Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 21 Nov, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

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General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

The IISCO and TISCO industrial plants are related to which industry?

  1. ((a))

    Sugar

  2. ((b))

    Iron and steel

  3. ((c))

    Textile

  4. ((d))

    Cement

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Iron and steel

The correct answer is Iron and steel.

Key Points

  • IISCO steel plant:
  • The Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO), a SAIL subsidiary, was amalgamated with SAIL on 16th February 2006 and renamed IISCO Steel Plant (ISP).
  • This full-fledged integrated steel plant is one of India’s oldest.
  • Established as an industrial enterprise in 1918, IISCO produced iron from an open-top blast furnace at Hirapur (later to be called Burnpur) in West Bengal for the first time in 1922. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The plant was progressively upgraded to a capacity for the production of 4.26 lakh tonnes of saleable steel and 2.54 lakh tonnes of pig iron annually.
  • The plant manufactures a range of products, over some of which it holds exclusive market dominance.
  • Iron & steel produced by it has been acknowledged as being of the finest quality.
  • After undergoing a modernisation-cum-expansion program, the crude steel capacity of the plant has been raised to 2.5 million tons per year.
  • ​TISCO
  • Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was founded by Jamsetji Tata and established by Dorabji Tata on 26 August 1907.
  • TISCO is located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.
  • TISCO started pig iron production in 1911 and began producing steel in 1912 as a branch of Jamsetji's Tata Group.
  • The Bhilai Steel Plant was established in 1955 with the help of the USSR.
  • Durgapur Steel Plant is one of the integrated steel plants of Steel Authority of India Limited, located in Durgapur, West Bengal.
  • It was set up with the help of the United Kingdom.
  • Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP), the first integrated steel plant in the public sector in India, was set up with German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 million tonnes.

 Additional Information

  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL):
  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is one of the largest steel-making companies in India and one of the Maharanas of the country’s Central Public Sector Enterprises.
  • SAIL produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants, located principally in the eastern and central regions of India and situated close to domestic sources of raw materials.
  • SAIL manufactures and sells a broad range of steel products.
2

Which of the following sports persons is associated with Billiards?

  1. ((a))

    Homi Motiwala

  2. ((b))

    Nameirakpam Kunjarani

  3. ((c))

    Pushpendra Kumar Garg

  4. ((d))

    Geet Sethi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Geet Sethi

The correct answer is Geet Sethi.

Key Points

  • Billiards is played on a rectangular table covered with a cloth and bounded by elastic cushions.
  • The game requires precision and skill, with players using a cue stick to strike balls and achieve specific scoring patterns.
  • There are various forms of billiards, including carom billiards, pool, and snooker, each with its own set of rules and objectives.
  • Billiards is played on a rectangular table covered with a cloth and bounded by elastic cushions.
  • The game requires precision and skill, with players using a cue stick to strike balls and achieve specific scoring patterns.
  • There are various forms of billiards, including carom billiards, pool, and snooker, each with its own set of rules and objectives.

Additional Information

  • Geet Sethi is a very famous Indian billiards player.
  • He won the Indian National Billiards Championship, beating none other than the legendary Michael Ferreira in 1982.
  • He was also the national champion in snooker from 1985 to 1988. In that period he also became Asian Champion in 1987.
  • In the 1998 Asian Games, he won gold and silver medals in different events.

3

Shree Hanuman Vyayam Prasarak Mandal is situated in ____.

  1. ((a))

    Nagpur

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Amravati

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amravati

The correct answer is Amravati.

Key Point

  • Shree Hanuman Vyayam Prasarak Mandal is a premier institute of sports and Physical Education in India.
  • It is founded during the freedom struggle to instill in youths the spirit of patriotism and to propagate an ancient indigenous system of physical culture and sports.  ​

Additional Information

Shree Hanuman Vyayam Prasarak Mandal was set up in Amravati. Earlier it was referred to as Hanuman Akhada. It was founded by the Vaidya Brothers namely Anant Krishna and Ambadas Krishna in the year 1914, as a small Hanuman club.

  • To link up the movement of physical education with the National Freedom Movement.
  • To modernize and systemize the traditional Indian System of exercise by incorporating it into the Western method of physical education.
  • It is registered under the Bombay Public Trust Act 1950 and Societies Registration Act 1860.
  • It is a Voluntary, Social, Non-Political & Secular Institute, managed with democratic principles & practices.
  • Vaidya brothers got the inspiration to start this club from Veer Vamanrao Joshi, the great patriot of the Vidarbha region.
  • The Vaidya brothers while founding the Hanuman Club had two clear objectives in view.
  • One was to link up the movement of physical education with the national movement of the Indian renaissance and the second was to modernize and systematize the traditional Indian system of exercises in such a way as would bring in bold relief the best and knowledgeable elements inherent in it.

Thus, it is concluded that in 1914, Hanuman Vyayam Prasarak Mandal was set up in Amaravati.

4

Biome can be defined as:

  1. ((a))

    an area of desert

  2. ((b))

    a large area characterised by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife

  3. ((c))

    a restricted area where only selected species can grow

  4. ((d))

    an aquatic environment where only fishes can grow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a large area characterised by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife

The correct answer is a large area characterised by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife.

Key Points

Biome:

  • Biomes are large regions of the world that are characterized by their distinctive vegetation and climate patterns.
  • Biomes can be classified into different levels or orders, depending on the level of detail and generalization.
  • The first-order biomes are the most general and are defined by broad climatic patterns and vegetation types.
  • The Mediterranean Biome is not a first-order biome.
  • It is a subtype of the temperate biome and is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters.
  • The Mediterranean biome is found in regions bordering the Mediterranean Sea, as well as in other areas with similar climate patterns such as parts of California and South Africa.​

Additional Information

  • Tropical Biome: The tropical biome is a type of first-order biome that is found in regions with warm to hot temperatures and high levels of rainfall throughout the year. This biome is characterized by high levels of biodiversity, with many different species of plants and animals. The vegetation in the tropical biome is dominated by broadleaf evergreen trees, which create a dense canopy that shades the forest floor. Some common examples of tropical biomes include the Amazon rainforest, the Congo Basin, and parts of Southeast Asia.
  • Temperate Biome: The temperate biome is a type of first-order biome that is found in regions with moderate temperatures and distinct seasonal patterns of rainfall. This biome is characterized by a mixture of deciduous and evergreen trees, as well as grasses and shrubs. The temperate biome is found in a wide range of regions, including parts of North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Some common examples of temperate biomes include the forests of the eastern United States, the grasslands of the Great Plains, and the temperate rainforests of the Pacific Northwest.
  • Tundra Biome: The tundra biome is a type of first-order biome that is found in regions with cold temperatures and low levels of precipitation. This biome is characterized by a layer of permanently frozen soil, known as permafrost, which prevents the growth of trees and other large plants. Instead, the tundra is dominated by grasses, sedges, and small shrubs. The tundra biome is found in the Arctic and Antarctic regions, as well as in high mountain areas such as the Himalayas. The tundra is also home to a variety of animals, including caribou, musk oxen, and arctic foxes, which have adapted to the cold and harsh environment.
5

Member of Rajya Sabha, Sonal Mansingh is an eminent dancer of _________ and Bharatanatyam.

  1. ((a))

    Mohiniyattam

  2. ((b))

    Odissi

  3. ((c))

    Kathakali

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Odissi

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

  • Odissi Dance
  • Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from the state of Odisha.
  • It is known for its fluid movements, intricate gestures, and strong footwork.
  • The dance is characterized by its sculpturesque poses and the tribhangi posture, which involves the independent movement of the head, chest, and pelvis.
  • Odissi dance is traditionally performed to Odia music and is deeply rooted in the region's culture and religious traditions.

 Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam​
  • Mohiniyattam, is an Indian classical dance form that developed and remained popular in the state of Kerala.
  • The origin and popularity of this dance form is closely tagged to the great Tamil dance master Vadivelu, one of the Thanjavur quartets.
  • One among the eight Indian classical dance forms, Mohiniyattam is a graceful dance to watch and is a solo recital by women.
  • The term Mohiniyattam comes from the words mohini meaning a woman who enchants onlookers and aattam meaning graceful and sensuous body movements. Thus, the word Mohiniyattam literally means - dance of the enchantress.
  • Kathakali ​
  • Kathakali is another classical dance form of Kerala.
  • The term Kathakali is derived from katha which means "story or a conversation, or a traditional tale", and kaḷi which means "performance" or "play".
  • The dance symbolises the eternal fight between good and evil.
  • Kathak
  • They were originally a cast of storytellers in north India (Utter Pradesh) who used to sing gestures and songs in temples.
  • This word is derived from Katha (Sanskrit Word).
  • This dance was spread in India during the Bhakti Movement in the 16th-17th centuries.
  • Famous Kathak dancers – Birju Maharaj, Lachu Maharaj, Sambu Maharaj, Shovna Narayan, Sitara Devi.
6

The Sangeet Natak Akademi gives fellowships to eminent artists. Sonal Mansingh received it for Odissi which is a dance form of which State?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • Sonal Mansingh
  • Indian classical dancer and Guru Bharatanatyam and Odissi dancing style.
  • She is a teacher, researcher, choreographer, and social activist.
  • Also Nominated by the President of India to become a Member of Parliament, Rajya Sabha.
  • She is the youngest recipient of Padma Bhushan in 1992 and Padma Vibhushan in 2003.​

Additional Information

  • Sangeet Natak Akademi
  • It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
  • The Akademi's main objectives are to promote the development of music, dance, and drama in India.
  • It organizes performances, training programs, and awards to encourage artists.
  • The Akademi also maintains a vast archive of recordings and documentation of various performing arts.
  • PV Rajamannar was the first chairman of the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi is India's national academy for music, dance, and drama.
  • The Akademi was established in 1952 by the Indian government to promote and preserve the performing arts of India.
  • As the first chairman, PV Rajamannar played a significant role in laying down the foundation and vision of the Akademi.
7

Which of the following cultural festivals is celebrated by the tribal people of Jharkhand?

  1. ((a))

    Sohrai

  2. ((b))

    Ugadi

  3. ((c))

    Sao Joao

  4. ((d))

    Hareli

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sohrai

The correct answer is Sohrai.

Key Points

  • Sohrai
  • Sohrai festival is celebrated in Jharkhand on the occasion of "Karthik Amavasya"(The day of diwali) all over India.
  • On the occasion of Sohrai festival Prasad "Pakhwa" is given to people.
  • This prasad is prepared from seven types of grains.

 Additional Information

  • Ugadi
  • According to the Hindu calendar, Ugadi or Yugadi is the Hindu New Year's Day, which is observed in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
  • On the first day of the Hindu lunisolar calendar month of Chaitra, it is celebrated festively in these areas.
  • The Pachadi is a popular festive dish that incorporates a wide range of flavours, including sweet, sour, salty, bitter, astringent, and spicy.
  • It is a symbolic reminder in Telugu and Kannada Hindu traditions that one should expect a wide range of experiences in the approaching new year and make the most of them.
  • Sao Joao
  • Sao Joao is celebrated on June 24th every year.
  • The Sao Joao festival is celebrated with great enthusiasm in Goa, especially by the Catholic community.
  • It involves vibrant processions, singing, and dancing, and is marked by the tradition of jumping into wells and streams to retrieve fruits.
  • This festival is dedicated to St. John the Baptist, and the exchange of fruits symbolizes joy and prosperity.
  • Hareli
  • Hareli festival is celebrated in Chhattisgarh. It commences on the Sravana Amavasya or the new moon day of month.
  • It is celebrated by farmers across the state and they pay their reverance to farms and cows.
  • They also plant leaves and branches of the ‘Bhelva Tree’ to ensure good crop the whole year.
8

‘Nation First, Always First’ is the theme of _________ Independence Day 2022.

  1. ((a))

    75th

  2. ((b))

    72nd

  3. ((c))

    77th

  4. ((d))

    70th

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

75th

The correct answer is  75th.

Key Points

  • India celebrated its 75th year of Independence this year.
  • The theme of India’s 75th Independence Day celebrations was ‘Nation First, Always First’.
  • On August 15, 2021, India celebrated its 75th year of Independence at Red Fort from where Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the nation.

 Additional Information

  • On the 75th Independence Day, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has announced a Rs 100 lakh crore Pradhan Mantri Gatishakti scheme while addressing the nation from Red Fort.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Gatishakti scheme aims to adopt a holistic and integrated approach to infrastructure growth and create employment opportunities for the youth of the country.
  • The government will soon announce the Master Plan for the scheme, to help boost the productivity of industries, and boost the economic growth of the country, besides creating job opportunities for hundreds of thousands of youths.
  • About the scheme:
  • Gatishakti will be a national infrastructure master plan for our country that will lay the foundation of holistic infrastructure and will lead to an integrated and holistic pathway to our economy.
  • The PM Gati Shakti scheme is aimed at breaking the silos between road, rail, air, and waterways to reduce travel time, improving industrial productivity, making manufacturing globally competitive, facilitating future economic zones, and creating employment.
9

Chaitya Hall of Maharashtra is an example of _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Islamic architecture

  2. ((b))

    Nagara architecture

  3. ((c))

    Cave architecture

  4. ((d))

    Dravidian architecture

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cave architecture

The correct answer is Cave architecture.

Key Points

  • Cave Architecture
  • Cave architecture involves creating structures within natural caves, often featuring rock-cut designs reflecting cultural and religious significance.
  • These caves serve as places of habitation, meditation, or worship.
  • Prominent examples include the Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, and the Karla Caves in India.

Additional Information

  • Islamic Architecture
  • Islamic architecture is characterized by the use of arches, domes, and intricate geometric patterns.
  • Key features include the minaret (tall tower for the call to prayer), the mosque (place of worship), and the madrasa (religious school).
  • The Taj Mahal in India is a renowned example of Islamic architecture.
  • Nagara Architecture
  • Nagara is one of the major styles of Hindu temple architecture.
  • It is characterized by a curvilinear tower (shikhara) that rises above the sanctum sanctorum.
  • The Khajuraho temples in India are famous examples of Nagara architecture.
  • Dravidian Architecture
  • Dravidian architecture is another major style of Hindu temple architecture, prevalent in South India.
  • It is characterized by tall, pyramidal towers (gopurams) that dominate the entrance to the temple complex.
  • The Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai, India, is a prominent example of Dravidian architecture.
10

What is the name of the scheme which has been rechristened in the year 2018 as Poshan Abhiyaan?

  1. ((a))

    National Nutrition Mission

  2. ((b))

    National Mid-Day Meal Scheme

  3. ((c))

    Integrated Child Development Scheme

  4. ((d))

    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

National Nutrition Mission

The correct answer is National Nutrition Mission.

