.
  • The conversation between the two is recorded in the book Milinda Panho, which translates to "Questions of Milinda".
  • ​Menander was an Indo-Greek ruler who ruled over India. He was also known as Milinda.
  • Nagasena was a holy man and Buddhist sage.
  • The conversation between Menander and Nagasena took place in Sagala, which is present-day Sialkot.
  • The book Milinda Panho is written in Pali and was written in 130 BC.
  • The book is considered canonical in Burmese Buddhism.

Additional Information 

NameKey Facts
Bhadrabahu- One of the last great Acharyas (teachers) of Jainism in ancient India.
- Led the Jain community after the death of Chandragupta Maurya.
- Famous for his role in the spread of Jainism, especially in southern India.
- He is believed to have taken a group of Jain followers to South India to preserve the Jain traditions.
Buddhaghosh- Famous for translating many important Buddhist texts from Sanskrit to Pali.
- His most notable work is the "Visuddhimagga" (Path of Purification), a comprehensive manual on Theravada Buddhism.
- His works were instrumental in shaping the Theravada Buddhist tradition.
Asvaghosha- A major figure in the early history of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Known for writing "Buddhacharita", an epic poem that narrates the life of Lord Buddha.
- Played a significant role in promoting Mahayana Buddhist ideas and in the development of Buddhist philosophy and literature.
42

Which of the following is NOT one of the problems with microfinance?

  1. ((a))

    Skewed growth across the country

  2. ((b))

    Lack of transparency and absence of governance structure 

  3. ((c))

    Operational, attitudinal and policy-level constraints 

  4. ((d))

     Excess flow of funds towards microfinance 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 Excess flow of funds towards microfinance 

The correct answer is  the Excess flow of funds towards microfinance 

Key Points

  • Microfinance is a financial service that provides small loans and financial products to people who typically don’t have access to traditional banking services
  • Excess flow of funds towards microfinance 
  • This is not typically considered a problem of microfinance
  • In fact, many critics argue that the issue is often the lack of sufficient funds or investment, which prevents microfinance institutions from expanding or reaching a larger number of people.
  • The real concern is often misallocation or inefficient use of funds.
  • Some microfinance institutions may face criticism for focusing on financial sustainability rather than on the social goals of empowering the poor, but the idea of "too much funding" is generally not seen as a problem.

Additional Information

  • Skewed growth across the country:
  • This refers to how microfinance institutions (MFIs) tend to concentrate their services in certain regions, often urban or more economically developed areas, rather than being distributed evenly across the country.
  • This results in unequal access to microfinance, which can exacerbate existing regional inequalities.
  • Thus, skewed growth is indeed a problem associated with microfinance.
  • Lack of transparency and absence of governance structure:
  • This is a common criticism of many microfinance institutions.
  • Some institutions may operate without clear oversight, transparency, or accountability, which can lead to misuse of funds, high-interest rates, or exploitation of borrowers.
  • A lack of good governance and transparency hinders trust and the effectiveness of microfinance.
  • Operational, attitudinal, and policy-level constraints:
  • Microfinance institutions often face various operational challenges, such as high transaction costs due to small loan sizes and geographically dispersed borrowers.
  • There may also be policy-level constraints, like inadequate regulation or support for microfinance operations.
  • Additionally, attitudinal issues, such as a lack of understanding of the needs of clients or resistance to the microfinance model, can affect the success of these programs.
43

When were female participants formally admitted to the Olympic Games?

  1. ((a))

    Paris, 1900

  2. ((b))

    London, 1908

  3. ((c))

    Helsinki, 1952

  4. ((d))

    Berlin, 1936

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Paris, 1900

The correct answer is Paris, 1900

Key Points

  • 1900 was the year when women first participated in the Modern Olympics.
  • The 1900 Summer Olympics, held in Paris, France, marked the first time women were allowed to compete.
  • Women participated in events such as tennis, sailing, croquet, equestrian, and golf.
  • This was a significant milestone in the history of the Olympic Games, promoting gender equality in sports.

Additional Information

  • Athens was the venue for the first Olympics which was held in 1896.
  • Since then Games are held every four years.
  • The Olympic flag was created in 1913 at the suggestion of Baron Pierre de Coubertin.
  • In the Amsterdam Games in 1928, an Olympic flame was ceremonially lighted and burned in a giant torch at the entrance of the stadium.
  • The Olympic motto is “Citius Altius Fortius” (faster, higher, stronger).
  • The Modern Olympics were revived in 1896, but women were not allowed to compete in that year.
  • Over the years, the inclusion of women in the Olympics has grown, with more events and opportunities for female athletes.
  • Today, the International Olympic Committee (IOC) strives for gender parity in the Olympic Games.
  • The inclusion of women in the Olympics has had a lasting impact on promoting women's sports and inspiring future generations of female athletes.
44

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the antioxidants?

  1. ((a))

     It prevents the damage of cellular functions.

  2. ((b))

    It helps in the repair of cellular functions. 

  3. ((c))

    Animal products are the chief source of antioxidants.

  4. ((d))

    It delays the ageing process. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Animal products are the chief source of antioxidants.

The correct answer is Animal products are the chief source of antioxidants.

Key Points

  • The statement that is NOT true regarding antioxidants is "Animal products are the chief source of antioxidants".
  • The primary source of antioxidants is typically plant-based foods like fruits, vegetables, and nuts
  • Antioxidants neutralize free radicals, preventing damage to cellular functions
  • They are believed to help delay the aging process by reducing oxidative stress.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin A, C, and E are considered key dietary antioxidants.
  • Vitamin A:
  • Vitamin A, in its active form as retinol, helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals.
  • It plays a crucial role in maintaining healthy skin, vision, and immune function.
  • It has antioxidant properties that help in reducing oxidative stress, which can contribute to chronic diseases and aging.
  • Vitamin C:
  • Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is a powerful water-soluble antioxidant that helps neutralize free radicals in the body.
  • It also helps regenerate other antioxidants and supports the immune system.
  • Vitamin C is vital for the **synthesis of collagen (**important for skin health) and has been shown to protect against the damage caused by oxidative stress and inflammation.
  • Vitamin E:
  • Vitamin E, primarily in the form of alpha-tocopherol, is a fat-soluble antioxidant that helps protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.
  • It is particularly important for maintaining the health of the skin, eyes, and immune system.
  • Vitamin E also plays a role in preventing the oxidation of lipids (fats), which is crucial for preventing cardiovascular disease.
45

The city of Hampi was named after the local mother goddess called _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Hampini

  2. ((b))

    Hidimba

  3. ((c))

    Hampidevi

  4. ((d))

    Pampadevi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pampadevi 

The correct answer is Pampadevi 

Key Points

  • Hampi is an ancient village in the Indian state of Karnataka.
  • The city of Hampi was named after Pampa, the local mother goddess, who is another name for the Hindu goddess Parvati.
  • On the south bank of the River Tungabhadra is the 7th-century Virupaksha Temple, near the revived Hampi Bazaar.
  • Southeast of Hampi, Daroji Bear Sanctuary is home to the Indian sloth bear.

