Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 15 Nov, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• India won 7 medals in the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup 2022 held in Cairo, Egypt.
• India's performance in the shooting World Cup was outstanding, and they finished second in the medals tally, behind China, who won 11 medals.
• The International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) is the governing body of the Olympic shooting events.
• Rudrankksh Patil: Played a key role in securing a medal in the 10m Air Rifle event.
• Saurabh Chaudhary: Won gold in the Men's 10m Air Pistol event, showcasing his consistency in shooting events.

Additional Information

• The ISSF World Cup is an annual event where shooters from around the world compete in various shooting disciplines.
• India has a strong shooting contingent, and they have been performing well in international events in recent years.
• In the ISSF world cup 2022, India won 4 gold medals, 2 silver medals, and 1 bronze medal, showing their dominance in the sport.
• India won 15 medals in total—six gold, six silver, and three bronze—to take the lead in the ISSF Junior World Cup 2023 in Suhl, Germany.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam

Key Points

• Narthaki Nataraj:-
• ​Narthaki Nataraj is an accomplished Indian classical dancer known for her expertise in the art form of Bharatanatyam, which is a traditional dance style originating from the southern part of India.
• She holds the distinction of being one of the most prominent transgender women to have gained recognition in the field of classical dance.
• Narthaki Nataraj was born in 1964 in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India.
• From a young age, she displayed a keen interest and talent in Bharatanatyam.
• She trained rigorously in this dance form, honing her skills and mastering the intricate techniques and expressions that are integral to Bharatanatyam.
• She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2019 for her significant contributions to the field of Indian classical dance, specifically for her exceptional skills and dedication to the art of Bharatanatyam.

Additional Information

• List of other awardees of Padma Shree in 2019:-
• Manoj Bajpayee: Actor
• Gautam Gambhir: Cricketer
• Sunil Chhetri: Footballer
• Kader Khan (Posthumous): Actor and Comedian
• Prabhu Deva: Choreographer and Actor
• Kailash Madbaiya: Social Worker
• Muktaben Pankajkumar Dagli: Social Worker
• Shadab Mohammad: Mathematician

The correct answer is Garbhagriha 

Key Points

• Garbhagriha
• The innermost sanctum of the Hindu temples where the idol or murti of the main deity is placed is called the Garbhagriha.
• It is also called the womb chamber of the temple.
• Only the priests are allowed to enter this chamber.
• The Garbhagriha is a single chamber with the room facing towards the east to get the rising sun.
• There are no windows and hardly any access to any lights.
• The room is a square one and the deity is normally placed at the centre for the visitors to see.
• The Garbhagriha is the most important and sacred space where the deity is worshipped.
• All the offerings to the deity are made inside here.
• The Vastushastra refers to the ancient science of architecture.
• It deals with the building of forts, towns, and other construction too.
• It also connects the philosophy of architecture with cosmic values.
• For female deities, the Garbhagriha is a rectangular one.
• In Tamil, the garbhagriha is called karuvarai.

Additional Information

• Pradakshina Patha
• It is an important architectural feature of a Hindu Temple. It is the term used to refer to the passage around the garbha griha or the sanctum sanctorum in a Hindu temple.
• The passage is essentially provided for performing pradakshina (going around the deity).
• While walking on the Pradakshina Patha the devotee establishes divine communion with the deity seated or standing in the sanctum sanctorum.
• The various forms for the deity and other aspects carved on the outer walls of the sanctum and in some instances even on the Pradakshina Patha act as points of concentration which help in guiding the devotee towards the main murti enshrined in the garbhagriha.
• Mandapa
• Indian architecture, especially Hindu temple architecture is a pillared hall or pavilion for public rituals.
• Place in temples where people could assemble.
• Mandapas are described as open or closed depending on whether they have walls. I
• In temples, one or more mandapas very often lie between the sanctuary and the temple entrance, on the same axis.
• Shikhara
• It is a Sanskrit word that means mountain peak. It is the most prominent and visible part of a Hindu temple in North India.
• In South India, it is the same as Vimana.
• Shikhara is the rising tower in the Hindu temple architecture of North India.
• It is also used in Jain temples.
• Shikhara is over Garbhagriha.
• Garbhagriha is the innermost sanctuary of a Hindu and Jain temple where the primary deity of the temple is kept.
• Shikhara can be classified into three main forms - Latina, Sekhar, and Bhumija.
• Shikharas form an element in the many styles of Hindu temple architecture, the three most common styles are the Nagara, the Vesara, and the Dravidian.
• By at least 600 CE in Odisha the Latina form of shikhara was well established.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Bamboo drip irrigation system a very old practice seen in Indian state Meghalaya
• The bamboo drip irrigation system is a 200-year-old system in Meghalaya.
• It is a system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes.
• In a bamboo drip irrigation system about 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system
• It gets transported over hundreds of metres, and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.
• The word Meghalaya means "adobe of clouds.

Additional Information

• Innovation in Agriculture
• Bee Vectoring Technologies
• Honey bees play a crucial role in U.S. crop production, contributing a staggering $20 billion value.
• To safeguard these essential pollinators and enhance their capabilities, innovations are emerging in the form of agriculture equipment.
• Bee Vectoring Technologies (BVT) harnesses commercially reared bees to deliver targeted crop controls through pollination.
• By using bees to carry environmentally safe pest control powders, BVT eliminates the need for chemical pesticides.
• This approach not only enhances sustainable farming practices but also improves crop yields and soil quality.
• The system is versatile, and suitable for a wide range of crops, from blueberries to apples.
• Precision Agriculture
• Precision agriculture is revolutionizing resource management in farming.
• This data-driven approach collects, processes, and analyzes information to optimize soil quality and productivity.
• By relying on remote sensing systems, drones, robotics, and automation, precision agriculture allows farmers to make informed decisions that boost resource use efficiency, sustainability, profitability, productivity, and crop quality.
• The global precision farming market is projected to reach $16.35 billion by 2028, reflecting a 13.1% compound annual growth rate (CAGR).
• Indoor Vertical Farming
• Indoor vertical farming offers a solution to limited arable land.
• By stacking crops in a controlled environment, this technology maximizes yield per unit area.
• Hydroponic and aeroponic systems enable plants to grow without soil, significantly reducing water usage and labour costs.
• Controlled variables such as light, temperature, and water contribute to healthier and larger yields.

The correct answer is the 99th Amendment Act

Key Points

• 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
• It formed a National Judicial Appointments Commission.
• 16 State assemblies out of 29 States including Goa, Rajasthan, Tripura, Gujarat and Telangana ratified the Central Legislation, enabling the President of India to give assent to the bill.
• In 2015, the Constitution Bench (4:1 Majority) of the Supreme Court declared the 99th Constitutional Amendment and National Judicial Commission (NJAC) unconstitutional on the ground that it violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

• 65th Amendment Act 
• The 65th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution (1990) is significant as it strengthened the role and functioning of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• It replaced the existing multi-member body for SCs and STs with a National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, under Article 338.
• This Commission was given a constitutional status, elevating its authority and independence
• The Commission was empowered to function as a quasi-judicial body, with powers similar to a civil court in certain matters.
• 82nd Amendment Act
• ​The 82nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution (2000) introduced a crucial provision to protect the interests of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in matters of employment.
• The amendment added a proviso to Article 335 of the Constitution.
• Article 335 originally states that the claims of SCs and STs must be taken into consideration in appointments to services and posts, while ensuring the maintenance of efficiency in administration.
• The amendment allowed the government to relax qualifying marks and standards of evaluation for SCs and STs in matters of reservation in promotions.
• 52nd Amendment Act
• The 52nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution (1985) is a landmark legislation known for introducing the anti-defection law.
• The amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly referred to as the Anti-Defection Law.
• It aims to curb political defections by members of the legislature, which were seen as undermining the stability of governments and the principles of democracy.

The correct answer is Hector Munro.

Key Points

• The English Army in the Battle of Buxar was led by Hector Munro.
• The battle was fought between the East India Company and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal, the Nawab of Awadh, and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II on 22nd October 1764 in Buxar, a small town in Bihar.
• The battle was a decisive victory for the British East India Company.
• The war was put to an end by the Treaty of Allahabad in the year 1765.

Additional Information

• Henry Lawrence (1806–1857)
• A British military officer and administrator, Lawrence was one of the key figures in the governance of British India.
• He is best remembered for his role during the Indian Rebellion of 1857, particularly in the defense of Lucknow.
• Lawrence was the Chief Commissioner of Oudh (Awadh) and was stationed in Lucknow during the uprising.
• He fortified the British Residency in Lucknow and led the early stages of its defense. Unfortunately, he was mortally wounded during the siege.
• He was part of the famous Lawrence brothers, who were influential in British India.
• John Nicholson (1821–1857)
• A British Army officer, Nicholson played a significant role in the suppression of the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• He is known for his leadership during the Siege of Delhi, where he led British and Indian troops in retaking the city from rebel forces.
• He was mortally wounded during the assault on Delhi and died shortly after its recapture.
• Sir Hugh Wheeler (1789–1857)
• A British general who commanded the garrison at Cawnpore (Kanpur) during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• Wheeler's role is controversial due to his underestimation of the rebellion's scale and his misplaced trust in the rebel leader Nana Sahib.

The correct answer is Article 51 A

Key Points

• Article 51A of the Indian constitution states about Fundamental duties in India
• They were added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 by the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The concept of fundamental duties of the Indian constitution was borrowed from the USSR(Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).
• The Fundamental duties are set out in Part IV-A of the constitution and cannot be forced on the citizens until made as parliamentary law.
• Originally, there were only 10 fundamental duties, the 11th was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002.
• It is not enforceable by the court of the law.

Additional Information

• There are 11 fundamental duties, they are:
• Abide by the Constitution and respect national flag & National Anthem.
• Follow ideals of the freedom struggle.
• Protect sovereignty & integrity of India.
• Defend the country and render national services when called upon.
• Sprit of a common brotherhood.
• Preserve composite culture.
• Preserve the natural environment.
• Develop a scientific temper.
• Safeguard public property.
• Strive for excellence.
• Duty fo all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.

The correct answer is Sania Mirza

Key Points

• Ace Against Odds is the 2016 biography of the Indian professional tennis player Sania Mirza.
• Sania Mirza wrote Ace Against Odds with the help of her father and mentor Imran Mirza & sports journalist Shivani Gupta.
• Indian tennis star Sania Mirza posted a birthday wish for her husband Shoaib Malik on social media, calling her partner "the guy who I can't live with or without."
• If you do or achieve something against (all) the odds/against all odds, you do or achieve it although there were a lot of problems and you were not likely to succeed: Against all the odds, he recovered.
• Ace against Odds” by Sania Mirza is an autobiography written with the help of her father Imran Mirza and sports journalist Shivani Gupta.
• The book is as fascinating as her tennis journey and her life.