Key Points

  • POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
  • The government of India ensures comprehensive convergence of citizens with various programmes like
  • Anganwadi Services
  • Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
  • Scheme for Adolescent Girls (SAG) of MWCD
  • Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
  • National Health Mission (NHM)
  • Swachh-Bharat Mission
  • Public Distribution System (PDS)
  • Department of Food & Public Distribution
  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)

Additional Information

  • The goals of NNM are to achieve improvement in the nutritional status of Children from 0 to 6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time-bound manner during the next three years beginning 2017-18. The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) has been set up with a three year budget of Rs.9046.17 crore commencing from 2017 to 18.
  • The NNM is a comprehensive approach toward raising the nutrition levels in the country on a war footing. It will comprise a mapping of various schemes contributing towards addressing malnutrition, including a very robust convergence mechanism, ICT based Real-Time Monitoring system, incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets, incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for using IT-based tools, eliminating registers used by AWWs, introducing measurement of the height of children at the Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Social Audits, setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres, involving masses through Jan Andolan for their participation on nutrition through various activities, among others.
11

Rudradaman belonged to which of the following dynasties?

  1. ((a))

    Kushana

  2. ((b))

    Maurya

  3. ((c))

    Gupta

  4. ((d))

    Shaka

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shaka

The correct answer is Shaka.

Key Points

Rudradaman I :

  • He is considered the greatest of the Saka rulers.
  • He is from the Western Kshatrapa dynasty.
  • He was the grandson of Chastana.
  • His kingdom included Konkan, Narmada valley, Kathiawar, other parts of Gujarat, and Malwa.
  • He conducted the repair work of the Sudarshana Lake at Kathiawar.
  • He supported Sanskrit literature and cultural arts.
  • It was during Rudradaman’s reign that Yavaneshwara, the Greek writer lived in India and translated the Yavanajataka from Greek to Sanskrit.

 Additional Information

  • Kushans were one of the five Great Yueh-chi tribes.
  • The Great Yuezhi-Chi tribes dwelled in the valley of Oxus.
  • A century later the Kushans of Yuehi-Chi gained dominance over the others.
  • They were led by Kadphises.
  • In the 1st century CE, Kujula Kadphises (Kadphises I) brought these five tribes together and founded the Kushan Empire.
  • They are referred to as Guishuang in the Chinese sources.
  • They moved east towards India by defeating the Parthians and the Sakas in the 1st century AD.
  • Kujula Kadphises was the first Yuezhi chief to lay the establishment of the Kushana Empire in India.
  • He substantiated his supremacy over Kabul, Kandahar and Afghanistan.
  • His successor was his son Vima Taktu or Sadashkana (AD 80 -AD 95) who amplified the empire into northwest India.
  • Ruler Vima Kadphises was the son of Vima Taktu and the father of Kanishka.
  • Kanishka of Kushan Dynasty (127 AD – 150 AD)
  • Kanishka was by far the most powerful sovereign of the Kushana dynasty.
  • His capital was Purushpura (Peshawar).
  • During his rule, the Kushana Empire expanded from Uzbekistan, Tajikistan to Mathura and Kashmir.
  • It was during his reign that Buddhism got divided into Mahayana and Hinayana.
  • He founded the Shaka Era of A.D. 78.
  • Kanishka patronized Buddhism and organized the 4th Buddhist council in the Kundalvana of Kashmir in 78 AD.
  • The scholars in Kanishka’s court included Vasumitra, Asvaghosa, Nagarjun, Charaka and Parsva.
  • Kanishka battled against King Han Ho-ti, the king of the Han dynasty of China.
  • Kanishka defeated him in the second attempt.
  • He invaded Patliputra and took the Buddhist monk Asvaghosa to Purushpura.
  • Ashvoghosha is considered to be the first Sanskrit dramatist.
  • The Kushana dynasty's decline commenced after his death.
  • Kanishka was succeeded by his son Vasishka.
  • Vasishka was succeeded by Huvishka and Kanishka II (son of Vasishka).
  • Kanishka II was succeeded by Vasudeva I.
  • Vasudeva I was the last great ruler of the Kushanas.
  • After his death, the empire disintegrated.
12

Vijay Stambh was built by which of these rulers?

  1. ((a))

    Durga Das Rathore

  2. ((b))

    Maharana Pratap

  3. ((c))

    Rana Kumbha

  4. ((d))

    Prithvi Raj Chauhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rana Kumbha

The correct answer is Rana Kumbha.

Key Points

  • Vijay Stambha is an imposing victory monument located in Chittorgarh fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan.
  • It was constructed by Mewar king Rana Kumbha in 1448 to commemorate his victory over the combined armies of Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji.

Additional Information

  • Rana Kumbha (1417-1468)
  • Reign of Mewar: Rana Kumbha was a powerful ruler of the Mewar kingdom in Rajasthan, India, reigning from 1433 to 1468 CE.
  • Military Prowess: He was a renowned warrior who expanded the boundaries of Mewar through numerous successful military campaigns against neighboring kingdoms.
  • Architectural Patronage: Kumbha is celebrated for his significant contributions to architecture. He commissioned the construction of the magnificent Kumbhalgarh Fort, one of the most impregnable fortresses in India. He also patronized the building of numerous Hindu and Jain temples, showcasing intricate stone carvings and sculptures.
  • Cultural Patronage: Kumbha was a patron of arts and literature. He was himself a skilled musician and a scholar, contributing to the development of Indian classical music.
  • Durga Das Rathore (1638-1718)
  • Loyal General: Durga Das Rathore was a renowned Rajput general who served under several Mughal emperors, including Aurangzeb.
  • Master Strategist: He was known for his military brilliance and strategic acumen.
  • Champion of Rajput Pride: Despite serving the Mughals, Durga Das remained fiercely loyal to his Rajput heritage and often championed the cause of Rajput independence.
  • Key Role in Rajput Resistance: He played a crucial role in uniting Rajput clans against Mughal dominance, fostering a sense of collective resistance.
  • Maharana Pratap (1540-1597)
  • Ruler of Mewar: Maharana Pratap was a valiant ruler of Mewar who famously resisted Mughal emperor Akbar's attempts to conquer his kingdom.
  • Symbol of Rajput Resistance: He is a revered figure in Indian history, symbolizing Rajput valor and resistance against foreign rule.
  • The Battle of Haldighati: The Battle of Haldighati, fought between Pratap and Akbar's forces, is legendary. Though the outcome was inconclusive, Pratap's courage and resilience in the face of overwhelming odds have earned him legendary status.
  • Guerrilla Warfare: After the Battle of Haldighati, Pratap resorted to guerrilla warfare tactics to continue his resistance against the Mughals, effectively keeping them out of Mewar for much of his reign.
  • Prithvi Raj Chauhan (c. 1178-1192)
  • Last Hindu Shahi Ruler of Delhi and Ajmer: Prithvi Raj Chauhan was the last Hindu Shahi ruler of Delhi and Ajmer.
  • Conquest of Delhi: He succeeded in capturing Delhi from the Ghaznavids, restoring Hindu rule to the region.
  • Conflict with Muhammad Ghori: He engaged in a series of battles with the Afghan ruler Muhammad Ghori.
13

Sangeet Natak Akademi award winner Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam was an exponent of _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Kuchipudi

  2. ((b))

    Bharatanatyam

  3. ((c))

    Mohiniyattam

  4. ((d))

    Kathakali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kuchipudi

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

  • The Kuchipudi dance originated in Andhra Pradesh.
  • It is one of the major forms of Indian classical dance.
  • The other Indian classical dance forms are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Odissi, Kathakali, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam, and Sattriya.

<br>

Additional Information

StateDance form
Tamil NaduBharatnatyam
Uttar PradeshKathak
Andhra PradeshKuchipudi
OdishaOdissi
KeralaKathakali
AssamSattriya
KeralaMohiniyattam
ManipurManipuri
14

In which year was ‘Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana’ (‘PMRY’) launched?

  1. ((a))

    1990

  2. ((b))

    1993

  3. ((c))

    1999

  4. ((d))

    2001

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1993

The correct answer is 1993.

Key Points

  • The Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) was launched in 1993 by the Government of India with the primary objective of fostering self-employment among educated unemployed youth.
  • This initiative aimed to empower young individuals to become job creators rather than job seekers, thereby contributing to economic growth and reducing unemployment rates.
  • PMRY offered financial assistance in the form of loans to eligible beneficiaries to establish their own micro-enterprises in various sectors such as manufacturing, services, and business.
  • The scheme provided crucial support to young entrepreneurs by covering the costs associated with setting up their ventures, including purchasing machinery, raw materials, and other essential equipment.
  • To further incentivize entrepreneurship, PMRY also offered a subsidy of 15% of the project cost, subject to a maximum limit of Rs. 7,500 per beneficiary.
  • This subsidy significantly reduced the initial financial burden for young entrepreneurs, making it easier for them to start and grow their businesses.
  • Recognizing the importance of skills and knowledge, PMRY mandated participation in training programs for all beneficiaries.
  • These training programs covered essential aspects of business management, financial planning, marketing, and other relevant skills, equipping young entrepreneurs with the necessary tools to succeed in their ventures.
15

With which of the following subjects are Article 123 and Article 213 of the Constitution of India associated?

  1. ((a))

    Annual financial statement

  2. ((b))

    Jurisdiction of Courts

  3. ((c))

    Ordinance-making power

  4. ((d))

    Issuing writs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ordinance-making power

The correct answer is Ordinance-making power.

Key Points

  • Article 123
  • According to article 123 in The Constitution Of India 1949, President has power to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament.
  • If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.
  • An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but every such Ordinance —(a) shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those resolutions; and(b) may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
  • If and so far as an Ordinance under this article makes any provision which Parliament would not under this Constitution be competent to enact, it shall be void.

 Additional Information

  • Article 213
  • Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the state legislature. An ordinance is a temporary law that can be issued by the Governor when the legislative assembly or both houses of the legislature are not in session.

 Key points about Article 213:

  • Power of Promulgation: The Governor has the authority to promulgate ordinances on matters that fall within the legislative competence of the state legislature.
  • Circumstances for Promulgation: The Governor can issue ordinances when the state legislature is not in session, and the Governor believes that immediate action is required.
  • Subject to Legislative Approval: Ordinances issued by the Governor are temporary in nature and need to be approved by the state legislature when it reconvenes. If not approved within a specified time, the ordinance ceases to operate.
  • Limits on Ordinance Making: The power to issue ordinances is not absolute, and there are certain constitutional limitations. The Governor cannot promulgate ordinances on certain matters, including those reserved for the President, and there are restrictions on re-promulgation.
16

Who among the following female leaders addressed the Indian National Congress session of 1890?

  1. ((a))

    Vina Mazumdar

  2. ((b))

    Basanti Devi

  3. ((c))

    Nanibala Devi

  4. ((d))

    Kadambini Ganguli

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kadambini Ganguli

The correct answer is Kadambini Ganguli.

Key Points

  • Kadambini Ganguli (1861-1923):
  • A pioneer in women's education and medicine in India.
  • She was one of the first women in South Asia to graduate with a degree in Western medicine.
  • Ganguli faced significant social barriers and discrimination but persevered to become a practicing physician, inspiring generations of women to pursue careers in healthcare.
  • She also actively participated in social reform movements, advocating for women's rights and education.

Additional Information

  • Vina Mazumdar (1927-2013):
  • A prominent Indian academic, feminist, and social activist.
  • A pioneer in women's studies in India, she played a crucial role in establishing the field as an academic discipline.
  • Mazumdar founded the Centre for Women's Development Studies (CWDS), a renowned research and advocacy organization.
  • Her research and writings significantly contributed to understanding gender inequalities and advocating for women's rights in India.
  • Basanti Devi (1880-1974):
  • A prominent Indian independence activist and social reformer.
  • Wife of renowned freedom fighter Chittaranjan Das, she played a vital role in the Indian independence movement.
  • Basanti Devi actively participated in various social and political movements, including the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • She was known for her courage, dedication, and unwavering support for the Indian freedom struggle.
  • Nanibala Devi (1888-1967):
  • A renowned Assamese poet and writer.
  • Her poetry often explored themes of love, loss, spirituality, and social issues.
  • Nanibala Devi was a prominent figure in Assamese literature, contributing significantly to the development of modern Assamese poetry.
  • She received numerous accolades for her literary contributions, including the Padma Shri award.
17

In which of the following years was the Bandhan Financial Services Private Limited set up to alleviate poverty and women empowerment?

  1. ((a))

    2002

  2. ((b))

    2004

  3. ((c))

    2001

  4. ((d))

    2003

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2001

The correct answer is 2001.

Key Points

  • Bandhan Financial Services Private Limited was established in 2001 with the primary goal of alleviating poverty and empowering women in India.
  • It began as a microfinance institution, focusing on providing small loans to low-income individuals and self-help groups, primarily women, who lack access to traditional banking services.
  • By offering affordable credit, Bandhan aimed to enable these marginalized communities to start or expand small businesses, generate income, and improve their livelihoods.
  • This approach not only empowers women economically but also contributes to overall economic growth and poverty reduction.
  • Bandhan's focus on women empowerment is particularly noteworthy.
  • By providing financial access to women, it recognizes their crucial role in household economies and empowers them to make independent decisions and contribute to their families' well-being.
  • Furthermore, Bandhan's commitment to financial inclusion extends beyond just providing loans. It also offers a range of financial services, such as savings accounts, insurance, and pension plans, to cater to the diverse needs of its customers. This comprehensive approach helps individuals build financial stability and security.

Additional Information

  • Founded: 2001
  • Focus: Microfinance, financial inclusion, women empowerment
  • Services: Microloans, savings accounts, insurance, pension plans
  • Impact: Reduced poverty, empowered women, contributed to economic growth
18

Who among the following Mughal emperors was taken as the leader by the sepoys and led the revolt of 1857?

