Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 17 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Which country did India beat in the Thomas Cup Finals in 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Indonesia

  2. ((b))

    Malaysia

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan

  4. ((d))

    Singapore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia

Key Points

  • India beat Indonesia in the 2022 Thomas Cup Finals.
  • India won its first Thomas Cup title on May 15, 2022, at the Impact Arena in Bangkok, Thailand.
  • The win came after defeating the 14-time champion Indonesia.
  • India defeated Indonesia with a commanding score of 3–0, showcasing their dominance in the match.

Additional Information

  • The Thomas Cup is a biennial event, which means it takes place once every two years.
  • It is the most prestigious international badminton team championship for men, organized by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).
  • The first Thomas Cup tournament was held in 1948-49, and it was named after Sir George Alan Thomas, a former English badminton player and the founder of the International Badminton Federation (now BWF).
  • The participating teams are from different countries, and the tournament follows a knockout format.
  • There are several annual badminton tournaments like the All England Open, Malaysia Open, Indonesia Open, and China Open, among others.
  • Quarterly events are more commonly used in business and finance to denote a company's financial results or meetings.
  • There are some international sporting events that are held every three years like the World Masters Games and the World Transplant Games.
2

Who among the following is a famous performer of Kalbelia dance form? 

  1. ((a))

    Minati Mishra

  2. ((b))

    Geeta Mahalik

  3. ((c))

    Gulabo Sapera

  4. ((d))

    Vyjayanti Kashi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gulabo Sapera

The correct answer is Gulabo Sapera

Key Points

  • Gulabo Sapera is a renowned performer of the Kalbelia dance, which is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan.
  • This dance form is associated with the Kalbelia community, known for their nomadic lifestyle and expertise in snake charming.g
  • The Kalbelia dance was inscribed in UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010, highlighting its cultural significance and the efforts of performers like Gulabo Sapera in preserving this vibrant art form.
  • Gulabo Sapera received the Padma Shri in 2016 for her contributions to Indian art and culture, marking a significant achievement for folk artists.

Additional Information

  • Minati Mishra
  • Minati Mishra was an Indian classical dancer and actress, known for her expertise in the Indian classical dance form of Odissi.
  • She was reported in 2011 to be the oldest-living Odissi performer.
  • The Government of India honored in 2012, with the fourth-highest civilian award of Padma Shri.
  • Geeta Mahalik
  • Geeta Mahalik (born 1948) is an Indian Odissi dancer.
  • The Government of India honoured her with the Padma Shri in 2014 for her services to the field of art and culture
  • Gita Mahalik began her training at a very early age from renowned guru, Deba Prasad Dash.
  • Vyjayanthi Kashi
  • Vyjayanthi Kashi is a reputed kuchipudi dancer, a celebrated performer and choreographer and artistic director of a dance school Shambhavi School of Dance where they teaches this traditional dance form kuchipudi.
  • She was also the chairperson of Karnataka Sangeetha Nritya Academy.
3

Nalwadi fair is organized in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Himachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Nalwari Fair.

Key Points

  • Nalwari Fair is a cattle fair celebrated in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
  • Bilaspur town of Himachal witnesses the four-five day long Nalwari or Annual Cattle Fair each year in the month of March or April.
  • At this festival, people enjoy wrestling and several other fun activities. Cattle are brought from Nalagarh and neighboring areas of Punjab, for this celebration.
  • The owners across the country bring their beautifully decorated cattle to the spot because the time is supposed to be of very lucrative deals for them.
  • Fairs & Festivals in Himachal Pradesh are:
  • Pori Festival.
  • Minjar fair Chamba.
  • Summer festival shimla.
  • Halda festival.
  • Sazo festival.

Additional Information

  • Doongri Festival:
  • ​The Doongri festival is organized on the auspicious occasion of Basant Panchami. It is also popularly known as the Hadimba Devi Fair.
  • The festival lasts for three days. It is organized at the Hadimba Temple, situated in the sacred Dhungri Forest in Manali.
4

Which of the following is an example of a Western coast port?

  1. ((a))

    Vishakhapatnam port

  2. ((b))

    Kandla port 

  3. ((c))

    Haldia port

  4. ((d))

    Tuticorin port

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kandla port 

The correct answer is Kandla port

Key Points

  • Kandla is an example of a Western coast port in India
  • Kandla is a seaport in the Kutch District of Gujarat, near the city of Gandhidham.
  • It is  Built in the 1950s, Kandla replaced the Karachi port on the western coast.
  • Kandla's main imports include crude oil, petroleum products, fertilizers, sulfur, and phosphate.
  • Kandla's main exports include food grains, naphtha, cotton, salt, and sugar.
  • Kandla is a tidal port and a Free Trade Zone.

Additional Information

  • The Western Coastal Plains is a narrow strip of coastal plain between the west coast of India and the Western Ghats hills.
  • The western coastal plains are an example of the submerged coastal plain it is well known as the Coast of Submergence.
  • The western coast is more indented than the eastern coast, also the sea is deeper in the west coast than sea on the east coast and it provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
  • Ports like Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port, Nhava Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin are located along the west coast.
5

The cultural festival of Ratha Saptami is mainly celebrated in which state of India?

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

  • The cultural festival of Ratha Saptami is mainly celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, India
  • The festival is celebrated at the Sri Suryanarayana Swamy temple in Arasavalli, Srikakulam.
  • The festival is considered the birth day of the Sun God, Lord Surya Narayana Swamy.
  • The Andhra Pradesh government has declared Ratha Saptami as a state festival to recognize its cultural and spiritual importance.
  • The festival is celebrated in the month of February or March, which is the month of Magha in the English calendar.

Additional Information

  • Andhra Pradesh
  • It was formed in its present form in 1956.
  • It was the result of the demand of the Andhras for a separate state.
  • After Potti Sriramulu died while fasting for the creation of Andhra Pradesh, the state came into existence in this scenario.
  • Although it is primarily agricultural, the state has some mining activity and a significant amount of industry.
6

Who has the power to grant pardons? 

  1. ((a))

    Chief Justice of India 

  2. ((b))

    Attorney General 

  3. ((c))

    Chief Minister

  4. ((d))

    President

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

President

The correct answer is President 

Key Points 

  • Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to reduce the punishment of a person or to grant pardon.
  • The President may grant pardon i.e. suspension of sentence, sentence adjournment, relief, and pardon.
  • The Governor of the state has also been granted the "power of pardon" by Article 161 of the Constitution.
  • The governor does not have the right to pardon the death penalty.
  • The Governor can reduce the death penalty by suspending the death penalty and change the nature of the punishment.

Additional Information

Under Article 72 of the constitution of India President has the power to Pardon, Commute, Remit, Respite and Reprieve the sentence. 

  • Pardon - President can pardon the sentence of any convicted person and bring him to the position where all his deeds of crime will not carry any punishment.
  • Commute - President can reward lesser punishment to the person in place of rigorous punishment.
  • Remit - by remitting the power President lessen the term of imprisonment.
  • Respite - In this, the President considers some cases and decrease the punishment of the offender.
  • Reprieve - In case of a death sentence, the President can hold the punishment.
7

The aim of ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was adopted during the 1929 session of the _________ Congress.

  1. ((a))

    Lucknow

  2. ((b))

    Poona

  3. ((c))

    Amritsar

  4. ((d))

    Lahore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lahore

The correct answer is the Lahore 

Key Points

About Lahore Congress Session:

  • The Indian National Congress (INC), on 19 December 1929, passed the historic "Purna Swaraj" – that means total independence resolution at its Lahore session.
  • A Public Announcement was made on 26 January 1930 a day which the Congress Party selected for the Indians to celebrate as The "Independence Day".
  • Our First Prime Minister of India Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru presided the Lahore Congress session.
  • With the commencement of the Constitution of Purna Swaraj, the Indian Independence Act of 1947 and the Government of India Act of 1935, with all Enactments Amending or Supplementing the latter Act, were rescinded.
  • But, The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act (1949) was however continued.

Additional Information

YearPlacePresident and fact
1885,BombayWomesh Chandra Bannerjee
1916LucknowA.C Majumdar (Re-union of the Congress)
1919AmritsarMotilal Nehru
1922GayaC R Das
1928CalcuttaMotilal Nehru and All India Youth Congress formed.
1939TripuriS.C.Bose was re-elected but had to resign due to protests by Gandhiji (as Gandhiji supported Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya). Rajendra Prasad was appointed in his place.
1948JaipurDr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya (Last session)
8

Which of the following Articles mentions that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 12

  2. ((b))

    Article 13

  3. ((c))

    Article 15 

  4. ((d))

    Article 14

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 14

The correct answer is Article 14

Key Points

  • Article 14 of the Constitution of India states that the state shall not deny any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  • Article 14 is divided into two parts:
  • Equality before the law
  • This part states that everyone should be treated equally in the eyes of the law.
  • Equal protection of the laws
  • This part states that the same law will be applied to all people equally across society.
  • The phrase "equality before law" originated in England, while "equal protection of law" comes from the American Constitution.​

Additional Information

  • Article 12:-
  • The word 'State' is defined under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
  • The scope of the word 'State' has been expanded by the judiciary to include private bodies or individuals performing public functions, which has led to the application of Fundamental Rights against them as well.
  • Article 15:-
  • It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 13:-
  • It declares that any law that violates the Fundamental Rights shall be void.
9

Nadir Shah was the ruler of ________ who conquered and plundered the city of Delhi in 1739.

  1. ((a))

    Iran

  2. ((b))

    Iraq

  3. ((c))

    Turkish

  4. ((d))

    Mongolia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Iran

The correct answer is Iran

Key Points

  • Nadir Shah, the ruler of Iran, invaded India in 1739 and plundered the city of Delhi.
  • This was a significant event in Indian history as it marked the decline of the Mughal Empire and the rise of regional powers.
  • Nadir Shah's invasion was brutal, and he looted the city's riches, including the famous Peacock Throne, which was later taken to Iran.
  • The invasion also resulted in the death of thousands of civilians and soldiers, and it took several years for Delhi to recover from the devastation.

Additional Information

  • Nadir Shah was a powerful ruler of Iran and is considered one of the most successful military commanders of his time.
  • He invaded India to plunder its riches and also to avenge the defeat of his predecessor, Tahmasp II, by the Mughals in the Battle of Karnal.
  • Nadir Shah's invasion of India was one of the last major invasions by a foreign power and marked the beginning of the end of the Mughal Empire.
  • The Peacock Throne, which Nadir Shah took from Delhi, was later seized by the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Durrani and eventually ended up in the possession of the British East India Company.
  • The invasion of Delhi by Ahmad Shah Durrani in 1761 was also a significant event in Indian history, as it led to the weakening of the Maratha Empire and paved the way for British colonial rule.
10

Nanjiyamma received the National Award _________ for the song Kalakkatha Sandana from the Malayalam film Ayyappanum Koshiyum.

  1. ((a))

    2019

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2020

  4. ((d))

    2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2020

The correct answer is 2020

Key Points

  • Nanjiyamma is a national award winner female playback singer who hails from a tribal community in Kerala.
  • She garnered public attention after singing playback in the Malayalam film Ayyappanum Koshiyum in 2020.
  • The film's title song "Kalakkatha" written by herself in Irula language and composed by Jakes Bejoy attained popularity after its release on YouTube.
  • The song received more than 10 million views in a month

Additional Information

National Film Awards:

  • The National Awards for films, which were started as an annual incentive by the Government of India, for the making of artistic, competent and meaningful films have come a long way, to cover the entire national spectrum of Indian Cinema, to judge merit by the highest possible yardstick and to become the most coveted and prestigious awards in the country.
  • The awards were initiated in 1954 when the very first awards for the films of 1953 were given.
  • Separate awards for artists and technicians were instituted in 1968 for the films of 1967.
11

State legislature has the concurrent powers enumerated in List ______ of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

    IV

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    III

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

III

The correct answer is III

Key Points

  • The state legislature has concurrent powers enumerated in List III of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
  • Seventh Schedule
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between States and the Union.
  • The Schedule contains three lists - Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • The Union List originally had 97 subjects. Now it has 100 subjects.
  • The State List has 61 subjects now, It had 66 subjects initially. State legislatures can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list.
  • The Concurrent List has 52 subjects enumerated under it. Both the State as well as the Central Government can make laws mentioned on this list.

