Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 20 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Government of India Act, 1935

Key Points

• Directive Principles resembles the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
• In the words of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, 'the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.'
• It constitutes a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State which aimed at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ that was absent during the colonial era.

Additional Information 

• Classification of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• The Constitution of India does not formally classify the Directive Principles of State Policy but for better understanding and on the basis of content and direction- they can be classified into three categories. These are as follows:
• Socialistic Principles
• Gandhian Principles
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi).

Key Points

• Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi):-
• In the year 2022, Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) had the most passengers and aircraft movements.
• Indira Gandhi International Airport has undergone significant expansion and modernization in recent years, which has helped it handle more passengers and aircraft movements.
• The airport has also implemented various measures to improve the passenger experience, such as self-check-in kiosks, automated baggage handling, and a wide range of dining and shopping options.
• Delhi is home to several major airlines, including Air India and IndiGo, which operate numerous flights from the airport.

Additional Information

• Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport (Mumbai):-
• It is located in a different region of the country.
• Mumbai is known as the financial capital of India and is also a popular tourist destination.
• Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad):-
• It is located in the southern part of India and serves as a major hub for both domestic and international travel. It is also the sixth-busiest airport in India.
• Kempegowda International Airport (Bengaluru):-
• It is located in the southern city of Bengaluru and serves as a major hub for both domestic and international travel.
• It is also the third-busiest airport in India.

The correct answer is 2017.

Key Points

1. 12th Five Year Plan of the Government of India (2012–17) was India's last Five Year Plan.
2. The Twelfth Five Year Plan lasted from 2012-2017.
3. It was launched with the objective of faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth.
4. It was the last five-year plan.
5. The plan was under the leadership of Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.
6. Its growth rate target was 8%.

Additional Information

• The objectives of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan were:
• To remove gender and social gap in school enrolment.
• To enhance access to higher education.
• To reduce malnutrition among children aged 0-3 years.
• To provide electricity to all villages.
• Generate 50 million new work opportunities in the non-farm sector

The correct answer is Bhavina Patel – Para-shooting

Key Points

• Bhavina Patel is a para-table tennis player, not associated with para-shooting.
• Para-shooting is not a common para-sport, whereas para-table tennis is one of the recognized para-sports.
• Bhavina Hasmukhbhai Patel is an Indian parathlete and table tennis player from Mehsana, Gujarat.
• She won a silver medal in Class 4 Table tennis at the 2020 Summer Paralympics in Tokyo.
• She reached the World Number 2 ranking by winning the silver medal for India in the individual category at the 2011 PTT Thailand Open.
• In October 2013, Patel won the silver medal in the women’s singles Class 4 at the Asian Para Table Tennis Championships in Beijing.

Additional Information ​Nishad Kumar -

• Nishad is from Una, Himachal Pradesh.
• Nishad Kumar (born 3 October 1999) is an Indian Paralympian and high jumper.
• He made his maiden Paralympic Games appearance in 2020 Tokyo representing India and went on to claim the silver medal in the men's high jump T47 category with a new Asian record of 2.06m.

Yogesh Kathuniya-

• Yogesh Kathuniya has been a prominent athlete in para-athletics, particularly in discus throw
• Yogesh Kathuniya won a gold medal in the Men's Discus Throw F56 event at the Tokyo Paralympics 2020.
• His throw of 44.38 meters set a new world record in the F56 category.

LY Suhas

• LY Suhas is associated with Para-badminton
• LY Suhas Yathiraj won the silver medal in the Men's Singles SL4 category at the Tokyo Paralympics 2020.
• He became the first IAS officer to win a medal at the Paralympic Games.

The correct answer is Allocation

Key Points

• The Government of India builds roads and hospitals as part of the allocation function of the Union Budget.
• The Union Budget allocates funds for infrastructure development, including the construction of roads and hospitals.
• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways allocates funds to state governments and union territories to develop and maintain state roads.
• The Union Budget also allocates funds to develop healthcare infrastructure, such as public health centers and medical education.
• The Union Budget also allocates funds to support other infrastructure development, such as power plants and affordable housing.

Additional Information

• Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance has been entrusted with the responsibility of preparation and presentation of the Union Budget to Parliament.
• It formulates and monitors the country's economic policies and programs having a bearing on domestic and international aspects of economic management.
• Headquarters - New Delhi
• Ministry - Ministry of Finance
• Finance Minister - Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (As of July 2022)
• The Union Budget is also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India.
• It is the annual budget of the Republic of India.

The correct answer is 10.09%

Key Points

• The unemployment rate during December 2022 was 8.30%, while it was 8% in November 2022 and 6.43% in September 2022.
• The urban unemployment rate declined to 8.55% in January 2023 from 10.09% in December 2022, while the rural unemployment rate slipped to 6.48% from 7.44%, the data showed.
• Among the states, unemployment was the highest in Jammu and Kashmir at 21.8 per cent closely followed by Haryana at 21.7 per cent and Rajasthan at 21.1 per cent.
• Joblessness in Delhi in January was at 16.7 per cent, Goa at 16.2 per cent, Assam at 16.1 per cent and Tripura at 16 per cent.
• It further revealed that unemployment was the lowest in states like Chhattisgarh at 0.5 per cent followed by Odisha at 1.5 per cent, Tamil Nadu at 1.8 per cent and Madhya Pradesh at 1.9 per cent.

Additional Information

• CMIE:
• The Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) is an independent private limited entity that serves both as an economic think-tank as well as a business information company.
• CMIE research group has built databases on the Indian economy and private companies.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai.
• Founded - 13 April 1976
• Founder - Narottam Shah

The correct answer is India

Key Points 

• Belgium won the Men's International Federation Hockey (FIH) 2018 World Cup, which was held in Odisha, India.
• It was the 14th edition of the Hockey World Cup.
• Belgium was the winner.
• Belgium defeated the Netherlands in the final.

Additional Information 

• The 2023 Men's FIH Hockey World Cup will take place in Odisha, India.
• Hockey:
• The Hockey World cup is organized by the International Hockey Federation (FIH) once in four years.
• The headquarters of FIH is located in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• "Blackheath Rugby and Hockey Club" was the first hockey club in the world that was set up in the year 1861 in England.
• The first Hockey World Cup was organized in Barcelona (Spain) in 1971 and the winner was Pakistan.
• India took part in Olympics for the first time in the year 1928 (in Amsterdam Olympics).
• In Olympics, India has won the hockey title a maximum of eight times.
• ​Terminologies associated with Hockey are:
• Bully Sudden death, Short corner, Hat trick, Goal, Penalty Corner, Penalty, Stroke, Pushing, Cut, Dribble, Scoop, Centre forward, Halfback, Astroturf, Left in, Left out, Off-side, Tiebreaker, Carried, Stick, Striking circle, Undercutting, etc.

The correct answer is MS Subbulakshmi.

Key Points

• Indian Carnatic singer MS Subbulakshmi was from Madurai, Tamil Nadu.
• She was the very first artist to ever get the Bharat Ratna.
• In 1974, she became the first artist from India to earn the Ramon Magsaysay award.
• In 1966, she was the first Indian to perform before the UN General Assembly.

Additional Information

• Pandit Kumar Gandarva :​
• Pandit Kumar Gandharva, originally known as Shivaputra Siddharamayya Komkalimath was an Indian classical singer.
• Known for his unique vocal style and for his refusal to be bound by the tradition of any gharana.
• Lata Mangeshkar:
• Lata Mangeshkar was an Indian playback singer and occasional music composer.
• The "Queen of Melody," the "Nightingale of India," and the "Voice of the Millennium" were all titles she held.
• She was among the first playback singers from India to appear in the Royal Albert Hall in London, UK, in 1974.
• Pandit Ravi Shankar:
• Pandit Ravi Shankar was an Indian sitarist and composer.
• In 1999, Shankar received the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor.

The correct answer is WTO

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that is concerned with the regulation of international trade between nations.
• The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 123 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948.
• It is the largest international economic organization in the world.
• The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Narali Purnima

Key Points

• Narali Purnima is the festival celebrated on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Shravan to mark the end of the monsoon season in the western coastal areas of India.
• It is also known as the Coconut Festival.
• Narali Purnima is celebrated by the Hindu fishing communities in Maharashtra, India, especially around Mumbai and the Konkan coast.
• The festival marks the end of the monsoon season when fishermen can safely resume fishing.

Additional Information

• Kojagiri Purnima
• ​Kojagiri Purnima is a Hindu festival that takes place on the full moon day of the Ashwin month.
• It is also known as Sharad Purnima.
• The festival celebrates the full moon and the end of the monsoon season.
• It is dedicated to Goddess Lakshmi, the goddess of wealth and prosperity. ​
• Samba Dashami 
• Samba Dashami is a festival unique to the state of Odisha, India.
• It is celebrated on the 10th day of the Shukla Paksha of Pausha Māsa or waxing phase of moon in the month of Pausha (December – January) as per traditional Odia calendar.
• This festival is especially celebrated in the eastern part of Odisha.
• Guru Purnima
• Guru Purnima is a significant Hindu festival celebrated in honor of the spiritual gurus, mentors, and teachers in one's life.
• The festival falls on the full moon day or Purnima of the Hindu month of Ashadha (June-July in the Gregorian calendar).
• The word 'Guru' is derived from the Sanskrit language and means 'teacher' or 'guide,' while 'Purnima' means 'full moon day'.
• It is believed that Guru Purnima is the day when the great sage Vyasa, who is considered the Adi Guru or the first Guru in Hinduism, was born.
• Therefore, the day is also known as Vyasa Purnima.

