Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 15 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Atal Community Innovation Centre Programme

Key Points

• The Atal Community Innovation Centre (ACIC) Programme was launched by the NITI Aayog as part of the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).
• The programme is designed to support and promote innovation, entrepreneurship, and the development of local solutions in rural and underserved regions of India.
• The initiative primarily targets communities that lack access to innovation and entrepreneurial opportunities, such as remote and rural regions.
• It  emphasizes the use of solution-driven design thinking and a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model to foster innovation and entrepreneurship

Additional Information

• PLI Scheme (Production-Linked Incentive Scheme):
• The PLI Scheme is designed to encourage domestic manufacturing and reduce dependency on imports, while also creating job opportunities.
• It targets various sectors like electronics, pharmaceuticals, textiles, and automotive, providing incentives to companies based on their production levels and investments.
• One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC):
• The ONORC scheme is a significant reform under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
• It allows ration card holders to access food grains from any Public Distribution System (PDS) shop in the country, ensuring portability for beneficiaries, especially migrant workers and their families.
• This scheme promotes inclusivity and ensures that no one is deprived of food security due to migration.
• Digital Library Mission:
• The Digital Library Mission aims to digitize books, manuscripts, and other knowledge resources to preserve them and make them accessible to people across the world.
• This initiative promotes learning, research, and cultural heritage preservation through the creation of a vast digital library of resources.
• It enables easy access to educational materials for people from all walks of life.

The correct answer is H3O+

Key Points

• When hydrogen ions (H⁺) combine with water molecules, they form a hydronium ion (H₃O⁺).
• This is because H⁺ ions are essentially protons (which are just hydrogen nuclei) and cannot exist freely in aqueous solutions.
• They interact with water molecules to form hydronium ions.
• The hydronium ion represents the protonated form of water and is the actual species responsible for the acidic properties in aqueous solutions.

Additional Information

• HO⁻ (Hydroxide Ion)
• ​The hydroxide ion (OH⁻) is formed when a water molecule (H₂O) loses a proton (H⁺).
• The hydroxide ion is characteristic of basic (alkaline) solutions.
• It acts as a base because it can accept a proton (H⁺).
• Therefore, HO⁻ is associated with basicity or alkalinity rather than acidity.
• For example, in a strong base like sodium hydroxide (NaOH), the OH⁻ ions are responsible for the basicity.
• H₂ (Hydrogen Gas) 
• H₂ is a molecule of hydrogen gas, which consists of two hydrogen atoms (H) bonded together by a covalent bond
• Hydrogen gas (H₂) is neutral in nature and is not related to the concept of acidity or alkalinity.
• It is a molecular species
• H₂SO₄ (Sulfuric Acid)
• ​H₂SO₄ is sulfuric acid, a strong acid that dissociates in water to release hydrogen ions (H⁺).
• Sulfuric acid is one of the strongest acids.
• When it dissolves in water, it releases a significant amount of hydrogen ions (H⁺), which lowers the pH and makes the solution acidic.
• However, sulfuric acid itself is not a direct representation of hydrogen ions in their purest form; it is a compound that produces H⁺ ions in solution.

The correct answer is Western Disturbances

Key Points

• During the winter season, the North-Western part of India gets rainfall from Western disturbances.
• The north-western plains of India experience winter rainfall due to the invasion of the western disturbances rising from the Mediterranean sea, steered by the westerly jetstream.
• As the western disturbances are associated with the cyclonic winds, they bring rainfall.
• Western disturbances, specifically the ones in winter, bring moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent.
• They are the cause of most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across northwest India.
• Western Disturbances are nothing but low-pressure systems on the upper atmosphere which form over the Mediterranean region and travel east across the globe.
• When these low-pressure systems come into the Indian subcontinent they get blocked by the Himalayas and precipitate rain in Northwestern plains and as snow in higher altitudes of the Western Himalayas.
• After precipitating over Northwest India they weaken and devoid of moisture they blow as dry winds creating dense fog over the Northern plains of India.
• 

Additional Information

• Southwest Monsoon
• The Southwest Monsoon occurs between June and September.
• It originates in the Indian Ocean and the southern parts of the Arabian Sea.
• The winds blow from the southwest towards the northeast due to the differential heating of land and water.
• This is the primary rainy season for most of India.
• It brings heavy rainfall to the west coast, northeastern states, and the Himalayan foothills.
• The Western Ghats and parts of the northwest also receive significant rainfall during this time.
• Trade Winds
• The Trade Winds are a component of the global atmospheric circulation and occur between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn (i.e., between 23.5°N and 23.5°S latitude).
• These winds blow from the northeast in the northern hemisphere and from the southeast in the southern hemisphere towards the equator.
• In the northern hemisphere, they are called Northeast Trade Winds, and in the southern hemisphere, they are called Southeast Trade Winds.
• The Trade Winds are consistent and steady, driven by the Earth's rotation and the differential heating of the Earth's surface.
• Northeast Monsoon
• The Northeast Monsoon generally occurs between October and December.
• These winds blow from the northeast, originating from the Asian landmass and the Himalayan region.
• In contrast to the Southwest Monsoon, the winds blow from the northeast towards the southwest.
• These winds are dry and cold in nature.
• The Northeast Monsoon brings rainfall primarily to the southeast coast of India, particularly to Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• It also affects Sri Lanka and other parts of Southeast Asia.
• The rainfall during this period is generally lighter compared to the Southwest Monsoon.

The correct answer is the Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties of citizens were incorporated into the Constitution of India.
• This addition was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The committee, chaired by Swaran Singh, was tasked with  studying the feasibility of including Fundamental Duties.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced these Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• These duties emphasize the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation's integrity, harmony, and progress.

Additional Information

• Bhuta Singh Committee (1988)
• The Bhuta Singh Committee was formed in 1988 to review the backward classes and their conditions.
• The committee was tasked with examining the reservation system and evaluating the socio-economic status of backward classes, particularly Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
• It focused on ensuring that the benefits of reservations were reaching the economically and socially disadvantaged sections of society, in accordance with the constitutional mandate
• Charan Singh Committee (1979)
• The Charan Singh Committee was established in 1979 under the chairmanship of Charan Singh, who was the then Union Minister for Home Affairs.
• The committee was set up to review the Working of the Government of India and recommend improvements. Its major contribution was in areas like land reforms, economic issues, and the agrarian sector.
• The committee was also instrumental in analyzing the structure and impact of existing policies related to agriculture and rural development.
• J.S. Verma Committee (2012)
• The J.S. Verma Committee was set up in 2012 by the Government of India in the aftermath of the 2012 Delhi gang rape case (also known as the Nirbhaya case).
• The committee was tasked with reviewing the laws related to sexual violence and making recommendations to strengthen them.
• Chaired by former Chief Justice of India, J.S. Verma, the committee's report made important recommendations

The correct answer is Conflicts between central and state

Key Points

• Conflicts between the central and state are covered by the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• The Supreme Court's appellate jurisdiction includes: 
• Appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases
• Adjudication of disputes between the Union and States
• Adjudication of disputes between the states
• The Supreme Court also has exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states.

Additional Information

• Original Jurisdiction  
• As a Federal court, the Supreme Court decides disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.
• More elaborately, any dispute between:
• The Centre and one or more states
• The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other
• Between two or more states
• In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
• Advisory Jurisdiction 
• The Constitution under Article 143 authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:
• On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise
• On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanador other similar instruments

The correct answer is 2022

Key Points

• Har Ghar Tiranga’ is a campaign under the aegis of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav to encourage people to bring the Tiranga home and to hoist it to mark the 75th year of India’s independence.
• Bringing the flag home collectively as a nation in the 75th year of independence thus becomes symbolic of not only an act of personal connection to the Tiranga but also an embodiment of our commitment to nation-building.
• The idea behind the initiative is to invoke the feeling of patriotism in the hearts of the people and to promote awareness about the Indian National Flag.
• To mark this momentous occasion, People are encouraged to hoist the flag in Their homes from the 13th to the 15th of August 2022.

Additional Information

• Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
• ​Amrit Mahotsav honours our freedom fighters and the Indian liberation cause in the spirit of Jan-Bhagidari to celebrate 75 years of independence and the glorious history of its people, culture, and achievements.
• The Mahotsav is celebrated as a Jan-Utsav to commemorate India’s 75th year of freedom.
• These pillars are intended to educate the next generation about the history and battle for freedom.
• The goal of the Mahotsav is to establish a vision for India in 2047. It would also motivate people to take action and accomplish their goal of an independent India.
• The festival will feature a variety of social and cultural activities, as well as presentations of technology and scientific advances.
• The Mahotsav will be celebrated as ‘Jan Utsav,’ or the festival of the people of India, in the spirit of ‘Jan Bhagidaris,’ which means that we are all participants and stakeholders in our country’s growth.

The correct answer is 86th. Constitutional Amendment Act

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 later added the 11th fundamental duty to the list.
• The Swaran Singh Committee suggested the adoption of Fundamental Duties in 1976 after they were deemed necessary amid the internal problems of 1975–1977.
• The Fundamental Duties are covered by Article 51A of Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
• The basic requirements imposed by the 42nd Amendment Act of the Constitution in 1976 offer the legislature more ability to uphold these commitments in regard to the fundamental rights, in addition to promoting and producing culture.