Additional Information

ScheduleFeature
ThirdOath and affirmation for Union and States Ministers of India, Candidates for election to the Parliament and State Legislature, Members of Parliament and State Legislature, Supreme Court and High Court judges.
FirstName of states and UTs and their territorial jurisdiction and extent.
FourthContains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
12

Who among the following social reformers of British India was known as Lokhitwadi? 

  1. ((a))

    Veeresalingam Pantulu 

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Hari Deshmukh

  3. ((c))

    Narayan Guru

  4. ((d))

    Jyotiba Phule

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gopal Hari Deshmukh

The correct answer is Gopal Hari Deshmukh.

Key Points

  • Gopal Hari Deshmukh (1823-1892) was a social reformer and rationalist from Maharashtra.
  • He held the post of a judge under the British raj but wrote for a weekly Prabhakar under the pen name of Lokahitawadi on social reform issues.
  • He wrote 'Shatpatre' in the Prabhakar newspaper. In 'Shatapatre' he wrote about Political, Religious, Social, Cultural topics.
  • He was against Child Marriage, the Dowry system, Polygamy.
  • He also criticized the Caste System in society.
  • He was a supporter of Girls Education.
  • He advocated a reorganization of Indian society on rational principles and modern, humanistic, secular values.
  • He attacked Hindu orthodoxy and supported social and religious equality.
  • After bearing public criticism he served lame, blind and leprosy persons.
  • He wrote against the evils of the caste system. He said, “If religion does not sanction social reform, then change religion”.
  • He started a weekly, "Hitechhu", and also played a leading role in founding the periodicals, Gyan Prakash, Indu Prakash, and Lokahitawadi.

Additional Information

  • Jyotiba Phule​
  • Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer, activist, and writer who lived in the 19th century in Maharashtra, India.
  • He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 with the aim of uplifting the lower castes and women through education and social reforms.
  • The Satyashodhak Samaj was a movement that challenged the caste system and advocated for social equality and justice.
  • Jyotirao Phule was also a strong advocate of women's education and established the first school for girls in Pune in 1848.
  • Veeresalingam Pantulu ​
  • Veeresalingam Pantulu (16 April 1848 – 27 May 1919) was a famous social reformer and writer of the modern period of Telugu literature.
  • He was known by the title 'Gadya Tikkana' and was often considered 'Raja Ram Mohan Roy' of Andhra.
  • Born in a Brahmin family, Veeresalingam Pantalu was a staunch opponent of the caste system and started the anti-caste movement.
  • He established widow ashrams and formed an association for Widow Remarriage in Madras Presidency.
  • To encourage women's education, he established schools for girls in 1874 at Dowlaiswaram near Rajahmundry.
  • Veeresalingam Pantulu earned a reputation as the first novelist, the first playwright, and the originator of modern journalism.
13

Sonal Mansingh got the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for which form of dance? 

  1. ((a))

    Manipuri

  2. ((b))

    Kuchipudi

  3. ((c))

    Mohiniattam

  4. ((d))

    Odissi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Odissi

The correct answer is Odissi

Key Points

  • Sonal Mansingh was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1987. She is a trained Odissi dancer.
  • Sonal Mansingh is a prominent Indian dancer, teacher, researcher, choreographer, and social activist.
  • She is known for her work in both Odissi and Bharatanatyam, a South Indian dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu
  • She has won many awards including the Padma Bhushan and the Sangeet Natak academy award, one of the highest honour awards of India.
  • Sonal Mansingh has also written books, including Classical Dances, Draupadi, Devpriya, and The Penguin Book of Indian Dance.

Additional Information

  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognizes eight classical dance in India.
  • | Dances | Origin | Main Reviving Personals | Famous Proponents | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Bharatnatyam | Tamil Nadu | E. Krishna Iyer, Rukmini devi Arindel | Yamini Krishnamurthy, Lakshmi Vishwanathan, Padma Subramaniam, Mrinalini Sarabhai, Mallika Sarabhai | | Kuchipudi | Andhra Pradesh | Balasaraswati, Ragini devi | Radha Reddy And Raja Reddy, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Indrani Rehman | | Kathakali | Kerala | V. N. Menon | Guru Kunchu Kurup, Gopinath, Kottakal Sivaraman, Rita Ganguly | | Odissi | Odisha | Indrani Rehman, Charles Fabri | Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Kelu Charan Mohapatra, Sonal Mansingh, Sharon Lowen, MYrla Barvie | | Manipuri | Manipur | Raja bhag Chandra, Rabindranath Tagore | Nayana, Suverna, Ranjana and Darshna, Guru Bipin Singha | | Kathak | Uttar Pradesh | Lady Leela Sokhey | Birju Maharaj, Lacchu Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Damyanti Joshi | | Sattriya | Assam | Shankaradeva | - | | Mohiniattam | Kerala | V. N. Menon, kalayani Amma | Sunanda Nair, Kalamandalam kshmavathy, Madhuri Amma, Jayaprabha Menon |
14

Who among the following established the Arya Samaj and in which year? 

  1. ((a))

    Swami Dayananda Sarasvati in 1875

  2. ((b))

    Swami Vivekananda in 1785

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vivekananda in 1875

  4. ((d))

    Swami Dayananda Sarasvati in 1785

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Swami Dayananda Sarasvati in 1875

The correct answer is Swami Dayananda Sarasvati in 1875

Key Points

  • The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati at Bombay in 1875.
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1824-83) was a scholar, a patriot, a social reformer, and a revivalist. 
  • He believed the Vedas were the source of true knowledge. His motto was “Back to the Vedas”.
  • He started the Suddhi movement to bring back those Hindus who had converted to other religions to its fold.
  • He wrote the book Satyartha Prakash which contains his ideas.

Additional Information

Reform ProgramFounded ByYear
Brahmo SamajRaja Ram Mohan Roy1828
Atmiya SabhaRaja Ram Mohan Roy1815
Young Bengal MovementHenry Vivian Derozio-
Arya SamajDayanand Saraswati1875
Prarthana SamajAtmaram Pandurang1867
Ramakrishna MissionSwami Vivekananda1897
Theosophical SocietyMadam H.P. Blavatsky1875
15

How many fundamental duties were enumerated in the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • 10 Fundamental duties added in Part IV(A) of the Indian constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • Added three words to the Preamble by same Amendment, "Socialist, Secular, and Integrity".
  • Fundamental duties are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution of India.
  • 11th Fundamental Duty is added by 86th Amendment Act of 2002.

Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment increased duration of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 5 to 6 years(Later removed by 44th Amendment Act.)
  • Gave the Central Government more control over the appointment of State Governors.
  • Introduced provisions for establishing Administrative Tribunals( Article 323A and 323B) to handle dispute related to services.
  • It is also known as "Mini Constitution"
  • Added a provision that any law passed by the Parliament related to amendment cannot be questionable in any court [ Article368(4) ].
  • Introduced Part XIV A to the Constitution, which deals with Tribunals of Administrative disputes and Service related disputes.
  • Limited Right to Property under Article 19(1)(f) and removed it as fundamental right, later fully removed by 44th Amendment Act.
  • Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India during 42nd Amendment Act.
16

Which natural form of vitamin B helps to prevent some of the major birth defects of the baby's brain (anencephaly) and spina bifida?

  1. ((a))

    Pyridoxine

  2. ((b))

    Cobalamin

  3. ((c))

    Pantothenic acid 

  4. ((d))

    Folate

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Folate

The correct answer is Folate

Key Points

  • Folate (vitamin B9) is the natural form of vitamin B that can help prevent birth defects like anencephaly and spina bifida:
  • Folic acid can reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTDs), which include anencephaly and spina bifida, by more than 70%.
  • NTDs occur when the spinal cord doesn't close properly.
  • The CDC recommends that all women of reproductive age take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid daily before and during early pregnancy.

Additional Information

  • Anencephaly is a serious birth defect where parts of the baby's brain and skull don't form properly, and babies born with it cannot survive.
  • The upper part of the neural tube does not close fully during early embryonic development.
  • Adequate intake of folic acid before and during early pregnancy can reduce the risk.
  • Spina bifida is another serious birth defect where the baby's spine doesn't develop correctly, which can lead to severe physical disabilities.
  • It can range from mild (occulta, often asymptomatic) to severe forms (myelomeningocele, involving nerve damage and disabilities such as paralysis or bladder/bowel dysfunction).
17

Which is the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia that was designated as a ‘Ramsar Site’ in 1981? 

  1. ((a))

    Loktak lake

  2. ((b))

    Chilika lake

  3. ((c))

    Tampara lake

  4. ((d))

    Harike lake

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chilika lake

The correct answer is Chilika lake

Key Points

  • Chilka Lake is located in Odisha.
  • It is a brackish water lagoon.
  • It is the largest lake in India.
  • Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia
  • Chilka is at the mouth of the Daya river.
  • One of the tentative UNESCO World Heritage sites in India.
  • Designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar convention in 1981.
  • Only lake in India is included in ‘Destination Flyways’ by the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO).

Additional Information Important Lakes:

LakesState/UT
Vembanad LakeKerala
Chilika LakeOdisha
Shivaji Sagar LakeMaharashtra
Indira Sagar lakeMadhya Pradesh
Pangong LakeLadakh
Pulicat LakeAndhra Pradesh
Sardar Sarovar LakeGujarat
Nagarjuna Sagar LakeTelangana
Loktak LakeManipur
Wular lakeJammu and Kashmir
18

Which of the following Trophies/Cups is related to cricket?

  1. ((a))

    Thomas Cup

  2. ((b))

    Santosh Trophy

  3. ((c))

    Durand Cup

  4. ((d))

    Duleep Trophy

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Duleep Trophy

The correct answer is Duleep Trophy

Key Points

  • The Duleep Trophy is a cricket trophy
  • It was Introduced in 1961-62 by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
  • Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji, a legendary Indian cricketer who played for England.
  • Initially contested by geographical zones of India (e.g., North Zone, South Zone).
  • Later, it evolved into teams representing India Red, India Blue, and India Green.

Additional Information

  • some other trophies associated with different sports:
  • Hockey: Murugappa Gold Cup, Beighton Cup, Nehru Trophy, Stanley Cup, Agha Khan Cup, Dhyanchand Trophy
  • Football: Durand Cup, Rovers Cup, Santosh Trophy, Begum Hazrat Mahal Trophy, Nehru Cup
  • Badminton: Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, European Cup, Malaysian Cup, Harilela Cup
  • Tennis: Davis Cup, Wimbledon Trophy
  • Golf: Ryder Cup, Walker Cup, Canada Cup, Eisenhower Cup
19

In which of the following states was the first edition of the Khelo India University Games held in 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Odisha

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Haryana

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • The Khelo India University Game is a national multisport competition in which athletes compete in a variety of sports from Indian universities.
  • The first edition, which took place in Odisha, began from February 22, 2020, to March 1, 2020.
  • Along with the National Sports Federation, Indian Olympic Association, Association of Indian Universities, and Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, it is organized by the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi opened the inaugural Khelo India University Games in Cuttack on February 22, 2020.
  • The Khelo India University Games are a significant step towards developing a strong sports culture in India and nurturing young talent for international competitions.

 Additional Information

  • The Indian government came up with the idea of Khelo India, which means "Let us play India," in 2017 in an effort to resurrect the country's athletic heritage through grassroots involvement with kids.
  • The Prime Minister recently heralded in a new era for Indian sports by virtually inaugurating the third edition of the Khelo India University Games (KIUG) in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.The state animal of Uttar Pradesh, the Swamp Deer (Barasingha), is represented by Jitu, the mascot of the third edition of the Khelo India University Games.
  • Assam hosted the third edition of the Khelo India Youth Games in January 2020, but has not yet hosted the Khelo India University Games.
20

Who became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal? 

  1. ((a))

    Sakshi Malik

  2. ((b))

    Mary Kom

  3. ((c))

    Saina Nehwal

  4. ((d))

    Karnam Malleswari 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Karnam Malleswari 

The correct answer is Karnam Malleswari.