Additional Information

  • Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14th century.
  • Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of both a city and an empire.
  • Hampi is also referred to the Group of Monuments, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in East-Central Karnataka.
  • The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday, it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula.
  • The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by Colonel Colin Mackenzie. He worked for East India Company.
46

In foreign technology agreements, automatic permission is provided in high priority industry up to a sum of __________. 

  1. ((a))

    ₹1 crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹2.5 crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹2 crores

  4. ((d))

    ₹1.5 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1 crore

The correct answer is ₹1 crore

Key Points

  • According to the New Industrial Policy of 1991, automatic permission is provided in high priority industries for foreign technology agreements up to a sum of Rs. 1 crore.
  • This means that companies operating in high priority sectors can automatically enter into foreign technology agreements without needing additional government approval as long as the total payment for technology transfer does not exceed Rs. 1 crore.
  • This helps streamline the process, encouraging foreign investment and technology transfer into sectors that are crucial for the nation's development.
  • For amounts exceeding ₹1 crore, companies would need to obtain approval from the government or appropriate authorities.
  • This policy aims to balance ease of doing business with oversight to ensure national interests are maintained.

Additional Information

  • The New Industrial Policy (NIP) of 1991 was a reform program that aimed to liberalize the Indian economy and increase the competitiveness of its industries.
  • The policy was a response to a balance of payments crisis.
  • Objectives 
  • Liberalization: Reduce government control and increase the role of the private sector
  • Privatization: Increase the role of the private sector in industrial development
  • Globalization: Integrate the Indian economy with the world economy
47

Who pioneered the concept of microfinance? 

  1. ((a))

    Medha Patkar

  2. ((b))

    Ela Bhatt

  3. ((c))

    Mohammad Yunus

  4. ((d))

    Anna Hazare 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mohammad Yunus

The correct answer is Muhammad Yunus

Key Points

  • Muhammad Yunus is recognized as the founder of modern microfinance.
  • He established the Grameen Bank in Bangladesh in 1983, which provides small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral.
  • The concept of microfinance aims to empower the poor, especially women, by providing them with the means to start small businesses and improve their living conditions.
  • Yunus’s innovative banking model has been replicated worldwide and has helped millions of people escape poverty.
  • In recognition of his efforts, Muhammad Yunus and the Grameen Bank were awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006.

Additional Information

  • Microfinance refers to financial services, including loans, savings, insurance, and fund transfers, provided to low-income individuals or groups who typically lack access to traditional banking services.
  • The Grameen Bank model is based on mutual trust, accountability, participation, and creativity.
  • The success of microfinance institutions like the Grameen Bank has demonstrated that providing financial services to the poor can be a sustainable and profitable venture.
  • Microfinance has been a powerful tool for social and economic development, contributing to poverty reduction, women's empowerment, and improved health and education outcomes.
48

According to the Census of India 2011, which state recorded the highest sex ratio?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka 

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kerala has the highest sex ratio in India, according to the 2011 census, with 1084 girls for every 1000 males.
  • Tamil Nadu ranks second with 996 girls for every 1000 males.
  • With a sex ratio of 993, Andhra Pradesh ranks third, followed by Chhattisgarh (991) and Meghalaya  (989).
  • With 879 girls for every 1000 males, Haryana has the poorest sex ratio among the states.
  • The greatest sex ratio among Union Territories is 1037 in Puducherry, while the lowest sex ratio is 618 in Daman and Diu.

Additional Information

  • Sex ratio is defined as the proportion of females to males per thousand.
  • It is a crucial sociological indicator for determining the degree of gender equality that exists in a nation at any particular period.
  • The sex ratio of the population affects, and is affected by**, birth, death, immigration, and emigration rates.**
  • Sex Ratio of India 2011 Census States
State RankName of stateSex Ratio  of India 2011
1Kerala1084
2Puducherry1038
3Tamil Nadu995
4Andhra Pradesh992
5Chhattisgarh991
6Manipur987
49

‘Both Feet on the Ground’ is an autobiography of which of the following players?

  1. ((a))

    Cristiano Ronaldo

  2. ((b))

    Lionel Messi 

  3. ((c))

    Bobby Moore

  4. ((d))

    David Beckham

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

David Beckham

The correct answer is David Beckham

Key Points

  • Both Feet on the Ground is the autobiography of David Beckham, a former soccer player.
  • The book is a rags-to-riches story of Beckham's life, from his childhood in East London to his rise to become the world's most famous soccer player
  • David Robert Joseph Beckham is an English former professional footballer
  • He Known for his precision in free kicks, passing, and crossing, Beckham played for top clubs like Manchester United, Real Madrid, LA Galaxy, AC Milan, and Paris Saint-Germain.

Additional Information 

PlayerBook Title
Cristiano RonaldoRonaldo: The Autobiography
Lionel MessiMessi
Bobby MooreBobby Moore: The Autobiography
50

Which of the following was NOT a reason for emphasizing industrial development in the five year plans? 

  1. ((a))

    Industry doesn’t require high investment 

  2. ((b))

    Industry promotes modernisation 

  3. ((c))

    Industry promotes overall prosperity 

  4. ((d))

    Industry provides more stable employment than agriculture

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Industry doesn’t require high investment 

The correct answer is Industry doesn’t require high investment 

Key Points

  • One of the key reasons for emphasizing industrial development in the five year plans was that it was seen as a way to promote modernization, overall prosperity, and provide more stable employment compared to agriculture,
  • The idea that industry doesn't require high investment is incorrect; industrial development often necessitates significant capital investment.
  • Industry promotes modernization:
  • This was a key reason for focusing on industrial development.
  • Industries were seen as a way to modernize the economy by shifting from a primarily agrarian economy to a more diversified one.
  • It also helped in adopting new technologies, production methods, and creating a more robust industrial base.