Additional Information

• The importance of fundamental duties:
• They serve as a reminder to Indian citizens of their obligations to society, their fellow citizens, and the country.
• They caution people to avoid engaging in anti-social and anti-national behavior.
• They motivate others and instill a sense of devotion and discipline in them.
• They assist the courts in reviewing and determining whether the statute is constitutional.
• There are 11 Fundamental Duties:
• ​To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002)

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

• The Tungabhadra Pushkaram festival was celebrated in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh, on the banks of river Tungabhadra.
• The festival is observed for a period of 12 days.
• Andhra Pradesh CM Jaganmohan Reddy commenced the Pushkaram at Sankal Bagh ghat.
• Like previous years, no Pushkaram (synonymous with holy dips) will be allowed this year due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

• The Commonwealth Youth Games (CYG) is an international multi-sport event organized by the Commonwealth Games Federation.
• The games were held in the years, mid-way between when the Commonwealth Games are held, and 2008.
• They continued to be held every four years, but in the year after the Commonwealth Games are held, from 2011 to 2015.
• Since 2017, they've been held in the year before the Commonwealth Games are held.
• The first edition was held in Edinburgh, Scotland from 10–14 August 2000.
• The age limitation of the athletes is from 14 to 18.

Additional Information

• Commonwealth Youth Games 2023
• The 2023 Commonwealth Youth Games will be held in Port of Spain, Trinidad and Tobago. The games were originally scheduled to be held in 2021, but were postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The games will now be held from 4 to 11 August 2023.
• The Commonwealth Youth Games are a multi-sport event for athletes aged 14 to 18. The games are held every four years and are organized by the Commonwealth Games Federation. The 2023 Commonwealth Youth Games will be the seventh edition of the games.
• The games will feature 10 sports: athletics, badminton, boxing, cycling, gymnastics, judo, netball, rugby sevens, swimming, and tennis. There will also be a cultural program that will feature music, dance, and art from the Commonwealth.

The correct answer is 30 years.

Key Points

• Members of a State Legislative Council (MLC) must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, mentally sound, not insolvent, and must be enrolled voter of the state.
• Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs) are elected for a term of six years, with one-third of the members retiring every two years
• The elections are conducted through a system of indirect election, where members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly, graduates, teachers, and local authority members in the state.
• The person should not be disqualified under the provisions of the Constitution, such as for being of unsound mind or having been convicted of certain offenses.

Additional Information

• The State Legislative Council or Vidhan Parishad is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature; the lower house being the State Legislative Assembly.
• The Legislative Council of a state is constituted as per Article 168 of the Indian Constitution.
• As per Article 171 of the Indian Constitution, the total number of Members in the Legislative council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of Members in the Legislative Assembly.
• Of the total number of Members of the Legislative Council, 1/3 of Members are elected by electorates consisting of the Members of Local Authorities, 1/12 are elected by electorates consisting of graduates residing in the State, 1/12 are elected by electorates consisting of persons engaged in teaching, 1/3 are elected by the Members of Legislative Assembly and the remaining are nominated by the Governor.

The correct answer is increases

Key Points

• Force acting on a unit area is called pressure.
• The pressure increases with increasing depth.
• This is due to the water up above weighs down on the water below.
• Liquid pressure increases as depth increases.
• The pressure is greater on lower surfaces of the body than on the upper surfaces as the pressure in a fluid increases with depth.
• Pressure and depth are directly proportional to each other.

Additional Information 

• The pressure at sea level is taken as the standard atmospheric pressure.
• As the height increases from sea level, the atmospheric pressure decreases.
• At high altitudes where atmospheric pressure is less, it bleeds from the nose due to high blood pressure.
• SI unit of pressure is the pascal.

The correct answer is Uniform Resource Period

Key Points

• The poverty line in India was based on Uniform Reference Period (URP) data until 1993-94.
• People were asked about their consumption expenditure over a 30-day recall period
• It focused on the expenditure of people within a one-month window, which helped in assessing consumption patterns and poverty levels.
• The limitations of the URP method, especially in dealing with infrequently purchased items, led to the adoption of the Mixed Reference Period (MRP) method in 1999-2000 by the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO)

Additional Information

• The methodology followed for poverty estimation by using 61st NSSO data in 2004-05 is the Mixed Recall Method (MRM) only.
• The Planning Commission, using the Expert Group methodology has estimated poverty in 2004-05 using both distributions.
• The percentage and number of poor in 2004-05 estimated from URP consumption distribution of NSS 61st Round of consumer expenditure data are comparable with the poverty estimates of 1993-94.
• Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force through the calculation of the poverty line based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
• Poverty estimates are not just important for academic purposes but are also crucial to track the impact and success of various government policies, especially social welfare schemes that are intended to eliminate poverty.

The correct answer is three

Key Points

• The ocean has three main temperature layers:
• Surface layer
• Also known as the mixed layer, this top layer is about 500 meters thick and has temperatures between 20° and 25° C.
• Thermocline
• This layer is about 500–1000 meters thick and is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth.
• Deep ocean
• This layer is very cold and extends up to the ocean floor.
• The temperature change with depth is very slight in this layer.
• The temperature of the ocean plays a significant role in the Earth's climate, marine life, and ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Types of ocean

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

• The noted Sindhi Sarangi player Lakha Khan hails from the state of Rajasthan, India.
• Specifically, he is from the village of Raneri in the Jodhpur district.
• Lakha Khan belongs to the Manganiar community, a traditional musician caste from Rajasthan known for their contributions to Indian folk music.
• Lakha Khan has not only performed extensively across India but has also represented Indian folk music on international stages, including the United States and Europe

Additional Information

The correct answer is Jabalpur.

Key Points

• The West Central Railway has its headquarters at Jabalpur.
• The zone comprises of Jabalpur and Bhopal divisions of erstwhile Central Railway and Kota division of erstwhile Western Railway.
• It has total route kilometers of 2997 km. (Track kilometres-6295 km.) of which 1627 route km.  are electrified.
• The Present Railway Minister is Mr. Ashwini Vaishnav (As of Oct 2021).

Additional Information

Image of All the Railway Zones Headquarters:

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Mormugao Port is located in the state of Goa, which is one of the smallest states in India.
• It is the leading iron ore exporting port of India and handles other types of cargo as well, such as coal, petroleum products, and fertilizers.
• The port is situated on the southern side of the  Zuari River, which flows into the Arabian Sea.
• Mormugao Port is an important economic hub for the state of Goa and plays a crucial role in the state's trade and commerce.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu is a southern state of India and has major ports like Chennai Port, Kamarajar Port, and VO Chidambaranar Port.
• West Bengal is an eastern state of India and has major ports like Kolkata Port and Haldia Port.
• Maharashtra is a western state of India and has major ports like Mumbai Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port.

The correct answer is The elevated platform on which the temple is built

Key Points

• Nagara or North Indian Temple Style:
• Nagara (in North India) is associated with the land between the Himalayas and Vindhyas.
• The Nagara style is associated with the land between the Himalayas and Vindhyas, the Dravida style with the land between the Krishna and Kaveri rivers, while the Vesara style is sometimes associated with the area between the Vindhyas and the Krishna river.
• In North India, it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
• It does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
• The elevated platform on which the temple is built
• While the earliest temples had just one tower or shikhara, later temples had several.
• The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
• There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara.
• The second major type of architectural form in the nagara order is the phamsana, which tends to be broader and shorter than the Latina ones.
• Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the centre of the building, unlike the Latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers.
• The third main sub-type of the nagara building is generally called the valabhi type.
• These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.

Additional Information 

• Dravida Or South Indian Temple Style
• Unlike the nagara temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.
• The front wall has an entrance gateway in its center, which is known as a gopuram.
• The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India.
• It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex.
• Subsidiary shrines are either incorporated within the main temple tower or located as distinct, separate small shrines beside the main temple.
• Kanchipuram, Thanjavur or Tanjore, Madurai, and Kumbakonam are the most famous temple towns of Tamil Nadu, where, during the 8th-12th centuries, the role of the temple was not limited to religious matters alone.
• The Vesara Style:-
• It is a hybrid temple architecture. It has features of both the Nagara and Dravidian style of temple architecture.
• In particular, the shape of the superstructure over the sanctum is usually pyramidal in profile, and shorter than the northern shikhara tower.
• In plan, the walls and superstructure are broadly circular, or a straight-sided cone, though its geometry is based on rotating a square imposed on a circle.

The correct answer is 2021

Key Points

• Khel Ratna Award:-
• It is the highest sporting honour in India, given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Major Dhyan Chand was a legendary Indian hockey player who won three Olympic gold medals for India in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
• On Friday, August 06 2021 the Sports Ministry announced that the Khel Ratna award will be renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award.
• The announcement came after India's remarkable performance at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, where the Indian hockey teams (men's and women's) performed exceptionally well, reigniting interest in the sport.

Additional Information

• The "Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award," previously known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is named in honour of the legendary Indian field hockey player, Major Dhyan Chand (1905–79).
• Established in 1991-1992, this prestigious accolade stands as India's highest sports distinction, presented annually by India's Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports on National Sports Day.
• The award recognizes exemplary achievements in sports at an international level, like the Olympics, Asian, Commonwealth, and World Games/Championships, as well as World Cup events and equivalent recognized global tournaments, over the four years leading up to the award year.
• As of 2023, the recipient is honoured with a medallion, a certificate, and a cash reward of ₹25,00,000.

The correct answer is M.N. Roy

Key Points

• The freedom fighter who became the editor of the communist journal Vanguard is M.N. Roy.
• He was involved in revolutionary activities aimed at overthrowing British colonial rule in India.
• After his initial involvement in the Indian independence struggle, he became disillusioned with the methods of the Indian National Congress and turned towards Marxism and revolutionary politics.
• In 1920, M.N. Roy became associated with the Communist movement and was a founding member of the Communist International (Comintern), an organization aimed at promoting global socialist revolution.
• He was deeply influenced by Marxist ideology, and in 1925, he became the editor of Vanguard, a communist journal that was instrumental in promoting Marxist ideas in India and abroad.

