Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 14 Nov, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Cashpor Micro credit is a company that does NOT operate in the most backward districts of _____________. 

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana

Key Points

  • Cashpor Micro Credit does not operate in the most backward districts of Telangana.
  • It primarily operates in states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh.
  • Cashpor Micro Credit is a non-profit microfinance institution that focuses on providing financial services to poor women in rural areas,
  • particularly in the backward districts of northern and eastern India.
  • The organization's mission is to empower women by offering small loans for income-generating activities, thus helping families overcome poverty.
  • However, Telangana is not among the states where Cashpor Micro Credit operates.

Additional Information

  • Microfinance:
  • Microfinance institution provides financial services to low - income individuals.
  • Microfinance is a basis of financial services for entrepreneurs and small businesses deficient in contact with banking and associated services.
  • The two key systems for the release of financial services to such customers include ‘relationship-based banking’ for individual entrepreneurs and small businesses along with ‘group-based models’  where several entrepreneurs come together to apply for loans and other services as a group.
  • Similar to banking operation traditions, microfinance entities are supposed to charge their lender’s interest on loans.
  • In most cases the so-called interest rates are lower than those charged by normal banks, certain rivals of this concept accuse microfinance entities of creating gain by manipulating the poor people’s money.
  • This includes both the consumers and the self-employed.
  • Microfinance apart from microcredit, the provision of small loans to poor clients also covers many other services.
  • Micro Finance covers a wide range of services like credit facilities, saving facilities, insurance facilities, remittance, Short duration loans, Fund Transfer and also non-financial services like training, counseling, etc.
  • Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) in India exist as NGOs (registered as societies or trusts), Section 25 companies and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
2

Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the President shall appoint judges of the Supreme Court under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the judges of the Supreme Court as the President may deem necessary?

  1. ((a))

    Article 124 (2)

  2. ((b))

    Article 120 (2)

  3. ((c))

    Article 134 (2)

  4. ((d))

    Article 142 (2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 124 (2)

The correct answer is Article 124(2)

Key Points

  • Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India states that the President appoints judges of the Supreme Court under their hand and seal after consulting with other judges
  • The Article states 'Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years'.
  • Additionally, it states that 'Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted

Additional Information

  • Article 120(2)
  • Article 120(2) of the Indian Constitution pertains to the language to be used in Parliament, particularly addressing the use of English and Hindi during parliamentary proceedings.
  • It specifies that even though Parliament may transact its business in Hindi or English, English shall continue to be used for all official purposes of Parliament until Parliament provides otherwise by law.
  • Article 134(2)
  • It allows Parliament to grant the Supreme Court the power to hear appeals from High Court judgments, final orders, or sentences in criminal proceedings.
  • It empowers Parliament to regulate the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in criminal cases.
  • Article 142(2)
  • It grants powers to Parliament to make laws for the enforcement of any decrees, orders, or decisions made by the Supreme Court.
  • Article 142(2) specifically focuses on Parliament's role in making laws to provide mechanisms for:
  • Enforcement of the Supreme Court's decisions.
  • Execution of orders and directions issued by the Supreme Court.
3

Which of the following was replaced by the Green Revolution?

  1. ((a))

    Use of inorganic manures 

  2. ((b))

    Use of seeds supplied by the government

  3. ((c))

    Use of groundwater for irrigation

  4. ((d))

    Use of organic manures 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Use of organic manures 

The correct answer is the use of organic manures

Key Points

  • ​The Green Revolution replaced the use of organic manures with chemical fertilizers and high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds to boost agricultural productivity.​
  • Green Revolution (1960s):
  • It was a movement introduced to increase agricultural production, primarily in India, using modern agricultural techniques, including:
  • High-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.
  • Chemical fertilizers.
  • Pesticides.
  • Advanced irrigation methods.
  • The Green Revolution intensified the use of water resources for irrigation, leading to the depletion of fresh groundwater levels, especially in regions like Punjab and Haryana.
  • Repetitive cultivation of the same high-yield variety (HYV) crops led to soil nutrient depletion, as these crops absorbed specific nutrients in large quantities.​

Additional InformationThe following are the important revolutions in India:

RevolutionRelated to
Green RevolutionFoodgrain Production
White RevolutionMilk Production
Red RevolutionTomato and Meat
Blue RevolutionFish Production
Yellow RevolutionOil Seed
Brown RevolutionLeather, Cocoa
Black RevolutionPetroleum Production
Pink RevolutionOnion, Prawns
Golden Fibre RevolutionJute Production
Round RevolutionPotatoes Production
4

According to Census of India 2011, the growth rate of Hindu population in the decade 2001-2011 was ___________. 

  1. ((a))

    10.0%

  2. ((b))

    16.8%

  3. ((c))

    20.1%

  4. ((d))

    8.6%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16.8%

The correct answer is 16.8%

Key Points

  • 16.8% is the population growth rate of the Hindu community according to the Census of India 2011.
  • The Census of India is conducted every ten years and is the most comprehensive source of demographic data in India.
  • The population growth rate is a crucial metric that helps in understanding the demographic changes and planning for future resource allocation and policy-making.
  • The Hindu community is the largest religious group in India, and understanding its growth rate is important for various socio-economic planning initiatives.

Additional Information

  • The Census of India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
  • The first Census in India was conducted in 1872, and since then, it has been conducted every ten years.
  • The Census provides critical data on various parameters including population size, distribution, density, literacy, occupation, and more.
  • The data collected through the Census is used for planning and formulation of policies for the central and state governments.
  • The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census of the country.
5

In which of the following years Cripps Mission offered Dominion Status to India?

  1. ((a))

    1942

  2. ((b))

    1934

  3. ((c))

    1939

  4. ((d))

    1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1942

The correct answer is 1942.

Key Points

  • Cripps Mission came to India in 1942.
  • Stafford Cripps was a labour minister in Winston Churchill's coalition government in Britain.
  • The Cripps Mission came to India from 22 March to 11 April 1942.
  • Its aim was to obtain Indian cooperation for the British war in the 2nd World war.
  • Proposals of Cripps Mission:
  • Setting up of an Indian dominion.
  • A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country.
  • India’s defence would be controlled by the British until this new constitution came into force.
  • The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would be safeguarded by negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British government.

Additional Information 

  • Reasons for Failure of Cripps Mission
  • The Cripps Mission failed due to the following reasons:
  • Gandhi referred to the Cripps Mission recommendations as a “post-dated cheque” because they didn’t appease Indian nationalists and ultimately proved to be nothing more than a marketing tactic for the US and China.
  • The INC, which wanted full independence, thought the measures were too conservative, while the British thought they were too radical.
  • The Mission was condemned by the Muslim League, the INC, and other Indian groups.
  • The right of the states to secede was contested by both the Liberals and the Hindu Mahasabha.
  • The Depressed Classes objected since they were worried about their status in a nation in which they would be a minority.
  • Viceroy Linlithgow, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill, and Secretary of State for India Leo Amery are also said to have been unsupportive of the mission, which is another reason it is believed to have failed.
  • The British motives were questioned by the justification that the measures were meant to complement the August Offer instead of replacing it.
  • The standoff was made worse by Cripps’ refusal to stray from the Draft Declaration and his rigid “take it or leave it” attitude.
6

Which syndrome causes a cartoon character to have a plump face, a fair complexion, and pink or beryl banana marks on the skin?

  1. ((a))

    Down syndrome

  2. ((b))

    Angelman syndrome

  3. ((c))

    Cushing syndrome

  4. ((d))

    Marfan syndrome

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cushing syndrome

The correct answer is Cushing syndrome

Key Points

  • The syndrome that causes a cartoon character-like appearance with a plump face, a fair complexion, and pink or beryl banana marks on the skin is Cushing syndrome.
  • It is caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of the hormone cortisol, either due to endogenous factors (e.g., adrenal gland overactivity) or exogenous factors (e.g., long-term use of corticosteroids).
  • It is associated with Weak muscles, high blood pressure, and sometimes a "buffalo hump" (fat pad on the upper back).

Additional Information

  • Marfan syndrome​
  • Marfan syndrome affects the heart, eyes, blood vessels, and bones.
  • People with Marfan syndrome are tall and thin with long arms, legs, fingers, and toes.
  • Marfan syndrome is an inherited disorder that affects connective tissue.
  • The fibers that support and anchor your organs and other structures in your body.
  • Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in a gene called FBN1.
  • The mutation limits the body's ability to make proteins needed to build connective tissue.
  • A person with Marfan syndrome has a 1 in 2 chance of passing it on to their child.
  • Angelman Syndrome
  • Angelman Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system and is characterized by developmental delays, neurological problems, and unique physical and behavioral traits.
  • It delayed milestones such as sitting, walking, and speech development.
  • Individuals with Angelman Syndrome require lifelong care and support.
  • Down's Syndrome
  • Down's Syndrome is the name of the disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome.
  • Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in extra genetic material from chromosome 21.
7

After independence, who had complete control over the established industries?

  1. ((a))

    Private sector

  2. ((b))

    Foreign investors

  3. ((c))

    Britishers

  4. ((d))

    Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Government

The correct answer is the use of organic manures

Key Points

  • After India gained independence from the British Raj in 1947, the government had complete control over established industries.
  • The government took control of industries that were vital to the economy and the public, such as coal, petroleum, aviation, and steel.
  • The government also established new undertakings in six basic industries.
  • The government strictly regulated the economy through a system of licenses.
  • To open a new industry or expand production, a license from the government was required.
  • This system was known as the "Licence Raj".
  • India chose a path of economic self-reliance, which included restricting imports and limiting foreign investment.
  • This approach had many supporters, but also some critics.
  • The Licence Raj protected local businesses but also slowed growth and stifled innovation.
  • In the 1980s, India began to liberalize its economy, loosening restrictions on business creation and import controls.
  • These reforms led to an increase in the average GDP growth rate.