The correct answer is From the outer surface of the cornea 

Key Points

• The outer surface of the cornea is responsible for most of the refraction of light rays entering our eyes.
• The cornea is a thin membrane through which the light rays enter our eyes.
• It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball.
• The retina is one of the three layers of the eye, where image formation takes place.
• The other two are choroid and sclera.
• It is light-sensitive in nature.

Additional Information

• Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm, present behind the cornea, that controls the size of the pupil.
• The eye lens is biconvex in nature and helps in the adjustment of the focal length so that the object focuses on the retina.
• It forms an inverted real image of an object on the retina.
• The structure of the human eye is shown below:

The correct answer is Lavani.

Key Points

• Lavani is a traditional dance form of Maharashtra, India.
• It is noted for its powerful rhythm and has contributed substantially to the development of Marathi folk theatre.
• The word 'Lavani' is derived from the word 'Lavanya' which means beauty.
• Lavani is a combination of traditional song and dance, which is performed to the beats of Dholki, a percussion instrument.

Additional Information

• Bihu
• Bihu is an indigenous folk dance from the Indian state of Assam.
• It is performed during the Bihu festival and is characterized by brisk dance steps, and rapid hand movements, and is traditionally danced by young men and women.
• Bihu is associated with agriculture and marks the Assamese New Year.
• Suggie
• Suggie is not a known traditional dance form in India.
• Jhumar
• Jhumar is a traditional folk dance form from the Indian states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
• It is performed during harvest season and at weddings and other festive occasions.
• The dance is characterized by the graceful movements of the dancers and the rhythmic clapping.

The correct answer is State Assembly

Key Points

• The Parliament of India can create or abolish a state legislative council if the state's Legislative Assembly passes a resolution for that.
• The resolution must be passed by a majority of the Assembly's total membership.
• The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in the Parliament of India as per Article 169.
• To create or to abolish a state legislative council, the state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by the majority of the strength of the house and the 2/3rd majority of the present and voting (Absolute + Special Majority).
• When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, still, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.
• The resolution to create and abolish a state legislative council is to be asserted by the President also.

Additional Information

• The Legislative council is the upper house of a state.
• The legislative council is not present in every state of India.
• As of January 2020, only 6 states in India have the Legislative council. they are-
• Andhra Pradesh
• Bihar
• Karnataka
• Maharashtra
• Uttar Pradesh
• Telangana
• It is a permanent body.
• It cannot be dissolved.
• Only one-third of members of a legislative council retired every two years.
• Each member of the legislative council serves for a six years term.

The correct answer is Article 37

Key Points

• Article 37 of the Indian Constitution states that the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are fundamental to the governance of the country.
• It also requires the state to apply these principles when making laws.
• The DPSPs are located in Part IV of the Constitution of India, from Article 36 to Article 51.
• The DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by a court of law.
• The DPSPs aim to establish India as a Welfare State and ensure socioeconomic justice to the people.
• The DPSPs include principles such as promoting the welfare of the people, protecting the environment, and promoting educational and economic interests of weaker sections of the people.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Scientific Farming

Key Points

• The Green Revolution focused on promoting scientific farming techniques over traditional farming methods to increase agricultural productivity.
• This included:
• Use of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Seeds:
• Specially developed seeds were introduced to improve crop yields significantly.
• Chemical Fertilizers and Pesticides:
• Extensive use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides to enhance soil fertility and protect crops from pests.
• Irrigation Techniques:
• Improved irrigation infrastructure to ensure consistent water supply.
• Mechanization:
• Introduction of machinery like tractors and harvesters to reduce manual labor and enhance efficiency.
• Scientific Research and Development:
• Agricultural practices were backed by research and scientific studies to optimize productivity.

Additional Information

• ​The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural innovation in the 1960s that increased crop yields, especially of wheat and rice.
• It involved the development of new varieties of seeds, the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and improved irrigation systems
• The Green Revolution was a period of agricultural innovation in the 1960s.
• The Green Revolution was marked by the development of high-yielding seed varieties.

The correct answer is President

Key Points

Pardoning powers -

• The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
• This power is granted to the President by Article 72 of the Indian Constitution.
• The President can grant pardons to convicted people, including those sentenced to death.
• The President can also reduce the sentence of a convicted person.
• The President can exercise this power based on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Additional Information

• ​President's power to grant pardon procedure:
• In order to get the Cabinet's approval, Rashtrapati Bhawan sends the Home Ministry the compassion request.
• In turn, the Ministry sends this to the state government in question; based on the response, it formulates its recommendation on behalf of the Council of Ministers.
• Limitation:
• The President cannot use his pardoning authority without the consent of the executive branch.
• The President must follow the Council of Ministers' recommendations when choosing whether to grant a mercy plea, the Supreme Court has found in a number of cases.
• Pardon:
• A pardon totally exonerates the offender of all sentences, punishments, and disqualifications by eliminating both the penalty and the conviction.
• Commutation:
• It means that a harsher kind of punishment has been replaced with a less severe one.
• Remission:
• It suggests shortening the sentence without altering its content.
• For instance, a sentence of two years of hard labor could be reduced to one year of hard labor.
• Reprieve:
• It refers to substituting a reduced sentence for one that was initially imposed owing to a unique circumstance, such as a convict's physical impairment or a woman offender's pregnancy.

The correct answer is 1899

Key Points

• Lord Curzon became the Viceroy of India in January 1899.
• Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.
• The partition of the Bengal province came into effect during his viceroyalty on 16th October 1905.
• The idea of using the Bengal partition as a political tool to undermine the growing nationalism in Bengal.​

Additional Information 

• As per Curzon, after the partition, the two provinces would be Bengal (including modern West Bengal, Odisha, and Bihar) and Eastern Bengal and Assam.
• Bengal would have a Hindu majority and Eastern Bengal and Assam would have a Muslim majority population. Its capital would remain Calcutta.
• Many people in Bengal regarded this partition as an insult to their motherland.
• Rabindranath Tagore composed the famous song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ which later became the national anthem of Bangladesh.
• Muslims led by the Nawab Sallimullah of Dhaka supported the partition.

The correct answer is Adyar

Key Points

• The Theosophical Movement: 
• A group of westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831- 1891) and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who was inspired by Indian thought and culture.
• They founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States in 1875.
• In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras (at that time) in India.
• Society believed that a special relationship could be established between a person’s soul and God by contemplation, prayer, \revelation, etc.

Additional Information

• It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya, yoga, and Vedanta schools of thought.
• It aimed to work for the universal brotherhood of humanity without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste, or color.
• Society also sought to investigate the unexplained laws of nature and the powers latent in man.
• The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with the Hindu renaissance.
• It opposed child marriage and advocated the abolition of caste discrimination, uplift of outcastes, improvement in the condition of widows.

The correct answer is Bryophytes.

Key Points 

• Bryophytes:
• In the plant kingdom, bryophytes are known as amphibians.
• A bryophyte is a nonvascular plant that is green, seedless and belongs to the mosses, liverworts, or hornworts family.
• Bryophytes are among the simplest of terrestrial plants.
• In Bryophyta, there is a lack of xylem and phloem tissue.
• They lack true roots, stem and leaves.
• Bryophytes are known as the amphibians of the plant kingdom because they live in the soil but need water to reproduce sexually.
• They prefer moist, humid, and shady environments.
• On bare rocks/soil, they serve a vital role in plant succession.

Additional Information

• Other types of Plant Kingdom

The correct answer is Fruity flavour

Key Points

• The formation of ethyl esters in dairy products, catalyzed by esterases produced by lactic acid bacteria, results in a fruity flavor.
• This process is called esterification.
• Esterases are enzymes that can both synthesize and hydrolyze esters.
• The reaction between ethanol and a fatty acid molecule to form an ester and water is called esterification.

Additional Information

• The balance between the synthesis and hydrolysis processes determines the final product's organoleptic characteristics.
• The degradation of proteins, like caseins, into amino acids and peptides is a key step in the development of dairy flavors.
• The amino acids methionine, phenylalanine, and threonine are especially important for cheese flavor.

The correct answer is More than 75% of the population is engaged in the primary sector

Key Points

• More than 75% of the population being engaged in the primary sector does not fall under the definition of a census town in India.
• A census town in India is a settlement that has the following characteristics:
• A minimum population of 5,000
• A population density of at least 400 people per square kilometer
• At least 75% of the main working population is employed outside the agricultural sector
• A census town is not officially notified and administered as a town, but it has urban characteristics.

Additional Information

• As per the 2011 Census, there are 3,784 Census Towns against 1,362 in 2001.
• A Statutory Town is one with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, or notified town area committee.
• As per the 2011 Census, there are 4,041 such towns as against 3,799 in 2001.
• Conversion of Census towns into statutory ULBs entitles states to Central assistance as per the guidelines of the 14th Finance Commission.
• Under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), 50% weightage is given to the number of statutory towns in any State/UT in the allocation of funds among States/UTs.
• The state with the highest number of census towns in West Bengal with 780 towns.
• Mizoram has no census towns.