Additional Information

• C. Rajagopalachari​
• C. Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, was the last governor-general of India. 
• C. Rajagopalachari succeeded Lord Mountbatten as governor-general of India from 1948 to 1950.
• After C.Rajagopalachari, the title of the governor was abolished and replaced by the President of India.
• C. Rajagopalachari also has the distinction of being the first Indian governor-general of India.
• K. Kelappan
• K. Kelappan was a founding member and president of the Nair Service Society a reformer, an Indian freedom fighter, educationist and journalist.
• He is also known as Kerala Gandhi.
• He was actively involved in Vaikom Satyagraha and also walked from Calicut to Payannur to break salt law in response to Salt Satyagraha.
• He took up the question of temple entry in 1931 during the period when the Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended.
• P Krishna Pillai
• He was an active volunteer of Vaikom Satyagraha (1924).
• He also participated in the Salt Satyagraha march from Kozhikode to Payyanur (1930).

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir

Key Points

• Khelo India National Winter Games 2021:-
• The second edition of 'Khelo India National Winter Games 2021' was inaugurated in Jammu and Kashmir's Baramulla district on 26 February 2021.
• The games were held in the ski resort of Gulmarg, which is located in the Baramulla district.
• The event was inaugurated virtually by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, and saw participation from over 1200 people, including 600 athletes from across 27 states and union territories.
• The games were held in a variety of winter sports disciplines, including skiing, snowboarding, ice hockey, figure skating, ice stock, and snowshoe racing.
• The host team, Jammu and Kashmir, won the maximum number of medals, with a tally of 34 medals, including 11 gold medals.

Additional Information About Khelo India:

• ​Khelo India is a national sports development programme
• Launched by the government to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level.
• Youth Games at school and college levels in various summer Olympic sports and more are already being held at a large scale under Khelo India since 2018.
• Now, winter sports are also receiving support from Khelo India.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi

Key Points

• Vyjayanthi Kashi is an exponent of Kuchipudi, an Indian classical dance form
• Vyjayanthi Kashi is also the artistic director of the Shambhavi School of Dance in Bangalore, which she established in 1993.
• She has received several awards for her work, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2009 and the Nritya Choodamani title in 2018.
• Vyjayanthi Kashi comes from a family of performing artists
• Her grandfather, Dr. Gubbi Veeranna, was a well-known theater director and contributor to Kannada theater.

Additional Information

• Exponents of classical dances

The correct answer is Multidimensional.

Key Points

• Globalization
• Globalization can be defined as a process of rapid economic, cultural, and institutional integration among countries.
• Globalization is driven by the liberalization of trade, investment capital flow, technological advances, and pressure for assimilation toward international standards.
• Globalization has occurred in earlier periods in history in different parts of the world.
• It increases the volume of trades in goods and services, creates new jobs, strengthens domestic economies, improves production efficiency, etc.

Additional Information

• Globalization refers to the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of countries and their economies.
• Globalization is a concept of global scale.
• It involves the exchange of goods, services, information, and ideas across borders.
• The exchange is facilitated by advancements in technology, transportation, and communication.
• This phenomenon has led to the integration of economies, cultures, and societies.
• It brings people from different parts of the world together.
• Globalization creates opportunities for trade, collaboration, and cultural exchange.
• Globalization has both positive and negative impacts.
• It shapes various aspects of our lives and influences the way nations interact and cooperate in today's world.

The correct answer is M is a meiosis phase

Key Points

• The ordered sequence of events that occur in a cell in preparation for cell division is called the cell cycle.
• The cell cycle is divided into two phases:
• Interphase
• M Phase
• M phase refers to the mitotic phase in the cell cycle, not meiosis.
• It involves the processes of mitosis (division of the nucleus) and cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm), leading to two daughter cells.
• Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division occurring in germ cells, which is distinct from the regular cell cycle.
• The Interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases.

Additional Information

• The Interphase is divided into three further phases;
• G1 Phase
• S Phase
• G2 Phase
• During the G1 phase, the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.
• S or Synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place
• During the G2 phase, proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues.

The correct answer is Chris Gayle.

Key Points

• The book “Six Machine: I Don’t Like Cricket … I Love It” is the autobiography of Jamaican cricketer Chris Gayle.
• He plays international cricket for the West Indies.
• He was the captain of the West Indies team from 2007 to 2010.
• He has several records under his name across the three formats of cricket.
• He is the first-ever batsman to score 1000 sixes in T20 format.
• He is the only player to score a triplet of centuries that is a triple hundred in test, a double hundred in ODI, and a hundred in T20.
• In 2019 he announced his retirement from ODI after the 2019 cricket world cup.
• In 2014 he played his last test match against Bangladesh.
• In December 2020, ICC included him in the T20 team of the decade.

Additional Information

• Book Related to Cricket Players

 

The correct answer is Jayalakshmi Eshwar 

Key Points

• Jayalakshmi Eshwar has won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2021 for her contribution to Bharatanatyam, an Indian classical dance form that originated in the southern state of Tamil Nadu.
• She is not only a performer and teacher but also an academician who has written extensively on Bharatanatyam.
• Bharatanatyam is known for its intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and graceful movements.
• It is usually performed by female dancers and often depicts stories from Hindu mythology.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Maximum investment permitted on property of a unit

Key Points

• The maximum investment permitted on the assets of a unit is one criterion used to define a small-scale industry in India
• Investment:
• The amount of money invested in the business's equipment or machinery is the main way small-scale industries are classified.
• In India, industries with an investment of less than Rs. 1 crore in fixed assets are considered small-scale industries.
• Other factors, such as the number of directors, partners, or employees, are not used to define small-scale industries.
• Small-scale industries are also known as Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

Additional Information

• Small-scale industries:
• Industries in which manufacturing, production, and servicing of goods are done on a small scale.
• The total investment of these types of industries does not exceed over 1 crore.
• Small-scale industries have single ownership.
• These industries are labor intensive so there is only limited use of technology.
• These work in local areas and fulfill the demands of locals.
• Large-scale industries:
• ​​have a huge infrastructure, and raw materials and require large numbers of workers.
• The capital requirement is also large and industries that have fixed assets of more than 10 crores are considered large-scale industries.
• There are several large-scale industries in India like Iron and steel, automobile, textile, silk industry, etc.
• These industries use the latest technology and machines.
• Their contribution to the country's economy is also huge.
• These require skilled workers that provide employment.

The correct answer is Barack

Key Points

• Makku, Tuivai, Sonai, and Rukni are tributaries of the Barak River
• Barak River is one of the major rivers of South Assam.
• The 564 kilometres long river is part of the Surma-Meghna River System.
• It rises in the hill country of Manipur where it is the biggest and most important of hill country rivers.
• After Manipur, it flows through Mizoram and Assam.
• It later enters Bangladesh where it forks into Surma and Kushiyara rivers.
• Later, the river is called the Meghna and received the combined flow of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
• The sixth national waterway stretch is on this river.
• The important north bank tributaries of the Barak river are Jiri, Siri, Madhura, Jatinga and Larang, while the important south bank tributaries include Sonai, Ghagra, Katakhal, Dhaleswari, Singla and Longai.
• The Barak is among the richest rivers in the world as to aquatic biodiversity, as it contains more than 2,000 species of fish.
• The biomes are extremely rich in wildlife and also very diverse in the entire stretch of the Barak river.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1839

Key Points

• The Tattwabodhini Sabha was established by Debendranath Tagore.
• On 6 October 1839 Debendranath established Tattvaranjini Sabha which was renamed as 'Tattwabodhini Sabha'.
• The objective of Sabha was to promote a rational and humanist form of Hinduism based on Vedanta and the Upanishads.
• The Tattwabodhini Sabha was a group started in Calcutta.

Additional Information Important movements/Sabha and their founder:

The correct answer is Kerala

Key Points

• Kerala has the highest male literacy rate according to the Census of India 2011.
• In Kerala, the male literacy rate is 96.1%, while the female literacy rate is 92.1%.
• The male literacy rate in Kerala is significantly higher compared to other states and Union Territories.
• The literacy rate in India in 2011 was 74.04%, with 82.14% for males and 65.46% for females.

Additional Information

• The literacy rate is an important indicator of the educational status of a region.
• The Census of India is conducted every ten years to collect demographic data, including literacy rates, across the country.
• Kerala's high literacy rate is attributed to its historical focus on education and progressive social policies.
• Improving literacy rates has been a key goal for the Indian government to enhance socio-economic development.
• Literacy Rate:
• Total number of literate people in a certain age group expressed as a share of that age group's overall population. The youth literacy rate evaluates literacy among people aged 15 to 24,
• While the adult literacy rate assesses literacy among those over the age of 15.
• | Union Territories | Literacy Rate (%) | | --- | --- | | Dadra and Nagar Haveli | 77.65 | | Daman and Diu | 87.07 | | Delhi | 86.34 | | Lakshadweep | 92.28 | | Puducherry | 85.85 | | A&N island | 74.04 | | Chandigarh | 86.05 |

The correct answer is Kanjira 

Key Points

• Pudukkotai Dakshinamurthi Pillai is renowned for his exceptional skills in playing the Kanjira.
• The Kanjira is a South Indian frame drum and is an essential component of Carnatic music percussion ensembles.
• Pudukkotai Dakshinamurthi Pillai was a pioneer in popularizing the Kanjira and contributed significantly to its prominence in classical music.
• His techniques and performances set a high standard and have inspired many subsequent generations of musicians.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points 

• Punjab was the first to try out modern methods of farming during the Green Revolution in India. 
• At independence, about 75% of the country’s population was dependent on agriculture.
• The stagnation in agriculture during the colonial rule was permanently broken by the green revolution.
• This refers to the large increase in production of food grains resulting from the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, especially for wheat and rice.
• The use of HYV seeds required the use of fertilizer and pesticide in the correct quantities as well as a regular supply of water; the need for these inputs in correct proportions is vital.
• The farmers who could benefit from HYV seeds required reliable irrigation facilities as well as the financial resources to purchase fertilizer and pesticides.
• As a result, in the first phase of the green revolution (the approximately mid-1960s up to mid-1970s), the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states such as Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• Further, the use of HYV seeds primarily benefited the wheat-growing regions only.

