Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 20 Nov, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

"_________ is the writer of the book 'India Wins Freedom'."

  1. ((a))

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  2. ((b))

    APJ Abdul Kalam

  3. ((c))

    Jawahar Lal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    Mahatma Gandhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

The correct answer is Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

Key Points

  • ‘India Wins freedom’ is a book written by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, who remained Congress President for almost 6 yrs (1940 - 46).
  • This was a critical 2nd world war period and very crucial from the Indian freedom movement perspective.
  • During this period he was in key decision-making and negotiating role with the Britishers.
  • India Wins Freedom is an enlightening account of the partition from the author, Maulana Azad's perspective.
  • It includes his personal experiences when India became independent and his ideas on freedom and liberty.

Additional Information 

AuthorBooks
R CouplandThe Indian Problem: Report on the Constitutional Problem in India
CH PhilipsThe East India Company 1784 - 1834
Correspondence of David Scott
VP MenonThe Transfer of Power in India
The story of the integration of the Indian States
2

​_________ accounts for the difference between the concept of market price and factor cost in national income measurement. 

  1. ((a))

    Indirect taxes

  2. ((b))

    Subsidies

  3. ((c))

    Direct taxes

  4. ((d))

    Net indirect taxes

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Net indirect taxes

The correct answer is Net indirect taxes

Key Points

  • The difference between market price and factor cost in national income measurement is accounted for by net indirect taxes, which is the difference between indirect taxes and subsidies
  • Market price includes the impact of indirect taxes, but not subsidies.
  • Factor cost only considers the actual cost of production, including profit, and may not reflect the effect of taxes and subsidies.
  • The national product can be measured at either market prices or factor cost, and the difference between the two is the amount of net indirect taxes

Additional Information

  • Indirect taxes
  • Taxes levied on the production, sale, purchase, or use of goods and services.
  • Examples include excise duties, sales tax, value added tax, import and export duties, and entertainment tax.
  • Indirect taxes increase the price paid in a transaction compared to the actual receipts of the factor of production.
  • Subsidies
  • Government expenditures for individuals, households, and businesses to stabilize the economy.
  • Subsidies are the difference between the market price and the cost of production.
  • Direct taxes
  • Taxes levied directly on income, such as personal income tax and corporate tax.
3

Madan Singh Chauhan, also known as ‘Guruji’, is a folk and Sufi singer from _______________. 

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Uttarakhand

  3. ((c))

    Haryana

  4. ((d))

    Chhattisgarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Chhattisgarh

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh

Key Points

  • Madan Singh Chauhan  also known as "Guruji" is a Folk & Sufi Singer from Raipur, Chhattisgarh, India.
  • In 2020**,he received the Padma Shri honour from the Government of India** for his contribution in the field of Art.
  • Madan Singh Chauhan devoted his entire life to music practice.
  • He Started his career with Dholak and then he spent 30 years using the tabla.

Additional InformationSufi Art: ​

  • Sufi is a performing art of regional music.
  • It refers to the devotional music of the Sufis, inspired by the works of Sufi poets like Amir Khusrow, and Khwaja Ghulam Farid.
  • Sufi music, which is derived from the mystic school of Islam, aims to connect listeners with the Divine.
  • Qawwali is the best-known form of Sufi music.
  • Originally, Qawwalis were sung in praise of God. In India Qawwali was brought from Persia around the thirteenth century and Sufis enlisted its services to spread their message.
  • Amir Khusro (1254-1325) a Sufi and an innovator contributed to the evolution of Qawwali. It is a mode of singing rather than a form of composition.
4

Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that the laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights will be void? 

  1. ((a))

    Article15

  2. ((b))

    Article 13

  3. ((c))

    Article14

  4. ((d))

    Article16

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 13

The correct answer is Article 13.

Key Points

  • Article 13, is the only option that directly mentions laws inconsistent with or in derogation of fundamental rights.
  • Article 13 states that any law that is inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights shall be void.
  • It ensures that laws that conflict with fundamental rights are void to the extent of their inconsistency.
  • It establishes the supremacy of the Constitution and safeguards citizens against arbitrary legislative actions.

Additional Information

  • Article 15:
  • It Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • It ensures equality before the law and equal protection within the territory of India.
  • Article 14:
  • It Provides the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within India.
  • It forms the basis for non-discrimination and equal opportunity.
  • Article 16:
  • It Guarantees equal opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment or appointment to any office under the State.
  • It also prohibits discrimination in matters of employment on grounds such as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
5

Which of the following was the last Five-Year Plan in India before its replacement with NITI Aayog?

  1. ((a))

    12th Five-Year Plan 2012-2017

  2. ((b))

    11th Five-Year Plan 2007-2012

  3. ((c))

    9th Five-Year Plan 2007-2012

  4. ((d))

    10th Five-Year Plan 2007-2012

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12th Five-Year Plan 2012-2017

The correct answer is 12th Five-Year Plan 2012-2017

Key Points

  • Five-year plans are development plans in India that are formulated by the government to achieve various socio-economic objectives over a period of five years.
  • The 12th five-year plan was implemented from 2012-2017, with the aim of achieving inclusive growth, enhancing social development, and promoting sustainable development.
  • It was the last five year plan in India.
  • It Control macroeconomic imbalances, reverse slowdown, and push for structural reforms

Additional Information

  • The Indian Planning Commission was established in 1950 to formulate and implement five-year plans for economic development in India.
  • It was replaced by NITI Aayog since January 1, 2015.
  • After the Planning Commission, the five year plans also stopped to be made in India.
  • An overview of all Five Year Plans implemented in India is highlighted below:
Five Year PlanPeriodTargeted growth rate of GDP (in %)ModelObjective/Focus
1st1951-562.1Harrod-Domar modelmain focus was on the agricultural development of the country to achieve food self-sufficiency
2nd1956-614.5P.C. Mahalanobis Modelmain focus was on the industrial development of the country. Industries Industrial Policy of 1956 was introduced.
3rd1961-665.6Gadgil Yojnamain target of this plan was to make the economy independent. The stress was laid on agriculture and the improvement in the production of wheat. Green Revolution was introduced.
Annual plans1966-69Plan Holidaysannual plans were made and equal priority was given to agriculture its allied sectors and the industry sector.
4th1969-745.7Ashok Rudra and Alon S. Manney Plantwo main objectives of this plan i.e. growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance.
5th1974-794.4plan focussed on Garibi Hatao, employment, justice, agricultural production and defence. Twenty-point program was launched in 1975.
Rolling Plan1978-83by Janta Party government of Morarji DesaiThe Rolling plan included the following three plans: (1) This plan was for the current year's budget; (2) it was for one of three predetermined years—3,4 or 5 years. (3)it was a long-term perspective plan—10, 15 or 20 years. 
6th1980-855.2based on investment Yojna, infrastructural changing, and trend to the growth model.basic objective of this plan was economic liberalization by eradicating poverty and achieving technological self-reliance.
7th1985-905.0prepared under Pranab Mukherjeewith a focus on "food, work & productivity," intended to speed up the production of food grains, provide more job opportunities, and increase productivity. first time, the private sector got priority over the public sector.
Annual Plans1990-92maximization of employment and social transformation.
8th1992-975.6John W. Miller Modeltop priority was given to the development of human resources i.e. employment, education, and public health. New Economic Policy 1991 of India launched.
9th1997-20026.5focus of this plan was “Growth with Social Justice and Equality”.
10th2002-078.0aimed to double the Per Capita Income of India in the next 10 years. It also aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.
11th2007-129.0prepared under C. Rangarajan.main theme was “rapid and more inclusive growth”.
12th2012-178.0prepared under Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia.main theme is “Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth”.
6

Pillared Verandah and cells are integral parts of which of the following Buddhist structures? 

  1. ((a))

    Tawang Monastery

  2. ((b))

    Ajanta Caves

  3. ((c))

    Bodhgaya Temple

  4. ((d))

    Sanchi Stupa

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ajanta Caves

The correct answer is Ajanta Caves

Key Points

  • Pillared verandahs and cells are integral parts of the Ajanta Caves  Buddhist structures
  • Ajanta Caves
  • The Ajanta Caves include a vihara, which is a Buddhist structure that typically has a pillared verandah, cells, a hall, and a garbha griha.
  • For example, Cave 20 has a pillared verandah with two stone-cut windows, four cells for monks, and a sanctum.
  • The interior of the cave also has a large Buddha shrine at the back
  • Viharas are usually small, simple rooms that are used for meditation and sleeping.
  • They may be located in a larger complex that includes other buildings for communal activities.

Additional Information

  • Tawang Monastery
  • It is Located in the Himalayas of Arunachal Pradesh, this is India's largest monastery and the second largest in the world.
  • It was established in the 17th century and is a center for Mahayana Buddhism.
  • The monastery complex includes a library, a three-story main assembly hall, and residential quarters for monks.
  • Bodhgaya Temple
  • It is Located in the town of Bodh Gaya, Bihar, this temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • It is considered a significant place for Buddhists because it is where Buddha gained enlightenment.
  • Sanchi Stupa
  • It is Located in Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh, this stupa was built in the 3rd century BC by the Mauryan King Ashoka.
  • It was built to enshrine Buddha's relics and symbolize the Buddhist faith.
  • The stupa is a hemispherical structure with a chhatra (parasol) on top, which symbolizes high rank.
7

Manipuri dance often depicts scenes from the life of which of the following Hindu Gods or Goddess? 

  1. ((a))

    Goddess Durga

  2. ((b))

    Lord Krishna

  3. ((c))

    Lord Ram

  4. ((d))

    Lord Hanuman

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lord Krishna

The correct answer is Lord  Krishna

Key Points

  • Manipuri comes from Manipur in northeastern India.
  • It has its roots in that state’s folk traditions and rituals and often depicts scenes from the life of the god Krishna.
  • Unlike some of the other, more rhythmic dances, Manipuri is characterized by smooth and graceful movements.
  • Female roles are especially fluid in the arms and hands, while male roles tend to have more forceful movements.
  • The dance may be accompanied by narrative chanting and choral singing.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam is a dance of Tamil Nadu in southern India.
  • It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, an ancient treatise on theatre written by the mythic priest Bharata.
  • Originally a temple dance for women, Bharatanatyam often is used to express Hindu religious stories and devotions.
  • It was not commonly seen on the public stage until the 20th century.
  • The dance movements are characterized by bent legs, while feet keep rhythm.
  • Hands may be used in a series of mudras, or symbolic hand gestures, to tell a story.
  • Kathakali comes from southwestern India, around the state of Kerala.
  • Like Bharatanatyam, kathakali is a religious dance.
  • It draws inspiration from the Ramayana and stories from Shaiva traditions.
  • Kathakali is traditionally performed by boys and men, even for female roles.
  • The costumes and makeup are especially elaborate, with faces made to look like painted masks and enormous headdresses.
  • A dance of northern India, Kathak is often a dance of love.
  • It is performed by both men and women.
  • The movements include intricate footwork accented by bells worn around the ankles and stylized gestures adapted from normal body language.
  • It was originated by Kathakas, a professional storyteller who used a mixture of dance, song, and drama.
  • Like other Indian dances, it began as a temple dance but soon moved into the courts of ruling house
8

Who can give the order and directives to the government for the enforcement of fundamental rights? 

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister of India 

  2. ((b))

    President of India

  3. ((c))

    Governor

  4. ((d))

    Supreme Court and High Court 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Supreme Court and High Court 

The correct answer is Supreme Court and High Court

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India and High Court can issue orders and directives to the government to enforce fundamental rights.
  • Supreme Court
  • Article 32 of the Constitution of India gives the Supreme Court the power to issue directions, orders, or writs to enforce fundamental rights.
  • writs that can be issued include habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto.
  • The Supreme Court's jurisdiction is original, meaning an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court.
  • High Courts
  • Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives the High Courts the power to issue prerogative writs to enforce fundamental rights.
  • The jurisdiction of the High Courts is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • This means that if a citizen's fundamental rights are violated, they can choose to move either the Supreme Court or the High Court direct

Additional Information

  • President:
  • The Indian President is the head of the state.
  • He is the first citizen of India and is a symbol of the solidarity, unity, and integrity of the nation.
  • He is a part of the Union Executive along with the Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney-General of India.
  • President has the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the question of law.
  • Once President is elected, he holds office for five years.
  • He sits in the office even after the completion of five years given no new election has taken place or no new President has been elected till then.
  • He can also be re-elected and there is no cap on his re-election.
9

When government wants to increase the money supply, it: 

  1. ((a))

    purchases government bonds

  2. ((b))

    sells government bonds 

  3. ((c))

    increases the Cash Reserve Ratio 

  4. ((d))

    increases the Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

purchases government bonds

The correct answer is purchase government bonds

Key Points

  • When the government wants to increase the money supply, it purchases government bonds.
  • This is known as an open market purchase.
  • When the central bank buys government securities, more money flows into the market.
  • The central bank's purchase of securities leaves more money with the people
  • The central bank's purchase of securities increases the liquidity of commercial banks, which allows them to create more credit.