Additional Information

  • The first industrial policy statement of India is known as Industrial Policy Resolution.
  • It was announced in the year 1948.
  • It defined the role of the State in industrial development both as an entrepreneur and authority.
  • Industrial Policy Resolution,1948 states that India is going to have a Mixed Economic Model.
  • The Industries (Development and Regula­tion) Act was passed in 1951.
  • It was passed to implement the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948.
8

Who propounded the philosophy of ‘One Caste, One Religion, One God for all men’?

  1. ((a))

    Shree Narayana Guru

  2. ((b))

    Savitribai Phule

  3. ((c))

    Mahatma Gandhi 

  4. ((d))

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shree Narayana Guru

The correct answer is Sree Narayana Guru.

Key Points

  • Sree Narayana Guru:
  • Great social leader born on August 20, 1856, at Chempazhanthy, Travancore,
  • Famous for movements against caste discrimination and advocated for social equality.
  • In 1927 he consecrated the first mirror at Kalavancode temple with the message “Om Shanthi” written on the surface of the mirror.
  • The historical Aruvippuram prathishta was done by Sree Narayana Guru in 1888.
  • He was considered as the Father of the Modern Renaissance in Kerala.
  • Famous words: One Caste, One Religion, One God for All.
  • Important works: Daiva Dasakam, Gajendramoksham Vanjipaatu.
  • Died on September 20, 1928, at Sivagiri.
  • Narayana Guru preached the doctrine of “One Caste One Religion, One God for Man”.
  • Sree Narayana Guru's attitude toward religion is worth elaboration because of his profound scholarship, incisive intellect, and independent thinking.
  • This is the only religion, according to the Guru. In the concept of religion, the Guru tried to reveal the essential oneness of all religions.

Additional Information

  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy​
  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the first social reformer to view modern education as a vehicle for the spread of modern ideas in the country.
  • He believed that education could play a crucial role in the development of the country and the upliftment of its people.
  • He established the Hindu College in Calcutta in 1817, which later became the nucleus of the University of Calcutta.
  • He also advocated for the education of women and girls, and supported the idea of English education.
  • Savitribai Phule​
  • Savitri Bai Phule was an Indian social reformer, educationist and poetess from Maharashtra.
  • She was the first woman teacher in India in 1848.
  • She was a trailblazer in providing education for girls and for ostracized portions of society.
  • She opened a school for girls with her husband, Jyotirao Phule.
  • They found one of the first modern Indian girls' schools in Pune at Bhide Wada.
  • Savitribai Phule even worked to abolish discrimination and unfair treatment of people based on caste and gender.
  • Mahatma Gandhi 
  • Mahatma Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in 1908 during his return visit to South Africa from India via London by ship.
  • Hind Swaraj highlights all of Gandhi's basic principles, including the relationship between ends and means, between rights and duties, and between religious communities, as well as his concepts of history, nationality, dissent, education, and technology.
9

What type of earthquake occurs when induced stresses around mine workings cause massive rocks to fly explosively from the mine face, creating seismic waves?

  1. ((a))

    Collapse earthquake

  2. ((b))

    Explosion earthquake

  3. ((c))

    Volcanic earthquake

  4. ((d))

    Tectonic earthquake

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Collapse earthquake

The correct answer is Collapse earthquake

Key Points

  • A collapse earthquake occurs when induced stresses around mine workings cause massive rocks to fly explosively from the mine face, creating seismic waves
  • In the areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors.
  • These are called collapse earthquakes.
  • They are small earthquakes in underground caverns and mines that are caused by seismic waves produced from the explosion of rock on the surface.
  • This happens when the induced stress around the mine working because large masses of rock to fly off the mine face explosively, producing seismic waves.
  • Collapse earthquakes are also produced by massive land sliding.

Additional Information

Tectonic
earthquakes
- They are the most common earthquake found all over the world. - These are generated due to the sliding of rocks along a fault plane. - It is caused by the movement of plates when energy accumulated within plate boundary zones is released. - Tectonic earthquakes are usually larger than volcanic earthquakes.
Volcanic
earthquakes
- A special class of tectonic earthquakes is sometimes recognized as a volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes. - Volcanic earthquakes have different characteristics from the deep and tectonic seismic events that occur along great faults. - They are considerably less devastating and may continue at a detectable level for weeks or months before the eruption. - It is caused by the sudden opening of channels in crustal rocks, rapid changes of motion of magma, excessive accumulation of gas pressure in the crust, roof collapses of subterranean channels emptied of magma.
Explosion
earthquakes
- Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. - Some underground nuclear explosions fired since the 1950s have produced substantial earthquakes. - When a nuclear device is detonated in a borehole underground, enormous nuclear energy is released.
10

The term 'monsoon' denotes the seasonal change in wind direction that occurs during which specific time period?

  1. ((a))

    Two decades

  2. ((b))

    Two months

  3. ((c))

    One day

  4. ((d))

    Year

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Year

The correct answer is Year 

Key Points

  • The term "monsoon" refers to the seasonal change in wind direction that occurs during a year.
  • Monsoon tends to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall; which means that there are wet and dry spells in between.
  • The monsoon rains take place only for a few days at a time and then come to the rainless intervals.
  • Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent because in winter there is a high-pressure area in the north of the Himalayas & there is a low-pressure area over the ocean to the south.
  • So cold and dry winds blow from the Himalayan region towards the ocean.
  • In summer due to high temperatures, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over northwestern India.
  • This causes a complete reversal of the direction of the wind during summer and the rise of the Southwest monsoon.
  • The bulk rainfall in India is received during the 4 months of the rainy season i.e June, July, August, and September.
  • This is the period of Southwest monsoons blowing from sea to land.
  • Only the Eastern coast of India receives some rainfall from the Northeast trade winds during the cold weather season.

Additional Information

  • Monsoon 
  • Monsoon in India is triggered by the intense heating of the Thar desert and nearby areas of the northern and central Indian subcontinent between April and May.
  • This heating creates a low-pressure zone over the subcontinent.
  • Moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean are drawn towards this low-pressure area.
  • The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts northwards, aligning with this low-pressure zone to bring monsoon rains to India by late May or early June.
  • The monsoon divides into two branches beyond Kerala: the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.
11

Sunlight is the main source of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin A

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin B

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin D

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vitamin D

The correct answer is Vitamin D

Key Points

  • Vitamin:
  • Vitamins are one of the essential micronutrients needed in small quantities for the proper functioning of its metabolism.
  • Based on their solubility, it is classified into 4 groups: Water and fat-soluble vitamins.
  • Fat-soluble vitamins are vitamins A, D, E, and K.
  • Water-soluble vitamins are Vitamins B and C.
  • Vitamin D is known as ‘Sunshine Vitamin’. Because our body produces vitamin D naturally when it's directly exposed to sunlight.
  • Vitamin D protects the teeth and bones and defends against disease s.

Thus, Sunlight is the source of Vitamin D.

​ Additional Information

VitaminsFunctionsDeficiencyFood source
1. Vitamin A (Retinol)Night vision, cell growth, immunity, and fetal development.Night blindness, dry cornea, dry skin, etc.Green leafy vegetables, yellow-red fruits, carrots, dairy products, egg yolk, etc.
2.  Vitamin B           B1 ( Thiamine), B2 (Riboflavin), B3 (Niacin), B5 (Pantothenic acid), B6, B7 (Biotin), B12 (Folic acid)Metabolism creates new blood cells and maintains healthy skin cells, brain cells, milk production, etc.Beri- Beri, loss of appetite, confusion of anemia, heart problems, etc.Meat,  seafood, fortified fruits, dairy products, nutritional yeast, etc.
3. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)Tissue repairs, growth, bone, and cartilage formation.Scurvy, gum bleeding, weakness, etc.Citrus fruits, tomatoes, cabbage, etc.
4. Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol)Maintaining bone and teeth, maintaining blood levels of calcium and phosphorus, etc.Rickets.Fish liver oil, milk, egg yolk, etc.
5. Vitamin E (Tocopherol)Prevents certain compounds from being oxidized, maintains healthy skin and eyes, etc.Anemia, vision problems, loss of body movements, etc.Vegetable oil, nuts, beans, etc.
6. Vitamin K            K1 ( phylloquinone) and K2 (menaquinone)Blood clotting, the building of bones, etc.Bleeding problems, liver problems, etc.Egg yolk, green vegetables, etc.
12

In which of the following dance genres is Mallika Sarabhai an accomplished dancer?

  1. ((a))

    Kathakali and Odissi

  2. ((b))

    Odissi and Kuchipudi 

  3. ((c))

    Bharatnatyam and Odissi 

  4. ((d))

    Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam

​The correct answer is Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam

Key Points

  • Mallika Sarabhai was an accomplished dancer in both Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam
  • Mallika Sarabhai was a dancer, stage actress, director, and social activist.
  • She was recognized for her talent with the Padma Bhushan Award of India and the French Palme d'Or Award.
  • She also used the arts to promote social change and transformation.
  • She acted in several plays and films, including Peter Brook's Mahabharata in the role of Draupadi.
  • She was also an activist who participated in the World Economic Forum and worked with UNESCO to protect world cultural heritage

Additional Information

  • | Dances | Origin | Main Reviving Personals | Famous Proponents | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Bharatnatyam | Tamil Nadu | E. Krishna Iyer, Rukmini devi Arindel | Yamini Krishnamurthy, Lakshmi Vishwanathan, Padma Subramaniam, Mrinalini Sarabhai, Mallika Sarabhai | | Kuchipudi | Andhra Pradesh | Balasaraswati, Ragini devi | Radha Reddy And Raja Reddy, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Indrani Rehman | | Kathakali | Kerala | V. N. Menon | Guru Kunchu Kurup, Gopinath, Kottakal Sivaraman, Rita Ganguly | | Odissi | Odisha | Indrani Rehman, Charles Fabri | Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Kelu Charan Mohapatra, Sonal Mansingh, Sharon Lowen, MYrla Barvie | | Manipuri | Manipur | Raja bhag Chandra, Rabindranath Tagore | Nayana, Suverna, Ranjana and Darshna, Guru Bipin Singha | | Kathak | Uttar Pradesh | Lady Leela Sokhey | Birju Maharaj, Lacchu Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Damyanti Joshi | | Sattriya | Assam | Shankaradeva | - | | Mohiniattam | Kerala | V. N. Menon, kalayani Amma | Sunanda Nair, Kalamandalam kshmavathy, Madhuri Amma, Jayaprabha Menon |
13

In which of the following Indian states is Ghum Monastery located?