Additional Information

• The Green Revolution was an endeavour initiated by Norman Borlaug in the 1960s.
• He is known as the 'Father of Green Revolution in the world.
• In India, the Green Revolution was mainly led by M.S. Swaminathan.
• For introducing high-yielding varieties of rice and wheat to increase food production in order to alleviate hunger and poverty.
• The Green Revolution was a period when agriculture in India was converted into an industrial system and was a change in crop pattern.
• White Revolution was started to make India self-dependent in milk production.
• The master brain behind the white revolution in India was Dr Verghese Kurien.
• Verghese Kurien is well known as the milkman of India.
• Operation flood is the code name given to the white revolution.
• The 'Brown Revolution' is focused on giving emphasis to an Increase in the production of raw leather.
• Hiralal Chaudri is considered the father of the Brown Revolution.
• The Brown Revolution is related to Visakhapatnam’s tribal areas.
• Yellow revolution is related to Oil seeds like mustard, groundnuts sesame, etc.
• Sam Pitroda is credited for the Yellow revolution.
• It also resulted in a sudden increase in the production of edible oil due to the production of Hybrid oil seeds.
• The Yellow revolution started in the year 1986-87.

The correct answer is SBI

Key Points

• The State Bank of India (SBI) was not nationalized in 1969 because it was already nationalized in 1955.
• The SBI was previously known as the Imperial Bank of India, which was formed in 1921 by merging three banks.
• The SBI is the largest public sector bank in India
• SBI is a public sector bank, meaning it is owned and operated by the government of India.
• It operates in more than 30 countries, including regions like the Middle East, Africa, Europe, and the Americas.
• SBI has embraced digital banking with services like YONO (You Only Need One), a mobile banking app that offers a variety of financial services, including shopping, bill payments, and fund transfers.

Additional Information

• The nationalization of banks in 1969 took place in two phases:
• First Phase 1969:
• In 1969, the Government of India nationalized 14 major private sector banks.
• This was done to promote economic development by directing more credit toward priority sectors like agriculture, small-scale industries, and the rural economy.
• The nationalization aimed at ensuring greater public control over the financial system and increasing access to banking services across the country.
• Second Phase (1980):
• ​In 1980, another 6 private sector banks were nationalized to further expand the reach of public banking services and promote economic development.
• Those are 
• Andhra Bank
• Corporation Bank
• New Bank of India
• Oriental Bank of Commerce
• Punjab & Sind Bank
• Vijaya Bank

The correct answer is Sunil Gavaskar.

Key Points

• Sunny Days is an autobiography written by Sunil Gavaskar.
• Sunil Manohar Gavaskar is an Indian cricket commentator and former player who played for India and Bombay between 1971 and 1987. Gavaskar is regarded as one of the all-time great opening batters.
• Gavaskar has been awarded the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan, two of India's highest civilian honours.
• In 2009, he was recognised into the International Cricket Council's (ICC) Cricket Hall of Fame.
• In 2012, the Col CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for Cricket in India was bestowed upon him.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Prohibition of trade

Key Points

• Prohibition of trade is not an element of the Competition Act 2002
• Elements of the Competition Act 2002
• Prohibition of anti-competitive agreements:
• The Act prohibits agreements that cause or are likely to cause a significant adverse effect on competition in India.
• Regulation of combinations:
• ​The Act regulates combinations, such as mergers, amalgamations, and acquisitions.
• Abuse of dominant position:
• ​ The Act prohibits the abuse of dominant position by enterprises.
• The Competition Act 2002 aims to:
• ​Foster competition and Protect Indian markets against anti-competitive practices.
• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) issues orders to prohibit abuse of dominance and regulate proposed combinations.

Additional Information

The Competition Act includes several definitions which are critical to understanding the act. 

• Acquisition:
• ​Acquisition refers to the agreement, either direct or indirect, to obtain shares, voting rights, or control of assets over any enterprise.
• Cartel:
• ​A cartel is a group of producers or sellers who control distribution, sale, or promotions of goods through a pre-existing arrangement.
• Dominant Position:
• ​A dominant position refers to the power held by an enterprise in the related market that allows it to operate independently and influence the market according to its preferences.
• Predatory Pricing:
• ​ Predatory pricing is a strategy where the price of goods and services is reduced significantly below the cost of production with the intent to eliminate competition.
• Rule of Reason:
• ​The rule of reason refers to the interpretation of an activity based on business justification, impact on the market competition, and its effect on the consumer.

The correct answer is Pali

Key Points

• It is on the Udayagiri-Khandagiri hills located in the Khordha district of Odisha.
• The language of this inscription is Pali and the script is Brahmi.
• It contains a systematic description of the 13-year rule of Kharavela after he became king.
• This inscription was discovered by Bishop Stalling in 1825.
• The inscription was created by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty, who ruled over the region known as Kalinga.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

• Samudragupta:
• Samudragupta (335-376 AD) was the great ruler of the Gupta dynasty, he was the successor of Chandragupta I.
• The most important source of information about the conquests of Samudragupta is the 'Allahabad Pillar' or 'Prayag Prasasti'.
• So far the rulers of Dakshinapatha were concerned, Samudragupta maintained a submissive attitude towards them.
• There were twelve rulers who surrendered to Samudragupta after being defeated.
• He then allowed all of them to rule again.
• On accepting the subjugation of Samudragupta, all the South Indian kings were freed and also offered their daughters in marriage.
• They brought tribute, followed his orders, and attended his court.
• Samudragupta was a son of the Gupta king Chandragupta I and queen Kumaradevi, who came from a Licchavi family. His fragmentary Eran stone inscription states that his father selected him as the successor because of his "devotion, righteous conduct, and valour".

 Additional Information

• Kumaragupta I
• He performed the Ashvamedha sacrifice to assert his dominance and sovereignty.
• The Ashvamedha sacrifice was an ancient Vedic ritual in which a horse was released to wander, and the territories it passed through had to accept the authority of the performer or face war.
• Kumaragupta I's performance of this ritual signified his military and political strength.
• Ghatotkacha
• In Supiya inscription Gupta dynasty is called Ghatotkacha.
• Supiya inscription is found from Rewa district of Madhya Pradesh.
• The date of Gupta Era 141 -460 AD is written in this inscription.
• It contains the genealogy of the Guptas from the time of Ghatotkacha.
• Vishnugupta
• Vishnugupta/ Kautilya's Arthashastra
• The title, Arthashashtra, is a Sanskrit word that literally means “the science of material well being” though it is also accepted as “the science of statecraft”.​
• According to Arthashastra, artha (material well-being) is superior to both dharma (spiritual well-being) and Kama (sensual pleasure).
• The Arthashastra, consisting of 15 books (Adhikaranas), summarizes the political thoughts of Chandragupta Maurya’s chief minister, Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• Article 166
• Article 166 of the Constitution of India deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a state:
• All executive action of the state government must be taken in the name of the Governor.
• The Governor makes rules for the transaction of state government business and allocates it among ministers.
• Orders and instruments made in the name of the Governor are authenticated in a manner specified by the Governor's rules.
• Governor
• The Governor of a state in India is appointed by the President of India.
• Constitutional Provision: Article 155 of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Tenure: Typically, a Governor is appointed for a term of five years, but he/she holds office at the President's pleasure, which means the term can be shorter or even extended.
• Eligibility: To be eligible for appointment as a Governor, a person must be a citizen of India and must be at least 35 years old. It is also expected (though not constitutionally required) that the person should not be a resident of the same state.

 Additional Information

• Chief minister
• After the elections, the MLAs belonging to the ruling party will elect their leader who will become the chief minister.
• The chief minister then selects other people as ministers. After the elections, it is the Governor of the state who appoints the chief minister and other ministers.
• The chief minister and other ministers have the responsibility of running various government departments or ministries. They have separate offices.
• State Advocate General
• The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India.
• The authority and function of the Advocate General are also specified in the Constitution of India under Articles 165 and 177.
• President of India:
• A candidate has to meet some qualifications to be elected as the president.
• Those qualifications of the President are:
• He should be an Indian Citizen.
• His age should be a minimum of 35 years.
• He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the central government, state government, or any public authority.

The correct answer is Son-in-law.

Key Points

• Qutubuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori.
• He was later appointed as the Viceroy of Muhammad Ghori's Indian territories.
• After Muhammad Ghori's death, Qutubuddin Aibak founded the Mamluk Dynasty in India, also known as the Slave Dynasty.
• He was a key figure in the establishment of Muslim rule in India, laying the foundation for subsequent dynasties.
• Qutubuddin Aibak was known for his architectural contributions, including the construction of the Qutub Minar in Delhi.
• He was succeeded by his son-in-law Iltutmish, who further consolidated the Sultanate of Delhi.
• Qutubuddin Aibak's reign marked the beginning of a new era in Indian history, characterized by the establishment of Muslim governance in Northern India.
• The Slave Dynasty ruled from 1206 to 1290 and was succeeded by the Khalji Dynasty.