Key Points

  • Karnam Malleshwari is the first Indian woman who won a bronze medal in the Olympic Games.
  • She is an Indian weightlifter and is now retired.
  • She won silver in World Championship, Istanbul in 1994, and Asian Weightlifting Championship, Korea in 1995.
  • She was the two-time weightlifting champion with 11 Gold medals out of 29 international medals before the Olympics.
  • In 2000, Sydney Olympics she won a Bronze medal and become the first and only Indian women weightlifter to win Olympics.
  • She was also awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 1995, Arjuna Award in 1994, and Padma Shri in 1999.

Additional Information

AspectSaina NehwalMary KomSakshi Malik
SportBadmintonBoxingWrestling
Major AchievementFirst Indian to win an Olympic medal in badminton (Bronze, 2012, London)Six-time World Amateur Boxing Champion; Olympic Bronze Medal (2012, London)First Indian woman to win an Olympic wrestling medal (Bronze, 2016, Rio)
Olympic MedalsBronze (2012, London)Bronze (2012, London)Bronze (2016, Rio)
Other AchievementsWinner of multiple Superseries titlesGold in Asian Games (2014) and Commonwealth GamesGold in 2014 Commonwealth Wrestling Championship
AwardsArjuna Award (2009), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (2010), Padma Bhushan (2016)Padma Bhushan (2013), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (2009), Arjuna Award (2003)Padma Shri (2017), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (2016)
Special NotesFormer World No. 1 in BadmintonKnown as the "Magnificent Mary"Pioneer for Indian women in wrestling
21

Vacuoles in plant cells can occupy up to what percentage of the cell's volume? 

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90

The correct answer is 90

Key Points

  • Vacuoles are organelles of plant, fungal, and algal cells.
  • They are part of the internal membrane system and are separated from the rest of the cytoplasm by a membrane called the tonoplast.
  • Vacuoles play crucial roles in cell expansion, serve as storage compartments for nutrients, and function as lytic organelles that contain digestive enzymes.
  • Compounds contained within vacuoles also protect cells against environmental damage and deter attack by herbivores.
  • Vacuoles are filled with a watery fluid called cell sap (made up of water, salts, and sugar).
  • In some plant cells, a vacuole may occupy as much as 90 per cent of a cell's total volume.
  • When a vacuole takes up this much space in a cell, it presses the cytoplasm (jelly-like fluid in a cell) against the cell wall, which eventually remains stretched out under this force.
  • As long as the vacuole remains full, the plant maintains its turgor pressure (like the air pressing against the inside wall of a balloon).
  • When the vacuole loses this fluid and decreases the pressure, it collapses temporarily and the plant wilts.
  • Maintaining this cellular pressure is the prime responsibility of the vacuole in a mature plant.
  • When pressure is maintained, the entire plant is able to keep its crisp shape. When it does not, the whole plant wilts.

Additional Information

  • Cell: 
  • The cell is the fundamental unit of life. All the life activities are carried out by cells.
  • The organisms are classified based on the number of cells present in them.
  • Unicellular organisms are single-celled, while multicellular organisms have a large number of cells.
  • Differences between the plant cell and animal:
  • ​The cell wall is present in Plant cells while it is absent in an animal cells. A cell wall gives mechanical support to a plant cell.
  • Plants have both a cell wall that is made up of cellulose and a cell membrane (plasma membrane). The cell wall is, a rigid membrane matrix found on the surface of all plant cells whose primary role is to protect the cell and its content.
  • Plant cells have a large central vacuole that can occupy up to 90% of the cell’s volume. Animal cells may have many small vacuoles, a lot smaller than the plant cell.
22

Which of the following replaced the Planning Commission in 2014?

  1. ((a))

    NABARD

  2. ((b))

    NITI Aayog

  3. ((c))

    SEBI

  4. ((d))

    Stand Up India Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

NITI Aayog

The correct answer is NITI Aayog

Key Points

  • NITI Aayog was replaced by the planning Commission
  • NITI Aayog
  • Its full form is National Institution for Transforming India.
  • It is the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India providing both directional and policy inputs.
  • It was formed on 1 January 2015.
  • The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises The Minister as its Chairman and Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
  • The vice-chairman is Suman Bery and CEO is Parameswaran Iyer.
  • Its full-time members are V.K. Saraswat, Ramesh Chand, V.K. Paul.

Additional Information

  • Planning Commission
  • It was an institution in the Government of India.
  • It formulated five-year plans.
  • It was formed on 15 March 1950.
  • It was dissolved on 17 August 2014 and replaced by the new institution NITI Aayog.
  • The Prime Minister of India was the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission.
23

The following are the features of which initiative of the Government of India?

a. It is devised to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub.

b. It has an Investor Facilitation Cell to assist investors in seeking regulatory approvals, hand-holding services through the pre-investment phase, execution and after-care support.

c. It aspires to facilitate investment, foster innovation, enhance skill development and build best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure.

  1. ((a))

    Start-up India 

  2. ((b))

    Stand up India 

  3. ((c))

    Skill India

  4. ((d))

    Make in India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Make in India

The correct answer is Skill India

Key Points

  • Make in India is an initiative launched by the Government of India in September 2014 to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub.
  • The Make in India program was started on 25th September 2014.
  • It was launched by the prime minister of India Narendra Modi.
  • It was launched during the 12th five-year planning in India.
  • The Make in India is organized by the government of India.
  • The main objectives of the Make in India program are:
  • Enforcement of secondary and tertiary sectors in India.
  • Manufacturing of products in India and sell the products worldwide.
  • Creating job opportunities for more than 10 million people.
  • Boosting of India's GDP, trade, and economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Start-up India
  • The main objective is To promote and support entrepreneurship, especially among young innovators, by creating a conducive environment for start-ups.
  • Key Features:
  • Simplified Regulations: Compliance with labor and environmental laws simplified for start-ups.
  • Self-Certification: Start-ups can self-certify under certain laws like labor laws and environmental laws.
  • Tax Benefits: Start-ups can avail income tax exemption for three years.
  • Start-up India Hub: A platform for networking, knowledge sharing, and funding opportunities.
  • Stand up India
  • The main objective is To provide financial assistance to women and marginalized groups (SC/ST) to start entrepreneurial ventures.
  • Key Features:
  • Loan Facility: Loans ranging from ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore to set up greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, trading, or service sectors.
  • End-to-End Support: Assistance in preparing project reports, and guidance on loans and approvals.
24

Name the Mauryan king who extended control as far northwest as Afghanistan and Balochistan.

  1. ((a))

    presently

  2. ((b))

    Chandragupta Maurya

  3. ((c))

    Dasharatha

  4. ((d))

    Bindusara

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chandragupta Maurya

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya 

Key Points

  • Chandragupta Maurya was the Mauryan king who extended control as far northwest as Afghanistan and Balochistan
  • Chandragupta Maurya, who founded the Mauryan empire (c. 321 BCE), extended control as far northwest as Afghanistan and Baluchistan, and his grandson Asoka, arguably the most famous ruler of early India, conquered Kalinga (present-day coastal Orissa).
  • Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha during Bimbisara’s time.
  • The three great rules of the Mauryan Empire were
  • Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara, and king Ashoka.

Additional Information

  • Dasharatha
  • Dasharatha was the king of Kosala, with its capital at Ayodhya, in the Hindu epic Ramayana.
  • Dasharatha married Kausalya, Sumitra and Kaikeyi.
  • He was the father of Rama, the protagonist of the epic, Bharata, Lakshmana, and Shatrughna.
  • Dasharatha also finds mention in the Vishnu Purana.
  • Bindusara​
  • Bindusara was the second Mauryan emperor of India.
  • He was the son of the dynasty's founder Chandragupta and he was the father of the most famous ruler Ashoka.
  • Bindusara was known as “Amitro Chates” to the Greeks.
  • Bindusara was interested in Ajivika Sect. of Jains.
  • Bindusara was the son of Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan empire in 321 BC by defeating Nanda's ruler, Dhananda.
  • Chandragupta ruled between 321 BC to 297 BC.
  • He is assisted by Kautilya/Chanakya.
  • He abdicated the throne in favor of his son, Bindusara, and adopted Jainism.
25

Which river basin has a catchment area of 5,179 km2, which originates from the Belgaum district of Karnataka and falls in Karwar Bay?

  1. ((a))

    Brahmani

  2. ((b))

    Kalinadi

  3. ((c))

    Bharathapuzha

  4. ((d))

    Palar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kalinadi

The correct answer is Kalinadi

Key Points

  • The Kalinadi river basin has a catchment area of 5,179 km², originates from the Belgaum district of Karnataka, and flows into the Karwar Bay.
  • Kalinadi is a river flowing through the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka state.
  • The river rises near Kushavali, a small village in the Uttar Kannada district.
  • One of the important dams build across Kali river is the Supa Dam at Ganeshgudi.
  • The river runs 184 kilometers before joining Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

  • Brahmani
  • The Brahmani is a major seasonal river in the Odisha state of eastern India.
  • The Brahmani is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers, and flows through the districts of Sundargarh, Deogarh, Angul, Dhenkanal, Cuttack, Jajapur and Kendrapara.
  • Also the South Koel can be considered as the upper reaches of the Brahmani.
  • Together with the river Baitarani, Brahmani forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.
  • It is the second widest river in Odisha after Mahanadi .
  • Bharathappuzha
  • The Bharathappuzha ("River of Bhārata"), also known as the Nila River or Ponnani River, is a river in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
  • With a length of 209 km, it is the second longest river that flows through Kerala after the Periyar.
  • It flows through Palakkad Gap, which is also the largest opening in the Kerala portion of Western Ghats.
  • Palar
  • Palar is a river of southern India.
  • It rises in the Nandi Hills in Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka state, and flows 93 kilometres in Karnataka, 33 kilometres in Andhra Pradesh and 222 kilometres in Tamil Nadu before reaching its confluence into the Bay of Bengal at Vayalur about 75 kilometres south of Chennai
26

How many layers of structures consist of the cell envelope?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

The correct answer is Three

Key Points

  • The cell envelope of a cell is made up of three layers: 
  • Outer membrane: The outermost layer
  • Peptidoglycan cell wall: The middle layer
  • Cytoplasmic or inner membrane: The innermost layer
  • The two concentric membrane layers create a cellular compartment called the periplasm.
  • The composition of the glycocalyx, the outermost layer, varies between different types of bacteria.
  • A loose sheath-like glycocalyx is called a slime layer, while a thick and tough one is called a capsule.

Additional Information

  • Cell Envelope
  • The cell envelope is made up of the cell wall, cell membrane, and outer membrane.
  • The cell envelope of Gram-positive bacteria includes a cell wall, cytoplasmic membrane, and capsule.
  • In contrast, the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria includes a cell wall, cytoplasmic membrane, outer membrane, periplasmic space, and capsule.

Cell envelope

27

To which country did India offer extensive security cooperation, especially after Operation Cactus in 1988?

  1. ((a))

    Bhutan

  2. ((b))

    Maldives

  3. ((c))

    Nepal

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maldives

The correct answer is Maldives

Key Points

  • ‘Operation Cactus’ was the operation by Indian Armed forces to foil the coup in Maldives.
  • The operation commenced in November 1988.
  • Operation Cactus was carried out by India in order to curb the terrorist attack from the Government of Maldives.
  • US President called this operation "an immense contribution to regional security."

Additional Information

  • India to the Maldives
  • India and Maldives share deep cultural, ethnic, religious, and people-to-people ties.
  • India was among the first nations that recognized and establish diplomatic relations with the Maldives in 1972 after independence in 1965.
  • India has always helped the Maldives under challenging situations, as explained in the following points:
  • 1986: India agreed to establish Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital (IGMH) in Male. This hospital is a very advanced tertiary care hospital in the Maldives.
  • 1988: India launched Operation Cactus to defend Maldivian Government against a coup attempt. It was a highly successful attempt.
  • 1996: Maldives Institute of Technical Education (MITE) was established through Grants in aid from India.
  • 2004: After the disastrous effect of the Tsunami in 2004, India came forward to help the Maldives by being the first nation to send relief and aid.
  • 2008: a standby credit facility of $100 Million was extended to the Maldives during President Nasheed's visit to Delhi.
  • 2014: during the drinking water crisis in the Maldives, India launched 'Operation Neer' and supplied clean drinking water to Male.
  • India has gifted two Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) to Maldivian forces.
  • 2020: India supplied essential medicines and vaccines to the Maldives during Covid - 19 crisis under 'Operation Sanjeevani.'
28

Which of the following is NOT listed in the Directive Principles of State Policy? 