  1. ((a))

    Muhammad Shah

  2. ((b))

    Shah Jahan II

  3. ((c))

    Bahadur Shah Zafar

  4. ((d))

    Aurangzeb

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bahadur Shah Zafar

The correct answer is Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Key Points

  • Bahadur Shah Zafar:
  • He was also known as Bahadur Shah-II.
  • He was the last Mughal emperor of India who reigned from 1837-58.
  • For most of his reign, he was a client of the British and was without real authority.
  • He was chosen as a nominal leader of the revolt of 1857.
  • After the rebellion, he was put down by the British, and was exiled to Rangoon in Burma(Myanmar) and later he died there. ​

Additional Information

  • Muhammad Shah
  • Born on August 7, 1702, and died on April 26, 1748; Mirza Nasir-ud-Din Muḥammad Shah, also known as Muhammad Shah, was the 13th Emperor of the Mughal Empire in India.
  • He ruled from 1719 to 1748 for a total of 29 years.
  • He was known as Rangeela because of his luxurious life-style.
  • Early in his reign, he was controlled by the Sayyid Brothers but eventually killed them with help from his advisor, Nizam-ul-Mulk.
  • in 1724, Nijam-ul-Mulk became the Wazir and founded the independent Hyderabad state.
  • Baji Rao 1 Maratha Peshwa invaded Delhi in 1737.
  • His time as emperor saw the Mughal Empire weaken, facing both internal problems and attacks from outsiders like the Persian ruler Nader Shah in 1739.
  • Nader Shah defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Karnal in 1739 and took away the Peacock Throne.
  • Shah Jahan II
  • Sayyid Brothers gave the title Shah Jahan II to Rafi-ud-Daula.
  • He was an opium addict.
  • He was the second son of Rafi-ush-Shan and a grandson of Bahadur Shah I.
  • Shah Jahan II suffered from tuberculosis just like his younger brother.
  • He was physically and mentally unfit to perform the duties of a ruler.
  • He died on 17 September 1719 at Bidyapur. He was buried beside Rafi ud-Darajat at the dargah of Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki at Mehrauli in Delhi.
  • Aurangzeb
  • The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb was known as Abul Muzaffar Muhi-ud-Din Muhammad Aurangzeb, commonly known as Aurangzeb or by his regional title Alamgir.
  • Mohi-ud-din Mohammed Aurangzeb was born on Oct. 24, 1618, at Dohad and was the third son of Emperor Shah Jahan.
  • Aurangzeb (1618-1707) was the sixth Mogul emperor of India and the last of the "Great Moguls."
  • He extended the Mogul Empire to its farthest boundaries, but his reign was harsh and marked by revolts.
  • He ruled over most of the Indian subcontinent during some parts of his reign, which lasted for 49 years from 1658 until he died in 1707.
  • Mughal emperor Aurangzeb died in 1707 after a 49-year reign without officially declaring a crown prince.
19

KV Prasad and SV Rajarao are both associated with which of the following percussion instruments?

  1. ((a))

    Ghatam

  2. ((b))

    Kanjira

  3. ((c))

    Mridangam

  4. ((d))

    Tabla

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mridangam

The correct answer is Mridangam.

Key Points

  • K. V. Krishna Prasad
  • K. V. Krishna Prasad, otherwise called KP, is a Carnatic music singer and is a famous Mridangam artist.
  • He breezed through his Music Seniors Test with college third position.
  • He has composed a book "Na kanda GurugaLu" in Kannada distributed by Kannada Sahitya Parishat.
  • He has additionally performed abroad in the Singapore Expressive arts (SIFA), Los Angeles, San Jose, San Francisco, New York, and as of late the lofty AKKA Sammelana.​

Additional Information

InstrumentMusicians
SantoorPt Shiv Kumar Sharma, Bhajan Sopori, Tarun Bhattacharya, Satish Vyas.
MridangamK V Prasad, SV Rajarao, Umalayapuram Sivaraman, Palghat Mani Iyer.
TablaZakir Hussain, Allah Rakha, Sabir Khan, Pt. Kishan Maharaj, Pt. Jnan Prakash Ghosh.
FluteHari Prasad Chaurasia, Pannalal Ghosh, TR Mahalingam, N Ramani.
SarodAllauddin Khan, Ali Akbar Khan, Amjad Ali Khan, Buddhadev Dasgupta, Bahadur Khan.
20

Which of the following is a Private Sector Undertaking of India?

  1. ((a))

    Bhadravati Steel Plant

  2. ((b))

    Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited

  3. ((c))

    Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Limited

  4. ((d))

    Alloy Steels Plant

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited

The correct answer is Housing Development Finance Corporation Limited.

Key Points

  • HDFC Ltd. to merge into HDFC Bank effective July 1, 2023
  • In a significant development, the merger between Housing Development Finance Corporation Ltd and HDFC Bank Ltd has successfully obtained final board approval.
  • With a valuation of around USD 40 billion, this unprecedented merger creates a financial services powerhouse.
  • HDFC Investments Limited and HDFC Holdings Ltd merged with HDFC Limited.
  • HDFC Limited merged with HDFC Bank Limited has became effective from July 1, 2023.
  • After merging with the mortgage lender HDFC, HDFC Bank is set to become the world's fourth most valuable bank based on market capitalization and emerge as the second biggest company in India.
  • Deepak Parekh, the esteemed chairman of Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC), has announced his retirement as HDFC prepares to merge with HDFC Bank.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank
  • Established in - 1994
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CMD - Shasidhar Jagdishan
21

Isobars are defined as:

  1. ((a))

    atoms of the same element having the same neutron number but different atomic numbers

  2. ((b))

    atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers

  3. ((c))

    atoms of the same element having different atomic numbers and different proton numbers

  4. ((d))

    atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers

The correct answer is atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

Key Points

Isobars are atoms (nuclides) of different chemical elements that have the same number of nucleons. Correspondingly, isobars differ in atomic number (or number of protons) but have the same mass number.

Electrons:

  • Discovered by Sir J.J Thomson in the year 1897.
  • Previously named as cathode rays as they were supposed to be emitted from the cathode.
  • They are deflected towards the positive side.
  • They have high kinetic energy.
  • They are deflected by an electric and magnetic field.
  • It has a negative charge of

charge=1.602×10−19coulombscharge=1.602\times10^{-19} coulombs

mass=11837×9.107×10−28gmass={1\over 1837}\times 9.107\times 10^{-28}g

Protons:

  • Discovered by Goldstein.
  • Depicted first as positive rays because it seemed to emerge from the anode.
  • Mass of a proton is

1.670×10−24g1.670 \times 10^{- 24}g

Charge=1.602×10−19coulombsCharge=1.602\times 10^{-19} coulombs​

Explanation:

  • Rutherford's discovery led to the discovery of nucleus.
  • He found out that most of the mass of the nucleus is situated in its centre and contains the positively charged particles protons.
  • The atom is otherwise empty and as electrons have negligible mass, the mass of an atom should be equal to the sum of mass of protons present in it.
  • However, it was seen that in Helium, there are only two protons, so its mass should be twice the mass of each proton = 2×1.008a.m.u2\times 1.008 a.m.u.
  • Experimental results revealed that it has a mass of 4.003a.m.u.
  • Hence, it was concluded that the nucleus has particles containing no charge but mass almost equal to that of a proton.
  • This was established by scientist James chadwick in 1932.

Additional Information

Rutherford's gold foil experiment:

  • He discovered the atomic nucleus and gave us an atomic model.
  • He directed alpha particles towards a metal sheet.
  • He saw that most of the alpha particles, which are positively charged particles, are not getting deflected.
  • Most of the alpha particles emerged undeflected.

  • Therefore, he concluded that most of the mass of the nucleus is situated in its centre and contains the positively charged particles protons.
  • Electrons revolve around the nucleus in certain orbits.
22

Which of the following was added in the Constitution of India in 1976?

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental rights

  2. ((b))

    Right to education

  3. ((c))

    Fundamental duty

  4. ((d))

    Directive principle

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fundamental duty

The correct answer is Fundamental duty.

Key Points

  • Fundamental duty
  • Fundamental Duties is taken from the Constitution of Russia.
  • It was incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
  • All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution.
  • The duties are also non-justiciable in nature.
  • Some of the duties are:
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem

Additional Information

  • Fundamental rights
  • Six fundamental rights recognized by the Indian constitution.
  • Under Part-III (article 12 - 35) of the constitution every citizen has provided 6 fundamental rights.
  • A total of seven rights were originally provided by the Constitution.
  • 44th amendment (1978 A.D.) removed the right to property and made a legal right (300A).
  • The fundamental rights secure the natural rights of all citizens and it was taken from the constitution of the U.S.A.
Fundamental RightArticle
Right to equality(14 - 18)
Right to freedom(19 - 22)
Right against exploitation(23 - 24)
Right to freedom of religion(25 - 28)
Cultural and educational rights(29 - 30)
Right to constitutional remedies(32
  • Directive principle
  • DPSP – Gandhian Principles
  • These principles are based on the Gandhian ideology used to represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. Under various articles, they direct the state to:
  • Article 40 Organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government
  • Article 43 Promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas
  • Article 43B Promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies
  • Article 46 Promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and protect them from social injustice and exploitation
  • Article 47 Prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health.
  • Article 48 Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and improve their breeds.
  • DPSP – Socialistic Principles
  • They are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state.
  • Article 38 Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
  • Article 39 Secure citizens: Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens
  • Article 39A Promote equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
  • Article 41 In cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, secure citizens: Right to work, Right to education, Right to public assistance.
  • Article 42 Make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
  • Article 43 Secure a living wage, a decent standard of living and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.
  • Article 43A Take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article 47 Raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.
  • DPSP – Liberal-Intellectual Principles
  • Article 44 Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
  • Article 45 Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
  • Article 48 Organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines
  • Article 48A To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
  • Article 49 Protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance
  • Article 50 Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
  • Article 51 Promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations
23

Where was the first unit of the Singh Sabha formed in 1873?

  1. ((a))

    Amritsar

  2. ((b))

    Karachi

  3. ((c))

    Patiala

  4. ((d))

    Chandigarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amritsar

  • The correct answer is Amritsar.

Key Points

  • ​ Britishers in 1849 annexed the Khalsa Raj.
  • Khalsa Raj was an independent Sikh kingdom in Punjab founded by Ranjit Singh in 1799.
  • Thereafter the Christian missionaries gradually started to increase their activity.
  • The last Sikh who was converted to Christianity in 1853 was Dalip Singh.
  • The local religious traditions were under the threat and in response to this Sikhs initiated the Singh Sabha movement which sought to revive Sikh doctrine.
  • The first unit of Singh Sabha  was formed in Amritsar in 1873.
24

Where is the oldest branch of the Ramakrishna Mission in the United States located?

  1. ((a))

    Texas

  2. ((b))

    Chicago

  3. ((c))

    Atlanta

  4. ((d))

    New York

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

New York

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

  • Swami Vivekananda was born on 12th January 1863.
  • His birthday is celebrated as national youth day in India.
  • The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda.
  • It was founded in 1897.
  • The headquarters of Ramakrishna Mission is located at Belur Math in West Bengal.
  • "Atmano mokshartham Jagat Hitaya cha" is the motto of Ramakrishna Mission.
  • Narendranath Datta is the original name of Swami Vivekananda.
  • He is considered the patriotic saint of India.
  • "Go back to Gita" is a famous slogan raised by Swami Vivekananda.
  • He attended the parliament of religions held in Chicago on 11th September 1893.
  • He died on 4th July 1902 at the age of 39.

Additional Information

  • Ramakrishna Paramahamsa is the guru of Swami Vivekananda.
  • Sarada Devi was the wife and spiritual consort of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
  • Mahendranath Gupta was a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
25

What were cash crops such as cotton and sugarcane called during the Mughal period?

  1. ((a))

    Jins-i-kamil

  2. ((b))

    Jins-i-shukr

  3. ((c))

    Jins-i-taqh

  4. ((d))

    Jins-i-qiblis

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jins-i-kamil

The correct answer is Jins-i-kamil.

Key Points

  • During the Mughal Period, the land was divided into four categories namely
  • Polaj - Which was cultivated every year.
  • Parati - Which was sometimes left uncultivated for one or two years.
  • Chachar - Which was left uncultivated for three or four years.
  • Banjar - Which was left uncultivated for five years or more.
  • Polaj was the land that is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow.
  • Polaj was the ideal and best type of land throughout the empire.
  • This land was cultivated always and was never allowed to lie fallow.

Additional Information

  • There was no Mughal land revenue system before Akbar.
  • His father Humayun and grandfather Babur did not introduce any changes because they were the first conquerors of their dynasty and remained pre-occupied with subduing rebellions, consolidating empires, and maintaining order.
  • A proper land revenue system was founded by Akbar.
  • However, the system of Akbar was itself based on what Shershah Suri implemented during his short tenure.
  • Thus, the land revenue system of Akbar was neither innovation nor an invention.
  • His indebtedness to the earlier rulers is immense but this has not diminished his fame as far as the land revenue system is concerned.
  • He followed the policy of Shershah with greater precision and correctness and then extended it to various subah or provinces of his empire.
  • But this correction or precision did not come overnight.
  • Initially was tortuous enough to turn peasants into beggars, and forcing them to sell their wives and children.
  • But it was revised several times.
  • The corrections done by the Akbar inland revenue system were as follows:
  • Standardization of measurement of land
  • Ascertaining the produce per Bigha of Land
  • Fixation of state’s share in that produce
26

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. ((a))

    The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional.

  2. ((b))

    The pyramid of energy is always inverted.

  3. ((c))

    All ecosystems are stable in size.

  4. ((d))

    In nature, only food chains exist, but not food webs.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional.

The correct answer is The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional..

Key Points

  • Energy flow in an ecosystem starts from the sun and flows to producers, then to consumers, and finally to decomposers.
  • This energy transfer follows a linear path and does not cycle back, making it unidirectional.
  • At each trophic level, energy is lost primarily as heat due to metabolic processes.
  • Only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, known as the 10% law of energy transfer.

Additional Information

  • Trophic Levels
  • These are hierarchical levels in an ecosystem, comprising producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers.
  • Producers (e.g., plants) generate energy through photosynthesis.
  • Primary consumers (herbivores) eat producers.
  • Secondary consumers (carnivores) eat primary consumers.
  • Tertiary consumers are top predators that eat secondary consumers.
  • Food Chains and Food Webs
  • A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass.
  • Food webs consist of multiple interconnected food chains, providing a more accurate depiction of energy flow in ecosystems.
  • Pyramid of Energy
  • This ecological pyramid shows the energy content at each trophic level.
  • It is always upright, indicating the loss of energy at each trophic level.
27

As per Tendulkar Expert Group (2009), for the year 2011-2012, the national poverty line in India for a person was fixed at _____ per month for the urban areas.

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,500

  2. ((b))

    ₹800

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹2,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹1,000

The correct answer is ₹1,000.