Additional Information

  • Other ways the government can control the money supply include:
  • Bank rate
  • The central bank can increase or decrease the liquidity by increasing or decreasing the bank rate, which is the rate charged for lending funds to commercial banks.
  • Printing money
  • Central banks can print money to increase the amount of money in circulation.
  • However, this can cause inflation, so it's not the first choice of central banks
10

In which of the following years was the peasant movement in Kheda led by Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. ((a))

    1918

  2. ((b))

    1909

  3. ((c))

    1922

  4. ((d))

    1912

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1918

The correct answer is 1918

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in the year 1918.
  • The Kheda Satyagraha began on March 22, 1918 and ended on June 5, 1918.
  • The Satyagraha was a non-violent resistance movement in support of the peasants who were facing immense difficulties due to the oppressive policies of the British government, particularly the high taxes they imposed on the farmers.
  • The Satyagraha was successful in achieving its objectives, and it helped establish **Mahatma Gandhi's leadership in the Indian independence movement.**​

Additional Information

  • Mahatma Gandhi (Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi) was born on October 2, 1869.
  • He was an Indian lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer.
  • He became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India.
  • He was known as the Father of the Nation.
  • Gandhi is internationally esteemed for his doctrine of nonviolent protest (Satyagraha) to achieve political and social progress.
  • He died January 30, 1948, in Delhi, and the day is celebrated as Shaheed Diwas or Martyrs' Day.
  • His autobiography is titled My Experiments with Truth.
  • Important movements led by Mahatma Gandhi:
  • ​Champaran Movement (1917)
  • Kheda Movement (1918)
  • Khilafat Movement (1919)
  • Non-Cooperation Movement (1920)
  • Civil Disobedience Movement: Dandi March (1930)
  • Quit India Movement (1942)
11

The ________ Rebellion in central India broke out in 1910.

  1. ((a))

    Warli

  2. ((b))

    Pabna

  3. ((c))

    Kol

  4. ((d))

    Bastar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bastar

The correct answer is Bastar

Key Points

  • The Bhumkal Rebellion, also known as the Bastar Rebellion, was one of the major rebellions against British colonial rule in India.
  • The rebellion was led by Gunda Dhur, a tribal leader from the village of Nethanar.
  • He rallied the tribes and organised a guerrilla warfare against the British.
  • The rebellion was named 'Bhumkal', meaning 'Earthquake', symbolizing the shaking of the British administration.
  • It took place in 1910.

Additional Information

  • Bastar, located in the present-day state of Chhattisgarh, was a princely state during the British rule in India.
  • The British administration introduced many new systems and policies that led to the economic exploitation and socio-cultural disruption of the tribal communities living there, which were primarily the Gond and Maria tribes.
12

Consider the following factors.

a) Extreme climatic conditions in the Himalayas and the Indian Thar Desert.

b) Lack of medical facilities in rural areas.

c) Availability of employment in metro cities.

d) Poverty in rural India.

e) Education facilities in urban areas.

Which of the given factors are NOT pull factor(s) for migration in India?

  1. ((a))

    Only a, b and d

  2. ((b))

    All except d

  3. ((c))

    Only c and e

  4. ((d))

    Only b and d

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only a, b and d

The correct answer is Only a,b and d

Key Points

  • a) Extreme climatic conditions in the Himalayas and the Indian Thar Desert
  • These are difficult and often life-threatening conditions that force people to migrate elsewhere for better living environments.
  • Example: Harsh winters in the Himalayas or arid conditions in the Thar Desert push people toward more hospitable areas.
  • This is a push factor, not a pull factor.
  • b) Lack of medical facilities in rural areas
  • Poor access to healthcare in rural areas forces people to migrate to urban areas with better medical infrastructure.
  • Example: People moving from villages to cities for hospitals and specialized treatments.
  • This is a push factor, not a pull factor.
  • c) Availability of employment in metro cities
  • Cities often offer better job opportunities, higher wages, and diverse industries, attracting people from rural or less developed areas.
  • Migrants moving to Mumbai or Delhi for work in factories, offices, or construction.
  • This is a pull factor as it draws people to the cities.
  • d) Poverty in rural India
  • Poverty compels people to leave rural areas in search of better living conditions.
  • It is a negative factor at the place of origin.
  • Example: Farmers or laborers moving to urban areas to escape poverty and earn a livelihood.
  • This is a push factor, not a pull factor.
  • e) Education facilities in urban areas
  • Cities often have better schools, colleges, and universities, attracting students and families from rural areas.
  • Example: Families migrating to cities like Bengaluru or Chennai for higher education opportunities.
  • This is a pull factor, as it attracts people to urban areas.

Additional Information

  • Migration in India is influenced by push and pull factors:
  • Push factors are negative conditions in the place of origin that force people to leave, such as poverty, lack of facilities, or harsh living conditions.
  • Pull factors are positive conditions or opportunities in the destination that attract people, such as better employment, education, or healthcare.
13

The ‘Make in India’ programme, which started in 2014, is similar to _____________ of the 1970s and 1980s in India.

  1. ((a))

    Import substitution policy

  2. ((b))

    License permit raj 

  3. ((c))

    Export-oriented industrial development 

  4. ((d))

    Free trade policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Import substitution policy

The correct answer is  Import Substitution policy

Key Points

  • The ‘Make in India’ programme aims to encourage companies to manufacture their products in India and boost domestic manufacturing capabilities.
  • This aligns with the idea of import substitution policy, which focuses on reducing dependency on imported goods by promoting the production of goods domestically.
  • However, unlike the restrictive approach of the import substitution policies in the 1970s and 1980s,
  • ‘Make in India’ promotes industrial growth with an emphasis on ease of doing business, attracting foreign investments, and integrating into global supply chains.

Additional Information

  • The Make in India program aims to convert India to a self-reliant country and to give the Indian economy global recognition.
  • The Make in India program was started on 25th September 2014.
  • It was launched by the prime minister of India Narendra Modi.
  • It was launched during the 12th five-year planning in India.
  • The Make in India is organized by the government of India.
  • The main objectives of the Make in India program are:
  • Enforcement of secondary and tertiary sectors in India.
  • Manufacturing of products in India and sell the products worldwide.
  • Creating job opportunities for more than 10 million people.
  • Boosting of India's GDP, trade, and economic growth.
14

The Ajanta Caves are located on the left bank of which of the following rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Waghora

  2. ((b))

    Krishna

  3. ((c))

    Mahanadi

  4. ((d))

    Tungabhadra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Waghora

The correct answer is Waghora

Key Points

  • The Ajanta Caves were carved out of a horse-shoe-shaped rock on the banks of the Waghorn River in the 2nd century BC.
  • The Ajanta caves were discovered in 1819.
  • The Ajanta Caves are a series of 29 Buddhist cave temples in Ajanta, India, some of which date back to the 2nd century BC.
  • The Ajanta Caves preserve some of the best works of Buddhist art in India.
  • 25 caves were used as viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as chaityas or prayer halls.
  • The caves were developed in the period between 200 BC to 650 AD.
  • The Ajanta Caves were carved by Buddhist monks under the patronage of the Vakataka kings.
  • The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting.
  • These caves were declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983.

Additional Information

  • Waghora River
  • ​The Waghora River is a river in the state of Maharashtra, India, that flows along the western ghats
  • The Waghora River is located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, near the Ajanta Caves
  • Waghora Waterfalls
  • The Waghora Waterfalls are located in the Jalgaon district of Maharashtra, near the Ajanta Caves.
  • The waterfalls cascade down the cliffs surrounding the caves.
15

Rajaraja I, who assumed power in 985 CE and was known as one of the most powerful kings in South India, belonged to the _________ dynasty. 

  1. ((a))

    Chalukaya

  2. ((b))

    Chola

  3. ((c))

    Pallava

  4. ((d))

    Pandya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chola

The correct answer is Chola.

Key Points:

  • Rajaraja I, a Chola emperor, ruled between 985 and 1014 CE.
  • He is known for restoring the Chola hegemony and securing its dominance throughout the Indian Ocean during his time as the most powerful Tamil king in South India.
  • He ruled over a sizable portion of northern Sri Lanka, the Chera country, and the Pandya country.
  • Also, he bought Lakshadweep, the Thiladhunmadulu atoll, and a portion of the Maldives' northernmost islands in the Indian Ocean.

Additional Information:

  • Pallava:
  • Around the fourth century AD, the South saw the rise of the Pallavas, who reached the pinnacle of their supremacy in the seventh century AD.
  • For over 500 years, they were able to maintain their hegemony.
  • Pandya:
  • The Pandyan dynasty, commonly known as the Pandyas of Madurai, was one of the three major kingdoms of Tamilakam, or South India, together with the Chera and Chola dynasties.
  • Chalukya:
  • During the sixth through the twelfth centuries, the Chalukya dynasty, a Classical Indian monarchy, ruled over a sizable portion of southern and central India.
  • They held power as three interconnected but separate dynasties during this time.
16

Junagadh Rock Inscription belongs to whom among the following rulers?

  1. ((a))

    Bindusara

  2. ((b))

    Satakarni I

  3. ((c))

    Rudradaman I

  4. ((d))

    Kanishka

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rudradaman I

The correct answer is Rudradaman I

Key Points

  • Rudradaman I, the greatest of the Saka ruler in India is known to us from his coins, but more so from his Junagarh Inscription dated in the Saka year 72 i.e 150 AD.
  • It is located on a rock near Girnar hill, in Junagadh, Gujarat.
  • This inscription written in Brahmi script, entirely in prose, using Sanskrit language was the earliest record ever written in perfect Sanskrit.
  • The Rudradaman inscription is in fact one of the three significant inscriptions found on the same rock, dated to be the second in chronology.
  • The oldest inscription is a version of Ashoka edicts, while the last and third inscription is of the Gupta Emperor Skandagupta.
  • The Rudradaman inscription is near the top, above the Ashoka edict.

Additional Information

  • Rudradaman I belonged to the Western Kshatrapa dynasty of Kardamkas.
  • The Western Satraps or Western Kshatrapas (35–405 AD) were Indo-Scythian (Saka) rulers of the western and central parts of India.
  • Rudradaman took up the title of Maha-Kshtrapa ("Great Satrap") after he became the king and then strengthened his kingdom.
  • He later married a Hindu woman and converted into Hinduism.
  • The genealogy mentioned in the inscription includes his father Jayadaman and his grandfather Chastana.
17

Nadaswaran instrument is played by _________ . 

  1. ((a))

    Sheikh Chinna Moula

  2. ((b))

    KV Prasad

  3. ((c))

    Panalal Ghosh

  4. ((d))

    Totaram Sarma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sheikh Chinna Moula

The correct answer is Nadhaswaram.

Key Points

  • Sheik Chinna Moulana popularly known as Sheik, was a prominent nadhaswaram player in the tradition of Carnatic.
  • He was felicited by the Madras Music Academy's Sangeetha Kalanidhi in 1998
  • Nadhaswaram is a double-reed wind instrument from South India.
  • It is used as a traditional classical instrument in Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.

Additional Information

  • | String Instrument | Notable Musicians | | --- | --- | | Guitar | Braj Bhushan Kabra, Nagen Dey, Khagen Dey, U Srinivas | | Mandolin | S Balamurali Krishna, U Srinivas | | Rudra Veena | Asad Ali Khan | | Piano | V Balsara | | Been | Asad Ali Khan | | Vichitra Veena | Abdul Aziz Khan, Ahmed Raja Khan | | Mohan Veena | Pt Vishwa Mohan Bhat | | Santoor | Bhajan Sopori, Pt Shiv Kumar Sharma, Pt Tarun Bhattacharya | | Sarangi | Abdul Latif Khan, Ustad Binda Khan, Ramesh Mishra, Sultan Khan, Pt Ram Narayan, Shakoor Khan | | Sitar | Ustad Vilayat Khan, Pt Ravi Shankar, Shujaat Hussain Khan, Shahid Parvez Khan, Anushka Shankar, Nikhil Banerjee, Mustaq Ali Khan, Budhaditya Mukherjee | | Sarod | Ustad Amjad Ali Khan, Allaudin Khan, Bahadur Khan, Zarin S Sharma, Sharan Rani, Ustad Ali Akbar Khan | | Violin | Lalgudi Jayaram, VG Jog, M Chandrasekharan, NR Murlidharan, MS Gopalakrishnan |
18

Non-stick pans are coated with __________.