 Additional Information

• Shamsuddin Iltutmish (1211-36 AD) was the first Ilbari ruler.
• Iltutmish is considered the real founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
• At the time of Qutbuddin Aibak's death, he was the governor of Badaun.
• Aibuq had made Iltutmish the Iqtedar (Subedar) of Badaun.
• The nobles of Delhi, especially Shah Ismail, invited Iltutmish, the governor of Badaun, to sit on the throne of Delhi, which he immediately accepted.
• In June 1211, Iltutmish became the Sultan by defeating Aramshah and the rebels in the field of Jud (Bagh-i-Jud).
• First of all, Dr. Arnold expressed the opinion that 'Iltutmish was the usurper of the throne of Delhi.'

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Kanheri Caves are situated in Sanjay Gandhi National Park, Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Kanheri Caves were excavated around 1st and 2nd century B.C.
• There is a total of 108 caves and it contains both Chaityas (Assembly halls that contain Stupas) and Viharas (Residence for Monks).
• Kanheri Caves are rock-cut caves and their main attraction is 22ft long Buddha statue.

Additional Information

Some Important Caves:

The correct answer is To provide opportunities for education to his/her child between 6 and 14 years.

Key Points

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament of India in December 2002, and it came into effect on July 1, 2003.
• This amendment inserted Article 21A in the Constitution, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• It made it mandatory for the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in this age group.
• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, was enacted to operationalize this constitutional mandate.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Amendment:
• A constitutional amendment is a change made to the Constitution of a country, which requires a specific procedure to be followed for its adoption.
• In India, a constitutional amendment requires a special majority in both houses of Parliament and, in certain cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
• Article 21A:
• Article 21A was added to the Indian Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
• It stipulates that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years in a manner determined by law.
• Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009:
• The RTE Act was enacted to give effect to Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
• It mandates that every child has a right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.
• It also lays down the responsibilities of the State, parents, schools, and teachers to ensure the implementation of this right.
• Impact of the Amendment:
• This amendment has significantly increased the enrollment rates in primary schools across India.
• It has also brought attention to issues such as infrastructure, quality of education, and teacher training in the Indian educational system.

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

• About the scheme:
• “SMILE stands for Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise”.
• The focus of the scheme is on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, basic documentation, education, skill development, economic linkages etc.
• It includes the sub-scheme ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging’.
• The scheme would be implemented with the support of State/UT Governments/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community Based Organizations (CBOs), institutions and others.
• Beggars In India:
• According to the Census 2011 total number of beggars in India is 4,13,670 (including 2,21,673 males and 1,91,997 females) and the number has increased from the last census.
• West Bengal tops the chart followed by Uttar Pradesh and Bihar at numbers two and three respectively. Lakshadweep merely has two vagrants according to the 2011 census.
• Among the union territories, New Delhi had the largest number of beggars 2,187 followed by 121 in Chandigarh.
• Among the northeastern states, Asam topped the chart with 22,116 beggars, while Mizoram ranked low with 53 beggars.

The correct answer is Monera .

Key Points

• Eukaryotes are organisms that have membrane-bound cell organelles as well as the membrane-bound nucleus.
• Bacteria is not a eukaryotic cell because:
• Bacteria do not have a nucleus.
• It contains a nucleoid region and one of the major aspects of eukaryotes is that they have a nucleus.
• Bacteria do not have any organelles apart from ribosomes whereas eukaryotes have membrane-bound or compartmentalized organelles.
• Bacteria are simple in structure, whereas eukaryotes are more intricated structure and function wise.

 Additional Information

The correct answer is Arya Samaj.

Key Points

• Arya Samaj
• Arya Samaj is a Hindu reform movement founded by 'Swami Dayanand Saraswati'.
• Dayanand Saraswati had inspired the Arya Samaj from Swami Virjanand of Mathura in Bombay in 1875.
• Arya Samaji believed in pure Vedic tradition and rejected idol worship, avatars, sacrifice, false rituals, and superstitions.
• In this, untouchability and caste discrimination were opposed and women and Shudras were also given the right to wear Yagyopaveet and read the Vedas.

Additional Information

• Paramhansa Mandali​
• In 1849, a covert socio-religious organization called the Paramhansa Mandali was founded in Bombay.
• It shares a tight relationship with Manav Dharma Sabha, which was established in Surat in 1844.
• Dadoba Pandurang, Durgaram Mehtaji, and several of his friends founded it.
• After leaving Manav Dharma Sabha, Dadoba Pandurang became the organization's leader.
• In 1848, he provided a summary of his beliefs in "Paramhansik Bramhyadharma" for Paramahansa Mandali and "Dharma Vivechan" for Manav Dharma Sabha.
• It functioned as a covert organization, and it's thought that when its existence was made public in 1860, it hastened its downfall.
• It was Maharashtra's first socioreligious institution.
• These Mandli's founders held a monotheistic belief.
• They were mostly concerned with disobeying caste laws.
• The members consumed food prepared by members of lower castes during their sessions.
• The mandali supported widow remarriage and women's education.
• ​Prayer Society
• Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang on 31 March 1867 when Keshub Chandra Sen visited Maharashtra, intending to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined.
• The Samaj was different from the Brahmo Samaj of Bengal in that it was not as radical and took a cautious approach to the reformist programmes. For this reason, it was better received by the public as well. The members were all Hindus and remained so throughout. They wanted to reform the religion from within.
• Prarthana Samaj, or "Prayer Society" in Sanskrit, was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay based on earlier reform movements. Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang with the help of Keshav Chandra Sen in 1867, to make people believe in one God and worship only one God.
• Ramakrishna Mission
• Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
• The mission is named after his guru, Swami Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
• The mission's main aim is to promote the teachings of Vedanta and work towards social welfare.
• It has played a significant role in the spiritual and cultural revival of India.

The correct answer is cooperative societies .

Key Points

• Article 43B was added to the Indian Constitution through the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011.
• This article provides for the promotion of cooperative societies.
• The insertion of Article 43B emphasizes the importance of cooperative societies in India's socio-economic development.
• Article 43B falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government.

 Additional Information

• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 aimed at encouraging economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress rural India.
• This amendment also granted constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies.
• It was passed to ensure that the cooperative societies in India function in a democratic, professional, and autonomous manner.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court, but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

• The Montague-Chelmsford reforms were announced in 1918.
• They were also known as the Government of India Act 1919.
• According to the act, there were two parts to the central legislature.
• The subjects to be governed were divided into two parts, the reserved and the transferred.
• The reforms take their name from Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India from 1917 to 1922, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921.
• The important features of this act were that:
• 1. The Imperial Legislative Council was now to consist of two houses: the Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.

2. The provinces were to follow the Dual Government System or dyarchy

 Additional Information

• The Montagu-Chelmsford report stated that there should be a review after 10 years. Sir John Simon headed the committee (Simon Commission) responsible for the review, which recommended further constitutional change.
• Three round table conferences were held in London in 1930, 1931, and 1932 with the representation of the major interests.
• Mahatma Gandhi attended the 1931 round table after negotiations with the British Government.
• The major disagreement between the Indian National Congress and the British was separate electorates for each community which Congress opposed but which were retained in Ramsay MacDonald's Communal Award.
• A new Government of India Act 1935 was passed continuing the move towards self-government first made in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report.

The correct answer is In 1975.

Key Points

• RRBs were created under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 (Not Banking Regulation Act) to serve the credit need of rural areas which were largely unbanked at that time.
• The ownership of RRBs as per the Act is Central government (50%), State government (15%), and Sponsor bank (35%). RBI has no ownership of RRBs.
• Post-1991 reforms have seen RRBs being allowed to expand its affairs in the non-priority sector to offset its losses.
• Each RRB must have a sponsor bank which exercises 355 ownership rights. It helps RRB provide direction and expertise

The correct answer is Sharodi Saikia.

Key Points

• The Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15th century A.D. by Srimanta Sankardev.
• Sattriya dance is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• It was recognized as a classical dance by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
• It is a classical dance of Assam.
• The dance form evolved and expanded as a distinctive style of dance later on.
• Due to its religious character and association with the Sattras, this dance style has been aptly named Sattriya.
• Srimanta Sankardev was an Assamese saint-scholar, poet, writer, dancer, actor, singer, artist, social-religious reformer, and significant person in the cultural and religious history of Assam, India. Srimanta Sankardev lived in the 15th and 16th centuries.

The correct answer is FIDE.