The correct answer is Jute.

Key Points

• Jute is known as the golden fibre.
• Jute is known as golden fibre because of its shiny brown colour.
• Jute is the crop of hot and humid climates.
• It requires a high temperature (24^o C to 35^o C) and heavy rainfall of 120 to 150 cm.
• Sowing period- March-April to May-June.
• Harvesting period- July to October.
• Uses- gunny bags, ropes, strings, carpets, rugs and clothes, tarpaulins, and decoration pieces.
• Grown in West Bengal, Assam and Bihar.

Additional Information

• Cotton
• Temperature- Warm and humid (20^o C to 30^o C) and a lot of sunshine.
• Rainfall- 55 to 100 cm.
• Sowing period- June-July
• Harvesting period- December- January.
• It requires frost-free days.
• States- Gujrat is the leading producer followed by Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh.
• Fibre can be obtained from various sources.

• Natural Fibre: Natural fibres are the fibres that are obtained from plants, animals or mineral sources. Some examples are cotton, silk, wool etc.
• Synthetic fibres: Synthetic fibres are the man-made polymers designed to make a fabric. Polymers are obtained when many small units are joined together chemically. Some examples are silk, acrylic, rayon, dacron etc.

The correct answer is 1000

Key Points

• The infant mortality rate is usually expressed as a rate per 1000 live births (LB).
• It is the second best indicator of the socio-economic development of a country.
• The best indicator of SE development: is the under 5 mortality rate (U5MR)
• Infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of infant deaths under one year of age per 1,000 live births in one year.
• It is given by the formula-
• IMR= Number of deaths under one year of age divided by total live births in the year. ×1, 000
• It is an almost universally accepted indicator of health status.

Additional Information 

• It’s a sensitive indicator of the availability, utilization, and effectiveness of health care, Particularly perinatal care.
• The most common causes of IMR in India-
• Low birth weight.
• Prematurity.
• The most common cause of IMR in the world- is pneumonia.

The correct answer is Odisha

Key Points

• The shikhara is called deul in the Nagara style of temple architecture in Odisha, India.
• In Odisha, the shikhara is called deul and is vertical until it suddenly curves inwards at the top.
• The deul is preceded by a mandap called jagamohana.
• The exteriors of Nagara style temples are beautifully carved, but the interiors are usually plain.

Additional Information

• Northern India saw a rise in the popularity of temple architecture in the Nagara style.
• It typically lacks ornate boundary walls or entrances.
• The tallest tower is always exactly beneath the garbhagriha.
• There is an installation of Amalaka or Kalash on Shikhara.
• Nagara temples can be divided into many different types according to the shikhara's shape:
• Valabhi: Temples built in the Valabhi style are rectangular and have barrel-vaulted roofs.
• Wagon vaulted buildings and constructions get their name from having a vaulted chamber roof.
• Phamsana: These are shorter, but wider constructions made comprised of roofs with multiple slabs that rise up in a gradual slope on a straight incline like a pyramid meeting at one point over the middle of the building.
• Rekha-Prasad: A straightforward Shikara with a square base and inwardly curved walls with a pointed top distinguish Rekha-Prasad or Latina temples.

The correct answer is Tortoise

Key Points

• Among the options, only Tortoise is NOT an amphibian.
• Tortoise comes under the category of  Reptiles.
• Tortoise is the animal with the longest life span.​
• Like other turtles, tortoises have a shell to protect from predation and other threats.
• The shell in tortoises is generally hard, and like other members of the suborder Cryptodira,

Additional Information 

• Amphibians can live in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats.
• Most of the amphibians have two pairs of limbs.
• The amphibian's skin remains moist(without scales).
• The heart of an amphibian is three-chambered.
• Examples of amphibian are:
• Bufo (Toad).
• Rana (Frog).
• Hyla (Tree frog).
• Salamandra (Salamander).
• Ichthyophis (Limbless amphibia).

The correct answer is Jonathan Swift.

Key Points

• Gulliver’s Travels is regarded as Swift’s masterpiece.
• It is a novel in four parts recounting Gulliver’s four voyages to fictional exotic lands.
• His travels are first among diminutive people–the Lilliputians, then among enormous giants–people of Brobdingnag, then among idealists and dreamers, and finally among horses.
• Each book has a different theme, but their common trait is to deflate human nature.

Additional Information

• Jonathan Swift was a famous 18th century satirist, essayist, political pamphleteer.
• He adopted different pen names for publishing his works, such as Lemuel Gulliver, Isaac Bickerstaff, and M. B. Drapier.
• His satire followed Horatian and Juvenalian style.
• His notable works are :
• A Modest Proposal
• A Tale of a Tub
• Drapier's Letters
• A Modest Proposal

The correct answer is Ritual Book

Key Points

• The ritual books, particularly the Vedas, are the most prominent and primary sources of Aryan culture.
• These ancient texts provide comprehensive insights into the religious, social, and cultural aspects of the Aryans.
• The Vedas, composed in Sanskrit, include:
• Rigveda: Hymns and praises to deities.
• Samaveda: Musical chants.
• Yajurveda: Ritual instructions.
• Atharvaveda: Spells and charms.

Additional Information

• Memorial
• Refers to structures or monuments built to commemorate individuals or events.
• Examples include stupas, pillars, or cenotaphs.
• Inscription
• Inscriptions are written records carved on stones, metals, or other durable materials.
• They became significant in later periods, especially during the Maurya and Gupta eras.
• Archaeological Artifacts
• Refers to tools, pottery, ornaments, and other physical remains discovered at archaeological sites.
• While artifacts provide valuable insights into ancient lifestyles, the Aryans left limited physical evidence since they were primarily nomadic or semi-nomadic in their early phases.
• Their cultural legacy is predominantly preserved in their ritual texts, not artifacts.

The correct answer is Abdul Hamid Lahori.

Key Points

• ​​Badshah Nama is a genre of works written as the official history of the Mughal Emperor, Shah Jahan’s reign.
• The name of the author of Badshah Nama is Abdul Hamid Lahori.
• Abdul Hamid Lahori was a traveller and historian during the period of Shah Jahan who later became a court historian of Shah Jahan.
• He has described Shah Jahan's life and activities during the first twenty years of his reign in this book in great detail.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Shrilal Shukla

Key Points

• Shrilal Shukla was a Hindi writer.
• He has written over 25 books.
• Some of his notable writings are Raag Darbari, Makaan, Bisrampur Ka Sant, Sooni Ghaati Ka Sooraj, Raag darbari
• Raag Darbari was published in 1968 and Shreelal Shukla was awarded the Sahitya Academy Award for it in 1969
• Shukla received the Jnanpith Award, the highest Indian literary award, in 2011

Additional Information

• Dharamvir Bharati 
• ​Dharamvir Bharati was a renowned Hindi poet, author, playwright and a social thinker of India.
• He was the chief editor of the popular Hindi weekly magazine Dharmayug,from 1960 till 1987
• Bharati was awarded the Padma Shree for literature in 1972 by the Government of India.
• His novel Gunaho Ka Devta became a classic. Bharati's Suraj ka Satwan Ghoda is considered a unique experiment in story-telling and was made into a National Film Award-winning movie by the same name in 1992 by Shyam Benegal
• Suryakant Tripathi ‘Nirala’​
• Suryakant Tripathi is known by his pen name ''Nirala'' was a renowned poet-novelist and story-writer.
• Some of his Notable works are Saroj Smriti, Raam Ki Shaktipuja, Dhwani, Parimal, Priyatam, Anaamika, Prabhavati, Nirupama, Apsara, etc.
• Harivansh Rai Bachchan
• Indian poet and writer of the Nayi Kavita literary movement of early 20th century Hindi literature.
• He was also a poet of the Hindi Kavi Sammelan.
• He is best known for his early work Madhushala.
• In 1976, he received the Padma Bhushan for his service to Hindi literature.

The correct answer is Salute by seven canons of the Indian Army

Key Points

• The 25-pounder guns were a type of British-era artillery that were used to fire the 21-gun salute during the Republic Day parade.
• The guns were replaced by 105 mm Indian field guns (IFGs) in 2023.
• The 25-pounder guns were designed and made in the 1940s and were used in the 1965 and 1971 wars with Pakistan.
• The guns were decommissioned in the early 1990s and were only used for ceremonial purposes.

Additional Information

• The 21-gun salute is fired to honor the President of India and the national flag.
• The salute is given during the Republic Day parade, Independence Day, or to honor the country's supreme leader.
• The 21-gun salute is considered the highest honor of the country.
• The IFGs are made in India and are compact, light, and can be airdropped.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

• The Amaravati Stupa is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India.
• It is an important Buddhist monument and a significant archaeological site.
• The stupa was originally built during the reign of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.
• The site features intricate carvings and reliefs depicting various scenes from the life of the Buddha.
• Amaravati Stupa is also known for its architectural grandeur and historical significance in the spread of Buddhism in South India.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh is located in the southeastern part of India and has a rich cultural and historical heritage.
• The state is known for its contributions to Indian classical music, dance, and literature.
• It is also home to several other historical and religious sites, including the Tirupati Venkateswara Temple and the Lepakshi Temple.
• Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1956 by merging the Andhra State with the Telugu-speaking areas of the Hyderabad State.
• The state has a diverse geography with coastal plains, hills, and fertile river valleys, making it an important agricultural region in India.