  1. ((a))

    polytetrabromoethylene

  2. ((b))

    polytetrachloroethylene

  3. ((c))

    polytetrafluoromethylene

  4. ((d))

    polytetrafluoroethylene

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

polytetrafluoroethylene

The correct answer is polytetrafluoroethylene

Key Points

  • Non-stick frying pans are coated with Teflon.
  • Nonstick pans are coated with polytetrafluoroethylene, also known as Teflon.
  • Teflon is a polymer of tetrafluoroethylene also known as polytetrafluoroethylene.
  • Teflon is a synthetic chemical made up of carbon and fluorine atoms.
  • It was first made in the 1930s and provides a nonreactive, nonstick, and almost frictionless surface
  • Teflon coatings are made from a mixture of PFOA and PTFE, the PFOA is not much present in the nonstick coatings as it burns out in the process.

Additional Information

  • To reduce the exposure to harmful toxic substances from PTFE, the following can be useful :
  • Avoid heating up an empty PTFE coated pan because it overheats very quickly releasing fumes harmful to human inhaling.
  • Temperatures over 260 degrees damage the cookware very fast. Using low heat when cooking will increase the life span of the nonstick pan.
  • Once the Teflon pan shows scratches, its time you replace it or recoat using a nonstick coating spray.
  • Always ensure to clean using hands and prevent scratching the nonstick coating.
  • When cooking is better to use wooden or silicone utensils and avoid scratching, unlike metal utensils.
19

Kalyani Kutti Amma received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for which form of dance? 

  1. ((a))

    Kathakali

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Mohiniattam

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mohiniattam

The Correct answer is Mohiniyattam.

Key Points

  • Kalamandalam Kallyanikutty Amma was a renowned exponent of Mohiniyattam, which is a classical dance form of Kerala.
  • A native of Thirunavaya in Malappuram district of Kerala.
  • She died on 12 May 1999 in Tripunithura at the age of 84.
  • She won both the Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Award and the Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • Mohiniyattam:
  • Mohiniyattam and Kathakali are two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala.
  • It is named after 'Mohini', the feminine form of Lord Vishnu, which means 'the dance of Mohini'.
  • The origin and popularity of this dance form are closely linked to the great Tamil dance master Vadivelu, one of the Thanjavur quartets.
  • Mohiniyattam’s underlying traditions are found in Bharata Muni’s Natya Shastra.
  • It is based on Natya Shastra’s lasya style.
  • It is traditionally performed only by women.
  • In this dance form, more emphasis is on facial expressions and hand gestures.

Additional Information8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

Dance formsStates relatedFamous Exponents
1. BharatnatyamTamil NaduRukmini Devi, Padma Subrahmanyam, Vyjayanthimala, Sheema Kermani, Padmini.
2. KathakUttar PradeshBirju Maharaj, Nahid Siddiqui, Lacchu Maharaj, Gopi Krishna, Saswati Sen, Manjari Chaturvedi
3. MohiniyattamKeralaKalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma, Shobhana, Sunanda Nair, Kalamandalam Radhika, Thankamani, Kalamandalam Hymavathy
4. KathakaliKeralaKalamandalam Krishnan Nair
5. KuchipudiAndhra PradeshMallika Sarabhai, V. Satyanarayana Sarma, Deepa Shashindran
6. OdissiOdishaSujata Mohapatra, Madhavi Mudgal, Kelucharan Mohapatra, Surendra Nath Jena, Shobana Sahajananan, Minati Mishra
7. SattriyaAssamGuru Jatin Goswami, Guru Ghanakanta Bora, Bhabananda Barbayan, Late Moniram Dutta, Late Dr. Maheswar Neog Dr Bhupen Hazarika, Sharodi Saikia, Indira PP Bora, Anwesha Mahanta
8. Manipuri dance or JagoiManipurGuru Bipin Singh, Darshana Jhaveri, Jhaveri Sisters, Devjani Chaliha, Amala Shankar
20

Who is the author of the work ‘Kadambari’?

  1. ((a))

    Banabhatta

  2. ((b))

    Vilhad

  3. ((c))

    Aryabhata

  4. ((d))

    Bhans

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banabhatta

The correct answer is Banabhatta.

Key Points

  • Kadambari is a romantic novel written in Sanskrit.
  • The book describes the affairs of two sets of lovers through a series of incarnations.
  • Both works were left unfinished, the second was completed by the author’s son, Bhusanabhatta.
  • Banabhatta is the author of Kadambari.
  • He was the court poet of Harsha who wrote his biography called Harshacharita.

Additional Information 

AuthorFamous Work(s)
VarāhamihiraBṛhat Saṃhitā, Pañcasiddhāntikā
ĀryabhaṭaĀryabhaṭīya
Bhāskara ICommentary on Āryabhaṭīya, Mahābhāskarīya, Laghubhāskarīya
21

Which of the following taxes was related to the land revenue (tax on agricultural land) system of the Delhi sultanate?

  1. ((a))

    Khams

  2. ((b))

    Zakat

  3. ((c))

    Kharaj

  4. ((d))

    Jizya

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kharaj

The correct answer is kharaj 

Key Points

  • Kharaj was a tax on agricultural land under the Delhi sultanate, and its range was one-third to half of the produce.
  • Kharaj is mainly imposed on non-Muslims and converts them to Islam in recently conquered territories of Islam.
  • Under the law of Islam, only native Muslims or those who converted to Islam were allowed to own land.
  • Thus, the non-Muslim cultivators were encouraged to adopt Islam, so that they could sustain their agricultural holdings.

Important Points

  • There are different types of tax imposed during the Delhi sultanate:
  • Kharaj was a land tax that was equal to one-tenth of the produce of the land.
  • Zakat was a tax on property realized by the Muslims.
  • Kham was one-fifth of the booty captured, a tax on mines, treasure troves, and a share on war booty.
  • Jaziya: levied on the non-Muslim subjects, particularly the Hindus. Women and children were, however, exempted from the taxes.

Additional Information

  • The time period of the Delhi Sultanate was from 1206-1526.
  • The five dynasties ruled over the Delhi Sultanate sequentially they are as follows:
  • The Mamluk Dynasty/ Slave Dynasty (1206-1290).
  • The Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320).
  • The Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414).
  • The Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451).
  • The Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526).
  • Illtutmish was known as the real founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
22

Wangala is a popular harvest festival of which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh 

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Meghalaya

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points 

  • The Wangala Festival of Meghalaya is a most popular festival among the Garos of Meghalaya, India.
  • Also known as a 100-drums festival. The Wangala dance is performed by men and women dressed in traditional attire, with the men playing the drums and the women dancing to the beats.
  • The Wangala Festival is a harvest celebration dedicated to main deity Saljong, the Sun-god of fertility.
  • Usually observed for two days, but occasionally it lasts up to a week. The "Ragula" ceremony, which takes place on the first day, takes place inside the chief's home. "Kakkat" is the name given to the second day.

Additional Information

  • The folk dances of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Bihar, and West Bengal are listed below:
StateFolk Dance
MeghalayaKa Shad Suk Mynsiem, Nongkrem, Laho, Wangala
MizoramCheraw Dance, Khuallam,  Chawnglaizawn, Zangtalam, Chailam, Sawlakin
BiharJata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Panwariya
West BengalKathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Baul, Marasia, Mahal, Keertan
Uttar PradeshCharkula,Raslila,Karma, Kajri, Chapeli,Kathak
23

In which state of Myanmar do the Rohingyas primarily reside?

  1. ((a))

    Shan

  2. ((b))

    Kayah

  3. ((c))

    Chin

  4. ((d))

    Rakhine

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rakhine

The correct answer is Rakhine.

Key Points

  • Rakhine is a coastal region in the western part of Myanmar, formerly known as Arakan.
  • The Rohingya people are a Muslim ethnic minority in Myanmar, primarily living in the Rakhine State.
  • The Rohingyas have faced severe persecution and violence in Myanmar, leading to a humanitarian crisis.
  • The conflict has resulted in mass displacement, with many Rohingyas fleeing to neighboring countries, especially Bangladesh.
  • The international community has raised significant concerns regarding human rights violations against the Rohingya population in Rakhine.

Additional Information

  • The Rakhine State is geographically significant due to its coastal location along the Bay of Bengal.
  • The term "Rohingya" is derived from "Rohang," the historical name for the Rakhine region.
  • International organizations, including the United Nations, have called for accountability and justice for the crimes committed against the Rohingya people.
24

Which of the following is an INCORECT statement related to dental health?

  1. ((a))

    Tooth enamel, made up of calcium hydroxyapatite is the hardest substance in the body.

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. 

  3. ((c))

    Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.

  4. ((d))

    Toothpaste, which is generally acidic, prevents tooth decay.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Toothpaste, which is generally acidic, prevents tooth decay.

The correct answer is Toothpaste, which is generally acidic, prevents tooth decay.

Key Points

  • Toothpaste is typically alkaline or neutral, not acidic.
  • Most commercial toothpastes contain fluoride and other compounds that help neutralize acids in the mouth, remineralize teeth, and prevent tooth decay.
  • Acidic toothpaste could erode enamel and contribute to dental problems,
  • whereas a balanced pH is important for maintaining oral health.

Additional Information

  • Dental health refers to the overall health of your mouth, including your teeth, gums, and tongue.
  • It also includes the ability to perform essential functions like eating, speaking, and breathing without pain or discomfort.
  • Dental health is important for your overall health and well-being.
  • Poor oral hygiene can increase your risk of disease in other areas of your body.
  • For example, poor gum health can worsen blood sugar levels in people with diabetes.
25

Padma Shri awardee Pratibha Prahlad is an exponent of which of the following dance forms? 

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Odissi

  4. ((d))

    Bharatanatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bharatanatyam

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam

Key Points

  • Prathibha Prahlad is a renowned exponent of the classical Indian dance form Bharatanatyam
  • Prathibha Prahlad is also an educator, choreographer, arts administrator, and author.
  • She was the founding director of the Delhi International Arts Festival.
  • Prathibha Prahlad's dance career has taken her to prestigious platforms around the world.
  • She has also created a dance production called Warrior Women of Bharat that portrays the courage and love for the motherland of women warriors.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam originates from Tamil Nadu and is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork.
  • Kathak comes from North India and is characterized by its intricate footwork, spins, and expressive gestures.
  • Kathakali is a dance-drama from Kerala known for its elaborate costumes and detailed gestures.
  • Manipuri is from Manipur, focusing on graceful and fluid movements.
  • Kuchipudi from Andhra Pradesh combines fast rhythms with fluid movements.
  • Odissi is from Odisha, known for its tribhanga posture and sculpturesque poses.
  • Sattriya from Assam is a dance-drama performance art with roots in the Vaishnavism monasteries.
  • Mohiniyattam from Kerala is characterized by gentle, swaying movements and feminine grace.
26

Raja Reddy is associated with which of the following dance forms? 

  1. ((a))

    Bharatanatyam

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Kathakali

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kuchipudi

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

  • Raja Reddy is an Indian Kuchipudi dancing couples, gurus, and choreographers.
  • He is  renowned as exponents of the south Indian dance form of Kuchipudi.
  • Their names are synonymous with Kuchipudi dance and are regarded solely responsible for bringing it on the cultural map of the world.
  • For their services to the field of arts, the Government of India has conferred on them the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan awards.

Additional Information

  • Kuchipudi:
  • Kuchipudi is a major classical dance form of India that originated in a village of the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Kuchipudi involves different foot movements and is generally a team performance.
  • The central them of Kuchipudi is Bhagavata puran.
  • The dancers of Kuchipudi came to be known as Bhagavathalus.
  • Bharatnatyam:
  • Bharatanatyam is the oldest and major classical dance form of India that originated in Tamil Nadu.
  • It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, ancient treaties on theatre written by the mythic priest Bharata.
  • Odissi:
  • It originates from the state of Odisha, in eastern India.
  • It is traditionally a dance-drama genre of performance art, where the artist(s) and musicians play out a story, a spiritual message, or devotional poem from the Hindu texts, using symbolic costumes, body movement, abhinaya, and mudra set out in ancient Sanskrit literature.
  • Kathakali:
  • Kathakali is a classical Indian dance form which is a story play genre of art and is the folk dance form of Kerala.
  • It is a 'story play' genre of art, but one distinguished by the elaborately colorful make-up, costumes, and face masks that the traditionally male actor-dancers wear.
27

The atomic number of oxygen is _______.