Key Points

• The International Chess Federation or World Chess Federation is commonly referred to by its French acronym FIDE.
• It is an international organization based in Switzerland that connects the various national chess federations and acts as the governing body of international chess competitions.
• World Chess Federation:
• Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
• President: Arkady Dvorkovich
• Founded: 20 July 1924, Paris, France

Additional Information

• International Cricket Council
• It is the world governing body of cricket.
• It was founded as the Imperial Cricket Conference in 1909.
• It was founded by representatives from Australia, England, and South Africa.
• It was renamed the International Cricket Conference in 1965.
• Headquarters of ICC: Dubai, UAE.
• Chairman: Greg Barclay (as of April 2022)
• It took its current name in 1987.
• International Olympic Committee (IOC):
• One non-governmental organization involved in sports is the International Olympic Committee.
• It is situated in Switzerland's Lausanne.
• Pierre de Coubertin founded the IOC on June 23, 1894.
• Demetrios Vikelas served as its first president.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) oversees both the national Olympic Committees (NOCs) and the global Olympic Movement.
• Thomas Bach is its president at the moment.
• Every four years, the IOC plans the Youth Olympic Games (YOG) and the contemporary Olympic Games, which are held in the summer and winter. 
• The inaugural Summer Olympics took place in 1896 in Athens, Greece.
• While the first Winter Olympics took place in 1924 in Chamonix, France.
• In 2010, Singapore hosted the first Summer YOG, while Innsbruck hosted the first Winter YOG in 2012.
• The Athens Summer Olympics, 1896: 
• It featured 14 sports and 241 athletes from 14 countries.
• The opening ceremony was held at the Panathenaic Stadium, which had been used for the ancient Olympic Games.
• Greek runner Spyridon Louis won the marathon..
• The United States topped the medal table with 11 gold medals.
• ​FIFA
• Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) was established at Paris, France.
• It is a non-profit organization and currently the highest international governing body related to the sport of Football.
• Initially, it was established to organize and administer the football competitions among some European Nations.
• As of now, 211 national associations have affiliations with FIFA and FIFA supports them financially and logistically.
• Headquarters: Zurich, Switzerland.
• President: Gianni Infantino.
• Motto: For the Game, For the World.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The bottom and 1st column elements interchange positions.

The rest of the positions shift anticlockwise subsequently.

2. Second box series →

The top and 3rd column elements interchange positions.

The rest of the positions shift anticlockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All pants are flowers → Follow (As all pants are eggs and all eggs are flowers. As whole plants comes in eggs which whole comes in flowers, therefore it is true.)

II. All pants are bags → Does not follow (As all bags are pants. So it is possible but not definite.)

III. All flowers are bags → Does not follow (As all bags are pants, all pants are eggs and all eggs are flowers. So it is possible but not definite.)

IV. All flowers are pants → Does not follow (As all pants are eggs and all eggs are flowers. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion I follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Six people, S, T, U, V, W and X, are sitting in a straight row facing north.

1) Only two people sit to the left of U.

2. Only two people sit between U and X. 

3) W sits to the immediate left of V.

4. V is not a neighbour of X.

5) T sits to the immediate right of S.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, W sits at the extreme left end of the row.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘SITE’ is written as ‘WMXI’

And,

‘MAKE’ is written as ‘QEOI’

Similarly,

‘TERM’ is written as

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure are shown below:

1) Number of triangles = [Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2

= [2 × (1 + 2)] ÷ 2

= [2 × 3] ÷ 2

= 6 ÷ 2

= 3

Here, there are 2 same types of partitioned triangles as marked, therefore total number of triangles will be: → 3 × 2 = 6

2) Number of triangles = Number of parts × Number of diagonals

= 4 × 2 ⇒ 8

Thus, as marked there are a total of (6 + 8) = 14 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 1 is common on both the dice figure 1 and figure 3, it is clear that 3, 5, 4, and 2 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 6 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

3 → 4

5 → 2

1 → 6

So, the opposite side of "6" will be side "1".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number ÷ 7 = 2nd number

Now,

For, 63 : 9

⇒ 63 ÷ 7 = 9

For, 119 : 17

⇒ 119 ÷ 7 = 17

Similarly, for 84 : ?

⇒ 84 ÷ 7 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: 2nd number + 123 = 1st number.

Now,

For (676, 553):

⇒ 553 + 123

= 676.

For (784, 661):

⇒ 661 + 123

= 784.

Similarly, for Option 1: (547, 424)

⇒ 424 + 123

= 547.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

1. Alternately the elements at the corners interchange positions diagonally starting from the 1st box.

2. Alternately the elements at the corners shift anticlockwise starting from the 2nd box.

3. The number of the lines increases subsequently in the center element.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Grouping name of animals.

Here,

(Chicken) : (Brood) → Brood is a group of Chicken.

Similarly,

(Bees) : (Swarm) → Swarm is a group of Bees.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 8 - 2 × 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1): ÷ and −

8 - 2 × 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11 ⇒ 8 ÷ 2 × 49 - 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 8 ÷ 2 × 49 - 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 4 × 49 - 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 196 + 2 - 7 = 11

⇒ 198 - 7 = 11

⇒ 191 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): − and ×

8 - 2 × 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11 ⇒ 8 × 2 - 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 8 × 2 - 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 8 × 2 - 7 + 2 = 11

⇒ 16 + 2 - 7 = 11

⇒ 18 - 7 = 11

⇒ 11 = 11 (LHS = RHS)

Option  3): − and +

8 - 2 × 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11 ⇒ 8 + 2 × 49 ÷ 7 - 2 = 11

⇒ 8 + 2 × 49 ÷ 7 - 2 = 11

⇒ 8 + 2 × 7 - 2 = 11

⇒ 8 + 14 - 2 = 11

⇒ 22 - 2 = 11

⇒ 20 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): + and ×

8 - 2 × 49 ÷ 7 + 2 = 11 ⇒ 8 - 2 + 49 ÷ 7 × 2 = 11

⇒ 8 - 2 + 49 ÷ 7 × 2 = 11

⇒ 8 - 2 + 7 × 2 = 11

⇒ 8 + 14 - 2 = 11

⇒ 22 - 2 = 11

⇒ 20 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 5 is common on both the dice I and III, it is clear that 1, 3, 4, and 6 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 2 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 4

3 → 6

5 → 2

So, the opposite side of "6" will be side "3".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1. For '

' element → Alternately rotated 135º anticlockwise starting from the 1st box.

2) For '

' element → Alternately rotated 135º anticlockwise starting from the 2nd box.

Thus, the final series is:

 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 12 * 6 * 3 * 2 * 8 * 4

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1): +, ×, –, ÷, =

12 * 6 * 3 * 2 * 8 * 4 ⇒ 12 + 6 × 3 - 2 ÷ 8 = 4

⇒ 12 + 6 × 3 - 2 ÷ 8 = 4

⇒ 12 + 6 × 3 - 0.25 = 4

⇒ 12 + 18 - 0.25 = 4

⇒ 30 - 0.25 = 4

⇒ 29.75 ≠ 4 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): +, ×, –, =, ÷ 

12 * 6 * 3 * 2 * 8 * 4 ⇒ 12 + 6 × 3 - 2 = 8 ÷ 4

⇒ 12 + 6 × 3 - 2 = 8 ÷ 4

⇒ 12 + 18 - 2 = 2

⇒ 30 - 2 = 2

⇒ 28 ≠ 2 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3): +, –, ×, ÷, = 

12 * 6 * 3 * 2 * 8 * 4 ⇒ 12 + 6 - 3 × 2 ÷ 8 = 4

⇒ 12 + 6 - 3 × 2 ÷ 8 = 4

⇒ 12 + 6 - 3 × 0.25 = 4

⇒ 12 + 6 - 0.75 = 4

⇒ 18 - 0.75 = 4

⇒ 17.25 ≠ 4 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): ÷, –, ×, +, = 

12 * 6 * 3 * 2 * 8 * 4 ⇒ 12 ÷ 6 - 3 × 2 + 8 = 4

⇒ 12 ÷ 6 - 3 × 2 + 8 = 4

⇒ 2 - 3 × 2 + 8 = 4

⇒ 2 + 8 - 6 = 4

⇒ 10 - 6 = 4

⇒ 4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

A sum of money on compound interest becomes double of itself in 3 years.

Formula Used:

If a sum of money becomes n times in T years at compound interest, then to find the number of years it will take to become

$T_m = T \times \frac{\log m}{\log n}$

Calculation:

Here, n = 2 , T = 3 years, and m = 8 .

Using the formula:

$T_m = 3 \times \frac{\log 8}{\log 2}$

We know that $\log 8 = \log (2^3) = 3 \log 2 . So,$

$\frac{\log 8}{\log 2} = \frac{3 \log 2}{\log 2} = 3 .$

Therefore,

$T_m = 3 \times 3 = 9 years$.

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

The ratio of the two numbers = 5 : 7

The product of their HCF and LCM = 2835

Formula Used:

If two numbers are in the ratio a:b, let the numbers be 5x and 7x.

HCF × LCM = Product of the numbers

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 5x and 7x.

HCF × LCM = 5x × 7x

Product of the numbers = 35x²

Given HCF × LCM = 2835

⇒ 35x² = 2835

⇒ x² = 2835 / 35

⇒ x² = 81

⇒ x = 9

The numbers are 5x and 7x.

5 × 9 = 45

7 × 9 = 63

The sum of the numbers = 45 + 63

⇒ 108

The sum of the numbers is 108.

Given:

Total amount = Rs. 10,400

Proportions for P, Q, and R = $\frac{1}{2} : \frac{1}{5} : \frac{1}{6}$

Formula Used:

Q's share = Total amount × (Q's proportion / Sum of proportions)

Calculation:

Sum of proportions = $\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{6}$

Sum of proportions = $\frac{15 + 6 + 5}{30} = \frac{26}{30} = \frac{13}{15}$

Q's proportion = $\frac{1}{5}$

Q's share = Rs. 10,400 × $\frac{1}{5} / \frac{13}{15}$

Q's share = Rs. 10,400 × $\frac{1}{5} × \frac{15}{13}$

Q's share = Rs. 10,400 × $\frac{15}{65}$

Q's share = Rs. 10,400 × $\frac{3}{13}$

Q's share = Rs. 2,400

Q's share is Rs. 2,400.

Given:

Interest rate at 12% = 12% per annum

Interest rate at 15% = 15% per annum

Time period = 2 years

Total interest received = ₹675

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Let the amount lent at 12% be ₹x and the amount lent at 15% also be ₹x.