Key Points

Tendulkar Committee:-

  • It was constituted in the year 2009.
  • The expert group constituted by the Planning Commission and, chaired by Suresh Tendulkar, was constituted to review the methodology for poverty estimation and to address the following shortcomings of the previous methods:
  • Obsolete Consumption Pattern:-
  • Consumption patterns were linked to the 1973-74 poverty line baskets (PLBs) of goods and services, whereas there were significant changes in the consumption patterns of the poor since that time, which were not reflected in the poverty estimates.
  • Inflation Adjustment:
  • There were issues with the adjustment of prices for inflation, both spatially (across regions) and temporally (across time).
  • Health and Education Expenditure:
  • Earlier poverty lines assumed that health and education would be provided by the state and formulated poverty lines accordingly.

 Additional Information

Recommendations:-

  • The shift from Calorie Consumption-based Poverty Estimation:
  • It based its calculations on the consumption of the items like cereal, pulses, milk, edible oil, non-vegetarian items, vegetables, fresh fruits, dry fruits, sugar, salt & spices, other food, intoxicants, fuel, clothing, footwear, education, medical (non-institutional and institutional), entertainment, personal & toilet goods.

Uniform Poverty line Basket:

  • Unlike Alagh committee (which relied on separate PLB for rural and urban areas), Tendulkar Committee computed new poverty lines for rural and urban areas of each state based on the uniform poverty line basket and found that all India poverty line (2004-05) was:
  • ₹446.68 per capita per month in rural areas.
  • ₹578.80 per capita per month in urban areas.
28

Which of the following is NOT a quality/feature of the parliamentary form of government?

  1. ((a))

    Wide representation

  2. ((b))

    Single executive

  3. ((c))

    Collective responsibility

  4. ((d))

    Harmony between legislature and executive

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Single executive

The correct answer is Single executive.

Key Points

  • The modern concept of parliamentary government emerged in the Kingdom of Great Britain between 1707 and 1800 and its contemporary, the Parliamentary System in Sweden between 1721 and 1772.
  • Parliamentary System of Government
  • There are two executives:
  • The nominal executive is the head of state e.g. President while the real executive is the Prime Minister, who is the head of government.
  • In such a system, the role of the president or monarch is primarily ceremonial and the Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields effective power.
  • Countries with such a system include Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom as well as Portugal.
  • The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States.
  • Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level and Articles 163 and 164 contain provisions with regard to the States.
  • The executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.

 Additional Information

  • Presidential System of Government
  • There is only one executive.
  • In this system, the President is both head of state and government, e.g. the USA, South Korea etc.
  • The executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts and is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office.
29

The first Khelo India Winter Games was hosted by which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Gulmarg

  2. ((b))

    Ladakh

  3. ((c))

    Leh

  4. ((d))

    Shimla

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Leh

The correct answer is Leh.

Key Points

  • The first Khelo India Winter Games were held in the year 2020.
  • These games were organized to promote winter sports in India and were held in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • The event featured competitions in various winter sports such as skiing, snowboarding, and ice hockey.
  • The initiative is part of the larger Khelo India program, which aims to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and establishing India as a great sporting nation.

 Additional Information

  • The Khelo India program was launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • It aims to encourage sports participation and improve the sports infrastructure and ecosystem in India.
  • The program includes annual sporting events, scholarships for athletes, and the development of sports facilities across the country.
  • The Khelo India Winter Games are part of this broader initiative to include and promote winter sports.
30

What is the full form of HYV seeds that were essential in the implementation of the green revolution?

  1. ((a))

    Hand Yielding Volume seeds

  2. ((b))

    High Yielding Variety seeds

  3. ((c))

    High Yeast Variety seeds

  4. ((d))

    High Yielding Volume seeds

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

High Yielding Variety seeds

The correct answer is High Yielding Variety seeds.

Key Points

  • ICAR stands for Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
  • ICAR is the main organization responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India.
  • The Green Revolution in India, which began in the 1960s, was aimed at increasing food grain production, especially in wheat and rice.
  • Key strategies of the Green Revolution included the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and advanced irrigation techniques.
  • The initiative significantly increased agricultural productivity and self-sufficiency in food grains in India.

 Additional Information

  • The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) also played a role in developing crop varieties suitable for India's semi-arid regions.
  • The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), under ICAR, was instrumental in developing high-yielding varieties of wheat.
  • The success of the Green Revolution led to increased focus on agricultural research and development, paving the way for future advancements in the sector.
31

What is the required size of the Olympic swimming pool?

  1. ((a))

    50 m × 30 m

  2. ((b))

    60 m × 60 m

  3. ((c))

    50 m × 25 m

  4. ((d))

    25 m × 15 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50 m × 25 m

The correct answer is 50 m × 25 m.

Key Points

Swimming pool:

  • ​The swimming pool standard size is :
  • 50m length
  • 25m width
  • It must have 10 lanes.
  • The width of the lane should be 2.50m.
  • The range of the temperature should be 25-28o C.
  • The lighting level should be more den 3000 lux.

 Additional Information

  • Swimming:
  • Swimming is an individual or team racing sport that requires the use of one's entire body to move through the water.
  • The sport takes place in pools or open water (e.g., in a sea or lake).
  • Competitive swimming is one of the most popular Olympic sports, with varied distance events.
  • It has 4 styles of swimming.
  • Strokes in swimming:
  • Freestyle
  • Backstroke
  • Butterfly
  • Breaststroke.
  • Swimming Federation of India:
  • The Swimming Federation of India (SFI) is the national governing body for aquatic sports in India.
  • Legally, it is a non-profit association registered under the West Bengal Societies Registration Act, 1861.
  • The federation holds elections for its office bearers every four years.
  • The SFI currently oversees competition in the sports of swimming, masters swimming, synchronized swimming, diving, high diving, and water polo.
  • It is affiliated with FINA, and the Asia Swimming Federation (AASF).
  • The SFI was formed by the merger of the National Swimming Association (NSA) and the Indian Swimming Federation (ISF) in 1948.
32

‘Higher Education Leadership Development Programme for Administrator’ is a programme launched by which Union Ministry?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Human Resource Development

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of MSME

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Human Resource Development

The correct answer is Ministry of Human Resource Development.

Key Points

  • The "Higher Education Leadership Development Programme for Administrators" is a joint initiative launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) and the UK India Education and Research Initiative (UKIERI).
  • Launched in: 2020
  • Objective: To enhance the leadership capabilities of mid and senior-level academic administrators in Indian universities.
  • Focus: Equipping administrators with the knowledge, skills, and behaviors necessary to drive systemic change and improvement within their institutions.
  • Implementation: Delivered by Advance HE, a leading UK-based organization specializing in higher education enhancement.
  • Target Audience: Joint/Deputy/Assistant Registrars and Registrars in Indian Universities.
  • Methodology: A blended learning approach, combining online training modules with facilitated group discussions, action learning sets, and peer-to-peer learning.
  • Improved leadership capacity among university administrators.
  • Enhanced institutional effectiveness and quality.
  • Strengthened collaboration between Indian and UK higher education institutions.
  • Note: The current Chairman of the UGC is Jagadesh Kumar.
33

According to Census of India 2011, select the state that had less than 10 crore population?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • According to the 2011 Census of India, Mumbai stands as the most populous metropolitan city in India, with a population of 18,394,392.
  • It is followed by Delhi, Kolkata, and Chennai in terms of population.
  • Mumbai also holds the distinction of being the financial capital of India and serves as the capital of Maharashtra state.
  • The city exhibits a remarkable population density, with approximately 21,000 individuals per square kilometer.
  • The 2011 census of India was conducted in two phases: house listing and population enumeration, spanning from February 9 to February 28, 2011.
  • The census revealed that the population of India at that time was 1,210,854,977.

 Additional Information

  • The 2011 census of India, also known as the 15th Indian census, was carried out in two phases: house listing and population enumeration.
  • The House listing phase commenced on April 1, 2010, focusing on gathering information about all buildings. During this phase, data for the National Population Register (NPR) was also collected, aiming to provide a 12-digit unique identification number to all registered Indian residents by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
  • The second phase, population enumeration, took place between February 9 and February 28, 2011. Census-taking has been a tradition in India since 1872, and the 2011 census marked a significant milestone as it was the first time biometric information was collected.
  • According to the provisional reports released on March 31, 2011, the Indian population had surged to 1.21 billion, reflecting a decadal growth of 17.70%. Moreover, the adult literacy rate had increased to 74.04%, showing a growth of 9.21% over the previous decade.
34

‘The Great Gatsby’ is an English novel written by which of the following authors?

  1. ((a))

    F. Scott Fitzgerald

  2. ((b))

    Oscar Wilde

  3. ((c))

    Ernest Hemingway

  4. ((d))

    D. H. Lawrence

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F. Scott Fitzgerald

The correct answer is F. Scott Fitzgerald.

Key Points

  • The Great Gatsby is a 1925 novel by American writer F. Scott Fitzgerald.
  • The novel was inspired by a youthful romance Fitzgerald had with socialite Ginevra King, and the riotous parties he attended on Long Island's North Shore in 1922.
  • During World War II, the novel experienced an abrupt surge in popularity when the Council on Books in Wartime distributed free copies to American soldiers serving overseas.
  • The Great Gatsby is widely considered to be a literary masterwork and a contender for the title of the Great American Novel.
35

Who can amend any part of the Constitution without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Judiciary

  2. ((b))

    President

  3. ((c))

    Parliament

  4. ((d))

    Executive

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Parliament

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

  • Parliament
  • The Indian Parliament is the supreme legislative body of the country, responsible for enacting laws.
  • It consists of two Houses: the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • The President of India is also a part of Parliament.
  • Parliament's powers include law-making, financial control over the government, and overseeing the executive.
  • It plays a crucial role in shaping the nation's policies and holding the government accountable.
  • The Constitution outlines the powers, privileges, and procedures of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Judiciary
  • The Judiciary is the independent branch of the government responsible for interpreting and upholding the Constitution.
  • It comprises a hierarchical system of courts, with the Supreme Court at the apex.
  • The judiciary ensures that laws are applied fairly and consistently.
  • It has the power of judicial review, allowing it to strike down laws that are deemed unconstitutional.
  • The independence of the judiciary is a cornerstone of Indian democracy.
  • President
  • The President of India is the head of state and the supreme commander of the armed forces.
  • While primarily a ceremonial role, the President holds significant constitutional powers.
  • Key powers include appointing the Prime Minister and other ministers, assenting to bills passed by Parliament, and exercising emergency powers.
  • The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
  • Executive
  • The Executive is the branch of government responsible for implementing and enforcing laws.
  • It is headed by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
  • The executive branch includes various ministries and departments that carry out the day-to-day administration of the country.
  • The executive is accountable to Parliament for its actions.
  • The Constitution outlines the powers and responsibilities of the executive.
  • Separation of Powers: The Indian Constitution emphasizes the separation of powers among the legislature (Parliament), executive, and judiciary.
  • Checks and Balances: These three organs are designed to check and balance each other's powers, preventing any one branch from becoming too powerful.
  • Rule of Law: The Constitution upholds the principle of the rule of law, meaning that all individuals, including those in power, are subject to the law.
36

Who among the following novelists wrote ‘Midnight’s Children’?

  1. ((a))

    Salman Rushdie

  2. ((b))

    Shashi Tharoor

  3. ((c))

    VS Naipaul

  4. ((d))

    Vikram Seth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Salman Rushdie

The correct answer is Salman Rushdie.

Key Points

  • Salman Rushdie is an Indian-born British-American novelist renowned for his distinctive blend of magic realism and historical fiction.
  • His literary themes frequently explore the interplay, disruptions, and migrations between Eastern and Western civilizations, with a particular focus on the Indian subcontinent.
  • Rushdie's second novel, "Midnight's Children" (1981), achieved widespread acclaim and secured the prestigious Booker Prize in 1981.
  • It was twice recognized as "the best novel of all winners" on the 25th and 40th anniversaries of the prize, underscoring its enduring significance in the literary landscape.

Additional Information

  • Shashi Tharoor
  • He is a Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha from Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
  • He is former under Secretary-General of the United Nations for Communications and Public Information.
  • Famous books:
  1. Bookless in Baghdad
  2. India from Midnight to Millennium
  3. Inglorious Empire
  4. The Paradoxical Prime Minister
  5. Why I Am a Hindu
  6. Nehru: The Invention of India
  • VS Naipaul
  • VS Naipaul won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2001 for having a united perceptive narrative and incorruptible scrutiny in works that compel us to see the presence of suppressed histories.
  • Vikram Seth
  • Vikram Seth is a poet and novelist from India.
  • He has won numerous honours, including the Crossword Book Award, WH Smith Literary Award, Pravasi Bharatiya Samman, Sahitya Academy Award, and Padma Shri.
  • Seth's poetry collections include works such as Mappings and Beastly Tales.
  • After the release of A Suitable Boy, Seth gained widespread attention.
  • In 2020, a BBC television drama miniseries based on it was produced.
37

Who among the following was NOT a member of the All India Khilafat Committee, formed by Ali brothers in early 1919?

  1. ((a))

    Yakub Hasan Sait

  2. ((b))

    Hasrat Mohani

  3. ((c))

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  4. ((d))

    Hakim Ajmal Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yakub Hasan Sait

The correct answer is Yakub Hasan Sait.

Key Points 

  • Jul 01 1921 is the date when the All-India Khilafat Committee passed a resolution declaring that no Muslim should serve in the British-Indian army.
  • The Khilafat Movement was a significant political and religious campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British government and to protect the Ottoman Caliphate.
  • The movement was led by prominent leaders such as Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, who played a pivotal role in rallying Indian Muslims against British rule.
  • It was closely associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, which aimed at gaining self-governance and full independence for India.
  • The resolution was part of a broader strategy to unite Muslims and Hindus in the struggle against colonial rule and to assert their political rights.

Additional Information

  • The Khilafat Movement eventually declined after the abolition of the Caliphate by Mustafa Kemal Atatürk in 1924.
  • Despite its decline, the movement had a lasting impact on Indian politics by fostering Hindu-Muslim unity and contributing to the broader struggle for Indian independence.
  • The movement also highlighted the importance of religious and cultural issues in the anti-colonial struggle and set the stage for future collaborations between different communities in India.
38

According to India Brand Equity Foundation report (2020-21), which group of states of India is the largest coffee producer?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu and Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Kerala and Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka and Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Karnataka and Kerala

The correct answer is Karnataka and Kerala.

Key Points

  • IBEF stands for India Brand Equity Foundation.
  • The main objective of the India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF) is to promote and create international awareness of the Made in India label in markets overseas and to facilitate dissemination of knowledge of Indian products and services.
  • The IBEF closely works with stakeholders across government and industry.
  • IBEF produces some of the research reports, factbooks, insights papers, and case studies across different sectors, businesses, and trends in the Indian economy.
  • These report publications offer authoritative information on business partnerships and growth opportunities in India.
  • The main 3 pillars of IBEF:
  • ​Export Promotion.
  • Knowledge Centre.
  • Digital Media.