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

The correct answer is 8

Key Points

  • Oxygen is an element with atomic number 8.
  • The outermost shell of an atom is called the valence shell.
  • The number of electrons in the valence shell determines the chemical properties of an element.
  • Oxygen is a nonmetal that is highly reactive and forms oxides with other compounds and most elements

Additional Information 

  • The average atomic mass of oxygen is 15.9994(16) atomic mass units.
  • However, this atomic mass is the average atomic mass of all the isotopes in nature.
  • Hence, the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u means that one atom of oxygen is 16 times heavier than 1/12 of a carbon-12 atom.
  • It is a member of the chalcogen group in the periodic table, a highly reactive nonmetal, and an oxidizing agent that readily forms oxides with most elements as well as with other compounds.
  • At standard temperature and pressure, two atoms of the element bind to form dioxygen, a colorless and odorless diatomic gas with the formula O
  • Diatomic oxygen gas currently constitutes 20.95% of the Earth's atmosphere, though this has changed considerably over long periods of time.
  • Oxygen makes up almost half of the Earth's crust in the form of oxides.
  • Oxygen was isolated by Michael Sendivogius before 1604, but it is commonly believed that the element was discovered independently by Carl Wilhelm Scheele, in Uppsala, in 1773 or earlier, and Joseph Priestley in Wiltshire, in 1774. Priority is often given to Priestley because his work was published first.
28

Which of the following years is related to the SARFAESI Act?

  1. ((a))

    2002

  2. ((b))

    2000

  3. ((c))

    1999

  4. ((d))

    2004

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2002

The correct answer is 2002

Key Points

  • The SARFAESI Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2002.
  • The SARFAESI Act stands for the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act
  • It Regulates the reconstruction and securitization of financial assets, and enforces security interest
  • It Allows banks and financial institutions to recover bad loans efficiently

Additional Information

  • Objectives of SARFAESI Act, 2002
  • To provide a mechanism for banks and other financial institutions to recover secured assets.
  • This is done in a more efficient and effective manner.
  • To reduce the time and cost of recovery of secured assets.
  • To protect the interests of borrowers and depositors.
  • To promote financial stability.
29

Which mineral composed of silicon and oxygen with chemical composition of SiO2 is mainly used in glass making, abrasive, foundry sand, hydraulic fracturing proppant, gemstone?

  1. ((a))

    Olivine

  2. ((b))

    Muscovite

  3. ((c))

    Augite

  4. ((d))

    Quartz

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Quartz

The correct answer is Quartz

Key Points

  • The mineral that is composed of silicon and oxygen with the chemical composition of SiO₂ and is mainly used in glass making, abrasive, foundry sand, hydraulic fracturing proppant, and gemstone is Quartz
  • Quartz is a primary raw material used in the production of glass, including container glass, flat glass, and specialty glass (like optical and fiber optics).
  • Due to its hardness, quartz is used as an abrasive material in sandpaper, grinding wheels, and other polishing applications.
  • Quartz is utilized in foundry sands because of its high melting point and resistance to thermal shock, making it ideal for creating molds for metal casting.

Additional Information

  • Olivine
  • A silicate mineral that's usually green in color and is made up of iron, magnesium, and silica.
  • It's often found in igneous rocks that are mafic or ultramafic.
  • Olivine is not as stable as quartz and can break down into clay minerals during weathering.
  • Muscovite
  • A mica that's a good conductor of heat but not electricity.
  • The Kodarma area in Jharkhand, India is famous for its muscovite mines, which produce the largest quantity of muscovite in the world.
  • Augite
  • A mineral that's rich in iron and/or magnesium, and is typically black or dark green in color.
30

Which of the following Union territories has the lowest population density according to the 2011 census? 

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  3. ((c))

    Daman and Diu

  4. ((d))

    Puducherry

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar.

Key Points

  • Population density
  • Population density is a measurement of population per unit area or exceptionally unit volume.
  • It is a quantity of type number density.
  • It is frequently applied to living organisms, most of the time to humans.
  • It is a key geographical term.
  • In simple terms, population density refers to the number of people living in an area per square kilometre.
  • Population Density of respective Union Territories
  • Daman and Diu - 2191
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli - 1809
  • Andaman and Nicobar - 46
  • Puducherry - 2547
  • According to the 2011 census, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the lowest population density of the following Union Territories

Additional Information

  • Population density (persons per sq. km) by state
  • Highest
  • Bihar - 1106
  • West Bengal - 1028
  • Kerala - 859
  • Uttar Pradesh - 829
  • Haryana - 573
  • Lowest
  • Arunachal Pradesh - 17
  • Mizoram - 52
  • Sikkim - 86
  • Nagaland - 119
  • Manipur - 122
31

The level of urbanisation in India is measured in terms of ________ of urban population to total population. 

  1. ((a))

    decimal

  2. ((b))

    ratio

  3. ((c))

    fraction

  4. ((d))

    percentage

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

percentage

The correct answer is percentage

Key Points

  • The level of urbanisation is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.
  • The level of urbanisation in India in 2011 was 31.16 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to developed countries.
  • Total urban population has increased eleven-fold during the twentieth century.
  • Enlargement of urban centres and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth of urban population and urbanisation in the country.
  • But the growth rate of urbanisation has slowed down during the last two decades.

Additional Information

  • The Motto of the census of India 2011 was 'Our Census, Our Future.It was the 15th term that was conducted by the Ministry of Home Affairs regarding census in India.
  • The census of India was conducted in the two phases first in House listing and second phase in Population counting.
  • According to the Census reports on 31 March 2011, the Population of India has increased to 1.21 billion with a Decadal Growth of 17.70 percent of the total population.
  • The Adult Literacy Rate has increased to 74.04% with a Decadal Growth of 9.21%.
  • The Indian Government decided in May 1949 to initiate steps for Developing a Systematic collection of Statistics Data on the size of the Population and its Growth Rate.
  • So it established an Organisation in the Ministry of Home Affairs under the name of Registrar General and Ex-Officio Census Commissioner.
  • Registrar General office founded in the year 1961 under the Home ministry in India. The rank of Registrar is usually held by a Civil Servant He/ She must be holding the rank of the Joint Secretary level.
32

The ‘Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh’ was founded in which of the following districts of Maharashtra?

  1. ((a))

    Amravati

  2. ((b))

    Nagpur

  3. ((c))

    Ahmednagar

  4. ((d))

    Pune

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nagpur

The correct answer is Nagpur.

Key Points

  • Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS):
  • Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) also called Rashtriya Seva Sangh, organization founded in 1925 by Keshav Baliram Hedgewar.
  • The RSS presents itself as a cultural, not a political, organization that nevertheless advocates a Hindu nationalistic agenda under the banner of Hindutva.
  • The idea was to train the Hindu youths so that they united the Hindu Community and make India an Independent undivided country.
  • He was much influenced by V D Savarkar and adopted his ideals.
  • The Headquarters of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) is located at Nagpur.
  • Keshav Baliram Hedgewar was born on 1st April 1889, at Nagpur.
  • The first Shakha of the Sangh was started with a handful of youth at Nagpur.

Additional Information

  • Keshav Baliram Hedgewar (1 April 1889 – 21 June 1940) was the founding Sarsanghachalak of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh(RSS).
  • Hedgewar founded the RSS in Nagpur in 1925, based on the ideology of Hindutva with the intention of creating a Hindu Rashtra.
  • Hedgewar was born on 1 April 1889 in a Telugu-speaking.
33

The Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha need a ________ quorum of the Indian Parliament.

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    5% 

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    10% 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10% 

The correct answer is 10%

Key Points

  • The quorum for a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha of the Indian Parliament is one-tenth (which is 10%) of the total number of members in both house
  • Article 108 of the Constitution lays the rule for calling of joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament.
  • This Joint sitting is summoned by the President in which the speaker presides over the session and in absence of the speaker and deputy speaker takes charge.
  • If the Deputy Speaker is also not available then the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha takes over this.

Additional Information

  • This situation of joint sitting arises if both the houses of the Parliament are unsuccessful in passing any bill and a situation of deadlock occurs.
  • To break this deadlock, the President calls the joint sitting.
  • It happens in the case when one house has passed the bill and the other one has rejected, both the houses cannot come on a common page on the amendments to be made to the bill or more than six months time has been elapsed since the bill has been received by the other house and is still not passed.
  • In the case of a money bill and a Constitutional Amendment Bill, joint sitting cannot be called.
34

The length of a tennis court is _________.

  1. ((a))

    78 ft 

  2. ((b))

    70 ft 

  3. ((c))

    80 ft

  4. ((d))

    73 ft 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

78 ft 

The correct answer is 78 ft

Key Points

  • Tennis Court
  • Tennis courts' official measurements and dimensions are set by the International Tennis Federation (ITF).
  • The size of a tennis court depends on whether singles or doubles is being played.
  • When looking at a tennis court from above, the baselines are two parallel lines drawn along the width of the court, and the sidelines are two parallel lines running along the length of the court.
  • Double Match Court Size
  • The full court width is available to players during doubles matches, all the way to the outer doubles sidelines. The sidelines of the singles court are 4.5 feet apart from the doubles court on each side.
  • The length of the court is 78 feet (23.77 metres).
  • The width of the court is 36 feet (10.97 metres).
  • There are 9 extra feet to cover than on the singles court because the court is 36 feet wide.

Additional Information

  • Single Match Court Size
  • Tennis courts have a narrower width for singles play, which is used by singles players (designated by the inside singles sidelines).
  • The sidelines of the singles court are 4.5 feet apart from the doubles court on each side.
  • For both singles and doubles matches, the court length is the same.
  • The length of the court is 78 feet (23.77 metres). The width, however, varies.
  • The width of the court is 27 feet (8.23 metres).
35

Suryakumar Yadav is associated with which of the following games?

  1. ((a))

    Boxing

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Cricket

  4. ((d))

    Wrestling

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cricket

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points 

  • Suryakumar Yadav on 6th Nov 2022 became the first Indian player to score 1,000 T20 International runs in a calendar year.
  • He accomplished this feat in India's final Super 12 stage match against Zimbabwe in Melbourne.
  • He scored 61 not out of 25 balls, consisting of six fours and four sixes.
  • In 28 innings this year, Suryakumar has scored 1,026 runs at an average of 44.60.

Additional Information 

  • Important Current Affairs related to Cricket in 2022:
  • Rohit Sharma on 2 Oct 2022 became the first player from the country to feature in 400 T20 matches.
  • Bangladesh pacer Rubel Hossain on 19 Sept 2022 announced his retirement from Test cricket.
  • Bangladesh wicketkeeper-batter and former captain, Mushfiqur Rahim on 4 September 2022 announced his retirement from T20 internationals.
  • In England, the Leicester Cricket Ground has been named after India's legendary cricketer, Sunil Gavaskar.
  • West Indies cricketers Denesh Ramdin and Lendl Simmons have announced their retirement from international cricket.
  • England all-rounder Ben Stokes has announced his retirement from one-day internationals (ODIs).
  • India pacer Mohammed Shami has become the fastest Indian to take 150 wickets in One Day Internationals (ODIs).
36

The method of Election of the President of the India in the Constitution was taken from the Constitution of ___________. 

  1. ((a))

    Ireland

  2. ((b))

    Canada

  3. ((c))

    South Africa

  4. ((d))

    the Unites States of America

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ireland

The correct answer is Ireland

Key Points

  • The 'Method of Election of the President' in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
  • Article 55 outlines the manner in which the President is to be elected, the composition of the electoral college, and the value of votes of the members of the electoral college.
  • The method of electing the President in India is an indirect election, where the President is not elected directly by the citizens but by an electoral college comprising elected members of both houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the states.​

Additional Information Some other important features borrowed from Indian Constitution and their sources:

CountryKey Features
BritainParliamentary government, Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, Single citizenship, Cabinet system, Prerogative writs, Parliamentary privileges, Bicameralism
IrelandDirective Principles of State Policy, Nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha, Method of election of the president
United StatesImpeachment of the president, Functions of president and vice-president, Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges, Fundamental Rights, Judicial review, Independence of the judiciary, Preamble of the constitution
CanadaFederation with a strong Centre, Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, Appointment of state governors by the Centre, Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
AustraliaConcurrent List, Freedom of trade, Commerce and intercourse, Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
RussiaFundamental duties, Ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble
FranceIdeals of the Republic in the Preamble, Ideals of liberty in the Preamble, Ideals of equality in the Preamble, Ideals of fraternity in the Preamble
GermanySuspension of Fundamental Rights During Emergency
South AfricaProcedure for amendment of the Constitution, Election of members of Rajya Sabha
JapanConcept of "Procedure established by Law"
37

President Sukarno of _______ was the Guest of Honour during India's first Republic Day event in 1950.