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal 

  4. ((d))

    Arunachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

West Bengal 

The correct answer is West Bengal

Key Points

  • The Ghoom Monastery is located in Darjeeling.
  • Darjeeling is a popular hill station in West Bengal and it is also famous for 'Darjeeling Tea'.
  • The highest peak in India, the Kanchenjunga peak is clearly visible from Darjeeling.
  • Kurseong is known as the 'Land of White Orchids' and it is a hill station located on the Siliguri-Darjeeling highway.
  • Siliguri is a city of West Bengal is known as the "Gateway to North-East India".
  • Kalimpong is a hill station in West Bengal famous for Buddhist monasteries and churches.

Additional Information

  • Karnataka:
  • Namdroling Monastery (Golden Temple), Bylakuppe: One of the largest Tibetan settlements in India, this monastery is famous for its golden Buddha statues and serene atmosphere.
  • Himachal Pradesh:
  • Tawang Monastery, Dharamshala: While Dharamshala itself is known as the seat of the Dalai Lama, Himachal Pradesh is home to the ancient Key Monastery in Spiti Valley, and other notable monasteries.
  • Arunachal Pradesh:
  • Tawang Monastery: The largest monastery in India and the second-largest in the world, this monastery is a major cultural and spiritual center for Tibetan Buddhism.
14

In which language was the largest newspaper published in India in the year 2021-22? 

  1. ((a))

    Hindi

  2. ((b))

    English

  3. ((c))

    Urdu

  4. ((d))

    Bengali

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hindi

The correct answer is Hindi

Key Points

  • The largest newspaper published in India in the year 2021-22 was in Hindi.
  • Hindi newspapers dominate India's print media due to the large Hindi-speaking population.
  • For example, Dainik Jagran, Hindustan, and Amar Ujala are some of the most widely circulated newspapers in the country,
  • significantly outpacing newspapers in English or other regional languages.
  • India has a vast Hindi-speaking population, especially in northern and central states, including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Haryana.

Additional Information

  • English:
  • Newspapers like The Times of India and The Hindu are highly respected, but their readership is smaller compared to Hindi newspapers, as English-speaking populations are concentrated in urban areas.
  • Their readership is concentrated in metropolitan and urban areas like Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, and Chennai.
  • This is due to the widespread use of English as a medium of education and communication in these regions.
  • Urdu:
  • Though widely read in regions with Urdu-speaking populations (like Hyderabad, Kashmir, and Uttar Pradesh), Urdu newspapers like Rashtriya Sahara have a more limited circulation.
  • Urdu newspapers often emphasize issues concerning minority communities, Islamic culture, and regional matters.
  • Bengali:
  • Anandabazar Patrika is a leading Bengali newspaper, but its readership is largely confined to West Bengal and neighboring areas.
  • Other prominent Bengali newspapers include Bartaman and Aajkaal.
15

Which of the following statements is correct about privatisation?

Statements:

I. It promotes economic efficiency

II. It delimits the interference of bureaucracy

III. It leads to market failure

  1. ((a))

    Only statements I and II

  2. ((b))

    Only statement II 

  3. ((c))

    Only statement III 

  4. ((d))

    Only statement I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only statements I and II

The correct answer is Only statements I and II

Key Points

  • I. It promotes economic efficiency:
  • This statement is Correct
  • Privatisation often leads to increased economic efficiency because private entities are motivated by profit and tend to allocate resources more efficiently than public enterprises.
  • Competition among private players encourages innovation, better services, and cost-effectiveness.
  • II. It delimits the interference of bureaucracy:
  • This statement is also Correct
  • Privatisation reduces the role of government and bureaucracy in economic activities.
  • This often leads to faster decision-making, less red tape, and a more business-friendly environment.
  • III. It leads to market failure:
  • This statement is Incorrect
  • Privatisation itself does not inherently cause market failure.
  • Market failure occurs due to issues like monopolies, externalities, or public goods, which are not directly related to privatisation.
  • However, improper regulation after privatisation could lead to negative consequences like monopolistic practices or exploitation.
  • So Only Statements I and II are correct

Additional Information

  • Privatization:
  • It is defined as "The transfer of ownership, property or business from the government to the private sector is termed privatization.
  • The government ceases to be the owner of the entity or business"
  • The process of privatization includes all the activities that increase the hold of private companies than the Government itself.
  • The major impact of privatization is that the stocks of such companies are not traded over the stock market, which implies that the general public of the country does not have the right to supply the capital to such firms.
  • The advantage of privatization is that privately-owned companies are that they are generally more efficient and bring objectivity to the company.
  • All the ownership and management of the Government are shredded and passed on to the hands of a few private people.
16

'Nage Waza' is a ________ technique used in Judo.

  1. ((a))

    Choking

  2. ((b))

    Gripping

  3. ((c))

    Throwing

  4. ((d))

    Holding

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Throwing

The correct answer is Throwing

Key Points

  • The throwing skill in Judo is called Nage-waza, which includes techniques such as Osoto-gari, Uchi-mata, and Seoi-nage.
  • Nage-waza is a Japanese term that refers to a throwing procedure that involves unbalancing or lifting an opponent and then throwing them to the ground.
  • There are many different nage-waza techniques
  • The name Judo means "gentle or yielding way".
  • It was introduced to the Olympic Games in 1964.

Additional Information

  • Judo is a Japanese martial art that originated in the late 19th century.
  • It was developed by Jigoro Kano, who was a practitioner of Ju-jitsu, a traditional Japanese martial art.
  • Ju-jitsu is a close-combat fighting system that originated in feudal Japan and was used by the samurai.
  • Judo is based on the principles of Ju-jitsu but emphasizes throws, pins, and joint locks rather than strikes and kicks.
17

In which budget was the policy of LERMS announced?

  1. ((a))

    1991 - 92 

  2. ((b))

    1992 - 93

  3. ((c))

    1995 - 96 

  4. ((d))

    1990 - 91

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1992 - 93

The correct answer is 1992-1993.

Key Points

Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System:

  • LERMS (Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System) was a new exchange rate management system.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) purchased 40 per cent of the proceeds of exports and inward remittances at the official exchange rate for official use under this scheme.
  • Following the recommendations of the C. Rangarajan Committee, the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) with the dual exchange rate was implemented.
  • In March 1992, the Indian government implemented the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS).
  • Dr Manmohan Singh revealed the new approach in his 1992-1993 budget, and the Reserve Bank of India announced it in early March (RBI). Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • This was the first step toward making the switch to a market-determined exchange rate system possible.
  • It allowed exporters to realize 60% of their revenues or earnings at market rates while surrendering the rest at the government rate.
  • To put it another way, India made the transition from a fixed to a dual exchange rate system.
  • Essential materials or products, such as petroleum, fertilizers, and life-saving pharmaceuticals, were imported using foreign exchange and surrendered at the official rate.

Additional Information

  • An exchange rate is the value of one nation's currency versus the currency of another nation or economic zone.
  • Exchange rates can be either fixed or floating.
  • Fixed exchange rates are decided by the central banks of a country whereas floating exchange rates are decided by the mechanism of market demand and supply.
18

In the context of globalisation, what does PPP stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Purchase Power Parity

  2. ((b))

    Purchasing Par Parity

  3. ((c))

    Purchasing Power Parity

  4. ((d))

    Purchasing Par Parities

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Purchasing Power Parity

The correct answer is Purchasing Power Parity

Key Points

  • In the context of globalization, PPP stands for Purchasing Power Parity.
  • Purchasing Power Parity (PPP):
  • It is an economic theory used to compare the relative value of currencies by examining the cost of a standard basket of goods and services in different countries
  • The PPP exchange rate helps determine the purchasing power of one country's currency relative to another's.
  • Examples:
  • If a product costs ₹50 in India and $1 in the United States, the PPP exchange rate would be 1 USD = 50 INR, assuming the product basket is identical.
  • Organizations like the World Bank and IMF frequently use PPP-adjusted metrics to analyze global economies.

Additional Information

Concept of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) and its implications:

  • Role of PPP: ​​
  • ​The PPP is used as a measure to compare the economic productivity and standards of living between countries.
  • This is particularly useful in international economic studies, where one needs to compare economies with different currencies.
  • Absolute vs. Relative PPP: 
  • Absolute PPP suggests that the exchange rate between two currencies reflects the cost of a similar basket of goods in both countries.
  • Relative PPP, on the other hand, takes into consideration the rate of inflation, suggesting that the rate of appreciation or depreciation of a currency would be equal to the difference in inflation rates between two countries.
  • Other Assumptions: 
  • ​Aside from no transaction costs, no transportation costs, and free movement of goods (trading without tariffs or quotas), another implicit assumption of PPP includes that the goods are homogeneous or identical across different markets.
  • Limitations of PPP: 
  • ​​In real-world scenarios, the PPP seldom holds due to transportation and conversion costs, trade barriers, differences in taxation, and the existence of goods and services that aren't available in all countries.
  • Besides, this theory often falters because it overlooks the market segmentation and differentiation of products between countries.
  • PPP and Exchange Rates: 
  • Central banks and economists often use PPP when assessing the fair value of a currency.
19

_________ is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India. 

  1. ((a))

    Attorney General

  2. ((b))

    Comptroller and Auditor General 

  3. ((c))

    Supreme Court

  4. ((d))

    President of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Supreme Court

The correct answer is the Supreme Court

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India.
  • The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal and the apex body of the judicial system in India
  • Judicial review
  • The Supreme Court can review laws passed by the legislature and executive orders to ensure they comply with the Constitution.
  • The Supreme Court's interpretations and rulings are binding on all other courts in the country.
  • The Supreme Court has developed a number of methods and approaches to constitutional interpretation, including textualism, originalism, purposivism, and judicial activism.