  1. ((a))

    Equal pay for equal work 

  2. ((b))

    Promote the welfare of the people

  3. ((c))

    Uniform civil code for citizens

  4. ((d))

    Rights for transgenders in certain cases 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rights for transgenders in certain cases 

The correct answer is Rights for transgenders in certain cases 

Key Points

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy, listed in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, do not explicitly mention "rights for transgenders in certain cases."
  • However, it includes provisions like promoting the welfare of the people, ensuring equal pay for equal work, and advocating for a uniform civil code.
  • The rights of transgender individuals have been addressed more through judicial rulings and legislative measures rather than as a specific directive principle.
  • Article 51A deals with the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

  • The Directive Principles of state policy (DPSP):
  • Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
  • DPSPs are non-justiciable i.e non-enforceable in the court of law.
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
  • There are mainly three categories of these principles – Socialist Directives, Gandhian Directives, and Liberal Intellectual Directives.
  • Uniform Civil Code, Separation of judiciary from Executive, Agriculture, and Animal Husbandry are mention in D.P.S.P.
29

Pandit Ram Dayal Sharma was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022 for Nautangi, Swang, Bhagat, _________ and Rasiya forms.

  1. ((a))

    Khoria

  2. ((b))

    Phag

  3. ((c))

    Rasleela

  4. ((d))

    Matki

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rasleela

The correct answer is Rasleela 

Key Points

  • Pandit Ram Dayal Sharma was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022 for his contributions to the forms of Nautangi, Swang, Bhagat, Rasleela, and Rasiya.
  • Ramdayal Sharma is an Indian Nautanki artist.
  • He is also a singer, composer and teacher.
  • In 2022, he was awarded Padma Shri, and in 2015, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award by the Indian Government for his contribution in Arts

Additional Information 

DescriptionCultural Significance
KhoriaA traditional folk dance form performed in the regions of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, often in rural settings. It is associated with agricultural festivals and rituals.
PhagA folk dance and song form popular in Rajasthan, particularly during the festival of Holi. The songs in Phag depict various aspects of the festival, love, and devotion.
RasleelaA classical folk dance form that narrates stories from the life of Lord Krishna, focusing on his relationships with Radha and the gopis (female devotees). It is highly theatrical and involves singing and dancing.
MatkiA folk dance performed during the Janmashtami festival in Rajasthan and other regions of North India, where participants form human pyramids to break pots filled with yogurt, a symbolic act of Lord Krishna’s childhood.
30

In which state is coffee a major plantation crop?

  1. ((a))

    Haryana

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karnataka

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India.
  • After Karnataka, the next state which accounts for the highest share of coffee production in India is Kerala.
  • Kerala produces around 21% of India’s coffee.
  • Both Karnataka and Kerala together account for around 90% of the total coffee produced in India.

Additional Information

  • The third highest coffee-producing state in India is Tamil Nadu which accounts for 5% of the total coffee produced in India.
  • Coffee is also grown in Northeastern India, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • The most well-known species of coffee grown in India are Robusta and Arabica.
  • Arabica coffee species was introduced in the Baba Budan Giri hill ranges of Karnataka in the 17th century.
  • Coffee from India is exported to other countries such as Germany, France, Russia, Spain, Slovenia, Belgium, Netherlands, Greece, the USA, and the United Kingdom.
31

Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number?

  1. ((a))

    Copper

  2. ((b))

    Gold

  3. ((c))

    Silver

  4. ((d))

    Iron

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gold

The correct answer is Gold

Key Points

  • Gold has the highest atomic number of the following elements
  • Gold: Has an atomic number of 79
  • Density of Gold= 19.32 g/cc.
  • The density, of a substance, is its mass per unit volume.
  • The gold content of gold alloys is measured in carats (k), pure gold is designated as 24k.
  • Gold is resistant to most acids, though it does dissolve in aqua regia.

Additional Information

Copper- Symbol Cu and atomic number= 29. - The first metal used by man. - Copper is essential to all living organisms as a trace dietary mineral.
Silver- Silver belongs to the second transition series and group 11 elements of the periodic table. - Silver belongs to D-block elements. - Silver is a lustrous, soft, very ductile and malleable metal. - It has the highest electrical conductivity of all metals, but it is not widely used for electrical purposes as it is very expensive.
Iron- Symbol Fe and atomic number= 26. - Wrought Iron is the purest form of iron. - The Most impure form of Iron is Pig Iron.
32

Who among the following Vijayanagara rulers established a suburban settlement called Nagalapuram near Vijayanagara?

  1. ((a))

    Ram Rai

  2. ((b))

    Krishna Deva Raya

  3. ((c))

    Sadashiv Rai

  4. ((d))

    Achyuta Deva Ray

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Krishna Deva Raya

The correct answer is Krishna Deva Raya

Key Points

  • Krishnadeva Raya, the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty, founded the suburban settlement of Nagalapuram near Vijayanagara
  • Nagalapuram was founded by Krishnadeva Raya in memory of his mother Nagala Devi.
  • Nagalapuram was a suburban township located near Vijayanagara, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Krishnadeva Raya was a prominent emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire who ruled from 1509 to 1530.
  • The other options are incorrect.
  • Krishnadeva Raya's father was Tuluva Narasa Nayaka, his teacher was Vyasatirtha, and he did not have a sister.​

Additional Information

  • Krishnadeva Raya's mother Nagala Devi was a devout follower of Lord Vishnu and had a great influence on him.
  • Nagalapuram was also known as Nagalapura, and it was an important center of trade and commerce during the Vijayanagara period.
  • Krishnadeva Raya was a patron of art, literature, and architecture, and his reign is considered the golden age of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Tuluva Narasa Nayaka was Krishnadeva Raya's father-in-law, not his biological father.
  • Vyasatirtha was a prominent saint and philosopher of the Dvaita school of Vedanta, and he was Krishnadeva Raya's spiritual guru.
33

Which one of the following is the Directive Principle of State Policy?

  1. ((a))

    To cherish and follow the ideals of the national struggle

  2. ((b))

    To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

  3. ((c))

    Upholding the constitution and its ideals

  4. ((d))

    Maintaining social order for the promotion of public welfare

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maintaining social order for the promotion of public welfare

The correct answer is  Maintaining social order for the promotion of public welfare

Key Points

  • Maintaining social order for the promotion of public welfare
  • This option is closely related to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which aim to guide the state in promoting social justice and welfare through various policies, including maintaining social order.
  • The DPSP is a fundamental part of governance in India, and it's the state's duty to apply these principles when making laws.
  • The DPSP aims to make India a welfare state by promoting the welfare of the people.

Additional Information

  • **The DPSP is contained in Articles 36–51 of Part IV of the Indian Constitution. The DPSP was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which in turn borrowed it from the Spanish Constitution. The DPSP is non-justiciable, meaning it'**s not enforceable in a court of law.
34

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions.

b) The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat. Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.

  1. ((a))

    Only a is correct. 

  2. ((b))

    Only b is correct. 

  3. ((c))

    Both a and b are incorrect. 

  4. ((d))

    Both a and b are correct. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both a and b are correct. 

The correct answer is Both a and b are correct..

Key Points

  • India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions in the wild.
  • The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir Forest in Gujarat, which is the only place in the world where Asiatic lions are found.
  • Tigers in India are distributed across various regions, including the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal, and parts of the Himalayan region.
  • India is home to significant populations of these big cats and has numerous conservation programs in place to protect them.

Additional Information

  • Gir Forest National Park
  • Located in Gujarat, India, it is the only natural habitat of the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica).
  • It was established in 1965 and covers a total area of approximately 1,412 km².
  • The park is also home to a diverse range of wildlife including leopards, antelopes, and a variety of bird species.
  • Conservation efforts have been successful in increasing the population of Asiatic lions.
  • Tiger Conservation in India
  • India is home to around 70% of the world's tiger population.
  • The major habitats include the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans in West Bengal, and parts of the Western Ghats and the Himalayan region.
  • India has established numerous tiger reserves under the Project Tiger initiative launched in 1973 to protect and increase the tiger population.
  • Some well-known tiger reserves are the Kanha and Bandhavgarh reserves in Madhya Pradesh, and the Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand.
  • Conservation Challenges
  • Both tigers and lions face threats from habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.Conservation efforts involve habitat restoration, anti-poaching measures, and community-based initiatives.
  • The Indian government, along with various wildlife organizations, continues to work on strategies to ensure the long-term survival of these species.
35

‘The Test of My Life: From Cricket to Cancer and Back’, is the autobiography of which famous Indian cricketer? 

  1. ((a))

    Robin Utthappa 

  2. ((b))

    Akash Chopra

  3. ((c))

    Suresh Raina

  4. ((d))

    Yuvraj Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Yuvraj Singh

The correct answer is Yuvraj Singh

Key Points

  • Yuvraj Singh is the author of “The Test of My Life: From Cricket to Cancer and Back”.
  • He was known as the bad boy of Indian Cricket but at the same time was the most loved cricketer after Sachin Tendulkar.
  • Yuvraj has played well and many times he had proven his position as a top player.
  • Yuvraj Singh, who successfully battled lung cancer a few years ago, has come up with his ideas in this book and overcoming what actually means.

Buy The Test of My Life: From Cricket to Cancer and Back Book Online at Low  Prices in India | The Test of My Life: From Cricket to Cancer and Back  Reviews

Additional Information

 

Cricket PlayerAutobiographyDescription
Sachin TendulkarPlaying It My WayThe legendary cricketer’s personal account of his career, challenges, and triumphs.
Kapil DevStraight from the HeartThe autobiography of India's 1983 World Cup-winning captain, reflecting on his cricketing journey.
M.S. DhoniThe Untold StoryM.S. Dhoni’s personal story, including his rise from a small town to becoming India’s cricket captain.
Virat KohliI Am No Longer Bored (Expected)An anticipated autobiography offering a deeper look into Virat Kohli's journey, although this book has been speculated but not officially released yet.
Sunil GavaskarSunil Gavaskar: The Player and the PersonA look at the life and career of the legendary opening batsman of India.
Ricky Ponting (Indian fans' connection)At the Close of PlayWhile not Indian, his autobiography offers insights into Indian cricket history from his perspective.
Anil KumbleThe Player and the PersonThe legendary Indian leg-spinner’s autobiography, focusing on his career and leadership.
Dinesh KarthikThe AutobiographyA recent release, reflecting on his journey in cricket and his personal experiences.
36

According to the 2011 census, which state has the highest sex ratio?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kerala has the highest sex ratio in India, according to the 2011 census, with 1084 girls for every 1000 males.
  • Tamil Nadu ranks second with 996 girls for every 1000 males.
  • With a sex ratio of 993, Andhra Pradesh ranks third, followed by Chhattisgarh (991) and Meghalaya  (989).
  • With 879 girls for every 1000 males, Haryana has the poorest sex ratio among the states.
  • The greatest sex ratio among Union Territories is 1037 in Puducherry, while the lowest sex ratio is 618 in Daman and Diu.

Additional Information

  • Sex ratio is defined as the proportion of females to males per thousand.
  • It is a crucial sociological indicator for determining the degree of gender equality that exists in a nation at any particular period.
  • The sex ratio of the population affects, and is affected by**, birth, death, immigration, and emigration rates.**
37

Who wrote the famous autobiography titled ‘Becoming’? 

  1. ((a))

    Johnny Marr 

  2. ((b))

    Steffi Graf

  3. ((c))

    Andre Agassi

  4. ((d))

    Michelle Obama

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Michelle Obama

The correct answer is Michelle Obama.

Key Points

  • In January 2020, Michelle Obama was conferred with Grammy Award for her album 'Becoming'.
  • Becoming is the memoir published in 2018 by the former United States first lady Michelle Obama.
  • The book talks about her role as a mother, her time in the White House, her public health campaign, and other experiences of her life.
  • Former US President Barack Obama has won two Grammy awards for his memoirs 'Dreams from My Father' (2006) and 'The Audacity of Hope' (2008).

