Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 15 Nov, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Which of the following State Governments organises Surajkund Mela every year? 

  1. ((a))

    Jammu

  2. ((b))

    Haryana

  3. ((c))

    Punjab

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Haryana

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • The Surajkund Mela is an annual event organized by the Haryana Tourism Department in collaboration with the Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture, and External Affairs.
  • It takes place in the month of February at Surajkund, Faridabad district, in Haryana.
  • The mela is famous for its rich showcase of regional and international crafts, handlooms, and cultural diversity.
  • This festival attracts a large number of visitors, including foreign tourists, who come to experience the vibrant cultural heritage of India.

Additional Information

  • Surajkund Mela
  • The Surajkund Mela was first held in 1987 and has since become one of the most renowned international fairs in India.
  • The mela aims to promote the traditional Indian handicrafts and handlooms, with artisans from across the country showcasing their work.
  • Each year, the festival highlights a particular theme state, focusing on its culture and heritage.
  • The mela is not just limited to Indian artisans; it also features participation from several other countries, making it a global cultural exchange.
  • Haryana Tourism
  • The Haryana Tourism Corporation is responsible for promoting tourism in the state and organizes various events, including the Surajkund Mela.
  • Haryana is known for its historical sites, cultural festivals, and scenic landscapes, making it a significant attraction for tourists.
  • The state's rich history includes ancient temples, monuments, and heritage sites that reflect its cultural diversity.
  • Haryana Tourism also offers various hospitality services, including hotels, resorts, and guided tours to enhance the travel experience.
2

The Wazir (minister) of ________ built Moth ki Masjid in Delhi.

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khalji

  2. ((b))

    Khizr Khan

  3. ((c))

    Sikandar Lodi 

  4. ((d))

    Firuz Shah Tughluq 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sikandar Lodi 

The correct answer is Sikandar Lodi.

Key Points

  • Moth ki Masjid, also known as the "Lentil Mosque," was built during the reign of Sikandar Lodi in the early 16th century.
  • Sikandar Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi from 1489 to 1517.
  • The mosque is located in the South Extension part of Delhi.
  • The name "Moth ki Masjid" is derived from a story that a minister of Sikandar Lodi used a lentil (moth) as a symbol to finance the construction of the mosque.

Additional Information

  • Alauddin Khalji
  • Alauddin Khalji was the second ruler of the Khalji dynasty in India, ruling from 1296 to 1316.
  • He is known for his military conquests and administrative reforms.
  • He did not build the Moth ki Masjid.
  • Khizr Khan
  • Khizr Khan was the founder of the Sayyid dynasty in Delhi, ruling from 1414 to 1421.
  • He was a former governor under the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • He did not build the Moth ki Masjid.
  • Firuz Shah Tughluq
  • Firuz Shah Tughluq was the Sultan of Delhi from 1351 to 1388.
  • He was known for his infrastructural projects, including canals, mosques, and public buildings.
  • He did not build the Moth ki Masjid.
3

Which is the most common tidal pattern?

  1. ((a))

    Mixed tides 

  2. ((b))

    Diurnal tides 

  3. ((c))

    Spring tides

  4. ((d))

    Semi-diurnal tides

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Semi-diurnal tides

The correct answer is Semi-diurnal tides.

Key Points

  • Semi-diurnal tides are characterized by two high tides and two low tides each day.
  • This tidal pattern is the most common worldwide, especially along the Atlantic coasts of North America and Europe.
  • The high and low tides occur approximately every 12 hours and 25 minutes.
  • Semi-diurnal tides typically have a regular and predictable pattern, making them essential for coastal navigation and marine activities.

Additional Information

  • Mixed tides:
  • Mixed tides have characteristics of both semi-diurnal and diurnal tides.
  • They usually have two high tides and two low tides of different heights each day.
  • This pattern is common along the Pacific coasts of North America.
  • Diurnal tides:
  • Diurnal tides have only one high tide and one low tide each day.
  • This pattern is less common and can be observed in the Gulf of Mexico and parts of Southeast Asia.
  • Spring tides:
  • Spring tides are not a tidal pattern but rather a condition where tides have the greatest range between high and low water.
  • They occur during the full moon and new moon phases when the gravitational forces of the moon and the sun align.
4

Which of the following dance forms belongs to the Vaishnava Monasteries of North East India?

  1. ((a))

    Odissi

  2. ((b))

    Mohiniattam

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi

  4. ((d))

    Sattriya

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sattriya

The correct answer is Sattriya.

Key Points

  • Sattriya is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
  • It originated in the Vaishnava Monasteries of Assam in North East India.
  • Sattriya dance was introduced in the 15th century AD by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer Sankardev.
  • It is traditionally performed in the monasteries known as Sattras as a part of the rituals and daily worship.

Additional Information

  • Odissi
  • Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Odisha in eastern India.
  • It is known for its sensuous and lyrical nature, and the dance is characterized by various bhangas (stances), which involve stamping of the foot and striking various postures as seen in Indian sculptures.
  • Mohiniattam
  • Mohiniattam is a classical dance form from the state of Kerala.
  • The term Mohiniattam comes from the words 'Mohini' meaning a woman who enchants onlookers and 'attam' meaning graceful and sensuous body movements.
  • It is performed as a solo recital by women and is known for its graceful movements and feminine themes.
  • Kuchipudi
  • Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from the state of Andhra Pradesh in South India.
  • It derives its name from the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh and is known for its fast rhythms and fluid movements.
  • The dance usually begins with an invocation followed by the nritta, nritya, and natya components.
5

How many tiers of government are mentioned in the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India mentions a three-tier system of government.
  • The three tiers are: Union Government (Central Government), State Governments, and Local Governments.
  • The Union Government deals with subjects of national importance, the State Governments deal with state-specific issues, and the Local Governments address local level governance.
  • This three-tier system ensures decentralization and effective governance at all levels.

Additional Information

  • Union Government
  • The Union Government, also referred to as the Central Government, is responsible for governing the entire country.
  • It is headed by the President of India and the Prime Minister, and it includes various ministries and departments.
  • It has the power to make laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • State Governments
  • State Governments are responsible for the governance of individual states within India.
  • Each state has its own government headed by the Governor and the Chief Minister, along with state-specific ministries and departments.
  • The State Governments have the power to make laws on subjects listed in the State List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • Local Governments
  • Local Governments operate at the grassroots level, addressing local administrative and developmental needs.
  • The local government system includes Panchayats in rural areas and Municipalities in urban areas.
  • The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments provided constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities, respectively.
  • Local Governments have the authority to make decisions on local issues and implement development programs at the village, town, or city level.
6

When did the Paris Agreement on Climate Change come into force (become effective from)?

  1. ((a))

    22nd April 2016

  2. ((b))

    4th November 2016

  3. ((c))

    27th January 2017

  4. ((d))

    12th December 2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4th November 2016

The correct answer is 4th November 2016.

Key Points

  • The Paris Agreement on Climate Change is an international treaty that was adopted on 12th December 2015 at the COP21 in Paris.
  • The agreement aimed to address climate change and its negative impacts by limiting global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • It entered into force on 4th November 2016, after being ratified by 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
  • The agreement includes commitments from all participating countries to reduce their carbon emissions and enhance their climate resilience.

Additional Information

  • Paris Agreement
  • It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change, adopted by 196 parties at COP21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015.
  • The agreement aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • It works on a 5-year cycle of increasingly ambitious climate action carried out by countries.
  • Countries communicate their climate actions known as Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) which outline their efforts to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
  • Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
  • NDCs are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the achievement of its long-term goals.
  • Each party to the Paris Agreement is required to establish and communicate ambitious NDCs every five years.
  • NDCs represent the efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
  • Climate Finance
  • Climate finance refers to local, national, or transnational financing, which may be drawn from public, private, and alternative sources of financing.
  • It is critical to addressing climate change because large-scale investments are required to significantly reduce emissions and to adapt to the adverse effects and reduce the impacts of a changing climate.
  • Greenhouse Gas Emissions
  • Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are gases that trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to global warming and climate change.
  • Common GHGs include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and fluorinated gases.
  • Efforts to reduce GHG emissions are critical to mitigating the impacts of climate change.
7

Who among the following is associated with the Mridangam instrument? 

  1. ((a))

    Zarin S Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Hari Prasad Chaurasia

  3. ((c))

    Palghat Mani Iyer

  4. ((d))

    Ali Akbar Khan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Palghat Mani Iyer

The correct answer is Palghat Mani Iyer.

Key Points

  • Palghat Mani Iyer was an eminent Indian percussionist and a renowned mridangam player.
  • He is regarded as one of the greatest mridangam players of the 20th century.
  • Palghat Mani Iyer was known for his mastery over intricate rhythms and his ability to accompany and enhance the performances of many leading Carnatic musicians.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan, one of India's highest civilian honors, for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

  • Mridangam
  • The mridangam is a percussion instrument from India of ancient origin.
  • It is the primary rhythmic accompaniment in a Carnatic music ensemble, which is a classical music tradition of South India.
  • The mridangam is a double-headed drum, with each head producing different tones. It is played with the hands and fingers.
  • The instrument is made from a hollowed piece of jackfruit wood, and the two drumheads are made from layers of animal hide.
  • Other Notable Musicians
  • Hari Prasad Chaurasia - A renowned Indian flutist associated with the bansuri, a type of Indian bamboo flute.
  • Ali Akbar Khan - A legendary sarod player, known for his significant contributions to Hindustani classical music.
  • Zarin S Sharma - Although not widely recognized in the context of Indian classical music, this name does not relate to the mridangam.
8

According to Census 2011, which group of states have the highest males literacy rates?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan and Bihar 

  2. ((b))

    Kerala and Tamil Nadu 

  3. ((c))

    Kerala and Mizoram

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim and Nagaland

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala and Mizoram

The correct answer is Kerala and Mizoram.

Key Points

  • Kerala has consistently been known for its high literacy rates, with a strong focus on education and social development.
  • Mizoram, a state in Northeast India, also boasts one of the highest literacy rates in the country, particularly among males.
  • Both states have implemented various educational reforms and policies aimed at improving literacy and educational standards.
  • The high literacy rates in these states are indicative of their commitment to education and the effectiveness of their educational policies.

Additional Information

  • Census 2011
  • The Census of India 2011 was the 15th National Census of the Country since 1872.
  • The population enumeration was conducted in two phases: the first phase involved house listing and housing census, and the second phase involved population enumeration.
  • The literacy rate is defined as the percentage of literate people to the total population aged seven years and above.
  • The data collected through the census helps in understanding the demographic profile of the country, including literacy rates, population distribution, sex ratio, and other critical indicators.
  • Literacy Rate
  • Literacy rate is an important indicator of a region's educational status and socio-economic development.
  • It is typically calculated as the percentage of the population aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding.
  • High literacy rates are often associated with better employment opportunities, higher income levels, and improved quality of life.
  • Government initiatives and policies, such as the Right to Education Act in India, have been instrumental in improving literacy rates across various states.
  • Educational Reforms
  • Educational reforms refer to the changes and improvements made in the education system to enhance its quality and accessibility.
  • Such reforms may include curriculum changes, teacher training programs, infrastructure development, and the implementation of new teaching methodologies.
  • In states like Kerala and Mizoram, educational reforms have played a significant role in achieving high literacy rates and improving overall educational standards.
  • Efforts to promote inclusive education and provide equal opportunities for all sections of society are critical components of successful educational reforms.
9

According to Census 2011, what was the population density of India?

  1. ((a))

    382 persons

  2. ((b))

    343 persons 

  3. ((c))

    372 persons

  4. ((d))

    362 persons

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

382 persons

The correct answer is 382 persons.

Key Points

  • According to the Census 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per square kilometer.
  • The population density is calculated as the number of people per unit area.
  • It provides a measure of how crowded a place is.
  • It helps in understanding the distribution of population across different regions.

Additional Information

  • Census:
  • The Census is a process of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.
  • In India, the Census is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
  • The first complete census of India was conducted in 1881.
  • The Census collects data on various parameters including population size, distribution, and various demographic, social, and economic characteristics.
  • Population Density:
  • Population density is a measurement of population per unit area or unit volume.
  • It is commonly represented as people per square kilometer or square mile.
  • High population density can indicate high urbanization, whereas low population density might indicate rural or less developed areas.
  • Population density helps in planning and resource allocation by governments and organizations.
  • Significance of Population Density:
  • Understanding population density is crucial for urban planning and infrastructure development.It helps in assessing the pressure on land and resources in a particular area.
  • It informs policy decisions related to housing, transportation, and public services.
  • It also provides insights into the living conditions and quality of life of people in different regions.
10

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)The Indian desert lies towards the eastern margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.

b) This region has arid climate with low vegetation cover and streams appear during the rainy season.

  1. ((a))

    Only a is correct. 

  2. ((b))

    Both a and b are correct. 

  3. ((c))

    Only b is correct. 

  4. ((d))

    Both a and b are incorrect. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only b is correct. 

The correct answer is Only b is correct..

Key Points

  • The Indian desert, also known as the Thar Desert, lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills, not the eastern margins.
  • It is indeed an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
  • This region has an arid climate with low vegetation cover.
  • Streams in the Thar Desert appear only during the rainy season.

Additional Information

  • Thar Desert:
  • The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a large arid region in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent.
  • It forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.
  • The desert extends over an area of about 200,000 square kilometers (77,000 sq mi).
  • Aravali Hills:
  • The Aravali Range is a range of mountains in western India running approximately 670 kilometers (430 mi) in a south-west direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat.
  • It is one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world.
  • Climate of the Thar Desert:
  • The climate of the Thar Desert is characterized by extreme temperatures, with summer temperatures rising as high as 50°C and winter temperatures dropping below 0°C.
  • Rainfall is very low, typically ranging between 100 to 500 mm annually.
  • Vegetation in the Thar Desert:
  • Vegetation is sparse and consists mainly of xerophytic (drought-resistant) plants such as cacti, acacias, and grasses.
  • During the short rainy season, some ephemeral plants may also grow.
11

Who among the following was the first person in British India to get the scholarship of Indian Society of Oriental Arts, established in 1906?

  1. ((a))

    Jagdish Chandra Bose

  2. ((b))

    Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar

  3. ((c))

    Nandalal Bose

  4. ((d))

    Prafulla Chandra Roy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nandalal Bose

The correct answer is Nandalal Bose.

Key Points

  • Nandalal Bose was a pioneering Indian painter and a key figure in modern Indian art.
  • He was a disciple of Abanindranath Tagore, the founder of the Bengal school of art.
  • Bose was closely associated with the Indian Society of Oriental Art, established in 1906, and was the first recipient of its scholarship.
  • He is renowned for his contribution to the Indian independence movement through his art, and his works are considered masterpieces of Indian art.