Additional Information Five-Year Plans:

  • The idea of a five-year plan is simple- The Government of India prepares a document with all its income and expenditure for five years.
  • The budget of the central government and all the state governments is divided into two parts: non-plan and plan budgets.
  • The non-plan budget is spent on routine items yearly. The planned budget is spent on a five-year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan.
  • The model of the Indian economy was premised on the concept of planning based on five-year plans from 1951 to 2017.
  • The Five Year Plans were formulated, implemented, and regulated by a body known as the Planning Commission.
PlanAim/Goal
Firsteconomic development
Secondrapid industrialization and the public sector
Thirdagriculture development and growth
FourthGrowth, Stability, and self-reliance.
Fifthemployment and poverty alleviation
Sixtheconomic liberation
SeventhIndustrial productivity levels through the use of technology
Eighthmodernisation of Industries
Ninthelimination of poverty
Tenthinclusive growth and equitable development
Eleventhrapid and more inclusive growth
TwelfthFaster, More Inclusive, and Sustainable Growth

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

200 * 13 * 9 * 200 * 25 = 75

  1. ((a))

    +, ×, −, ÷

  2. ((b))

    ÷, −, ×, +

  3. ((c))

    ×, ÷, +, −

  4. ((d))

    −, ×, −, ÷

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

−, ×, −, ÷

Given equation: 200 * 13 * 9 * 200 * 25 = 75 

Option 1) +, ×, −, ÷

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 200 + 13 × 9 - 200 ÷ 25 = 75

⇒ 200 + 13 × 9 - 8 = 75

⇒ 200 + 117 - 8 = 75

⇒ 317 - 8 = 75

⇒ 309  ≠ 75

Option 2) ÷, −, ×, +

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 200 ÷ 13 - 9 × 200 + 25 = 75

⇒ 15.3 - 9 × 200 + 25 = 75

15.3 - 1800 + 25 = 75

40.3 - 1800 = 75

⇒ -1759.7  ≠ 75 

Option 3) ×, ÷, +, −

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 200 × 13 ÷ 9 + 200 - 25 = 75 

⇒ 200 × 1.4 + 200 - 25 = 75 

280 + 200 - 25 = 75 

480 - 25 = 75 

⇒ 455  ≠ 75 

Option 4) −, ×, −, ÷

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 200 - 13 × 9 - 200 ÷ 25 = 75 

⇒ 200 - 13 × 9 - 8 = 75 

⇒ 200 - 117 - 8 = 75 

200 - 125 = 75 

⇒ 75 = 75 

Hence, the correct answer is "−, ×, −, ÷".

52

How many triangles are there in the given figure?  

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    52

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

52

Counting the triangles are there in the given figure:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "52".

53

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

XUEJ, TRIM, ?, LLQS, HIUV

  1. ((a))

    POMP

  2. ((b))

    QONN

  3. ((c))

    QONO 

  4. ((d))

    PPMO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

POMP

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "POMP".

54

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

Lines inside middle circle is increasing  by 1.

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top left and Bottom right symbols are interchanging their position. Similarly Top right and Bottom left symbols are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All corner symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

55

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All cakes are candies.

No pastry is a candy.

Conclusions:

I. All pastries are cakes.

II. Some cakes are pastries.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions I and II follow 

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Statements:

All cakes are candies.

No pastry is a candy.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All pastries are cakes. - False (because All cakes are candies, No pastry is a candy. As there is no direct relation between them, so it can be possible but not definite)

II. Some cakes are pastries. - False (because All cakes are candies, No pastry is a candy. As there is no direct relation between them, so it can be possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

56

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

57

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 4, 12, 48, ?, 1440

  1. ((a))

    960

  2. ((b))

    240

  3. ((c))

    640

  4. ((d))

    480

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

240

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "240".

58

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The option figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

60

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

8 : 2 :: 12 : ? :: 24 : 10

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number ÷ 2) - 2 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 8 : 2

⇒ (8 ÷ 2) - 2 = 4 - 2 = 2.

For, 24 : 10

⇒ (24 ÷ 2) - 2 = 12 - 2 = 10.

Similarly, for 12 : ?

⇒ (12 ÷ 2) - 2 = 6 - 2 = 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

61

Q, R, S, T, U and V were six doctors sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. They were equidistant from each other. Q was to the immediate right of U. R was exactly in between V and T. S was to the immediate right of Q. T was second to the left of Q. Who among the following was sitting third to the right of U?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    V

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

V

Given: Q, R, S, T, U and V were six doctors sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. They were equidistant from each other.

  1. Q was to the immediate right of U.

2) S was to the immediate right of Q.

3) T was second to the left of Q.

  1. R was exactly in between V and T.

So, V was sitting third to the right of U.

Hence, the correct answer is "V".

62

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

63

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

64

Select the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Inner part of all the shape is shifting inside the another shape in a clockwise direction.

Two shapes are shifting their position in clockwise direction and two shapes remain same.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

65

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Figure rotates in an anticlockwise direction by 90° and line inside the circle is also rotating.

Number of lines outside of the figure is increasing by 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

66

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

67

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

68

In a certain code language, ‘PIG’ is written as ‘49’ and ‘HAT’ is written as ‘52’. How will ‘CAB’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    79

  2. ((b))

    51

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    63

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

75

The logic followed here is: Sum of opposite letter's place value = Code.

‘PIG’ is written as ‘49’

‘HAT’ is written as ‘52’

Similarly, 'CAB’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "75".