Additional Information Some important Books and Authors:-

BooksAuthor
What I know for SureOprah Winfrey.
Time to get tough: Make America Great AgainDonald Trump.
Dreams from my FatherBarack Obama.
Pride and Prejudice, Sense and Sensibility, Persuasion, EmmaJane Austen.
Courts of IndiaRanjan Gogoi (Chief Justice of India).
Hemant Karkare: A Daughter's MemoirJui Karkare.
Exam WarriorsNarendra Modi.
Bridgital NationN. Chandrasekaran.
WhereaboutsJhumpa Lahiri.
In search of the DistanceAnuk Arudpragasam.
The Heartbeat of TreesPeter Wohlleben.
The Loves of YuriJerry Pinto.
WaterMridula Ramesh.
38

Padma Shri awardee Madhuri Barthwal from _________ is a legendary folk singer. She was the first woman music composer for All India Radio. 

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand

  4. ((d))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Uttrakhand

Key Points

  • Madhuri Barthwal is associated with the field of Music.
  • She is known for her significant contributions to the promotion and preservation of folk music from the Uttarakhand region in India.
  • Madhuri Barthwal has been recognized for her efforts in keeping the traditional music alive and passing it on to future generations.
  • Her work includes not only performance but also the documentation and teaching of folk music traditions.

Additional Information

  • All India Radio India’s Public Service Broadcaster, the Radio vertical of Prasar Bharati has been serving to inform, educate and entertain its audiences since its inception, living up to its motto – ‘Bahujan Hitaya: Bahujan Sukhaya’.
  • All India Radio is also known as Akashvani.
  • The name was changed in the year 1957.
  • That means 'Voice from the Sky', AIR is one of the leading and oldest radio networks in the world.
  • It is headquartered at Akashvani Bhavan in New Delhi
39

Bishnupur group of temples is located in which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

  • Bishnupur is a city and a municipality in the Bankura district in the state of West Bengal.
  • It is famous for its terracotta temples built by the Malla rulers, Shree Krishna Raasleela, and the Baluchari sarees.
  • Since 1997, the temples of Bishnupur is on the UNESCO World Heritage Site's Tentative list.
  • The temples of Bishnupur were built by the Malla kings between the 17th and 18th centuries.

Additional Information

  • The list of World Heritage Sites is maintained by the international 'World Heritage Programme', administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee.
  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) seeks to encourage the identification, protection, and preservation of cultural and natural heritage around the world considered to be of outstanding value to humanity.
  • This is embodied in an international treaty called the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage, adopted by UNESCO in 1972.
  • India has 40 world heritage sites that include 32 Cultural properties, 7 Natural properties, and 1 mixed site.
40

What is the purpose of the ‘EShakti’ programme? 

  1. ((a))

    Digitisation of Self-Help Group details for banks

  2. ((b))

    Giving electricity to women farmers

  3. ((c))

    Providing credit cards for women

  4. ((d))

    Providing loans to buy e-rickshaws

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Digitisation of Self-Help Group details for banks

The correct answer is the Digitisation of Self-Help Group details for banks

Key Points

  • The E-Shakti program was launched by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) to digitize Self Help Groups (SHGs) in India.
  • The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) initiated the digitising of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in India through their pilot project called e-Shakti.
  • This project began with the aim to address particular concerns such as the quality of book keeping of SHGs and assist banks in making informed credit decisions with regard to the groups through the Management Information System (MIS).
  • The project has covered more than 25 districts and over 1.3 Lakh SHGs in terms of digitising.

Additional Information

  • Micro Credit and Innovations Department of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) initiated e-Shakti with the aim to transform the country into a digitally empowered society and a knowledge economy.
  • This initiative is a part of one of the biggest campaign ever launched in India, Digital India.
  • The primary goal of the E-Shakti Project is to digitise the accounts of various SHGs and to bring the members of the groups under the fold of Financial Inclusion.
  • This would help them access a wide array of financial services and simultaneously, increases the comfortability of banks in terms of credit appraisal and linkage.
41

Shovana Narayan is associated with which of these dance forms?

  1. ((a))

    Kathakali

  2. ((b))

    Kathak

  3. ((c))

    Bharatnatyam

  4. ((d))

    Mohiniyattam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kathak

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

  • Shovana Narayan is a renowned Kathak dancer, who was born on 17 February 1949 in the state of West Bengal, India.
  • Kathak dance form is known for its intricate footwork, rhythmic body movements, and facial expressions.
  • Shovana Narayan has received several accolades for her contribution to the field of dance, including the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • She has also been a part of several international dance festivals and has collaborated with renowned artists from across the world.
  • Manipuri, Kuchipudi, and Odissi are also classical dance forms from India, each with its unique style and origin.

Additional Information

Dance FormRenowned Dancers
ManipuriDarshana Jhaveri, Bimbavati Devi, Guru Bipin Singh, Elam Indira Devi
KuchipudiRaja and Radha Reddy, Yamini Reddy, Vempati Chinna Satyam, Shobha Naidu
OdissiMadhavi Mudgal, Sonal Mansingh, Kelucharan Mohapatra, Sanjukta Panigrahi
KathakBirju Maharaj, Shovana Narayan, Kumudini Lakhia, Pandit Durga Lal
42

In which of the following states is the Thousand Pillar temple located, in which thousand pillars are built?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Telangana

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points The Thousand Pillar Temple, also known as the Rudreshwara Swamy Temple is located in the town of Hanamakonda, Telangana.

  • It is dedicated to Lord Shiva, Vishnu and Surya.
  • It was constructed under the patronage of Ganapati Deva, Rudrama Devi and Prataparudra who were of Kakatiya dynasty.
  • Construction took place between 1175–1324 CE.
  • During the invasion by the Tughlaq dynasty, it was desecrated.
  • But was rebuilt by the 7th Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan.
  • It was listed by the UNESCO as a world heritage site.

Additional Information

StateTemple NameLocation
Tamil NaduMeenakshi TempleMadurai
Brihadeeswarar TempleThanjavur
Ramanathaswamy TempleRameswaram
Kapaleeshwarar TempleChennai
MaharashtraShirdi Sai Baba TempleShirdi
Trimbakeshwar TempleTrimbak, Nashik
Siddhivinayak TempleMumbai
Mahalaxmi TempleKolhapur
KeralaSabarimala TempleSabarimala
Padmanabhaswamy TempleThiruvananthapuram
Chottanikkara TempleKochi
Attukal Bhagavathy TempleThiruvananthapuram
43

Windfall gains are NOT included while calculating national income as _____________. 

  1. ((a))

    there is value addition

  2. ((b))

    it has already been included

  3. ((c))

    there is no income

  4. ((d))

    there is no productive activity connected with them

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

there is no productive activity connected with them

The correct answer is there is no productive activity connected with them

Key Points

  • Windfall gains are unexpected or sudden profits that arise from unforeseen events such as natural resources being discovered or an unexpected increase in the value of assets.
  • These gains do not result from any productive activity or efforts that contribute to the economy’s output.
  • National income is calculated based on the value added by productive activities in the economy (i.e., goods and services produced).
  • Since windfall gains are not linked to any productive activity, they are excluded from the calculation of national income.

Additional Information

  • National Income is the total monetary value of goods and services produced within the territory of the country in a given period of time.
  • National Income = C+I+G+ (X-M)
  • Here,
  • C stands for Consumption
  • I stands for Total Investment
  • G stands for Total Government Expenditure
  • X stands for Export
  • M stands for Import
  • | Methods of calculating National Income | Meaning | | --- | --- | | Income Method | It is measured by adding four factors of production i.e. land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship. | | Production Method | It is also known as Value Added Method. In this national income is measured on the value of intermediate goods and final goods. | | Expenditure Method | It is also known as Income Disposal Method. In this method, national income is measured by taking the final expenditure incurred by all sectors of the economy. |
44

Which body was responsible for formulating, implementing and regulating the five year plans before the year 2015? 

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India 

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Rural Development 

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Finance 

  4. ((d))

    Planning Commission 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Planning Commission 

The correct answer is The Planning Commission. 

Key Points

  • The Planning Commission was established in 1950 to formulate and implement economic plans and policies for the country.
  • It was responsible for creating five-year plans for the development of various sectors in India.
  • The first five-year plan was launched in 1951 and focused on agriculture, irrigation, power, and transport.
  • Subsequent plans addressed issues such as poverty alleviation, industrialization, and education.

Additional Information

  • The Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015.
  • The new organization is responsible for providing strategic and technical advice to the government on various policy matters.
  • The Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India, consisting of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • It is responsible for enacting laws and overseeing the functioning of the government.
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the central and state governments.
  • It is also responsible for recommending measures to improve the financial position of the states.
45

In _______, as an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the Indian rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. 

  1. ((a))

    1971

  2. ((b))

    1981

  3. ((c))

    1991

  4. ((d))

    1961

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1991

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

  • In 1991, India still had a fixed exchange system, where the rupee was pegged to the value of a basket of currencies of major trading partners.
  • India started having balance of payments problems since 1985, and by the end of 1990, it found itself in serious economic trouble.
  • The government was close to default and its foreign exchange reserves had dried up to the point that India could barely finance three weeks’ worth of imports. As in 1966, India faced high inflation and large government budget deficits.This led the government to devalue the rupee.
  • At the end of 1991, the Indian Rupee was devalued considerably**. India devalued its rupee in 1966 and 1991.**
  • The Indian rupee was devalued in the years 1949, 1966, and 1991 by the government of India.

Additional Information

  • The balance of payments (BOP) of a country is the record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world in a particular period (over a quarter of a year or more commonly over a year).
  • Balance of Payment (BoP) of a country can be defined as a systematic statement of all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a specific period usually one year.
  • It indicates whether the country has a surplus or a deficit in trade.
  • When exports exceed imports, there is a trade surplus and when imports exceed exports there is a trade deficit.
  • Components of BoP:
  • For preparing BoP accounts, economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world are grouped under - Current account, Capital account, and Errors and Omissions. It also shows changes in Foreign Exchange Reserves.
  • Current Account: It shows the export and import of visible (also called merchandise or goods - represent trade balance) and invisible (also called non-merchandise).
  • Invisibles include services, transfers, and income.
  • Capital Account: It confers capital expenditure and income for a country.
  • It gives a summary of the net flow of both private and public investment into an economy.
  • External Commercial Borrowing (ECB), Foreign Direct Investment, Foreign Portfolio Investment, etc form a part of the capital account.
46

________ scheme was announced based on the five pillars to overcome difficulties caused due to COVID-19 in India. 

  1. ((a))

    Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan 

  2. ((b))

    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan 

  3. ((c))

    PM-JAY 

  4. ((d))

    Ayushman Bharat 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan 

The correct answer is Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan 

Key Points

  • Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Campaign) was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in May 2020 to help overcome the economic difficulties caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The scheme was designed to make India self-reliant and focused on five key pillars:
  1. Economy
  2. Infrastructure
  3. System
  4. Vibrant Demography
  5. Demand
  • This initiative aimed to promote local manufacturing, improve supply chains, and strengthen various sectors to reduce dependence on foreign resources.

Additional Information

  • Swachh Bharat Abhiyan 
  • Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on October 2, 2014.
  • The scheme aimed to achieve a clean and open defecation free India.
  • It is implemented by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
  • It seeks to improve the level of cleanliness in rural areas by solid and liquid waste management activities.
  • It is working towards making gram panchayats open defecation free, clean, and sanitized.
  • More than 10 crore individual toilets have been constructed since the launch of the mission.
  • PM-JAY 
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana from Ranchi in Jharkhand on 23rd September 2018.
  • Over two crore people have availed of treatment under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
  • The scheme, which is the world's largest health care program, provides a cover of up to Rs. 5 lacks per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families.
  • It helps to reduce hospital expenditure and mitigate financial risk.
  • It provides cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiaries at the point of service.
47

The ‘Sinhalese’ ethnic group is found in which of the following countries? 

  1. ((a))

    Nepal

  2. ((b))

    Myanmar

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sri Lanka

The correct answer is Sri Lanka

Key Points

Sinhala - Language in Sri Lanka

  • Sinhala is the native language of the Sinhalese people.
  • It constitutes approximately 70 percent of Sri Lanka’s population, which equals approximately 13 million people.
  • Sinhala is also spoken among other ethnic groups on the island as a second language, making it the most widely spoken language in Sri Lanka.
  • It was greatly influenced by Pali, the liturgical language of Sri Lankan Buddhists.
  • Due to the centuries of colonial rule in Sri Lanka, Sinhala contains many Portuguese, Dutch and English loanwords.
  • Sinhala also has a number of words borrowed from Tamil.