Additional Information

• Saina Nehwal
• ​The autobiography of Indian badminton player Saina Nehwal is titled Playing to Win: My Life On and Off Court.
• Saina Nehwal is a female Indian singles badminton player.
• A former world no. 1, she has won over 24 international titles, including eleven titles in the Superseries.
• While she reached the 2nd world ranking in 2009, it was only in 2015 that she was able to cross the No. 1 world ranking.
• Nehwal is the first Indian to win two Commonwealth Games singles gold medals (2010 and 2018).
• In 2016, Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, was awarded to her by the Government of India.
• Maria Sharapova 
• Maria Yuryevna Sharapova is a Russian former professional tennis player.
• Although she played under the banner of Russia with the Women's Tennis Association.
• She has lived in and been a United States permanent resident since 1994.
• Sharapova became the world No. 1 for the first time on 22 August 2005.
• At the age of 18, becoming the first Russian female tennis player to top the singles
• Monica Seles 
• ​Monica Seles is a retired professional tennis player and one of the greatest female athletes in the history of the sport
• Seles won 9 Grand Slam singles title
• Seles became the world's No. 1 player in 1991 and held the position for a total of 178 weeks during her career.

The correct answer is Meghalaya

Key Points

• The Ahaia Winter Festival is primarily organized by the North-Eastern state of Meghalaya to promote tourism.
• It provides a platform to showcase the vibrant traditions, music, art, and craftsmanship of Meghalaya, particularly those of the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia tribes.
• The term "Ahaia" translates to "celebration" in the Garo language, reflecting the festival's spirit of joy and unity.
• The festival is typically held in December, with events spanning several days.
• The main venue is often the Dikki Bandi Stadium in Tura.

Additional Information

• Tripura:
• Kharchi Puja is the most significant festival in Tripura, celebrated primarily in the Agartala area.
• It is dedicated to 14 deities, worshipped as the clan gods of the Tripuri people.
• This week-long festival is marked by sacrifices, prayers, and vibrant cultural performances.
• Garia Puja is another important festival in Tripura, primarily observed by the indigenous Tripuri community, where prayers are offered to the deity of agriculture for a good harvest.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• The Losar Festival is one of the most prominent festivals in Arunachal Pradesh, celebrated by the Monpa community.
• It marks the start of the Tibetan New Year and is a time for family gatherings, feasts, and traditional dances.
• Another notable festival is Buddha Jayanti, celebrated by the Buddhist community, where the birth, enlightenment, and death of Lord Buddha are commemorated with prayers and rituals.
• Sikkim:
• Lhosar, the Tibetan New Year, is a major celebration in Sikkim, observed with various cultural events, traditional food, prayers, and dances.
• The festival marks the beginning of the New Year according to the Tibetan calendar and is celebrated by the Sikkimese people with much enthusiasm.
• Buddha Jayanti is also celebrated in Sikkim, particularly by the Buddhist community, to honour the life and teachings of Lord Buddha, with prayers and processions in monasteries.

The correct answer is China

Key Points

• The first Para Asian Games (Para Asiad) were hosted by China in 2010, in the city of Guangzhou, immediately following the 16th Asian Games.
• The motto for the Guangzhou 2010 Para Games was “We Cheer, We Share, We Win”, emphasizing unity, inclusion, and celebration of athletic achievements.
• It  featured 19 sports and 473 events, including wheelchair basketball, table tennis, athletics, and swimming.
• The official mascot was "Fun Fun", a smiling goat symbolizing Guangzhou's rich cultural heritage and friendliness.
• Athletes from 41 Asian countries and regions competed, making it a milestone for para-sports in Asia.

Additional Information

• Asian Para Games
• ​The Asian Para Games are a multi-sport event held every four years for athletes with physical disabilities from across Asia.
• They are organized by the Asian Paralympic Committee (APC) and are parallel to the Asian Games, specifically designed to promote inclusivity in sports
• The Asian Para Games were established after the Far East and South Pacific Games for the Disabled (FESPIC Games) ended in 2006.
• Editions:
• 2010 (Guangzhou, China): The inaugural edition with over 2,500 athletes from 41 countries.
• 2014 (Incheon, South Korea): Continued success with high participation and improved facilities.
• 2018 (Jakarta, Indonesia): Marked further growth with a record number of events and athletes.
• 2023 (Hangzhou, China): Focused on innovation and inclusivity, featuring advanced technology for accessibility.

The correct answer is Kumari Kamala

Key Points

• A classical Bharatanatyam dancer, Kumari Kamala was invited to perform for the coronation of Queen Elizabeth II in 1953.
• She was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2002.
• She was instrumental in popularizing Bharatanatyam abroad and performed in various countries, representing Indian classical dance at international platforms.
• Her performances were known for their grace, precision, and emotional depth.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Articles 27 and 28

Key Points

• Article 27 guarantees freedom from taxation for religious purposes, stating that no person shall be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any religion or religious activity.
• Article 28 ensures that no religious instruction is provided in any educational institution that is wholly funded by the state.
• These provisions strengthen the freedom of conscience and religious freedom under Article 25
• It guarantees the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.

Additional Information

• Article 24:
• ​This article deals with the prohibition of child labour.
• It states that no child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
• While important for protecting children's rights, it does not directly relate to freedom of conscience or religious freedoms.
• Article 26:
• ​This article provides the freedom to manage religious affairs.
• It allows every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its own affairs in matters of religion, and own and acquire property.
• This article strengthens religious freedom and conscience by ensuring religious groups can function independently.
• Article 29:
• This article ensures the protection of the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
• It states that any section of the citizens residing in India with a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to conserve the same.
• It also guarantees the right to establish and administer educational institutions, which helps protect the identity and religious beliefs of minority groups.

The correct answer is a special officer for linguistic minorities 

Key Points

• Article 350-B of the Indian constitution was added by the 7th constitutional amendment.
• The recommendation was made by the State reorganization commission ( 1953-55).
• The special officer for linguistic minorities is appointed by the president of India.
• The duty of the officer includes investigating all matters related to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Indian constitution.

Additional Information 

• The commission was made to provide equal opportunities to linguistic minorities for inclusive development and national integration.
• It ensures the effective implementation of the plans and schemes related to the group of linguistic minorities.
• The office of the linguistic minorities was created in 1957.

The Correct Answer is Khushwant Singh.

Key Points

• Khushwant Singh's historical novel Train to Pakistan was released in 1956.
• It tells the story of India's partition in August 1947 through the eyes of Mano Majra, a fictional border village.
• In 1998, a film based on this novel with the same title, Train to Pakistan, was released.
• A play based on this novel with the same title "Train to Pakistan" was staged at Lamakaan, an open cultural space in Hyderabad, India, with the first chapter  "Dacoity."

Additional Information

• Vikram Seth 
• Vikram Seth is a renowned Indian author, poet, and travel writer.
• Born in 1952 in Kolkata, he is best known for his epic novel A Suitable Boy.
• Seth’s works cover a wide range of genres including poetry, novels, and travel writing.
• His writing is known for its lyrical beauty and deep engagement with themes of love, family, and societal issues.
• Other Books: The Golden Gate, From Heaven Lake: Travels through Sinkiang and Tibet, An Equal Music, Two Lives
• Mulk Raj Anand
• Mulk Raj Anand (1905-2004) was an Indian writer in English.
• He was well known for his novels that address social issues, particularly the plight of the marginalized and underprivileged.
• He was one of the pioneers of Indian writing in English, and his works were instrumental in representing the struggles of the oppressed classes in India during the British colonial era.
• Books: Untouchable, Coolie, The Private Life of an Indian Prince, The Big Heart, The Road
• Bhisham Sahni 
• Bhisham Sahni (1915-2003) was an Indian writer, playwright, and actor.
• He is best known for his novel Tamas, which deals with the aftermath of the partition of India in 1947.
• Sahni’s works often explore themes of social justice, human suffering, and the political turmoil in post-colonial India.
• He was also involved in theatre and worked as a translator.

The correct answer is Ladakh

Key Points

• Ladakh recorded the highest sex ratio at birth in India in 2020, with 1,104 females per 1,000 males.
• The highest sex ratios were in the states and union territories:
• Arunachal Pradesh (1,011), Andaman and Nicobar Islands (984), Tripura (974), and Kerala (969).
• ​The sex ratio is the number of females per 1,000 males.
• It's a fundamental indicator that affects many aspects of society, including reproductive potential, marital status, workforce, migration patterns, population growth, and socioeconomic relationships

Additional Information

• The Civil Registration System (CRS) in India, emphasizes its critical role in the compulsory and continuous recording of vital events such as births, deaths, and stillbirths.
• This system is integral for socio-economic planning, impacting areas such as healthcare, education, and governance.
• The report also underlines significant progress in the registration rates over the years, with registered births rising to 89.3% in 2018 from 81.3% in 2009, and deaths from 66.9% to 86.0% in the same period.
• However, challenges remain, particularly in achieving timely and uniform registration across various regions, especially in rural areas.

The correct answer is 22

Key Points

• The Constitution of India is the longest-written constitution of any sovereign nation in the world.
• The original text of the Constitution contained 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules.
• It came into effect on January 26, 1950, the day that India celebrates each year as Republic Day.
• The number of articles has since increased to 448 due to 105 amendments.

Additional Information

• Important Facts about India Constitution​
• It was adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into effect on January 26, 1950.
• It draws influences from various constitutions like those of the UK, USA, Ireland, and Australia.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is considered the principal architect of the Constitution.
• The Constitution is the supreme law of India; any law inconsistent with it is void.
• India has a federal structure with a unitary bias, giving more power to the central government.
• It declares India a secular state, ensuring equality for all religions.
• The Constitution can be amended through a detailed process under Article 368.
• It guarantees Fundamental Rights to citizens and lists Fundamental Duties.
• The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.

The correct answer is US

Key Points

• Norman Borlaug is the father of the Green Revolution in the world.
• He was an American agricultural scientist and humanitarian.
• He is considered by some to be the "father of modern agriculture".
• He received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.
• He is credited with saving themselves from starvation.
• He developed generation after generation of Wheat varieties with broad and stable disease resistance, and broad adaptation to growing conditions.
• Borlaug began working with a wheat strain containing an unusual gene.
• It had the effect of shrinking the wheat plant, creating a stubby, compact variety.

Additional Information

• Green Revolution​
• The Green Revolution was started in the period 1960s.
• It commenced in India in the year 1960s under the premiership of Congress leader Lal Bahadur Shastri.
• It is also known as the Third Agricultural Revolution.
• The birthplace and burial ground of the Green Revolution is Mexico because Norman Borlaug was a native of Mexico.
• In India, Dr. M.S Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution.
• William S. Gaud was the first person to use the word Green Revolution and he was an administrator of the United States Agency for International Development (USAID).
• Green Revolution is related to the increase in the production of food grains, especially rice and wheat.
• It leads to an increase in the production of food grains in the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Punjab.

The correct answer is America

Key Points

• America founded the Theosophical Society.
• The Theosophical Society was officially formed in New York City, United States, on 17 November 1875 by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge, and others.
• It was self-described as "an unsectarian body of seekers after Truth, who endeavour to promote Brotherhood and strive to serve humanity."
• Theosophy is derived from the Greek word ‘theosophical meaning "God's wisdom".
• Theosophy was a philosophy combining mysticism and spiritualism (with heavy influences from Buddhist and Hindu thought) with metaphysics.
• The Society was fashioned as a 'brotherhood' promoting unity.

Additional Information

• In India​
• Adyar was the headquarters of the Theosophical Society established in India.
• In 1882, the headquarters of the Society were established in Adyar, near Madras (now Chennai) in India.
• Theosophy was a philosophy combining mysticism and spiritualism (with heavy influences from Buddhist and Hindu thought) with metaphysics.
• The Society was fashioned as a 'brotherhood' promoting unity.
• The Society was also concerned with preparing the world for the coming of the 'World Teacher' when he arrived on Earth.
• The movement was popularised by Annie Besant in India.
• The Society accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation, Karma and drew inspi­ration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and Samkhya, Yoga, and Vedanta Schools of thought.