Additional Information

  • ​Export Promotion:
  • ​It runs campaigns for various important sectors and aims at improving and increasing the perception of Indian products.
  • Brand India Textile.
  • Brand India Pharma Campaign.
  • Brand India Leather.
  • Brand India Engineering.
  • Brand India Agri Products.
  • Knowledge Centre:
  • ​The knowledge center is the most popular resource for information on the Indian economy and business.
  • The knowledge center for global investors, international policymakers, and world media seeking updated, accurate, and comprehensive information on the Indian economy, states, and sectors.
  • Digital Media:
  • The ​digital presence has attained global reach through its websites and social media platforms.
  • Digital media assets to promote Brand India in key international markets. Through select online mediums.
39

Which is not included in the sources of finance available to the private sector as compared to the public sector in the context of financing the Five Year Plans?

  1. ((a))

    Foreign funds as equity capital

  2. ((b))

    Savings of individuals

  3. ((c))

    Tax

  4. ((d))

    Public Sector Financial Institutions

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tax

The correct answer is Tax.

Key Points

  • Taxation is a primary source of revenue for the public sector, used to finance various governmental projects, including Five Year Plans.
  • Private sector companies do not have the authority to levy taxes, making this option exclusive to the public sector.
  • Tax revenues are collected by the government and used for public welfare, infrastructure, and development projects.
  • Other sources of finance for the private sector include equity capital, savings of individuals, and financial institutions, but not taxes.

Additional Information

  • Equity Capital
  • Equity capital is funds raised by issuing shares in the company to investors.
  • This form of financing does not involve borrowing and does not require repayment.
  • Investors gain ownership stakes in the company and may receive dividends.
  • Savings of Individuals
  • Personal savings contribute to private sector financing by providing capital for investments.
  • These savings can be mobilized through various financial instruments like fixed deposits, mutual funds, and direct investments.
  • Public Sector Financial Institutions
  • These institutions provide loans and financial assistance to both public and private sectors.
  • Examples include banks, insurance companies, and development finance institutions.
  • Foreign Funds
  • Foreign investments can come in the form of direct investments or portfolio investments.
  • These funds help in acquiring new technologies, expanding markets, and enhancing operational capacities.
40

Which of the following Buddhist texts is based on the conversation between the Buddhist sage Nagasena and Indo Greek king Menander?

  1. ((a))

    Mahavamsa

  2. ((b))

    Milindapanha

  3. ((c))

    Dhammapada

  4. ((d))

    Prajnaparamita

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Milindapanha

The correct answer is Milindapanha.

Key Points

  • Milindapanha
  • An important Buddhist text that records the dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander (Milinda) and the Buddhist sage Nagasena.
  • It focuses on philosophical discussions and does not mention Pushyamitra Shunga or his Ashvamedha sacrifice.

Additional Information

  • Mahavamsa
  • It is a poem written in the Pali language. It consists of information about the spread of Buddhism.
  • It was written during the reign of King Vijaya.
  • Dhammapada
  • The first discovery of the Prakrit text of the Dhammapada in Kharosthi was made in 1892 by the French traveller Dutreuil de Hhins, he also founded altogether three fragments in Khotan, which lie despatched to Paris.
  • The Dhammapada is the only text of which a fragment has been preserved in Kharosthi, a script in which two recensions of Asoka's Rock Edicts, at Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra, are inscribed, and this is the only Buddhist text which has been hitherto found composed in a Prakrit dialect.
  • The manuscript is one of the earliest finds from Khotan.
  • Among later finds in Khotan, we have to mention a few documents containing dispositions and reports of local authorities, instructions, regulations, official and private correspondence — all inscribed in the Kharosthi script and drawn up in a Prakrit dialect.
  • "Dhammapada," is a compound term composed of dhamma and pada.
  • Dhamma refers to the Buddha's "doctrine" and Pada means "foot".
  • Prajnaparamita
  • Prajnaparamita Sutras and Vimalakirti Nirdesa Sutra are Mahayana Buddhist texts.
  • The Prajnaparamita Sutras focus on the concept of 'perfection of wisdom' or 'prajna'.
  • The Vimalakirti Nirdesa Sutra discusses profound aspects of Buddhist philosophy with a lay disciple as the protagonist.
41

As a result of double counting, National Income is:

  1. ((a))

    not estimated for the entire year of accounting

  2. ((b))

    over-estimated

  3. ((c))

    correctly estimated

  4. ((d))

    under-estimated

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

over-estimated

The correct answer is over-estimated.

Key Points

  • National income is the total income of all the residents of the country.
  • Thus, it is the total income of the country.
  • It is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing the development of countries.
  • The National Income formula equals GDP + Foreign Production by National Residents – Domestic Production by Non-National Residents.

Additional Information

  • Gross national income (GNI) is defined as a gross domestic product, plus net receipts from abroad of compensation of employees, property income, and net taxes less subsidies on production.
  • Gross domestic product is a monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services produced and sold in a specific time period by countries.
  • Per capita income or total income measures the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year. It is calculated by dividing the area's total income by its total population.
  • Per capita income is national income divided by population size.
42

What is a relatively small, triangular-shaped minor oceanic plate located beneath the Pacific Ocean off the west coast of Central America?

  1. ((a))

    Nazca plate

  2. ((b))

    Okhotsk plate

  3. ((c))

    Cocos plate

  4. ((d))

    Sunda plate

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cocos plate

The correct answer is Cocos plate.

Key Points

Cocos Plate:

  • Cocos plates lie between Central America and the Pacific Plate.
  • The worldwide famous Coco Island rested upon it.
  • The oceanic plate creates the Island chain.

Thus, the Cocos Plate is located between Central America and the Pacific plate.

Additional Information

  • Nazca Plate:
  • The Nazca Plate is an oceanic tectonic plate located in the southeastern Pacific Ocean. It is bordered by the South American Plate to the east and the Pacific Plate to the west.
  • It is responsible for the creation of the Andes Mountains through subduction, where the Nazca Plate is forced under the South American Plate.
  • This plate is known for causing seismic activity and volcanic activity along the western coast of South America, especially in countries like Chile and Peru.
  • Okhotsk Plate
  • The Okhotsk Plate is a minor tectonic plate located in Northeast Asia.
  • It encompasses a significant portion of the region, including the Kamchatka Peninsula, Sakhalin Island, parts of Japan (Hokkaido, Honshu, and Tohoku), and the Sea of Okhotsk.
  • This plate is characterized by its independent movement, rotating clockwise relative to the North American Plate.
  • Its boundaries interact with several major plates, including the Eurasian Plate, North American Plate, and Pacific Plate.
  • This interaction results in significant tectonic activity, with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occurring along its borders.
  • The 2011 Tohoku earthquake and tsunami in Japan serve as a stark reminder of the seismic hazards associated with the Okhotsk Plate.
  • The plate's movement and interactions have played a crucial role in shaping the geological landscape of Northeast Asia, including the formation of volcanic arcs and mountain ranges.
  • Research into the Okhotsk Plate continues to advance our understanding of plate tectonics and the complex geological processes shaping our planet.
  • Sunda Plate
  • The Sunda  Plate is a minor tectonic plate located in Southeast Asia.
  • It encompasses a large portion of the region, including the Malay Peninsula, Borneo, Sumatra, Java, and parts of other islands.
  • The Sunda Plate is moving eastward relative to the Eurasian Plate.
  • It lies at the boundary of the Eurasian and Indo-Australian plates, making it a highly seismically active region.
  • The collision of these plates has resulted in the formation of the Sunda Arc, a chain of volcanoes and islands.
  • The Sunda Plate is crucial for understanding the geological evolution of Southeast Asia and the frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that occur in the region.
  • The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami, one of the deadliest tsunamis in history, was triggered by an undersea megathrust earthquake along the boundary between the Sunda Plate and the Indo-Australian Plate.
43

Mrinalini Sarabhai is associated with which of these dance forms?

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Mohiniyattam

  3. ((c))

    Manipuri

  4. ((d))

    Kathakali

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kathakali

The correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is a classical dance form that originates from Kerala, a state in the southern part of India.
  • It is distinguished by its vibrant costumes, elaborate makeup, and face masks that the performers wear.
  • Kathakali translates to "Story-Play" and is known for its intricate storytelling, detailed gestures, and expressive eye movements.
  • The dance form combines dance, music, drama, and literature into a composite art form, making it unique and complex.
  • Themes of Kathakali are mostly taken from the Indian epics like Mahabharata, Ramayana, and other ancient scriptures.
  • It is performed exclusively by men and involves rigorous physical training to master the art form.
  • The music used in Kathakali is called Sopanam and is sung in the Malayalam language.

Additional Information

  • Kathak
  • They were originally a cast of storytellers in north India (Utter Pradesh) who used to sing gestures and songs in temples.
  • This word is derived from Katha (Sanskrit Word).
  • This dance was spread in India during the Bhakti Movement in the 16th-17th centuries.
  • Famous Kathak dancers – Birju Maharaj, Lachu Maharaj, Sambu Maharaj, Shovna Narayan, Sitara Devi.​
  • Classical dance in India​
Classical DanceState
BharatanatyamTamil Nadu
Manipuri DanceManipur
Odissi DanceOdisha
Kathakali MohiniattamKerla
KuchipudiAndhra Pradesh
SattriyaAssam
44

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizen?

A. Some of the Fundamental Rights are available against the arbitrary action of the state, some of them available against the private people.

B. Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified.

C. The Parliament can curtail or repeal the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

D. Under Fundamental Rights, the aggrieved person cannot go to the Supreme Court directly, but they can go to the High Court directly.

  1. ((a))

    A, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C only

The correct answer is A, B and C only.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India has 6 Fundamental Rights and 11 Fundamental Duties.
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
  • They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc.
  • Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
  • There are six fundamental rights of Indian Constitution along with the constitutional articles related to them are mentioned below:
  • Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
  • Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
  • Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
  • Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
  • Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
  • Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)​

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties.
  • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
  • 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
  • Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
  • The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
45

What types of proteins reside within the bilayer membrane that surrounds cells and organelles, and play an important role in the movement of molecules across them and the transmission of energy and signals?

  1. ((a))

    Carrier proteins

  2. ((b))

    Peripheral membrane proteins

  3. ((c))

    Integral membrane proteins

  4. ((d))

    Glycoproteins

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Integral membrane proteins

The correct answer is Integral membrane proteins.

Key Points

  • Proteins are the most important and intracellular organic biomolecule.
  • These are polypeptides having chains of amino acid arranged linearly that are linked by peptide bonds.
  • Each protein is a polymer of amino acids, there are 20 types of amino acids, e.g., valine, leucine, histidine, etc.
  • The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional information in a protein which is the first amino acid, second, and so on is known as primary structure of protein.
  • A pure protein normally has two ends i.e. N-terminal amino acid and C-terminal amino acid.
  • A protein is imagined as a line whose left end is represented by the first amino acid, also called as N-terminal amino acid and the right end is represented by the last amino acid called the C-terminal amino acid, e.g., insulin, ribonuclease.
  • These N and C-terminal amino acids are referred as two ends of the protein.

Additional Information

Types of Proteins

  • Proteins can be broadly classified into two categories based on their structure and solubility: fibrous proteins and globular proteins.
  • Fibrous Proteins: These proteins have elongated, fibrous structures and are generally insoluble in water. They provide structural support and strength to tissues.
  • Fibroin: The main protein in silk, known for its fibrous structure.
  • Collagen: A major component of connective tissues like tendons, ligaments, and skin, with a fibrous structure.
  • Keratin: Found in hair, nails, and skin, known for its fibrous and structural properties.
  • Globular Proteins: These proteins have a more compact, spherical shape and are generally soluble in water. They perform a variety of functions, including enzymatic, transport, and regulatory roles.
  • Haemoglobin: A globular protein responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood. It is not a fibrous protein.
  • Fibroin is a fibrous protein
  • Haemoglobin is a globular protein, not a fibrous protein - This statement is true.
  • Collagen is a fibrous protein
  • Keratin is a fibrous protein
46

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the ordinance making power of the Governor?

  1. ((a))

    Article 209

  2. ((b))

    Article 205

  3. ((c))

    Article 213

  4. ((d))

    Article 203

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 213

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

  • Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the state legislature. An ordinance is a temporary law that can be issued by the Governor when the legislative assembly or both houses of the legislature are not in session.
  • Article 213:
  • Power of Promulgation: The Governor has the authority to promulgate ordinances on matters that fall within the legislative competence of the state legislature.
  • Circumstances for Promulgation: The Governor can issue ordinances when the state legislature is not in session, and the Governor believes that immediate action is required.
  • Subject to Legislative Approval: Ordinances issued by the Governor are temporary in nature and need to be approved by the state legislature when it reconvenes. If not approved within a specified time, the ordinance ceases to operate.
  • Limits on Ordinance Making: The power to issue ordinances is not absolute, and there are certain constitutional limitations. The Governor cannot promulgate ordinances on certain matters, including those reserved for the President, and there are restrictions on re-promulgation.

Additional Information

  • Article 209
  • States about the Regulation of law of procedures in the state legislature about financial business.
  • ​Article 205
  • ​States about the Supplementary additional or excess grant in the state legislature.
  • ​Article 203
  • States about the Procedure in the state legislature concerning the estimate.
47

Consider following statements.

  1. A system consisting of biotic and abiotic components is known as ecosystem. 

  2. All the components of the ecosystem are inter-related.

  3. Ecosystem always have clear boundaries.

Which statement is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 3 statements are correct

  3. ((c))

    All the statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    Both 2 and 3 statements are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.

Key Points

Ecosystem: 

  • All organisms such as plants, animals, microorganisms and human beings as well as the physical surroundings interact with each other and maintain a balance in nature.
  • All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents of the environment form an ecosystem.
  • The term ecosystem was coined by Tansley.

Additional Information

Explanation:

Components of an ecosystem:

Biotic Components: 

  • It includes producers, consumers and decomposers.
  • All living things have a direct or indirect influence on other organisms in an environment.
  • Example: plants, animals, humans, microorganism etc.

Abiotic components: 

  • All the in-organic components of the ecosystem, non-living physical and chemical composition of nature are abiotic components.
  • Example: land, stones, water, humus (organic waste), air etc.
48

Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution falls under socialistic principles?