Additional Information

  • Indian Society of Oriental Art
  • Founded in 1906, the Indian Society of Oriental Art was established to promote and support Indian art and culture.
  • It played a crucial role in the revival of traditional Indian art forms during the early 20th century.
  • The society provided scholarships and support to young artists, fostering the development of a new generation of Indian artists.
  • It aimed to create an awareness and appreciation of Indian art both in India and internationally.
  • Nandalal Bose's Contributions
  • Nandalal Bose was instrumental in the design of the Indian constitution's original manuscript, illustrating its pages with images from Indian mythology and history.
  • He served as the principal of Kala Bhavana, the art school at Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, founded by Rabindranath Tagore.
  • His works include the famous Haripura posters, which were used to inspire and rally people during the Indian independence movement.
  • In recognition of his contributions, Bose was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, in 1954.
  • Other Notable Personalities Mentioned
  • Jagdish Chandra Bose: A pioneering scientist in the field of radio and microwave optics, as well as a biologist who conducted significant research on plant physiology.
  • Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar: An astrophysicist who won the Nobel Prize in Physics for his work on the structure and evolution of stars.
  • Prafulla Chandra Roy: A renowned chemist and founder of Bengal Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals, India's first pharmaceutical company.
12

Which state has two headquarters of Indian Railway Zones?

  1. ((a))

    Rajasthan

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh 

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Assam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uttar Pradesh 

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh is the only state in India that has two headquarters of Indian Railway Zones.
  • The two Railway Zones headquartered in Uttar Pradesh are the North Eastern Railway (NER) with its headquarters in Gorakhpur and the North Central Railway (NCR) with its headquarters in Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad).
  • The Indian Railways is divided into 18 zones, each with its own headquarters to facilitate smooth and efficient management of railway operations across the country.
  • Uttar Pradesh's strategic location and vast rail network make it a significant hub for Indian Railways, contributing to its status of having two zonal headquarters.

Additional Information

  • North Eastern Railway (NER)
  • The North Eastern Railway (NER) is one of the 18 railway zones in India.
  • Its headquarters is located in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.
  • NER primarily serves the northeastern states of India and is responsible for the management and operation of railway services in this region.
  • Gorakhpur railway station in Uttar Pradesh is one of the major stations under this zone.
  • North Central Railway (NCR)
  • The North Central Railway (NCR) is another important railway zone in India.
  • Its headquarters is located in Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad), Uttar Pradesh.
  • NCR covers a large part of North Central India and includes important railway routes connecting the northern and southern parts of India.
  • Prayagraj Junction is a key railway station under this zone and serves as a major hub for passenger and freight trains.
  • Indian Railways Zones
  • Indian Railways is divided into 18 zones for administrative convenience and efficient management of railway operations.
  • Each zone is headed by a General Manager and is further divided into divisions, each headed by a Divisional Railway Manager (DRM).
  • The zones are responsible for the operation, maintenance, and development of railway infrastructure within their respective regions.
  • Some of the other important zones include the Western Railway (WR), Eastern Railway (ER), Southern Railway (SR), and Northern Railway (NR).
13

Untouchability is against which of the following fundamental rights?

  1. ((a))

    Right to freedom of religion

  2. ((b))

    Right to constitutional remedy

  3. ((c))

    Right to liberty

  4. ((d))

    Right to equality

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Right to equality

The correct answer is Right to equality.

Key Points

  • The Right to Equality is one of the six fundamental rights provided by the Constitution of India to its citizens.
  • It includes equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • It also includes equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and the abolition of untouchability and titles.
  • The practice of untouchability is a punishable offense under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, which falls under the Right to Equality.

Additional Information

  • Right to Freedom of Religion
  • It is one of the fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution under Articles 25 to 28.
  • It ensures freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • The state cannot interfere in religious matters, but it can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activities associated with religious practices.
  • This right aims to maintain religious harmony and avoid conflicts among different religious groups.
  • Right to Constitutional Remedies
  • It is provided under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution and is considered the heart and soul of the Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
  • This right allows individuals to move the Supreme Court or High Courts to seek enforcement of their fundamental rights.
  • The courts have the power to issue writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of these rights.
  • This right ensures the protection and realization of fundamental rights and acts as a guardian of the Constitution.
  • Right to Liberty
  • It is part of the Right to Freedom under Articles 19 to 22 of the Indian Constitution.
  • This right guarantees freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
  • It also includes protection in respect of conviction for offenses, protection of life and personal liberty, and protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
  • This right aims to promote individual liberty and protect citizens from arbitrary actions by the state.
14

Elections under which act gave the control of seven provinces in 1937 to the Congress?

  1. ((a))

    Government of India Act, 1935

  2. ((b))

    Government of India Act, 1937

  3. ((c))

    Provincial Act, 1935

  4. ((d))

    Municipalities Act, 1935

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Government of India Act, 1935

The correct answer is Government of India Act, 1935.

Key Points

  • The Government of India Act, 1935 was the longest Act passed by the British Parliament, containing 321 sections and 10 schedules.
  • It provided for the establishment of an all-India federation consisting of provinces and princely states.
  • The Act introduced provincial autonomy, allowing provinces to act as separate entities with their own legislative assemblies and governments responsible to the electorate.
  • Under this act, elections were held in 1937, leading to the Congress party gaining control of seven out of eleven provinces in British India.

Additional Information

  • Government of India Act, 1937
  • There is no such act as the Government of India Act, 1937. The correct act is the Government of India Act, 1935, which was implemented in 1937.
  • Provincial Act, 1935
  • There is no separate Provincial Act, 1935. The provisions related to provincial autonomy and elections were part of the Government of India Act, 1935.
  • Municipalities Act, 1935
  • The Municipalities Act, 1935, is not related to the control of provinces. It generally pertains to local governance and municipal administration, not provincial autonomy or elections.
  • Government of India Act, 1935
  • The Government of India Act, 1935, was a crucial step toward greater self-governance in India.
  • It laid the foundation for the federal structure of government and introduced significant administrative changes.
  • The Act also sought to address the political demands of Indian leaders by providing a larger role for Indians in governance.
  • It led to the first provincial elections, which allowed Indian political parties to form governments in their respective provinces, marking a significant shift in colonial administration.
15

Turmeric powder is adulterated with:

  1. ((a))

    lead chromate 

  2. ((b))

    zinc carbonate

  3. ((c))

    silicon oxide 

  4. ((d))

    magnesium chloride

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

lead chromate 

The correct answer is lead chromate.

Key Points

  • Lead chromate is a bright yellow chemical compound and is used as an adulterant to enhance the color of turmeric powder.
  • It is highly toxic and can cause various health issues such as abdominal pain, vomiting, and even cancer if consumed regularly.
  • The presence of lead chromate in turmeric is a serious health concern and is strictly prohibited in food products.
  • Consumption of contaminated turmeric powder can lead to heavy metal poisoning, which can severely affect the kidneys, brain, and other vital organs.

Additional Information

  • Lead Chromate
  • Lead chromate (PbCrO4) is a chemical compound that appears as a yellow powder and is commonly used as a pigment in paints and dyes.
  • Due to its bright yellow color, it is sometimes used to adulterate turmeric powder to make it appear more vibrant and appealing.
  • However, lead is a highly toxic metal, and its consumption can lead to severe health issues.
  • Zinc Carbonate
  • Zinc carbonate (ZnCO3) is a white crystalline powder used in various industrial applications, including cosmetics and pharmaceuticals.
  • While it is not typically used to adulterate turmeric, it is important to note that zinc carbonate itself is not toxic if used within permissible limits.
  • Silicon Oxide
  • Silicon oxide (SiO2), also known as silica, is a naturally occurring mineral found in sand and quartz.
  • It is used in the food industry as an anti-caking agent but is not known to be used as an adulterant in turmeric powder.
  • Magnesium Chloride
  • Magnesium chloride (MgCl2) is a chemical compound used in various industrial and pharmaceutical applications.
  • It is not typically associated with the adulteration of turmeric powder.
16

In which king’s honour and praise was the Prayag Prashasti written by the Sanskrit poet Harisena?

  1. ((a))

    Vikramaditya

  2. ((b))

    Chandragupta

  3. ((c))

    Samudragupta

  4. ((d))

    Ashoka

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Samudragupta

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

  • The Prayag Prashasti, also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, was composed by Harisena, a court poet and minister of Samudragupta.
  • Samudragupta was a ruler of the Gupta Empire and is often referred to as the "Napoleon of India" due to his extensive military conquests.
  • The inscription is one of the most important sources of information about the reign of Samudragupta, detailing his conquests and achievements.
  • It is located on the Allahabad Pillar, which is also known for inscriptions from other historical figures, including Ashoka and Jahangir.

Additional Information

  • Samudragupta:
  • Samudragupta was the second ruler of the Gupta Empire, succeeding his father Chandragupta I.
  • He reigned from approximately 335-375 CE and was known for his military prowess and patronage of the arts.
  • His rule is often considered a golden age in Indian history due to the flourishing of art, culture, and religion.
  • He performed the Ashvamedha (horse sacrifice) to signify his undisputed sovereignty over the subcontinent.
  • Prayag Prashasti:
  • The Prayag Prashasti is an eulogy written in classical Sanskrit and is one of the finest examples of ancient Indian inscriptions.
  • It provides a detailed account of Samudragupta's military campaigns, his administration, and his contributions to the Gupta Empire.
  • The inscription is valuable not just for its historical content but also for its literary quality, showcasing the high level of Sanskrit literary culture during the Gupta period.
  • Gupta Empire:
  • The Gupta Empire was an ancient Indian empire existing from approximately 320 to 550 CE.
  • It is considered a period of great cultural and scientific advancements, often referred to as the Golden Age of India.
  • The empire was known for its achievements in science, technology, engineering, art, dialectic, literature, logic, mathematics, astronomy, religion, and philosophy.
17

When was the Bengal Partition Plan implemented?

  1. ((a))

    10 September 1910 

  2. ((b))

    16 October 1905

  3. ((c))

    7 August 1899

  4. ((d))

    15 August 1915

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16 October 1905

The correct answer is Mon Oct 16 1905.

Key Points

  • The Bengal Partition Plan was announced in December 1903 by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India.
  • The official implementation of the Bengal Partition Plan took place on 16 October 1905.
  • The partition separated the largely Muslim eastern areas from the largely Hindu western areas.
  • The main reason for the partition was to improve administrative efficiency in the large and populous Bengal province.

Additional Information

  • Lord Curzon
  • George Nathaniel Curzon, 1st Marquess Curzon of Kedleston, served as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.
  • His tenure is noted for major administrative reforms and a policy of divide and rule.
  • Curzon’s policies aimed at strengthening British control over India but faced strong opposition from Indian nationalists.
  • Swadeshi Movement
  • In response to the partition, the Indian National Congress launched the Swadeshi Movement, promoting the use of Indian-made goods and boycotting British products.
  • The movement marked the beginning of a new phase of the Indian independence struggle, emphasizing self-reliance and indigenous enterprise.
  • It led to the establishment of Indian industries, schools, and national institutions.
  • Impact of the Partition
  • The partition created communal tensions between Hindus and Muslims, leading to widespread protests and unrest.
  • It eventually forced the British government to revoke the partition in 1911, reuniting Bengal.
  • The episode intensified the Indian nationalist movement and sowed the seeds for future communal divisions.
18

Gram Nyayalaya Act was enacted in the year __________.

  1. ((a))

    2006

  2. ((b))

    2008

  3. ((c))

    2000

  4. ((d))

    2004

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2008

The correct answer is 2008.

Key Points

  • The Gram Nyayalaya Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in the year 2008.
  • The Act aims at providing a new system of justice at the grassroots level, with a focus on rural areas.
  • The purpose of Gram Nyayalayas is to deliver inexpensive and expeditious justice to rural litigants at their doorsteps.
  • These courts are mobile village courts that will function at the Panchayat level.

Additional Information

  • Gram Nyayalaya:
  • Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008.
  • They have jurisdiction over both criminal and civil cases, including those related to property disputes, family disputes, and disputes regarding agricultural land.
  • The aim is to provide a speedy and inexpensive system of justice to the rural populace.
  • These courts are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who has the same powers and functions as that of a Judicial Magistrate of First Class.
  • Objective of the Act:
  • The primary objective of the Gram Nyayalaya Act is to ensure that justice is accessible to the rural population of India.
  • This is achieved by establishing a system of mobile courts that bring justice to people's doorsteps.
  • The Act also aims to reduce the burden on higher courts by handling minor disputes at the village level.
  • It promotes the use of local languages in court proceedings to make the process more accessible to rural litigants.
  • Implementation and Challenges:
  • Despite the noble objectives, the implementation of Gram Nyayalayas has faced several challenges.
  • As of the recent reports, the number of operational Gram Nyayalayas is far below the intended target.
  • Challenges include lack of infrastructure, insufficient funding, and resistance from the legal fraternity.
  • Efforts are being made to overcome these challenges and ensure the effective functioning of these village courts.
19

Who became the first Indian woman to win two Olympic medals? 

  1. ((a))

    Karnam Malleswari

  2. ((b))

    PV Sindhu

  3. ((c))

    Saina Nehwal

  4. ((d))

    Mary Kom

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PV Sindhu

The correct answer is PV Sindhu.

Key Points

  • PV Sindhu is the first Indian woman to win two Olympic medals.
  • She won a silver medal in the 2016 Rio Olympics.
  • She secured a bronze medal in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
  • PV Sindhu is one of India's most successful sports personalities and is celebrated for her achievements in badminton.

Additional Information

  • Olympics
  • The Olympics is an international sporting event featuring summer and winter sports competitions.
  • Athletes from around the world participate in a variety of competitions.
  • The Olympic Games are held every four years, with the Summer and Winter Games alternating every two years in the four-year period.
  • Badminton
  • Badminton is a racquet sport played using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
  • The game can be played by two opposing players (singles) or two opposing pairs (doubles).
  • Badminton is a popular sport in many countries, and it is also an Olympic sport.
  • PV Sindhu's Achievements
  • PV Sindhu has won several medals in various international badminton tournaments including the World Championships and the Commonwealth Games.
  • She has been awarded the Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri, and the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award by the Government of India.
  • Sindhu's achievements have inspired many young athletes in India to pursue sports professionally.
20

The three-second rule is applicable for the game of _______.

  1. ((a))

    kho-kho 

  2. ((b))

    badminton

  3. ((c))

    basketball

  4. ((d))

    kabaddi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

basketball

The correct answer is basketball.