The correct answer is Tectonic earthquakes 

Key Points

• Tectonic earthquakes​
• They are the most common earthquakes found all over the world.
• These are generated due to the sliding of rocks along a fault plane.
• It is caused by the movement of plates when energy accumulated within plate boundary zones is released.
• Tectonic earthquakes are usually larger than volcanic earthquakes.

Additional Information

• Volcanic earthquakes
• A special class of tectonic earthquakes is sometimes recognized as a volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes.
• Volcanic earthquakes have different characteristics from the deep and tectonic seismic events that occur along great faults.
• They are considerably less devastating and may continue at a detectable level for weeks or months before the eruption.
• It is caused by the sudden opening of channels in crustal rocks, rapid changes of motion of magma, excessive accumulation of gas pressure in the crust, roof collapses of subterranean channels emptied of magma.
• Seismic Earthquakes
• Seismic earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy due to tectonic movements, such as faults or volcanic activity.
• The energy release is measured in terms of magnitude (size) and intensity (impact), with stronger quakes causing more damage.
• They occur frequently along tectonic plate boundaries, such as the Pacific Ring of Fire.
• Reservoir Earthquakes​
• These earthquakes are caused by the filling of large reservoirs, which changes the stress on the Earth's crust.
• They usually occur near the reservoir or dam, with magnitudes typically lower than seismic earthquakes.
• The weight and pressure of the water can cause the rupture of faults, leading to minor earthquakes.

The correct answer is Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

Key Points

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
• Grameen Kaushalya Yojana or DDU-GKY is a Government of India youth employment scheme.
• It was launched on 25 September 2014 by Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Venkaiah Naidu on the occasion of 98th birth anniversary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya.
• The Vision of DDU-GKY is to "Transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce".
• DDU-GKY has successfully trained thousands of rural youth, providing them with the skills needed to enter various sectors such as construction, retail, hospitality, healthcare, and IT.

Additional Information

• Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Rurban Mission
• ​The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Rurban Mission (SPMRM) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2016 under the Ministry of Rural Development.
• It aims to provide integrated development of rural areas by promoting economic, social, and infrastructural development in rural regions, with the goal of improving the quality of life and creating sustainable livelihoods in rural areas.
• The mission promotes PPP models to foster the involvement of both public and private stakeholders in the development of rurban clusters
• Deendayal Antyoday Yojana - National Rural Livelihood Mission 
• ​Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM) is a government initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 2011 to reduce poverty and enhance the livelihood opportunities of the rural poor in India.
• The mission primarily focuses on empowering rural women through self-help groups (SHGs), improving their economic status, and fostering social inclusion.
• The scheme prioritizes women’s empowerment by organizing rural women into self-help groups (SHGs).

The correct answer is Neena Prasad

Key Points

• Neena Prasad is a renowned and award-winning Mohiniyattam dancer, recognized for her significant contributions to the art form.
• She Holds a Ph.D. in Mohiniyattam, with extensive research on the Lasya element in the dance form.
• She is trained in multiple classical dance forms, including Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi, enhancing her depth in Mohiniyattam.
• She runs Bharatanjali, a dance school in Kerala, to mentor and train new generations of Mohiniyattam dancers.

Additional Information

• famous exponents of classical dances of India:

The correct answer is Seven

Key Points

• The Bringing Green Revolution to Eastern India (BGREI) scheme is implemented in seven eastern states
• ​Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.
• The BGREI scheme was launched in 2010-11 as a sub-scheme of the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).
• The scheme aims to address the challenges that limit the productivity of rice-based cropping systems in these states. 
  

The BGREI scheme promotes the adoption of new seed varieties, farm machines, nutrients, pesticides, and knowledge-based interventions in different agro-climatic zones of the eastern states.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana:
• It was launched in 2007-08.
• Its main aim is to provide support to agriculture and its allied sectors.
• It provides considerable flexibility and autonomy to states in planning and executing programmes for incentivizing investment in agriculture and allied sectors.
• It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
• States initiate the process of decentralized planning for agriculture and allied sectors through the preparation of District Agriculture Plans (DAPs) and State Agriculture Plan (SAP) based on agro-climatic conditions, availability of appropriate technology and natural resources to ensure accommodation of local needs, cropping pattern, priorities etc.
• In 2017 this scheme was changed to Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana- Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR).
• RKVY-RAFTAAR funds would be provided to the States as 60:40 grants between Centre and States (90:10 for the North Eastern States and the Himalayan States).
• The scheme will incentivize States in enhancing more allocation to Agriculture and Allied Sectors.

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

• Maharashtra is among the top three states with the highest population of children in the 0-6 years age group, owing to its large overall population.
• The population of children aged 0-6 years is an important demographic indicator reflecting birth rates and the population composition of states.
• In 2011, the Census of India recorded the distribution of this age group across all states.
• Top Three States (0-6 Age Group Population)
• Uttar Pradesh:
• Uttar Pradesh, the most populous state in India, recorded the highest population of children aged 0-6 years.
• This is due to high fertility rates and the state's overall large population base.
• Bihar:
• Bihar ranked second, owing to its high fertility rate and a significant percentage of young people in its population structure.
• Maharashtra:
• Maharashtra ranked third due to its large population size, even though the fertility rate is relatively lower compared to Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Additional Information

Census 2011

• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.

The correct answer is New Economic Policy

Key Points

• NEP stands for New Economic Policy.
• India announced the NEP in 1991 as a series of economic reforms to improve the country's competitiveness and macroeconomic stability.
• The policy was introduced by Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and launched by Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• The NEP's policies were divided into two groups: stabilization measures and structural reform measures.
• Stabilization measures were short-term measures to control inflation and correct balance of payments weaknesses.
• Structural reform measures were long-term measures to improve the economy's efficiency and international competitiveness.

Additional Information

• Key Features of the New Economic Policy (1991):
• Liberalization:
• Reduction of Government Control: The NEP reduced the control of the government over various economic activities, leading to the dismantling of the License Raj.
• Deregulation: Industries were freed from strict controls and regulations, allowing for easier entry and operation of businesses.
• Privatization:
• Disinvestment of Public Sector Enterprises: The government started reducing its stake in public sector enterprises (PSEs) to improve efficiency and attract private investment.
• Encouragement of Private Sector: Greater role for the private sector in the economy, with less interference from the state.
• Globalization:
• Opening up to Global Markets: The policy encouraged foreign direct investment (FDI) and allowed foreign companies to operate in India.
• Integration with the Global Economy: Reduction in tariffs, quotas, and trade restrictions to make India more competitive globally.
• Financial Sector Reforms:
• Banking Reforms: Liberalization of interest rates, increased competition among banks, and strengthening of the regulatory framework.
• Capital Market Reforms: Modernization of stock markets, establishment of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) to regulate the securities market.
• Tax Reforms:
• Rationalization of Tax Structure: Introduction of reforms to simplify the tax system and improve compliance.
• Objectives of NEP (1991):
• Boost Economic Growth: By opening up the economy, the NEP aimed to increase productivity and efficiency in various sectors.
• Reduce Fiscal Deficit: Addressing the fiscal crisis by reducing government expenditure and increasing revenue.
• Improve Balance of Payments: Encourage exports and attract foreign investment to improve the balance of payments situation.
• Impact of NEP (1991):
• Economic Growth: The NEP led to significant economic growth in India, with higher GDP growth rates in the years following the reforms.
• Increased Foreign Investment: The reforms attracted substantial foreign investment into the country.
• Expansion of Private Sector: The private sector grew rapidly, contributing to job creation and industrial growth.
• Improvement in Infrastructure: Reforms led to better infrastructure development, including telecommunications, power, and transportation.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Shambhu Maharaj was a renowned personality associated with Kathak dance forms.
• Shambhu Maharaj
• He was a Guru of the Indian classical dance form, Kathak, which belongs to Uttar Pradesh.
• He belongs to Lucknow Gharana.
• He received training from his father Kalka Prasad Maharaj, uncle Bindadin Maharaj and his eldest brother Achchan Maharaj.
• Dancer Lachhu Maharaj was also his elder brother.
• In 1952, he joined the Bharatiya Kala Kendra (later, the Kathak Kendra), New Delhi.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1956 and the **Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1967.**​

​

Additional Information

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Important Points

• Kathak is the classical dance of Uttar Pradesh.
• Kathak is considered to have originated from the acts of priests during the prayers in the temple.
• This dance was greatly developed in the royal court of the last Nawab of Awadh, Wajid Ali Shah.
• The period of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah who himself was a Kathak dancer was known as the Golden Age of Art of Awadh.

The correct answer is Country’s residents over a period of time

Key Points

• GNP - Gross National Product
• It is the total value of all the final products and services in a given period in terms of production by a country's residents.
• It is considered an important economic indicator by economists.
• It is used for finding solutions to economic issues such as poverty and inflation.
• It is Country’s residents over a period of time
• The basic distinction between GDP and GNP is the difference in estimating the production output by foreigners in a country and by nationals outside of a country.
• Gross National Product includes government expenditure, personal consumption expenditure, private domestic investments, net exports, and income earned by nationals overseas, and eliminates the income of foreign residents within the domestic economy.

Additional Information Other concepts related to it

• Gross Domestic Product
• It is the value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents as well as non-residents in the domestic territory of the country but does not include Net Factor Income from Abroad.
• The important point to remember is whatever is produced in India, whether by an Indian or foreign national is part of Indian GDP.
• Net National Product
• In the production of GNP of a year, a country uses some fixed assets or capital goods like Machinery, Equipment, and technology, etc.
• The capital goods like machinery, building, and equipment undergo regular wear and tear during the production process, which reduces their value. This fall in the value of capital assets due to regular wear and tear is called depreciation.
• When the Depreciation is deducted from the Gross National Product, then we get Net National Product.

The correct answer is 1980.

Key Points

• The Indian hockey team won a Gold medal in 1980, Moscow Olympics.
• The Indian hockey team defeated Spain by 4-3 and bagged a gold medal on 29 July 1980.
• It was the eighth and last Olympic gold medal won by the Indian Hockey team till now.
• Vasudev Bhaskaran of Tamil Nadu was the captain of the 1980 hockey team.

Additional Information

• The Indian hockey men's team won a bronze medal in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, after 41 years since 1980.
• Team India defeated Germany by 5-4, under the captaincy of Manpreet Singh.
• The headquarters of the Indian Hockey Federation is in New Delhi and its chairperson is Dilip Tirkey.
• Major Dhyanchand of India is known as Wizard Of Hockey.

The correct answer is Both a and b are correct

Key Points

• Statement a: "India has great potential for the development of tidal energy."
• ​This statement is Correct:
• India has great potential for tidal energy due to its long coastline of over 7,500 kilometres, which is exposed to significant tidal movements.
• Tidal energy harnesses the natural rise and fall of ocean tides to generate electricity.
• India has several coastal regions with high tidal ranges, which makes it suitable for developing tidal energy plants.
• India’s vast coastline (with states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh) provides ample opportunity to tap into tidal energy.
• The Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat and the Sundarbans in West Bengal are some areas where tidal power potential is high due to the large tidal ranges.
• Statement b: "A geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh."
• ​This statement is Correct:
• Manikaran, located in Himachal Pradesh, is known for its natural hot springs, which are a result of geothermal activity.
• These geothermal resources have been identified as potential sources of energy.
• The Indian government and researchers have taken steps to harness this geothermal energy for power generation.