  1. ((a))

    Indonesia

  2. ((b))

    Malaysia

  3. ((c))

    Maldives

  4. ((d))

    Singapore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia

Key Points

  • Sukarno was the chief guest at the first Republic Day celebration of India in 1950.
  • Sukarno was the first President of Indonesia and a prominent leader in the Indonesian struggle for independence from the Dutch colonial rule.
  • The invitation of Sukarno as the chief guest underscored the close relations between India and Indonesia, both of which were newly independent nations at the time.
  • The first Republic Day celebration marked the adoption of the Constitution of India and the transition of India from a British Dominion to a republic.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Republic Day is celebrated every year on 26th January to honor the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect.
38

Under ‘Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana’, up to how much per cent of average wages is provided as payment relief which is payable up to maximum 90 days of unemployment?

  1. ((a))

    50% 

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    33%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50% 

The correct answer is 50%

Key Points

  • Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana was extended by the Government of India for a period of two years from July 2022 to June 2024.
  • Under the Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana (ABVKY), the payment relief is 50% of the average per day earnings of the insured person
  • This scheme is aimed at providing financial assistance to unemployed individuals who have lost their jobs due to various reasons.
  • The scheme is implemented by the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) and provides relief to workers covered under the ESI scheme.
  • Under this scheme, eligible unemployed individuals receive a cash benefit for up to 90 days during their unemployment period.

Additional Information

  • The Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana was initially introduced in 2018 as a pilot scheme for two years.
  • The scheme was extended for the first time from July 2020 to June 2022 before the latest extension.
  • To avail the benefits, the unemployed individual must have been in insurable employment for a minimum of two years.
  • The individual must have contributed to the ESI scheme for at least 78 days in each of the four contribution periods immediately preceding the unemployment.
  • This scheme is part of the government’s efforts to provide social security to workers in the organized sector.
39

Which of the following is a push factor of globalisation of business?

  1. ((a))

    Availability of cheap raw material in the host country

  2. ((b))

    Higher rates of return in host economies 

  3. ((c))

    Availability of cheap labour in the host country

  4. ((d))

    Saturation of domestic market 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Saturation of domestic market 

The correct answer is Saturation of domestic market 

Key Points

  • A saturated domestic market occurs when a country’s market has limited room for growth due to factors like intense competition or a limited number of consumers.
  • This creates a push factor for businesses to expand globally in search of new markets and opportunities.
  • In a saturated market, intense competition can result in price wars, reduced profit margins, and difficulty in differentiating products or services.
  • To overcome these challenges, businesses look for opportunities in other markets where they can gain a competitive advantage

Additional Information

  • Other Factors are
  • Shift in Consumer Preferences:
  • Changes in consumer preferences or the emergence of new trends may lead to a decline in demand for certain products or services.
  • Businesses often push for expansion into new markets to adapt to these shifts and diversify their offerings.
  • Economic Cycles and Business Lifecycle:
  • During economic downturns or in the later stages of a business lifecycle, growth opportunities in the domestic market may become limited.
  • This pushes businesses to explore international markets for sustained growth.
  • Technological Advancements and Globalization:
  • As technology continues to evolve and global markets become more interconnected, businesses may see global expansion as a way to leverage innovation and stay competitive.
40

The Bokaro Steel Plant is located in:

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Jharkhand

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • Bokaro Steel Plant (BSL) is located in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand.
  • It is the fourth integrated public sector steel plant in India built with Soviet help.
  • It was incorporated as a limited company in 1964.
  • It was later merged with the state-owned Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL).
  • Currently, it houses five blast furnaces with a total capacity to produce 5.8 MT of liquid steel.
  • The plant is undergoing a mass modernization drive after which its output capacity is expected to cross 10 MT.

Additional Information 

  • The first Iron-Steel Works was established in 1874 as the Bengal Iron Works at Asansol West Bengal on the banks of the Barakar River.
  • The first large-scale factory in the country was established in 1907 by Jamdeshji Tata in the Subarnarekha river valley in Sakachi, Jharkhand (now Jamashed Nagar).
NameEstablished inLocation (State)
Indian Iron-Steel Company1918Barnpur (West Bengal)
Mysur Iron and Steel Works1923Bhadrawati (Karnataka)
Bhilai Steel Plant (with the help of the USSR)1955Durg (Chattisgarh)
Hindustan Steel Limited (With the help of Germany)1959Raurkela (Odisha)
Hindustan Steel Limited (With the help of Britain)1956Durgapur (West Bengal)
Bokaro Steel Plant (with the help of the USSR)1964Bokaro (Jharkhand)
41

The term ‘village panchayats’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 47

  2. ((b))

    Article 40 

  3. ((c))

    Article 49 

  4. ((d))

    Article 51 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 40 

The correct answer is Article 40

Key Points

  • Article 40 of the Constitution directs the state governments to organize Village Panchayats.
  • Article 40 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • It lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority to function as units of self-government.
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy of India (DPSP) are the guidelines or principles to be kept in citation while framing laws and policies.
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy is contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India,
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court.
  • DPSPs have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland.

Additional Information

ArticleTitleDescription
Article 47Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.The State is responsible for raising the nutrition levels, improving the standard of living, and promoting public health.
Article 49Custody and disposal of the properties of freed areasThis article pertains to the disposal of property left by emigrants and the custody of such properties.
Article 51Promotion of international peace and securityThis article deals with the duty of the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations with other nations.
42

The Siberian Shelf, one of the coastal shelves of the Arctic Ocean, is the largest continental shelf on Earth. How many kilometres does it extend offshore?

  1. ((a))

    600 km

  2. ((b))

    910 km

  3. ((c))

    1,700 km

  4. ((d))

    1,500 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1,500 km

The correct answer is 1,500 km

Key Points

  • The Siberian Shelf is a coastal shelf in the Arctic Ocean and is the largest continental shelf of the Earth, a part of the continental shelf of Russia
  • It extends from the continent of Eurasia in the general area of North Siberia (hence the name) into the Arctic Ocean.
  • It stretches 1,500 kilometers (930 mi) offshore.
  • The Siberian Shelf is the habitat for numerous flora and fauna.

Additional Information

  • A continental shelf is the edge of a continent that lies under the ocean.
  • Continents are the seven main divisions of land on Earth.
  • A continental shelf extends from the coastline of a continent to a drop-off point called the shelf break.
  • From the break, the shelf descends toward the deep ocean floor in what is called the Continental slope.
43

Which of the following does NOT play a crucial role in shaping Indian monsoons?

  1. ((a))

    Jet Stream

  2. ((b))

    Western Disturbances 

  3. ((c))

    Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)

  4. ((d))

    Tibetan Plateau

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Western Disturbances 

The correct answer is Western Disturbances

Key Points

  • Western Disturbances do not play a crucial role in shaping Indian monsoons.
  • Western Disturbances are extratropical storms that originate in the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea,
  • It cause rain and snow in the winter in North India and Pakistan.
  • Western Disturbances originate in the Mediterranean region and move towards India.
  • They primarily bring rainfall and snowfall to the northern regions of India, including the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.

Additional Information

  • Other factors that do influence the Indian monsoon
  • The shift in the position of the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
  • The differential heating and cooling of land and water
  • The Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream
  • The heating of Tibet plateau
  • The Tropical easterly jet stream
  • El Nino–Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
  • Indian ocean dipole
44

The English novel ‘Little Women’ was written by which of the following authors?

  1. ((a))

    George Eliot

  2. ((b))

    Herman Melville

  3. ((c))

    Louisa May Alcott 

  4. ((d))

    Anthony Trollope

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Louisa May Alcott 

The correct answer is Louisa May Alcott

Key Points

  • Louisa May Alcott wrote the English novel Little Women
  • Louisa May Alcott (1832-1888) was an American writer and feminist.
  • The first volume of Little Women was published on September 30, 1868.
  • The semi-autobiographical novel is about Alcott's time spent with her sisters in Concord, Massachusetts.
  • The book was inspired by Alcott's family.

Additional Information

AuthorFamous Books
George EliotMiddlemarch, Adam Bede, The Mill on the Floss
Herman MelvilleMoby-Dick, Bartleby, the Scrivener, Billy Budd, Sailor
Anthony TrollopeBarchester Towers, The Warden, Framley Parsonage
45

After independence, the 1st national games were hosted by which of the following cities?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Bombay

  4. ((d))

    Lucknow

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lucknow

The correct answer is Lucknow 

Key Points

  • The first National Games of India after independence were hosted in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
  • It Held in Lahore in 1924, and were previously known as the Indian Olympic Games​
  • The first National Games held on the lines of the Olympics took place in New Delhi in 1985.
  • The first National Games after independence symbolized the nation’s renewed focus on fostering sporting talent across the country.​​

Additional InformationNational Games in india:

  • The duration and the regulations of the National Games are entirely within the jurisdiction of the Indian Olympic Association.
  • The first three editions were all held in the city of Lahore.
  • After the eighth edition in 1938 in Calcutta, the event was christened as the National Games.
  • The city of Lucknow hosted the National Games in its first post-independence avatar.
  • The 37th edition was held in Goa from 25 october to 9th november 2023.
  • The official mascot for the 2023 National Games of India was Moga, an Indian bison.
  • The motto of the 37th National Games was "Get Set Goa".
46

How many seats are reserved for scheduled castes in Lok Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    86

  2. ((b))

    82

  3. ((c))

    84

  4. ((d))

    85

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

84

The correct answer is 84.

Key Points

  • For the purpose of constituting the Lok Sabha, the whole country has been divided into 543 Parliamentary Constituencies.
  • Each one of which elects one member.
  • Some seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • As per the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008,
  • 412 are general.
  • 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes.
  • 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes.

Additional Information

Delimitation Commission

  • The job of delimitation is assigned to a high power body.
  • Such a body is known as Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission.
  • In India, such Delimitation Commission has been constituted four times.
  • The last commission was undertaken in 2002 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002.
47

In food processing, which miscellaneous constituent obtained from the maize plant is mixed with water or juice and boiled to form fillings and give products a glossy semi-clear finish

  1. ((a))

    Cornstarch

  2. ((b))

    Acacia

  3. ((c))

    Gelatin

  4. ((d))

    Algin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cornstarch

The correct answer is Cornstarch

Key Points

  • Cornstarch, derived from the maize plant, is commonly used in food processing.
  • When mixed with water or juice and heated, it forms a thick, glossy, and semi-clear gel-like consistency.
  • This property makes it ideal for fillings, sauces, gravies,
  • It provide a shiny finish to food products such as pies and desserts.

Additional Information

  • Acacia:
  • Acacia refers to a genus of shrubs and trees, but in the context of substances, it often refers to gum arabic.
  • It is a natural gum made of hardened sap from various Acacia tree species.
  • It is commonly used as a thickening agent, emulsifier, or stabilizer in food products, pharmaceuticals, and cosmetics.
  • Gelatin:
  • Gelatin is a protein obtained by boiling the skin, tendons, ligaments, or bones of animals, often cows or pigs.
  • It is commonly used in food products like jelly, marshmallows, and gummy candies, as well as in pharmaceuticals and cosmetics.
  • Gelatin is known for its gelling and thickening properties.
  • Algin:
  • Algin, or alginate, is a natural polysaccharide extracted from brown seaweed.
  • It is widely used in the food industry as a thickening, gelling, or stabilizing agent.
  • Alginates also have applications in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and even dentistry.
48

Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India deals with the limitations of the executive powers of the State?

  1. ((a))

    Article 168

  2. ((b))

    Article 177

  3. ((c))

    Article 165

  4. ((d))

    Article 162

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 162

The correct answer is Article 162.