Key Points

  • The three-second rule is a violation that occurs when a player remains in the opponent's restricted area (the key) for more than three consecutive seconds while their team is in control of a live ball in the frontcourt.
  • This rule is applicable in basketball to prevent offensive players from camping near the basket for easy scoring opportunities.
  • The rule aims to promote more dynamic and fast-paced gameplay by ensuring that players are constantly moving and not lingering in one spot.
  • In the NBA, there is also a defensive three-second rule which restricts defensive players from staying in the paint for more than three seconds without actively guarding an opponent.

Additional Information

  • Restricted Area (The Key)
  • The restricted area, also known as the key, the paint, or the lane, is the rectangular area near the basket where offensive and defensive players position themselves.
  • It is essential in basketball as it is the primary area for scoring and rebounding.
  • The dimensions of the key vary between different leagues (e.g., NBA, FIBA, NCAA).
  • Offensive Three-Second Violation
  • This violation occurs when an offensive player stays in the key for more than three seconds while their team has possession of the ball.
  • The referee calls for a turnover, and the ball is awarded to the opposing team.
  • Defensive Three-Second Violation
  • In the NBA, a defensive player cannot stay in the key for more than three seconds unless they are actively guarding an opponent.
  • If a defensive three-second violation occurs, the offensive team is awarded one free throw and retains possession of the ball.
  • Impact on Gameplay
  • The three-second rule ensures that the game remains fast-paced and prevents players from using the restricted area to gain an unfair advantage.
  • It encourages players to develop better movement and positioning skills on the court.
21

Which of the following is a merit of the parliamentary system?

  1. ((a))

    Autocracy

  2. ((b))

    Narrow representation

  3. ((c))

    Non responsible government

  4. ((d))

    Harmony between legislature and executive

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Harmony between legislature and executive

The correct answer is Harmony between legislature and executive.

Key Points

  • Unity of Action: The parliamentary system ensures a close relationship and cooperation between the executive and the legislature, ensuring unity of action and purpose in governance.
  • Responsibility: The parliamentary system makes the executive (government) accountable to the legislature and, through it, to the people, thus ensuring a responsible government.
  • Flexibility: It provides flexibility in the government's functioning, as the executive can be changed without a general election if it loses the confidence of the legislature.
  • Representation: The system often ensures broader representation of diverse groups and opinions in the legislature, promoting inclusive governance.

Additional Information

  • Parliamentary System:
  • A system of government where the executive derives its democratic legitimacy from, and is accountable to, the legislature; the executive and legislative branches are thus interconnected.
  • Examples include the United Kingdom, India, Canada, Australia, and Japan.
  • The head of state may be a different person from the head of government, e.g., the President and the Prime Minister in India.
  • In a parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is usually the head of government, while the head of state may be a monarch or a president.
  • Autocracy:
  • A system of government in which a single person possesses unlimited power.
  • Examples include absolute monarchies and dictatorships.
  • Autocracies are characterized by the centralization of power and lack of political pluralism.
  • Narrow Representation:
  • A situation where only a limited group of people or interests are represented in the government.
  • This can lead to exclusion and lack of representation for minority groups or differing opinions.
  • Non-responsible Government:
  • A system where the executive is not directly accountable to the legislature or the electorate.
  • Such systems can lead to a lack of checks and balances and reduced accountability of the executive.
22

‘Godaan’, a famous novel, was authored by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Jaishankar Prasad

  2. ((b))

    Harivansh Rai Bachchan

  3. ((c))

    Suryakant Tripathi Nirala

  4. ((d))

    Munshi Premchand 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Munshi Premchand 

The correct answer is Munshi Premchand.

Key Points

  • Munshi Premchand was one of the most celebrated writers in Indian literature, known for his modern Hindustani literature.
  • He wrote many novels, short stories, and dramas, which are celebrated for their social realism and depiction of rural life in India.
  • His novel "Godaan" is considered one of his finest works, depicting the struggles of the rural poor and the exploitation they faced.
  • Munshi Premchand's real name was Dhanpat Rai, and he was born on 31 July 1880 in Lamhi, near Varanasi, India.

Additional Information

  • Godaan
  • "Godaan" is a Hindi novel published in 1936, and it is considered one of the greatest novels in Hindi literature.
  • The novel deals with the socio-economic deprivation and exploitation faced by the peasants in rural India.
  • The protagonist of the novel, Hori, is a poor farmer who struggles to maintain his dignity in the face of poverty and social injustice.
  • The novel highlights the harsh realities of rural life, including the caste system, debt, and the exploitation of farmers by moneylenders and landlords.
  • Other Works by Munshi Premchand
  • Munshi Premchand wrote several other notable works, including "Nirmala", "Rangbhoomi", "Gaban", "Karmabhoomi", and "Sevasadan".
  • His works often addressed social issues such as poverty, child marriage, and women's rights.
  • He is also known for his short stories, which were published in collections such as "Mansarovar" and "Prem Pachisi".
  • Premchand's stories and novels have been translated into many languages and have been adapted into films and television series.
  • Literary Style and Influence
  • Munshi Premchand is known for his simple and direct writing style, which made his works accessible to a wide audience.
  • His works are characterized by their realistic portrayal of society and their focus on the lives of ordinary people.
  • Premchand's writing is often seen as a critique of social injustices and a call for reform.
  • He is considered a pioneer of modern Hindi literature and has had a lasting influence on Indian writers and literature.
23

Expenditure incurred by residents during their foreign tour will be added to which component while calculating national income? 

  1. ((a))

    Government final consumption expenditure

  2. ((b))

    Private final consumption expenditure

  3. ((c))

    Gross foreign capital formation 

  4. ((d))

    Gross domestic capital formation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Private final consumption expenditure

The correct answer is Private final consumption expenditure.

Key Points

  • Private final consumption expenditure (PFCE) refers to the expenditure incurred by households on goods and services for their own use.
  • PFCE includes all private consumption of both durable and non-durable goods.
  • Expenditure incurred by residents during their foreign tours is considered a part of PFCE as it is an expenditure on goods and services consumed by the residents.
  • This component is a major part of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and is used to measure the standard of living of a country.

Additional Information

  • Government final consumption expenditure (GFCE)
  • GFCE is the expenditure incurred by the government on goods and services that are provided to the public.
  • It includes spending on public services such as defense, education, healthcare, and infrastructure development.
  • GFCE is an important part of the national accounts and contributes to the calculation of GDP.
  • Gross foreign capital formation
  • It refers to the addition to the fixed assets of the economy during a period of time.
  • This includes investments in machinery, equipment, and infrastructure from foreign sources.
  • It is a measure of foreign direct investment (FDI) in the country.
  • Gross domestic capital formation
  • Gross domestic capital formation includes investments in fixed assets within the country.
  • It is a measure of the total value of the increase in fixed assets within the country during a particular period.
  • It is an important indicator of the level of economic development in a country.
24

FIH Asia Cup Men’s Hockey 2022 was hosted by:

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

  • FIH Asia Cup Men's Hockey 2022 was hosted by Indonesia in the city of Jakarta.
  • The tournament took place from May 23 to June 1, 2022.
  • This was the eleventh edition of the Men's Hockey Asia Cup.
  • Indonesia had the opportunity to host this prestigious tournament, showcasing its capability to organize international sports events.

Additional Information

  • FIH Asia Cup:
  • The Men's Hockey Asia Cup is an international men's field hockey tournament organized by the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
  • The tournament was first held in 1982 in Karachi, Pakistan.
  • The Asia Cup serves as a qualifier for the FIH Hockey World Cup, with the winner securing a spot in the prestigious global event.
  • India and Pakistan have been the most successful teams in the tournament's history, each winning multiple titles.
  • Field Hockey:
  • Field hockey is a team sport played on grass or artificial turf, where players aim to score goals by hitting a ball into the opponent's net using a curved stick.
  • It is one of the oldest team sports, with origins tracing back to ancient civilizations such as Egypt, Greece, and Persia.
  • The modern game of field hockey was developed in the 19th century in England.
  • The sport is governed by the International Hockey Federation (FIH) at the global level.
  • Asian Hockey Federation (AHF):
  • The AHF is the governing body for the sport of field hockey in Asia.
  • It was established in 1958 and is responsible for organizing various continental tournaments, including the Asia Cup, Asian Games, and Asian Champions Trophy.
  • The AHF works to promote and develop the sport of field hockey across its member countries.
  • It is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
25

Who was India’s 12th Prime Minister?

  1. ((a))

    Inder Kumar Gujral

  2. ((b))

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  3. ((c))

    PV Narasimha Rao

  4. ((d))

    Manmohan Singh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inder Kumar Gujral

The correct answer is Inder Kumar Gujral.

Key Points

  • Inder Kumar Gujral was the 12th Prime Minister of India, serving from April 1997 to March 1998.
  • He succeeded H. D. Deve Gowda and was succeeded by Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • Gujral was a member of the Janata Dal party during his tenure as Prime Minister.
  • He is well-known for the "Gujral Doctrine," a set of five principles to guide India's foreign policy towards its neighbors.

Additional Information

  • Prime Ministers of India
  • The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government and exercises most executive powers.
  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India and must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, the two houses of India's Parliament.
  • The first Prime Minister of India was Jawaharlal Nehru, who took office on August 15, 1947, following India’s independence from British rule.
  • As of 2023, Narendra Modi is the current and 15th Prime Minister of India, having taken office on May 26, 2014.
  • Janata Dal
  • Janata Dal was an Indian political party that was formed in 1988.
  • The party played a significant role in Indian politics during the late 1980s and 1990s.
  • It emerged from the merger of various opposition parties to form a united front against the Indian National Congress.
  • Janata Dal members included several former Prime Ministers, such as V. P. Singh, H. D. Deve Gowda, and Inder Kumar Gujral.
  • Gujral Doctrine
  • The Gujral Doctrine is a set of five principles to guide the conduct of India’s foreign relations with its immediate neighbors.
  • It was formulated by Inder Kumar Gujral during his tenure as the Minister of External Affairs and later as Prime Minister.
  • The doctrine emphasizes unilateral accommodation and goodwill towards India's smaller neighbors without expecting reciprocity.
  • It aimed to foster better relations and ensure regional peace and stability.
26

Name the Indian social reformer who played a crucial role in the passing of the Age of Consent Bill, 1891. 

  1. ((a))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  2. ((b))

    C Subramania Bharathi 

  3. ((c))

    Behramji Malabari

  4. ((d))

    Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Behramji Malabari

The correct answer is Behramji Malabari.

Key Points

  • Behramji Malabari was an Indian poet, publicist, and social reformer born on 18th May 1853.
  • He played a pivotal role in advocating for the rights of women, especially in his campaign against child marriage and for the passage of the Age of Consent Act, 1891.
  • Malabari's efforts brought attention to the plight of young girls who were subjected to early marriage and its detrimental effects on their health and well-being.
  • His activism and writings were instrumental in influencing the British authorities to raise the age of consent for girls from 10 to 12 years through the Age of Consent Act, 1891.

Additional Information

  • Age of Consent Act, 1891
  • The Age of Consent Act, 1891 was a legislation enacted during the British colonial rule in India.
  • The Act raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for girls from 10 to 12 years.
  • This was one of the early legal reforms aimed at protecting young girls from exploitation and child marriage.
  • The Act was a significant milestone in the history of social reforms in India, highlighting the growing awareness and efforts towards improving women's rights and conditions.
  • Behramji Malabari's Contributions
  • Besides his work on the Age of Consent Act, Malabari was also known for his efforts in social reforms such as widow remarriage and the fight against the practice of purdah (veil).
  • He founded the "Seva Sadan" in 1908, an institution dedicated to the welfare of women and children.
  • Malabari's literary works, including his poetry and publicist writings, played a crucial role in spreading social awareness and advocating for reforms.
  • His book, "Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood," published in 1887, was influential in bringing the issues of child marriage and enforced widowhood to the forefront of social discourse.
27

‘Why I am an Atheist’ is an autobiography of whom among the following Revolutionaries? 

  1. ((a))

    Chandrashekhar Azad 

  2. ((b))

    Suryakant Sen

  3. ((c))

    Ramprasad Bismil

  4. ((d))

    Bhagat Singh 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bhagat Singh 

The correct answer is Bhagat Singh.

Key Points

  • Bhagat Singh was a prominent Indian revolutionary who played a pivotal role in the Indian independence movement against British colonial rule.
  • He was born on September 28, 1907, in Banga, Punjab, British India (now in Pakistan).
  • His essay "Why I am an Atheist" was written in 1930 while he was imprisoned in Lahore Central Jail.
  • In this essay, Bhagat Singh articulates his rationalist and atheistic beliefs, challenging religious dogmas and advocating for a more scientific and humanistic approach to life.

Additional Information

  • Chandrashekhar Azad
  • He was another prominent Indian revolutionary who reorganized the Hindustan Republican Association under its new name of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) after the death of its founder, Ram Prasad Bismil.
  • He was involved in several revolutionary activities against the British government, including the Kakori Train Robbery in 1925.
  • Azad was known for his fearless attitude and commitment to the cause of Indian independence.
  • He died on February 27, 1931, in a gunfight with the police at Alfred Park in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
  • Suryakant Sen
  • Suryakant Sen was not a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement, and there is little historical information available about him in the context of Indian revolutionary activities.
  • His mention in the options might be a distractor or an error.
  • Ramprasad Bismil
  • He was a renowned Indian revolutionary who participated in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918 and the Kakori Train Robbery in 1925.
  • He was also a poet and writer, known for his patriotic compositions.
  • Bismil was a founder member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), which aimed at overthrowing British rule in India through armed struggle.
  • He was executed by the British authorities on December 19, 1927.
28

Who among the following was the captain of the Indian cricket team in the 1983 World Cup?

  1. ((a))

    Kapil Dev

  2. ((b))

    Mohinder Amarnath

  3. ((c))

    Dilip Vengsarkar 

  4. ((d))

    Sunil Gavaskar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kapil Dev

The correct answer is Kapil Dev.

Key Points

  • Kapil Dev was the captain of the Indian cricket team during the 1983 Cricket World Cup.
  • Under his leadership, India won its first-ever Cricket World Cup on June 25, 1983.
  • India defeated the West Indies in the final, which was held at Lord's Cricket Ground in London.
  • Kapil Dev's all-round performance, including a match-winning 175 not out against Zimbabwe, was instrumental in India's success in the tournament.