69

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

12 * 5 * 9 * 54 * 9 = 1

  1. ((a))

    ×, ×, ÷, − 

  2. ((b))

    +, ×, ÷, −

  3. ((c))

    ×, ×, −, − 

  4. ((d))

    ×, ×, ÷, +

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

×, ×, ÷, − 

Given equation: 12 * 5 * 9 * 54 * 9 = 1 

Option 1) ×, ×, ÷, − 

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 12 × 5 × 9 ÷ 54 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 10 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 1 = 1 

Option 2) +, ×, ÷, −

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 12 + 5 × 9 ÷ 54 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 12 + 5 × 0.17 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 12 + 0.83 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 12.83 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 3.83 ≠ 1 

Option 3) ×, ×, −, −

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 12 × 5 × 9 - 54 - 9 = 1 

⇒ 540 - 54 - 9 = 1 

540 - 63 = 1

⇒ 477 ≠ 1

Option 4) ×, ×, ÷, +

Mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 12 × 5 × 9 ÷ 54 + 9 = 1 

⇒ 10 + 9 = 1 

⇒ 19 ≠ 1 

Hence, the correct answer is "×, ×, ÷, −".

70

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

71

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

72

The following figures show the sequence of folding a piece of paper. The last figure shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

he paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

73

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

74

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE:

Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(18, 28, 38)

(11,26, 41)

  1. ((a))

    (17, 48, 53)

  2. ((b))

    (13, 24, 37)

  3. ((c))

    (9, 27, 43)

  4. ((d))

    (18, 35, 52)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(18, 35, 52)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 3rd number) ÷ 2 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, (18, 28, 38)

⇒ (18 + 38) ÷ 2 = 56 ÷ 2 = 28.

For, (11,26, 41) 

⇒ (11 + 41) ÷ 2 = 52 ÷ 2 = 26.

Similarly, for (18, 35, 52)

⇒ (18 + 52) ÷ 2 = 70 ÷ 2 = 35.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

75

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Hexagon : Septagon

  1. ((a))

    Radius : Diameter

  2. ((b))

    Triangle : Rectangle

  3. ((c))

    Chord : Circle

  4. ((d))

    Area : Square

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Triangle : Rectangle

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Polygons with a specific number of sides.

Here,

Hexagon : SeptagonHexagon is a polygon with 6 sides, and Septagon is a polygon with 7 sides.

Similarly,

Triangle : RectangleTriangle is a polygon with 3 sides, and Rectangle is a polygon with 4 sides.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

Which ratio is the greatest among the following? 

  1. ((a))

    5 : 8

  2. ((b))

    4 : 7

  3. ((c))

    3 : 5

  4. ((d))

    1 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 : 8

Given:

Ratio 1 = 5 : 8

Ratio 2 = 4 : 7

Ratio 3 = 3 : 5

Ratio 4 = 1 : 3

Formula Used:

To compare ratios, convert them to fractions and compare the values.

Calculation:

Convert the ratios to fractions:

Ratio 1 = 5 / 8

Ratio 2 = 4 / 7

Ratio 3 = 3 / 5

Ratio 4 = 1 / 3

Compare the fractions by finding a common denominator or converting to decimals:

58=0.625 \frac{5}{8} = 0.625

470.571 \frac{4}{7} \approx 0.571

35=0.6 \frac{3}{5} = 0.6

130.333 \frac{1}{3} \approx 0.333

Compare the decimal values:

0.625 > 0.6 > 0.571 > 0.333

The greatest ratio is 5 : 8.

77

A sum of ₹2,400 yields a simple interest of ₹460 in 2 years and 4 months. The rate of interest per annum is:

  1. ((a))

    53145\frac{3}{14}%

  2. ((b))

    75147\frac{5}{14}%

  3. ((c))

    73147\frac{3}{14}%

  4. ((d))

    83148\frac{3}{14}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

83148\frac{3}{14}%

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,400

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹460

Time (T) = 2 years and 4 months = 2 + 4/12 = 2 + 1/3 = 7/3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

Using the formula for simple interest:

₹460 = (₹2,400 × R × 7/3) / 100

First, we simplify the equation:

₹460 = (₹2,400 × R × 7) / 300

⇒ ₹460 = ₹16,800R / 300

⇒ ₹460 = ₹56R

⇒ R = ₹460 / ₹56 = 83148\frac{3}{14}%

The rate of interest per annum is 83148\frac{3}{14}%.

The correct answer is option 4.

78

Anjali and Manju together can do a piece of work in 5 days. If Anjali does twice as much work as Manju in a given time, how long would Anjali alone take to do the work?

  1. ((a))

    6 days 

  2. ((b))

    7.5 days

  3. ((c))

    7 days

  4. ((d))

    6.5 days 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7.5 days

Given:

Anjali and Manju together can do a piece of work in 5 days.

Anjali does twice as much work as Manju in a given time.

Formula Used:

Work done by Anjali and Manju together in 1 day = 1 / Total days

Work done by Anjali alone in 1 day = 2 × Work done by Manju alone in 1 day

Let the work done by Manju alone in 1 day be M.

Then, the work done by Anjali alone in 1 day = 2M.

Work done by Anjali and Manju together in 1 day = 2M + M = 3M .

Since they can complete the work together in 5 days,

Work done by Anjali and Manju together in 1 day = 1/5

Calculation:

3M = 1/5

⇒ M = 1/(5 × 3)

⇒ M = 1/15

Therefore, the work done by Anjali alone in 1 day = 2M = 2 × 1/15 = 2/15

Number of days required by Anjali alone to complete the work = 1 / (2/15)

⇒ Number of days = 15 / 2

⇒ Number of days = 7.5

Anjali alone would take 7.5 days to do the work.

79

If the loss is 16\frac{1}{6} of the selling price of an article, then the loss percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    131713\frac{1}{7}%

  2. ((b))

    142714\frac{2}{7}%

  3. ((c))

    123712\frac{3}{7}%

  4. ((d))

    161716\frac{1}{7}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

142714\frac{2}{7}%

Given:

Loss = (1/6) of the Selling Price

Formula Used:

Loss Percentage = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the Selling Price (SP) be 6 units.

Loss = 1/6 of SP

Loss = 1 unit

Therefore, Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss

CP = 6 + 1 = 7 units

Loss Percentage = (Loss / CP) × 100

Loss Percentage = (1 / 7) × 100

Loss Percentage = 1007\frac{100}{7}

Loss Percentage = 142714\frac{2}{7}%

The loss percentage is 142714\frac{2}{7}%.

80

The price of a car increased by 25%. By what percentage should the price now be reduced to bring it to the actual price? 

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    15%

  4. ((d))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

Given:

The price of a car increased by 25%.