Additional Information

  • The executive is branch of government responsible for the implementation of laws and policies adopted by the legislature.
  • The executive is often involved in framing policy
  • The legislature is not merely a law-making body.
  • Lawmaking is but one of the functions of the legislature.
  • It is the centre of all democratic political processes.
  • It is packed with action; walkouts, protests, demonstrations, unanimity, concern and cooperation.
  • All these serve very vital purposes. Indeed, a genuine democracy is inconceivable without a representative, efficient and effective legislature.
  • The legislature also helps people in holding the representatives accountable.
20

Ram Sahay Pandey, a Padma Shri 2022 awardee, is associated with which of the following dance forms of the Bedia community of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Karma

  2. ((b))

    Ravala

  3. ((c))

    Rai

  4. ((d))

    Badhai

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rai

The correct answer is Rai

Key Points 

  • Ram Sahay Pandey was awarded the Padma Shri for his contribution to Bundeli Folk Dance in 2022.
  • Ram Sahay Panday is a Rai dancer from Madhya Pradesh's sagar district.
  • The Rai dance was traditionally associated with the Bedia community.
  • Though he was not the member of the community he devoted his whole life practicing and performing the Rai dance and to secure acceptance and respectability for the dance form.
  • His efforts helped him obtain national and international recognition of Rai dance form.
  • The dance form Raai (or Rai) is basically a folk dance of the Bundelkhand region.
  • In the year 2022, Govt of India honoured Ram Sahay Panday by conferring the Padma Shri award for his contributions to art.

Additional Information

  • Badhai:
  • Badhai is one of the popular folk dances of Madhya Pradesh, especially in the Bundelkhand region.
  • It is a ceremonial dance, performed on childbirth, marriages or any other get together to celebrate happiness and joy.
  • The musical instruments used are Dhapla, Timki, Lota, Rantula & Algoja.
  • Karma​
  • Khemta and Bhinusari are the two forms of Karma dance.
  • Karma dance is a traditional dance of central and Eastern India annually performed during the karma festival.
  • It is performed in Jharkhand and its adjacent states of Chhattisgarh, West Orissa and Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is held during the autumn season.
  • Ravala
  • Ravala Dance is a traditional folk dance from the state of Rajasthan, India.
  • It is performed by the Ravala community, which is part of the larger Rajput or Gujjar groups.
  • This dance is a vibrant and energetic form of expression that showcases the rich cultural heritage of Rajasthan
  • The dance is usually performed during festivals and cultural celebrations.
21

Which of the following measures of credit control requires a well-developed money market?

  1. ((a))

    Open market operations

  2. ((b))

    Bank rate policy 

  3. ((c))

    Variable reserve ratio

  4. ((d))

    Qualitative measures 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Open market operations

The correct answer is Open market operations

Key Points

  • Open market operations is a credit control measure that requires a well-developed money market
  • Open market operations (OMOs) are a quantitative instrument used by the central bank to buy and sell securities in the money and capital market.
  • This affects the money supply in the economy, which in turn controls credit creation.
  • For example, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can sell securities to remove extra cash from the economy, which limits the money supply.

Additional Information

  • Bank rate policy
  • The central bank increases the bank rate during inflation to raise the cost of bank credit.
  • This discourages businesses from borrowing, which decreases the volume of credit and the level of economic activity
  • Variable reserve ratio
  • It refers to the central bank's power to adjust the percentage of deposits that commercial banks are required to keep as reserves.
  • These reserves are either held in cash or as deposits with the central bank.
  • This is an important aspect of monetary policy.
  • Qualitative measures
  • These selective measures include margin requirements, consumer credit regulation, rationing of credit, and moral suasion.
  • These measures do not directly affect the overall money supply but control the conditions under which credit is given.
22

Which of the following festivals is celebrated in honour of Hidimba Devi in Himachal Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Shorai Festival 

  2. ((b))

    Maghi Festival 

  3. ((c))

    Bisua Festival

  4. ((d))

    Doongri Festival

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Doongri Festival

The correct answer is Doongri Festival

Key Points

  • The Doongri celebration is coordinated on the propitious event of Basant Panchami.
  • It is likewise famously known as the Hadimba Devi Fair.
  • The celebration goes on for three days.
  • It is coordinated at the Hadimba Sanctuary, arranged in the holy Dhungri Timberland in Manali.

Additional Information

  • Shorai Festival 
  • The most important festival of the Santals is called Sohrai.
  • The name Sohrai is said to have derived from a paleolithic age word — 'soro', meaning to drive with a stick.
  • It is the Harvest Festival celebrated on Amavasya (new moon) in the Hindu month of Karthik (October–November).
  • The celebrations stretch over several days, the first day is Um hiloah.
  • Sohrai is traditionally a five-day festival, though in some areas it is shortened to three.
  • Maghi Festival​
  • Maghi is the regional name for the Makar Sankranti festival, celebrated in Punjab, Haryana, Jammu Division, and Himachal Pradesh.
  • Makar Sankranti is a Hindu festival celebrated in January (usually January 14 of the Gregorian calendar), marking the transition of the sun into the zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn).
  • It is always celebrated on the first day of the month of Magha in the Vikrami calendar.
  • The festival is observed in different parts of India with various names such as Pongal, Lohri, Uttarayan, and Magh Bihu
  • Bisua Festival​
  • This is a new year festival celebrated every year by the Bodo Kacharis in the month of Baisakh (mid-April).
  • The festival begins with the worship of cows on the first day and continues with the worship of their supreme God, Bathou (identified with Lord Shiva).
  • Community feast and dancing on the second day before it is concluded with a prayer at a designated place called girjasali.
23

Vijayadashami is also known as _______.

  1. ((a))

    Dussehra

  2. ((b))

    Holi

  3. ((c))

    Diwali

  4. ((d))

    Ganesh Chaturthi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dussehra

The correct answer is Dussehra

Key Points

  • Vijayadashami is also known as Dussehra
  • The tenth day after Sharad Navratri is celebrated as Dussehra or Vijayadashami.
  • It often ends with the Dussehra (also called Vijayadashami) celebration on the 10th day.
  • It is celebrated to mark the victory of Lord Rama over the demon king Ravana, symbolizing the triumph of good over evil.
  • The festival is celebrated with great enthusiasm and devotion in various parts of India, especially in the northern and western regions.
  • The celebrations include the burning of effigies of Ravana, Kumbhkarna, and Meghnath, followed by fireworks and feasting.

Additional Information

  • Holi​
  • Holi is popularly known as the festival of colors.
  • It is celebrated primarily in India and Nepal, marking the arrival of spring and the victory of good over evil.
  • The festival involves people throwing colored powders and water at each other, singing, dancing, and enjoying festive foods.
  • Holi is celebrated on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Phalguna, which usually falls in March.
  • Diwali
  • Diwali is the festival of lights, symbolizing the victory of light over darkness.
  • The festival usually lasts five days and is celebrated during the Hindu lunisolar month Kartika (between mid-October and mid-November).
  • Diwali is observed on Amavasya (or new moon) — the 15th day — of the month of Kartika, every year.
  • Ganesh Chaturthi​
  • Ganesh Chaturthi is a major Hindu festival celebrated in honour of Lord Ganesha, the God of wisdom, prosperity, and good fortune.
  • It is observed in the Hindu month of Bhadrapada, which falls between August and September in the Gregorian calendar.
  • The festival usually lasts for 10 days, with the biggest celebrations taking place on the last day, known as Anant Chaturdashi.
  • During the festival, people decorate their homes and streets with colourful decorations, prepare special food offerings for Lord Ganesha, and participate in processions and cultural events.
24

Who among the following social reformers established Satyashodhak Samaj?

  1. ((a))

    Jyotiba Phule

  2. ((b))

    Narayana Guru

  3. ((c))

    Ramaswami Naicker-Periyar

  4. ((d))

    Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jyotiba Phule

The correct answer is Jyotirao Phule.

Key Points

  • Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-seeker's Society) was a social reform society founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, Maharashtra, on 24 September 1873.
  • It espoused a mission of education and increased social rights and political access for underprivileged groups, focused especially on women, Shudras, and Dalits, in Maharashtra.
  • Satya Shodhak Samaj refused to regard the Vedas as sacrosanct, opposed idol worship, denounced the Chaturvarnya System (the caste system), and rejected the need for a Brahman priestly class as educational and religious leaders.
  • The existence of God was replaced by Nirmik.
  • Deenbandhu was the name of the mouthpiece of the Satya Shodhak Samaj.

Additional Information

Jyotirao Phule:

  • He was born on 11 April 1827 in Katgun, Satara District in Maharashtra.
  • He belonged to the Mali caste of gardeners.
  • It was in 1848 that he read American political activist and philosopher’s work ‘Rights of Man’, this book influenced his idea of social justice.
  • He is credited with using the word ‘Dalit’ for the depressed classes for the first time.
  • It is a Marathi word meaning ‘broken’ or ‘crushed’.
  • Phule inspired many latter-day leaders including B R Ambedkar.
  • Phule was also the Commissioner of the Poona Municipality from 1876 till 1883.
  • Mahatma Phule passed away in Pune aged 63.

Important Points

  • Some of Mahatma Phule’s published works
  • Tritiya Ratna
  • Brahmananche Kasab
  • Powada : Chatrapati Shivajiraje Bhosle Yancha (Life of Shivaji)
  • Manav Mahammand (Muhammad) (Abhang)
  • Gulamgiri
  • Satyashodhak Samajokt Mangalashtakasah Sarva Puja-vidhi
  • Sarvajanic Satya Dharmapustak
  • Shetkaryacha Asud
25

Mein Kampf’ has been written by which of the following politicians?