The correct answer is Asees Kaur

Key Points

• Asees Kaur won the Filmfare Award for Best Female Playback Singer in 2022.
• She has participated in various singing reality shows including Indian Idol and Awaz Punjab Di.
• In 2021**, her song "Raatan Lambiyan" from Shershaah,** with Tanishk Bagchi, became a huge hit. She has won many awards including 2 Filmfare Awards and an IIFA Award.
• She started singing Gurbani at the age of 5.
• She made her Bollywood debut with "Dildara Reprise" from Tamanchey

Additional Information

• The Filmfare Awards
• The Filmfare Awards are annual awards that honour artistic and technical excellence in the Indian cinema .
• The Filmfare ceremony is one of the most famous film events in India
• The awards were introduced by Filmfare magazine of The Times Group in 1954, the same year as the National Film Awards.
• They were initially referred to as the "Clare Awards" or "The Clares" after Clare Mendonça, the editor of The Times of India and modelled after the Academy Awards.
• A dual voting system was developed in 1956.
• Under this system, in contrast to the National Film Awards, which are decided by a panel appointed by the Indian Government, the Filmfare Awards are voted on by both the public and a committee of experts.

The correct answer is Horns

Key Points

• Horns is associated with glacial landforms.
• Glaciers create landforms by eroding and depositing material.
• The movement of glaciers is driven by gravity
• Other glacial landforms include: 
• U-shaped valleys
• Fjords
• Hanging valleys
• Nunataks
• Arêtes
• Lateral and medial moraines
• Terminal and recessional moraines
• Glacial till
• Glacial flour
• Glacial erratics​

Additional Information

• A thick ice sheet covering a vast area of land is called a continental glacier.
• The thickness of ice in such regions goes up to thousands of metres.
• Glaciers of this type build-up at the centre and move outward in all directions.
• The precipitation in these regions occurs in the form of snow. It gets accumulated year by year because of the relatively slower rate of its melting.
• When a mass of ice from the high mountainous regions starts moving down into the pre-existing valleys, it is called a valley glacier or a mountain glacier.
• The shape of the valley glaciers depends on the valley it occupies.
• As a glacier moves over the land, it drags rock fragments, gravel and sand along with it.
• These rock fragments become efficient erosive tools. With their help glacier scrapes and scours the surface rocks with which it comes in contact.
• This action of glacier leaves behind scratches and grooves on rocks.

The correct answer is 86^th Amendment Act, 2002.

Key Points

• The 86th Amendment Act was passed in 2002 and added Article 21-A to the Indian Constitution, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a fundamental right.
• The amendment aimed to provide equal opportunities for all children to access quality education, regardless of their socio-economic background.
• It also mandated that the state provide adequate infrastructure and resources for the implementation of free and compulsory education, including trained teachers, school buildings, and learning materials.
• The amendment prohibited schools from charging any kind of fee or capitation for admission or participation in educational activities.
• It also included provisions for the improvement of teacher training and professional development to ensure that all students receive high-quality
• The amendment emphasized the role of parents and guardians in ensuring that their children attend school regularly and participate in educational activities.
• The 86th Amendment Act has had a significant impact on increasing access to education for children in India and improving the overall quality of education in the country.

Additional Information

• 85th Amendment Act, 2001:
• ​Passed in 2001, the 85th Amendment Act added Article 16(4B) to the Indian Constitution, allowing the state to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in government services.
• The amendment aimed to address the underrepresentation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in higher positions within government organizations and to promote their advancement and equality in the workforce.
• It provided a legal framework for affirmative action and positive discrimination to ensure equal opportunities for marginalized communities in public employment.
• 87th Amendment Act 
• The 87th Amendment of the Constitution of India, passed in 2003, changed the basis for delimiting constituencies in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
• The amendment used the 2001 census instead of the 1991 census.
• It changed the basis for delimiting constituencies
• It allowed for the redrawing of boundaries without changing the number of seats for each state in the Lok Sabha
• It amended the Delimitation Act of 2002
• It came into effect on October 31, 2003​
• 88th Amendment Act
• ​The Constitution (88th Amendment) Act, 2003, added Article 268A to the Constitution of India, which allows the government to levy and collect service taxes.
• The amendment also amended Articles 268 and 270, and the Seventh Schedule.
• It Gives the Union and States the power to collect and appropriate service taxe

The correct answer is Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education only

Key Points

• 'Samagra Shiksha' is an integrated scheme for school education covering the entire gamut from pre-school to class XII.
• It 1.16 million schools, over 156 million students, and 5.7 million Teachers of Govt. and Aided schools
• It has been prepared with the broader goal of improving school effectiveness measured in terms of equal opportunities for schooling and equitable learning outcomes.
• It subsumes the three Schemes of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA), and Teacher Education (TE).
• It is being implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme.
• It involves a 60:40 split in funding between the Centre and most States.
• Human Resource Development Minister Prakash Javadekar launched the Samagra Shiksha scheme for school education in 2018.
• The scheme launched in 2018 has been extended for the period 1st April 2021 to 31st March 2026 with a Financial outlay of Rs.2,94,283.04 crore which includes the Central share of Rs.1,85,398.32 crore.

Additional Information

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the school education program Samagra Shiksha Scheme 2.0 till the 2025-26 financial year.
• It has been upgraded to align it with the Sustainable Development Goal for Education and the new National Education Policy launched in 2020.
• Samagra Shiksha Scheme 2.0 :
• The scheme has to focus for another five years based on the quality of education in every state of the country. 
• To enhance the direct outreach of the scheme, all child-centric interventions will be provided directly to the students through DBT mode on an IT-based platform over a while.
• The scheme aims to universalize access to school education, promote equity through the inclusion of disadvantaged groups and weaker sections, and improve the quality of education across all levels of school education.
• Provision for Bagless days, school complexes, internships with local artisans, curriculum and pedagogical reforms, etc included.
• Financial support for State Commission for Protection of Child Rights @ Rs 50 per elementary school in the state, for protection of child rights and safety.

The Correct Answer is 2010

Key Points

• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009.
• This law describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21a of the Indian Constitution.
• India became one of the 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
• This Act also provides that no child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education.
• There is also a provision for special training of school drop-outs to bring them up to par with students of the same age.

Additional Information

• This  RTE Act is the first legislation in the world that puts the responsibility of ensuring enrolment, attendance, and completion on the Government.
• This Act lays down specific responsibilities for the centre, state and local bodies for its implementation.
• The Ministry of HRD set up a high-level, 14-member National Advisory Council (NAC) for implementation of the Act.
• The members included Kiran Karnik, former president of NASSCOM; Krishna Kumar, former director of the NCERT, Mrinal Miri, former vice-chancellor of North-East Hill University, Yogendra Yadav – social scientist. India.

The correct answer isSarala Devi Chaudhurani

Key Points

• Bharat Stree Mahamandal (the Large Circle of Indian Women) was the first all India women’s association.
• It was set up in 1910 by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani.
• The centre was formed in Lahore in November 1910 at a personal meeting of women.
• It was decided to hold the opening meeting in Allahabad in December 1910 when many from different parts of India were expected to assemble there for the Congress session.
• The most important feature of the inaugural session of the Bharat Stree Mahamandal:
• it was presided over by Her Highness the Begum Sahiba of Janjira, a Muslim woman, and
• was graced by the presence of Her Highness the Nawab Begum of Bhopal, the only ruling princes of India and a Muslim woman as well.

Additional Information

• The objective of Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the creation of an organization by means of which women of every race, creed, class and party in India may be brought together on the basis of their common interest in the moral and material progress of women in India; and in and through which organization they may work in association and in a spirit of mutual helpfulness for the progress of humanity that through her sex.

The correct answer is Jhijhiya

Key Points

• Jhijhiya is a popular folk dance of Bihar, India, that is performed exclusively by women.
• The dance is performed during the Navaratri festival, which lasts for nine nights and is dedicated to the worship of the three forms of the Hindu goddess Durga: Kali, Lakshmi, and Saraswati.
• The festival is celebrated in the mythological town of Mithila, which is located in the northern part of Bihar.
• Jhijhiya is a fast-paced dance that is accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the dhol, shehnai, and bansuri.
• The dance is typically performed by groups of women who wear colorful sarees and bangles, and the movements involve a lot of footwork and hand gestures

Additional Information Some Indian States and their dances:

The correct answer is Nahid Siddiqui

Key Points

• Nahid Siddiqui is a renowned Kathak dancer known for her exceptional artistry in this classical dance form.
• Kathak is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, characterized by intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive storytelling.
• She has been a disciple of two great teachers: Maharaj Kathak (Pakistan) and Birju Maharaj (India).
• She has been the recipient of several awards, including Pakistan’s Pride of Performance, the UK’s British Cultural Award, and the International Dance Award.
• She is the main character of the spirtual novel “sitaroon Bhari raat”( The stary night) which is written by Canadian Pakistani writer Waseem Raza Syed

Additional Information The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognizes eight classical dances in India.