Additional InformationThere are several formations of energy.

• Mechanical Energy
• Mechanical energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion or position.
• It is the sum of kinetic energy (energy of motion) and potential energy (energy stored due to position or configuration).
• Sound Energy
• Sound energy is the energy produced by vibrating objects and propagated through a medium (such as air, water, or solids) as sound waves.
• It is a form of mechanical energy because it results from the motion of particles.
• Heat Energy
• Heat energy is the energy that comes from the temperature of matter.
• It is the energy transferred from one body to another due to a difference in temperature, typically flowing from warmer areas to cooler ones.
• Other Types of Energy
• Tidal Energy
• Light Energy
• Chemical Energy
• Atomic Energy
• Nuclear Energy
• Electric Energy
• Magnetic Energy
• Solar Energy

The correct answer is Harmika

Key Points

• The Harmika is located at the topmost part of a stupa.
• It is a square railing-like structure that sits atop the stupa's dome, symbolizing the heavens or the divine realm.
• The Harmika is symbolic of the heavens or the divine realm.
• It represents the connection between the earthly realm and the celestial realm, often interpreted as the abode of the gods or a representation of the Buddhist cosmos.
• The presence of the Harmika is a reminder of the Buddha's teachings transcending the material world.

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Additional Information

• Characteristics of Stupa:
• Initially, mounds of Earth are encased in bricks.
• Stupas are usually built on a foundation laid with blocks of stone or bricks.
• On this foundation, a hemispherical dome was raised called Anda.
• The drum of the stupa became more elongated and elevated.
• It took the form of a cylindrical vessel.
• On the truncated top of the hemisphere, a harmonica is placed, surrounded by a railing.
• The railing is provided with four gateways.
• A path of circumambulation runs around the stupa at the ground level within the railing called Pradakshinapath.
• Toranas were ceremonial gateways around the stupas
• ​The wooden or stone railing that surrounds the stupa called Vedika

The correct answer is Tabla

Key Points

• Sandeep Das
• He is a tabla player and composer who is famous for playing the tabla, a percussion instrument
• He is a leading tabla virtuoso who has collaborated with many top musicians and orchestras around the world.
• He has performed with Yo-Yo Ma and the Silk Road Ensemble, Paquito D'Rivera, Bobby McFarin, and the New York Philharmonic, Boston Symphony, and Chicago Symphony.
• He is also the founder of Harmony and Universality through Music (HUM), a nonprofit organization that promotes global understanding through music.
• He has received many awards, including a Grammy for Best World Music Album for his collaboration with Yo-Yo Ma.

Additional Information

• Famous Percussion Instruments and Their Exponents

The correct answer is Myanmar

Key Points

• Arakan (Rakhine):
• The Arakanese people, also known as Rakhine, are an ethnic group primarily residing in the Rakhine State (formerly Arakan) in Myanmar.
• The Rohingya people are a Muslim ethnic minority in Myanmar, primarily living in the Rakhine State.
• The Rohingyas have faced severe persecution and violence in Myanmar, leading to a humanitarian crisis.
• The conflict has resulted in mass displacement, with many Rohingyas fleeing to neighboring countries, especially Bangladesh.
• Shan:
• The Shan people are one of the largest ethnic groups in Myanmar, predominantly residing in the Shan State in the eastern part of the country.
• These ethnic groups have a distinct cultural and historical identity within Myanmar. They are recognized as part of the country's diverse ethnic composition.

Additional Information

• Myanmar:
• Myanmar, also known as Burma, is a country in Southeast Asia.
• It is bordered by Bangladesh, India, China, Laos, and Thailand.
• The country has a diverse population with over 135 ethnic groups, each with its own language and culture.
• The official language of Myanmar is Burmese, and the majority of the population practices Buddhism.

The correct answer is Assam

Key Points

• The 37th National Junior Athletics Championships 2022 were held in Guwahati, Assam.
• The event took place at the SAI Athletics Stadium in Guwahati, bringing together junior athletes from across the country to compete in various track and field events.
• The event was organized under the aegis of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) in collaboration with the local athletics association in Assam.
• Tajinder Singh (Punjab)
• He clocked a time of 10.60 seconds to win the event, setting a new National Junior Record
• Bharti Sharma (Haryana)
• She finished first with a time of 11.65 seconds.

Additional Information

• The National Junior Athletics Championships is an annual event held by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• The 39th National Junior Athletics Championships took place from October 25–29, 2024 at the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• The AFI also hosts other junior athletics championships, including: 
• North Zone Junior Athletics Championships: Held in 2024 at JLN Stadium in New Delhi from October 10–12
• South Zone Junior Athletics Championships: Held in 2024 at Acharya Nagarjuna University in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh from October 17–19
• East Zone Junior Athletics Championships: Held in 2024 at Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, Odisha from October 7–9
• West Zone Junior Athletics Championships: Held in 2024 at RSTM Nagpur University Ground in Nagpur from October 4–6
• The AFI's registered office is located in Delhi.

The correct answer is Linnaeus

Key Points

• Carolus Linnaeus introduced binomial nomenclature, the modern system of naming organisms, in the 1750s.
• Linnaeus is also known as the "father of modern taxonomy"
• Linnaeus was a Swedish biologist and physician who was born in Råshult, Sweden in 1707.
• Linnaeus classified organisms into two kingdoms: Plantae and Animalia.
• He used a variety of criteria for classification, including cell wall, locomotion, mode of nutrition, and response to external stimuli.

Additional Information

• Aristotle​
• Aristotle is often considered the father of biology due to his extensive work in natural history and his systematic study of living organisms.
• He made detailed observations of plants and animals, classifying them into two broad groups: animals and plants.
• He also introduced the concept of empirical observation and classification of species based on their characteristics.
• Aristotle's classification system was based on physical traits and behaviour.
• He proposed a ladder of life where organisms were organized from simpler forms to more complex ones.
• His works laid the foundation for taxonomy and ecology, though many of his ideas were later revised or replaced by more modern scientific theories.
• John Ray
• ​John Ray was an English naturalist who is considered one of the founders of modern biology and taxonomy.
• Ray’s work was instrumental in the development of the scientific classification of plants and animals.
• He made a distinction between species and varieties and recognized the importance of reproductive isolation in maintaining species.
• In his landmark work, Historia Plantarum (1686), Ray classified plants into families and genera, and established a foundation for later plant classification systems.
• He was also one of the first to define the concept of species as a group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.​
• Charles Darwin 
• ​Charles Darwin is best known for his groundbreaking work on the theory of evolution.
• His theory posited that species evolve over time through the process of natural selection, where traits that are advantageous for survival are more likely to be passed on to future generations.
• His seminal book, On the Origin of Species (1859), proposed that all species of life have descended from common ancestors and that the process of natural selection drives the diversity of life.
• Darwin’s work fundamentally changed the way scientists understood the origin of species and their adaptation to the environment.
• His ideas laid the foundation for modern evolutionary biology and helped explain the diversity of life on Earth.
• Darwin’s theory also influenced various fields, including g**enetics, paleontology, and ethology (study of animal behavior).**​

The correct answer is Wheat and Rice

Key Points

• According to the PRS report of the Ministry of Agriculture, wheat and rice contributed to 78% of India's food grain production up to 2015-16.
• The production of wheat and rice increased after the Green Revolution in the 1960s.
• The Green Revolution began in 1965 when High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds were first introduced in Indian agriculture.
• Wheat production increased the most during this time.
• India is the second largest producer of rice in the world, after China.

Additional Information

• The agriculture sector employs nearly half of the workforce in the country.
• It contributes to 17.5% of the GDP (at current prices in 2015-16).
• The agriculture sector’s contribution has decreased from more than 50% of GDP in the 1950s to 15.4% in 2015-16 at constant prices.
• India’s production of food grains has been increasing every year.
• India is among the top producers of several crops such as pulses, sugarcane, and cotton.
• It is the highest producer of milk and the second highest producer of fruits and vegetables.

The correct answer is fossil fuels

Key Points

• Fossil fuel is formed by natural processes.
• Fossil fuels range from volatile materials with low carbon-to-hydrogen ratios (like methane) to liquids (like petroleum), to nonvolatile materials composed of almost pure carbon, like Anthracite coal.
• It is formed such as the anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms.
• These types of organisms and their resulting fossil fuels typically have an age of millions of years, and sometimes more than 650 million years.
• These types of fuels (Fossil fuels) contain high percentages of carbon and include coal, natural gas, and petroleum.
• Commonly used derivatives of fossil fuels include propane and kerosene.
• Till 2018, the world's main primary energy sources which amount to 85% share for fossil fuels in primary energy consumption in the world consists of
• Coal (27%)
• Petroleum (34%), and
• Natural gas (24%)​

Additional Information

• Renewable resources are natural resources that can be replenished or regenerated, and clean energy resources are renewable resources that have a low or zero carbon footprint:
• Renewable resources
• These resources can be converted into clean energy:
• Wind: The kinetic energy from moving air can be converted into mechanical power.
• Solar: Sunlight can be converted into electricity or heat.
• Water: Hydroelectric power is generated by forcing water through tunnels in a dam to turn turbines.
• Biomass: Organic matter can be burned as fuel.
• Geothermal: Heat energy from the earth's crust can be used for power and heating.
• Clean energy resources
• These renewable resources have a low or zero carbon footprint:
• Solar: Solar power plants use photovoltaic cells to convert sunlight directly into electricity.
• Wind turbines: These machines use the motion of wind to turn blades and produce power.
• Fuel cells: These technologies produce power and heat with low or zero emissions.

The correct answer is 44

Key Points

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 amended Article 38 of the Indian Constitution's Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) to require the state to reduce inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
• Article 38 is based on socialist principles
• It aims to ensure equal opportunities for all citizens.
• It highlights the state's responsibility to establish a social order that promotes social, political, and economic justice

Additional Information

• 42nd Amendment
• This amendment was enacted by the Indira Gandhi-led Indian National Congress during the Emergency.
• It added new Directive Principles, including Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A.
• It also gave the President the power to disqualify members of State Legislatures.
• 43rd Amendment
• This amendment was enacted by the Janata Party after winning the 1977 general elections.
• It repealed six articles from the 42nd Amendment, including the provision that Directive Principles take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
• It also restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in respect of judicial review.
• 40th Amendment
• This amendment empowered Parliament to specify the limits of India's territorial waters, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone (EEZ), and maritime zones.
• The 40th Amendment came into effect on May 27, 1976.
• It made changes in the Ninth Schedule including certain enactments related to land reforms and ceiling on agricultural land holdings.

The correct answer is To provide a place where the terminally ill could die in peace

Key Points

• Mother Teresa established the Nirmal Hriday Hospice to provide a place where the terminally ill could die in peace
• Mother Teresa converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the hospice with the help of Indian officials
• On 22 August 1952, a couple of years after founding the Missionaries of Charity, Mother Teresa inaugurated her first “home for the dying", Nirmal Hriday in Kalighat.
• It is a place where the poorest of the poor can die a “beautiful death", as the nun would often say.