Additional Information

  • 1983 Cricket World Cup:
  • The 1983 Cricket World Cup was the third edition of the Cricket World Cup, held from June 9 to June 25, 1983, in England.
  • Eight countries participated in the tournament: India, West Indies, Australia, England, Pakistan, New Zealand, Sri Lanka, and Zimbabwe.
  • The format of the tournament was a round-robin group stage followed by knockout semi-finals and a final.
  • India's victory in the 1983 World Cup is considered one of the greatest achievements in Indian cricket history.
  • Kapil Dev:
  • Kapil Dev Ramlal Nikhanj, commonly known as Kapil Dev, is a former Indian cricketer and captain.
  • He was a fast bowler and a hard-hitting middle-order batsman.
  • He is regarded as one of the greatest all-rounders in the history of cricket.
  • Kapil Dev was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame in 2010.
  • Lord's Cricket Ground:
  • Lord's Cricket Ground, commonly known as Lord's, is a cricket venue in St John's Wood, London.
  • It is widely referred to as the "Home of Cricket" and is the headquarters of the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC).
  • Lord's has hosted numerous historic cricket matches, including World Cup finals.
  • The ground is known for its iconic pavilion and the distinctive slope across the field.
29

Identify the artist who is NOT related to the musical instrument pakhwaj.

  1. ((a))

    Pandit Kishan Maharaj 

  2. ((b))

    Ayodhya Prasad 

  3. ((c))

    Gopal Das

  4. ((d))

    Totaram Sharma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pandit Kishan Maharaj 

The correct answer is Pandit Kishan Maharaj.

Key Points

  • Pandit Kishan Maharaj was a renowned tabla player from the Benares gharana, a prominent school of Indian classical music.
  • He was known for his exceptional skill and dexterity in playing the tabla, a pair of twin hand drums.
  • Pandit Kishan Maharaj was born in 1923 in Varanasi, India, and he became one of the leading exponents of tabla in the 20th century.
  • He received numerous awards and honors, including the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan, for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

  • Pakhwaj:
  • The pakhwaj is a barrel-shaped drum used in Indian classical music, particularly in the Dhrupad genre.
  • It is an ancient percussion instrument that has two heads, each producing different tones.
  • The pakhwaj is played with both hands, and it requires a high level of skill and coordination.
  • It is often used as an accompaniment to vocal and instrumental music performances in Indian classical traditions.
  • Ayodhya Prasad:
  • Ayodhya Prasad was a renowned pakhwaj player from the Nathdwara tradition.
  • He is known for his contribution to the development and popularization of pakhwaj music.
  • Gopal Das:
  • Gopal Das was an eminent pakhwaj player associated with the Nathdwara tradition.
  • He made significant contributions to the teaching and performance of pakhwaj music.
  • Totaram Sharma:
  • Totaram Sharma is a well-known pakhwaj player who has contributed to the promotion of this traditional instrument.
  • He has performed extensively and is recognized for his skill in pakhwaj playing.

This source code provides a detailed solution to the question, identifying Pandit Kishan Maharaj as the artist not related to the pakhwaj and explaining key points and additional information about the pakhwaj and the other artists mentioned.

30

Which of the following temples is located in Uttarakhand? 

  1. ((a))

    Neelkanth Mahadev

  2. ((b))

    Ranakpur

  3. ((c))

    Gomateshwara

  4. ((d))

    Kamakhya

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neelkanth Mahadev

The correct answer is Neelkanth Mahadev.

Key Points

  • The Neelkanth Mahadev Temple is located in the Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand.
  • This temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is a significant pilgrimage site for Hindu devotees.
  • The temple is situated at an altitude of 1330 meters and is surrounded by dense forests and mountains.
  • Neelkanth Mahadev is named after Lord Shiva, who is also known as Neelkanth, due to the blue throat he got from consuming poison during the Samudra Manthan.

Additional Information

  • Ranakpur Temple
  • Ranakpur Temple is a Jain temple located in Rajasthan, India.
  • It is one of the largest and most important temples of Jain culture.
  • The temple is dedicated to Tirthankara Adinatha.
  • It is known for its intricate marble architecture and over 1400 pillars, each uniquely carved.
  • Gomateshwara
  • Gomateshwara is a monolithic statue dedicated to the Jain deity Bahubali.
  • It is located in Shravanabelagola, Karnataka, India.
  • The statue is one of the largest free-standing statues in the world.
  • Gomateshwara is an important pilgrimage site for Jains, especially during the Mahamastakabhisheka festival which is held every 12 years.
  • Kamakhya Temple
  • The Kamakhya Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the mother goddess Kamakhya.
  • It is located on the Nilachal Hill in Guwahati, Assam, India.
  • The temple is an important pilgrimage site, particularly for Tantric worshipers.
  • The annual Ambubachi Mela, held in June, attracts thousands of pilgrims to the Kamakhya Temple.
31

Sonal Mansingh is an eminent Indian classical dancer and a leading exponent of Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Odissi and _________ .

  1. ((a))

    Sattriya

  2. ((b))

    Kathakali

  3. ((c))

    Chhau

  4. ((d))

    Kathak

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chhau

The correct answer is Chhau.

Key Points

  • Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk origins.
  • It is performed during regional festivals, especially in the states of Odisha, West Bengal, and Jharkhand.
  • The dance incorporates themes from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and other Hindu mythology, as well as local folklore.
  • Chhau dance is known for its vigorous movements and elaborate costumes, including colorful masks.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam
  • Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
  • It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
  • Bharatanatyam is traditionally performed by women and has its roots in the temples of Tamil Nadu.
  • The dance form is accompanied by classical Carnatic music.
  • Kuchipudi
  • Kuchipudi is one of the major classical dance forms of South India and originates from Andhra Pradesh.
  • This dance is known for its graceful movements and strong narrative expression.
  • Kuchipudi also includes the elements of dance, music, and acting, with performers often enacting stories from Hindu scriptures.
  • It is traditionally performed by both men and women.
  • Odissi
  • Odissi is a classical dance form from the state of Odisha in eastern India.
  • It is known for its fluid movements, sculpturesque poses, and intricate gestures.
  • The dance form often depicts stories from the Jagannath cult and other Hindu traditions.
  • Odissi includes both Nritta (pure dance) and Abhinaya (expressive dance).
  • Sattriya
  • Sattriya is a classical dance form originating from Assam, India.
  • It was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev as part of the religious rituals of Sattras (monasteries).
  • Sattriya combines dance, drama, and music to depict mythological stories.
  • This dance form is performed primarily by male monks, but it has also gained popularity among female dancers.
  • Kathak
  • Kathak is a North Indian classical dance form known for its intricate footwork and spins.
  • The dance form evolved during the Bhakti movement and was influenced by Persian and Mughal dance forms.
  • Kathak dancers often tell stories through their movements and expressions, accompanied by classical Hindustani music.
  • It is traditionally performed by both men and women.
  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is a classical dance-drama from Kerala, known for its elaborate costumes, makeup, and masks.
  • It combines dance, music, and acting to depict stories from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Kathakali is traditionally performed by male artists, even for female roles.
  • The dance form is characterized by its detailed facial expressions and body movements.
32

By which name was the Head of the Panchayat or the Village Headman called in Mughal India? 

  1. ((a))

    Samant

  2. ((b))

    Mahant

  3. ((c))

    Muqaddam

  4. ((d))

    Khoran

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Muqaddam

The correct answer is Muqaddam.

Key Points

  • In Mughal India, the head of the panchayat or the village headman was called the Muqaddam.
  • The Muqaddam was responsible for maintaining law and order in the village and ensuring that the villagers adhered to the rules and regulations.
  • The Muqaddam also played a vital role in the collection of taxes and ensuring that the revenue was appropriately managed and sent to the central authorities.
  • They were often selected from the leading families of the village and were well-respected figures within their communities.

Additional Information

  • Samant
  • Samants were feudal lords in medieval India who were granted land by the king in return for military support.
  • They were responsible for the administration of their territories and for providing troops to the king when required.
  • Mahant
  • Mahants were religious leaders or heads of monasteries in India.
  • They were responsible for the management of the monastery and the welfare of its inhabitants.
  • Khoran
  • The term "Khoran" does not have a significant historical reference in the context of village administration in Mughal India.
33

Sodium hydrogen carbonate is called: 

  1. ((a))

    Washing soda

  2. ((b))

    Baking soda 

  3. ((c))

    Gypsum

  4. ((d))

    Plaster of Paris 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Baking soda 

The correct answer is Baking soda.

Key Points

  • Sodium hydrogen carbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
  • It is a chemical compound with the formula NaHCO3.
  • Baking soda is a white crystalline powder that is commonly used as a leavening agent in baking.
  • It is also used in various household applications such as cleaning and odor neutralization.

Additional Information

  • Washing soda
  • Also known as sodium carbonate (Na2CO3).
  • Used in laundry detergents and as a water softener.
  • It is not the same as baking soda and has different chemical properties and uses.
  • Gypsum
  • A soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate (CaSO4·2H2O).
  • Used in construction (e.g., drywall) and as a fertilizer.
  • Plaster of Paris
  • A quick-setting gypsum plaster consisting of a fine white powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate).
  • Used for making sculptures, casts, and medical bandages for setting broken bones.
34

According to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry 2021-22, which of the following is the largest exported agricultural product from India? 

  1. ((a))

    Rice

  2. ((b))

    Maize

  3. ((c))

    Spices

  4. ((d))

    Wheat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rice

The correct answer is Rice.

Key Points

  • Rice is the largest exported agricultural product from India, contributing significantly to the agricultural export earnings.
  • India is the world's largest exporter of rice, including both basmati and non-basmati varieties.
  • Indian rice is highly sought after in international markets due to its superior quality and taste.
  • The major importing countries of Indian rice are countries in the Middle East, Africa, and Southeast Asia.

Additional Information

  • Maize
  • Maize, also known as corn, is another significant agricultural product exported from India.
  • It is primarily used as animal feed and in the production of ethanol.
  • The major markets for Indian maize are Southeast Asian countries and the Middle East.
  • Spices
  • India is renowned for its spices, which are exported globally.
  • Major spices exported from India include black pepper, cardamom, turmeric, and chili.
  • Spices are used extensively in culinary applications, pharmaceuticals, and cosmetics.
  • The United States, Vietnam, and the United Arab Emirates are some of the largest importers of Indian spices.
  • Wheat
  • Wheat is a staple food grain grown extensively in India.
  • India exports wheat to several countries, mainly in the Middle East and Southeast Asia.
  • Wheat is used for making flour, bread, pasta, and other food products.
35

Milk is good source of:

  1. ((a))

    phosphorous, iron, and protein

  2. ((b))

    calcium, magnesium, and fibre

  3. ((c))

    calcium, iron, and fibre

  4. ((d))

    calcium, phosphorous, and protein 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

calcium, phosphorous, and protein 

The correct answer is calcium, phosphorous, and protein.

Key Points

  • Calcium is essential for the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth. It also plays a vital role in muscle function, nerve transmission, and hormonal secretion.
  • Phosphorous works closely with calcium to build strong bones and teeth. It is also involved in the body's energy production and storage processes.
  • Protein is crucial for the repair and growth of tissues, production of enzymes and hormones, and maintenance of a healthy immune system.
  • Milk is widely regarded as one of the most complete foods due to its rich content of essential nutrients including vitamins and minerals.

Additional Information

  • Calcium
  • Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the body, accounting for about 1-2% of an adult's body weight.
  • It is vital for the formation and maintenance of bones and teeth. About 99% of the body's calcium is stored in the bones and teeth, providing structure and strength.
  • Calcium also plays a key role in blood clotting, muscle contraction, and the functioning of the heart and nervous system.
  • Phosphorous
  • Phosphorous is the second most abundant mineral in the body. About 85% of the body's phosphorus is found in bones and teeth.
  • It is essential for the formation of bones and teeth, energy production, and storage, and it helps in the formation of DNA and RNA.
  • Phosphorous also aids in the utilization of carbohydrates and fats and the synthesis of protein for the growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues.
  • Protein
  • Proteins are large, complex molecules that play many critical roles in the body. They are made up of hundreds or thousands of smaller units called amino acids.
  • Proteins are essential for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.
  • They are involved in various bodily functions, including catalyzing metabolic reactions, DNA replication, responding to stimuli, and transporting molecules from one location to another.
36

Which of the following Ministries introduced the Venture Capital Assistance Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Science and Technology

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Finance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 

The correct answer is Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Key Points

  • The Venture Capital Assistance Scheme is an initiative by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  • The scheme aims to provide financial support to agripreneurs to establish agri-business projects.
  • It assists the agriculture sector in obtaining necessary capital for their business projects.
  • The scheme encourages entrepreneurship in agriculture by providing venture capital to set up agri-business ventures.

Additional Information

  • Venture Capital Assistance Scheme
  • The scheme is implemented by the Small Farmers' Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC).
  • It provides financial assistance to agripreneurs in the form of equity grant or venture capital.
  • The scheme aims to promote the creation of agri-business projects by providing financial support for the establishment of such projects.
  • The financial assistance under this scheme is available to eligible agripreneurs, Farmers' Producer Organizations (FPOs), and other agri-business projects.
  • Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • The Ministry is responsible for the formulation and implementation of national policies and programs aimed at achieving rapid agricultural growth.
  • It focuses on the development of agriculture and allied sectors, including horticulture, animal husbandry, and fisheries.
  • The Ministry works towards ensuring food security and doubling farmers' incomes by implementing various schemes and initiatives.
  • Some of the key schemes under the Ministry include Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY), and Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme.
  • Small Farmers' Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC)
  • SFAC is an autonomous society promoted by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  • It aims to facilitate agri-business projects by providing assistance in the form of venture capital, equity grant, and other financial support.
  • SFAC plays a crucial role in linking farmers to markets by promoting the formation and strengthening of Farmers' Producer Organizations (FPOs).
  • It also works towards the development of value chains for various agricultural commodities.
37

Which form of art is celebrated at the Mando festival of Goa?

  1. ((a))

    Painting

  2. ((b))

    Literature

  3. ((c))

    Sports

  4. ((d))

    Music

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Music

The correct answer is Music.

Key Points

  • The Mando festival is a traditional festival celebrated in Goa, India, which highlights the rich musical heritage of the region.
  • The Mando is a type of Goan folk music that blends Indian and Western musical traditions, often accompanied by dance performances.
  • This festival brings together various musicians and performers who present traditional Goan songs and dances.
  • The Mando music is characterized by its slow rhythm, melodious tunes, and poetic lyrics, often reflecting themes of love and longing.

Additional Information

  • Goan Music
  • Goan music is a blend of Eastern and Western musical styles, reflecting the region's diverse cultural influences.
  • In addition to Mando, other popular forms of Goan music include Dulpod, Deknni, and Fado.
  • The music is often accompanied by traditional instruments such as the Ghumot, Dhol, and Violin.
  • Goan music has been influenced by Portuguese colonial rule, which introduced Western musical elements and instruments.
  • Goan Dance
  • Goan dance forms are an integral part of the region's cultural heritage and include traditional folk dances like Fugdi, Dhalo, and Kunbi.
  • Mando dance is typically performed by couples, who gracefully waltz to the rhythm of the Mando music.
  • These dance performances are often held during festive occasions and celebrations, showcasing the vibrant cultural traditions of Goa.
  • Goan dances are characterized by their lively and energetic movements, colorful costumes, and rhythmic accompaniment.
  • Cultural Festivals of Goa
  • Goa is known for its rich cultural heritage and hosts several festivals throughout the year, celebrating music, dance, and traditions.
  • Other notable festivals include the Goa Carnival, Shigmo, and the Feast of St. Francis Xavier.
  • These festivals attract tourists from around the world, offering a glimpse into the diverse and vibrant culture of Goa.
  • The festivals provide a platform for local artists and performers to showcase their talents and preserve traditional art forms.
38

Economic reform measures in India were formally introduced in ________.