  1. ((a))

    Benito Mussolini 

  2. ((b))

    Hirohito

  3. ((c))

    Adolf Hitler

  4. ((d))

    Clement Attlee

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Adolf Hitler

The correct answer is Adolf Hitler.

Key Points

  • Mein Kampf was a political manifesto written by Adolf Hitler.
  • It was his only complete book, and the work became the bible of National Nazism in Germany's Third Reich.
  • It was published in two volumes in 1925 and 1927, and an abridged edition appeared in 1930.

Additional Information

  • Benito Mussolini 
  • Benito Mussolini was an Italian political leader who became the fascist dictator of Italy from 1925 to 1945.
  • Originally a revolutionary socialist and a newspaper journalist and editor, he forged Italy's violent paramilitary fascist movement in 1919 and declared himself prime minister in 1922.
  • Mussolini's goal was to establish himself as a dictator.
  • For instance, he would eventually be referred to as 'Il Duce' or 'the Leader'.
  • ​For Mussolini, the Italian totalitarian state would operate a few key elements.
  • First, Mussolini constructed the Italian parliament such that it benefitted the fascists.
  • It was Mussolini who said, "People exist for the state not the state for its people."
  • Clement Attlee
  • Clement Attlee was the Prime Minister of Britain/UK when British Parliament passed an independence bill for India in July 1947.
  • Clement Attlee was a British politician and the leader of the Labour Party
  • Hirohito:
  • Hirohito, the Emperor of Japan from 1926 to 1989,
  • He wrote several works, mostly focusing on his experiences and interests.
  • One of the most notable is:
  • "The Gyokuon-hōsō
  • This was a radio address by Emperor Hirohito on August 15, 1945, where he announced Japan's surrender in World War II.
26

Pandit Ayodhya Prasad is associated with _________ .

  1. ((a))

    pakhawaj

  2. ((b))

    veena

  3. ((c))

    flute

  4. ((d))

    guitar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pakhawaj

The correct answer is pakhawaj

Key Points

  • Pandit Ayodhya Prasad is associated with percussion instruments, particularly the pakhawaj.
  • Percussion instruments are played by striking, shaking, or scraping,
  • It often used to provide rhythm and tempo in music
  • The pakhawaj is a two-headed drum that is primarily used in the classical music traditions of North India, especially in dhrupad and thumri performances.
  • It is considered a precursor to the tabla and is known for its deep, resonant tones.

Additional Information

InstrumentRelated Personality
SantoorPt. Shiv Kumar Sharma, Bhajan Sopori
SarodAmjad Ali Khan, Sharan Rani, Ali Akbar Khan, Buddhadev Dasgupta
SitarPt. Ravi Shankar, Anushka Shankar, Mushtaq Ali Khan, Ustad Vilayat Khan
SarangiShakoor Khan, Pt. Ram Narayan, Ustad Binda Khan
VeenaZia Mohiuddin Dagar, Emani Sankara Shastri
ViolinMS Gopalakrishnan, M Chandrashekhar, N Rajam
GuitarBraj Bhushan Kabra
MandolinU Srinivas
ShehnaiUstad Bismillah Khan, Ali Ahmad Hussain
FluteHari Prasad Chaurasiya, Pannalal Ghosh
TablaZakir Hussain, Allah Rakha Khan, Pt. Krishan Maharaj
MrindagamKV Prasad, SV Rajarao, Palghat Mani Iyer
KanjraPuddukkoti Dakshinmurthi Pillai
GhatamTH Vinayakaram, EM Subramaniam
PakhawajTotaram Sharma, Pt. Ayodhya Prasad, Gopal das
27

High Courts have the power to issue writs under which Article of the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 222

  2. ((b))

    Article 223 

  3. ((c))

    Article 226

  4. ((d))

    Article 225 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 226

The correct answer is Article 226.

Key Points

  • The High Court's power  to issue writs is mentioned under Article 226.
  • A High Court is authorized to issue directives, orders, or writs under Article 226 for the enforcement of a Fundamental Right as well as for any other reason, including writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
  • While exercising its judicial review authority, the High Court does not serve as an appellant body.
  • It is concerned with the unlawfulness, irrationality, and improper procedural conduct of a state or statutory authority's order.

Additional Information

  • Other Important Articles
Article 222Article 222- It Deals with the Transfer of a judge from one court to another
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 226• Article 226- States about the Power of high court to issue certain writs.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 226• Article 226- States about the Power of high court to issue certain writs.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
28

Ashvaghosha, the author of Buddhacharita, was the philosopher in the court of which Kushana kings? 

  1. ((a))

    Kanishka I

  2. ((b))

    Vasudeva I 

  3. ((c))

    Huvishka

  4. ((d))

    Vima Kadphises

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kanishka I

The correct answer is Kanishka I

Key Points 

  • Ashvaghosha was a philosopher and poet who is considered India’s greatest poet before Kalidasa (5th century) and the father of Sanskrit drama.
  • He popularized the style of Sanskrit poetry known as kavya.
  • Ashvaghosha adorned the court of Kanishka I
  • He was born in Saketa in northern India.
  • Though Pali language literature was popular in Buddhism, Ashvaghosha wrote in Classical Sanskrit.
  • Ashvaghosha spoke at length on Mahayana (Greater Vehicle) Buddhist doctrine at the fourth Buddhist council, which he helped organize.
  • Buddhacharita wrote by Ashvaghosha is an epic on the life of the Buddha.
  • He also wrote Saundarananda, with the theme of conversion of Nanda, Buddha's half-brother, so that he might reach salvation.
  • He is also thought to be the author of the Sutralankara.

Additional Information

  • The Kushanas:
  • The first Kushana dynasty was founded by Kujula Kadphises.
  • Vima Kadphises issued gold coins in India.
  • Kanishka founded the second Kushana dynasty.
  • Their capitals were at Peshawar and Mathura.
  • The most famous Kushana ruler was Kanishka, he was also known as ‘Second Ashoka’.
  • He started an era in 78 AD which is now known as the Saka Era and is used by the Government of India.
  • Kanishka was a great patron of Mahayana Buddhism.
  • During his reign, the 4th Buddhist Council was held in Kundalavana, Kashmir where the doctrines of the Mahayana form of Buddhism were finalized.
  • The last great Kushana ruler was Vasudeva I.
  • The Kushanas were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale.
29

Match List I (name of the periodic element) with List II (symbols of the periodic element) and select the correct code.

LIST - ILIST - II
(A)Magnesiumi.Mn
(B)Boronii.B
(C)Manganeseiii.Ba
(D)Bariumiv.Mg

 

Code:ABCD
Iiviiiiii
IIiiiiviii
IIIiviiiiii
IViviiiiii
  1. ((a))

    III

  2. ((b))

    I

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IV

The correct answer is IV

Key Points

  • Magnesium:

  • The symbol for Magnesium is Mg.

  • So, A matches with iv.

  • Boron:

  • The symbol for Boron is B.

  • So, B matches with ii.

  • Manganese:

  • The symbol for Manganese is Mn.

  • So, C matches with i.

  • Barium:

  • The symbol for Barium is Ba.

  • So, D matches with iii.

  • So Final Matching

  • | List I (Element Name) | List II (Symbol) | | --- | --- | | A. Magnesium | iv. Mg | | B. Boron | ii. B | | C. Manganese | i. Mn | | D. Barium | iii. Ba |

  • Thus, the correct code is I: iv, ii, i, iii, which corresponds to Option IV.

30

Name the Freedom fighter who formed a clan of non-violent revolutionaries called Khudai Khidmatgars in 1929.

  1. ((a))

    KM Ashraf

  2. ((b))

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

  3. ((c))

    Abbas Tayabji 

  4. ((d))

    Mohammed Yasin Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

The correct answer is Abdul Gaffar Khan.

Key Points

  • Abdul Ghaffar Khan organised the “Khudai Khidmatgar” in 1929.
  • Abdul Ghaffar Khan:
  • Abdul Ghaffār Khan, popularly known as Badshah Khan, was a Pashtun independence activist against British colonial rule in India.
  • He was a political and metaphysical leader known for his nonviolent opposition and lifelong pacifism.
  • He was a pious Muslim and an advocate for Hindu−Muslim unity in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Due to his identical ideologies and close friendship with Mahatma Gandhi, Khan was nicknamed Sarhadi Gandhi by his close associate Amir Chand Bombwal.
  • In 1929, Khan established the Khudai Khidmatgar an anti-colonial nonviolent resistance movement.
  • The Khudai Khidmatgar's prosperity and popularity with the Indian people eventually prompted the British to launch a severe crackdown against him.
  • The Khudai Khidmatgar undergone some of the most severe repression of the entire Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

  • The Lal Kurti or Red Shirt Movement was also launched by Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1930–31.
  • It is also called the "Khudai Khidmatgar" Movement.
  • Khudai Khidmatgar is a Persian word that means in Hindi 'Servant of God'.
  • Aim: To support the Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhiji.
  • The movement opposed the Partition of India.
  • It was a non-violent movement in which Men wore the Red Shirt and Women wore Black garments.
  • For this reason, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pashtun freedom fighter, in the North-West Frontier Province had conferred the title of Frontier Gandhi.
  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, after attending a meeting of the Indian National Congress in 1929, established Khudai Khidmatgar and called for the Red Kurti movement among the Pashtuns.
  • He was arrested while giving a speech at a gathering in Utmanzai, a town in the N-W Frontier Province.
  • His first arrest on the charge of rebellion was for 3 years. After that, he got into the habit of facing tortures.
  • After the arrest of Ghaffar Khan on April 23, 1930, during the Salt Satyagraha, Khidmatgars took out a procession at the Qissa Khwani Bazaar in Peshawar.
  • The British administration ordered firing and 200 to 250 people died on sight, but there was no reprisal.
31

The National Sports Festival for Women was started in __________.