Additional Information

• Mother Teresa was the first woman the close Indian ties to get the 1979 Nobel Peace Prize. 
• Mother Teresa was born in Macedonia (then Ottoman Empire's Uskup) to parents of Albanian descent.
• Mother Teresa came to India in 1929.
• She was sent to Calcutta to be a teacher after she entered a nunnery.
• After coming to India, she decided to serve the poor as she lived amongst them.
• The pious lady was awarded Padma Shri in 1962 and Bharat Ratna in 1980.
• She breathed her last breath on 5 September 1997.

The correct answer is the Use of chemicals for therapeutic purposes

Key Points

• Chemotherapy is a violent form of chemical drug therapy meant to demolish continuously growing cells in the body.
• The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is known as Chemotherapy.
• A doctor who specializes in the treatment of cancer is known as an oncologist.
• It is often used in combination with other therapies such as hormone therapy, surgery, radiation, etc.
• The use of combination therapy depends on the stage and type of cancer the person is having, his/her overall health, previous cancer treatments, location of the cancer cells, and personal treatment preferences.
• Drugs are used to demolish and reduce cancer cells. cells.
• Cancer cells usually grow and divide faster than normal cells and chemotherapy have more of an effect on cancer cells.
• It usually works by controlling the cancer cells from growing, dividing, and making more
• It is primarily used to lower the total number of cancer cells and the likelihood of cancer spreading, shrink tumour size and reduce current symptoms.
• It adversely affects the cells in the blood, hair, skin, and lining of the intestinal tract area.

Additional Information

• Treatment of cancer :
• The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy and immunotherapy.
• In radiotherapy, tumor cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper care of the normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass.
• Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cells.
• Some of these are specific for particular tumors. Majority of drugs have side effects like hair loss, anemia, etc.
• Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
• Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction by immune system.
• Therefore, the patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as α-interferon which activates their immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.

The correct answer is Satyendra Nath Tagore

Key Points

• The first exam for Indian Civil Services was held in London 1855 and not a single Indian went there to give the exam.
• Satyendranath Tagore, the elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service in 1863.
• He was allocated the Bombay Presidency as his cadre.
• Kapur Singh became the first ICS officer to be removed from the services in 1948.

Additional Information

• Surendranath Banerjee​
• Sir Surendranath Banerjee often known as Rashtraguru was an Indian nationalist leader during British Rule.
• He founded a nationalist organization called the Indian National Association and was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.
• Surendranath supported Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, unlike Congress, and with many liberal leaders he left Congress and founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919.
• Surendranath Banerjee was born in Calcutta, in the province of Bengal to a Rarhi Kulin Brahmin family, suggesting that the ancestral seat of the family was in the Rarh region of present-day West Bengal.
• In 1879, he bought the newspaper, The Bengalee(founded in 1862 by Girish Chandra Ghosh) and edited it for 40 years in b, when Banerjee was arrested for publishing remarks in his pape
• Subhas Chandra Bose 
• Subhas Chandra Bose was born on 23rd January 1897 in Cuttack, Orissa.
• One of the greatest freedom fighters of India popularly known as Netaji.
• Subhas Chandra Bose was elected twice as the president of the INC in the Haripura session in 1938 and the Tripuri session in 1939.
• Subhas Chandra Bose founded the All India Forward Bloc on 22nd June 1939.
• Subhash Chandra Bose is believed to have died from the 3rd-degree burn from a plane crash in Taiwan on 18th August 1945.
• C. Rajagopalachari
• ​He popularly known as Rajaji, was the last governor-general of India.
• C. Rajagopalachari succeeded Lord Mountbatten as governor-general of India from 1948 to 1950.
• After C.Rajagopalachari, the title of the governor was abolished and replaced by the President of India.
• C. Rajagopalachari also has the distinction of being the first Indian governor-general of India.

The correct answer is Thirty-Three

Key Points

• As per the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019 the sanctioned judge strength of the Supreme Court of India, excluding the Chief Justice of India, is set at 33.
• This means that the total number of judges in the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice, can be 34.
• The amendment was made to address the growing workload of the Court and improve its efficiency in handling cases.
• Prior to the amendment, the maximum number of judges in the Supreme Court was 31 (including the Chief Justice of India).

Additional Information

• The Supreme Court of India, which is located on Tilak Marg in New Delhi, was established on January 26, 1950.
• It took the place of both the Federal Court of India and the Privy Council's Judicial Committee, which were at the time the highest courts in India.
• However, the first hearings and inauguration were held on January 28, 1950, at 9:45 a.m., when the judges took their seats.
• As a result, the date of establishment is considered official.
• The Supreme Court of India is India's top court and the highest judicial authority.
• It is the highest-ranking constitutional court with judicial review authority.
• The Supreme Court of India, which has a maximum of 34 judges and vast powers in the form of original, appellate, and advisory jurisdictions, is led by the Chief Justice of India.
• As India's supreme constitutional court, it hears appeals mostly from high courts in various states of the Union, as well as other courts and tribunals.

The correct answer is Central Asia

Key Points

• The term Shaka is the Indian term for the people known as the Scythians, who originally came from Central Asia.
• The Sakas were nomadic people who migrated to the Indian subcontinent in the early centuries CE.
• They were known for their military prowess and horsemanship.
• The Sakas established their rule in parts of India and played a significant role in shaping the region's history and culture
• The Saka Era is a historical calendar system in India that started in 78 CE.
• It was used in India and Southeast Asia throughout the medieval period.

Additional Information

• he Saka Era was probably established by King Maeus around the second century A.D.
• The Shakas who were also known as the Indo-Scythians were a group of Iranian nomadic people who invaded India by destroying the Indo-Greeks in North-West India.
• The Shakas brought the larger part of the country under their control.
• The most famous Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman who ruled from 130 A.D to 150 A.D.
• There were five branches of Shakas who settled and established rule in different regions of the North and North-Western parts of the Indian subcontinent.
• The Saka era came to an end with the defeat of the last Shaka ruler, Rudrasimha III by Chandragupta-II of the Gupta dynasty

The correct answer is Malik Kafur

Key Points

• Malik Kafur was the commander of Alauddin Khilji’s forces during his Deccan Campaigns.
• Malik Kafur was a slave who became a general in the army of Alauddin Khilji, ruler of the Delhi sultanate from 1296 to 1316 A.D.
• Malik Kafur has led to two successful campaigns in South India.
• The first was against the Kakatiyas of Warangal and the second against Hoysalas.
• In the Siege of Warangal, Malik Kafur defeated Prataprudra of the Kakatiya dynasty in 1310 AD.
• Warangal was the capital of the Kakatiya dynasty.
• In the siege of Devagiri, Malik Kafur defeated the Yadava dynasty in 1308 AD.
• In the siege of Dwarasamudra, Kafur defeated the Hoysala dynasty in 1311 AD.

Additional Information

• Alauddin Khalji:
• He was the emperor of the Khalji dynasty.
• He was known to drive back the Mongols invasion from India.
• He had made significant administrative changes.
• He was buried in Qutab Minar in Delhi.

The correct answer is to collect land revenue

Key Points

• The Mughal official Amal-Guzar primarily performed the function of to collect land revenue
• This role was crucial in the Mughal administrative system, as the Amal-Guzar was responsible for assessing the agricultural produce and determining the revenue to be collected from the peasants.
• Land revenue collection is divided into two steps:
• Assessment (jama/tashkhis): An evaluation was done to address the state demand.
• actual collecting (hasil): On the basis of assessment demand, actual collection was done separately for kharif and rabi crops.

Additional Information

• The Mughal division of the empire into subas, or governorships, sarkars, or districts, and parganas served as the foundation for the Mughal revenue system.
• It was made up of a handful of settlements that occasionally resembled mahals.
• The revenue staff was also required to carry out many administrative tasks, such as recruiting soldiers and maintaining public order.
• The principal imperial building served as the inspiration for the suba.
• The primary characteristic of the agrarian system under the Mughals was alienation from the peasant of his surplus produce in the form of land income.
• British administrators saw land earnings as soil rent because they believed the king to be the land's owner.
• In his Ain-i Akbari, Abul Fazl justifies the state's imposition of taxes by arguing that they are a price to be paid for sovereignty in exchange for security and justice.
• During the Mughal era, land revenue was referred to as mal and mal wajib in Persian.
• The land was classified into four groups during the Mughal era: Polaj, Parati, Chachar, and Banjar.
• For the various types of land, different revenues were set.
• Polaj: The area known as "polaj" is always planted with a different crop each year and is never permitted to go uncultivated.
• Chachar: Chachar was a type of land that was first left fallow for three to four years before being replanted.
• Banjar: Banjar was the lowest tier of land that had been uncultivated for at least five years.

The correct answer is Sikkim

Key Points

• Sakewa is a religious festival celebrated by the Kirat Khambu Rai community of Sikkim.
• It is also known as the Bhoomi puja or Chandi puja (worship of mother earth).
• The festival begins on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Baisakh, which usually falls in April/May.
• Other festivals celebrated in Sikkim: Maghe Sankranti, Sonam Lochar, Losar, Ramnawami (Chaite Dasain), Sakewa, Saga Dawa, Pang Lhabsol, Tamu Lochar.

Additional Information List of a religious festival in a different state in India:

The correct answer is Ustad Zakir Hussain

Key Points

• Zakir Hussain is an Indian tabla player, composer, percussionist, music producer and film actor.
• Popularly known as the Tabla Maestro, Ustad Zakir Hussain is arguably the most famous Tabla player in our country in the post-independence era.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1988, and the Padma Bhushan in 2002, by the Government of India presented by President Abdul Kalam.
• The pre-eminent tabla virtuoso of time, Zakir is one of the world's great musicians, esteemed as a groundbreaking collaborator, composer, and cultural icon.
• Born to tabla maestro, Alla Rakha and Bavi Begum in Mahim, Mumbai on March 9, 1951, Zakir Hussain had an inclination for playing the tabla at a very young age.
• Hussain learned to play the mridang (a classical percussion instrument) from his father when he was just 3 and began performing at concerts by the age of 12.

Additional Information

• Ustad Bismillah Khan ​
• Ustad Bismillah Khan used to play Shehnai.
• Ustad Bismillah Khan (1916 – 2006) (Real name is Qamaruddin Khan), was an Indian musician credited with popularizing the Shehnai.
• Shehnai is a musical instrument that is similar to the oboe (common in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.)
• He was felicitated with several awards including:
• Padma Shri in 1961
• Padma Bhushan in 1968
• Padma Vibhushan in 1980
• Bharat Ratna in 2001
• He also played the Shehnai at the 1st Republic Day celebration in 1950.
• Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
• Ustad Amjad Ali Khan born on 9th October 1945 is an Indian classical sarod player, best known for his clear and fast ekhara taans.
• Ustad Amjad Khan was honored with Padma Shri in 1975, Padma Bhushan in 1991, and Padma Vibhushan in 2001.
• Ustad Amjad Khan was also awarded 21st Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavna Award, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1989, and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 2011.
• Sarod: It is a stringed instrument.
• Sarod known for its deep, weighty, introspective sound, widely used in folk music.
• The U.S. state of Massachusetts proclaimed 20 April as Amjad Ali Khan Day in 1984.
• Ghulam Ali​
• Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was born in Kasur, of the erstwhile Punjab Province, British India in 1902
• Following the partition of India in 1947, Kasur Tehsil was allocated to Pakistan. At the age of five, Bade Ghulam began training in vocal music from his chacha Kale Khan, and later from his father.
• The most famous stalwart of Hindustani music, Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was frustrated with a social set-up that found it difficult to honour his gift as a singer and migrated to India in the early '50s.