The correct answer is Dhurva

Key Points

• Dharmapala, the Pala king of Bengal, was defeated by the Rashtrakuta king Dhruva
• Dharmapala was the second ruler of the Pala dynasty.
• He expanded his empire and made the Palas a dominant power in northern and eastern India.
• Dharmapala was initially defeated by the Pratihara ruler Vatsaraja in a battle near Prayag.
• Dhruva defeated both Dharmapala and Vatsaraja in a battle near Monghyr (Bihar).
• After Dhruva left for the Deccan region, Dharmapala regained his power in northern India. ​

Additional Information

• Pala Dynasty ruled Bengal and Bihar for about four centuries from the middle of the 8th century AD.
• After the death of Devapala ended the period of ascendancy and a period of stagnation followed which gradually led to decline and disintegration until Mahipala rejuvenated the rule of the dynasty.
• Mahipala is called second founder as he was able to  recover the lost territories of his predecessors and checked the disintegration of the empire.
• Gopala introduced peace in the kingdom and laid the foundation for the Pala dynasty.
• He was the first independent Buddhist king of Bengal and came to power in 750 in Gaur by democratic election.

The correct answer is Rukmini Devi Arundale

Key Points

• Rukmini Devi Arundale learned ballet from Cleo Nordi at the request of Anna Pavlova.
• Later on, Pavlova advised Rukmini to focus on discovering traditional Indian dance forms, and thus Rukmini turned towards Bharatnatyam.
• She began learning the dance form, first from 'Mylapore Gowri Amma’, and later from 'Pandanallur Meenakshi Sundaram Pillai'.
• She gave her first public performance at the 'Diamond Jubilee Convention of the Theosophical Society’ in 1935. Within a year, she collaborated with her husband to establish Kalakshetra, an academy of dance and music at Adyar, near Chennai.
• Originally the dance form Bharatnatyam was known as ‘sadhir’ and was considered vulgar. Rukmini played an instrumental role in modifying the dance form, giving it a new name, and popularizing it all over the world as a respectable art form.
• She introduced musical instruments like violin, designed costumes and jewelry, and established set and lighting design elements, thereby completely revamping the dance form into its modern avatar.

Additional Information

• Rukmini Devi Arundale was an Indian classical dancer who led the renaissance of the ‘Bharatnatyam’ dance form and founded the Kalakshetra Foundation in Madras (now Chennai).
• She was also a theosophist who was greatly inspired by Annie Besant.
• She was born on 29 February 1904 in Madurai, India. Her father Neelakanta Sastri was an engineer and a scholar while her mother Seshammal was a music enthusiast.
• Her father was deeply involved with the theosophical society and thus the young Rukmini was exposed to theosophy from an early age.
• Because of society she also became acquainted with new ideas on culture, music, dance, and theatre.

The correct answer is 1829.

Key Points

• On 4 December 1829, Lord Bentinck issued Regulation XVII, declaring Sati to be illegal and punishable in criminal courts.
• Lord William Bentinck served as Governor-General of India between 1828 and 1835.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the social reformer who worked hard for the abolition of this 'Sati Pratha' ritual.
• Due to the fierce campaign and lobbying of Raja Rammohan Roy and others, Sati practice was formally banned in all the lands under Bengal Presidency by Lord William Bentinck on 4 December 1829.

Additional Information

• 'Sati pratha' was a Hindu ritual where the widow had to sit on her husband's funeral pyre and burn alive.
• The Portuguese banned the practice in Goa by 1515.
• In the 16th century, Humayun was the first to try a royal agreement against the practice. Akbar was next to issue official orders prohibiting Sati, and since then it was done voluntarily by women.

The correct answer is 70-72 km

Key Points

• The Central Himalayas are characterized by one of the thickest continental crusts globally, measuring approximately 70–72 km in thickness.
• This thickness results from the ongoing tectonic collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, leading to significant crustal shortening and thickening.
• The crustal thickness is indicative of the intense compression and uplift that formed the Himalayas and marked the cessation of volcanic activity in this region.
• The end of volcanic activity is linked to the crust's inability to facilitate magma ascent due to its exceptional thickness and tectonic configuration.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Gupta.

Key Points

• The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is believed to record the achievements of Chandragupta II of Gupta Dynasty
• The iron pillar at Mehrauli, Delhi, is a remarkable example of the skill of Indian crafts persons.
• It is made of iron, 7.2. m high, and weighs over 3 tonnes.
• It was made about 1500 years ago.
• We know the date because there is an inscription on the pillar mentioning a ruler named Chandra, who probably belonged to the Gupta dynasty.

Additional Information 

• Guptas established a small kingdom in Magadh at the beginning of the 4th century.
• Samudragupta was succeeded by his son Chandragupta II Vikramaditya during this period of time
• Pataliputra, an ancient city presently known as Patna, was the capital of the Gupta dynasty.
• The city was favored due to its central location which enabled easy trade and expansion of the empire.

The correct answer is Devaluation of Rupee

Key Points

• Devaluation of the rupee is not related to tax reform measures undertaken during the liberalization phase.
• Devaluation is a monetary policy measure that involves lowering the value of a country's currency.
• Tax reforms, on the other hand, involve changing how taxes are collected or administered.
• Tax reforms
• These include lowering tax rates, simplifying the tax system, and broadening the tax base.
• The goal of tax reforms is to improve tax administration and provide economic or social benefits​

Additional Information

• Devaluation
• This is when a country's currency is officially lowered in value within a fixed exchange-rate system.
• Devaluation can be part of a trade policy reform package.
• Liberalization
• This is the practice of removing or reducing restrictions on economic activity.
• The goal of liberalization is to end restrictions that hinder a nation's growth and development.

The correct answer is Celebrating unity through sports.

 Key Points

• The 37th edition was held in Goa from 25 october to 9th november 2023.
• The official mascot for the 2023 National Games of India was Moga, an Indian bison.
• The motto of the 37th National Games was "Get Set Goa"
• The mascot was chosen to represent Goa's identity and the connection between the games and the state's heritage.
• The mascot was also chosen to represent the qualities of always moving forward and never retracing steps. ​

Additional Information National Games in india:

• The duration and the regulations of the National Games are entirely within the jurisdiction of the Indian Olympic Association.
• The 1st edition of the Indian Olympic Games held at Lahore in an undivided Punjab in 1924.
• The first three editions were all held in the city of Lahore.
• After the eighth edition in 1938 in Calcutta, the event was christened as the National Games.
• The city of Lucknow hosted the National Games in its first post-independence avatar.
• The first National Games on the lines of the Olympics were held in 1985 in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Early June.

Key Points

Monsoon climate in India -

• India provides the world’s most-pronounced example of a monsoon climate.
• The wet and dry seasons of the Indian monsoon system, along with the annual temperature fluctuations, produce three general climatic periods over much of the country:

1. hot wet weather from about mid-June to the end of September,
2. cool dry weather from early October to February,
3. hot dry weather (though normally with high atmospheric humidity) from about March to mid-June.

• The actual duration of those periods may vary by several weeks, not only from one part of India to another but also from year to year.
• Regional differences, which are often considerable, result from a number of internal factors—including elevation, type of relief, and proximity to bodies of water.
• Monsoon arrives in India approximately in the month of Early June.
• The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid-September.
• The monsoon arrives at the southern part of the Indian peninsula generally by the first week of June.
• The season is dominated by the humid southwest summer monsoon.

Additional Information

Tropical Monsoon climate - 

• Monsoons are the sea and land breezes on a larger scale.
• It is the seasonal reversal of wind with the change in the heating of the earth's surface.
• Monsoon climate is characterized by distinct wet and dry seasons.
• They can be found in the Indian sub-continent, Burma, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam and south China, and northern Australia.
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate of heating and cooling of land and sea.

The correct answer is Barter system.

Key Points

• Barter System:
• The barter system is an ancient method of trade where goods and services are exchanged directly for other goods and services without using a medium of exchange such as money.
• This system relies on a mutual agreement between the trading parties on the value of the items being exchanged.
• It is one of humanity's oldest forms of commerce, predating the invention of money or other standard mediums of exchange.

 Additional Information

• Bretton woods system
• In 1944 at Bretton Woods, as a result of the collective conventional wisdom of the time, representatives from all the leading allied nations collectively favored a regulated system of fixed exchange rates, indirectly disciplined by a US dollar tied to gold.
• This was a system that relied on a regulated market economy with tight controls on the values of currencies.
• Flows of speculative international finance were curtailed by shunting them through and limiting them via central banks. This meant that international flows of investment went into foreign direct investment (FDI)—i.e., construction of factories overseas, rather than international currency manipulation or bond markets.

The correct answer is Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• Speaker of Lok Sabha
• Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar was born on 27 November 1888 at Baroda, presently part of the State of Gujarat.
• He served as a speaker from 1952 to 1956.
• Shri Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, fondly remembered as Dadasaheb Mavalankar on whom the title 'Father of the Lok Sabha' was conferred by none other than Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The first secretary General of Lok Sabha is M. N. Kaul.

 Additional Information

• President of India:
• A candidate has to meet some qualifications to be elected as the president.
• Those qualifications of the President are:
• He should be an Indian Citizen.
• His age should be a minimum of 35 years.
• He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the central government, state government, or any public authority.
• Chairman of Rajya Sabha
• The Vice President of India is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The term of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is only for 5 years.
• The Rajya Sabha selects a Deputy Chairman from among its members.
• The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha gives his resignation to the President.
• In the absence of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha the deputy chairman performs the duties of the Chairman.
• The Deputy Chairman is elected internally by the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is 1952 Helsinki Olympics.