  1. ((a))

    1974

  2. ((b))

    1975

  3. ((c))

    1976

  4. ((d))

    1970

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1975

The correct answer is 1975

Key Points

  • The National Sports Festival for Women was started in 1975 as part of the celebration of International Women's Year by the Government of India to boost women's participation in games and sports.
  • The festival emerged during the International Women's Year, which the United Nations declared in 1975, emphasizing gender equality and women's empowerment globally.
  • Objectives 
  • To encourage more women to take up sports and make it a part of their daily lives.
  • To discover talented female athletes who could represent India in national and international competitions.
  • To discover talented female athletes who could represent India in national and international competitions.

Additional Information

  • The National Sports Day in India is celebrated on August 29.
  • National Sports Day was included in the list of celebratory days in India for the first time in 2012.
  • The National Sports Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of hockey legend Dhyan Chand Singh.
  • The government has also used this day as a platform to launch various sports schemes, including the Khelo India movement, which was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2018.
  • The National Sports Day is also an occasion that sees the nation honour its sporting heroes with recognitions like the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, Arjuna Award, Dhyan Chand Award and the Dronacharya Award.
  • At a special ceremony held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, the President of India takes this day to confer these awards.
32

Which of the following states topped the medal tally in the Khelo India Youth Games 2023? 

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Haryana

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

  • Maharashtra topped the medal tally in the 2023 Khelo India Youth Games, with a total of 158 medals
  • Khelo India Youth Games:-
  • It is a national-level multi-sport event for young athletes in India.
  • In the 2023 games, Maharashtra won a total of 158 medals (including gold, silver, and bronze). 55 were silver out of those.
  • Maharashtra's performance was boosted by strong showings in sports such as athletics, swimming, and wrestling.
  • The state has consistently performed well in the Khelo India Youth Games, with a total of 307 medals won across all editions of the event so far.
  • Other States​
  • Tamil Nadu: Total 98 medals (38 Gold, 21 Silver, 39 Bronze)
  • Haryana: Total 103 medals (35 Gold, 22 Silver, 46 Bronze)
  • Uttar Pradesh: Total 42 medals(11 Gold,13 Silver,18 Bronze)
  • Punjab: Total 39 medals(11 Gold, 13 Silver,15 Bronze)

Additional Information

Khelo India Youth Games:

  • Earlier they are known as Khelo India School Games
  • ​The second edition of Khelo India Youth Games was held in Pune.
  • Maharashtra topped the Medal tally with 228 medals, whereas Haryana and Delhi claimed the second and third spot.
  • Maharashtra bagged 'General Championship of Khelo India 2019' with 85 Gold Medals.
  • Students from colleges and universities competed in the games.
  • The 1st edition of Khelo India games was held in Delhi in January 2018.
  • The Khelo India games are organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
  • 3rd edition of the Khelo India Youth Games will be held at Guwahati from January 18-30, 2020. The Games will see a participation of more than 10,000 athletes and officials. It will be conducted in partnership with IOA, SGFI, and Assam as a host state.
33

National Food Security Mission was launched in India in the year 2007-08 to increase the production of rice, wheat and ________. 

  1. ((a))

    saffron

  2. ((b))

    millet

  3. ((c))

    pulses

  4. ((d))

    fruits

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

pulses

The correct answer is pulses

Key Points

National Food Security Mission (NFSM):

  • National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007-08 to increase the production of rice, wheat and pulses through:
  • area expansion and productivity enhancement,
  • restoring soil fertility and productivity,
  • Creating employment opportunities and
  • enhancing the farm-level economy.
  • Coarse cereals were also included in the Mission from 2014-15 under NFSM. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • The interventions covered under NFSM include cluster demonstrations on an improved package of practices, demonstrations on cropping system, Seed distribution of high yielding varieties, farm machinery/resources conservation machinery/tools, efficient water application tools, plant protection measures, nutrient management/soil ameliorants, cropping system based training to the farmers, etc.
  • NFSM continued during the 12th Five Year Plan with the target of additional production of 25 million tonnes of food grains.
  • Beyond the 12th Plan, the mission is being continued with a new additional target of 13 million tonnes of foodgrains from 2017-18 to 2019-20.
  • The country achieved bumper production of foodgrains during 2017-18 at 285.01 million tonnes.
  • As per 4th Advance Estimates, total foodgrains production achieved during 2018-19 is 284.95 million tonnes.
  • NFSM is being implemented in identified districts of 29 states in the country.

Additional Information

National Food Security Act, 2013:

  • National Food Security Act, 2013 As passed by the Parliament, Government has notified the National Food Security Act, 2013 on 10th September 2013 with the objective to provide for food and nutritional security in human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
  • The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.
34

The autobiography ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is written by:

  1. ((a))

    Nelson Mandela

  2. ((b))

    BR Ambedkar

  3. ((c))

    Rabindranath Tagore 

  4. ((d))

    MK Gandhi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nelson Mandela

The correct answer is Nelson Mandela.

Key Points 

  • Long Walk to Freedom is an autobiographical work written by South African President Nelson Mandela and was first published in 1994.
  • Nelson Mandela was a South African political leader.
  • He is well known as the father of the nation of South Africa.
  • He is well known for the Anti-Apartheid Movement in South Africa.
  • He served as the first President of South Africa from 1994 to 1999.
  • India awarded him the Bharat Ratna in 1990.
  • Pakistan awarded him Nishan-e-Pakistan in 1992.
  • Honoured with the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993.
  • Notable works:
  • Conversations With Myself.
  • The Struggle Is My Life.
  • No Easy Walk to Freedom.
  • In His Own Words.​

Additional Information

  • BR Ambedkar
  • ​Dr. BR Ambedkar was elected to the constituent assembly from West Bengal.
  • The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to draft the Constitution of India.
  • An idea for a Constituent Assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
  • It became an official demand of the Indian National Congress in 1935.
  • Rabindranath Tagore 
  • It was born on 7th May 1861 in the Bengali Brahim family.
  • He was the first non-European and first from Asia who was conferred with the Nobel Prize in Literature for the extraordinary "Gitanjali" in 1913.
  • Satyendranath Tagore(Elder brother) of Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian who passed the elite Indian Civil Services examination from India.
  • Rabindranath Tagore founded the famous Visha-Bharati(Santiniketan) in 1917.
  • Mahatma Gandhi
  • Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, commonly known as Mahatma Gandhi, was an Indian lawyer, politician and national who promoted and practised nonviolent resistance to lead the successful campaign for India's independence from British rule.
  • During his lifetime, Gandhiji ran four publications — Indian Opinion, Young India, Navajeevan and Harijan.
  • Among his other noteworthy books are Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule, Satyagraha in South Africa, etc.
35

Which of the following options had figured in the royal emblem of the Chola dynasty? 

  1. ((a))

    Tiger

  2. ((b))

    Elephant

  3. ((c))

    Fish

  4. ((d))

    Horse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tiger

The correct answer is Tiger

Key Points

  • The Chola dynasty was one of the Ancient dynasties that ruled over South India.
  • The capital of Cholas was Uraiyar.
  • Tiger was their state Emblem.
  • The tiger flag of Chola is mentioned in Periya Puranam.

Additional Information

EmblemState
Twin FishPandyas
Bow and ArrowCheras
Lion Capital (Sarnath)India
36

Which Indian state has got the highest literacy rate as per National Survey of India 2022?

  1. ((a))

    Goa

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • As per the census 2011, Kerala has the highest total literacy rate in India.
  • Literacy rate in Kerala has seen upward trend and is 94.00 percent as per 2011 population census.
  • Of that, male literacy stands at 96.11 percent while female literacy is at 92.07 percent.
  • As per details from Census 2011, Kerala has population of 3.34 Crores, an increase from figure of 3.18 Crore in 2001 census.

Additional Information 

  • The Census 2011 is the 15th National census survey conducted by the Census Organization of India.
  • C. Chandramouli is the Commissioner & Registrar General of the Indian 2011 Census.
  • The 2011 Indian National Census has been conducted in 2 phases - house listing and population.
  • The national census survey covered all the 28 states of the country and 7 Union territories including 640 districts, 497 cities, 5767 tehsils & over 6 lakh villages.
37

According to Sangam texts, the term uzhavar means:

  1. ((a))

    slaves

  2. ((b))

    large landowners

  3. ((c))

    teachers

  4. ((d))

    ordinary ploughmen

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ordinary ploughmen

The correct answer is ordinary ploughmen

Key Points

  • Ordinary ploughmen were known as Uzhavar.
  • These were individuals engaged in plowing and cultivating the land, playing a vital role in the agrarian economy of the Sangam period.
  • Agriculture was a primary occupation during this time, and Uzhavars were highly regarded in society for their contributions to food production and sustenance.
  • Landless labourers, including slaves, were known as Kadaisiyar and Adimai.
  • According to the early Tamil Literature (Sangam Texts), the large landowners living in the villages are called Vellalar.

Additional Information

  • In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the Gramabhojaka.
  • Usually, men from the same family held the position for generations.
  • In other words, the post was hereditary.
  • The Gramabhojaka was often the largest landowner.
  • He also functioned as a judge, and sometimes as a policeman.
  • There were other independent farmers, known as Grihapatis, most of whom were smaller landowners.
  • And then there were men and women such as the Dasa Karmakara, who did not own land and had to earn a living working on the fields owned by others.
38

The famous festival known as ‘Paro Tschechu’ is associated with which country?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    Burma

  3. ((c))

    Bhutan

  4. ((d))

    Thailand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bhutan

The correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

  • Paro Tschechu is a famous annual religious festival celebrated in Bhutan.
  • It is a four-day festival held in the Paro Valley of Bhutan, usually in March or April, to commemorate the birth anniversary of Guru Rinpoche, the patron saint of Bhutan.
  • The festival features colorful traditional dances, mask performances, and religious rituals performed by monks and laypeople in elaborate costumes and masks.
  • The festival also attracts a large number of tourists from around the world who come to witness the vibrant cultural heritage of Bhutan.