  1. ((a))

    To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife

  2. ((b))

    To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs

  3. ((c))

    Equal pay for equal work for men and women

  4. ((d))

    To promote functioning of co-operative societies

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Equal pay for equal work for men and women

The correct answer is Equal pay for equal work for men and women.

Key Points

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51), are non-justiciable in nature.
  • This means that they are not enforceable by any court.
  • However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
  • The DPSP, though not enforceable, serve as a guide to the legislative and executive branches of the government when they create policies and laws.
  • They aim to establish a welfare state where justice and equality are prevalent.
  • Despite their non-justiciable nature, the principles hold significant influence on the interpretation of the Constitution and the legislation.
  • This is because they reflect the ambitions and values that the Constitution strives to uphold.
  • Please note that while these principles are not enforceable by courts, they significantly shape India's governance and legal discourse.
  • The Constitution itself declares that it is the responsibility of the State to apply these principles in law-making and policy design.
  • This provides them with a considerable indirect impact on legislation and governance.
49

Which of the following is NOT a factor that causes rainfall in India?

  1. ((a))

    Anti-cyclone

  2. ((b))

    Convection

  3. ((c))

    Cyclone

  4. ((d))

    Orography

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anti-cyclone

The correct answer is Anti-cyclone.

Key Points

  • Anti-cyclone
  • An anti-cyclone is a large-scale circulation of winds around a central region of high atmospheric pressure.
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, winds in an anticyclone circulate clockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere, they circulate counterclockwise.
  • Anticyclones are associated with fair weather conditions, such as clear skies, light winds, and little precipitation.
  • They form due to the sinking of cool air, which increases air pressure at the surface.
  • Anticyclones can influence weather patterns over large areas, often leading to prolonged periods of stable weather.

Additional Information

  • Convection
  • In meteorology, convection refers to the vertical movement of air due to differences in temperature and density.
  • Warm air, being less dense, rises, while cooler air sinks.
  • Convection plays a crucial role in driving weather patterns, such as thunderstorms and sea breezes.
  • It is a fundamental process in the Earth's atmosphere, influencing the distribution of heat and moisture.
  • Convection currents can also occur in other fluids, such as water and molten rock.
  • Cyclone
  • A cyclone is a large-scale atmospheric circulation characterized by low atmospheric pressure at its center.
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, winds in a cyclone circulate counterclockwise, while in the Southern Hemisphere, they circulate clockwise.
  • Cyclones are associated with stormy weather conditions, including strong winds, heavy rain, and sometimes tornadoes.
  • They form due to the rising of warm, moist air, which creates an area of low pressure.
  • Tropical cyclones, hurricanes, and typhoons are all types of cyclones.
  • Orography
  • Orography refers to the influence of topography, such as mountains and hills, on weather patterns.
  • When air masses encounter a mountain range, they are forced to rise, which can lead to cooling and condensation, resulting in precipitation.
  • This phenomenon is known as orographic lifting.
  • Orography can significantly impact regional climates, creating rain shadows on the leeward side of mountain ranges and influencing the distribution of precipitation.
  • The Himalayas, for example, create a rain shadow effect on the Tibetan Plateau.
50

Vilayat Khan is known for playing which of the following instruments?

  1. ((a))

    Santoor

  2. ((b))

    Sarod

  3. ((c))

    Violin

  4. ((d))

    Sitar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sitar

The correct answer is Sitar.

Key Points

Sitar instrument:

  • The sitar is a plucked stringed instrument, originating from the Indian subcontinent, used in Hindustani classical music.
  • The instrument was invented in medieval India and flourished in the 16th and 17th centuries and arrived at its present form in 18th-century India.
  • Used widely throughout the Indian subcontinent, the sitar became popularly known in the wider world through the works of Ravi Shankar, beginning in the late 1950s and early 1960s.
  • In the 1960s, a short-lived trend arose for the use of the sitar in Western popular music, with the instrument appearing on tracks by bands such as the Beatles, the Doors, the Rolling Stones, and others.

Additional Information

  • Santoor
  • The santoor is a hammered dulcimer, a trapezoid-shaped instrument with strings that are struck with small mallets.
  • It has its origins in Persia and is a popular instrument in Indian classical music, particularly in the Kashmir region.
  • The santoor typically has 100 strings arranged in groups, and the player uses two small wooden mallets to produce a wide range of sounds and effects.
  • It is known for its delicate and expressive sound, capable of producing both subtle and powerful musical phrases.
  • Pandit Shivkumar Sharma was a renowned santoor virtuoso who played a crucial role in popularizing the instrument in Indian classical music.
  • Sarod
  • The sarod is a fretless, long-necked lute that is a prominent instrument in Hindustani classical music.
  • It is characterized by its deep, resonant sound and intricate playing techniques.
  • The sarod has a gourd-shaped body and a long neck with 20 to 25 frets.
  • It is played with a small metal plectrum called a "meend" that allows for subtle variations in pitch and timbre.
  • Ustad Ali Akbar Khan and Ustad Amjad Ali Khan are two of the most celebrated sarod maestros in the world.
  • Violin
  • The violin is a string instrument with four strings, played with a bow.
  • It is one of the most widely recognized and versatile instruments in Western classical music.
  • The violin has a long history, evolving from earlier bowed instruments like the viol.
  • It is capable of producing a wide range of sounds, from delicate and lyrical to powerful and dramatic.
  • Famous violinists include Niccolò Paganini, Jascha Heifetz, and Itzhak Perlman.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

CJLR, DINP, ?, FGRL, GFTJ

  1. ((a))

    EJPO

  2. ((b))

    EHON

  3. ((c))

    EHPN

  4. ((d))

    EIPN

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

EHPN

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "EHPN".

52

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

21, 30, 23, 32, 25, ?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    34

  3. ((c))

    37

  4. ((d))

    38

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

34

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "34".

53

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.

PENG : LIJK :: MONG : ISJK :: FTCH : ?

  1. ((a))

    BXYL

  2. ((b))

    VDAG

  3. ((c))

    JKRI

  4. ((d))

    AIEB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BXYL

The logic followed here is:

PENG : LIJK

MONG : ISJK

Similarly, FTCH : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "BXYL".

54

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

  • shape is removed by 1 and vertical lines come at the place of removed * in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

55

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

56

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

Counting triangles are there in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "10".

57

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

58

Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 3.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, 5 is common so we can rotate in clockwise direction.

4 → 2

1 → 3

5 → 6

So, 1 will be opposite to 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

59

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

Top-2 and middle-right symbols are shifting their position in a clockwise direction.

Middle-left and middle symbols are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

Top-2 and middle symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Middle-left and middle-right symbols are interchanging their position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

60

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

4 : 12 :: 8 : ? :: 10 : 24

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 4 : 12

⇒ (4 × 2) + 4 = 8 + 4 = 12.

For, 10 : 24

⇒ (10 × 2) + 4 = 20 + 4 = 24.

Similarly, for 8 ∶ ?

⇒ (8 × 2) + 4 = 16 + 4 = 20.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

61

Select the option in which given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

62

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

1736*45

  1. ((a))

    ×, –, =

  2. ((b))

    ÷, –,=

  3. ((c))

    –, =, ÷

  4. ((d))

    ×, ÷, =

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

×, –, =

Given equation: 1736*45

Option 1) ×, –, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 17 × 3 - 6 = 45

⇒ 51 - 6 = 45

⇒ 45 = 45

Option 2) ÷, –,=

 

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs then:

 

⇒ 17 ÷ 3 - 6 = 45

⇒ 5.7 - 6 = 45

⇒ -0.3 ≠ 45

 

Option 3) –, =, ÷

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs then:

 

⇒ 17 - 3 = 6 ÷ 45

⇒ 14 ≠ 0.14

 

Option 4) ×, ÷, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs then:

 

⇒ 17 × 3 ÷ 6 = 45

⇒ 17 × 0.5 = 45

​⇒ 8.5 ≠ 45

Hence, the correct answer is "×, –, =".

63

J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people sit between J and O. Only one person sits between O and N. Only two people sit between N and M. K sits to the immediate right of N. Who is sitting to the immediate left of L?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    O

  3. ((c))

    N

  4. ((d))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M

Given: J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

K sits to the immediate right of N.

Only two people sit between N and M.

Only two people sit between J and O.

Only one person sits between O and N.

Thus, final arrangement:

So, M is sitting to the immediate left of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "M".

64

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left and bottom-left symbols are interchanging their position.

Top-right, middle, and bottom-right symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

All 4 corner symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

Middle symbols are replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

65

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

66

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'AB' as shown.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

67

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some Fans are Round.

Some Round are Circles.

Conclusions:

I. All Fans are Circles.

II. All Circles are Round.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Statements:

Some Fans are Round.

Some Round are Circles.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All Fans are Circles. - False (because there is no direct relation given between Fans and Circles. So, it can be possible but not definite)

II. All Circles are Round. - False (because there is no direct relation given between Round and Circles. So, it can be possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

68

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

69

Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is not allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

70

Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(192, 12, 10),(195, 15, 7)

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)

  1. ((a))

    (208, 13, 16)

  2. ((b))

    (189, 9, 15)

  3. ((c))

    (228, 12, 13)

  4. ((d))

    (128, 8, 10)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(208, 13, 16)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number ÷ 2nd number) - 6 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, 192 : 12 : 10

⇒ (192 ÷ 12) - 6 = 16 - 6 = 10.

For, 195 : 15 : 7

⇒ (195 ÷ 15) - 6 = 13 - 6 = 7.

Similarly, for 208 : 13 : 16

⇒ (208 ÷ 13) - 6 = 16 - 6 ≠ 10

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Mistake Points The question is asking about not Similar, so mark that option which is not similar to given set.

71

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

72

If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘×’, ‘C’ denotes ‘−’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

(35 A 7 B 2) D 7 C (14 D 2 C 6) A 6 = ?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

Given equation: (35 A 7 B 2) D 7 C (14 D 2 C 6) A 6 = ?

LetterABCD
Signs+×-÷

 

After replacing letters with signs then:

⇒ (35 + 7 × 2) ÷ 7 - (14 ÷ 2 - 6) + 6 = ?

⇒ (35 + 14) ÷ 7 - (7 - 6) + 6 = ?

⇒ 49 ÷ 7 - 1 + 6 = ?

⇒ 7 - 1 + 6 = ?

⇒ ? = 13 - 1 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is "12".

73

Six letters, M, N, O, P, Q and R are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown here. Find the letter on the face opposite M.

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    N

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

O

To find the opposite surface of 'M', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

From both dices, M is common so we can rotate in clockwise rotation.

Q → N

R → P

So, O will be opposite to M.

Hence, the correct answer is "O".

74

In a certain code language, ‘BABY’ is written as ‘43427’ and ‘CREW’ is written as ‘520725’. How will ‘DATE’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    63227

  2. ((b))

    62206

  3. ((c))

    53215

  4. ((d))

    41205

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

63227

The logic followed here is:

‘BABY’ is written as ‘43427’

‘CREW’ is written as ‘520725’

Similarly, ‘DATE’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "63227".

75

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A sum on compound interest at a certain rate becomes ₹9,680 in 2 years and ₹11,712.80 in 4 years. What is the rate of interest? 

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10%

Given:

Amount in 2 years (A1) = ₹9,680

Amount in 4 years (A2) = ₹11,712.80

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r100\frac{r}{100})t

Where, r = rate

Calculations:

A2 = A1(1 + r100\frac{r}{100})2

11,712.80 = 9,680(1 + r100\frac{r}{100})2

⇒ 11712.809680=(1+r100)2\frac{11712.80}{9680} = (1+\frac{r}{100})^2

⇒ 11712.809680=1.21\frac{11712.80}{9680} = 1.21

⇒ (1 + r100\frac{r}{100})2 = 1.21

⇒ 1 + r100\frac{r}{100} = 1.21\sqrt{1.21}

⇒ 1 + r100\frac{r}{100} = 1.1

⇒ r100\frac{r}{100} = 0.1

⇒ r = 10%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

77

Find the average of all the odd numbers from 1 to 43.

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22

Given:

Odd numbers from 1 to 43.

The sum of n of odd number = n2

Where, n = Number of terms

Number of terms = (First terms + Last terms)/2

Average = The sum of all number/(Total number)

Calculation:

The odd numbers between  1 to 43.

1 + 3 + 5 + ..........+ 43

Number of terms = (First terms + Last terms)/2

⇒ n = (1 + 43)/2

⇒ n = 22

78

A and B working separately can mow a field in 12 and 10 hours, respectively. They work alternately, each for 1 hour, beginning with A, at 5:00 a.m. At what time will the mowing be completed?

  1. ((a))

    4:30 p.m.

  2. ((b))

    5:30 p.m.

  3. ((c))

    4:00 p.m.

  4. ((d))

    5:00 p.m.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4:00 p.m.

Given:

A can mow the field in 12 hours, so A's work rate = 1/12 of the field per hour.

B can mow the field in 10 hours, so B's work rate = 1/10 of the field per hour.

They work alternately, starting with A at 5:00 a.m.

Formula used:

Total work completed in 2 hours = Work done by A + Work done by B.

Remaining work = Total work - Work done.

Calculations:

Work done by A in 1 hour = 1/12.

Work done by B in 1 hour = 1/10.

Total work completed in 2 hours = (1/12) + (1/10) = (5 + 6)/60 = 11/60.

Total time taken:

In 2 hours, they complete 11/60 of the work.

Work remaining after 5 full cycles (10 hours):

Total work done in 10 hours = (11/60) × 5 = 55/60.

Remaining work = 1 - 55/60 = 5/60 = 1/12.

At 5:00 a.m., A starts again for the last 1/12 of the work.

Time taken by A to finish 1/12 = 1 hour.

Final time:

10 hours of work + 1 hour (A finishes the remaining work) = 11 hours.

Start time = 5:00 a.m.

End time = 5:00 a.m. + 11 hours = 4:00 p.m.

∴ The mowing will be completed at 4:00 p.m.

79

A salesman earns a 2% of return on 14\frac{1}{4} of his capital, 4% on 12\frac{1}{2} of capital and 10% on the remaining. Find the average rate of return he earned on his capital.

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    10%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5%

Given:

A salesman earns a 2% return on (1/4) of his capital, 4% on (1/2) of his capital, and 10% on the remaining capital.

Formula used:

Average rate of return = (Total return) / (Total capital)

Calculation:

Let the total capital be C.