Interest from amount lent at 12%:

Interest_12% = (x × 12 × 2) / 100

Interest_12% = (24x) / 100

Interest from amount lent at 15%:

Interest_15% = (x × 15 × 2) / 100

Interest_15% = (30x) / 100

Total interest:

Interest_total = Interest_12% + Interest_15%

⇒ 675 = (24x) / 100 + (30x) / 100

⇒ 675 = (54x) / 100

⇒ 675 × 100 = 54x

⇒ 67500 = 54x

⇒ x = 67500 / 54

⇒ x = 1250

The amount lent at 12% was ₹1,250.

Given:

K is a prime number strictly greater than 5.

Formula Used:

To find the remainder when (K² + 19) is divided by 12.

Calculation:

Since K is a prime number greater than 5, K must be one of 6k ± 1 (as all primes greater than 3 are of this form).

Let's consider both cases:

Case 1: K = 6k + 1

⇒ (K² = (6k + 1)²

⇒ (K² = 36k² + 12k + 1)

⇒ (K² ≡ 1 (mod 12))

⇒ K² + 19 ≡ 1 + 19 ≡ 20 ≡ 8 (mod 12)

Case 2: K = 6k - 1

⇒ K² = (6k - 1)²

⇒ K² = 36k² - 12k + 1

⇒ K² ≡ 1 (mod 12)

⇒ K² + 19 ≡ 1 + 19 ≡ 20 ≡ 8 (mod 12)

The remainder when (K² + 19) is divided by 12 is 8.

Given:

Percentage of female staff = 45%

Percentage of male staff = 55%

Percentage of postgraduate female staff = 80%

Percentage of postgraduate male staff = 60%

Formula Used:

Percentage of non-postgraduate staff = 100% - Percentage of postgraduate staff

Calculation:

Percentage of postgraduate female staff = 45% × 80%

⇒ Percentage of postgraduate female staff = 0.45 × 0.80

⇒ Percentage of postgraduate female staff = 0.36 (36%)

Percentage of postgraduate male staff = 55% × 60%

⇒ Percentage of postgraduate male staff = 0.55 × 0.60

⇒ Percentage of postgraduate male staff = 0.33 (33%)

Total percentage of postgraduate staff = 36% + 33%

⇒ Total percentage of postgraduate staff = 69%

Percentage of non-postgraduate staff = 100% - 69%

⇒ Percentage of non-postgraduate staff = 31%

The percentage of the non-postgraduate staff in the school is 31%.

Given:

Selling price of each device = ₹4,982

Profit on the first device = 6%

Loss on the second device = 6%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) / (1 ± Profit/Loss %)

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the first device be CP₁ and the second device be CP₂ .

Selling price of the first device = ₹4,982

Profit% = 6%

⇒ $CP_1 = \frac{4,982}{1 + \frac{6}{100}}$

⇒ $CP_1 = \frac{4,982}{1.06}$

⇒ $CP_1 ≈ ₹4,700$

Selling price of the second device = ₹4,982

Loss% = 6%

⇒ $CP_2 = \frac{4,982}{1 - \frac{6}{100}}$

⇒ $CP_2 = \frac{4,982}{0.94}$

⇒ $CP_2 ≈ ₹5,300$

Total cost of both devices = $CP_1 + CP_2$

⇒ Total cost = ₹4,700 + ₹5,300

⇒ Total cost = ₹10,000

The total cost of both the devices is ₹10,000.

Given:

A is thrice as good a workman as B.

A can finish the job 60 days less than B.

Formula Used:

If A can do a piece of work in n days, then B will take 3n days to complete the same work.

Work Rate of A = 1/n

Work Rate of B = 1/(3n)

Combined Work Rate = Work Rate of A + Work Rate of B

Time taken working together = 1 / (Combined Work Rate)

Calculation:

Let B take n days to finish the job.

Then, A will take (n - 60) days.

Since A is thrice as good as B:

n - 60 = n/3

⇒ 3(n - 60) = n

⇒ 3n - 180 = n

⇒ 2n = 180

⇒ n = 90

So, B takes 90 days to finish the job.

A takes 30 days to finish the job.

Combined Work Rate = 1/30 + 1/90

⇒ (3 + 1) / 90

⇒ 4/90

⇒ 2/45

Time taken working together = 1 / (2/45)

⇒ 45/2

⇒ 22.5 days

The correct answer is option 2 (22.5 days).

Given:

Simplify the following expression:

$12 - [2.06 + {2.57 + (9.91 - \overline{5.09 - 0.76} }]$

Formula Used:

Use the BODMAS/BIDMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculation:

Let's start simplifying the innermost brackets:

$\overline{5.09 - 0.76}$

⇒ 5.09 - 0.76 = 4.33

Now substitute this back into the expression:

12 - [2.06 + {2.57 + (9.91 - 4.33)}]

Simplify inside the parenthesis:

9.91 - 4.33

⇒ 5.58

Substitute back:

12 - [2.06 + {2.57 + 5.58}]

Simplify inside the curly brackets:

2.57 + 5.58

⇒ 8.15

Substitute back:

12 - [2.06 + 8.15]

Simplify inside the square brackets:

2.06 + 8.15

⇒ 10.21

Finally, subtract this from 12:

12 - 10.21

⇒ 1.79

The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

Numbers: 144, 169, 196, 225, 256

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of numbers / Total count of numbers

Calculation:

Sum of numbers = 144 + 169 + 196 + 225 + 256

Sum of numbers = 990

Total count of numbers = 5

Average = 990 / 5

⇒ Average = 198

The average of 144, 169, 196, 225, and 256 is 198.

Given:

A number is first decreased by 30% and then increased by 40%. The resulting number is again increased by 5%.

Formula Used:

Net Increase/Decrease Percentage Calculation

Calculation:

Let the original number be 100.

After decreasing by 30%:

⇒ 100 × (1 - 30/100) = 100 × 0.7 = 70

After increasing by 40%:

⇒ 70 × (1 + 40/100) = 70 × 1.4 = 98

After increasing by 5%:

⇒ 98 × (1 + 5/100) = 98 × 1.05 = 102.9

Net change = 102.9 - 100 = 2.9

Net increase percentage = (2.9 / 100) × 100% = 2.9%

The net increase percentage is 2.9%.

Given:

Capacity of cylindrical tank (V) = 14,168 m³

Diameter of base (d) = 28 m

Radius of base (r) = d/2 = 28/2 = 14 m

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Volume of cylinder (V) = π × r² × h

where,

V = Volume

r = Radius of the base

h = Depth of the tank

Calculation:

Using the formula for the volume of a cylinder:

V = π × r² × h

Substitute the given values:

14,168 = (22/7) × 14² × h

⇒ 14,168 = (22/7) × 196 × h

⇒ 14,168 = 22 × 28 × h

⇒ 14,168 = 616 × h

⇒ h = 14,168 / 616

⇒ h = 23 m

The depth of the tank is 23 m.

Given:

Speed for the first part = 75 km/h

Time for the first part = 40 minutes

Speed for the second part = 60 km/h

Time for the second part = 20 minutes

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total time taken

Calculation:

Convert time from minutes to hours:

Time for the first part = 40 minutes = 40 / 60 = 2/3 hours

Time for the second part = 20 minutes = 20 / 60 = 1/3 hours

Distance for the first part = Speed × Time

Distance for the first part = 75 km/h × 2/3 hours = 50 km

Distance for the second part = Speed × Time

Distance for the second part = 60 km/h × 1/3 hours = 20 km

Total distance travelled = 50 km + 20 km = 70 km

Total time taken = (2/3) hours + (1/3) hours = 1 hour

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Average speed = 70 km / 1 hour

Average speed = 70 km/h

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1,190

Discount = 30%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 - Discount)

Calculation:

Discount = 30% = 0.30

MP = SP / (1 - Discount)

MP = 1190 / (1 - 0.30)

MP = 1190 / 0.70

MP = 1190 × (10/7)

MP = 11900 / 7

MP = 1700

The correct answer is option 3.

Shortcut Trick

Surface area of the dome (3πr²) = 363π sq.ft.

r² = 363 / 3 = 121 ⇒ r = 11 ft.

Volume of the dome = (2/3)πr³ = (2/3) × π × 11³.

Volume = (2/3) × 1331 × π = 887.33π ≈ 887.3π cubic ft.

∴ The correct answer is 887.3π cubic ft.

Alternate Method

Given:

Surface area of the hemispherical dome = 363π sq.ft.

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of Hemisphere = 3πr²

Volume of Hemisphere = (2/3)πr³

r = 11 ft Hemispherical Dome Area = 3πr² = 363π Volume = (2/3)πr³

Calculations:

⇒ 3πr² = 363π

⇒ r² = 363 / 3

⇒ r² = 121

⇒ r = √121 = 11 ft

⇒ Volume = (2/3) × π × (11)³

⇒ Volume = (2/3) × π × 1331

⇒ Volume = 2662π / 3

⇒ Volume ≈ 887.33π cubic ft

∴ The correct answer is 887.3π cubic ft.

Additional Information

Surface Area of Sphere

A sphere has a total surface area of 4πr² and a volume of (4/3)πr³.

Hemisphere Variations

Curved Surface Area (CSA) is 2πr², while Total Surface Area (TSA) including the base is 3πr².

Volume Relationship

The volume of a hemisphere is exactly half the volume of a sphere with the same radius: V = (2/3)πr³.

The correct answer is F10.

Key Points

• The cell address two columns to the right and three rows down from cell D7 is F10.
• Explanation:
• Starting Point: We begin at cell D7.
• Columns to the Right: To move two columns to the right, we increment the column letter by 2.
• Column D + 2 columns = Column F
• Rows Down: To move three rows down, we increment the row number by 3.
• Row 7 + 3 rows = Row 10
• Combining these movements:
• Starting from cell D7, we move to the right two columns, reaching column F.
• Then, we move down three rows, reaching row 10.
• Therefore, the final cell address is F10.