Key Points

• 1952 Helsinki Olympics
• KD Jadhav was Independent India's first Individual Olympic medalist.
• He won a Bronze medal in the 1952 Helsinki (Finland) Olympics in Wrestling.
• Independent India's first Olympic medal was a gold medal won by the Indian Hockey Team in the 1952 Helsinki Olympics.

 Additional Information

• 1972 Munich Olympics
• Munich was the host city for the 1972 Summer Olympic Games.
• The games were held from August 26 to September 11, 1972.
• These Olympics are particularly remembered for the tragic Munich massacre, where 11 Israeli athletes and coaches were taken hostage and killed by Palestinian terrorists.
• Despite the tragedy, the games continued, and athletes from around the world competed in various events.
• 1948 London Olympics
• Independent India won its first Olympic Gold for hockey in 1948 just a year after independence
• The 1948 Olympics took place in Wembley Park in London
• India in total took part in 39 events throughout 10 sports and came home with the single gold medal
• India won its maiden medal by defeating Great Britain 4-0 in the finals
• 1936 Berlin Olympics
• In the 1936 Berlin Olympics he was the captain, and India defeated Germany 8-1 in the final to win their third consecutive gold medal.
• Chand scored three goals in the match, and he was named the player of the tournament.

Given : 48 ÷ 16 × 24 - 5 + 3 = 12

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1) ÷ and ×

48 ÷ 16 × 24 - 5 + 3 = 12 ⇒ 48 × 16 ÷ 24 - 5 + 3 = 12

⇒ 48 × 16 ÷ 24 - 5 + 3 = 12

⇒ 48 × 0.67 - 5 + 3 = 12

⇒ 32 + 3 - 5 = 12

⇒ 35 - 5 = 12

⇒ 30 ≠ 12 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) ÷ and +

48 ÷ 16 × 24 - 5 + 3 = 12 ⇒ 48 + 16 × 24 - 5 ÷ 3 = 12

⇒ 48 + 16 × 24 - 5 ÷ 3 = 12

⇒ 48 + 16 × 24 - 1.67 = 12

⇒ 48 + 384 - 1.67 = 12

⇒ 432 - 1.67 = 12

⇒ 430.33 ≠ 12 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) − and ÷

48 ÷ 16 × 24 - 5 + 3 = 12 ⇒ 48 - 16 × 24 ÷ 5 + 3 = 12

⇒ 48 - 16 × 24 ÷ 5 + 3 = 12

⇒ 48 - 16 × 4.8 + 3 = 12

⇒ 48 + 3 - 76.8 = 12

⇒ 51 - 76.8 = 12

⇒ -25.8 ≠ 12 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) + and ×

48 ÷ 16 × 24 - 5 + 3 = 12 ⇒ 48 ÷ 16 + 24 - 5 × 3 = 12

⇒ 48 ÷ 16 + 24 - 5 × 3 = 12

⇒ 3 + 24 - 5 × 3 = 12

⇒ 3 + 24 - 15 = 12

⇒ 27 - 15 = 12

⇒ 12 = 12 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

For find the opposite surface of '5', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

From both dices, 5 is common. So, we can rotate in clockwise direction start from 5.

1 → 4

3 → 2

5 → 6

So, 6 will be opposite to 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

For find the opposite surface of '26', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 3,

From both dices, 5 is common. So, we can rotate in clockwise direction start from 26.

24 → 21

23 → 25

26 → 22

So, 22 will be opposite to 26.

Hence, the correct answer is "22".

Counting triangles are there in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "17".

The  logic followed here is: 

False : Untrue → These both words are synonyms. 

Similarly, 

Trip : Journey → These both words are synonyms. Both "Trip" and "Journey" mean traveling from one place to another. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Trip : Journey".

Given: Anu, Geeta, Mittal, Radha, Hema and Kriti were sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. They were sitting at an equal distance from one another. 

1) Geeta was to the immediate left of Hema. 

2) Hema and Radha were sitting exactly next to each other. 

3) Mittal is to the immediate right of Radha. 

4) Anu was to the immediate right of Kriti.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, Anu is sitting to the immediate left of Geeta.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

All top 3 letters are shifting their position in a clockwise direction.

Middle, bottom-right and middle-bottom letters are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

All 4 corner letters are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Middle and top-left letters are interchanging their position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: W _ _ S D _ E A S _ W _ A _ D W E A _ _

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) EAWESESD → W E A S D / W E A S E / W S A E D / W E A S D

Option 2) EAWDSESD  → W E A S D / W E A S D / W S A E D / W E A S D

Option 3) EAWSEESD → W E A S D / W E A S S / W E A E D / W E A S D

Option 4) EAWDESSD → W E A S D / W E A S D / W E A S D / W E A S D

Here, 'W E A S D' is the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "EAWDESSD".

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given : 18 * 90 * 3 * 27 * 8 = 0

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1) ÷, −, ×, +

18 * 90 * 3 * 27 * 8 = 0 ⇒ 18 ÷ 90 - 3 × 27 + 8 = 0

⇒ 18 ÷ 90 - 3 × 27 + 8 = 0

⇒ 0.2 - 3 × 27 + 8 = 0

⇒ 0.2 + 8 - 81 = 0

⇒ 8.2 - 81 = 0

⇒ -72.8 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) −, ×, ÷, −

18 * 90 * 3 * 27 * 8 = 0 ⇒ 18 - 90 × 3 ÷ 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 18 - 90 × 3 ÷ 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 18 - 90 × 0.11 - 8 = 0

⇒ 18 - 10 - 8 = 0

⇒ 0 = 0 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) +, ×, −, ÷

18 * 90 * 3 * 27 * 8 = 0 ⇒ 18 + 90 × 3 - 27 ÷ 8 = 0

⇒ 18 + 90 × 3 - 27 ÷ 8 = 0

⇒ 18 + 90 × 3 - 3.375 = 0

⇒ 18 + 270 - 3.375 = 0

⇒ 288 - 3.375 = 0

⇒ 284.625 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) ×, ÷, +, −

18 * 90 * 3 * 27 * 8 = 0 ⇒ 18 × 90 ÷ 3 + 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 18 × 90 ÷ 3 + 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 18 × 30 + 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 540 + 27 - 8 = 0

⇒ 567 - 8 = 0

⇒ 559 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is: 1st number × 10 + 5 = 2nd number

20 : 205 → 20 × 10 + 5 = 205

105 : 1055 → 105 × 10 + 5 = 1055

Similarly, 75 : ? → 75 × 10 + 5 = 755

Hence, the correct answer is "755".

The logic followed here is: 2nd number / 2 + 1st number = 3rd number

(24, 86, 67) → 86 / 2 + 24 = 43 + 24 = 67

(39, 64, 71) → 64 / 2 + 39 = 32 + 39 = 71

Let's check the options:

1)  (37, 51, 88) → 51 / 2 + 37 = 25.5 + 37 = 62.5

2)  (16, 54, 43) → 54 / 2 + 16 = 27 + 16 = 43

3)  (18, 45, 63) → 45 /2 + 18 = 22.5 + 18 = 40.5

4)  (28, 89, 117) → 89 / 2 + 28 = 44.5 + 28 = 72.5

Hence, the correct answer is "(16, 54, 43)".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

All 3 horizontal symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Top-middle and bottom-middle symbols are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

All 4 surface symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

Middle symbols are replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

‘STAY’ is written as ‘2732221’

And,

‘FROM’ is written as ‘1517208’

Similarly,

‘FIT’ is written as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

Some camels are donkeys.

Some donkeys are cows.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some cows are camels. - False (because there is no direct relation between cows and camels. So, it can be possible but not definite)

II. Some donkeys are camels. - True (because Some camels are donkeys. So, Some donkeys are camels too)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions II follow".

The logic followed here is:

White portion is increasing by 1 in dark figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

For find the opposite surface of '5', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, 10 is common. So, we can rotate in clockwise direction.

7 is opposite to 8.

6 is opposite to 9.

So, 5 will be opposite to 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "10".

The correct mirror image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

For find the opposite surface of 'A', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, Q is common and on the same surface. So, all remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

P is opposite to Q.

R is opposite to C.

So, B will be opposite to A.

Hence, the correct answer is "B".

Given:

If a man walks at five-sixth of his usual speed from his home towards his office, he is 20 minutes late.

Formula used:

Let the usual time be T minutes. If the speed is reduced to five-sixth, the time taken will be $\dfrac{6}{5}T$ .

Difference in time = $\dfrac{6}{5}T - T$ = 20 minutes

Calculations:

$\dfrac{6}{5}T - T$ = 20

⇒ $\dfrac{6T - 5T}{5}$ = 20

⇒ $\dfrac{T}{5}$ = 20

⇒ T = 20 × 5

⇒ T = 100 minutes

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

$47\frac{37}{50}\times 4\frac{1}{6}\times 24$

Formula used:

$\text{Convert mixed fractions to improper fractions and perform multiplication.}$

Calculation:

$\text{Convert mixed fractions: } 47\frac{37}{50} = \frac{2387}{50}, 4\frac{1}{6} = \frac{25}{6}$

⇒ $\frac{2387}{50} \times \frac{25}{6} \times 24$

⇒ $\frac{2387 \times 25 \times 24}{50 \times 6}$

⇒ $4774$

∴ The final answer is 4774.