  1. ((a))

    1990

  2. ((b))

    1991

  3. ((c))

    1980

  4. ((d))

    1947

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1991

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

  • Economic reforms in India were introduced in 1991 due to a severe balance of payments crisis.
  • The reforms were initiated under the leadership of then Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
  • The reforms marked a shift from a mixed economy to a more market-driven economy, focusing on liberalization, privatization, and globalization.
  • These reforms included measures such as reducing import tariffs, deregulating markets, and reducing the role of the government in business.

Additional Information

  • Balance of Payments (BoP) Crisis:
  • The balance of payments crisis of 1991 was a situation where India was unable to finance its imports or service its external debt obligations.
  • The crisis led to a sharp decline in foreign exchange reserves, forcing the country to seek a bailout from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • As a condition for the IMF loan, India had to implement structural reforms to stabilize and liberalize the economy.
  • Liberalization:
  • Liberalization refers to the relaxation of government restrictions in areas such as trade, industry, and foreign investment.
  • In India, this meant reducing import tariffs, deregulating markets, and allowing private sector participation in previously restricted areas.
  • Privatization:
  • Privatization involves transferring ownership or management of enterprises from the public sector to the private sector.
  • This was aimed at improving efficiency, productivity, and competitiveness of the Indian economy.
  • Globalization:
  • Globalization refers to the process of integrating the Indian economy with the global economy.
  • This included measures such as allowing foreign direct investment (FDI), opening up sectors to foreign competition, and promoting exports.
39

Which of the following statements is correct about India for the period between 1950 and 1990?

  1. ((a))

    The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture and population engaged in the sector declined significantly.

  2. ((b))

    The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture declined significantly but not the population engaged in the sector. 

  3. ((c))

    Being an agricultural economy, the contribution of agricultural sector is not considerable for Indian economy

  4. ((d))

    The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture increased significantly but not the population engaged in the sector. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture declined significantly but not the population engaged in the sector. 

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The proportion of GDP contributed by agriculture declined significantly between 1950 and 1990 in India.
  • Despite the decline in the agricultural GDP contribution, the population engaged in the agricultural sector did not see a significant decline during the same period.
  • The Indian economy was heavily reliant on agriculture post-independence but started diversifying into other sectors like industry and services over the decades.
  • This period marked the beginning of structural transformation in the Indian economy, with a gradual shift from an agrarian-based economy to a more diversified economic structure.

Additional Information

  • GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
  • Gross Domestic Product is the total value of all goods and services produced within a country in a specific period.
  • It is a broad measure of overall domestic production and serves as a comprehensive scorecard of a given country's economic health.
  • Agricultural Sector
  • The agricultural sector involves all the processes related to the cultivation of crops and raising livestock.
  • Post-independence, India focused on agrarian reforms to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains production, leading to initiatives like the Green Revolution.
  • Structural Transformation
  • Structural transformation refers to the long-term shift in the fundamental composition of an economy.
  • This usually involves a shift from a dominance of agriculture to industry and services.
  • In India, the period between 1950 and 1990 was crucial for setting the stage for such transformation.
  • Population Engaged in Agriculture
  • This refers to the percentage of the workforce involved in agricultural activities.
  • In developing countries like India, a significant portion of the population was historically engaged in agriculture, even as the economy started to diversify.
40

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts added Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    65th

  2. ((b))

    74th

  3. ((c))

    73rd

  4. ((d))

    42nd

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

42nd

The correct answer is 42nd.

Key Points

  • The 42nd Amendment Act was enacted in 1976 during the Emergency in India.
  • It added a new part, Part IVA, to the Constitution which contains the Fundamental Duties.
  • These duties are enumerated in Article 51A and consist of ten duties for every citizen of India.
  • This amendment is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to its wide-ranging changes.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
  • They were recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee which was set up by the government in 1976.
  • The inclusion of these duties brought the Indian Constitution in line with Article 29(1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the constitutions of socialist countries like the USSR.
  • The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by law.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • It is one of the most comprehensive amendments to the Indian Constitution.
  • It attempted to reduce the power of the judiciary and increase the power of the Parliament.
  • Besides adding Fundamental Duties, it also added words like 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
  • It made changes to many articles and resulted in the extension of the term of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies from five to six years.
41

According to the Census of India 2011, which group of states recorded the lowest male literacy rate?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar and Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Bihar and Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Arunachal Pradesh and Odisha 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar and Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Bihar and Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • According to the Census of India 2011, Bihar and Arunachal Pradesh recorded the lowest male literacy rates among all the states in India.
  • The male literacy rate in Bihar was significantly low compared to the national average.
  • Arunachal Pradesh, while having a relatively low male literacy rate, also faced challenges with its geographical and socio-economic conditions affecting education.
  • Efforts have been made by both state and central governments to improve literacy rates in these states through various educational schemes and programs.

Additional Information

  • Literacy Rate:
  • Literacy rate is the percentage of people who are able to read and write in a given population. It is an important indicator of the educational level of a region.
  • The Census of India collects data on literacy rates every ten years.
  • Census of India 2011:
  • The Census of India 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872.
  • It was conducted in two phases: House listing and Housing Census, and Population Enumeration.
  • Data collected included demographics, literacy, education, and many other socio-economic parameters.
  • Educational Programs:
  • Various educational programs have been initiated by the Indian government to improve literacy rates, such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and National Literacy Mission.
  • These programs aim to provide free and compulsory education to children up to a certain age and improve the quality of education.
  • Challenges in Education:
  • States like Bihar and Arunachal Pradesh face unique challenges such as poverty, socio-economic barriers, and geographical constraints that affect the reach and quality of education.
  • Addressing these challenges requires targeted interventions and sustained efforts from both government and non-governmental organizations.
42

The first chairman of the Planning Commission in India was ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Jaiprakash Narayan

  2. ((b))

    Sriman Narayan 

  3. ((c))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    Radha Mohan Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jawaharlal Nehru

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India and served from 1947 to 1964.
  • He was a central figure in Indian politics both before and after independence.
  • He played a pivotal role in the establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950.
  • The Planning Commission was formed with the goal of promoting a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production, and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.

Additional Information

  • Planning Commission of India
  • The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which formulated India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions.
  • It was established on 15 March 1950, and its first chairman was Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • The Planning Commission was tasked with assessing the material, capital, and human resources of the country, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources, and determining priorities.
  • The Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on 1 January 2015 by the Narendra Modi government, with the aim to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people of India.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Jawaharlal Nehru was an Indian independence activist and the first Prime Minister of India.
  • He was an important leader of the Indian National Congress and a pivotal figure in the Indian independence movement.
  • He implemented policies of industrialization and modernization, which laid the foundation for India's future development.
  • Nehru's vision for India was a secular, socialist, and democratic republic, which he pursued through various reforms and initiatives during his tenure.
43

The Ghode Modni dance, to celebrate the victory of warriors, is performed in which of the following states of India?

  1. ((a))

    Goa

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Goa

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

  • The Ghode Modni dance is a traditional folk dance from the state of Goa, India.
  • This dance is performed to celebrate the victory of warriors in battles.
  • The dancers dress in traditional warrior costumes which include headgear, swords, and shields.
  • The performance is characterized by its vigorous and lively movements that depict martial skills.

Additional Information

  • Traditional Dances of Goa:
  • Fugdi: A traditional folk dance where women dance in circles and clap their hands rhythmically. It is performed during the Ganesh Chaturthi festival.
  • Dekhni: A semi-classical Goan dance form that portrays the life of a woman waiting for her lover's return. The dancers wear colorful attire and the dance is performed to the beat of drums.
  • Kunbi: A traditional folk dance performed by the Kunbi tribe, depicting the lifestyle and culture of the Goan community.
  • Significance of Ghode Modni:
  • The dance signifies the valour and bravery of Goan warriors.
  • It is performed during important festivals and events to honor the warriors and their achievements.
  • The dance serves as a reminder of the rich cultural heritage and martial traditions of Goa.
  • Costumes and Props:
  • Participants wear warrior costumes that include elaborate headgear, traditional attire, and armor-like accessories.
  • The dancers carry swords and shields to depict martial prowess and engage in choreographed battles.
  • The costumes are often adorned with intricate designs and vibrant colors to add to the visual appeal.
44

The Charminar was constructed by which of the following dynasties?

  1. ((a))

    Pandya

  2. ((b))

    Chera

  3. ((c))

    Chalukya

  4. ((d))

    Qutb Shahi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Qutb Shahi

The correct answer is Qutb Shahi.

Key Points

  • The Charminar was constructed in 1591 by the fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah.
  • It is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India, and is one of the most recognized structures of India.
  • The Qutb Shahi dynasty ruled the Golconda Sultanate in South India from 1518 until its conquest by the Mughal Empire in 1687.
  • The Charminar is known for its architectural style, which incorporates Persian, Indian, and Islamic influences.

Additional Information

  • Qutb Shahi Dynasty:
  • The Qutb Shahi dynasty was founded by Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk, who was originally a Turkic governor of the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan region.
  • The Qutb Shahi rulers were known for their patronage of Persian culture, language, and literature.
  • They established Hyderabad as their capital and constructed several architectural marvels, including the Golconda Fort and the Charminar.
  • The dynasty lasted for nearly 170 years before it was annexed by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb in 1687.
  • Charminar:
  • The name "Charminar" is derived from two Urdu words: "char" meaning four, and "minar" meaning towers, referring to the four grand arches that support the structure.
  • It was built to commemorate the end of a deadly plague that had ravaged the city of Hyderabad.
  • The Charminar is a square structure with each side measuring 20 meters, and it has four grand arches each facing a different direction.
  • It also houses a mosque on its top floor, which remains an active place of worship to this day.
  • Architectural Influence:
  • The Charminar is an exemplary model of Indo-Islamic architecture, blending Persian architectural elements with indigenous Indian styles.
  • The minarets are 56 meters high and have intricate stucco decorations that add to the beauty of the structure.
  • The arches are designed in a way to allow the free flow of air, making the structure naturally ventilated.
  • The structure also features a small water cistern at the center, which was used for ablutions.
45

Net investment can be best expressed using which of the following elements?

  1. ((a))

    Net investment-Depreciation

  2. ((b))

    Depletion Value

  3. ((c))

    Replacement Cost 

  4. ((d))

    Gross Investment-Depreciation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gross Investment-Depreciation 

The correct answer is Gross Investment - Depreciation.

Key Points

  • Net investment represents the total amount invested in an economy minus depreciation.
  • Depreciation is the reduction in the value of assets over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors.
  • Gross investment includes all investments made in an economy, without subtracting depreciation.
  • Therefore, to find the net investment, depreciation must be subtracted from the gross investment.

Additional Information

  • Gross Investment
  • Gross investment refers to the total amount of money spent on new capital goods, including buildings, machinery, and equipment, within a specific period.
  • It reflects the total level of investment in an economy without accounting for depreciation.
  • Depreciation
  • Depreciation is the process of allocating the cost of tangible assets over their useful lives.
  • It represents how much of an asset's value has been used up over time.
  • This is an essential accounting method to match the cost of an asset with the revenue it generates.
  • Net Investment
  • Net investment is calculated by subtracting depreciation from gross investment.
  • It indicates the actual addition to the capital stock of an economy after accounting for the wear and tear of existing assets.
  • This measure is crucial for understanding the net increase in the productive capacity of an economy.
  • Replacement Cost
  • Replacement cost is the amount that an entity would have to pay to replace an asset at the present time, according to its current worth.
  • It is often used in insurance to determine the value of replacing an insured item.
  • Depletion Value
  • Depletion is similar to depreciation but applies to natural resources such as minerals, oil, and timber.
  • It refers to the allocation of the cost of extracting natural resources over the period they are consumed.
46

What is the chemical formula of sodium nitrate?

  1. ((a))

    NaNH3

  2. ((b))

    NaNO4

  3. ((c))

    NaNO3

  4. ((d))

    NaNO2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

NaNO3

The correct answer is NaNO3.

Key Points

  • Sodium nitrate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula NaNO3.
  • It is a white, crystalline solid that is highly soluble in water.
  • Sodium nitrate is commonly used in fertilizers, food preservatives, and in the production of explosives.
  • It is also known as Chile saltpeter due to its large deposits found in Chile.

Additional Information

  • Inorganic Compounds:
  • These compounds generally do not contain carbon-hydrogen bonds.
  • They are typically minerals and include salts, metals, and other elemental compounds.
  • Solubility:
  • The ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent, such as water.
  • Sodium nitrate is highly soluble in water, making it useful in various applications.
  • Fertilizers:
  • Substances that provide essential nutrients to plants to promote growth.
  • Sodium nitrate supplies nitrogen, which is a crucial nutrient for plant growth.
  • Food Preservatives:
  • Substances added to food to prevent spoilage and extend shelf life.
  • Sodium nitrate is used to preserve meats and prevent the growth of harmful bacteria.
47

Geeta Mahalik won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for which form of dance?

  1. ((a))

    Odissi

  2. ((b))

    Kathakali

  3. ((c))

    Bharatanatyam

  4. ((d))

    Kuchipudi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Odissi

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

  • Geeta Mahalik is a renowned Odissi dancer known for her contributions to the classical dance form of Odissi.
  • She was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for her outstanding performance and contribution to the field of Odissi dance.
  • Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from the state of Odisha.
  • The dance form is known for its fluid movements, sculpturesque poses, and intricate footwork, often depicting religious stories and spiritual themes.