Formula Used:

Percentage reduction required = (Increase percentage100+Increase percentage)×100\left(\frac{\text{Increase percentage}}{100 + \text{Increase percentage}}\right) \times 100

Calculation:

Let the original price be 100.

New price after 25% increase = 100 + 25 = 125

To find the percentage reduction required to bring the price back to 100:

Percentage reduction required = (25125)×100\left(\frac{25}{125}\right) \times 100

Percentage reduction required = (25125)×100\left(\frac{25}{125}\right) \times 100

(25125)×100\left(\frac{25}{125}\right) \times 100 = 20%

The correct answer is option 1.

81

A train covers a distance of 10 km in 10 minutes. If its speed is decreased by 20 km/h, then the time taken by it to cover the same distance will be:

  1. ((a))

    18 minutes

  2. ((b))

    15 minutes

  3. ((c))

    20 minutes 

  4. ((d))

    12 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15 minutes

Given:

Distance = 10 km

Initial time = 10 minutes = 10/60 hours = 1/6 hours

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Initial Speed = 10 km / (1/6) hours

Initial Speed = 10 × 6 = 60 km/h

Decreased Speed = 60 km/h - 20 km/h = 40 km/h

Time taken to cover the same distance with decreased speed

Time = Distance / Speed

Time = 10 km / 40 km/h

Time = 1/4 hours

Time = (1/4) × 60 minutes

Time = 15 minutes

The time taken by the train to cover the same distance with decreased speed is 15 minutes.

82

A shopkeeper offers a discount of 15% on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 25%. If its marked price is ₹2,100, then find the cost price of the article.

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,248

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,842 

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,428

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,284 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹1,428

Given:

Marked price (MP) = ₹2,100

Discount = 15%

Profit = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount%)

Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + Profit%)

Calculation:

Selling Price (SP) = 2,100 × (1 - 0.15)

SP = 2,100 × 0.85

SP = ₹1,785

Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + 0.25)

CP = 1,785 / 1.25

CP = ₹1,428

The cost price of the article is ₹1,428.

83

Joy borrowed some amount from a bank at the rate of 6% per annum, compounded annually. If he finished paying his loan by paying ₹20,000 at the end of 5 years, then the amount of loan that he had taken (rounded to the nearest thousand rupees) was:

  1. ((a))

    ₹12,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹15,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹16,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹13,000 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹15,000

Given:

Interest rate = 6% per annum, compounded annually

Loan repayment amount after 5 years = ₹20,000

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula:

A=P(1+r100)nA = P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^n

Where:

A = Final amount (₹20,000)

P = Principal amount (Loan amount)

r = Annual interest rate (6%)

n = Number of years (5)

Calculation:

Using the compound interest formula:

20000=P(1+6100)520000 = P(1 + \frac{6}{100})^5

20000 = P(1.06)5

20000 = P × 1.338225

P=200001.338225P = \frac{20000}{1.338225}

⇒ P ≈ 14946.94

Rounding to the nearest thousand:

Loan amount ≈ ₹15,000

The amount of loan that he had taken was ₹15,000.

84

The ratio of the salaries of Ram and Shyam is 8 : 5. If the salaries of Ram and Shyam are increased by ₹2,600, then their ratio becomes 15 : 11. What is the salary of Shyam? 

  1. ((a))

    ₹5,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹3,500

  3. ((c))

    ₹4,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹4,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹4,000

Given:

The ratio of the salaries of Ram and Shyam is 8:5.

After an increment of ₹2,600 in each of their salaries, the ratio becomes 15:11.

Formula Used:

Let Ram's original salary be 8x and Shyam's original salary be 5x.

After the increment, Ram's salary = 8x + 2600

Shyam's salary = 5x + 2600

According to the given condition:

8x+26005x+2600=1511\frac{8x + 2600}{5x + 2600} = \frac{15}{11}

Calculation:

We solve the equation:

8x+26005x+2600=1511\frac{8x + 2600}{5x + 2600} = \frac{15}{11}

⇒ 11 × (8x + 2600) = 15 × (5x + 2600)

⇒ 88x + 28600 = 75x + 39000

⇒ 88x - 75x = 39000 - 28600

⇒ 13x = 10400

⇒ x = 800

Shyam's original salary = 5x = 5 × 800 = 4000

The salary of Shyam is ₹4,000.

85

The highest common factor of 161 and 207 is:

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

23

Given:

We need to find the highest common factor (HCF) of 161 and 207.

Formula Used:

To find the HCF of two numbers, we use the Euclidean algorithm.

Calculation:

Using the Euclidean algorithm:

⇒ 207 ÷ 161 = 1 remainder 46

⇒ 161 ÷ 46 = 3 remainder 23

⇒ 46 ÷ 23 = 2 remainder 0

The remainder is 0, so the divisor at this step is the HCF.

The highest common factor of 161 and 207 is 23.

86

If 8440.844=84.4K\rm \frac{844}{0.844}=\frac{84.4}{K} then what is the value of K?

  1. ((a))

    8.44

  2. ((b))

    0.0844

  3. ((c))

    0.844

  4. ((d))

    0.00844

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.0844

Given:

8440.844=84.4K\frac{844}{0.844} = \frac{84.4}{K}

Formula Used:

Cross-multiplication to solve for K.

Calculation:

Using cross-multiplication:

844×K=84.4×0.844844 \times K = 84.4 \times 0.844

⇒ 844K = 71.2336

⇒ K = 71.2336844\frac{71.2336}{844}

⇒ K = 0.0844

The value of K is 0.0844.

87

What is the area of an equilateral triangle whose sides are 8√3 cm? 

  1. ((a))

    46√3 cm2

  2. ((b))

    38√3 cm2

  3. ((c))

    42√3 cm2

  4. ((d))

    48√3 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

48√3 cm2

Given:

Side of the equilateral triangle = 8√3 cm

Formula Used:

Area of an equilateral triangle = 34×side2\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \times \text{side}^2

Calculation:

Side = 8√3 cm

Area = 34×(83)2\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \times (8√3)^2

⇒ Area = 34×64×3\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \times 64 \times 3

⇒ Area = 34×192\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \times 192

⇒ Area = 48348\sqrt{3} cm2

The area of the equilateral triangle is 48√3 cm2.

88

The average of n natural odd numbers is _____, where n is odd.