Given:

A alone can build a house in 16 days

B alone can build a house in 12 days

A and B work on alternate days

A works on the first day

Formula used:

Work rate of A = 1/16 per day

Work rate of B = 1/12 per day

Combined work in 2 days = (Work rate of A) + (Work rate of B)

Calculations:

Work rate of A = 1/16

Work rate of B = 1/12

Combined work in 2 days = (1/16) + (1/12)

⇒ Combined work in 2 days = (3 + 4) / 48

⇒ Combined work in 2 days = 7/48

To find the number of days required to complete 1 unit of work:

Let x be the number of days required

Since they work on alternate days, we can calculate the work done in (2n) days and (2n+1) days:

Work done in 14 days (7 cycles) = 7 × (7/48)

⇒ Work done in 14 days = 49/48

This is slightly more than 1, hence we need to consider up to the exact day:

Work done in 13 days (6 full cycles + 1 day of A) = 6 × (7/48) + (1/16)

⇒ Work done in 13 days = 42/48 + 3/48

⇒ Work done in 13 days = 45/48

Remaining work = 1 - 45/48

⇒ Remaining work = 3/48

⇒ Remaining work = 1/16

This remaining work will be completed by A on the 14th day:

⇒ The house will be built in $13\frac{3}{4}$ days

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

Cost price (CP) of 12 dozen eggs = ₹60 per dozen

Selling price (SP) of 1 egg = ₹6 per piece

Formula used:

Profit percentage = $\dfrac{Profit}{CP} \times 100$

Profit = SP - CP

Calculation:

CP of 12 dozen eggs = 12 × ₹60 = ₹720

Number of eggs = 12 × 12 = 144

SP of 144 eggs = 144 × ₹6 = ₹864

Profit = SP - CP

⇒ Profit = ₹864 - ₹720 = ₹144

Profit percentage = $\dfrac{144}{720} \times 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = 0.2 × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

An isosceles right-angled triangle with hypotenuse length = 10 units.

Formula used:

Area of an isosceles right-angled triangle = 1/2 × (side²)

In an isosceles right-angled triangle, if hypotenuse = c, then each of the other two sides = c/√2

Calculation:

Hypotenuse (c) = 10

Side = 10/√2

⇒ Side = 10/√2 = 10√2/2 = 5√2

⇒ Area = 1/2 × (5√2)²

⇒ Area = 1/2 × (25 × 2)

⇒ Area = 25 square units

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Original number = x

The resulting number = $122\frac{1}{2}$

Formula used:

New number = Original number + Added value

Calculation:

$\frac{245}{200}x$ = x + 18

⇒ $\frac{245}{200}x - x$ = 18

⇒ $\frac{45}{200}x$ = 18

⇒ x = $\frac{18 \times 200}{45}$

⇒ x = 80

New number = x + 18

⇒ New number = 80 + 18 = 98

∴ The new number is 98.

Given:

Number ranges: 30 to 49, 40 to 60, 21 to 40, and 60 to 80

Formula used:

Prime numbers are numbers greater than 1 that are divisible only by 1 and themselves.

Calculation:

Prime numbers in each range:

30 to 49: 31, 37, 41, 43, 47 (5 primes)

40 to 60: 41, 43, 47, 53, 59 (5 primes)

21 to 40: 23, 29, 31, 37 (4 primes)

60 to 80: 61, 67, 71, 73, 79 (5 primes)

⇒ Range 21 to 40 has the least number of prime numbers.

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Rate of depreciation (R) = 15% = 3/20.

Value after 4 years = Present Value × (1 − R/100)⁴.

Value = 51,20,000 × (17/20)⁴ = 51,20,000 × 83,521 ÷ 1,60,000.

Value = 32 × 83,521 = ₹26,72,672.

∴ The correct answer is ₹26,72,672.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present Value (P) = ₹51,20,000

Depreciation Rate (r) = 15% per annum

Time Period (n) = 4 years

Formula Used:

Value after n years = P × (1 − r/100)ⁿ

Calculations:

⇒ Future Value = 51,20,000 × (1 − 15/100)⁴

⇒ Future Value = 51,20,000 × (85/100)⁴

⇒ Future Value = 51,20,000 × (17/20) × (17/20) × (17/20) × (17/20)

⇒ Future Value = 51,20,000 × 83,521 ÷ 1,60,000

⇒ Future Value = 32 × 83,521

⇒ Future Value = ₹26,72,672

∴ The correct answer is ₹26,72,672.

Additional Information

Depreciation vs Appreciation

While depreciation uses the formula P(1 − r/100)ⁿ, appreciation (like population growth) uses P(1 + r/100)ⁿ.

Effective Rate of Depreciation

For two years with a rate r%, the net depreciation is given by the successive percentage formula: (r + r − (r × r)/100)%.

Initial Value Calculation

To find the value n years ago given the present value (V), use the formula: Initial Value = V ÷ (1 − r/100)ⁿ.

Given:

Three solid cubes of sides 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm are melted to form a new solid cube.

Formula used:

Volume of a cube = side³

Surface area of a cube = 6 × side²

Calculations:

Volume of the new cube = Volume of the first cube + Volume of the second cube + Volume of the third cube

Volume of the first cube = 3³ = 27 cm³

Volume of the second cube = 4³ = 64 cm³

Volume of the third cube = 5³ = 125 cm³

⇒ Total volume = 27 + 64 + 125

⇒ Total volume = 216 cm³

Let the side of the new cube be x cm.

Then, x³ = 216

⇒ x = 6 cm

Surface area of the new cube = 6 × side²

⇒ Surface area = 6 × 6²

⇒ Surface area = 6 × 36

⇒ Surface area = 216 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

An article is marked at a price which gives a profit of 20%. After allowing a certain discount, the profit reduces to 10%.

Formula used:

Discount Percentage = ((Marked Price - Selling Price) / Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100.

Marked Price (MP) = CP + 20% of CP = 100 + 20 = 120

New Selling Price (SP) with 10% profit = CP + 10% of CP = 100 + 10 = 110

Discount = MP - SP = 120 - 110 = 10

Discount Percentage = (10 / 120) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (1 / 12) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = $8\frac{1}{3}$

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

The ratio of two numbers is 5:6.

Their HCF is 8.

Formula used:

LCM × HCF = Product of the numbers

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 5x and 6x.

Given HCF = 8, so x = 8.

The numbers are 5×8 = 40 and 6×8 = 48.

Product of the numbers = 40 × 48.

LCM × HCF = 40 × 48.

LCM × 8 = 1920.

⇒ LCM = 1920 ÷ 8.

⇒ LCM = 240.

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

A sum of ₹18,910 is divided among Arjun, Raima, and Sohan.

Arjun receives 20% less than Raima.

Sohan receives 25% more than Raima's share.

Formula used:

Let Raima's share be R.

Arjun's share = R - 0.20R = 0.80R

Sohan's share = R + 0.25R = 1.25R

Total share = Arjun's share + Raima's share + Sohan's share

Total share = 0.80R + R + 1.25R = 3.05R

Total amount = ₹18,910

3.05R = 18,910

Calculation:

3.05R = 18,910

⇒ R = 18,910 / 3.05

⇒ R = 6,200

Sohan's share = 1.25R

⇒ Sohan's share = 1.25 × 6,200

⇒ Sohan's share = 7,750

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The ratio of P's salary to Q's salary is 2 : 3.

The ratio of Q's salary to R's salary is 4 : 5.

Formula used:

To find the ratio of P's salary to R's salary, we need to combine the given ratios.

Calculation:

Let P's salary be 2x, Q's salary be 3x, and R's salary be 5y.

Given Q's salary is equal in both ratios, we equate them:

3x = 4y

⇒ y = 3x / 4

Now, we find the ratio of P's salary to R's salary:

P's salary : R's salary = 2x : 5y

⇒ 2x : 5(3x / 4)

⇒ 2x : (15x / 4)

⇒ 8x : 15x

⇒ 8 : 15

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

For a sum to double itself, the Simple Interest must be equal to the Principal (100%).

Time (T) = 100 ÷ Rate (R)

⇒ T = 100 ÷ 5

⇒ T = 20 years

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 5% per annum

Let Principal (P) = ₹100

Since the sum doubles itself, Amount (A) = ₹200

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Amount − Principal

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = 200 − 100 = ₹100

⇒ 100 = (100 × 5 × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 100 = 5 × T

⇒ T = 100 ÷ 5

⇒ T = 20 years

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Additional Information

General Formula for n-times

If a sum becomes 'n' times of itself in T years at R% SI, then R × T = (n − 1) × 100.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the principal remains constant, whereas in Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the accumulated amount of previous years.

Rule of 72 (Approximate for CI)

For Compound Interest, the time to double a sum is approximately 72 ÷ Rate.

Given:

The average of a, b, and c is 35

The average of a, c, and d is 40

d = 25

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of terms) / (Number of terms)

Calculation:

Average of a, b, and c = 35

⇒ (a + b + c) / 3 = 35

⇒ a + b + c = 35 × 3

⇒ a + b + c = 105

Average of a, c, and d = 40

⇒ (a + c + d) / 3 = 40

⇒ a + c + 25 = 40 × 3

⇒ a + c + 25 = 120

⇒ a + c = 120 - 25

⇒ a + c = 95

Now, we have:

a + b + c = 105

a + c = 95

Subtracting these equations:

(a + b + c) - (a + c) = 105 - 95

⇒ b = 10

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is RAND.