Additional Information 

  • Japan is known for its own unique festivals such as the Cherry Blossom Festival and the Gion Matsuri Festival.
  • Thailand is known for festivals such as Songkran (Thai New Year) and Loi Krathong (Festival of Lights).
  • Burma is known for festivals such as Thingyan (Burmese New Year) and Taunggyi Tazaungdaing (Hot Air Balloon Festival).
39

Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers a High Court to issue writs?

  1. ((a))

    Article 230

  2. ((b))

    Article 220

  3. ((c))

    Article 223

  4. ((d))

    Article 226 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 226 

The correct answer is Article 226.

Key Points

  • The High Court's power  to issue writs is mentioned under Article 226.
  • A High Court is authorized to issue directives, orders, or writs under Article 226 for the enforcement of a Fundamental Right as well as for any other reason, including writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
  • While exercising its judicial review authority, the High Court does not serve as an appellant body.
  • It is concerned with the unlawfulness, irrationality, and improper procedural conduct of a state or statutory authority's order.

Additional Information

  • Other Important Articles
Article 222Article 222- It Deals with the Transfer of a judge from one court to another
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 226• Article 226- States about the Power of high court to issue certain writs.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
Article 224• Article 224- States about the Appointment of additional and acting judges in the high court.
Article 224A• Article 224A- States about the Appointment of retired judges at sitting of the high court.
Article 228• Article 228- States about the Transfer of certain cases to the high court.
Article 226• Article 226- States about the Power of high court to issue certain writs.
Article 225• Article 225- States about the Jurisdiction of the existing high court.
Article 223• Article 223- States about the Appointment of acting chief justice of the high court.
Article 233• Article 233- States about the Appointment of the district judge.
Article 227• Article 227- States about the Power of superintendence over all courts by the high court.
Article 231• Article 231- States about the Establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
Article 230• Article 230- States about the Extension of jurisdiction of the high court to union territories.
40

Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, was the term “Secular” added in the Preamble? 

  1. ((a))

    43rd Constitutional Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    44th Constitutional Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

    41st Constitutional Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

    42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment.

Key Points

  • The term "secular" was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
  • When any disputed arise relating to recruitment and conditions of service of public servants Tribunals are responsible for solving them.
  • 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,1976 has added new Part XIV-A which entitles as "Tribunals".
  • Article 323 A empowers tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and service of Public servants at centre and state.
  • Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985.
  • It is a multi-member body consisting of one chairman and 65 members.
  • They are appointed by President.
  • Chairman hold office for 5 year or until 65 years of age. Members hold office for 5 year or until 62 years of age

Additional Information

  • 44th Constitutional Amendment Act​
  • The 44th Amendment altered Article 359 and one can now approach the Supreme Court and the High Courts to issue writs in the nature of Habeas Corpus, which was not possible at the time of the 1975 Emergency.
  • Under Article 352 of the Indian constitution, the president can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the cabinet of ministers headed by the prime minister.
  • 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act 
  • The 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India was enacted in 1977.
  • It was passed during the Janata Party government after the Emergency period.
  • The main purpose of the amendment was to reverse some provisions introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which had significantly altered the Indian Constitution.
  • 41st Constitutional Amendment Act
  • The 41st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 was a significant amendment to the Indian Constitution.
  • It focused mainly on matters related to the representation of Union Territories and changes to the electoral process.
  • It increased the representation of Delhi (National Capital Territory) in the Lok Sabha, acknowledging its growing importance and population.
41

Khandesh was incorporated into the Mughal empire in which of the following years?

  1. ((a))

    1601

  2. ((b))

    1603

  3. ((c))

    1598

  4. ((d))

    1600

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1601

The correct answer is 1601

Key Points

  • Malik Ahmad -
  • The Farooqi dynasty was the ruling dynasty of the Khandesh sultanate from its inception in 1382 till its annexation by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1601.
  • The founder of this dynasty was Malik Ahmad.
  • Akbar annexed Khandesh after a military campaign against its ruler, Raja Ali Khan, who initially resisted Mughal authority.
  • The decisive battle took place at Asirgarh Fort, which Akbar captured after a prolonged siege, marking the integration of Khandesh into the expanding Mughal Empire.

Important Points

  • Akbar (1542- 1605)
  • He reigned from 1556 to 1605.
  • He constructed Fatehpur Sikri and made it his capital in 1569.
  • Buland Darwaza was constructed at the gate.
  • He started a new religion Din-i Ilahi in 1581-82.
  • Abul Fazl wrote his biography titled Akbarnama.
  • Nine of his courtiers were known as Navratnas.
  • They were Todar Mal, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Birbal, Tansen, Abdur Rahim Khana-i-Khana, Mullah-do-Pyaza, Raja Man Singh, and Fakir Aziao-Din.
  • He married a Hindu princess Harka Bai who is commonly known as Jodha Bai.
  • Akbar captured the historic fortress of Chitor in 1568.
  • He abolished the pilgrimage tax by Hindus in 1563.
  • He also abolished the Jizyah tax in 1579.
  • He also introduced the Mansabdari System or the rank-holder system to organize the nobility and army.
42

Which place in the north-eastern part of the northern Indian state of Himachal Pradesh is popularly known as the Cold Desert Mountains?

  1. ((a))

    Sangti Valley

  2. ((b))

    Parvati Valley

  3. ((c))

    Aalo Valley

  4. ((d))

    Spiti Valley

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Spiti Valley

The correct answer is Spiti Valley

Key Points

  • Spiti Valley is the cold desert mountain valley in the northeastern part of Himachal Pradesh that is known as the Cold Desert Mountains:
  • Spiti Valley is in the rain shadow region of the Greater Himalayan ranges.
  • It is bordered by Kinnaur to the southeast, Kullu to the south, and the valleys of Zanskar and Ladakh to the north.
  • The valley shares a boundary with Tibet to the east.
  • The name "Spiti" means "The middle land", which is the land between India and Tibet.

Additional Information

  • Parvati Valley
  • ​Parvati Valley is situated in the northern Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
  • From the confluence of the Parvati River with the River Beas
  • The Parvati Valley runs eastwards, through a steep-sided valley from the town of Bhuntar, in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh in Northern India
43

Select the personality who received the Sangeet Natak Akademi 2021 award for his/her contribution in Mohiniyattam.

  1. ((a))

    Thokchom Ibemubi Devi

  2. ((b))

    Bhuvan Kumar

  3. ((c))

    Neena Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Bijay Kumar Jena

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Neena Prasad

The correct answer is Neena Prasad

Key Points

  • The personality who received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2021 for her contribution to Mohiniyattam is Neena Prasad.
  • She trained under prominent gurus, including Kalamandalam Sugandhi and Kalamandalam Kshemavathi.
  • She has founded Bharata Ilango Foundation for Asian Culture (BIFAC) in Thiruvananthapuram
  • It is a centre dedicated to the promotion of classical dance and research.

Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam:
  • It is a classical dance form of Kerala, characterized by its graceful, swaying movements, feminine charm, and storytelling through expressions (abhinaya).
  • It is known as the "dance of the enchantress", it embodies beauty and devotion
  • Dr. Sunanda Nair became the first in India to acquire a Master’s degree in Mohiniyattam.
  • She completed her Ph.D. thesis in Intrinsic Lyrical Feminism in Mohiniyattam from Mumbai University.
  • Mohiniyattam is based on Natya Shastra’s lasya style.
  • It has delicate movements and more feminine facial expressions.
  • The movements are gentle and glide-like. They do not have terse rhythmic steps.
  • More emphasis is on the facial expressions and hand gestures.
44

From which of the following countries did India adopt the ‘amendment procedure in the constitution’?

  1. ((a))

    South Africa 

  2. ((b))

    Ireland

  3. ((c))

    The US 

  4. ((d))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South Africa 

The correct answer is the South Africa

Key Points

  • India adopted the procedure for amending the constitution from South Africa.
  • **The Indian Constitution's Article 368 is based on **Article 74(1) of the South African Constitution.
  • This article states that a two-thirds majority of the members of Parliament can amend the Constitution, as long as the amendment doesn't go against the Constitution's fundamental principles.

Additional Information Things Borrowed from other Countries

  • Government of India Act of 1935
  • Federal Scheme
  • Office of governor
  • Judiciary
  • Public Service Commissions
  • Emergency provisions
  • Administrative details
  • Britain
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative procedure
  • Single citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Prerogative writs
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameralism
  • Ireland
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • The nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of the president
  • Unites the States of America
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Functions of president and vice-president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Judicial review
  • Independence of judiciary
  • The preamble of the constitution
  • Canada
  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
  • Appointment of state governors by the Centre
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  • Australia
  • Concurrent List
  • Freedom of trade
  • Commerce and intercourse
  • The joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
  • Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia)
  • Fundamental duties
  • The ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble
  • France
  • The ideals of the Republic in the Preamble
  • The ideals of liberty in the Preamble
  • The ideals of equality in the Preamble
  • The ideals of fraternity in the Preamble
  • Weimar Constitution of Germany
  • Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
  • South African Constitution
  • Procedure for amendment of the Constitution
  • Election of members of Rajya Sabha
  • Japan
  • Concept of “procedure established by Law”
45

The Dronacharya award is given to _________.

  1. ((a))

    best coach

  2. ((b))

    best player 

  3. ((c))

    best teacher 

  4. ((d))

    best soldier

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

best coach

The correct answer is Coach.

Key Points

  • Dronacharya award is given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, for excellence in sports coaching.
  • The award is known as after Drona, often referred to as "Dronacharya" or "Guru Drona", a personality from the Sanskrit epic Mahabharata of ancient India.
  • The  Dronacharya award contains a medallion, a certificate, and a money prize of Rs 15 lakh(lifetime) and 10 Lakh (regular).