Key Points

  • Article 162 of the Constitution of India defines the extent of the executive power of the State.
  • It states that the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws.
  • However, the executive power of a State is subject to and limited by the executive power expressly conferred by the Constitution or by any law made by the Parliament.
  • This article ensures that the executive actions of the State do not overstep the boundaries set by the Constitution and the laws enacted by the Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Article 168
  • Article 168 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of state legislatures.
  • It states that every State shall have a Legislature which shall consist of the Governor and one House or two Houses, as the case may be.
  • Article 177
  • Article 177 deals with the rights of Ministers and Advocate-General as respects the Houses of Legislatures.
  • It states that every Minister and the Advocate-General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, the Legislative Assembly of the State, and for both Houses in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, but shall not be entitled to vote.
  • Article 165
  • Article 165 deals with the Advocate-General for the State.
  • It states that the Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate-General for the State.
49

Who among the following founded an organisation called the Indian Association, in 1876, along with Surendranath Banerjee?

  1. ((a))

    Benoy Krishna Bose

  2. ((b))

    Jatindranath Mukherjee

  3. ((c))

    Ananda Mohan Bose

  4. ((d))

    Chittaranjan Das

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ananda Mohan Bose

The correct answer is Ananda Mohan Bose

Key Points 

  • Ananda Mohan Bose founded the Indian Association along with Surendranath Banerjee in 1876.
  • Ananda Mohan Bose was an Indian politician, academic, social reformer, and lawyer during the British Raj.
  • In 1874**, he became the first Indian Wrangler (a student who has completed the third year of the Mathematical Tripos with first-class honours) of the Cambridge University**.
  • He was also a prominent religious leader of Brahmoism and with Sivanath Sastri a leading light of Adi Dharm

Additional Information

  • Indian Association:-
  • Indian Association was a political organization that aimed to promote the interests of the Indian community and to work towards the attainment of political rights and freedom from British rule.
  • The Indian Association merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886.
  • Indian Association played a significant role in the Indian National Movement and was one of the first organizations to demand self-government and representation for Indians in the British colonial administration.
  • Surendranath Banerjee:-
  • He was a prominent Indian nationalist leader and a member of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was also a journalist, lawyer, and a member of the Bengal Legislative Council.
50

Which State won the 11th Junior National Men’s Hockey Championship?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh Hockey, on 29 May 2022, won the 12th Hockey India Junior Men National Championship by defeating Hockey Chandigarh (2-0) in the final.
  • The final match was held in Kovilpatti, Tamil Nadu.
  • Hockey Haryana claimed third place in the competition with a 3-0 win against Hockey Odisha.
  • Uttar Pradesh Hockey also won the 11th Hockey India Junior Men National Championship in 2021.
  • Haryana emerged winners of the 12th Hockey India sub-junior women's national championship 2022.
  • Uttar Pradesh Hockey defeated Madhya Pradesh Hockey (3-0) to secure third place in the tournament.
  • Odisha was crowned as the Champions of the 12th Hockey India Senior Women National Championship 2022.
  • The 12th Hockey India Senior Women National Championship 2022 was held on May 6 in Bhopal, MP.
  • Former Indian women's hockey team captain Elvera Britto passed away in April 2022.

Additional Information

  • Hockey India
  • All of India's hockey-related events for both men and women are organised, managed, and carried out by Hockey India.
  • The Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, Government of India has acknowledged it as the only organisation in charge of developing hockey in India.
  • Hockey India, with its headquarter in New Delhi, was founded on May 20, 2009, and is a member of the International Hockey Federation (FIH), the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), and the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
  • Players at the sub-junior, junior, and senior levels are trained by Hockey India with assistance from the Sports Authority of India and the Department of Sports, Government of India.
  • It was established after the IOA disbanded the Indian Hockey Federation in 2008.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

WIP, ULN, SOL, ?, OUH

  1. ((a))

    RRK

  2. ((b))

    QSK

  3. ((c))

    QRJ

  4. ((d))

    RSJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

QRJ

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "QRJ".

52

A, B, C, D, E, F and G were sitting in a straight row, facing north. G was second to the left of A. Only C was to the right of F. A was exactly between B and D. E was to the immediate left of F. Who among the following was at the extreme left end of the row?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

G

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F and G were sitting in a straight row, facing north.

Only C was to the right of F.

E was to the immediate left of F.

G was second to the left of A.

A was exactly between B and D.

So, G was at the extreme left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "G".

53

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(16, 40, 5),(3, 27, 18)

  1. ((a))

    (8, 29, 7) 

  2. ((b))

    (9, 27, 6) 

  3. ((c))

    (7, 26, 8) 

  4. ((d))

    (9, 35, 6) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(9, 27, 6) 

The logic followed here is: (1st number × 3rd number) / 2 = 2nd number.

(16, 40, 5) → (16 × 5) / 2 = 80 / 2 = 40

(3, 27, 18) → (3 × 18) / 2 = 54 / 2 = 27

Let check option one by one:

1)  (8, 29, 7) → (8 × 7) / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28 ≠ 29

2)  (9, 27, 6) → (9 × 6) / 2 = 54 /2 = 27 

3)  (7, 26, 8) → (7 × 8) / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28 ≠ 26

4)  (9, 35, 6) → (9 × 6) / 2 = 54 / 2 = 27 ≠ 35

Hence, the correct answer is "(9, 27, 6)".

54

In a certain code language, ‘FOOD’ is coded as ‘HMQB’ and ‘EDGE’ is coded as ‘GBIC’. How will ‘MEAT’ be coded in the same language? 

  1. ((a))

    OCDS

  2. ((b))

    PCCR

  3. ((c))

    PDCR

  4. ((d))

    OCCR

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

OCCR

The logic followed here is:

‘FOOD’ is coded as ‘HMQB’

‘EDGE’ is coded as ‘GBIC’

Similarly, ‘MEAT’ will be coded:

Hence, the correct answer is "OCCR".

55

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded? 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

56

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Clarify : Explain

  1. ((a))

    Raise : Lift

  2. ((b))

    Boring : Exciting

  3. ((c))

    Blow : Air

  4. ((d))

    Mother : Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Raise : Lift

The logic followed here is:

Clarify : Explain → These both words mean to make something clearer or more understandable. They are synonymous.

Similarly, 

Raise : Lift → Both are synonymous. They both involve the action of elevating something.

Hence, the correct answer is "Raise : Lift".

57

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

58

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

60

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern? 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

All 3 bottom-right , middle and middle-right symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Top-left symbol is replaced by a new symbol.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

All 3 top-left, middle and middle-right symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

Bottom-right symbol is replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

61

Six letters, L, M, N, O, P and Q are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown here. Find the letter on the face opposite M.

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P

For find the opposite surface of 'M', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 3,

From both dices, Q and N are common. So, remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

So, P will be opposite to M.

Hence, the correct answer is "P".

62

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, and figure 3 to 4:

Top 2 middle and bottom 2 middle symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

Diagonal symbols are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3, and figure 4 to 5:

Top 2 left and bottom 2 left symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

Top 2 right and bottom 2 right symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

63

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

64

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given e×pression.

23 * 9 * 13 * 96 * 2 * 92

  1. ((a))

    ×, +, –, ÷, =

  2. ((b))

    ÷, +, ×, –, =

  3. ((c))

    +, –, ×, ÷, =

  4. ((d))

    +, ×, –, ÷, =

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

+, ×, –, ÷, =

Given equation: 23 * 9 * 13 * 96 * 2 * 92

Option 1) ×, +, –, ÷, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 × 9 + 13 - 96 ÷ 2 = 92

⇒ 23 × 9 + 13 - 48 = 92

207 + 13 - 48 = 92

200 - 48 = 92

⇒ 152 ≠ 92

Option 2) ÷, +, ×, –, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 ÷ 9 + 13 × 96 - 2 = 92

⇒ 2.5 + 13 × 96 - 2 = 92

2.5 + 1248 - 2 = 92

1250.5 - 2 = 92

⇒ 1248.5 ≠ 92

Option 3) +, –, ×, ÷, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 + 9 - 13 × 96 ÷ 2 = 92

⇒ 23 + 9 - 13 × 48 = 92

⇒ 23 + 9 - 624 = 92

32 - 624 = 92

⇒ -592 ≠ 92

Option 4) +, ×, –, ÷, =

Mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 + 9 × 13 - 96 ÷ 2 = 92

⇒ 23 + 9 × 13 - 48 = 92

⇒ 23 + 117 - 48 = 92

⇒ 140 - 48 = 92

⇒ 92 = 92

Hence, the correct answer is "+, ×, –, ÷, =".

65

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

66

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

67

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

109, 101, 93, 85, 77, ?

  1. ((a))

    52

  2. ((b))

    61

  3. ((c))

    69

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

69

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "69".

68

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

4 ∶ 125 ∶∶ 9 ∶ ? ∶∶ 11 ∶ 1728

  1. ((a))

    999

  2. ((b))

    512

  3. ((c))

    1000

  4. ((d))

    729

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1000

The logic followed here is: (1st number + 1)3 = 2nd number

4 ∶ 125 ⇒ (4 + 1)3 = 125

11 ∶ 1728 ⇒ (11 + 1)3 = 1728

Similarly, 9 ∶ ? ⇒ (9 + 1)3 = 1000

Hence, the correct answer is "1000".

69

Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All computers are machines.

Some computers are robots.

Conclusions:

I. All robots are computers.

II. Some machines are robots.

  1. ((a))

    Only Conclusion I follows. 

  2. ((b))

    Only Conclusion II follows. 

  3. ((c))

    Both Conclusions I and II follow. 

  4. ((d))

    Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only Conclusion II follows. 

Statements:

All computers are machines.

Some computers are robots.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All robots are computers. - False (because Some computers are robots given. So, it can be possible but not definite)

II. Some machines are robots. - True (because All computers are machines and Some computers are robots. So, Some machines are robots too)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

70

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

71

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

13

Counting the triangles are there in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "13".

72

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

73

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left, to-right and middle elements (all 3 elements) are interchanging their position.

Bottom 2 corner elements are interchanging their position with each other.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All 4 corner symbols are shifting in an anticlockwise direction.

Middle symbols are replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

74

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

87 + 85 − 25 × 3 ÷ 291 = 3

  1. ((a))

    ÷ and +

  2. ((b))
    • and − 
  3. ((c))

    = and ÷

  4. ((d))

    − and × 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

= and ÷

Given equation: 87 + 85 − 25 × 3 ÷ 291 = 3

Option 1) ÷ and +

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 87 ÷ 85 − 25 × 3 + 291 = 3

⇒ 1.02 − 25 × 3 + 291 = 3

⇒ 1.02 − 75 + 291 = 3

⇒ 292.02 − 75 = 3

⇒ 217.02 ≠ 3

Option 2) + and −

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 87 - 85 + 25 × 3 ÷ 291 = 3

⇒ 87 - 85 + 25 × 0.01 = 3

⇒ 87 - 85 + 0.25 = 3

⇒ 87.25 - 85 = 3

⇒ 2.25 ≠ 3

Option 3) = and ÷

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 87 + 85 − 25 × 3 = 291 ÷ 3

⇒ 87 + 85 − 75 = 97

⇒ 172 − 75 = 97

​⇒ 97 = 97

Option 4) − and × 

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 87 + 85 × 25 - 3 ÷ 291 = 3

⇒ 87 + 85 × 25 - 0.01 = 3

⇒ 87 + 2125 - 0.01 = 3

2212 - 0.01 = 3

⇒ 2211.99 ≠ 3

Hence, the correct answer is "= and ÷".

75

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

If the breadth of the rectangle is decreased by 40% and its length is increased by 25%, find the percentage change in its area.

  1. ((a))

    5% increase

  2. ((b))

    90% decrease

  3. ((c))

    75% decrease

  4. ((d))

    25% decrease

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

25% decrease

Given:

Original breadth of the rectangle = b

Original length of the rectangle = l

Breadth decreased by 40% ⇒ New breadth = 0.6b

Length increased by 25% ⇒ New length = 1.25l

Formula Used:

Area of a rectangle = length × breadth

Percentage change in area = NewAreaOriginalAreaOriginalArea×100\frac{New Area - Original Area}{Original Area} \times 100

Calculation:

Original Area = l × b

New Area = (1.25l) × (0.6b)

New Area = 0.75lb

Percentage change in area = 0.75lblblb×100\frac{0.75lb - lb}{lb} \times 100

Percentage change in area = 0.25lblb×100\frac{-0.25lb}{lb} \times 100

Percentage change in area = -25%

The percentage change in its area is 25% decrease.

77

When 24 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to 60%. The two-fifth of that number is:

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

24

Given:

When 24 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to 60%.

Formula Used:

Let the number be x .