Additional Information

  • Odissi Dance
  • Odissi is one of the oldest surviving dance forms in India, with its origins traced back to ancient temples in Odisha.
  • It is characterized by three main positions: Samabhanga (equal balance), Tribhanga (three bends), and Chowk (square-like stance).
  • The dance includes Mangalacharan (invocation), Batu (pure dance), Pallavi (elaborate dance), Abhinaya (expressive dance), and Moksha (salvation).
  • Odissi dance is often performed to the accompaniment of Odissi music, which is a classical music form of Odisha.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi
  • Established in 1952, the Sangeet Natak Akademi is India's national academy for music, dance, and drama.
  • It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
  • The academy's primary objective is to promote and preserve the cultural heritage of India in the field of performing arts.
  • It confers the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award annually to artists for their outstanding contribution to Indian performing arts.
  • Other Classical Dance Forms of India
  • Kathakali: A dance-drama form from Kerala, known for its elaborate costumes, makeup, and face masks.
  • Bharatanatyam: Originating from Tamil Nadu, this dance form is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate hand movements.
  • Kuchipudi: A classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, characterized by its graceful movements and strong narrative expression.
  • Manipuri: A dance form from Manipur, known for its graceful and fluid movements, depicting themes from the life of Krishna.
  • Mohiniyattam: A classical dance form from Kerala, performed by women and characterized by gentle and graceful movements.
48

‘Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship’ (‘MGNF’) is a two-year academic programme that was launched by _________in 2020 as part of the SANKALP programme. 

  1. ((a))

    IIT Madras 

  2. ((b))

    IIM Ahmedabad 

  3. ((c))

    IIT Delhi 

  4. ((d))

    IIM Bangalore 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IIM Bangalore 

The correct answer is IIM Bangalore.

Key Points

  • The Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship (MGNF) is a two-year academic programme designed to create a cadre of highly trained individuals for strengthening the decentralised governance in India.
  • It was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) in collaboration with IIM Bangalore in 2020 as part of the SANKALP programme.
  • MGNF aims to provide academic, experiential, and field training to develop a deeper understanding of the rural economy, decentralised governance, and public policy.
  • The programme includes a mix of classroom sessions conducted by IIM Bangalore and fieldwork at the district level.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
  • MSDE was established in 2014 to focus on enhancing employability and skill development across the country.
  • The Ministry aims to create a robust ecosystem for skill development through various initiatives and programmes.
  • It is responsible for coordinating all skill development efforts across the country and aligning them with national standards.
  • Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP)
  • SANKALP is an initiative of the Indian government to improve short-term skill training qualitatively and quantitatively.
  • The programme focuses on promoting market-relevant skills, strengthening institutions, and ensuring better access to skill development opportunities.
  • SANKALP is a World Bank-supported project aimed at transforming the skill development landscape in India.
  • Decentralised Governance
  • Decentralised governance involves distributing decision-making authority closer to the people, typically through local or regional government structures.
  • It aims to improve the responsiveness and accountability of public administration.
  • Decentralisation helps in better addressing local needs and priorities and fosters participatory governance.
49

Who among the following was one of the court poets of the King Samudragupta?

  1. ((a))

    Harisena

  2. ((b))

    Surdas

  3. ((c))

    Pragyajan

  4. ((d))

    Hariharan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harisena

The correct answer is Harisena.

Key Points

  • Harisena was one of the prominent court poets of the King Samudragupta.
  • He composed the Allahabad Pillar inscription which is a significant source of historical information about Samudragupta's reign.
  • Harisena praised Samudragupta as a great warrior and ruler, highlighting his military conquests and administrative skills.
  • The Allahabad Pillar inscription is also known as the Prayag Prashasti and it provides detailed accounts of Samudragupta's achievements.

Additional Information

  • King Samudragupta:
  • Samudragupta was a ruler of the Gupta Empire, which is considered one of the golden periods in Indian history.
  • He reigned from around 335-380 CE and is known for his military conquests, cultural achievements, and patronage of arts and literature.
  • Samudragupta is often referred to as the "Napoleon of India" due to his extensive military campaigns and conquests.
  • He was also known for his administrative skills and efforts in promoting trade, commerce, and cultural activities.
  • Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti):
  • The Allahabad Pillar inscription is an important historical document that provides a detailed account of Samudragupta's reign and achievements.
  • It was composed by Harisena, who was a court poet and minister of Samudragupta.
  • The inscription praises Samudragupta's military prowess, highlighting his conquests and victories over various kingdoms and tribes.
  • It also mentions his qualities as a ruler, including his administrative abilities, patronage of arts, and benevolence towards his subjects.
  • Other notable court poets:
  • Surdas: A 15th-16th century poet and saint known for his devotional songs and poetry dedicated to Lord Krishna.
  • Pragyajan: There is limited historical information available about Pragyajan, and he is not associated with Samudragupta's court.
  • Hariharan: There is no significant historical evidence linking Hariharan to Samudragupta's court. Hariharan is a common name, and there could be multiple historical figures with this name.
50

Which of the following Articles provides the minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?

  1. ((a))

    Article 31  

  2. ((b))

    Article 30 

  3. ((c))

    Article 29

  4. ((d))

    Article 28

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Article 30 

The correct answer is Article 30.

Key Points

  • Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • This article is part of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • The term "minorities" in Article 30 primarily refers to religious and linguistic minorities.
  • The article ensures that minorities can preserve and promote their culture and language through their educational institutions.

Additional Information

  • Article 29
  • Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides that any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.
  • This article protects the interests of minorities by ensuring that their language, script, or culture is not discriminated against.
  • Article 28
  • Article 28 deals with the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.
  • No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
  • Article 31
  • Article 31 originally dealt with the right to property but was repealed by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
  • After its repeal, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right but a constitutional right under Article 300A.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All hens are dogs.

All dogs are peacocks.

Conclusions:

I. All hens are peacocks.

II. All peacocks are dogs.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion I follows

Given Statements:

All hens are dogs.

All dogs are peacocks.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All hens are peacocks. - True (because All hens are dogs and All dogs are peacocks. So, All hens are peacocks too)

II. All peacocks are dogs. - False (because All dogs are peacocks given. So, All peacocks are dogs it is not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

52

In a code language, if PETROL is coded as ODSQNK and ENGINE is coded as DMFHMD, then how will VEHICLE be coded? 

  1. ((a))

    UDGHBKD

  2. ((b))

    UDHGKBD

  3. ((c))

    WFIJDMF

  4. ((d))

    WDIHDKF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UDGHBKD

The logic followed here is:

PETROL is coded as ODSQNK

ENGINE is coded as DMFHMD,

Similarly, VEHICLE will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "UDGHBKD".

53

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

54

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

55

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

56

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

All corner symbols are shifting in clockwise direction in corner to corner.

Middle letter is replaced by new number.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Top-left and bottom-right symbols are interchanging their position with each other.

Top-right, middle and bottom-left symbols are interchanging their position with each other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

57

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

98 – 49 ÷ 7 + 74 × 55 = 3

  1. ((a))

    = and + 

  2. ((b))

    = and ÷

  3. ((c))

    = and ×

  4. ((d))

    = and −

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

= and ×

Given equation: 98 – 49 ÷ 7 + 74 × 55 = 3

Option 1) = and +

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 98 – 49 ÷ 7 = 74 × 55 + 3

98 – 7 = 4070 + 3

⇒ 91 = 4073

Option 2) = and ÷

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 98 – 49 = 7 + 74 × 55  ÷ 3

⇒ 98 – 49 = 7 + 74 × 18.33

⇒ 49 = 7 + 1356.42

⇒ 49 = 1363.42

Option 3) = and ×

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 98 – 49 ÷ 7 + 74 = 55 × 3

98 – 7 + 74 = 165

172 – 7 = 165

165 = 165

Option 4) = and -

Two signs need to be interchanged then:

⇒ 98 = 49 ÷ 7 + 74 × 55 - 3

⇒ 98 = 7 + 74 × 55 - 3

⇒ 98 = 7 + 4070 - 3

⇒ 98 = 4077 - 3

⇒ 98 = 4074

Hence, the correct answer is "= and ×".

58

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

60

Each of the following questions consists of 4 figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Problem Figures followed by 4 other figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the four Problem Figures.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Top-right symbol shifts in top-left corner, top-left symbol shifts in bottom-right corner.

Bottom-right symbol shifts in bottom-left, bottom-left shifts in middle and middle symbol shifts in top-right corner.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

61

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

62

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

KEEP : SHHN :: HIDE : HGLK :: EXIT : ?

  1. ((a))

    XLAH

  2. ((b))

    WMBH

  3. ((c))

    WLAH

  4. ((d))

    WLAI

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

WLAH

The logic followed here is:

KEEP : SHHN

HIDE : HGLK

Similarly, EXIT : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "WLAH".

63

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded? 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

64

Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(59, 236, 175),(24, 124, 98)

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)

  1. ((a))

    (22, 183, 159)

  2. ((b))

    (21, 124, 108)

  3. ((c))

    (64, 182, 116)

  4. ((d))

    (16, 206, 188) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(21, 124, 108)

The logic followed here is: (1st number + 3rd number) + 2 = 2nd number.

(59, 236, 175) → (59 + 175) + 2 = 234 + 2 = 236 (2nd number)

(24, 124, 98) → (24 + 98) + 2 = 122 + 2 = 124 (2nd number)

Option 1) (22, 183, 159) → (22 + 159) + 2 = 181 + 2 = 183

Option 2) (21, 124, 108) → (21 + 108) + 2 = 129 + 2 = 131 ≠ 124

Option 3) (64, 182, 116) → (64 + 116) + 2 = 180 + 2 = 182

Option 4) (16, 206, 188) → (16 + 188) + 2 = 204 + 2 = 206

So, the numbers (21, 124, 108) are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

Hence, the correct answer is "(21, 124, 108)".

65

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

66

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

67

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

11 * 12 * 70 * 175 * 5 * 97

  1. ((a))

    ×, + , – , ÷ , =

  2. ((b))

    ×, – , + , ÷ , =

  3. ((c))
    • , ×, –, ÷ , =
  4. ((d))

    ×, – , + , = , ÷

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

×, – , + , ÷ , =

Given equation: 11 * 12 * 70 * 175 * 5 * 97

Option 1) ×, + , – , ÷ , =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 11 × 12 + 70 - 175 ÷ 5 = 97

11 × 12 + 70 - 35 = 97

132 + 70 - 35 = 97

202 - 35 = 97

⇒ 167 = 97

Option 2) ×, – , + , ÷ , =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 11 × 12 - 70 + 175 ÷ 5 = 97

132 - 70 + 35 = 97

167 - 70 = 97

⇒ 97 = 97

Option 3) + , ×, –, ÷ , =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 11 + 12 × 70 - 175 ÷ 5 = 97

⇒ 11 + 12 × 70 - 35 = 97

11 + 840 - 35 = 97

851 - 35 = 97

⇒ 816 = 97

Option 4) ×, – , + , = , ÷

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 11 × 12 - 70 + 175  = 5 ÷ 97

132 - 70 + 175  = 0.05

307 - 70  = 0.05

⇒ 237  = 0.05

Hence, the correct answer is "×, – , + , ÷ , =".

68

C, D, E, F, G and H were six women, sitting around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre. D and E were sitting immediately next to each other. F and H were sitting immediately next to each other. G was to the immediate right of C. E was to the immediate right of F. D was to the immediate left of C. Who among the following was sitting third to the left of D?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    H

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

H

Given: C, D, E, F, G and H were six women, sitting around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre.

  1. E was to the immediate right of F.

2) D and E were sitting immediately next to each other.

  1. D was to the immediate left of C.

4) G was to the immediate right of C.

  1. F and H were sitting immediately next to each other.

So, H among the following was sitting third to the left of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "H".

69

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

13, 104, 52, 416, 208, ?, 832

  1. ((a))

    1664

  2. ((b))

    1158

  3. ((c))

    790

  4. ((d))

    690

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1664

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "1664".

70

Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

RTE, PVC, NXA, LZY, ?

  1. ((a))

    JBW

  2. ((b))

    JBX

  3. ((c))

    KXV

  4. ((d))

    JBA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JBW

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "JBW".

71

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

72

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

73

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.

8 ∶ 199 ∶∶ ? ∶ 439 ∶∶ 5 ∶ 82

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

12

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number)2 × 3) + 7 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 8 : 199

⇒ (82 × 3) + 7 = (64 × 3) + 7 = 192 + 7 = 199.

For, 5 : 82

⇒ (52 × 3) + 7 = (25 × 3) + 7 = 75 + 7 = 82.

Similarly, for 12 ∶ 439

⇒ (122 × 3) + 7 = (144 × 3) + 7 = 432 + 7 = 439.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

74

How many triangles are there in the following figure?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15

Counting the triangles:

Thus triangles are there in the following figure = 15

Hence, the correct answer is "15".

75

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

In figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top-left letter shifts in middle and middle letter shifts in bottom-right position and bottom-right letter shifts in top-left corner.

Top-right and bottom-left symbols are interchanging their position with other.

In figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All corner letters/numbers are shifting in corners in clockwise direction.

Middle letter replaced by a new letter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

A hemispherical bowl is made of steel whose thickness is 2 cm. The inside radius of the bowl is 3 cm. Find the volume (in cm3) of the steel used in making the bowl. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

(Take π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    245.14

  2. ((b))

    280.75

  3. ((c))

    211.25

  4. ((d))

    205.33

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

205.33

Given:

Inside radius of the bowl (r) = 3 cm.

Thickness of the steel (t) = 2 cm.

Formula Used:

Volume of a hemisphere = 23πr3 \frac{2}{3} \pi r^3

Volume of steel used = Volume of outer hemisphere - Volume of inner hemisphere

Calculation:

Outer radius of the bowl (R) = Inside radius + Thickness = 3 cm + 2 cm = 5 cm

Volume of outer hemisphere = 23πR3 \frac{2}{3} \pi R^3

Volume of outer hemisphere = 23×227×53 \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 5^3

Volume of outer hemisphere = 23×227×125 \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 125

Volume of outer hemisphere = 2×22×1253×7 \frac{2 \times 22 \times 125}{3 \times 7}

Volume of outer hemisphere = 550021 \frac{5500}{21}

Volume of outer hemisphere ≈ 261.90 cm3

Volume of inner hemisphere = 23πr3 \frac{2}{3} \pi r^3

Volume of inner hemisphere = 23×227×33 \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 3^3

Volume of inner hemisphere = 23×227×27 \frac{2}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 27

Volume of inner hemisphere = 2×22×273×7 \frac{2 \times 22 \times 27}{3 \times 7}

Volume of inner hemisphere = 118821 \frac{1188}{21}

Volume of inner hemisphere ≈ 56.57 cm3

Volume of steel used = Volume of outer hemisphere - Volume of inner hemisphere

Volume of steel used ≈ 261.90 cm3 - 56.57 cm3

Volume of steel used ≈ 205.33 cm3

The volume of the steel used in making the bowl is 205.33 cm3.

77

What is the difference (in Rs.) between the compound interest, when interest is compounded 6-monthly, and the simple interest on a sum of Rs. 10,000 for 1121\frac{1}{2} years at 10% p.a.?