Return on (1/4) of C = 2% of (1/4)C = 2/100 × (1/4)C = (1/200)C

Return on (1/2) of C = 4% of (1/2)C = 4/100 × (1/2)C = (2/100)C = (1/50)C

Remaining capital = C - (1/4)C - (1/2)C = (1/4)C

Return on remaining (1/4) of C = 10% of (1/4)C = 10/100 × (1/4)C = (1/10)C = (1/40)C

Total return = (1/200)C + (1/50)C + (1/40)C

To find a common denominator, we use 200:

(1/200)C = (1/200)C

(1/50)C = (4/200)C

(1/40)C = (5/200)C

Total return = (1/200)C + (4/200)C + (5/200)C

⇒ Total return = (10/200)C

⇒ Total return = (1/20)C

Average rate of return = (Total return) / (Total capital)

⇒ Average rate of return = (1/20)C / C

⇒ Average rate of return = 1/20

⇒ Average rate of return = 0.05 or 5%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Alternate MethodGiven:

A salesman earns 2% on 1/4 of his capital.

He earns 4% on 1/2 of his capital.

He earns 10% on the remaining 1/4 of his capital.

Concept Used:

The average rate of return is calculated as the weighted average of the returns from different portions of capital.

Calculation:

Determine the weights and respective returns:

Return on 1/4 of capital = 2%

Return on 1/2 of capital = 4%

Return on 1/4 of capital = 10%

Calculate the average rate of return:

Average return = (Weight 1 × Rate 1) + (Weight 2 × Rate 2) + (Weight 3 × Rate 3)

Weights: 1/4, 1/2, and 1/4

Rates: 2%, 4%, and 10%

Average return = (1/4 × 2) + (1/2 × 4) + (1/4 × 10)

Simplify the expression:

Average return = (2/4) + (4/2) + (10/4)

Average return = 0.5 + 2 + 2.5

Average return = 5%

The average rate of return earned on his capital is 5%.

80

What is the area (in cm2) of a triangle whose sides are 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm?

  1. ((a))

    10.5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

Given:

Sides of the triangle are a = 3 cm, b = 4 cm, and c = 5 cm

Formula used:

Using Heron's formula:

Area = √(s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c))

Where s = (a + b + c) / 2

Calculations:

s = (3 + 4 + 5) / 2

⇒ s = 12 / 2

⇒ s = 6

Area = √(6 × (6 - 3) × (6 - 4) × (6 - 5))

⇒ Area = √(6 × 3 × 2 × 1)

⇒ Area = √(36)

⇒ Area = 6 cm2

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

81

If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is increased by 20% and the height is decreased by 30%, then what is the percentage increase/decrease in the volume?

  1. ((a))

    Increase by 0.8%

  2. ((b))

    Decrease by 0.8%

  3. ((c))

    Decrease by 0.5%

  4. ((d))

    Increase by 0.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Increase by 0.8%

Given:

The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is increased by 20%

The height is decreased by 30%

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder (V) = πr2h

Calculation:

Let the original radius be r and the original height be h

Original volume, V1 = πr2h

New radius = r × 1.20

New height = h × 0.70

New volume, V2 = π(r × 1.20)2(h × 0.70)

⇒ V2 = π(1.202r2)(0.70h)

⇒ V2 = π(1.44r2)(0.70h)

⇒ V2 = πr2h(1.44 × 0.70)

⇒ V2 = πr2h(1.008)

Percentage change in volume = ((V2 - V1)/V1) × 100

⇒ Percentage change in volume = ((1.008V1 - V1)/V1) × 100

⇒ Percentage change in volume = (0.008V1/V1) × 100

⇒ Percentage change in volume = 0.8%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

82

If the simple interest on ₹800 for 4 years and on ₹600 for 2 years combined together is ₹280, then what is the rate of interest per annum?

  1. ((a))

    73117 \frac{3}{11}%

  2. ((b))

    64116 \frac{4}{11}%

  3. ((c))

    33113 \frac{3}{11}%

  4. ((d))

    53115 \frac{3}{11}%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

64116 \frac{4}{11}%

Given:

Simple interest on ₹800 for 4 years + Simple interest on ₹600 for 2 years = ₹280

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate of interest, T = Time

Calculations:

(800 × R × 4) / 100 + (600 × R × 2) / 100 = 280

⇒ (3200R / 100) + (1200R / 100) = 280

⇒ 4400R / 100 = 280

⇒ 44R = 280

⇒ R = 280 / 44

⇒ R = 70 / 11

⇒ R = 6 (4/11)%

Answer: The rate of interest is 64116 \frac{4}{11}%

83

In the descending order arrangement of the given terms, which term will come exactly in the middle?

78,67,1113,1720,2325\frac{7}{8}, \frac{6}{7}, \frac{11}{13}, \frac{17}{20}, \frac{23}{25}

  1. ((a))

    1113\frac{11}{13}

  2. ((b))

    1720\frac{17}{20}

  3. ((c))

    67\frac{6}{7}

  4. ((d))

    78\frac{7}{8}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

67\frac{6}{7}

Given:

7/8, 6/7, 11/13, 17/20, 23/25

Formula used:

To find the middle term in descending order.

Calculation:

Convert each fraction to decimal for easy comparison:

7/8 = 0.875

6/7 = 0.857

11/13 = 0.846

17/20 = 0.85

23/25 = 0.92

Now arrange them in descending order:

0.92, 0.875, 0.857, 0.85, 0.846

The term exactly in the middle is 6/7.

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

84

The marked price of a chair was ₹1,200. This price was 20% above its cost price. If the chair was sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price, then find the profit percentage.

  1. ((a))

    12%

  2. ((b))

    11%

  3. ((c))

    16%

  4. ((d))

    14%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

14%

Given:

The marked price of a chair = ₹1,200

This price was 20% above its cost price.

The chair was sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price.

Formula used:

Cost Price (C.P) = Marked Price / (1 + Markup Percentage)

Selling Price (S.P) = Marked Price × (1 - Discount Percentage)

Profit Percentage = ((S.P - C.P) / C.P) × 100

Calculation:

Marked Price = ₹1,200

Markup Percentage = 20%

Discount Percentage = 5%

⇒ Cost Price = 1200 / (1 + 0.20)

⇒ Cost Price = 1200 / 1.20

⇒ Cost Price = ₹1,000

⇒ Selling Price = 1200 × (1 - 0.05)

⇒ Selling Price = 1200 × 0.95

⇒ Selling Price = ₹1,140

⇒ Profit Percentage = ((1140 - 1000) / 1000) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (140 / 1000) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 14%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

85

 In a race of 150 m, R beats S by 9 m. If S takes a head start of 15 m, how long (in m) should the race be to have a tie between them?

  1. ((a))

    210

  2. ((b))

    250

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    270

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

250

Given:

In a 150 m race:

R beats S by 9 m.

Head start given to S = 15 m.

Formula used:

Speed ratio of R and S = Distance covered by R : Distance covered by S.

For tie, adjusted distance covered by R = adjusted distance covered by S.

Calculation:

Speed ratio of R and S:

Speed of R : Speed of S = 150 : (150 - 9)

⇒ Speed of R : Speed of S = 150 : 141

If S takes a head start of 15 m, let the race length be L m. For a tie:

Distance covered by S = Distance covered by R.

⇒ L - 15 : L = 141 : 150

⇒ (L - 15) / L = 141 / 150

⇒ 150(L - 15) = 141L

⇒ 150L - 2250 = 141L

⇒ 150L - 141L = 2250

⇒ 9L = 2250

⇒ L = 2250 / 9

⇒ L = 250

∴ The race length should be 250 m for a tie.

86

What is the largest number that can exactly divide 48, 92 and 140 ?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Given:

Numbers = 48, 92, 140

Formula used:

To find the largest number that can exactly divide 48, 92, and 140, we need to find the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of these numbers.

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 48: 48 = 24 × 3

Prime factorization of 92: 92 = 22 × 23

Prime factorization of 140: 140 = 22 × 5 × 7

The common prime factor is 2, and the lowest power of 2 is 22.

⇒ GCD = 22 = 4

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

87

If David purchases 10 bananas for ₹25 and sells 9 bananas for ₹45, then what is the gain percentage?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    100%

  3. ((c))

    87%

  4. ((d))

    65%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

100%

Given:

David purchases 10 bananas for ₹25

David sells 9 bananas for ₹45

Formula used:

Gain Percentage = SellingPrice−CostPriceCostPrice×100\dfrac{Selling Price - Cost Price}{Cost Price} \times 100

Calculations:

Cost Price (CP) of 1 banana = 25 ÷ 10 = ₹2.5

Selling Price (SP) of 1 banana = 45 ÷ 9 = ₹5

Gain per banana = SP - CP = 5 - 2.5 = ₹2.5

Gain Percentage = 2.52.5×100\dfrac{2.5}{2.5} \times 100

⇒ Gain Percentage = 100%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

88

The HCF of 448 and 336 is _______ times the HCF of 48 and 36

  1. ((a))

    293\frac{29}{3}

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    313\frac{31}{3}

  4. ((d))

    283\frac{28}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

283\frac{28}{3}

Shortcut Trick

HCF of 448 and 336 → 112 × 4 = 448 and 112 × 3 = 336 ∴ HCF1 = 112.

HCF of 48 and 36 → 12 × 4 = 48 and 12 × 3 = 36 ∴ HCF2 = 12.

Required times = 112 ÷ 12 = 28/3.

∴ The correct answer is 28/3.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are (448, 336) and (48, 36).

Formula Used: HCF is the highest common factor that divides the numbers exactly.

⇒ Step 1: Find HCF of 448 and 336.

⇒ 448 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 = 26 × 7

⇒ 336 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 24 × 3 × 7

⇒ HCF(448, 336) = 24 × 7 = 16 × 7 = 112.

⇒ Step 2: Find HCF of 48 and 36.

⇒ 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 24 × 3

⇒ 36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 22 × 32

⇒ HCF(48, 36) = 22 × 3 = 4 × 3 = 12.

⇒ Step 3: Calculate the ratio.

⇒ Times = 112 ÷ 12

⇒ Times = (4 × 28) ÷ (4 × 3) = 28/3.

∴ The correct answer is 28/3.

Additional Information

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The greatest number that divides two or more numbers without leaving a remainder. It is also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor).

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Division Method for HCF

Divide the larger number by the smaller one, then divide the previous divisor by the remainder. Continue until the remainder is 0; the last divisor is the HCF.

89

What is the cost (in Rs.) required to paint a basketball having a diameter of 14 cm, if the painting cost of the basketball is ₹2.5/cm2 ? (take π = 22/7)

  1. ((a))

    3593

  2. ((b))

    1540

  3. ((c))

    385

  4. ((d))

    6160

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1540

Shortcut Trick

Radius of the basketball (r) = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 cm.

Surface Area of sphere = 4πr2 = 4 × (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 616 cm2.

Total Painting Cost = Area × Rate = 616 × 2.5 = ₹1540.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1540.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the basketball = 14 cm

Rate of painting = ₹2.5/cm2

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a Sphere = 4πr2

Total Cost = Surface Area × Cost per unit area

Calculations:

⇒ Radius (r) = Diameter ÷ 2

⇒ r = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 cm

⇒ Surface Area of the basketball = 4 × (22/7) × 7 × 7

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × 22 × 7

⇒ Surface Area = 88 × 7 = 616 cm2

⇒ Total Painting Cost = 616 × 2.5

⇒ Total Painting Cost = 616 × (5/2)

⇒ Total Painting Cost = 308 × 5 = ₹1540

∴ The correct answer is ₹1540.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The total space occupied by a sphere is given by the formula: V = (4/3)πr3.

Hemisphere Surface Area

For a hemisphere, Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πr2 and Total Surface Area (TSA) = 3πr2.

Relation between Diameter and Radius

The diameter is always twice the radius of a circle or sphere (D = 2r).

90

The sum of the digits of the LCM of the numbers 30, 48, 96, 150 is:

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6

Given:

The numbers are 30, 48, 96, 150.

Formula used:

LCM (Least Common Multiple) of given numbers

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

Prime factorization of 48 = 24 × 3

Prime factorization of 96 = 25 × 3

Prime factorization of 150 = 2 × 3 × 52

LCM = 25 × 3 × 52

⇒ LCM = 32 × 3 × 25

⇒ LCM = 2400

Sum of the digits of 2400 = 2 + 4 + 0 + 0 = 6

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

In most word processors, which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to bold, italicize, and underline the text, respectively?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + B, Ctrl + X, Ctrl + V

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + A, Ctrl + B, Ctrl + C

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + P, Ctrl + V, Ctrl + U

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + B, Ctrl + I, Ctrl + U

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + B, Ctrl + I, Ctrl + U

The correct answer is Ctrl + B, Ctrl + I, Ctrl + U.

Key Points

  • When you have text selected in MS Word and you press Ctrl+B (or use the Bold button in the formatting toolbar), it applies the bold formatting to the selected text.
  • The bold formatting makes the text appear thicker and stand out from the surrounding text.

Additional Information

  • Shortcuts that are commonly used in MS Word for formatting text:
  • Ctrl+I: Italicizes the selected text. It applies the italic formatting to the text, making it slanted.
  • Ctrl+U: Underlines the selected text. It adds a horizontal line beneath the selected text.
  • Ctrl+Shift+F: Applies the "Font" dialog box. It allows you to modify the font style, size, color, and other formatting options for the selected text.
  • Ctrl+Shift+P: Changes the font size to the next larger preset size for the selected text. It is useful for quickly adjusting the font size.
  • Ctrl+Shift+<: Decreases the font size of the selected text.
  • Ctrl+Shift+>: Increases the font size of the selected text.
  • Ctrl+E: Centers the selected text. It aligns the text horizontally in the center of the page or text box.
  • Ctrl+L: Left-aligns the selected text. It aligns the text horizontally to the left margin.
  • Ctrl+R: Right-aligns the selected text. It aligns the text horizontally to the right margin.
  • Ctrl+J: Justifies the selected text. It aligns the text both horizontally to the left and right margins, creating even spacing between words.
92

Which option allows you to increase the size of selected text in Microsoft Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Underline

  2. ((b))

    Font Size

  3. ((c))

    Bold

  4. ((d))

    Italic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Font Size

The correct answer is Font Size.

Key Points

  • Printing a document in Microsoft Word 365 involves accessing the Print command from the File menu.
  • After selecting the Print command, you must then select the printer and other print settings before confirming the action by selecting 'Ok' or 'Print'.
  • This process ensures that the document is sent to the selected printer for printing.
  • Using the Print command allows users to specify settings such as the number of copies, page range, and orientation.