Equation: x - 24 = 0.6x

Solve for x and then find two-fifth of that number: \frac{2}{5}x

Calculation:

x - 24 = 0.6x

⇒ x - 0.6x = 24

⇒ 0.4x = 24

⇒ x = 240.4\frac{24}{0.4}

⇒ x = 60

Two-fifth of 60:

25×60\frac{2}{5} \times 60 = 24

The two-fifth of that number is 24.

78

A bus is moving at a speed of 40kmh40 \frac{\mathrm{km}}{\mathrm{h}} and is ahead of a car, which is moving at a speed of 75kmh75 \frac{\mathrm{km}}{\mathrm{h}}. What is the distance (in km) between the bus and the car, if it takes 15 minutes for the car to catch up with the bus?

  1. ((a))

    8.75

  2. ((b))

    8.54

  3. ((c))

    5.87

  4. ((d))

    9.12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8.75

Given:

Speed of the bus = 40 km/h

Speed of the car = 75 km/h

Time taken for the car to catch up = 15 minutes = 15/60 hours = 0.25 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Relative Speed × Time

Calculation:

Relative Speed = Speed of the car - Speed of the bus

Relative Speed = 75 - 40

Relative Speed = 35 km/h

Distance = Relative Speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 35 × 0.25

⇒ Distance = 8.75 km

The distance between the bus and the car is 8.75 km.

79

Simplify the following.

1215+1625\frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{5+\frac{1}{6-\frac{2}{5}}}}

  1. ((a))

    165325\frac{165}{325}

  2. ((b))

    262145 \frac{262}{145}

  3. ((c))

    145262\frac{145}{262}

  4. ((d))

    5128 \frac{51}{28}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

145262\frac{145}{262}

Given:

1215+1625\frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{5+\frac{1}{6-\frac{2}{5}}}}

Calculation:

1215+1625\frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{5+\frac{1}{6-\frac{2}{5}}}}

⇒ 1215+13025\frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{5+\frac{1}{\frac{30-2}{5}}}}

⇒ 1215+528\frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{5+\frac{5}{28}}}

⇒ 121140+528 \frac{1}{2-\frac{1}{\frac{140+5}{28}}}

⇒ 1228145 \frac{1}{2-\frac{28}{145}}

⇒ 129028145\frac{1}{\frac{290 - 28}{145}}

⇒ 145262\frac{145}{262}

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

80

A machine was offered a 16% trade discount on the marked price of Rs. 30,000. After some cash discount, the machine was sold for Rs. 23,184. The cash discount is:

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    6%

  4. ((d))

    8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8%

Given:

Marked price of the machine = Rs. 30,000

Trade discount = 16%

Selling price after cash discount = Rs. 23,184

Formula Used:

Trade Discount Price = Marked Price × (1 - Trade Discount)

Cash Discount Price = Trade Discount Price × (1 - Cash Discount)

Calculation:

Trade Discount Price = 30,000 × (1 - 0.16)

Trade Discount Price = 30,000 × 0.84

Trade Discount Price = 25,200

Let the cash discount be x.

Cash Discount Price = 25,200 × (1 - x)

Given, Cash Discount Price = 23,184

⇒ 25,200 × (1 - x) = 23,184

⇒ 1 - x = 23,184 / 25,200

⇒ 1 - x = 0.92

⇒ x = 1 - 0.92

⇒ x = 0.08 = 8%

The cash discount is 8%.

81

A camp has provisions for 60 persons for 18 days. In how many days will the same provisions finish off if the strength of the camp is increased to 90 persons? 

  1. ((a))

    12 days

  2. ((b))

    18 days

  3. ((c))

    8 days

  4. ((d))

    15 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 days

Given:

Provisions for 60 persons for 18 days.

Strength increased to 90 persons.

Formula Used:

Total provisions = Number of persons × Number of days

New number of days = Total provisions / New number of persons

Calculation:

Total provisions = 60 × 18

Total provisions = 1080 person-days

New number of days = 1080 / 90

New number of days = 12 days

The provisions will finish off in 12 days if the strength of the camp is increased to 90 persons.

82

The average marks of three classes of 50, 65 and 45 students, respectively, are 75, 80 and 90. Find the average marks of all the students. 

  1. ((a))

    91.65

  2. ((b))

    81.25

  3. ((c))

    75.81

  4. ((d))

    71.65

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

81.25

Given:

Number of students in Class 1 = 50

Average marks of Class 1 = 75

Number of students in Class 2 = 65

Average marks of Class 2 = 80

Number of students in Class 3 = 45

Average marks of Class 3 = 90

Formula Used:

Average marks = Total marks of all students / Total number of students

Calculation:

Total marks of Class 1 = 50 × 75 = 3750

Total marks of Class 2 = 65 × 80 = 5200

Total marks of Class 3 = 45 × 90 = 4050

Total marks of all students = 3750 + 5200 + 4050

Total marks of all students = 13000

Total number of students = 50 + 65 + 45

Total number of students = 160

Average marks = 13000 / 160

Average marks = 81.25

The average marks of all the students is 81.25.

83

A device is available for Rs. 8,000 cash or Rs. 500 down payment followed by four equal monthly instalments. If the rate of simple interest charged is 25% per annum, then find the instalment, to the nearest rupee.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,977

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,987

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,970

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,790

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 1,970

Given:

After down payment, remaining amount = ₹8,000 - ₹500 = ₹7,500

Rate of interest (R) = 25% per annum

Total instalments (n) = 4

Formula used:

Instalment =  100×Total Amount Payable100×n+R×n(n1)2×12\frac{100 \times \text{Total Amount Payable}}{100 \times n + R \times \frac{n(n-1)}{2 \times 12}}

Calculation:

Step 1: Total amount payable:

Total Interest = 7500×25×412×100=625\frac{7500 \times 25 \times 4}{12 \times 100} = ₹625

Total Amount Payable = ₹7,500 + ₹625 = ₹8,125

Step 2: Calculate the instalment:

Instalment = 100×8125100×4+25×4(41)2×12\frac{100 \times 8125}{100 \times 4 + 25 \times \frac{4(4-1)}{2 \times 12}}

Instalment = 100×8125400+25×4×324\frac{100 \times 8125}{400 + 25 \times \frac{4 \times 3}{24}}

Instalment = 100×8125400+25×0.5\frac{100 \times 8125}{400 + 25 \times 0.5}

Instalment = 812500412.51969.69\frac{812500}{412.5} ≈ 1969.69

∴ The monthly instalment is ₹1,970.

84

Which of the following numbers is NOT a prime number?

  1. ((a))

    1571

  2. ((b))

    1471

  3. ((c))

    1271

  4. ((d))

    1171

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1271

Shortcut Trick

To check if a number N is a prime number, test its divisibility by primes up to √N.

For 1271, √1271 ≈ 35.6. Primes to check: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31.

We find that 1271 ÷ 31 = 41.

Since 1271 has factors other than 1 and itself, it is a composite number.

∴ The correct answer is 1271.

Alternate Method

Given: A set of four-digit numbers: 1571, 1471, 1271, 1171.

Method: A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has only two divisors: 1 and itself. A number that has more than two divisors is composite.

⇒ Let us test 1271 for factors:

⇒ 1271 ÷ 31 = 41

⇒ This means 1271 = 31 × 41.

⇒ The factors of 1271 are 1, 31, 41, and 1271.

⇒ Since it has more than two factors, 1271 is NOT a prime number.

⇒ For the other options: 1571, 1471, and 1171 have no factors other than 1 and themselves, so they are prime numbers.

∴ The correct answer is 1271.

Additional Information

Prime Number

A natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself. 2 is the only even prime number.

Composite Number

A positive integer greater than 1 that has at least one divisor other than 1 and itself. 1 is neither prime nor composite.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 1. Example: (8, 15).

Primality Test

To check if n is prime, verify divisibility by all prime numbers p such that p ≤ √n.

85

The cost price of an item is one-fourth of its selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage on that item?

  1. ((a))

    Gain of 300%

  2. ((b))

    Loss of 100%

  3. ((c))

    Gain of 100%

  4. ((d))

    Loss of 300%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gain of 300%

Given:

The cost price of an item is one-fourth of its selling price.

Formula Used:

Gain percentage = (Selling PriceCost PriceCost Price)×100\left(\frac{{\text{{Selling Price}} - \text{{Cost Price}}}}{{\text{{Cost Price}}}}\right) \times 100

Calculation:

Let the selling price (SP) be 4x.

Cost price (CP) = SP / 4

CP = 4x / 4

CP = x

Gain = SP - CP

Gain = 4x - x

Gain = 3x

Gain percentage = (3xx)×100\left(\frac{{3x}}{{x}}\right) \times 100

Gain percentage = 3 × 100

Gain percentage = 300%

The correct answer is option 1 (Gain of 300%).

86

The sum of five consecutive integers is 235. Which of the five integers is prime?

  1. ((a))

    47

  2. ((b))

    51

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    53

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

47

Given:

The sum of five consecutive integers is 235.

Formula Used:

Sum of n consecutive integers = n × average of the integers

Calculation:

Let the five consecutive integers be a - 2, a - 1, a, a + 1, a + 2.

Sum of these integers = (a - 2) + (a - 1) + a + (a + 1) + (a + 2)

Sum of five consecutive integers = 5a

Given:

5a = 235

⇒ a = 235 / 5

⇒ a = 47

So, the five integers are 45, 46, 47, 48, 49.

Among these, 47 is the only prime number.

The correct answer is option 1: 47

87

The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls in a school is 5 : 7. If there are 1148 girls in the school, how many boys are there in that school?

  1. ((a))

    830

  2. ((b))

    840

  3. ((c))

    820

  4. ((d))

    810

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

820

Given:

The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls in a school is 5:7.

Number of girls in the school = 1148

Formula Used:

Let the number of boys be 5x and the number of girls be 7x.

Ratio of boys to girls = 5x / 7x

Calculation:

We know, Number of girls = 7x

⇒ 7x = 1148

⇒ x = 1148 / 7

⇒ x = 164

Number of boys = 5x

⇒ Number of boys = 5 × 164

⇒ Number of boys = 820

The number of boys in the school is 820.

88

The internal radius of a metallic pipe is 2 cm and its external radius is 2.7 cm. If the length of the pipe is 10 cm, then find the volume of the metal used for this pipe. 

(Useπ=227)\rm \left(\right. Use \left.\pi=\frac{22}{7}\right)

  1. ((a))

    110.5 cm3

  2. ((b))

    101.2 cm3

  3. ((c))

    93.4 cm3

  4. ((d))

    103.4 cm3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

103.4 cm3

Given:

Internal radius of the pipe (r1) = 2 cm.

External radius of the pipe (r2) = 2.7 cm.

Length of the pipe (h) = 10 cm.

Formula Used:

Volume of the metal used = Volume of the external cylinder - Volume of the internal cylinder

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h

Calculation:

Volume of the external cylinder = πr22h

Volume of the internal cylinder = πr12h

Volume of the metal used = πr22h - πr12h

Volume of the metal used = πh(r22 - r12)

r2=2.7,cm,,r1=2,cm,,h=10,cmr_{2}=2.7 , \text{cm}, , r_{1}=2 , \text{cm}, , h=10 , \text{cm}

Volume of the metal used = (22/7) × 10 × (2.72 - 22)

⇒ Volume of the metal used = (22/7) × 10 × (7.29 - 4)

⇒ Volume of the metal used = (22/7) × 10 × 3.29

⇒ Volume of the metal used = 22 × 4.7

⇒ Volume of the metal used = 103.4 cm3

The correct answer is option 4.

89

A sum of Rs. 32,760 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid in three equal annual instalments. If the rate of interest is 20% compounded annually, then the value of each instalment is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 11,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 10,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 15,552

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 16,552

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 15,552

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 32,760

Rate of interest (R) = 20% compounded annually

Number of instalments (n) = 3

Formula Used:

The formula for calculating the equal annual instalment (A) for a loan with compound interest is:

A=P×R1(1+R)n A = \frac{P \times R}{1 - (1 + R)^{-n}}

Where,

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per period

n = Number of instalments

Calculation:

Rate of interest per period (R) = 20% = 0.20

Substitute the values into the formula:

A=32760×0.201(1+0.20)3 A = \frac{32760 \times 0.20}{1 - (1 + 0.20)^{-3}}

A=65521(1.20)3 A = \frac{6552}{1 - (1.20)^{-3}}

A=6552111.203 A = \frac{6552}{1 - \frac{1}{1.20^3}}

1.2031.728 1.20^3 \approx 1.728

A=6552111.728 A = \frac{6552}{1 - \frac{1}{1.728}}

A=655210.5787 A = \frac{6552}{1 - 0.5787}

A=65520.4213 A = \frac{6552}{0.4213}

A15552 A \approx 15552

The value of each instalment is Rs. 15,552.