  1. ((a))

    n + 1

  2. ((b))

    n+12\frac{n+1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    n

  4. ((d))

    n2\frac{n}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

n

Given:

The average of n natural odd numbers, where n is odd.

Formula Used:

Average of n natural odd numbers = n

Calculation:

Let the n natural odd numbers be:

1, 3, 5, ..., (2n-1)

Sum of these n odd numbers = n2

Average = Sum of numbers / n

Average = n2 / n

Average = n

The average of n natural odd numbers is n.

89

If the area of great circle is 36 π m2 , then find the volume of a hemisphere. (Use π = 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    445.68 m3

  2. ((b))

    464.32 m3

  3. ((c))

    452.16 m3

  4. ((d))

    458.74 m3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

452.16 m3

Given:

Area of great circle = 36π m2

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Area of great circle = πr2

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) π r3

Calculation:

Area of great circle = πr2

36π = 3.14r2

r2 = 36

r = 6 m

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) π r3

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) × 3.14 × 63

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) × 3.14 × 216

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) × 678.24

Volume of a hemisphere = 452.16 m3

The correct answer is option 3.

90

17250\frac{17}{250} is equivalent to:

  1. ((a))

    0.0068

  2. ((b))

    0.068

  3. ((c))

    0.68

  4. ((d))

    0.088

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.068

Given:

17250\frac{17}{250} is to be converted to its decimal equivalent.

Formula Used:

Division Method: To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator.

Calculation:

To find the decimal equivalent of 17250\frac{17}{250} :

⇒ 17 ÷ 250

⇒ 0.068

The correct answer is option 2.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following is an example of web browser?

  1. ((a))

    Mozilla Firefox 

  2. ((b))

    Outlook 365

  3. ((c))

    Yahoo mail

  4. ((d))

    Google Search

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mozilla Firefox 

The correct answer is Mozilla Firefox .

Key Points

  • Mozilla Firefox
  • Mozilla Firefox is a free and open-source web browser developed by the Mozilla Foundation.
  • It's used to access and browse the internet, allowing users to view websites, interact with web pages, and download files.
  • Known for its strong emphasis on user privacy, customization options (extensions), and support for web standards.
  • Established: 1998
  • Headquarters: San Francisco, California, United States
  • Founder: Netscape Communications Corporation (initially)

Additional Information

  • Outlook 365
  • Outlook 365 is a personal information manager and email client developed by Microsoft as part of the Microsoft 365 suite.
  • Primarily used for email management, including sending, receiving, organizing, and storing emails. It also includes features like calendar scheduling, contact management, and task management.
  • Established: 1996 (as part of Microsoft Office)
  • Headquarters: Redmond, Washington, United States
  • Founder: Bill Gates and Paul Allen (Microsoft founders)
  • Yahoo Mail
  • Yahoo Mail is a free web-based email service provided by Yahoo!
  • Allows users to send, receive, and manage emails, often integrated with other Yahoo! services.
  • Features like spam filtering, storage space, and mobile app availability.
  • Established: 1997
  • Headquarters: Sunnyvale, California, United States
  • Founder: Jerry Yang and David Filo (Yahoo! founders)
  • Google Search
  • Google Search is a web search engine developed by Google.
  • It's the most widely used search engine, enabling users to find information on the internet by entering keywords or phrases.
  • Established: 1998
  • Headquarters: Mountain View, California, United States
  • Founder: Larry Page and Sergey Brin
92

What does the ‘Grammar Check’ feature in MS-Word 365 do?

  1. ((a))

    It provides suggestions to improve the document’s structure.

  2. ((b))

    It formats the text based on predefined style rules. 

  3. ((c))

    It highlights correct spelling and offers suggestions.

  4. ((d))

    It identifies and provides suggestions to correct grammatical errors in the text. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

It identifies and provides suggestions to correct grammatical errors in the text. 

The correct answer is It identifies and provides suggestions to correct grammatical errors in the text

Key Points

  • The 'Review' tab in Microsoft Word contains tools related to reviewing and checking your document for errors.
  • The Spelling & Grammar feature helps you identify and correct spelling and grammatical errors in your document.
  • Using this feature, you can ensure that your document is free from common writing mistakes, which can improve the overall quality and professionalism of your work.
  • The feature also offers suggestions for corrections, making it easier for you to edit your content efficiently.

 Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word
  • Microsoft Word is a word processing software developed by Microsoft, and it is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
  • It is used for creating, editing, formatting, and sharing text documents.
  • Word offers a range of features including spell check, grammar check, text formatting, and the ability to insert images, tables, and other elements.
  • It is widely used for creating professional documents such as reports, letters, and resumes.
  • Spelling & Grammar Check Feature
  • This feature scans your document for spelling errors (such as typos) and grammatical issues.
  • It provides suggestions for corrections, allowing you to choose whether to accept or ignore each suggestion.
  • Using this feature regularly can help improve the quality of your writing and ensure clarity and correctness.
  • It is especially useful for professional and academic documents where precision in language is essential.
  • Review Tab in MS Word
  • The Review tab contains tools for proofing, tracking changes, and collaborating with others on a document.
  • In addition to Spelling & Grammar, it includes features like 'Track Changes', 'Comments', 'Compare', and 'Thesaurus'.
  • These tools help users manage document review processes, ensuring that all changes and feedback are tracked and addressed.
  • The Review tab is essential for collaborative work and for finalizing documents before publication or submission.
93

What is the maximum number of columns existing in MS-Excel 2010? 

  1. ((a))

    8,382 columns

  2. ((b))

    2,048 columns

  3. ((c))

    32,386 columns

  4. ((d))

    16,384 columns

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16,384 columns

The correct answer is 16,384 columns.

Key Points

  • The maximum number of columns existing in MS-Excel 2010 is 16,384.
  • Excel's Grid Structure: Excel utilizes a grid system to organize data. This grid consists of rows and columns, forming a table-like structure.
  • Column Designations: Columns are typically labeled with letters (A, B, C, etc.). However, as the number of columns increases, Excel uses a combination of letters for designation (e.g., AA, AB, AC, ..., AZ, BA, BB, and so on).
  • Increased Capacity: Earlier versions of Excel had limitations on the number of columns. However, with advancements in technology and software development, newer versions like Excel 2010 significantly increased the column limit to accommodate larger datasets and more complex spreadsheets.
  • Practical Implications: This substantial column capacity allows users to work with extensive datasets, perform complex calculations, and create sophisticated spreadsheets for various purposes, such as financial modeling, data analysis, and project management.