Additional Information

Indonesian - Language of Indonesia

  • Indonesian (locally referred to as Bahasa Indonesia) is the primary lingua franca.
  • Indonesian is spoken by over 94% of the population, but it is the primary language of only 20% of the population.
  • Javanese (Jawa) is the most common primary language, spoken by over 30% of the population.

Burmese - Language of Myanmar

  • The official language is Burmese, spoken by the people of the plains and, as a second language, by most people of the hills.
  • During the colonial period, English became the official language, but Burmese continued as the primary language in all other settings.
48

Gandhiji participated in the ________ as a result of Gandhi-Irwin Pact. 

  1. ((a))

    Second Round Table Conference

  2. ((b))

    Quit India Movement

  3. ((c))

    First Round Table Conference

  4. ((d))

    Khilafat movement 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Second Round Table Conference

The correct answer is Second Round Table Conference

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi participated in the Second Round Table Conference as a result of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin
  • The pact included the following conditions:
  • The Indian National Congress would participate in the Second Round Table Conference
  • The Civil Disobedience Movement would be suspended
  • The government would release most civil disobedience volunteers

Additional Information

Gandhi Irwin Pact -

  • The government agreed to withdraw all ordinances.
  • It agreed to release all political prisoners to save those involved in violence.
  • It agreed to allow peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops.
  • It agreed to revoke the ban on the INC.
  • It agreed to restore the confiscated properties of the Satyagrahis.
  • It agreed to permit the collection of salt by people near the sea coasts.
  • It agreed to forego fines not yet collected.
  • It agreed to the lenient treatment of all government servants who had resigned from service in the wake of the civil disobedience movement.
49

Who composed the play ‘Mrichchhakatika’?

  1. ((a))

    Bhans

  2. ((b))

    Atool

  3. ((c))

    Atul

  4. ((d))

    Sudraka

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sudraka

The correct answer is Shudraka.

Key Points

  • Mrichchhakatika:-
  • It is a Sanskrit play, also known as 'The Little Clay Cart'.
  • It is believed to have been written by Shudraka, a playwright who lived in ancient India in the 5th century CE.
  • The play is a romantic comedy that tells the story of a poor Brahmin named Charudatta and his love for a courtesan named Vasantasena.
  • Shudraka is considered one of the greatest playwrights of ancient India, along with Kalidasa and Bhasa.

Additional Information

  • Sudraka was a king and a scholar, believed to have lived around the 3rd century CE.
  • "Mrichchhakatika" is notable for its realistic portrayal of society and its departure from the more idealistic themes of earlier Sanskrit drama.
  • The play also provides a glimpse into the economic and social conditions of the time, including the life of courtesans and the struggles of the lower classes.
  • It has been translated into numerous languages and adapted into various forms, including theater and film.
  • The play's themes of love, sacrifice, and justice continue to resonate with audiences today.
50

The Chief Justice of India will take prior permission from the _____________, while appointing Adhoc Judges.

  1. ((a))

    Prime Minister of India

  2. ((b))

    Collegium of the Supreme Court 

  3. ((c))

    Parliament

  4. ((d))

    President of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

President of India

The correct answer is President of India

Key Points

  • According to the Constitution of India, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is required to seek the prior permission of the President of India before appointing Adhoc Judges in the Supreme Court of India.
  • An Ad hoc judge is a Supreme Court judge appointed by a procedure for a specific project or case for a specific period of time.
  • When a quorum of permanent judges is required to continue or hold a Supreme Court session, Article 127 of the Indian Constitution proposes that the Chief Justice of India can appoint a High Court judge as an ad hoc Supreme Court judge for a specified time.
  • The Supreme Court Chief Justice can only do so after consulting with the Chief Justice of the High Court in question and receiving the President's prior consent.
  • The judge chosen for this position must be eligible to sit on the Indian Supreme Court.
  • Above all other obligations, it is the judge so designated's responsibility to attend Supreme Court sessions.
  • In doing so, the Ad hoc judge in India has all of the power, authority, benefits, and obligations of a Supreme Court judge.

Additional Information

  • Ad hoc Judges' Role:
  • Cases that are more than five years old are usually assigned to ad hoc judges. Regardless, it would not be inappropriate for the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to exercise his discretion in hearing such cases.
  • It is not necessary to form a divisional bench of Ad hoc Judges and Sitting Judges in cases to be heard before the Division Bench. At the moment, the Division Bench may only be made up of ad hoc judges because these are old cases that need to be heard.
  • Because an ad hoc judge's role is to carry out the functions of a Supreme Court Justice, it would be inappropriate for an ad hoc judge to perform any other permitted work.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(63, 9, 36)

(105, 15, 60)

  1. ((a))

    (133, 17, 74)

  2. ((b))

    (129, 19, 74)

  3. ((c))

    (129, 17, 76) 

  4. ((d))

    (133, 19, 76)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(133, 19, 76)

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: 2nd number × 7 = 1st number; 2nd number × 4 = 3rd number.

Now,

For (63, 9, 36):

⇒ 9 × 7 = 63

⇒ 9 × 4 = 36

For (105, 15, 60):

⇒ 15 × 7 = 105

⇒ 15 × 4 = 60

Similarly, For (133, 19, 76):

⇒ 19 × 7 = 133

⇒ 19 × 4 = 76

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

52

How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

13

Counting the triangles are there in the given figure :

Hence, the correct answer is "13".

53

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

8 * 14 * 3 * 24 * 7 = 168

  1. ((a))

    ×, ×, −, ×

  2. ((b))

    +, ×, −, × 

  3. ((c))

    +, ×, −, + 

  4. ((d))

    ×, −, ×, +

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

×, ×, −, ×

Given equation: 8 * 14 * 3 * 24 * 7 = 168

Option 1) ×, ×, −, ×

By mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 8 × 14 × 3 - 24 × 7 = 168

⇒ 336 - 168 = 168

⇒ 168 = 168

Option 2) +, ×, −, × 

By mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 8 + 14 × 3 - 24 × 7 = 168

⇒ 8 + 42 - 168 = 168

⇒ 50 - 168 = 168

⇒ -118 = 168

Option 3) +, ×, −, + 

By mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 8 + 14 × 3 - 24 + 7 = 168

8 + 42 - 24 + 7 = 168

57 - 24 = 168

⇒ 33 = 168

Option 4) ×, −, ×, +

By mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs then:

⇒ 8 × 14 - 3 × 24 + 7 = 168

112 - 72 + 7 = 168

119 - 72 = 168

⇒ 47 = 168

Hence, the correct answer is "×, ×, −, ×".

54

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

55

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

56

Select a figure from amongst the four given options which, when placed in the blank space of figure (X), would complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

57

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘3’. 

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 3,

From both dices, 2 and 1 are common. So, remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

So, '5' will be the opposite face of '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "5"

58

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-right corner, top-left corner, left-middle and right-middle element (all 4 elements) are interchanging their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Top-middle both element are interchanging and bottom-middle and middle element are interchanging their position with each other.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All 3 horizontally middle symbols are shifting their position in clockwise direction.

All top 4 symbols are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Bottom-middle symbol is replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

59

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘3’. 

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dice, 4 and 6 are common. So, the remaining surfaces will be opposite each other.

So, '5' will be the opposite face of '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "5"

60

If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘×’, ‘C’ denotes ‘−’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

80 C 4 B 5 A 20 = ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    80

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

80

Given Equation: 80 C 4 B 5 A 20 = ? 

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning+×-÷

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 80 - 4 × 5 + 20 = ? 

80 - 20 + 20 = ? 

100 - 20 = 80.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

61

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

62

Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

TVU, QSS, NPQ, KMO, ?

  1. ((a))

    HKM

  2. ((b))

    HKL

  3. ((c))

    IKM

  4. ((d))

    HJM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

HJM

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "HJM".

63

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

64

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'AB' as shown. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

65

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

66

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

23 ∶ 92 ∶∶ 44 ∶ ? ∶∶ 32 ∶ 128

  1. ((a))

    204

  2. ((b))

    160

  3. ((c))

    172

  4. ((d))

    176

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

176

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 23 : 92

⇒ 23 × 4 = 92

For, 32 : 128

⇒ 32 × 4 = 128

Similarly, for 44 : ?

⇒ 44 × 4 = 174.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

67

In a certain code language, ‘HAND’ is written as ‘16’ and ‘ENTRY’ is written as ‘20’. How will ‘AIRPORT’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28

The logic followed here is: Number of letters in the word × 4 = Code.

‘HAND’ is written as ‘16’ → 4 × 4 = 16

‘ENTRY’ is written as ‘20’ → 5 × 4 = 20

Similarly, ‘AIRPORT’ will be written as: → 7 × 4 = 28

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

68

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster and the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster.

GBEJ : DGBO :: TJDG : QOAL :: BAHQ : ?

  1. ((a))

    PLWM

  2. ((b))

    YFEV

  3. ((c))

    YFRM

  4. ((d))

    OJEH

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

YFEV

The logic followed here is:

GBEJ : DGBO

TJDG : QOAL

Similarly, BAHQ : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "YFEV".

69

Select the number from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

3, 6, 12, 24, ?, 96

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    84

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

48

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "48".

70

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Bottom-left, bottom-right and top-right element are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Middle-right and middle element are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Bottom-left and middle element are interchanging their position.

Top-right, middle-right and bottom-right element are shifting their position in an anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

71

A square transparent sheet with a pattern is shown in the given figure. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A transparent sheet with a pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

72

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left, left-middle, top-middle and middle elements (all 4 elements) are interchanging their position in clockwise direction.

Top-right, bottom-right and bottom-middle element are interchanging their position with each other in an anticlockwise direction.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Top-left, left-middle, and middle elements (all 3 elements) are interchanging their position in clockwise direction.

Top-right, top-middle, bottom-right, and bottom-middle element (all 4 elements) are interchanging their position with each other in a clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

73

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some balloons are cars.

Some cars are rockets.

Conclusions:

I. Some rockets are balloons.

II. All rockets are balloons.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Statements:

Some balloons are cars.

Some cars are rockets.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some rockets are balloons. - False (because there is no direct relation given between rockets and balloons. So, it can be possible but not definite)

II. All rockets are balloons. - False (because there is no direct relation given between rockets and balloons. So, it can be possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

74

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

75

6 persons are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, with each person facing another person. Anshu is between Rohin and Sonal. Rohin is opposite to Leena. Fizza is not the immediate neighbour of Rohin. Who is sitting opposite to Prabhleen?

  1. ((a))

    Sonal

  2. ((b))

    Leena

  3. ((c))

    Anshu

  4. ((d))

    Fizza

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sonal

Given: 6 persons are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, with each person facing another person.

  1. Rohin is opposite to Leena.

2) Anshu is between Rohin and Sonal.

  1. Fizza is not the immediate neighbour of Rohin.

Final arrangement:

So, Sonal is sitting opposite to Prabhleen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sonal".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A shopkeeper is offering 10% discount on a shirt marked at Rs. 4,000 and still earns a profit of 20%. What is the cost price (in Rs.)? 

  1. ((a))

    3,200

  2. ((b))

    3,333

  3. ((c))

    3,600

  4. ((d))

    3,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3,000

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹4,000

Discount = 10%

Profit = 20%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount

SP = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Calculation:

Discount = 10% of ₹4,000

⇒ Discount = 0.10 × 4,000 = ₹400

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount

⇒ SP = 4,000 - 400 = ₹3,600

Profit = 20% of CP

⇒ SP = CP + Profit

⇒ 3,600 = CP + 0.20 × CP

⇒ 3,600 = 1.20 × CP

⇒ CP = 3,600 / 1.20

⇒ CP = ₹3,000

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

77

Find the volume (in cm3) of a cylinder with the diameter of base 8 cm and height 35 cm.