  1. ((a))

    75.26

  2. ((b))

    76.25

  3. ((c))

    71.65

  4. ((d))

    72.65

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

76.25

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 10,000

Time (T) = 1.5 years

Rate of interest (R) = 10% p.a.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Compound Interest (CI) when interest is compounded semi-annually:

Amount (A) = P (1 + (R/n)/100)nT

CI = A - P

where n = number of times interest is compounded per year

Calculation:

Simple Interest:

SI = (10,000 × 10 × 1.5) / 100

SI = 1,500

Compound Interest:

Here, n = 2 (since interest is compounded semi-annually)

Amount (A) = 10,000 (1 + (10/2)/100)2×1.5

Amount (A) = 10,000 (1 + 5/100)3

Amount (A) = 10,000 (1 + 0.05)3

Amount (A) = 10,000 (1.05)3

Amount (A) = 10,000 × 1.157625

Amount (A) = 11,576.25

CI = 11,576.25 - 10,000

CI = 1,576.25

Difference between CI and SI:

Difference = CI - SI

Difference = 1,576.25 - 1,500

Difference = 76.25

The correct answer is option 2.

78

The smallest 4-digit prime number is:

  1. ((a))

    1009

  2. ((b))

    1007

  3. ((c))

    1003

  4. ((d))

    1001

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1009

Given:

We need to find the smallest 4-digit prime number.

Formula Used:

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

Calculation:

We need to check the primality of the smallest 4-digit numbers.

1000: Not a prime number (divisible by 2, 5).

1001: Not a prime number (divisible by 7, 11, 13).

1002: Not a prime number (divisible by 2).

1003: Not a prime number (divisible by 17, 59).

1004: Not a prime number (divisible by 2).

1005: Not a prime number (divisible by 3, 5).

1006: Not a prime number (divisible by 2).

1007: Not a prime number (divisible by 19, 53).

1008: Not a prime number (divisible by 2, 3).

1009: Check for primality.

1009 is not divisible by any prime number ≤ 100931.76 \sqrt{1009} \approx 31.76 .

Divisors checked: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31.

Since 1009 is not divisible by any of these, it is a prime number.

The smallest 4-digit prime number is 1009.

79

14 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days, while 20 women can complete the same work in 8 days. 7 men started working on the job, and after working for 3 days all of them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 6 days?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

Given:

Work by 14 men in 6 days = Total work

Work by 20 women in 8 days = Total work

7 men worked for 3 days, remaining work to be done by women in 6 days.

Formula used:

Work = Number of workers × Days × Efficiency

Efficiency ratio of men and women:

Work by 14 men in 6 days = Work by 20 women in 8 days

⇒ 14 × 6 × Efficiency of men = 20 × 8 × Efficiency of women

⇒ Efficiency of men : Efficiency of women = 20 × 8 : 14 × 6

⇒ Efficiency of men : Efficiency of women = 160 : 84 = 80 : 42 = 40 : 21

Calculations:

Step 1: Total work = Work done by 14 men in 6 days

⇒ Total work = 14 × 6 × Efficiency of men = 14 × 6 × 40 = 3360 units

Step 2: Work done by 7 men in 3 days

⇒ Work done = 7 × 3 × Efficiency of men = 7 × 3 × 40 = 840 units

Step 3: Remaining work

⇒ Remaining work = Total work - Work done by 7 men = 3360 - 840 = 2520 units

Step 4: Work to be completed by women in 6 days

⇒ Required number of women × 6 × Efficiency of women = Remaining work

⇒ Required number of women × 6 × 21 = 2520

⇒ Required number of women = 2520 / (6 × 21)

⇒ Required number of women = 20

∴ 20 women are required to complete the remaining work in 6 days.

80

What is the greatest possible length (in cm) of scale to measure exactly the following lengths : 1 m, 20 cm, 3 m, 90 cm?

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10

Given:

Lengths to be measured: 1 m, 20 cm, 3 m, 90 cm.

Formula Used:

Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of the lengths

Calculation:

First, convert all lengths to cm:

1 m = 100 cm

20 cm = 20 cm

3 m = 300 cm

90 cm = 90 cm

Lengths in cm: 100 cm, 20 cm, 300 cm, 90 cm

Find the GCD of the lengths:

GCD(100, 20, 300, 90)

Prime factorization of each length:

100 = 22 x 52

20 = 22 x 5

300 = 22 x 3 x 52

90 = 2 x 32 x 5

Common factors are 2 and 5:

Smallest power of 2 is 21

Smallest power of 5 is 51

GCD = 21 x 51 = 2 x 5 = 10

The greatest possible length of scale to measure exactly the given lengths is 10 cm.

81

By selling an article, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 30% of its selling price. Find his profit percentage.

  1. ((a))

    40%

  2. ((b))

    4613 46 \frac{1}{3} %

  3. ((c))

    426742 \frac{6}{7} %

  4. ((d))

    44%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

426742 \frac{6}{7} %

Given:

The profit made by selling an article is 30% of its selling price.

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) x 100

Calculation:

Let the selling price (SP) of the article be $100.

Given, Profit = 30% of SP

⇒ Profit = 30% of 100

⇒ Profit = 30

We know, Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price - Profit

⇒ CP = 100 - 30

⇒ CP = 70

Now, Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) x 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (30 / 70) x 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (3 / 7) x 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 42 (6/7)%

The correct answer is option 3.

82

Find the total percentage change in the volume of a cuboid if its length and breadth are decreased by 10% and 20%, respectively, while its height is increased by 30%.

  1. ((a))

    6.4%

  2. ((b))

    8.2%

  3. ((c))

    9.1% 

  4. ((d))

    8.6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.4%

Given:

Length is decreased by 10%.

Breadth is decreased by 20%.

Height is increased by 30%.

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

Let initial dimensions be L, B, and H.

Initial volume = L × B × H

New length = L × (1 - 0.10) = 0.90L

New breadth = B × (1 - 0.20) = 0.80B

New height = H × (1 + 0.30) = 1.30H

New volume = 0.90L × 0.80B × 1.30H

New volume = 0.90 × 0.80 × 1.30 × L × B × H

New volume = 0.936 × L × B × H

Percentage change in volume = (New volumeInitial volumeInitial volume)×100\left(\frac{{\text{New volume} - \text{Initial volume}}}{\text{Initial volume}}\right) × 100

Percentage change in volume = (0.936LBHLBHLBH)×100\left(\frac{0.936LBH - LBH}{LBH}\right) × 100

Percentage change in volume = (0.9361)×100\left(0.936 - 1\right) × 100

Percentage change in volume = -0.064 × 100

Percentage change in volume = -6.4%

Negative sign is indicating that volume will be decrese.

The total percentage change in the volume of the cuboid is 6.4%.

83

Trader A offers a discount of 25% on the marked price for cash purchase. Trader B offers a trade discount of 20% and a cash discount of 4% on the same article marked at the same price as that of Trader A. If the discount given by Trader A is ₹360 more than the discount given by Trader B, then what is the marked price of the item (in rupees)?

  1. ((a))

    19,000

  2. ((b))

    18,000

  3. ((c))

    30,000

  4. ((d))

    20,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20,000

Given:

Discount given by Trader A = 25%

Trade discount by Trader B = 20%

Cash discount by Trader B = 4%

Discount by Trader A is ₹360 more than the discount by Trader B.

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = x

Discount by Trader A = 25% of x = 0.25x

Discount by Trader B = 20% of x + 4% of (80% of x) = 0.20x + 0.04(0.80x)

Calculation:

According to the given condition:

0.25x = (0.20x + 0.04 × 0.80x) + 360

⇒ 0.25x = 0.20x + 0.032x + 360

⇒ 0.25x = 0.232x + 360

⇒ 0.25x - 0.232x = 360

⇒ 0.018x = 360

⇒ x = 360 / 0.018

⇒ x = 20000

The marked price of the item is ₹20000.

84

If the average of 8, 6, 14, 7 and x is 11, then the value of x is:

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20

Given:

Numbers: 8, 6, 14, 7, and x

Average of these numbers = 11

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all numbers) / (Total number of values)

Calculation:

Let the sum of the numbers be S. The total number of values is 5.

⇒ 11 = S / 5

⇒ S = 11 × 5

⇒ S = 55

Sum of the given numbers = 8 + 6 + 14 + 7 + x

⇒ 8 + 6 + 14 + 7 + x = 55

⇒ 35 + x = 55

⇒ x = 55 - 35

⇒ x = 20

The value of x is 20.

85

A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief is 8 km/h and 7 km/h, respectively. If the policeman started 6 minutes late, after running how much distance will he be able to catch the thief?

  1. ((a))

    5.5 km

  2. ((b))

    5.6 km 

  3. ((c))

    6 km

  4. ((d))

    6.3 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5.6 km 

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed = 8 − 7 = 1 km/h.

Thief's Lead = Speed × Time = 7 km/h × (6/60) h = 0.7 km.

Time to Catch = Lead ÷ Relative Speed = 0.7 km ÷ 1 km/h = 0.7 hours.

Distance by Policeman = Speed × Time = 8 km/h × 0.7 h = 5.6 km.

∴ The correct answer is 5.6 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Policeman (Vp) = 8 km/h

Speed of Thief (Vt) = 7 km/h

Time Delay = 6 minutes = 6/60 = 0.1 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Relative Speed (same direction) = V1 − V2

Calculations:

⇒ Distance covered by Thief in 6 minutes = 7 × (6/60) = 0.7 km

Relative Speed of Policeman with respect to Thief = 8 − 7 = 1 km/h

⇒ Time taken by Policeman to catch the Thief = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

⇒ Time = 0.7 ÷ 1 = 0.7 hours

⇒ Total distance covered by Policeman = Speedp × Time

⇒ Distance = 8 × 0.7 = 5.6 km

∴ The correct answer is 5.6 km.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (u − v). In opposite directions, it is the sum (u + v).

Catching Distance

The distance covered by the chaser to catch the target is always (Speed of Chaser × Time to Catch).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60.

86

Simplify 1.6 + 1.2 × \(\frac{1}{4}-{\frac{1}{5}\)+(1 - 0.8)}

  1. ((a))

    1.5

  2. ((b))

    1.4

  3. ((c))

    1.6

  4. ((d))

    1.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.5

Given:

Expression to simplify: 1.6 + 1.2 × (1)/(4) - {(1)/(5) + (1 - 0.8)}

Formula Used:

Follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

First, simplify the parentheses:

1 - 0.8 = 0.2

So, the expression inside the curly braces becomes:

{(1)/(5) + 0.2}

Next, simplify the fraction and addition inside the curly braces:

(1)/(5) = 0.2

0.2 + 0.2 = 0.4

Now, the expression is:

1.6 + 1.2 × (1)/(4) - 0.4

Next, simplify the multiplication:

(1)/(4) = 0.25

1.2 × 0.25 = 0.3

Now, the expression is:

1.6 + 0.3 - 0.4

Finally, perform the addition and subtraction:

1.6 + 0.3 = 1.9

1.9 - 0.4 = 1.5

The correct answer is option 1 (1.5).

87

A person took a loan of ₹1,200 on simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If he paid ₹432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest per annum?

  1. ((a))

    9%

  2. ((b))

    8%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6%

Given:

Loan Amount = ₹1,200

Simple Interest paid = ₹432

Time = Rate of Interest (R) years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Here, SI = ₹432, Principal = ₹1,200, Time = Rate (R)

Using the formula,

₹432 = (₹1,200 × R × R) / 100

⇒ 432 = 12R2

⇒ R2 = 432 / 12

⇒ R2 = 36

⇒ R = √36

⇒ R = 6

The rate of interest per annum is 6%.

88

Milk was served to 350 scouts at one meeting. Milk was given to each of them in a cylindrical glass of base radius 10 cm and height 15 cm. If the donor purchased milk at the rate of ₹50 per litre, what amount was spent? (Ignore the price of cylindrical paper glasses, etc.)

  1. ((a))

    ₹80,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹82,500

  3. ((c))

    ₹81,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹83,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹82,500

Given:

Number of scouts = 350

Radius of the cylindrical glass (r) = 10 cm

Height of the cylindrical glass (h) = 15 cm

Cost of milk = ₹50 per liter

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder (V) = πr2h

1 liter = 1000 cm3

Total cost = (Total volume in liters) × (Cost per liter)

Calculation:

Volume of one glass:

V = πr2h

⇒ V = (22/7) × 102 × 15

⇒ V = (22/7) × 100 × 15

⇒ V = 22 × 100 × 15 / 7

⇒ V = 33000 / 7 cm3

⇒ V ≈ 4714.29 cm3

Total volume for 350 scouts:

Total volume = 4714.29 × 350

⇒ Total volume = 1650000 cm3

Convert to liters:

Total volume in liters = 1650000 / 1000

⇒ Total volume in liters = 1650 liters

Total cost:

Total cost = 1650 × 50

⇒ Total cost = 82500

The correct answer is option 2 (₹82,500).

89

Ajay’s test marks in two subjects, Mathematics and Science, are in the ratio 9 ∶ 13. If he got 16 marks more in Science than in Mathematics, what are his marks in Mathematics?

  1. ((a))

    27

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

36

Given:

The ratio of Ajay's marks in Mathematics to Science = 9:13

Marks in Science - Marks in Mathematics = 16

Formula Used:

Let marks in Mathematics be 9x and marks in Science be 13x.

According to the given condition: 13x - 9x = 16

Calculation:

13x - 9x = 16

⇒ 4x = 16

⇒ x = 4

Marks in Mathematics = 9x = 9 × 4 = 36

The marks in Mathematics are 36.

90

A man loses 25% of his money. After spending 60% of the remaining money, he has Rs. 360 left. What is the amount of money (in Rs.) he originally had? 

  1. ((a))

    1200

  2. ((b))

    1962

  3. ((c))

    654

  4. ((d))

    2400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1200

Shortcut Trick

Let the original amount of money be P.

Using the successive percentage multiplying factor method:

P × 75% × 40% = 360

P × (3/4) × (2/5) = 360

P = 360 × (10/3) = 1200

∴ The correct answer is ₹1200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of money lost = 25%

Percentage of remaining money spent = 60%

Amount left = ₹360

Formula Used:

Remaining Amount = Total × (1 − L1/100) × (1 − L2/100)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the original amount be 100 units.

⇒ After losing 25%, remaining amount = 100 − 25 = 75 units.

⇒ He then spends 60% of the remaining amount.

⇒ Amount spent = 60% of 75 units = (60 ÷ 100) × 75 = 45 units.

⇒ Remaining amount left with him = 75 − 45 = 30 units.

⇒ According to the question, 30 units = ₹360.

⇒ 1 unit = 360 ÷ 30 = ₹12.

⇒ Original amount = 100 units = 100 × 12 = ₹1200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1200.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is subjected to multiple percentage changes sequentially, the final value can be calculated directly using: Final = Initial × (1 − a/100) × (1 − b/100).