The correct answer is 10%

Key Points

• To calculate the mass by mass percentage of the solution,
• we need to divide the mass of sugar by the total mass of the solution (sugar + water) and then multiply by 100%.
• Total mass of the solution: 50 g (sugar) + 450 g (water) = 500 g
• Mass by mass percentage: (50 g sugar / 500 g solution) * 100% = 10%

Additional Information

• Mass percentage is a way to express the concentration of a component (like a solute) in a mixture (like a solution).
• It tells you how many grams of that component are present in 100 grams of the total mixture.
• Calculation of Mass percentage
• ​Mass percentage = (Mass of component / Total mass of mixture) * 100%

The correct answer is Strike and Dip

Key Points

• Geologists commonly use "strike and dip" to describe the orientation of rock beds, faults, fractures, cuestas, igneous dikes, and sills.
• Strike 
• It refers to the direction of the horizontal line formed by the intersection of a rock layer and a horizontal plane
• It is typically expressed in degrees, using a compass direction (e.g., North-South, East-West).
• It represents the direction of the trend of the bedding planes (i.e., the rock layer's horizontal orientation
• Dip 
• It indicates the angle at which the rock layer is inclined relative to the horizontal plane.
• It is expressed as an angle, with the dip direction being the direction in which the rock layer is tilted downward.
• Dip is always measured perpendicular to the strike.

Additional Information

• Scale Indicator
• A scale indicator is a symbol used on maps, charts, and diagrams to represent the scale of the map.
• It indicates the relationship between a distance on the map and the actual distance in the real world.
• For example, a scale might show that 1 cm on the map equals 100 meters in reality.
• Average Directional Index (ADX)
• ​The Average Directional Index (ADX) is a statistical tool used in technical analysis in finance and trading.
• It is used to measure the strength of a trend in the market (whether the trend is strong or weak)
• Compass Rose
• ​A compass rose is a diagram showing directions (North, South, East, West, and intermediate directions) on a map, chart, or compass.
• It provides orientation and helps in navigation.

The correct answer is Maurya 

Key Points

• The Mauryan dynasty arose as a result of Alexander's invasion of India
• The Nanda dynasty ruled over North India when Alexander invaded in 326 BCE.
• The last ruler of the Nanda dynasty was Dhana Nanda.
• Chandragupta Maurya overthrew Dhana Nanda and laid the foundation for the Mauryan dynasty.
• Alexander's invasion of India also had an indirect effect on the rise of the Yavana power in Bactria, which ruled for over a century.

Additional Information

• Pandya Dynasty​
• The Pandya kingdom was a Tamil kingdom in south India.
• Madurai was the capital of the Pandyan dynasty until the middle of the 14th century and Korkai was also the capital and port city of Pandya.
• The third capital was Tenkasi until the end of the 16th century.
• The Pandyas revived under Kadungon (590 – 620 CE) towards the end of the 6th century, helped to disestablish the Kalabhras in south India.
• Chalukya Dynasty
• ​Pulakeshin I established the Chalukya dynasty in 543.
• Pulakeshin I took Vatapi (modern Badami in Bagalkot district, Karnataka) under his control and made it his capital.
• "Chalukyas of Badami" is how Pulakeshin I and his descendants are known.
• They ruled over an empire that comprised the entire state of Karnataka and most of Andhra Pradesh in the Deccan.
• Pallava Dynasty​
• Kalabhara rule for 250 years after Sangam Age in Tamil country.
• The Pallava dynasty situated in Tondaimandalam and capital at Kanchipuram.
• Source of Pallava was disputed while many consider them to natives.
• They Issued earlier inscriptions in Sanskrit & Prakrit & patronized Brahmanism.
• Samundragupta defeated to Vishnugopa in his Southern expedition.

The correct answer is Speculative

Key Points

• The phenomenon of liquidity trap is based on the speculative aspect of demand for money
• A liquidity trap is an economic situation where people hoard financial capital instead of investing or consuming it as the interest rates are low and savings rates are high which renders the monetary policy ineffective.
• Speculative demand for money is inversely related to the rate of interest i.e. higher the rate of interest smaller will be speculative demand for money and vice versa.
• Therefore curve of speculative demand for money is downward sloping to right.
• A liquidity trap is caused when people hoard cash because they expect an adverse event such as deflation, insufficient aggregate demand, or war.

Additional Information

• Transaction demand
• Transaction demand is the amount of money people and companies need for their daily transactions.
• It's a determinant of the demand for money, along with asset demand and precautionary demand.
• In a healthy economy, transaction demand is high because people want more goods and services.
• Example
• ​Carrying cash to buy groceries, utensils, or a train ticket is an example of transaction demand.
• Precautionary Demand
• The precautionary demand for money is the act of holding real balances of money for use in a contingency.
• As receipts and payments cannot be perfectly foreseen, people hold precautionary balances to minimize the potential loss arising from a contingency.
• Example
• ​Saving for emergencies: A family may increase their savings during a recession to cover unexpected expenses like job loss or medical emergencies.
• Velocity of circulation
• ​If the velocity of money is increasing, then the velocity of circulation is an indicator that transactions between individuals are occurring more frequently.
• A higher velocity is a sign that the same amount of money is being used for a number of transactions.
• A high velocity indicates a high degree of inflation

The correct answer is Liberalisation

Key Points

• The process of removing government-imposed limits or impediments is known as liberalization
• Liberalization is the process of removing government-imposed barriers or restrictions.
• This can occur when something that was previously prohibited is no longer prohibited, or when government regulations are reduced
• Example
• ​In 1991, India lifted restrictions and opened up its economy for foreign investors.
• This was part of the LPG Reforms, which had three pillars: liberalization, privatization, and globalization.

Additional Information

• Privatization:
• It is the increment of the dominating role of private sector companies and the reduced role of public sector companies.
• In other words, it is the reduction of ownership of the management of a government-owned enterprise.
• Government companies can be converted into private companies in two ways:
• By disinvestment
• By withdrawal of governmental ownership and management of public sector companies.
• Globalization:
• It means integrating the economy of one country with the global economy.
• During Globalization the main focus is on foreign trade & private and institutional foreign investment.
• The main aim of Globalization is to transform the world towards independence and integration of the world as a whole by setting various strategic policies.
• Globalization is attempting to create a borderless world, wherein the need of one country can be driven from across the globe and turn into one large economy.

The logic followed here is:

First row - 56, 16, 60

56 ÷ 2 + 16 x 2 = 60

28 + 16 x 2 = 60

28 + 32 = 60

60 = 60 (LHS = RHS)

And,

Second row - 64, 18, 68

64 ÷ 2 + 18 x 2 = 68

32 + 18 x 2 = 68

32 + 36 = 68

68 = 68 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

Third row - 72, 20, ?

72 ÷ 2 + 20 x 2 = ?

36 + 20 x 2 = ?

36 + 40 = ?

76 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given series: D _ A _ W _ S _ E W _ S A E _ D _ A E _ 

Option 1) SEDADWSW → D S A E W D S A E W D S A E W D S A E W → (It follows the pattern of: DSAEW - DSAEW - DSAEW - DSAEW)

Option 2) SEDADWES → D S A E W D S A E W D S A E W D E A E S → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 3) SEDADSSW → D S A E W D S A E W D S A E S D S A E W → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 4) SEDADESW → D S A E W D S A E W D S A E E D S A E W → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. 

1) Umesh is sitting second to the right of Unnati.

2) Utsav is an immediate neighbour of both Umesh and Uday. 

3) Utpal is sitting third to the left of Uday.

4) Udit is an immediate neighbour of both Uday and Unnati.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, Utpal is an immediate neighbour of both Umesh and Unnati.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some comets are planets → Follow (As some stars are planets and all stars are comets. As whole stars comes in comets and has some part common with planets, therefore it is true.)

II. Some planets are stars → Follow (As some stars are planets. As stars has some part common with planets, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

All the elements at the corner shift clockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements interchange positions.

2) Second box series →

The bottom elements and 3rd element of 1st row from the left shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) - 1 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 14 : 27

⇒ (14 × 2) - 1 = 28 - 1 = 27.

For, 17 : 33

⇒ (17 × 2) - 1 = 34 - 1 = 33.

Similarly, for 24 ∶ ?

⇒ (24 × 2) - 1 = 48 - 1 = 47.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

1. The number of lines is increasing subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The number of squares in the given figure is shown below :

1) Number of squares are = 12 + 22 ⇒ 5

As there are 2 same figures, therefore = (5 × 2) → 10 squares

2) Number of squares are = 2

Thus, as marked there are a total of (10 + 2) = 12 squares.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As R is common on both the dice, it is clear that C, P, A, and B are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e., Q will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

A → C

P → B

R → Q

So, the opposite side of "C" will be side "A".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: 35 + 76 ÷ 98 × 3 – 6 = 62

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) ÷ and × 

Given: 35 + 76 − 98 ÷ 3 × 6 = 62

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 35 + 76 − 98 × 3 ÷ 6 = 62

⇒ 35 + 76 − 98 × 0.5 = 62

⇒ 35 + 76 − 49 = 62

⇒  111 − 49 = 62

⇒ 62 = 62

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) = and × 

Given: 35 + 76 − 98 ÷ 3 × 6 = 62

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 35 + 76 − 98 ÷ 3 = 6 × 62

⇒ 35 + 76 − 32.67 = 372

⇒ 111 − 32.67 = 372

⇒ 78.33 ≠ 62

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) + and × 

Given: 35 + 76 − 98 ÷ 3 × 6 = 62

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 35 × 76 − 98 ÷ 3 + 6 = 62

⇒ 35 × 76 − 32.67 + 6 = 62

⇒ 2,660 − 32.67 + 6 = 62

⇒ 2,633.33 ≠ 62

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) – and +

Given: 35 + 76 − 98 ÷ 3 × 6 = 62

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 35 - 76 + 98 ÷ 3 × 6 = 62

⇒ 35 - 76 + 196 = 62

⇒ 231 - 76 = 62

⇒ 155 ≠ 62

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

All the elements at the shift clockwise subsequently.

The bottom left corner element is replaced by new element.

2) Second box series →

The top row elements interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

MUSIC is coded as 13 - 21 - 19 - 9 - 3

And,

BAND is coded as 2 - 1 - 14 - 4

Similarly,

HARMONIUM is coded as

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 6 is common on both the dice II and III, it is clear that 1, 5, 2, and 4 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 3 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

5 → 4

1 → 2

6 → 3

So, the opposite side of "3" will be side "6".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Countries and their Capitals.

Here,

Norway : Oslo  → Oslo is the capital city of Norway.

Similarly,

Iran : Tehran  → Tehran is the capital city of Iran.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given Equation: 24 D (1 A 7) C 2 A 7 B 12 B (5 C 4) = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 24 ÷ (1 + 7) - 2 + 7 × 12 × (5 - 4) = ?

⇒ 24 ÷ 8 - 2 + **7 × 1​2 **× 1 = ?

⇒ 3 - 2 + 84 = ?

⇒  87 - 2 = 85.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given:

Interest rate for first 3 years = 4% p.a.

Interest rate for next 4 years = 8% p.a.