90

If 27 identical small spheres are made out of a big sphere of diameter 6 cm, what is the radius (in cm) of the small sphere? 

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    1.5

  4. ((d))

    0.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Shortcut Trick

Volume is proportional to the cube of the radius (r3).

Let R be the radius of the big sphere and r be the radius of the small sphere.

n × r3 = R3 ⇒ 27 × r3 = (6 ÷ 2)3

27 × r3 = 33 ⇒ 27 × r3 = 27

r3 = 1 ⇒ r = 1 cm

∴ The correct answer is 1 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of big sphere = 6 cm ⇒ Radius (R) = 3 cm

Number of small spheres (n) = 27

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere = (4/3) × π × r3

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of big sphere = 27 × Volume of one small sphere

⇒ (4/3) × π × R3 = 27 × (4/3) × π × r3

⇒ R3 = 27 × r3

⇒ 33 = 27 × r3

⇒ 27 = 27 × r3

⇒ r3 = 1

⇒ r = 1 cm

∴ The correct answer is 1 cm.

Additional Information

Surface Area of Sphere

The total surface area of a sphere is given by the formula 4 × π × r2.

Volume Conservation

When a solid is melted and recast into other shapes, the total volume remains constant.

Hemisphere Properties

Volume of hemisphere = (2/3) × π × r3 and Total Surface Area = 3 × π × r2.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following components is responsible for translating domain names (e.g., www.example.com) into IP addresses (e.g. 192.168.1.1) to enable communication over the internet?

  1. ((a))

    Firewall

  2. ((b))

    Modem

  3. ((c))

    DNS Server

  4. ((d))

    Router

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

DNS Server

The correct answer is DNS Server.

Key Points

  • DNS Server (Domain Name System Server):
  • Translates human-readable website addresses (like [invalid URL removed]) into machine-readable IP addresses (like 172.217.160.142).
  • Enables users to access websites by their names instead of memorizing complex IP addresses.
  • Plays a crucial role in how the internet functions.

Additional Information

  • Firewall:
  • Acts as a security barrier between your computer and the internet.
  • Monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic, blocking malicious attempts to access your computer or network.
  • Helps prevent unauthorized access, viruses, and other cyber threats.
  • Modem:
  • Modulates and demodulates data signals.
  • Converts digital data from your computer into analog signals for transmission over communication lines (like phone lines or cable lines).
  • Enables your computer to connect to the internet through your internet service provider (ISP).
  • Router:
  • Directs network traffic between different devices on a network.
  • Connects multiple devices (like computers, smartphones, and smart home devices) to a single internet connection.
  • Allows devices to communicate with each other within the network and with the internet
92

Which of the following shortcut keys is used to get context sensitive Help in MS Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Press F6 

  2. ((b))

    Press F10

  3. ((c))

    Press F1

  4. ((d))

    Press F7 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Press F1

The correct answer is Press F1.

Key Points

  • F1:
  • Typically opens the Help menu or displays help information within an application.
  • This is a common shortcut across many programs.

Additional Information

  • F6:
  • Often moves the cursor to the address bar in web browsers.
  • This allows for quick navigation between pages.
  • F10:
  • Activates the menu bar of the currently active application.
  • This enables you to access menus and commands without using the mouse.
  • F7:
  • Usually initiates spell check and grammar check within applications like word processors.
  • This helps ensure the accuracy of your written content.
93

In Microsoft Word 2019, which of the following settings is NOT found in the 'Indents and Spacing' tab of the 'Paragraph' dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    General

  2. ((b))

    Indentation

  3. ((c))

    Spacing

  4. ((d))

    Pagination

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pagination

The correct answer is Pagination.

Key Points

  • Pagination:
  • The process of numbering pages in a document.
  • In Microsoft Word 2019, you can easily insert page numbers into headers or footers.
  • You can customize the numbering style (e.g., 1, 2, 3 or i, ii, iii) and choose where the numbers appear on the page.

Additional Information

  • General:
  • Refers to the default font and paragraph settings in Microsoft Word 2019.
  • These settings can be customized to your preferences.
  • The General tab in the Font and Paragraph dialog boxes allows you to adjust font size, style, color, spacing, alignment, and more.
  • Indentation:
  • The amount of space by which a line or paragraph is set in from the margin.
  • In Word 2019, you can easily adjust indentation using the rulers or the Paragraph dialog box.
  • Indentation is commonly used for creating lists, quotations, and creating visual structure within your document.
  • Spacing:
  • Refers to the amount of space between lines and paragraphs in a document.
  • In Word 2019, you can adjust line spacing (e.g., single, double, or multiple) and paragraph spacing (before and after paragraphs) using the Paragraph dialog box.
  • Proper spacing enhances readability and the overall appearance of your document.
94

When editing data in an MS Excel 365 worksheet, which of the following actions will allow you to reverse your recent changes?

  1. ((a))

    Paste

  2. ((b))

    Undo

  3. ((c))

    Save

  4. ((d))

    Copy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Undo

The correct answer is Undo.

Key Points

  • Undo:
  • This command reverses the last action you performed in the Excel worksheet.
  • For example, if you accidentally deleted a cell, you can use Undo to restore
  • it. It's a crucial tool for quickly correcting mistakes.
  • Shortcut Key: Ctrl+Z

Additional Information

  • Paste:
  • This command inserts the content that was previously copied or cut.
  • You can paste data, formulas, formatting, or even entire cell ranges.
  • Excel offers various paste options, such as pasting values only, formulas only, or formatting only.
  • Shortcut Key: Ctrl+V
  • Save:
  • This command stores the current state of your Excel worksheet in a file.
  • Saving your work regularly is essential to prevent data loss.
  • In Excel 365, your work is automatically saved to the cloud, but manual saving provides an extra layer of security.
  • Shortcut Key: Ctrl+S
  • Copy:
  • This command creates a duplicate of the selected cells.
  • The copied content can then be pasted elsewhere in the same worksheet or into a different worksheet or document.
  • This is a fundamental tool for efficiently moving and duplicating data within Excel.
  • Shortcut Key: Ctrl+C
95

What is the shortcut command in MS-Word 365 for selecting all the words from the file?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + X

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + C

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + A

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Z

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + A

The correct answer is Ctrl + A.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + A:
  • This powerful shortcut selects all cells within the current worksheet.
  • It's incredibly useful for tasks like formatting, copying, pasting, or deleting the entire contents of a sheet.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + X:
  • This shortcut cuts the selected cells.
  • The cut cells are temporarily stored in the clipboard, allowing you to paste them elsewhere in the worksheet or in another document.
  • Unlike copying, cutting removes the cells from their original location.
  • Ctrl + C
  • This command creates a duplicate of the selected cells.
  • The copied content can then be pasted elsewhere in the same worksheet or into a different worksheet or document.
  • This is a fundamental tool for efficiently moving and duplicating data within Excel.
  • Ctrl + Z
  • This command reverses the last action you performed in the Excel worksheet.
  • For example, if you accidentally deleted a cell, you can use Undo to restore
  • it. It's a crucial tool for quickly correcting mistakes.
96

Which keyboard shortcut allows you to edit the content of a selected cell directly in the cell itself in Microsoft Excel 365?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + E

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + C

  3. ((c))

    F12

  4. ((d))

    F2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

F2

The correct answer is F2.

Key Points

  • F2:
  • Edits the active cell: This key places the cursor within the active cell, allowing you to directly modify its contents (text, numbers, formulas).

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + E:
  • Fills data with Flash Fill: This powerful shortcut analyzes patterns in adjacent cells and automatically fills the current column based on the detected pattern.
  • For example, if you have a list of names in one column and start typing the first few letters of another name in the next column, Ctrl+E will often complete the rest of the name for you.
  • Ctrl + C:
  • Copies the selected cells: This shortcut creates a copy of the selected data, which can then be pasted elsewhere within the worksheet or in another document.
  • F12:
  • Saves the workbook as: This shortcut opens the "Save As" dialog box, allowing you to save the current workbook with a new name, in a different location, or in a different file format (e.g., .xlsx, .xlsb, .csv).
97

Which of the following keyboard shortcut keys is used to pick a new font for the selected text in MS-Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Alt + F 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Shift + F 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + F

  4. ((d))

    Shift + F 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + Shift + F 

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + F.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + Shift + F:
  • This shortcut opens the Advanced Find and Replace dialog box.
  • This provides more advanced search options than the basic Find and Replace, allowing you to search for specific formats, wildcards, and more.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + Alt + F:
  • This shortcut opens the Find dialog box.
  • This enables you to quickly search for specific words or phrases within your document.
  • Ctrl + F:
  • This is the most common shortcut for finding text.
  • It opens the Find dialog box, allowing you to search for specific words or phrases within your document.
  • Shift + F:
  • This shortcut moves the cursor to the next occurrence of the word or phrase that was previously found using the Find function.
98

What is the category of software that enables word processing, database management, graphic manipulation and spreadsheet creation? 

  1. ((a))

    Structure

  2. ((b))

    Application

  3. ((c))

    Framework

  4. ((d))

    System

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Application

The correct answer is Application.

Key Points

  • Application:
  • This refers to the specific software program itself.
  • For example, Microsoft Word is an application for word processing, Microsoft Excel is an application for spreadsheet creation, and Adobe Photoshop is an application for graphic manipulation.

Additional Information

  • Structure:
  • This refers to the underlying organization and design of the software.
  • It encompasses how the different components of the application interact, such as the user interface, data storage, and processing logic.
  • .A well-structured application is typically more efficient, reliable, and easier to maintain.
  • Framework:
  • This is a set of pre-built code libraries and tools that provide a foundation for developers to build applications more quickly and efficiently.
  • Frameworks often include features like user interface components, data handling routines, and security measures.
  • System:
  • This refers to the entire software ecosystem, including the operating system, hardware, and other software components that the application interacts with.
  • For example, a word processing application relies on the operating system to manage hardware resources, and it may interact with other applications like a printer driver.
99

Which social networking platform is known for its character limit on posts and real-time updates?

  1. ((a))

    Facebook

  2. ((b))

    LinkedIn

  3. ((c))

    Instagram

  4. ((d))

    Twitter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Twitter

The correct answer is Twitter.

Key Points

  • Twitter:
  • Founded: March 21, 2006
  • Founders: Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, Evan Williams
  • Focus: Short-form microblogging platform, known for real-time updates, news, and social commentary.

Additional Information

  • Facebook:
  • Founded: February 4, 2004
  • Founder: Mark Zuckerberg
  • Focus: Social networking platform for connecting with friends, family, and colleagues, sharing photos, videos, and updates.
  • LinkedIn:
  • Founded: December 28, 2002
  • Founders: Reid Hoffman, Allen Blue, Konstantin Guericke, Jean-Luc Vaillant, Eric Ly
  • Focus: Professional networking platform for building and maintaining professional relationships, finding jobs, and discovering career opportunities.
  • Instagram:
  • Founded: October 6, 2010
  • Founders: Kevin Systrom, Mike Krieger
  • Focus: Photo and video-sharing social media platform, popular for its visual content, filters, and stories.
100

In MS Excel 365, What is the main purpose of using a chart in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    To format text

  2. ((b))

    To perform calculations

  3. ((c))

    To store data 

  4. ((d))

    To visually represent data 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

To visually represent data 

The correct answer is To visually represent data.

Key Points

  • In MS Excel 365, the main purpose of using a chart is to visually represent data in a way that is easier to understand and interpret than raw numbers.
  • Charts transform numerical data into graphical formats like bar graphs, line graphs, pie charts, and more.

Additional Information

  • This visual representation helps to:   
  • Identify trends and patterns: Charts can quickly reveal trends, such as increases, decreases, or cyclical patterns within the data.
  • This is crucial for making informed decisions based on observed trends.
  • Compare data: Charts effectively compare different data points, sets, or categories. For example, a bar chart can easily show which product has the highest sales, or a line chart can illustrate how a particular metric has changed over time.
  • Communicate data effectively: Charts are a powerful tool for communicating data to others. They make complex information more accessible and engaging, making it easier for audiences to grasp key insights.
  • Gain deeper insights: By visualizing data, you can often uncover hidden relationships, anomalies, or outliers that might not be apparent from just looking at numbers. This can lead to valuable new insights and discoveries.

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