 Additional Information

  • Underline:
  • This feature adds a line beneath the selected text.
  • It's commonly used to emphasize words or phrases, such as hyperlinks or titles.
  • You can apply a simple underline, a double underline, or even change the color of the underline for visual distinction.
  • In Word 365, you can easily underline text by selecting it and clicking the "U" button on the Home tab, or using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+U.
  • Font Size:
  • This determines the size of the characters in your document.
  • It's measured in points (pt).
  • Increasing the font size makes the text larger and more prominent, while decreasing it makes it smaller and more subtle.
  • You can adjust the font size using the drop-down menu in the Font group on the Home tab or by entering a specific size value directly.
  • Bold:
  • This makes the selected text appear thicker and darker.
  • It's a common way to emphasize important words, phrases, or headings.
  • In Word 365, you can make text bold by selecting it and clicking the "B" button on the Home tab, or using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+B.
  • Italic:
  • This slants the selected text to the right.
  • It's often used for emphasizing words, indicating foreign words or phrases, or highlighting titles of books, movies, or songs.
  • In Word 365, you can make text italic by selecting it and clicking the "I" button on the Home tab, or using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+I.
93

In MS Excel 365 which of the following shortcut keys is used to select entire workbook in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + A

  2. ((b))

    F1

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + S

  4. ((d))

    F6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + A

The correct answer is Ctrl + A.

Key Points

  • MS Excel 365
  • In MS Excel 365, deleting a column involves selecting any cell within the column that you want to delete.
  • Right-clicking on the selected cell opens a context menu with various options.
  • Choosing "Delete" from the context menu will open a dialog box with options to delete an entire row or an entire column.
  • Selecting "Entire Column" will delete the entire column where the selected cell is located.​

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + A (Select All):
  • This powerful shortcut selects the entire contents of the current worksheet.
  • It's incredibly useful for tasks like:
  • Applying formatting to the entire sheet (e.g., changing font, color, alignment).
  • Copying or cutting all data within the worksheet.
  • Deleting all data quickly.
  • Applying filters or sorting to the entire dataset.
  • F1 (Help):
  • This key opens the Excel Help window.
  • It provides access to a comprehensive library of information, including:
  • Step-by-step guides and tutorials.
  • Answers to frequently asked questions.
  • Context-sensitive help based on your current actions within Excel.
  • Information on functions, formulas, and features.
  • Ctrl + S (Save):
  • This essential shortcut saves the current workbook.
  • It's crucial for preventing data loss, especially when working on important spreadsheets.
  • It's recommended to save your work frequently (e.g., every 5-10 minutes) to avoid losing progress in case of unexpected issues.
  • F6 (Switch Windows):
  • This shortcut allows you to quickly switch between open Excel workbooks.
  • If you have multiple Excel files open simultaneously, pressing F6 will cycle through them.
  • This is a time-saver compared to manually clicking on each workbook window.
94

What is the purpose of a URL (Uniform Resource Locator)?

  1. ((a))

    To format text on websites

  2. ((b))

    To manage user accounts on websites

  3. ((c))

    To provide the address of a web resource

  4. ((d))

    To create animations on websites

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To provide the address of a web resource

The correct answer is To provide the address of a web resource.

Key Points

  • Port number is a component of a URL (Uniform Resource Locator).
  • A URL is used to specify addresses on the World Wide Web.
  • It typically consists of the protocol (such as HTTP or HTTPS), the domain name, and may include a port number, path, query string, and fragment identifier.
  • The port number is used to identify a specific process or service on the server. For example, HTTP typically uses port 80, while HTTPS uses port 443.
  • Including the port number in the URL allows communication with the correct service or application on the server.

 Additional Information

  • A URL can also include a username and password for authentication, although this is less common.
  • The domain name part of the URL can be either an IP address or a human-readable name that is resolved to an IP address via DNS (Domain Name System).
  • The path specifies the exact resource within the domain that the client wants to access.
  • Query strings are used to pass additional parameters to the server, typically in the format of key-value pairs.
  • The fragment identifier is used to point to a specific section within a resource, usually within an HTML document.
95

In MS-Word 365, which of the following actions is a part of the document creation process?

  1. ((a))

    Printing the document

  2. ((b))

    Applying formatting to the text

  3. ((c))

    Inserting a table of contents

  4. ((d))

    Saving the document with a new name

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Saving the document with a new name

The correct answer is Saving the document with a new name.

Key Points

  • "Create a document" is a fundamental and crucial step within the overall document creation process in MS Word 365.
  • Starting Point:
  • New Document: This is the foundational action. You initiate the document creation process by opening a new, blank Word document. This provides a clean canvas for you to begin typing and formatting your content.
  • Templates: Alternatively, you can start with a pre-designed template. Word 365 offers a vast library of templates for various document types, such as letters, resumes, reports, brochures, and more. These templates provide a structured framework and visual guidance, saving you time and effort in formatting.
  • Content Creation:
  • Typing and Editing: Once you have a blank document or a template, you begin entering your text. This involves typing, editing, and refining your content to convey your message effectively.
  • Formatting: Word 365 provides a rich set of formatting tools to enhance the presentation of your text. You can:
  • Change fonts, font sizes, and colors.
  • Apply bold, italic, and underline styles.
  • Create bulleted and numbered lists.
  • Adjust line spacing and paragraph indentation.
  • Insert images, shapes, and other media.
  • Layout and Design:
  • Page Layout: You can customize the page layout by adjusting margins, column settings, and page orientation (portrait or landscape).
  • Headers and Footers: Add headers and footers to include information like page numbers, document titles, dates, or company logos.
  • Styles: Apply predefined or custom styles to quickly format headings, paragraphs, and other elements consistently throughout your document.
  • Collaboration and Sharing:
  • Collaboration Features: Word 365 facilitates collaboration by allowing multiple users to work on the same document simultaneously.
  • Sharing and Exporting: Once your document is complete, you can easily share it with others by:
  • Saving it to cloud storage (like OneDrive) and sharing the link.
  • Exporting it as a PDF for easy sharing and printing.
  • Sending it as an email attachment.
  • Saving and Version Control:
  • Frequent Saving: Regularly save your work to prevent data loss. Word 365 automatically saves your document periodically, but it's always best to manually save frequently as well.
  • Version History: Word 365 keeps track of previous versions of your document, allowing you to revert to earlier versions if needed.
96

Which of the following options is used while printing documents in MS

Word 365, i.e. if we want to print all the pages from 7 till 10, then the printer should print only the 7th, 8th, 9th and 10th pages?

  1. ((a))

    Print one sided

  2. ((b))

    Collated

  3. ((c))

    Print Custom Range

  4. ((d))

    Orientation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Print Custom Range

The correct answer is Print Custom Range.

Key Points

  • Print Custom Range:
  • This setting allows you to specify the exact pages you want to print within your document.
  • Instead of printing the entire document, you can select a specific range of pages.
  • For example, to print pages 7 through 10, you would enter "7-10" in the "Pages" field of the Print dialog box.
  • This is useful when you only need specific sections or portions of your document.

Additional Information

  • Print One-Sided:
  • This option ensures that each page is printed on only one side of the paper.
  • It's the default setting for most printing jobs.
  • This option is particularly useful when printing on single sheets of paper or if your printer doesn't support double-sided printing.
  • Collated:
  • When printing multiple copies of a document, the "Collated" option arranges the pages in the correct order for each copy.
  • For example, if you're printing two copies of a four-page document, collated printing will produce two sets of pages 1-4, rather than printing all copies of page 1, then all copies of page 2, and so on.
  • Orientation:
  • This setting determines the page layout:
  • Portrait: The page is taller than it is wide (the standard orientation for most documents).
  • Landscape: The page is wider than it is tall (suitable for wide tables, charts, or images).
  • You can choose the orientation that best suits the content of your document.
97

Which of the following statements related to Assigning a Label to an email is INCORRECT?

  1. ((a))

    We cannot use label in email to sort our inbox.

  2. ((b))

    Assigning a label to an email is the equivalent of moving it into a specific folder.

  3. ((c))

    We can use labels in email to sort our inbox

  4. ((d))

    We can apply multiple labels to a single email.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

We cannot use label in email to sort our inbox.

The correct answer is We cannot use label in email to sort our inbox.

Key Points

  • There is no case distinction in email address syntax. In most cases, a server's decision to send or receive an email is unaffected by capitalization. Whether the letters are capitalized or not, they will be delivered.
  • An email prefix plus an email domain, both in allowed formats, make up a valid email address.
  • The prefix is seen to the left of the @ sign. After the @ sign, the domain appears to the right. For instance, "example" is the email prefix, and "mail.com" is the email domain in the address [email protected].
  • It is a distinctive signature so anyone with whom you interact can recognize you at any time or location.
  • As a separator char in the syntax analyzer for such systems, spaces are often not included in any URL, domain name (DNS), or email address space systems.

Additional Information

  • A valid email address has four parts:
  • Recipient name (maximum of 64 characters)
  • @ symbol
  • The domain name (maybe a maximum of 253 characters)
  • Top-level domain
  • Email Username- Identifies a specific person or address in a domain.
  • Email Domain Name- Certain number of top-level domains (.com, .org, .info, .de, etc.)
98

The keyboard shortcut key used to print preview in MS-Word 365 is:

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + F2

  2. ((b))

    Shift + F1

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + F1

  4. ((d))

    Shift + F2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + F2

The correct answer is Ctrl + F2.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + F2 (Print Preview):
  • This shortcut quickly displays a preview of your document as it will appear when printed.
  • It allows you to visually check for any formatting issues, page breaks, or layout problems before actually sending the document to the printer.
  • You can use the navigation tools within Print Preview to easily scroll through pages and make adjustments as needed.

Additional Information

  • Shift + F1 (Reveal Formatting):
  • This shortcut opens the "Reveal Formatting" pane.
  • This pane displays the detailed formatting applied to the currently selected text or paragraph.
  • It shows information like font, font size, color, spacing, alignment, and any other applied styles.
  • This is incredibly useful for troubleshooting formatting issues or understanding why text is appearing differently than expected.
  • Ctrl + F1 (Task Pane):
  • This shortcut opens the Task Pane, which provides access to various tools and features within Word.
  • The specific content of the Task Pane varies depending on the context.
  • For example, if you're working with styles, the Task Pane might display the Styles gallery.
  • It can be a helpful resource for quickly accessing and utilizing various Word features.
  • Shift + F2 (Move Text):
  • This shortcut initiates the "Move Text" feature.
  • After pressing Shift + F2, you can drag the selected text to a new location within the document.
  • This is a convenient way to quickly reposition text blocks without using the cut-and-paste commands.
99

In MS Excel 365 which of the following is one of the options to edit cells in MS-Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Edit bar

  2. ((b))

    Formula bar

  3. ((c))

    Space bar

  4. ((d))

    Ribbon

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Formula bar

The correct answer is Formula bar.

Key Points

  • Formula Bar
  • The Formula Bar is a crucial element located above the worksheet grid.
  • It displays the contents of the currently selected cell.
  • If the cell contains a value, the value is shown.
  • If the cell contains a formula, the formula itself is displayed in the Formula Bar.
  • This allows you to:
  • View and edit existing formulas: You can directly modify the formula within the Formula Bar to change its behavior.
  • Enter new formulas: Type the equal sign (=) to start a new formula, then enter the formula components.
  • Debug formulas: Identify and correct errors in your formulas by examining them in the Formula Bar.

Additional Information

  • Edit Bar
  • In Excel, the term "Edit Bar" is not a standard component. It's possible you might be referring to a similar concept within older versions or specific customizations.
  • However, the core editing functionality in Excel is primarily handled within the Formula Bar itself.
  • You can directly edit cell contents, including formulas, within the Formula Bar.
  • Features like auto-complete and function suggestions assist in editing and formula entry.
  • Space Bar
  • While not a dedicated feature like the Formula Bar, the Space Bar plays a crucial role in Excel.
  • It's used for:
  • Moving between cells: Pressing the Space Bar moves the active cell selection to the right.
  • Entering spaces within a cell: When entering text data, the Space Bar inserts spaces between characters.
  • Ribbon
  • The Ribbon is the primary user interface in modern versions of Excel.
  • It's a collection of tabs (Home, Insert, Data, etc.) containing groups of related commands and tools.
  • These commands and tools are used for:
  • Formatting cells: Changing fonts, colors, alignment, etc.
  • Inserting data: Adding charts, images, shapes, etc.
  • Working with data: Sorting, filtering, analyzing data with formulas and functions.
  • Customizing the Excel environment: Adjusting settings, creating macros, etc.
  • The Ribbon provides easy access to a wide range of Excel's features, making it a central hub for user interaction.
100

In MS Excel 365 which tab on the Microsoft Excel ribbon allows you to access options related to opening and saving files?

  1. ((a))

    View

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    File

  4. ((d))

    Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

File

The correct answer is File.

Key Points

  • File
  • This tab provides access to core file management functions:
  • New: Create a new workbook.
  • Open: Open an existing workbook.
  • Save: Save the current workbook.
  • Save As: Save the workbook with a new name or in a different format (e.g., PDF, CSV).
  • Print: Access printing options and print the workbook.
  • Recent: Access recently opened workbooks.
  • Account: Manage your Office account and settings.
  • Options: Customize Excel settings (e.g., formulas, proofing, general).
  • Close: Close the current workbook.
  • Exit: Exit the Excel application.

Additional Information

  • View
  • This tab controls how the worksheet is displayed:
  • Zoom: Adjust the zoom level of the worksheet.
  • Page Layout: Switch between Normal view and Page Layout view.
  • Show/Hide: Display or hide gridlines, headers, footers, and other elements.
  • Arrange All: Arrange multiple open workbooks.
  • New Window: Open a new window for the current workbook.
  • Freeze Panes: Freeze rows or columns so they remain visible while scrolling.
  • Split: Split the worksheet into panes for easier navigation.
  • Insert
  • This tab allows you to insert various objects into your worksheet:
  • Tables: Insert tables with rows and columns.
  • Charts: Insert various types of charts (e.g., bar, line, pie) to visualize data.
  • Illustrations: Insert pictures, shapes, icons, and 3D models.
  • Links: Insert hyperlinks to other worksheets, websites, or files.
  • Headers & Footers: Insert headers and footers to appear on each page.
  • Text: Insert text boxes, word art, and symbols.
  • Home
  • This tab contains the most frequently used commands for working with cells and data:
  • Font: Change font, size, color, and styles (bold, italic, underline).
  • Alignment: Align text and numbers within cells (left, center, right).
  • Number: Format numbers (currency, percentage, date, etc.).
  • Styles: Apply predefined cell styles to quickly format cells.
  • Cells: Insert, delete, format, and merge cells.
  • Editing: Cut, copy, paste, and find/replace data.
  • Clipboard: Manage the clipboard and paste options.

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