Interest rate for period beyond 7 years = 12% p.a.

Simple interest obtained in 11 years = Rs. 27,600

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Let the principal amount be Rs. P.

SI for first 3 years at 4% = (P × 4 × 3) / 100 = 12P / 100

SI for next 4 years at 8% = (P × 8 × 4) / 100 = 32P / 100

SI for the last 4 years at 12% = (P × 12 × 4) / 100 = 48P / 100

Total SI for 11 years = 12P / 100 + 32P / 100 + 48P / 100

Total SI for 11 years = (12P + 32P + 48P) / 100

Total SI for 11 years = 92P / 100

Given total SI = Rs. 27,600

Therefore, 92P / 100 = 27,600

⇒ P = (27,600 × 100) / 92

⇒ P = 30,000

The sum lent is Rs. 30,000.

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 20% = 1/5 → (Principal : Amount) = 5 : 6

For 2 years, equate instalments: (5 × 6 : 6 × 6) and (5² : 6²)

Year 1: 30 : 36 | Year 2: 25 : 36

Total Principal = 30 + 25 = 55 units

55 units = ₹66,550 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹1,210

Each instalment = 36 units = 36 × 1,210 = ₹43,560

∴ The correct answer is ₹43,560.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹66,550

Rate of Interest (R) = 20% p.a.

Number of instalments (n) = 2

Formula Used:

P = x / (1 + R/100)¹ + x / (1 + R/100)² where x = instalment value.

Calculation:

⇒ 66,550 = x / (1 + 20/100) + x / (1 + 20/100)²

⇒ 66,550 = x / 1.2 + x / 1.44

⇒ 66,550 = (1.2x + x) / 1.44

⇒ 66,550 = 2.2x / 1.44

⇒ x = (66,550 × 1.44) / 2.2

⇒ x = 30,250 × 1.44

⇒ x = 43,560

∴ The correct answer is ₹43,560.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Instalment Formula

For n years, Principal P = x [1/k + 1/k² + ... + 1/kⁿ], where k = (1 + R/100) and x is the annual instalment.

Simple Interest Instalment

In SI, the instalment x = (100 × A) / [100n + RTn(n−1)/2], where A is the total debt amount to be paid.

Effective Rate of Interest

For CI, the effective rate for 2 years is R + R + (R × R)/100. For 20%, it is 20 + 20 + 4 = 44%.

Given:

Price this year (P1) = ₹120

Price after this year (P2) = ₹140

Overall price increase in two years = 25%

Formula used:

The formula for percentage increase is:

$\text{Percentage Increase} = \frac{\text{New Price} - \text{Old Price}}{\text{Old Price}} \times 100$

Calculations:

First, calculate the percentage increase this year:

⇒ $\text{Percentage Increase} = \frac{140 - 120}{120} \times 100 = 16.67$

Now, the total percentage increase after two years is 25%. The remaining percentage increase for the next year is:

⇒ $\text{Remaining Increase} = 25$

However, the percentage increase for the next year should be calculated on the new price (₹140). Let the percentage increase for the next year be $\text{r}$:

⇒ $\text{New Price after two years} = 140 \times \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right) = 120 \times 1.25$

⇒ $\text{140} \times \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right) = 150$

⇒ $\left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right) = \frac{150}{140} = 1.0714$

⇒ $\frac{r}{100} = 1.0714 - 1 = 0.0714$

⇒ $\text{r} = 7.14$

Thus, the percentage increase in the next year is 7.14%.

Given:

Surface area of the sphere = 2500π cm²

Formula Used:

Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Diameter of the sphere = 2r

Calculation:

Let the radius of the sphere be r cm.

Surface area = 4πr²

2500π = 4πr²

Dividing both sides by π:

2500 = 4r²

Dividing both sides by 4:

625 = r²

Taking the square root of both sides:

r = 25 cm

Diameter = 2r

Diameter = 2 × 25

Diameter = 50 cm

The diameter of the sphere is 50 cm.

Given:

The price of an article has been reduced by 20%.

Formula Used:

Restoration Percentage = $\frac{Reduction Percentage}{(100 - Reduction Percentage)} \times 100$

Calculation:

Reduction Percentage = 20%

New Price = 100% - 20% = 80%

Restoration Percentage = $\frac{20}{80} \times 100$

Restoration Percentage = $\frac{1}{4} \times 100$

Restoration Percentage = 25%

Restoration Factor = 25/100 = 0.25

To restore the original price, the new price must be increased by 0.25 or 25%.

Given:

1. 15 ∶ 20

2. 7 ∶ 21

3. 21 ∶ 25

4. 17 ∶ 25

Formula Used:

To find the smallest ratio, convert each ratio to its simplest form and compare.

Calculation:

1. 15 ∶ 20

⇒ 15/20

⇒ 3/4

⇒ 0.75

2. 7 ∶ 21

⇒ 7/21

⇒ 1/3

⇒ 0.333

3. 21 ∶ 25

⇒ 21/25

⇒ 0.84

4. 17 ∶ 25

⇒ 17/25

⇒ 0.68

Comparing all ratios:

0.75, 0.333, 0.84, 0.68

The smallest ratio is 0.333, which corresponds to option 2 (7 ∶ 21).

Given:

Cost price (CP) of guavas = ₹300 per kg.

Selling price (SP) of guavas = ₹25 per 100 gm.

Formula Used:

1 kg = 1000 gm

Profit or Loss percentage = ((SP - CP) / CP) × 100

Calculation:

SP of 1 kg of guavas = 25 × 10 = ₹250

CP of 1 kg of guavas = ₹300

Profit or Loss = SP - CP

⇒ Profit or Loss = 250 - 300

⇒ Profit or Loss = -50

Since the result is negative, it's a loss.

Loss percentage = ((-50) / 300) × 100

⇒ Loss percentage = (-50 / 300) × 100

⇒ Loss percentage = -16.67%

The correct answer is option 1: a loss of 16.67%.

Given:

Number of people = 25

Working hours per day = 15

Work completed = 5 units

Number of days = 8

Number of people to complete new work = 12

Working hours per day for new work = 20

New work to be completed = 10 units

Formula Used:

Work = Number of people × Number of hours per day × Number of days

Calculation:

Let the total work in man-hours be W.

W = 25 × 15 × 8

W = 3000 man-hours for 5 units of work

Therefore, 1 unit of work = 3000 / 5

1 unit of work = 600 man-hours

So, 10 units of work = 600 × 10

10 units of work = 6000 man-hours

Now, we have 12 people working 20 hours a day to complete 10 units of work.

Let the number of days required be D.

Work = 12 × 20 × D

Therefore, 12 × 20 × D = 6000

⇒ D = 6000 / (12 × 20)

⇒ D = 6000 / 240

⇒ D = 25

The number of days required is 25 days.

The correct answer is option 1.

Shortcut Trick

When a solid sphere is moulded into n smaller balls, the ratio of radii is the cube root of the ratio of volumes.

Volume of large sphere = 8 × Volume of small ball

⇒ R³ = 8 × r³

⇒ R = 2 × r

⇒ 20 = 2 × r ⇒ r = 10 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of large solid sphere (R) = 20 cm

Number of small spherical balls (n) = 8

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of large sphere = 8 × Volume of one small ball

⇒ (4/3) × π × (20)³ = 8 × (4/3) × π × r³

⇒ 20 × 20 × 20 = 8 × r³

⇒ 8000 = 8 × r³

⇒ r³ = 1000

⇒ r = ³√1000

⇒ r = 10 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Additional Information

Surface Area of Sphere

The total surface area of a solid sphere is given by the formula 4 × π × r².

Volume Conservation

When one solid object is recast or moulded into another shape, the total volume remains constant.

Hemisphere Properties

Volume of hemisphere = (2/3)πr³ and Total Surface Area = 3πr².

Given:

Marked price of the bag = Rs. 1,050

Discount offered = 10%

Profit made = 5%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) - Discount

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price / (1 + Profit%)

Calculation:

Discount = 10% of Marked Price

Discount = 10% of Rs. 1,050

Discount = Rs. 105

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price - Discount

SP = Rs. 1,050 - Rs. 105

SP = Rs. 945

Profit% = 5% = 5/100 = 0.05

Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + 0.05)

⇒ CP = Rs. 945 / 1.05

⇒ CP = Rs. 900

The cost price of the bag is Rs. 900.

Given:

Prime numbers between 20 and 30: 23, 29

Formula Used:

Sum of the squares of prime numbers = p₁² + p₂²

Calculation:

Prime numbers between 20 and 30 are 23 and 29.

Sum of their squares = 23² + 29²

23² = 529

29² = 841

⇒ 529 + 841

⇒ 1370

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

The numbers to consider are: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², and 9²

Formula used:

The formula for the average is:

$\text{Average} = \frac{\text{Sum of the terms}}{\text{Number of terms}}$

Calculations:

First, calculate the squares of the numbers:

1² = 1

2² = 4

3² = 9

4² = 16

5² = 25

6² = 36

7² = 49

8² = 64

9² = 81

Now, calculate the sum of these squares:

⇒ Sum = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + 36 + 49 + 64 + 81 = 285

Next, calculate the average:

⇒ Average = $\frac{285}{9} = \frac{95}{3}$

Converting into mixed fraction: $31 \frac{2}{3}$

Therefore, the average is $31 \frac{2}{3}$

Given:

Numbers: 15, 35, 42, 72

Formula Used:

The least common multiple (LCM) of multiple numbers is the smallest number that is a multiple of each of the numbers.

Calculation:

Prime factorization of each number:

15 = 3 × 5

35 = 5 × 7

42 = 2 × 3 × 7

72 = 2³ × 3²

LCM is found by taking the highest power of each prime factor:

LCM = 2³ × 3² × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 8 × 9 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 72 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 360 × 7

⇒ LCM = 2520

The least common multiple of 15, 35, 42, and 72 is 2520.

Given:

The train approaches a tunnel MN, with a dog inside the tunnel at a point located at a distance of $\frac{1}{3}$ of the total length of the tunnel (i.e., the distance from M to N).

When the train whistles, the dog runs. If the dog runs towards the entrance M, the train catches the dog exactly at M. If the dog runs towards the exit N, the train catches the dog exactly at N.

Calculations:

Let the length of the tunnel be x.

The distance of the train and entrance M be y.

Let the speeds of the train and dog be t and d respectively.

Hence, when the dog runs 2x/5, the train covers y.

⇒ (2x/5)/d = y/t      ----(i)

When the dog runs 3x/5 to the other end, the train covers x + y

⇒ (3x/5)/d = (x + y)/t      ----(ii)

∴ taking ratio of (ii) to (i) ⇒ 3/2 = (x + y)/y

⇒ 3y = 2x + 2y

⇒ y = 2x       ----(iii)

Substituting (iii) in (i)

(2x/5)/d = 2x/t

⇒ t = 5d

The ratio of the speed of dog and train is 1 : 5

Given:

The numbers are 256, 136, and 436.

Formula Used:

To find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of three numbers, we use the Euclidean algorithm.

Calculation:

First, find the HCF of 256 and 136:

256 = 2⁸

136 = 2³ × 17

Common factor = 2³ = 8

Next, find the HCF of 8 and 436:

436 = 2² × 109

Common factor with 8 = 2² = 4

Therefore, the HCF of 256, 136, and 436 is 4.

The correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is Left Align.