Additional Information

  • The 16,384 columns provide ample space for most practical spreadsheet needs.
  • This limit ensures that users can comfortably work with large amounts of data without encountering limitations in column availability.
  • Excel's continuous evolution aims to provide users with the flexibility and capacity to handle increasingly complex data management tasks.
94

Which of the following tabs on the MS Excel 365 ribbon has the ‘Sort & Filter’ group? 

  1. ((a))

    Review

  2. ((b))

    Edit

  3. ((c))

    Data

  4. ((d))

    Formula

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Data

The correct answer is Data.

Key Points

  • Data
  • In Excel 365: This refers to the raw information you input into the spreadsheet. It can be numbers, text, dates, times, or even images.
  • Key Aspects:
  • Data Entry: You input data directly into cells, import it from other sources (like text files or databases), or connect to live data feeds.
  • Data Types: Excel recognizes various data types, which influences how it's displayed, calculated, and analyzed.
  • Data Organization: Effective data organization (using rows and columns, tables, and worksheets) is crucial for efficient analysis and management.

Additional Information

  • Review
  • In Excel 365: This refers to a set of tools designed to help you check for errors, ensure accuracy, and improve the quality of your data.
  • Key Features:
  • Spelling and Grammar Check: Helps identify and correct errors in text within cells.
  • Comments: Allows you to add notes or questions to specific cells for collaboration or future reference.
  • Track Changes: Enables you to see and manage changes made to the spreadsheet by different users.
  • Edit
  • In Excel 365: This encompasses all the actions you take to modify the data within your spreadsheet.
  • Key Actions:
  • Cell Editing: Entering, changing, or deleting data within individual cells.
  • Formula Editing: Modifying existing formulas or creating new ones to perform calculations.
  • Formatting: Applying formatting (e.g., fonts, colors, cell styles) to improve readability and presentation.
  • Cutting, Copying, and Pasting: Moving or duplicating data within or between worksheets.
  • Formula
  • In Excel 365: A formula is an expression that performs calculations on the data in your spreadsheet.
  • Key Concepts:
  • Syntax: Formulas follow specific rules (syntax) using operators (like +, -, *, /) and functions (like SUM, AVERAGE, IF).
  • Cell References: Formulas can refer to data in other cells, allowing for dynamic calculations.
  • Built-in Functions: Excel provides a wide range of built-in functions for various calculations, from simple arithmetic to complex statistical and financial analyses.
95

Which protocol is commonly used for sending emails from a client to a server?

  1. ((a))

    Internet Messaging Access Protocol (IMAP)

  2. ((b))

    Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 

  3. ((c))

    Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

  4. ((d))

    Post office Protocol (POP3) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

The correct answer is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Key Points

  • Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
  • Function: Primarily used for sending emails from one server to another.
  • Delivery Focused: It's specifically designed to handle the transmission of emails between mail servers.
  • Push Protocol: Emails are "pushed" from the sender's server to the recipient's server using SMTP.

Additional Information

  • Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
  • Function: Allows users to access and manage emails remotely on a mail server.
  • Synchronization: Enables email synchronization across multiple devices (e.g., computer, phone, tablet).
  • Server-Side Operations: Many operations (like deleting, moving, and flagging emails) are performed directly on the server.
  • Flexibility: Offers more advanced features like searching and filtering emails directly on the server.
  • Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
  • Function: The foundation of data communication on the World Wide Web. It's used to transfer web pages, images, and other resources between web servers and web browsers.
  • Client-Server Model: Based on a request-response model where the client (browser) requests a resource, and the server responds with the requested data.
  • Stateless: Each request and response is independent of previous interactions.
  • Post Office Protocol (POP3)
  • Function: Primarily used for retrieving emails from a mail server to a local device.
  • Download and Deletion: Typically, emails are downloaded to the local device and deleted from the server.
  • Limited Synchronization: Less suitable for synchronizing emails across multiple devices.
96

In MS Excel 365, which menu or tab is used to access the ‘Save’ or ‘Save as’ options?

  1. ((a))

    File

  2. ((b))

    Home

  3. ((c))

    Edit

  4. ((d))

    Insert

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

File

The correct answer is File.

Key Points

  • File
  • In Excel: This tab houses commands related to managing your workbook.
  • New: Creating a new, blank workbook.
  • Open: Opening an existing Excel file.
  • Save: Saving the current workbook.
  • Save As: Saving the workbook with a new name or in a different format.
  • Print: Printing the selected worksheets or the entire workbook.

Additional Information

  • Home
  • In Excel: This is the default tab, providing access to the most frequently used commands.
  • Formatting: Applying styles, fonts, colors, and number formats to cells.
  • Alignment: Aligning cell contents (left, right, center, etc.).
  • Editing: Cutting, copying, pasting, and deleting cells.
  • Summing: Quickly calculating sums of selected cells.
  • Edit
  • In Excel: This tab contains commands for manipulating and modifying data within the spreadsheet.
  • Find & Select: Finding and selecting specific cells, data, or formats.
  • Clear: Clearing cell contents, formats, or both.
  • Insert: Inserting rows, columns, or cells.
  • Delete: Deleting rows, columns, or cells.
  • Insert
  • In Excel: This tab allows you to add various elements to your worksheet.
  • Tables: Inserting and formatting tables.
  • Charts: Creating different types of charts (bar, line, pie, etc.).
  • Illustrations: Inserting images, shapes, and icons.
  • Links: Inserting hyperlinks to other cells, worksheets, or external websites.
97

Which of the following is NOT used to modify selected text in MS-Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + I

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + O

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + U

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + B

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + O

The correct answer is Ctrl + O.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + O
  • Function: This shortcut key is used to open an existing document in Microsoft Word.
  • Press and hold the Ctrl key.
  • While holding Ctrl, press the O key.
  • This will open the "Open" dialog box, allowing you to browse and select the document you want to open.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + I
  • Function: This shortcut key is used to apply italics to the selected text.
  • Select the text you want to format.
  • Press and hold the Ctrl key.
  • While holding Ctrl, press the I key.
  • The selected text will be formatted in italics.
  • To remove italics, simply press Ctrl + I again.
  • Ctrl + U
  • Function: This shortcut key is used to underline the selected text.
  • Select the text you want to format.
  • Press and hold the Ctrl key.
  • While holding Ctrl, press the U key.
  • The selected text will be underlined.
  • To remove the underline, press Ctrl + U again.
  • Ctrl + B
  • Function: This shortcut key is used to apply bold formatting to the selected text.
  • Select the text you want to format.
  • Press and hold the Ctrl key.
  • While holding Ctrl, press the B key.
  • The selected text will be formatted in bold.
  • To remove bold formatting, press Ctrl + B again.
98

In Print Preview mode in Microsoft Word 365, what can you review and modify before printing the document?