The correct answer is Menu bar is situated below the title bar. .

Key Points

• The Menu Bar in MS Word typically includes options such as File, Edit, View, Insert, Format, Tools, Table, Window, and Help.
• These menu items provide access to various features and functionalities within MS Word.
• Exit is not a menu item on the Menu Bar. Instead, it is an option within the File menu that allows users to close the application.

Additional Information

• In the split window mode, one title bar looks darker than the other because the darker title bar shows the active window.
• In Microsoft Office programs like Word, Excel, or PowerPoint, when we work in split-window mode, it means we have two (or more) windows open within the same document or workbook. Having multiple windows open can help you to refer to one part of the document while working on another, increasing your productivity.

The correct answer is $B$2.

Key Points

• The Microsoft Excel formula to create an absolute cell reference for cell B2 is $B$2.
• Explanation:
• Absolute Cell Reference: An absolute cell reference in Excel ensures that the specific cell remains fixed when the formula is copied or moved to other cells. This is achieved by adding a dollar sign ($) before both the column letter and the row number.
• $B$2: In this case, the dollar signs before "B" and "2" indicate that both the column and row are absolute. This means that when the formula containing "$B$2" is copied or moved, it will always refer to the value in cell B2, regardless of the new location of the formula.
• Benefits of Absolute References:
• Consistent Calculations: When dealing with constants or values that should not change during formula copying, absolute references maintain accuracy.
• Efficient Formula Creation: They simplify formula creation by eliminating the need to manually adjust cell references after copying.
• Improved Readability: Formulas with absolute references are often easier to understand as they clearly indicate which cells are fixed.
• Creating Absolute References:
• Manual Entry: You can manually type the dollar signs before the column and row letters.
• F4 Key: A quicker method is to type the cell reference (e.g., B2) and then press the F4 key. This cycles through the different reference types (relative, mixed, absolute) until you reach the desired absolute reference ($B$2).

The correct answer is By typing =.

Key Points

• The CONCATENATE function in Excel is designed to join different pieces of text together or combine values from several cells into one cell.
• The syntax of Excel CONCATENATE is as follows: CONCATENATE(text1, [text2], …) Where text is a text string, cell reference or formula-driven value.
• The CONCATENATE function is supported in all versions of Excel for Microsoft 365, Excel 2019 - Excel 2007.

The correct answer is Dial up Connection. 

Key Points

• Dial-up Connection
• Excel Application: You could create a spreadsheet to track dial-up connection usage. Columns could include: Date/Time of Connection, Duration of Connection, Data Usage, Cost per Minute, Total Cost, and Notes (e.g., connection issues, speed tests).
• Formulas: Use formulas like SUM to calculate total data usage or total cost. The IF function could be used to categorize connections based on speed or cost.
• Data Visualization: Create charts (e.g., line graphs) to visualize data usage over time, identify peak usage hours, or track cost trends.

Additional Information

• Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
• Excel Application: A spreadsheet could be used to compare different DSL plans offered by various providers. Columns could include: Download Speed, Upload Speed, Monthly Cost, Data Cap, Contract Length, and Special Offers.
• Formulas: Use formulas like VLOOKUP to quickly find the best plan based on specific criteria (e.g., maximum budget, required download speed).
• Data Analysis: Analyze the data to determine the most cost-effective plan for your needs, considering factors like data usage patterns and budget constraints.
• Broadband Connection
• Excel Application: Create a spreadsheet to track broadband internet speed test results. Columns could include: Date/Time of Test, Download Speed, Upload Speed, Ping, Test Location, and Notes (e.g., device used, time of day).
• Formulas: Calculate average speeds, track trends over time, and identify potential issues (e.g., slowdowns during peak hours).
• Data Visualization: Create charts (e.g., line graphs) to visualize speed fluctuations and identify potential network congestion issues.
• Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Service
• Excel Application: While less common today, ISDN could be tracked in a spreadsheet for businesses using it for voice and data communication. Columns could include: Number of B-channels used, Call Duration, Cost per Minute, Total Cost, and Call Type (e.g., voice, data).
• Formulas: Calculate total call costs, identify peak usage times, and analyze cost-effectiveness compared to other communication options.
• Data Analysis: Use data analysis tools to identify areas for potential cost savings, such as optimizing call routing or negotiating better rates with the service provider.

The correct answer is Find and Replace.

Key Points

• Find and Replace
• Functionality: This powerful tool allows you to quickly locate and modify specific text within your document. You can find and replace words, phrases, or even specific formatting.
• Shortcut Key: Ctrl+H (Windows) or Cmd+H (Mac)
• Example:
• Find: "the"
• Replace with: "a"
• This will replace all instances of the word "the" with "a" in your document.

Additional Information

• Cut
• Functionality: Removes the selected text or object from its current location and stores it in the clipboard.
• Shortcut Key: Ctrl+X (Windows) or Cmd+X (Mac)
• Example: Select a paragraph, press Ctrl+X, and then move the cursor to a different location in the document.
• Copy
• Functionality: Creates a duplicate of the selected text or object and stores it in the clipboard.
• Shortcut Key: Ctrl+C (Windows) or Cmd+C (Mac)
• Example: Select an image, press Ctrl+C, and then paste it multiple times in different locations within the document.
• Paste
• Functionality: Inserts the contents of the clipboard at the current cursor location.
• Shortcut Key: Ctrl+V (Windows) or Cmd+V (Mac)
• Example: After cutting or copying text or an object, press Ctrl+V to paste it at the desired location.

The correct answer is ‘Save’ is used to save the document for the first time, while ‘Save As’ is used to save the document with a new filename or in a different location.

Key Points

• Save:
• This command updates the existing file with the current changes. It overwrites the previous version of the file, effectively replacing it with the latest modifications. This is typically used for ongoing work on a document, where you want to preserve the most recent changes to the same file.
• Save As:
• This command creates a new copy of the file, allowing you to save it under a different name or in a different location. This preserves the original file intact while creating a separate version of the document. This is useful when you want to:
• Create a backup: Save a copy of the file for safekeeping.
• Save different versions: Maintain multiple versions of the document with different modifications.
• Change the file format: Save the document in a different format (e.g., PDF, RTF, or DOCX).
• Save the file in a different location: Move the file to a different folder or drive.
• In essence:
• Save: Updates the existing file.
• Save As: Creates a new copy of the file.

The correct answer is Orientation.

Key Points

• The Orientation option within the Page Setup dialog box in MS Word 365 determines whether the content of the document is displayed vertically or horizontally.
• Portrait Orientation: This is the default setting where the page is taller than it is wide, similar to a typical sheet of paper. It's ideal for most documents, such as letters, reports, and essays.
• Landscape Orientation: In this setting, the page is wider than it is tall, effectively rotating the page 90 degrees clockwise. This orientation is often preferred for:
• Wide tables or spreadsheets that require more horizontal space.
• Images or diagrams that are wider than they are tall.
• Presentations where a wider format may be more visually appealing.
• You can access the Orientation option by:
• Navigating to the Layout tab in the ribbon.
• Clicking on the Orientation button in the Page Setup group.
• Selecting either Portrait or Landscape from the drop-down menu.

The correct answer is Mark the email as SPAM or Junk.

Key Points

• Utilize Your Email Provider's Spam Filters: Most email providers, such as Gmail, Outlook, and Yahoo Mail, have built-in spam filters. These filters analyze incoming emails based on various factors, including sender reputation, content, and links, to identify and block spam messages. You can often customize these filters to improve their accuracy.
• Mark Spam Emails: When you receive a spam email, mark it as spam. This helps your email provider's spam filter learn and improve its ability to identify future spam messages.
• Create a Filter Rule: You can create custom filter rules in your email client to automatically move emails from specific senders or with certain keywords to the spam or trash folder.
• Unsubscribe from Unwanted Mailing Lists: Many spam emails come from mailing lists you may have inadvertently subscribed to. Look for an unsubscribe link at the bottom of the email and use it to unsubscribe.
• Be Cautious of Phishing Emails: Phishing emails are designed to trick you into revealing personal information, such as passwords or credit card numbers. Be wary of emails that ask for personal information, contain suspicious links, or have urgent or threatening language.
• Avoid Clicking on Links in Suspicious Emails: Never click on links in emails from unknown senders, even if they appear legitimate. Instead, type the website address directly into your web browser.
• Keep Your Email Software Updated: Regularly update your email software to the latest version, as updates often include security patches and improved spam filtering capabilities.
• Use a Strong Password for Your Email Account: A strong password makes it more difficult for hackers to gain access to your email account and send spam through it.
• Consider Using a Spam Filter Service: If you're still receiving a lot of spam, you can consider using a third-party spam filter service. These services can provide additional layers of protection against spam.
• Report Phishing Emails: If you receive a phishing email, report it to the appropriate authorities, such as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) in the United States.

The correct answer is Print Odd pages.

Key Points 

• The most appropriate option to print pages 1, 3, 5, and so on in MS Word 365 is to use the Page Range option in the Print dialog box.
• Here's how to do it:
• Open the document you want to print.
• Go to File > Print.
• In the Pages field, enter the following: 1,3,5,7... (or the last odd page number if you know it).
• Click Print.
• This method allows you to specify a pattern for the pages you want to print. By using the ellipsis (...) after the last odd page number, you're telling Word to continue the pattern (i.e., print every other page).
• This is a more efficient way to print odd pages compared to manually entering each page number, especially if you have a long document.