Key Points

• Left Align is the default text alignment in Microsoft Word 365.
• It aligns the text along the left margin, creating a straight left edge and a ragged right edge.
• This alignment is most commonly used in documents, as it is easy to read and follows the natural way of reading from left to right.
• It is ideal for most types of text, including paragraphs, lists, and headings.

Additional Information

• Center Align
• Aligns the text to the center of the page, creating ragged edges on both sides.
• Often used for titles, headings, and short lines of text.
• Provides a formal and balanced appearance.
• Right Align
• Aligns the text to the right margin, creating a straight right edge and a ragged left edge.
• Used for special formatting needs such as date and time in headers or footers.
• Justify
• Aligns the text to both the left and right margins, creating straight edges on both sides.
• Commonly used in newspapers and magazines to give a clean and formal appearance.
• Can create uneven spacing between words if not used carefully.

The correct answer is Right-click on an existing row or column and select 'Insert' from the context menu..

Key Points

• Right-clicking on an existing row or column opens the context menu which contains the 'Insert' option.
• The 'Insert' option allows you to add a new row above the selected row or a new column to the left of the selected column.
• This action is straightforward and is supported in most spreadsheet applications such as Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, and LibreOffice Calc.
• Inserting new rows or columns helps in organizing data more effectively and can be used to expand the existing dataset.

Additional Information

• Spreadsheet Basics:
• A spreadsheet is a digital document that arranges data in rows and columns, making it easier to organize, analyze, and visualize data.
• Common spreadsheet applications include Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, and LibreOffice Calc.
• Spreadsheets are widely used for financial calculations, data analysis, project management, and more.
• Context Menu:
• The context menu is a pop-up menu that appears when you right-click on a specific area or object within a software application.
• It provides quick access to commonly used commands relevant to the selected area or object.
• In the context of spreadsheets, the context menu typically includes options like 'Insert', 'Delete', 'Cut', 'Copy', 'Paste', and formatting options.
• Inserting Rows and Columns:
• Inserting a row adds a new row above the selected row, shifting the existing rows down.
• Inserting a column adds a new column to the left of the selected column, shifting the existing columns to the right.
• This feature is useful for adding new data without overwriting existing data in the spreadsheet.
• Keyboard Shortcuts:
• Keyboard shortcuts can streamline your workflow and increase productivity. For example, in Excel, you can use 'Ctrl + Shift + +' to quickly insert a new row or column.
• Learning and utilizing keyboard shortcuts can save time and improve efficiency when working with spreadsheets.

The correct answer is Formula bar.

Key Points

• The Formula bar in Microsoft Excel is the place where you can see and edit the formula for the currently selected cell.
• It is located directly above the worksheet area and below the Ribbon, making it easily accessible while working on the spreadsheet.
• The Formula bar displays both the formula and the result of the formula, offering a clear understanding of how the result is derived.
• Using the Formula bar allows you to easily modify existing formulas without having to re-enter them completely, thus saving time and reducing errors.

Additional Information

• Watch Window:
• The Watch Window in Excel is a feature that allows you to monitor the values of specific cells while working in different parts of your workbook. This is particularly useful in large workbooks where the cells you need to monitor are not visible on the screen.
• Precedents:
• Precedent cells are those cells that are referred to by a formula in another cell. In Excel, you can use the 'Trace Precedents' feature to show arrows that indicate which cells affect the value of the currently selected cell.
• Auditing Toolbar:
• The Auditing Toolbar in Excel contains tools that help you to trace errors and understand the relationship between cells in a formula. It includes features like 'Trace Precedents', 'Trace Dependents', 'Evaluate Formula', and 'Error Checking'.

The correct answer is Home.

Key Points

• In MS Word 365, the Home tab contains the options for Bullets and Numbering.
• The Home tab is the default tab when a document is opened.
• It includes various options such as font settings, paragraph settings, and lists settings which include bullets and numbering.
• The Bullets and Numbering features are used to organize content in lists, making the information easier to read and follow.

Additional Information

• Page Layout Tab
• The Page Layout tab provides options for setting page margins, orientation, size, columns, and other page setup options.
• It also includes tools for arranging objects on the page and managing text wrapping.
• Edit Tab
• MS Word 365 does not have a specific tab named "Edit".
• Editing options are generally found under the Home tab or the Review tab.
• File Tab
• The File tab is used for managing documents and contains options such as Save, Open, Close, Print, Share, and other document-related operations.
• This tab also provides access to document properties and settings.

The correct answer is To include additional recipients who should be kept informed.

Key Points

• The CC field stands for "Carbon Copy" and is used to include additional recipients in an email.
• Recipients listed in the CC field receive a copy of the email, but are not the primary audience.
• It allows the sender to keep multiple parties informed about the contents of the email.
• Recipients in the CC field can see the email addresses of other recipients included in the CC field.

Additional Information

• To:
• This field is used to specify the primary recipients of the email.
• All recipients listed in the "To" field are considered the main audience of the email.
• CC:
• Stands for "Carbon Copy".
• Used to include additional recipients who should be informed of the email's content.
• Recipients in the CC field can see who else is copied on the email.
• BCC:
• Stands for "Blind Carbon Copy".
• Used to include recipients who should receive the email but remain hidden from other recipients.
• Recipients in the BCC field are not visible to other recipients, including those in the BCC field.
• Read Receipt:
• A request sent with an email asking the recipient to confirm they have read the message.
• Not all email clients support this feature, and recipients can choose not to send a read receipt.
• Email Encryption:
• Used to protect the content of an email from being read by anyone other than the intended recipient.
• Ensures confidentiality and security of the email's content.
• High Importance:
• An option to mark an email as high priority.
• Indicates to the recipient that the email is urgent and requires immediate attention.

The correct answer is Ctrl + K.

Key Points

• Ctrl + K is the shortcut key used in MS Word 365 to insert a hyperlink.
• When you press Ctrl + K, a dialog box appears allowing you to enter the link address and display text.
• This shortcut is widely used for creating hyperlinks quickly and efficiently in a document.
• Hyperlinks can link to web pages, email addresses, files, or specific locations within the same document.

Additional Information

• Hyperlink:
• A hyperlink is a reference to data that the user can follow by clicking or tapping.
• Hyperlinks are commonly used in digital documents to navigate to web pages, email addresses, and other documents.
• In MS Word, hyperlinks can be created to link to web pages, email addresses, files, or specific locations within the same document.
• Hyperlinks are typically displayed as blue, underlined text in documents.
• Shortcut Keys:
• Shortcut keys are combinations of keys that provide quick access to certain functions in a software application.
• Using shortcut keys can significantly speed up the workflow by reducing the number of steps needed to perform common tasks.
• In MS Word, there are numerous shortcut keys for various functions, such as formatting text, saving documents, and inserting elements.
• MS Word 365:
• MS Word 365 is a part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite, which is a subscription-based service offering access to various Office applications and other productivity services.
• MS Word 365 includes all the features of the traditional MS Word application, with additional cloud-based capabilities.
• Users can access MS Word 365 from any device with an internet connection, making it highly flexible and convenient.

The correct answer is Right alignment.

Key Points

• Right alignment arranges the text uniformly along the right margin, making the right edge even.
• It is useful for creating a clean and professional look, especially in documents like resumes or formal letters.
• Right-aligned text can also be used to align numbers and dates in tables for better readability.
• In MS Word 365, the right alignment icon is represented by lines stacked on the right side.

Additional Information

• Justifying
• Justified text is aligned evenly along both the left and right margins.
• This creates a clean and professional look, often used in books and newspapers.
• It can sometimes lead to irregular spacing between words to ensure alignment.
• Centre of text
• Centred text is aligned evenly between the left and right margins.
• This alignment is typically used for titles, headings, and invitations.
• Left alignment
• Left-aligned text is flush with the left margin, leaving a jagged right edge.
• This is the default alignment in most word processing applications and is the most readable for left-to-right languages.

This HTML code provides a detailed solution for the question regarding the MS Word 365 icon, including key points about the correct option and additional information about related text alignment options.

The correct answer is Page layout (portrait or landscape).

Key Points

• The 'Orientation' option in the Page Setup menu allows you to change the layout of your document between portrait and landscape.
• Portrait orientation refers to the vertical layout of the page, where the height is greater than the width.
• Landscape orientation refers to the horizontal layout of the page, where the width is greater than the height.
• This feature is useful for creating documents that may require different layouts for different pages, such as reports, brochures, or presentations.

Additional Information

• Page Setup in Microsoft Word:
• Page Setup is a feature in Microsoft Word that allows users to customize various aspects of their document's layout.
• Options within Page Setup include Margins, Paper Size, Orientation, and more.
• These settings can be accessed via the 'Layout' tab in the ribbon or by right-clicking and selecting 'Page Setup'.
• Text Alignment:
• Text alignment refers to the positioning of text within a document and includes options like left, center, right, and justified.
• Font Style:
• Font style refers to the appearance of text, which can be customized using options such as bold, italic, underline, and different typefaces.
• Page Size:
• Page size refers to the dimensions of the document. Common sizes include Letter, Legal, A4, and more.
• This setting can be adjusted in the Page Setup menu under the Paper Size option.

The correct answer is Extranet.

Key Points

• An extranet is a private network that leverages internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share part of a business's information or operations with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.
• It provides controlled access to authorized external users, often through secure login credentials and encryption techniques.
• Extranets are typically used for business-to-business (B2B) purposes, facilitating collaboration, information sharing, and transactions between organizations.
• They help improve efficiency and streamline processes by providing seamless communication and resource sharing between different business entities.

Additional Information

• Telnet
• Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection.
• Telnet is primarily used for remote management of devices but is not typically used for secure communication because it lacks encryption.
• Intranet
• An intranet is a private network accessible only to an organization's staff.
• It is used to share company information and computing resources among employees.
• Intranets improve internal communications and provide a single starting point to access internal and external resources.
• Internet
• The Internet is a global network of interconnected computers that communicate freely and share and exchange data.
• It is a public network accessible to anyone with an internet connection, providing a vast array of information and services.

The correct answer is In the 'Sort' dialog box, select the 'Ascending' option in the 'Order' section.

Key Points

• To sort a range of cells in ascending order, you need to use the 'Sort' feature in MS Excel.
• You can access the 'Sort' dialog box by clicking on the 'Data' tab and then selecting 'Sort'.
• In the 'Sort' dialog box, you can specify the column to sort by and select 'Ascending' in the 'Order' section to sort the data in ascending order.
• This method ensures that your data is sorted correctly and efficiently within the specified range.

Additional Information

• Sort Feature in MS Excel:
• The 'Sort' feature allows users to rearrange data in a specific order, either ascending or descending.
• It can be applied to a single column or multiple columns, based on the user's requirements.
• Ascending Order:
• Sorting data in ascending order means arranging it from smallest to largest or from A to Z.
• This is useful for organizing numerical data or alphabetical text in a logical sequence.
• Descending Order:
• Sorting data in descending order means arranging it from largest to smallest or from Z to A.
• This is the opposite of ascending order and is used when the highest values or the latest dates need to be prioritized.
• 'Sort' Dialog Box:
• The 'Sort' dialog box is an interface in Excel where users can specify their sorting criteria.Users can select the column to sort by, the order (ascending or descending), and add multiple levels of sorting for more complex data arrangements.
• It provides options to handle headers and sort by cell color, font color, or cell icon.