Base of Percentage

It is critical to identify the correct base for any percentage. Words like 'of the remaining' indicate the new percentage must be calculated on the newly reduced value, not the original starting total.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following is an address on the world wide web that is used to access specific web resources and is the specific path to a resource?

  1. ((a))

    Hyperlink

  2. ((b))

    Web server

  3. ((c))

    Web pages

  4. ((d))

    Uniform resource locator

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uniform resource locator

The correct answer is Uniform resource locator.

Key Points

  • Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is the specific address used to access web resources on the internet.
  • A URL consists of several components, including the protocol, domain name, path, and sometimes query parameters.
  • Examples of URLs include https://www.example.com or ftp://ftp.example.com/file.txt.
  • URLs are essential for navigating and accessing various resources on the World Wide Web efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Hyperlink:
  • A hyperlink is a reference or navigation element in a document that links to another section of the same document or to another document.
  • It is typically implemented using the anchor tag () in HTML.
  • Hyperlinks are clickable and usually appear as underlined text or images.
  • Web Server:
  • A web server is a computer system that hosts websites and serves web pages to users over the internet.
  • It uses protocols like HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) to communicate with web browsers.
  • Popular web servers include Apache, Nginx, and Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS).
  • Web Pages:
  • A web page is a document on the World Wide Web that is identified by a unique URL.
  • Web pages are typically written in HTML and may contain text, images, videos, and other multimedia elements.
  • Web pages are the fundamental building blocks of websites.
  • Uniform Resource Locator (URL):
  • A URL is the address used to access specific resources on the internet.
  • It consists of several components: protocol (e.g., http, https, ftp), domain name (e.g., www.example.com), path (e.g., /path/to/resource), and possibly query parameters.
  • URLs are essential for the identification and retrieval of web resources.
92

The keyboard shortcut for opening a new document in Microsoft Word 365, while another document is already open, is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + N 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Y 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + S 

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + P 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + N 

The correct answer is Ctrl + N.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + N is the default keyboard shortcut for creating a new document in Microsoft Word 365.
  • This shortcut works even if another document is currently open, allowing users to quickly start a new document without closing the existing one.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + N can significantly improve efficiency and streamline the document creation process.
  • Microsoft Word 365 supports a wide range of keyboard shortcuts that help users perform tasks more quickly and efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + N:
  • This keyboard shortcut is used universally across many software applications to create a new file, document, or window.
  • In Microsoft Word, pressing Ctrl + N opens a new blank document, ready for editing.
  • It is a part of the standard shortcut keys in the Microsoft Office suite that enhances user productivity.
  • Other Microsoft Word Shortcuts:
  • Ctrl + S: Saves the current document.
  • Ctrl + P: Opens the print dialog box for the current document.
  • Ctrl + Y: Redoes the last action that was undone, also known as the "redo" command.
  • Microsoft Word 365:
  • It is a part of the Microsoft 365 suite of productivity software, which includes tools like Excel, PowerPoint, and Outlook.
  • Word 365 includes advanced features such as cloud integration, real-time co-authoring, and AI-powered editing tools.
  • It is a widely used word processing application that enables users to create, edit, and share documents efficiently.
93

Which of the following is NOT used to edit text in MS-Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Making text as Bold/Italic

  2. ((b))

    Changing Font Color

  3. ((c))

    Making text as Left align

  4. ((d))

    Changing Font Style

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Making text as Left align

The correct answer is Making text as Left align.

Key Points

  • Making text as Left align is considered a formatting option rather than an editing option in MS-Word 365.
  • Editing text generally refers to changing the content, such as modifying words, sentences, or paragraphs.
  • Formatting options like alignment adjust the appearance of the text without altering the actual content.
  • Other editing options in MS-Word 365 include cutting, copying, pasting, and deleting text.

Additional Information

  • Bold/Italic Text
  • Bold and Italic are text formatting options that change the appearance of the text to make it stand out.
  • They are commonly used for emphasizing important points or headings within a document.
  • Changing Font Color
  • Changing the font color is a formatting option that alters the color of the text.
  • This can be used to highlight specific sections or to make the text more visually appealing.
  • Changing Font Style
  • Font style refers to the typeface used for the text, such as Arial, Times New Roman, or Calibri.
  • Changing the font style can affect the readability and overall look of the document.
  • Left Align
  • Left align is a text formatting option that aligns the text to the left margin of the document.
  • It is the default alignment option for most documents.
94

Which of the following tabs in MS Word 365, allows you to customise the page size in the Page Setup dialog box?

  1. ((a))

    Layout

  2. ((b))

    File

  3. ((c))

    Edit

  4. ((d))

    Insert

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Layout

The correct answer is Layout.

Key Points

  • The Layout tab in MS Word 365 allows users to customize various aspects of the page setup, including page size, margins, orientation, and columns.
  • In the Layout tab, you can access the Page Setup dialog box by clicking on the small arrow at the bottom-right corner of the Page Setup group.
  • The Page Setup dialog box provides options to customize the paper size, source, and layout of the document.
  • This tab is essential for setting up the document's layout before printing or sharing it to ensure that it meets specific requirements.

Additional Information

  • File tab:
  • The File tab in MS Word 365, also known as the Backstage view, provides options for opening, saving, printing, and sharing documents.
  • It also includes information about the document, such as its properties and permissions.
  • Edit tab:
  • The Edit tab is not present in MS Word 365. Editing options are typically found in the Home tab, where users can cut, copy, paste, and format text.
  • Insert tab:
  • The Insert tab allows users to add various elements to their documents, such as tables, pictures, charts, links, headers, footers, and more.
  • This tab helps in enhancing the content by including additional media and organizational elements.
95

While composing an email, what does the user have to write in the 'Subject' field?

  1. ((a))

    A smiley or emoji to make the email more interesting 

  2. ((b))

    The recipient’s email address

  3. ((c))

    The main topic of an email message

  4. ((d))

    The sender’s email address

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The main topic of an email message

The correct answer is The main topic of an email message.

Key Points

  • The 'Subject' field in an email is used to convey the main topic or purpose of the email.
  • It helps the recipient understand the context of the email before opening it.
  • A clear and concise subject line can improve the chances of the email being read and responded to promptly.
  • Using relevant keywords in the subject line can help in organizing and searching for emails later.

Additional Information

  • Email Address:
  • An email address identifies an email box to which messages are delivered. It typically consists of a local part, an '@' symbol, and a domain part.
  • The recipient's email address is entered in the 'To' field, not the 'Subject' field.
  • The sender's email address is usually automatically filled in by the email client and is not manually entered in the 'Subject' field.
  • Emojis in Emails:
  • While emojis can be used to make the email more engaging, they are generally not appropriate for the 'Subject' field as they do not convey the main topic.
  • Emojis should be used sparingly and only when appropriate to the context and audience of the email.
96

Which of the following document settings can be changed from the layout tab of MS word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Change styles

  2. ((b))

    Margins

  3. ((c))

    Macros

  4. ((d))

    Spelling grammar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Margins

The correct answer is Margins.

Key Points

  • Margins in MS Word refer to the blank spaces around the edges of the page. They do not contain any text or images.
  • Changing the margins can help to adjust the layout of the document to make it look more professional or fit more content on a page.
  • In MS Word 365, margins can be easily adjusted from the Layout tab, under the Page Setup group.
  • There are several predefined margin settings available, such as Normal, Narrow, Moderate, and Wide. Custom margins can also be set.

Additional Information

  • Change Styles: This option is available under the Design tab and allows users to change the overall look and feel of the document by selecting different themes, colors, and fonts.
  • Macros: Macros are a set of commands that can be recorded and played back to automate repetitive tasks. This option can be accessed from the View tab.
  • Spelling & Grammar: This tool helps to check and correct spelling and grammatical errors in the document. It can be found under the Review tab.
  • Layout Tab: The Layout tab in MS Word 365 includes options for adjusting the document's layout, including margins, orientation, size, columns, breaks, line numbers, and hyphenation.

This solution provides a detailed explanation of the correct option and additional information about the other options. The "Key Points" section highlights important aspects of margins in MS Word, and the "Additional Information" section explains the other terminologies and their respective tabs.

97

Which Microsoft Excel 365, function is used to join or concatenate text strings from different cells?

  1. ((a))

    CONCATENATE

  2. ((b))

    MERGE

  3. ((c))

    ADD

  4. ((d))

    JOIN

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CONCATENATE

The correct answer is CONCATENATE.

Key Points

  • The CONCATENATE function in Excel is used to combine text strings from different cells into one single text string.
  • This function is particularly useful for creating compound text fields from separate data elements.
  • In newer versions of Excel (Excel 2016 and later), the CONCATENATE function has been replaced by the CONCAT function, which provides similar functionality but with more flexibility.
  • The syntax for the CONCATENATE function is: =CONCATENATE(text1, [text2], ...)

Additional Information

  • CONCAT Function
  • The CONCAT function is an upgraded version of the CONCATENATE function and allows for the use of ranges, making it easier to use.
  • The syntax for the CONCAT function is: =CONCAT(text1, [text2], ...)
  • It also allows for the inclusion of delimiters between the text strings.
  • Example: =CONCAT(A1, " ", B1, " ", C1) will join the text from cells A1, B1, and C1, separated by spaces.
  • TEXTJOIN Function
  • The TEXTJOIN function is another function available in Excel that helps to concatenate text strings using a specified delimiter.
  • The syntax for the TEXTJOIN function is: =TEXTJOIN(delimiter, ignore_empty, text1, [text2], ...)
  • The delimiter is a character or string that will separate the concatenated text strings.
  • The ignore_empty parameter specifies whether to ignore empty cells in the range.
  • Example: =TEXTJOIN(", ", TRUE, A1:C1) will join the text from cells A1 to C1, separated by commas, ignoring any empty cells.
  • Other Functions
  • MERGE: This is not a function used for concatenating text in Excel. Merging is related to combining cells, not text strings.
  • ADD: This function is used for arithmetic addition, not for concatenating text strings.
  • JOIN: This is not a standard Excel function for text concatenation. The TEXTJOIN function serves this purpose.
98

Which of the following statements about autofitting the row height in MS Excel 365 is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Single-clicking on the boundary between row headers will automatically adjust the row height to fit the content.

  2. ((b))

    Double-clicking on the boundary between row headers will automatically adjust the row height to fit the content. 

  3. ((c))

    Double-clicking on the boundary between column headers will automatically adjust the column height to fit the content. 

  4. ((d))

    Single-clicking on the boundary between column headers will automatically adjust the column height to fit the content. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Double-clicking on the boundary between row headers will automatically adjust the row height to fit the content. 

The correct answer is Double-clicking on the boundary between row headers will automatically adjust the row height to fit the content..

Key Points

  • Double-clicking on the boundary between row headers will automatically adjust the row height to fit the content in MS Excel 365.
  • This feature helps in quickly adjusting the row height without manually setting the height.
  • AutoFit Row Height adjusts the height based on the tallest cell content in the row.
  • This is particularly useful when dealing with varied text sizes or multiple lines of text within a cell.

Additional Information

  • Row Header:
  • The row header is the gray-colored column located to the left of column 1 in a worksheet. Each row header displays a unique number that identifies the row.
  • By clicking on the row header, you can select the entire row.
  • Column Header:
  • The column header is the gray-colored row located above row 1 in a worksheet. Each column header displays a unique letter that identifies the column.
  • By clicking on the column header, you can select the entire column.
  • AutoFit:
  • The AutoFit feature in Excel automatically adjusts the width of a column or the height of a row to fit the contents of the cells.
  • This is done by double-clicking the boundary between the column or row headers.
  • Manual Adjustment:
  • Excel users can manually adjust the row height or column width by dragging the boundary between the headers.
  • This allows for precise control over the size of rows and columns.
99

In MS Excel 365, Which function from the following list is used to tally the quantity of empty cells within a specified cell range?

  1. ((a))

    COUNTB() 

  2. ((b))

    COUNTA() 

  3. ((c))

    COUNT()

  4. ((d))

    COUNTBLANK()

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

COUNTBLANK()

The correct answer is COUNTBLANK().

Key Points

  • The COUNTBLANK() function is used to count the number of empty cells in a specified range of cells.
  • It is particularly useful for data cleaning and data analysis to identify missing values within a dataset.
  • The function syntax is =COUNTBLANK(range), where "range" specifies the cell range to check for empty cells.
  • This function helps in ensuring the integrity and completeness of the data being analyzed.

Additional Information

  • COUNTB()
  • This function does not exist in MS Excel. It seems to be a misnomer or a typo.
  • COUNTA()
  • This function counts the number of cells that are not empty in a range.
  • It includes cells that contain any type of data, such as numbers, text, error values, etc.
  • The function syntax is =COUNTA(value1, [value2], ...).
  • It is useful when you want to count all non-blank cells.
  • COUNT()
  • This function counts the number of cells that contain numbers in a range.
  • It ignores empty cells and cells containing text or error values.
  • The function syntax is =COUNT(value1, [value2], ...).
  • It is primarily used for counting numerical data.
  • COUNTBLANK()
  • This function counts the number of empty cells in a specified range of cells.
  • It is useful for identifying missing data or gaps in a dataset.
  • The function syntax is =COUNTBLANK(range).
  • It helps in data cleaning and ensuring data integrity.
100

Which of the following is used to print the document in MS-Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    File- > print 

  2. ((b))

    Design- > print 

  3. ((c))

    Home- > print

  4. ((d))

    View- > print 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

File- > print 

The correct answer is File -> Print.

Key Points

  • In MS Word 365, to print a document, you need to navigate to the File tab which is located at the top left corner of the application.
  • Once you click on the File tab, a menu will open, and you will see the Print option listed on the left sidebar.
  • The Print option allows you to access the printing settings where you can select the printer, set the number of copies, and configure other printing preferences.
  • This method is consistent with the user interface design of MS Word 365, ensuring that all document-related tasks such as printing are easily accessible through the File tab.

Additional Information

  • File Tab:
  • The File tab is part of the Ribbon interface in MS Word 365 and other Microsoft Office applications.
  • It provides access to the Backstage view, which contains commands related to managing documents, such as open, save, print, and share.
  • The Backstage view is designed to help users manage files and settings without cluttering the main workspace.
  • Printing in MS Word:
  • Printing a document involves sending it to a printer where it is produced on paper or other print media.
  • MS Word offers various printing options including selecting specific pages, adjusting print layout, and setting print quality.
  • Users can preview their document before printing to ensure it appears as intended.
  • Other Tabs in MS Word:
  • Home Tab: Contains commands for formatting text, paragraphs, and clipboard operations.
  • Design Tab: Provides options for designing the document, such as themes, colors, and fonts.
  • View Tab: Allows users to change the document view, including print layout, web layout, and outline view.

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