(Take π=227\pi=\frac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    1760

  2. ((b))

    1792

  3. ((c))

    1780

  4. ((d))

    1731

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1760

Given:

Diameter of base (d) = 8 cm

Height (h) = 35 cm

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder (V) = πr2h

Where, r = radius of base

Calculation:

Radius (r) = d/2 = 8/2 = 4 cm

Volume (V) = πr2h

⇒ V = (22/7) × 42 × 35

⇒ V = (22/7) × 16 × 35

⇒ V = (22 × 16 × 35) / 7

⇒ V = (12320) / 7

⇒ V = 1760 cm3

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

78

The average weight of the first 14 persons among 15 persons is 80 kg. The weight of the 15th person is 42 kg more than the average weight of all 15 persons. Find the weight (in Kg) of the 15th person.

  1. ((a))

    127

  2. ((b))

    121

  3. ((c))

    125

  4. ((d))

    123

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

125

Given:

The average weight of the first 14 persons among 15 persons is 80 kg.

The weight of the 15th person is 42 kg more than the average weight of all 15 persons.

Formula used:

Average weight of 15 persons = Total weight of 15 persons / 15

Total weight of 14 persons = Average weight of 14 persons × 14

Calculation:

Total weight of 14 persons = 80 × 14

⇒ Total weight of 14 persons = 1120 kg

Let the average weight of all 15 persons be x kg.

Weight of the 15th person = x + 42 kg

Total weight of 15 persons = 1120 + (x + 42)

⇒ 15x = 1120 + x + 42

⇒ 15x - x = 1120 + 42

⇒ 14x = 1162

⇒ x = 83 kg

Weight of the 15th person = 83 + 42

⇒ Weight of the 15th person = 125 kg

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

79

Find the area (in square cm) of a right angled triangle whose altitude is 7 cm less than its base and its hypotenuse is 17 cm.

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    84

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

60

Given:

Altitude = Base - 7 cm

Hypotenuse = 17 cm

Formula used:

In a right-angled triangle, (Hypotenuse)2 = (Base)2 + (Altitude)2

Calculations:

Let the base be x cm. Then, the altitude is (x - 7) cm.

Using the Pythagorean theorem:

(17)2 = x2 + (x - 7)2

⇒ 289 = x2 + (x2 - 14x + 49)

⇒ 289 = 2x2 - 14x + 49

⇒ 2x2 - 14x + 49 = 289

⇒ 2x2 - 14x - 240 = 0

Solving the quadratic equation:

x2 - 7x - 120 = 0

⇒ (x - 15)(x + 8) = 0

⇒ x = 15 or x = -8

Since base length cannot be negative, x = 15 cm.

Altitude = 15 - 7 = 8 cm

Area of the triangle = (1/2) × Base × Altitude

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 15 × 8

⇒ Area = 60 square cm

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

80

How much should you invest today at 10% compound interest annually to accumulate Rs. 1,46,410 in 4 years?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,00,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,10,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,11,100

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,00,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,00,000

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹1,46,410

Rate (r) = 10% per annum

Time (t) = 4 years

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r100\frac{r}{100})t

Where, P = Principal

Calculation:

1,46,410 = P(1 + 10100\frac{10}{100})4

⇒ 1,46,410 = P(1.1)4

⇒ 1,46,410 = P × 1.4641

⇒ P = 1,46,4101.4641\frac{1,46,410}{1.4641}

⇒ P = ₹1,00,000

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

81

Deepa deposited Rs. 10,000 in a bank on simple interest. After 4 years, she received an amount of Rs. 12,400. Find the rate of interest. 

  1. ((a))

    6% p.a. 

  2. ((b))

    7% p.a.

  3. ((c))

    5.5% p.a. 

  4. ((d))

    6.5% p.a. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6% p.a. 

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest (SI) = 12,400 − 10,000 = Rs. 2,400

SI for 1 year = 2,400 ÷ 4 = Rs. 600

Rate of Interest (R) = (SI for 1 year ÷ Principal) × 100

⇒ R = (600 ÷ 10000) × 100 = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6% p.a.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 10,000

Amount (A) = Rs. 12,400

Time (T) = 4 years

0 Years P = ₹10,000

4 Years A = ₹12,400

  • SI = ₹2,400

SI per year = ₹2400 ÷ 4 = ₹600

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Amount (A) − Principal (P)

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = 12400 − 10000 = Rs. 2400

⇒ 2400 = (10000 × R × 4) ÷ 100

⇒ 2400 = 100 × R × 4

⇒ 2400 = 400 × R

⇒ R = 2400 ÷ 400

⇒ R = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6% p.a.

Additional Information

Difference between SI and CI

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount, while Compound Interest is calculated on the principal as well as the accumulated interest.

SI vs CI for 2 Years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on the same principal for 2 years is given by: Difference = P(R ÷ 100)2

Rule of 72

A quick way to estimate the number of years required to double your money at a given annual fixed interest rate (R) is approximately 72 ÷ R.

82

The largest 4-digit prime number is: 

  1. ((a))

    9991

  2. ((b))

    9967

  3. ((c))

    9983

  4. ((d))

    9973

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9973

Given:

The largest 4-digit prime number is:

Formula used:

Prime Number: A number that is greater than 1 and has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

Calculation:

Checking the options:

9991: Not a prime number (divisible by 97)

9967: Prime number

9983: Not a prime number (divisible by 67)

9973: Prime number

Since, 9973 > 9967

Hence, largest 4-digit prime number is 9973.

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

83

A man takes 40 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 9 km/h. If he walks with a speed of 12 km/h, he covers the same distance in:

  1. ((a))

    28 minutes

  2. ((b))

    32 minutes

  3. ((c))

    25 minutes

  4. ((d))

    30 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

30 minutes

Given:

A man takes 40 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 9 km/h.

Formula used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

First, find the distance covered:

Distance = Speed × Time

Distance = 9 km/h × (40/60) h

⇒ Distance = 9 × (2/3)

⇒ Distance = 6 km

Now, calculate the time taken at a speed of 12 km/h:

Time = Distance / Speed

Time = 6 km / 12 km/h

⇒ Time = 0.5 hours

Convert hours into minutes:

Time = 0.5 × 60 minutes

⇒ Time = 30 minutes

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

84

Ram and Naresh can complete a work together in 20 days and Naresh and Shyam together in 15 days. All three together can complete the work in 12 days. In how many days can Ram and Shyam together complete the work?

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20

Given:

Ram and Naresh together can complete the work in 20 days.

Naresh and Shyam together can complete the work in 15 days.

All three (Ram, Naresh, and Shyam) together can complete the work in 12 days.

Formula used:

The rate of work is the reciprocal of the time taken to complete the work.

If Ram, Naresh, and Shyam together complete the work in 12 days, then their combined rate of work is:

Rate of work = 1 / Time taken = 1 / 12

Let:

Ram's rate of work = Rr

Naresh's rate of work = Rn

Shyam's rate of work = Rs

From the given data, we can form the following equations based on the rates of work:

  1. Rr + Rn = 1 / 20 (Ram and Naresh together complete the work in 20 days)
  2. Rn + Rs = 1 / 15 (Naresh and Shyam together complete the work in 15 days)
  3. Rr + Rn + Rs = 1 / 12 (All three together complete the work in 12 days)

Calculation:

From equation (1): Rr + Rn = 1 / 20

From equation (2): Rn + Rs = 1 / 15

From equation (3): Rr + Rn + Rs = 1 / 12

Now, subtract equation (1) from equation (3):

(Rr + Rn + Rs) - (Rr + Rn) = 1 / 12 - 1 / 20

⇒ Rs = (1 / 12 - 1 / 20)

Find a common denominator for the fractions:

⇒ Rs = (5 - 3) / 60

⇒ Rs = 2 / 60 = 1 / 30

So, Shyam's rate of work is 1 / 30.

Now, substitute Rs = 1 / 30 into equation (2):

Rn + 1 / 30 = 1 / 15

⇒ Rn = 1 / 15 - 1 / 30

⇒ Rn = (2 - 1) / 30

⇒ Rn = 1 / 30

Now, substitute Rn = 1 / 30 into equation (1):

Rr + 1 / 30 = 1 / 20

⇒ Rr = 1 / 20 - 1 / 30

Find a common denominator for the fractions:

⇒ Rr = (3 - 2) / 60

⇒ Rr = 1 / 60

Finally, calculate the rate of work of Ram and Shyam together:

Rr + Rs = 1 / 60 + 1 / 30

⇒ Rr + Rs = (1 + 2) / 60

⇒ Rr + Rs = 3 / 60 = 1 / 20

Therefore, Ram and Shyam together can complete the work in 20 days.

∴ The time taken by Ram and Shyam together to complete the work is 20 days.

85

If 3y = A and 6A = 3B, then yB\frac{y}{B} is:

  1. ((a))

    61\frac{6}{1}

  2. ((b))

    15\frac{1}{5}

  3. ((c))

    13\frac{1}{3}

  4. ((d))

    16\frac{1}{6}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16\frac{1}{6}

Given:

3y = A

6A = 3B

Formula used:

We need to find the value of (y)/(B).

Calculation:

3y = A

⇒ y = A/3

6A = 3B

⇒ 2A = B

Therefore, (y)/(B) = (A/3)/(2A)

⇒ (y)/(B) = 1/(6)

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

86

What is the smallest number which leaves remainder 3 when divided by any of the numbers 5, 8 and 9, but leaves no remainder when it is divided by 11?

  1. ((a))

    363

  2. ((b))

    563

  3. ((c))

    463

  4. ((d))

    663

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

363

Given:

We need to find the smallest number which leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5, 8, and 9, but leaves no remainder when it is divided by 11.

Formula used:

Number = LCM(5, 8, 9) + 3

The number must also be divisible by 11.

Calculation:

LCM of 5, 8, and 9 = 360

Number = 360k + 3 (where k is an integer)

The number must be divisible by 11

⇒ 360k + 3 ≡ 0 (mod 11)

⇒ 360k ≡ -3 (mod 11)

⇒ 360 ≡ 8 (mod 11) (since 360 mod 11 = 8)

⇒ 8k ≡ -3 (mod 11)

⇒ 8k ≡ 8 (mod 11)

⇒ k ≡ 1 (mod 11)

⇒ k = 1

⇒ Number = 360 × 1 + 3 = 363

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

87

Amit received his monthly salary. The ratio of his expenditure to savings is 3 : 2. What percentage of his salary did he spend and what percentage was saved by him, respectively?

  1. ((a))

    60% and 40%

  2. ((b))

    65% and 35%

  3. ((c))

    70% and 30%

  4. ((d))

    55% and 45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

60% and 40%

Given:

Amit's expenditure to savings ratio = 3:2

Formula used:

Total salary = Expenditure + Savings

Let the total salary be 5 units (since 3 + 2 = 5)

Expenditure = 3 units

Savings = 2 units

Calculation:

Percentage of expenditure = 35×100\dfrac{3}{5} \times 100

35×100=60\dfrac{3}{5} \times 100 = 60%

Percentage of savings = 25×100\dfrac{2}{5} \times 100

25×100=40\dfrac{2}{5} \times 100 = 40%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

88

Find the number of ways in which 960 can be written as the product of two numbers that are co-prime to each other.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Solution:

We need to find the number of ways to express 960 as a product of two numbers that are co-prime to each other. Two numbers are co-prime if their greatest common divisor (GCD) is 1.

Step 1: Prime factorization of 960

960 = 26 × 3 × 5

Step 2: Concept of co-prime pairs

For two numbers to be co-prime, all prime factors of 960 must be assigned to exactly one of the two numbers. This ensures that there are no common factors between them.

Step 3: Distribute the prime factors

There are three distinct prime factors of 960: 2, 3, and 5.

Each prime factor can either go to the first number or the second number. Thus, there are 23 = 8 ways to assign the factors to the two numbers.

However, since swapping the two numbers does not create a new pair, we divide the result by 2.

Number of unique ways = 8 / 2 = 4.

Step 4: Verify the pairs

The four ways to divide the prime factors are:

First number: 26, Second number: 3 × 5

First number: 26 × 3, Second number: 5

First number: 26 × 5, Second number: 3

First number: 26 × 3 × 5, Second number: 1

∴ The number of ways to write 960 as the product of two co-prime numbers is 4.