  1. ((a))

    Page layout 

  2. ((b))

    Document content and editing options

  3. ((c))

    Printer connectivity and network settings

  4. ((d))

    Font styles and sizes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Page layout 

The correct answer is Page layout .

Key Points

  • Page Layout
  • Definition: This refers to the overall visual arrangement and organization of elements on a page within your Word document.
  • Margins: Control the space around the edges of your document (top, bottom, left, right).
  • Orientation: Choose between Portrait (vertical) or Landscape (horizontal) page orientation.
  • Columns: Divide your page into multiple columns for better readability or presentation.
  • Breaks: Insert page breaks, section breaks, and column breaks to control how content flows across pages.
  • Indents and Spacing: Adjust paragraph indentation, line spacing, and spacing before/after paragraphs.

Additional Information

  • Document Content and Editing Options
  • Content: This encompasses all the text, images, tables, charts, and other elements that make up your document.
  • Editing Options: Word 365 provides a wide range of tools for editing your content, including:
  • Typing and Formatting: Entering text, applying fonts, styles, and colors.
  • Editing and Proofreading: Finding and replacing text, spell check, grammar check, and thesaurus.
  • Collaboration: Sharing documents with others, tracking changes, and collaborating in real-time.
  • Printer Connectivity and Network Settings
  • Printer Connectivity: Word 365 allows you to connect to various printers, including local printers and network printers.
  • Network Settings: You can configure printer settings, such as paper size, orientation, and number of copies, within Word 365.
  • Print Preview: Before printing, you can preview your document to see how it will look on the printed page.
  • Font Styles and Sizes
  • Font Styles: Word 365 offers a vast library of fonts, including serif, sans-serif, and script fonts, allowing you to choose the best font for your document's style and purpose.
  • Font Sizes: You can easily adjust the size of your text to suit your needs, from small font sizes for footnotes to larger sizes for headings.
  • Font Formatting: You can apply various formatting options to your text, such as bold, italics, underline, and color.
99

What is the function of the ‘Superscript’ feature in Microsoft Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Makes the text bold and italic

  2. ((b))

    Adds a line under the text

  3. ((c))

    Makes the text larger and below the baseline

  4. ((d))

    Makes the text smaller and above the baseline

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Makes the text smaller and above the baseline

The correct answer is Makes the text smaller and above the baseline.

Key Points

  • The "Superscript" feature in Microsoft Word 365 is a text formatting tool that allows you to raise the selected characters slightly above the baseline of the normal text.
  • Its function and common uses:
  • Appearance: Superscripted text appears smaller than the surrounding text and is positioned higher, giving it a distinct visual appearance.
  • Common Uses:
  • Mathematical Expressions:
  • Exponents: For example, "x²" (where the "2" is superscripted to indicate "x squared").
  • Chemical Formulas: Representing chemical compounds with superscripts for charges or isotopes.
  • Footnotes and Endnotes:
  • Displaying small, raised numbers or symbols to indicate references or additional information.
  • Ordinal Numbers:
  • Representing ordinal numbers like "1st," "2nd," "3rd," where the "st," "nd," and "rd" are superscripted.
  • Trademarks and Symbols:
  • Displaying symbols like ® (registered trademark), ™ (trademark), and © (copyright) as superscripts.
  • Units of Measurement:
  • Representing units like degrees Celsius (°C) or Fahrenheit (°F) with the degree symbol as a superscript.
  • How to Use the Superscript Feature in Word 365:
  • Using the Ribbon:
  • Select the text you want to format as superscript.
  • Go to the "Home" tab in the Ribbon.
  • In the "Font" group, click the "Superscript" button.
  • Using the Keyboard Shortcut:
  • Select the text you want to format as superscript.
  • Press and hold the Ctrl key, Shift key, and the "+" key simultaneously.
100

When we open MS-Word 365, which of the following could be found?

  1. ((a))

    Blank page without any default name 

  2. ((b))

    Blank page with a default name “Document1”

  3. ((c))

    Blank page with a default name “Doc 1” 

  4. ((d))

    Blank page with a default name “page 1” 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Blank page with a default name “Document1”

The correct answer is Blank page with a default name “Document1”.

Key Points

  • Here's a breakdown of what happens:
  • The Word 365 application loads into memory.
  • This involves initializing the user interface, loading necessary libraries and resources, and establishing connections to system services.
  • User Interface:
  • The familiar Word interface appears, consisting of:
  • Ribbon: A customizable toolbar with tabs for various commands (Home, Insert, Design, Layout, References, Mailings, Review, View).
  • Quick Access Toolbar: A customizable toolbar for frequently used commands (Save, Undo, Redo).
  • Backstage View: Accessed by clicking the "File" tab, it provides options for opening, saving, printing, and managing documents.
  • Workspace: The main area where you'll type and edit your document.
  • Default Settings:
  • Word loads with default settings, such as font, font size, margins, and line spacing. These settings can be customized to your preferences.
  • Ready for Input:
  • Once loaded, Word is ready for you to start typing, pasting text, inserting images, and creating your document.
  • Cloud Integration:
  • If you're signed in to your Microsoft 365 account, Word will automatically sync with your OneDrive cloud storage, allowing you to access and save documents seamlessly across different devices.
  • Collaboration Features:
  • Word 365 facilitates real-time collaboration, enabling multiple users to work on the same document simultaneously and see each other's changes.
  • Assistance Tools:
  • Features like spell check, grammar check, and thesaurus are automatically activated to assist you in creating error-free and well-written documents.

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