Key Points

• RAND
• Purpose: Generates a random number between 0 and 1.
• Syntax: =RAND()
• How it works:
• Each time the worksheet is recalculated (e.g., when you open the file, edit a cell, or press F9), a new random number is generated.
• Useful for simulations, random sampling, or introducing randomness into your data.

Additional Information

• AVERAGE
• Purpose: Calculates the average (mean) of a set of numbers.
• Syntax: =AVERAGE(number1, [number2], ...)
• number1 is required, subsequent numbers are optional.
• How it works:
• Sums all the numbers within the specified range.
• Divides the sum by the count of numbers in the range.
• SUM
• Purpose: Adds all the numbers in a range of cells.
• Syntax: =SUM(number1, [number2], ...)
• number1 is required, subsequent numbers are optional.
• How it works:
• Can directly input numbers or refer to cells or ranges containing numbers.
• VLOOKUP
• Purpose: Searches for a specific value in the first column of a table or array and returns a value from the same row in a specified column.
• Syntax: =VLOOKUP(lookup_value, table_array, col_index_num, [range_lookup])
• lookup_value: The value to search for.
• table_array: The range of cells1 containing the lookup table.

The correct answer is The pasted text is merged with the existing text.

Key Points

• When pasting text into Microsoft Word 365, the default behavior is to replace the existing text with the newly pasted text.
• This means that any text already present at the insertion point will be deleted and replaced entirely by the content you are pasting.
• This default behavior ensures that the pasted text is inserted precisely where you intend it to be, without any unintended merging or overlapping of content.
• However, Word 365 also provides several options for customizing paste behavior to suit your specific needs.
• You can easily change the default paste behavior by:
• Using the Paste Options button: After pasting text, a small "Paste Options" button appears. Clicking this button reveals a drop-down menu with various paste options, including:
• Keep Text Only: Pastes the text without any formatting from the source document.
• Keep Source Formatting: Pastes the text with all the original formatting, including fonts, styles, and colors.
• Merge Formatting: Combines the formatting of the pasted text with the formatting of the destination document.
• Match Destination Formatting: Pastes the text using the formatting of the destination document.
• Using the Paste Special dialog box: You can access more advanced paste options by pressing Ctrl+Shift+V or right-clicking the pasted text and selecting Paste Special. This dialog box allows you to paste text as unformatted text, HTML, or even as a picture.

The correct answer is On every page.

Key Points

• In Microsoft Word 365, by default, headers and footers are displayed on every page of the document, including the first page.
• This default behavior ensures consistency throughout the document.
• Display different headers and footers on the first page: This is often useful for documents like reports or essays where the first page may have a different format or require unique information (like a title page). You can achieve this by checking the "Different First Page" option within the Header & Footer Tools.
• Display headers and footers on specific pages or sections: You can control the appearance of headers and footers more precisely by using section breaks. By inserting section breaks, you can create different sections within your document, each with its own header and footer settings.
• Suppress headers and footers altogether on certain pages: If you need to remove headers and footers from specific pages, you can do so by accessing the Header & Footer options for that particular section and making the necessary adjustments.
• These customization options provide flexibility in designing your document layout and ensuring that headers and footers are displayed appropriately on each page.

The correct answer is Ctrl+J.

Key Points

• Ctrl+J
• Function: Justifies the selected text.
• Explanation: This shortcut evenly distributes the spacing between words and letters within a paragraph so that both the left and right margins are aligned.

Additional Information

• Ctrl+B
• Function: Toggles bold formatting.
• Explanation: Pressing Ctrl+B will make the selected text bold. Pressing it again will remove the bold formatting.
• Ctrl+I
• Function: Toggles italic formatting.
• Explanation: This shortcut will make the selected text appear in italics. Pressing it again will remove the italic formatting.
• Ctrl+U
• Function: Toggles underline formatting.
• Explanation: Pressing Ctrl+U will underline the selected text. Pressing it again will remove the underline.

The correct answer is Creating and editing documents.

Key Points

• The primary purpose of a word processing package like Microsoft Word 365 is to create, edit, and format text documents. This encompasses a wide range of tasks that go beyond simple typing:
• Text Creation and Editing:
• Easy Text Entry: Users can efficiently type, insert, delete, and modify text within the document.
• Formatting Options: Control over font styles, sizes, colors, spacing, and alignment enhances readability and visual appeal.
• Spell Check and Grammar Correction: Built-in tools help ensure accuracy and professionalism in writing.
• Document Layout and Design:
• Page Layout Control: Adjust margins, page orientation, and column settings to suit the document's purpose.
• Headers and Footers: Add consistent information like page numbers, dates, and document titles.
• Lists and Tables: Create organized structures for presenting information effectively.
• Image and Object Insertion: Integrate images, shapes, and other elements to enhance visual communication.
• Collaboration and Sharing:
• File Sharing and Collaboration: Work with others on the same document simultaneously through cloud-based platforms.
• Document Version Control: Track changes made by different users and revert to previous versions if needed.

The correct answer is 50.

Key Points

• Gmail is a free email service developed by Google. It was initially launched as a limited beta release on April 1, 2004.
• The creator of Gmail is Paul Buchheit, a Google engineer who conceived and developed the service.
• Key features of Gmail include:
• Large Storage Capacity: Gmail initially offered a significantly larger storage capacity compared to other email services at the time, a key factor in its early popularity.
• Powerful Search Functionality: Gmail's search engine is highly sophisticated, allowing users to quickly find specific emails based on various criteria.
• Spam Filtering: Gmail employs advanced algorithms to effectively filter out spam emails, minimizing the amount of unwanted mail in user inboxes.
• Conversation View: Gmail groups related emails into conversations, making it easier to follow the thread of a discussion.
• Labels and Filters: Users can create labels and filters to organize emails and automatically sort them into different folders.
• Integration with Google Services: Gmail seamlessly integrates with other Google services like Google Drive, Google Calendar, and Google Meet.
• Mobile App: The Gmail mobile app is available for both iOS and Android devices, providing convenient access to your emails on the go.
• Security Features: Gmail incorporates robust security measures to protect user accounts from hacking and phishing attacks.

The correct answer is Both absolute reference and mixed reference.

Key Points

• Dollar ($) sign: In Excel, the dollar sign is used to create absolute references. For example, if you want to refer to cell A1 in a formula and you don't want that reference to change when you copy the formula to another cell, you would use$A$1. However, the dollar sign doesn't signal the start of a formula.

 Additional Information

• Equal (=): This is the correct symbol to start a formula in an Excel cell.
• Any calculation or formula in Excel begins with this equal sign. For example, =A1+10 would add 10 to the value in cell A1.
• Ampersand (&): The ampersand is not used to start a formula in Excel, but rather within formulas to concatenate (link together) different text strings or cell values. For example, the formula =A1&B1 would join together the contents of cells A1 and B1.
• Percent (%): In Excel, a percent sign is neither used to start a formula nor within a formula typically. It's usually used to represent percentage values. While you can include this in a formula (e.g. =A1*20% to get 20% of the value in A1), it's not used to initiate a formula.

The correct answer is  F1.

Key Points

• F1:
• This key opens the Help menu in Microsoft Word 365.
• It provides access to various resources, including tutorials, troubleshooting guides, and support documentation.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + F1:
• This shortcut key toggles the display of the Ribbon.
• The Ribbon is the horizontal bar at the top of the Word window that contains various tabs and groups of commands.
• This shortcut allows you to quickly hide or show the Ribbon to maximize your workspace.
• Alt + F1:
• This key combination does not have a specific function in Microsoft Word 365.
• Shift + F1:
• This shortcut displays the Reveal Formatting pane.
• This pane shows the detailed formatting applied to the selected text, such as font, font size, spacing, and styles.
• This is helpful for understanding and modifying the formatting of your document.

The correct answer is General Packet Radio Service.

Key Points

General Packet Radio Service

• GPRS, or General Packet Radio Service, is a best-effort packet-switching communications protocol for cellular networks.

GPRS was one of the first widely used data transfer protocols on cellular networks.

• GPRS is a third-generation step toward internet access.

GPRS is also known as GSM-IP that is a Global-System Mobile Communications Internet Protocol as it keeps the users of this system online, allows them to make voice calls, and access the internet on-the-go.

The correct answer is =.

Key Points

• Creating a formula in Excel
• To create a simple formula to add, subtract, multiply or divide values in your worksheet
• Simple formulas always start with an equal sign (=), followed by constants that are numeric values and calculation operators such as plus (+), minus (-), an asterisk(*), or forward-slash (/).
• MS-Excel
• It is a spreadsheet program for data analysis and documentation.
• It contains a number of rows and columns, where the intersection of a column and cell and a row is a "cell".
• Each cell contains one point of data.
• It is developed by Microsoft.
• It features calculation, graphing tools, pivot tables.

Additional Information

• All Excel formulas begin with an equal to sign (=)
• After the equal symbol, you enter either a calculation or function
• For example, to add up values in cells B1 through B5, you can either:
• Type the entire equation: = B1+B2+B3+B4+B5
• Use the SUM function: = SUM(B1: B5)
• Press the Enter key to complete the formula.