89

A person has some amount initially. He gives 30% of the amount to his wife. Then from the remaining amount, he gives 20%, 20% and 15%, respectively, to both his sons and one daughter. Now from the amount left, he pays 1/3 of the amount as house rent and the remaining amount of Rs. 33,600 he deposits in the bank. Find his initial amount.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,00,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,40,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,60,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,20,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 1,60,000

Given:

A person has some amount initially.

He gives 30% of the amount to his wife.

From the remaining amount, he gives 20%, 20%, and 15% respectively to his two sons and one daughter.

From the amount left, he pays 1/3 as house rent.

Remaining amount = ₹33,600

Formula used:

Initial amount = Final remaining amount ÷ Remaining fraction after deductions

Calculation:

Let the initial amount be x

Amount given to wife = 0.3x

Remaining = 0.7x

Amount given to two sons and one daughter = 0.2 × 0.7x + 0.2 × 0.7x + 0.15 × 0.7x

⇒ 0.14x + 0.14x + 0.105x = 0.385x

Remaining after giving to children = 0.7x - 0.385x = 0.315x

House rent = 13×0.315x\dfrac{1}{3} \times 0.315x = 0.105x

Remaining after rent = 0.315x - 0.105x = 0.21x

Given remaining amount = ₹33,600

⇒ 0.21x = 33,600

⇒ x =33,6000.21\dfrac{33,600}{0.21}

⇒ x = 1,60,000

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

90

The selling price of 61 items is equal to the cost price of 53 items. What is the profit or loss percentage (rounded off to two decimal places)?

  1. ((a))

    8.25% loss 

  2. ((b))

    8.25% profit

  3. ((c))

    13.11% loss

  4. ((d))

    13.11% profit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13.11% loss

Given:

The selling price of 61 items is equal to the cost price of 53 items.

Formula used:

Profit or Loss Percentage = (SellingPriceCostPrice)CostPrice×100\dfrac{(Selling Price - Cost Price)}{Cost Price} \times 100

Calculation:

Let Cost Price (CP) of 1 item be ₹1.

Then, Cost Price (CP) of 53 items = ₹53.

Selling Price (SP) of 61 items = ₹53.

Cost Price (CP) of 61 items = ₹61.

⇒ Loss = CP - SP

⇒ Loss = ₹61 - ₹53

⇒ Loss = ₹8

Loss Percentage = 861×100\dfrac{8}{61} \times 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 80061\dfrac{800}{61}

⇒ Loss Percentage ≈ 13.11%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

When replying to an email, what is the key difference between ‘Reply’ and ‘Reply all’?

  1. ((a))

    ‘Reply’ forwards email to specific contacts, while ‘Reply all’ forwards the original email to all contacts in the address book.

  2. ((b))

    ‘Reply’ allows you to edit the original email’s content before sending the response, while ‘Reply all’ automatically includes the entire original email’s content in the response.

  3. ((c))

    ‘Reply’ sends the response only to the original sender, while ‘Reply all’ sends the response to all recipients of the original email. 

  4. ((d))

    ‘Reply’ attaches any files from the original email, while ‘Reply all’ includes any attachments along with the entire original email’s content in response.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

‘Reply’ sends the response only to the original sender, while ‘Reply all’ sends the response to all recipients of the original email. 

The correct answer is ​‘Reply’ sends the response only to the original sender, while ‘Reply all’ sends the response to all recipients of the original email.

 Key Points

  • Using the TO Field: Under email etiquette, the TO field should contain the email's primary recipient(s). This field needs to contain the recipients who must respond to the email in order for it to be more accurate.
  • Add the recipients to the "To" field. Moreover, you can add recipients: in both the "Cc" and "Bcc" fields. When writing a message, including the contact's name in the text field along with the "+" or "@mention" symbol.
  • The "To" field is the recipient field that is the easiest to understand. It's intended for your email's primary recipients. These recipients should be the primary focus of your message.

 Additional Information

  • The Bcc (blind carbon copy) box in an email message allows you to send a duplicate of the message to a specific recipient while hiding their name from other recipients.
  • The Bcc box will show up whenever you create a message from the time you turn it on until you turn it off.
  • A copy of the email you are sending will also be sent to the email address you enter in the "carbon copy" or "CC" field.
  • The first line of text recipients sees when they open your email is the subject line.
92

In MS word 365 To change the formatting of the text to match the formatting of other text in a document, which of the following tools can be used? 

  1. ((a))

    Format painter

  2. ((b))

    Paragraph alignment 

  3. ((c))

    SmartArt

  4. ((d))

    Change styles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Format painter

The correct answer is Format painter.

Key Points

  • Format painter
  • Format Painter is a tool that allows users to copy formatting from one part of a document and apply it to another part. This can include text formatting (like font style, size, and color) as well as paragraph formatting (like alignment and line spacing).
  • It is commonly used in various Microsoft Office applications such as Word, Excel, and PowerPoint.
  • Using Format Painter can save time and ensure consistency in document formatting.

 Additional Information

  • Paragraph alignment
  • The alignment buttons in the Home tab in the Paragraph section allows us to change the alignment.
  • Left
  • Right
  • Centre
  • Justified
  • It also provides the alignment for other objects such as picture, symbol, shapes etc.

SmartArt:- The variety of visuals available in Word that you may use to make diagrams, including flow charts, process charts, organizational charts, and similar graphics, is referred to as "SmartArt."

93

In MS Excel 365 which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to save a workbook in MS-Excel? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + S 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Alt + S 

  3. ((c))

    Shift + S 

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Shift + S

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + S 

The correct answer is Ctrl + S.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + S: Saves the currently open workbook.
  • Ctrl + Alt + S: Opens the Save As dialog box, allowing you to save the workbook with a new name or to a different location.
  • Shift + S: No specific function in Excel.
  • Ctrl + Shift + S: Saves the workbook and closes it simultaneously.
94

In Microsoft Word 2019, which option is common in both the 'Indents & Spacing' and 'Line & Page Breaks' tabs of the 'Paragraph' dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    Preview

  2. ((b))

    General

  3. ((c))

    Textbox options

  4. ((d))

    Indentation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Preview

The correct answer is Preview.

Key Points

  • Preview: Displays a simulated printed version of your document, allowing you to check for layout issues, page breaks, and overall appearance before actually printing.

Additional Information

  • General: Refers to the main settings and options for a document, such as font, font size, line spacing, and paragraph alignment.
  • Textbox Options: Controls the appearance and behavior of text boxes within your document, including their size, color, border, and shading.
  • Indentation: Adjusts the spacing of text from the left or right margins, creating visual structure and hierarchy within your document.
  • Indentation: Can be applied to paragraphs, lists, and individual lines of text, using options like first line indent, hanging indent, and left/right indent.
95

In MS Excel 365, when you right-click on a cell and select 'Filter,' which of the following options is NOT visible?

  1. ((a))

    Filter by selected cell colour

  2. ((b))

    Filter by selected cell font 

  3. ((c))

    Filter by selected cell height 

  4. ((d))

    Filter by selected cell values 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Filter by selected cell height 

The correct answer is Filter by selected cell height.

Key Points

  • AutoFilter is an Excel feature that lets you filter out rows from a data table.
  • The Filter tool in MS excel gives the user the ability to filter a row or column in a table to isolate the essential components that the user needs.
  • Data filter in MS excel refers to displaying only the rows that meet the required conditions and other rows will be hidden.​

 Additional Information

  • Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet developed by Microsoft in 1987 which helps us in graphing tools, pivot tables, calculations, etc.
  • The Microsoft Word or MS Word is a word processor or a graphical word processing program that allows users to type and save documents.
  • The current CEO of Microsoft Corporation is Mr.Satya Nadella. Satya Nadella is the CEO of Microsoft since 2014.
96

In MS Excel 2007, which option is used for opening a new or existing spreadsheet?

  1. ((a))

    Home

  2. ((b))

    Insert

  3. ((c))

    Format

  4. ((d))

    Office button

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Office button

The correct answer is Office button.

Key Points

  • Office Button: The primary access point for file management tasks like opening, saving, printing, and closing workbooks. It replaced the traditional File menu in Excel 2007.

Additional Information

  • Home: Contains the most frequently used commands for working with cells, including formatting (fonts, styles, alignment), editing (cut, copy, paste, clear), and cell operations (insert, delete, merge).
  • Insert: Allows you to add various elements to your worksheet, such as charts, pictures, shapes, tables, and pivot tables.
  • Format: Provides tools to customize the appearance of cells, ranges, and charts, including cell styles, conditional formatting, and data bars.
97

Which of the following is the correct option to draw a line through the middle of text in MS Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Line

  2. ((b))

    Strikethrough

  3. ((c))

    Dash

  4. ((d))

    Underline

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Strikethrough

The correct answer is Strikethrough.

Key Points

  • Strikethrough: Applies a diagonal line through the text, visually indicating that the text is no longer relevant or accurate.
  • Line: Refers to the horizontal lines that separate rows and columns in a table within Word. You can adjust line styles (solid, dashed, dotted), weight, and color.
  • Dash: A type of line style that creates a broken line with gaps between the segments. It can be used for various purposes, such as creating borders, separators, or visual effects.
  • Underline: Adds a line beneath the text, emphasizing or highlighting it. You can choose from different underline styles, such as single, double, wavy, and dotted.
  • Underline: Can also be applied to specific words or phrases within a sentence for added emphasis.
98

Which layer of the internet architecture model is responsible for routing packets between networks?

  1. ((a))

    Transport layer

  2. ((b))

    Data link layer

  3. ((c))

    Network layer

  4. ((d))

    Application layer

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Network layer

The correct answer is Network layer.

Key Points

  • Network Layer: Responsible for logical addressing (IP addresses) and routing data packets between different networks.

Additional Information

  • Transport Layer: Ensures reliable data delivery between applications, managing end-to-end communication (e.g., TCP, UDP).
  • Data Link Layer: Handles the physical transmission of data frames over a single network segment, including error detection and correction.
  • Application Layer: Provides services for user applications, such as email (SMTP), web browsing (HTTP), and file transfer (FTP).
99

Which of the following best describes the difference between Save and Save As?

  1. ((a))

    ‘Save’ is used to save file in a local computer, while ‘Save As’ is used to save it on cloud. 

  2. ((b))

    ‘Save’ is used to save file as read only file, while ‘Save As’ is used to save it as editable file. 

  3. ((c))

    ‘Save’ is used to save the document for the first time, while ‘Save As’ is used to save the document with a new name or different file format. 

  4. ((d))

    ‘Save’ is used to save file in compressed manner, while ‘Save As’ is used to save it as it is. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

‘Save’ is used to save the document for the first time, while ‘Save As’ is used to save the document with a new name or different file format. 

The correct answer is ‘Save’ is used to save the document for the first time, while ‘Save As’ is used to save the document with a new name or different file format.

Key Points

  • Save:
  • This command updates the existing file with the current changes. It overwrites the previous version of the file, effectively replacing it with the latest modifications. This is typically used for ongoing work on a document, where you want to preserve the most recent changes to the same file.
  • Save As:
  • This command creates a new copy of the file, allowing you to save it under a different name or in a different location. This preserves the original file intact while creating a separate version of the document. This is useful when you want to:
  • Create a backup: Save a copy of the file for safekeeping.
  • Save different versions: Maintain multiple versions of the document with different modifications.
  • Change the file format: Save the document in a different format (e.g., PDF, RTF, or DOCX).
  • Save the file in a different location: Move the file to a different folder or drive.
  • In essence:
  • Save: Updates the existing file.
  • Save As: Creates a new copy of the file.
100

Which of the following options will allow you to set text within a paragraph at different margins in MS Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Page breaks 

  2. ((b))

    Border

  3. ((c))

    Line spacing

  4. ((d))

    Indenting

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indenting

The correct answer is Indenting.

Key Points

  • Indenting: Adjusts the spacing of text from the left or right margins, creating visual structure and hierarchy within your document.

Additional Information

  • Page Breaks: Force a new page to begin at a specific location in your document, ensuring content starts at the top of a new page.
  • Border: A line or decorative element that outlines or frames text, paragraphs, or tables, enhancing visual presentation.
  • Line Spacing: Controls the amount of vertical space between lines of text, affecting readability and visual appearance.
  • Line Spacing: Options include single, double, multiple, and at least, allowing for customized spacing based on your document's needs.

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