Additional Information

  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
  • It is that the highest sporting award given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports for the spectacular and top performance within the field of sports by a sportsperson.
  • This, award contains a medallion, a certificate, and a money prize of Rs 25 lakh.
  • Arjuna Awards:
  • This award is given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to acknowledge outstanding action in National sports.
  • Instituted in 1961, the award carries a money prize of Rs 15 Lakh, a bronze sculpture of Arjuna, and a scroll.
46

Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is a world-renowned exponent of the ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Sarod

  2. ((b))

    Sitar

  3. ((c))

    Bansuri

  4. ((d))

    tabla

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bansuri

The correct answer is Bansuri.

Key Points

  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is a world-renowned exponent of the bansuri or bamboo flute.
  • He is one of those rare classical musicians who expanded the peripheries of classical music by taking it to the common masses.
  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia is an internationally renowned exponent of the 'bansuri', or the bamboo flute and is the recipient of the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan awards, which are among the three highest civilian awards in India.
  • This musician has donned many hats — of an extraordinary flute artiste, titan of Hindustani classical genre and music director.​

Additional Information

  • Tabla
  • Tabla is a small drum or  Pair of Drums tuned to different pitches playing with hands.
  • It was invented by Amir khusru
  • The right side is called the Tabla and the left, the Bayan or Dagga.
  • It is type of Avanaddha vadya or  Membranophones​​
  • Sarod
  • The sarod is one of the leading instruments of Hindustani music.
  • The term sarod, meaning song or melody is of Persian origin.
  • Some scholars suggest that the word might also be used to denote some type of musical instrument of the medieval period.
  • The body of the instrument can be divided into three parts: the Peg box, the Fingerboard, and the Resonator called Pyala, which is enclosed with parched ski​
  • Drum:-
  • The drum is made of wood or brass with drumheads made of calfskin or plastic stretched over both ends of a hollow cylinder.
  • It has a set of wire-wrapped strings stretched across the bottom head (the snare), which gives the drum its unique "rattling" sound when the drum is hit. A small switch on the side of the drum allows the player to turn the snare on or off depending on the requirements of the piece.
47

In the Lok Sabha, ________ seats are reserved for the members from Scheduled Castes. 

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    82

  3. ((c))

    73

  4. ((d))

    84

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

84

The correct answer is 84.

Key Points 

  • Lok Sabha considered as the lower house.
  • It has seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Tribes.
  • As per the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008, 412 are general, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes .
  • The number of seats reserved for scheduled tribes was increased from 79 to 84 in the 15th Lok Sabha elections.
  • The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552.

Additional Information

  • 131 seats out of the 543 Lok Sabha seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • This is approximately 24% of all the seats.
  • 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes, and 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
  • These numbers are changed by the Delimitation Commission of India based on changes in the population.
  • By-election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the Hon'ble President. which was removed by 104th constitutional Amendment Act.
48

Below are some statements about the Ozone layer.

Statement 1. It is found in the stratosphere.

Statement 2. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for Ozone hole.

Statement 3. Ozone layer is found around 15–30 km above the earth’s surface.

Statement 4. Ozone layer is expected not to recover anymore now.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Only statements 2, 3 and 4 

  2. ((b))

    Only statements 3 and 4 

  3. ((c))

    Only statements 1, 2 and 3

  4. ((d))

    Only statements 1 and 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only statements 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is Only statements 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • The Ozone layer is indeed found in the stratosphere, which is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere, just above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer, leading to the formation of the ozone hole.
  • The ozone layer is located approximately 15-30 km above the Earth's surface, which helps protect living organisms by filtering out harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect because recent studies have shown that the ozone layer is slowly recovering due to the global reduction in the use of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances, primarily due to the Montreal Protocol.

Additional Information

  • Ozone Layer
  • The ozone layer is a high concentration of ozone (O3) molecules located in the stratosphere, about 15 to 30 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • It plays a crucial role in absorbing the majority of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, particularly UV-B and UV-C rays, which can cause skin cancer and cataracts in humans and are harmful to marine life and plants.
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
  • CFCs are man-made chemical compounds that were commonly used in air conditioning, refrigeration, and as propellants in aerosol sprays.
  • When CFCs are released into the atmosphere, they eventually reach the stratosphere, where they are broken down by UV radiation, releasing chlorine atoms which then deplete ozone molecules.
  • Montreal Protocol
  • The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including CFCs, halons, and other related chemicals.
  • It was agreed upon on September 16, 1987, and has been ratified by all 197 UN member countries, making it one of the most successful environmental agreements in history.
  • Thanks to the Montreal Protocol, the ozone layer is expected to recover to 1980 levels by the middle of the 21st century.
  • Stratosphere
  • The stratosphere is the second layer of the Earth's atmosphere, situated above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
  • It extends from about 10 km to 50 km above the Earth's surface.
  • The stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.
49

The Sun Temple of Konark is located on the shore of the ______.

  1. ((a))

    Bay of Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Indian Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Red Sea

  4. ((d))

    Arabian Sea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bay of Bengal

The correct answer is the Bay of Bengal.

Key Points

  • On the shores of the Bay of Bengal, the temple at Konark was built in the 13th century.
  • Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri.
  • Built in the 13th year by King Narasimha I (AD 1238-1264).
  • Its scale, refinement and concept represent the strength and stability of the Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historical environment.
  • The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot.
  • It is dedicated to the god sun.
  • In this sense, it is directly and materially linked to Brahmanism and tantric belief systems.
  • The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work.
  • It marks the highest point of achievement of Kalinga architecture depicting the grace, the joy and the rhythm of life all its wondrous variety.
  • It was declared a UNESCO world heritage site in 1984.
  • There are two rows of 12 wheels on each side of the Konark sun temple.
  • Sailors once called this Sun Temple of Konark, the Black Pagoda because it was supposed to draw ships into the shore and cause shipwrecks.
  • Konârak is the invaluable link in the history of the diffusion of the cult of Surya, which originating in Kashmir during the 8th century, finally reached the shores of Eastern India.

Additional Information

  • Arabian Sea
  • It is Located in the northern Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea is bordered by Pakistan and Iran to the northwest, the Gulf of Aden, Guardafui Channel, and the Arabian Peninsula to the west, the Laccadive Sea to the southeast, and the Somali Sea to the southeast.
  • The Arabian Sea has one of the world's three largest oceanic oxygen minimum zones, or "dead zones".
  • Indian Ocean
  • It is Located to the south of India, the Indian Ocean is the youngest of the Pacific and Atlantic oceans.
  • The Java Trench, which stretches between the southern tips of Africa and Australia, is part of the Indian Ocean.
  • Red Sea
  • The Red Sea separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen.
  • It contains some of the world's warmest and saltiest seawater.
  • It is a part of the Indian Ocean and connects to it via the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait and the Gulf of Aden.
50

Hojagiri is a famous dance form of which of these states?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Tripura

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tripura

The Correct Answer is "Tripura".

Key Points 

  • Hojagiri is a folk dance performed in the state of Tripura by the Reang people.
  • Reang is one of the 21 scheduled tribes of the Indian state of Tripura.
  • The dance is performed by women and young girls, about 4 to 6 members in a team, singing, balancing on an earthen pitcher, and managing other props such as a bottle on the head and earthen lamp on the hand, while only the lower half of the body is moved.
  • It is attractive due to its melodious songs accompanied by bamboo flute, cymbals, and the khamb.
  • The dance is performed during the Hojagiri festival or Laxmi Puja held on the following full moon night of Durga Puja, generally after 3rd day of Dashera.
  • The Goddess Mailuma, (Laxmi) is worshipped on this day.
  • The whole of the Huk or Jhum cultivation is exhibited through this dance.

5 facts you should know about the attractive Hojagiri dance of Tripura!

Additional Information

  • Tripura : 
  • ​Capital - Agartala
  • Main folk dances: Hozagiri dance of Reang community, Garia, Jhum, Maimita, Masak Sumani and Lebang boomani dances of Tripuri community, Bijhu dance of Chakma community, Cheraw and Welcome dances of Lusai community Hai-Hak dance of Malsum community, Wangala dance of Garo Community etc.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All Shirts are Cottons.

Some Shirts are Nets.

Conclusions:

I. All Nets are Shirts.

II. Some Nets are Cottons.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions I and II follow. 

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows.

Statements:

All Shirts are Cottons.

Some Shirts are Nets.

The least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. All Nets are Shirts. - False (because Some Shirts are Nets. So, All nets are shirts it is not definite)

II. Some Nets are Cottons. - True (because All Shirts are Cottons and Some Shirts are Nets. So, Some Nets are Cottons it is definite) 

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows."

52

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing ‘3’. 

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, 4 is common and on the same surface. So, all remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

2 is opposite to 5.

4 is opposite to 1.

So, 3 is opposite to 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

53

Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

JGI, HJG, FME, DPC, ?

  1. ((a))

    BSA

  2. ((b))

    BSB

  3. ((c))

    BRB

  4. ((d))

    ASA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BSA

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "BSA".

54

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure from the given options will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

55

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

1, 2, 5, 26, 677, ?

  1. ((a))

    3255

  2. ((b))

    45245

  3. ((c))

    24563

  4. ((d))

    458330

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

458330

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "458330".

56

Four different positions of the same dice are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite to the face showing ‘6’?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

For find the opposite surface of '6', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 3 and Dice 4,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from 4 we get;

→ 4 ⇔ 4; 6 ⇔ 1; 5 ⇔ 2

So, '1**'** will be the opposite face of '6'.

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

57

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

One more arrow is added in previous arrow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

58

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

59

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

Count the triangles in the given figure:

Thus triangles are there in the given figure = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

60

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

61

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Figure will complete the given pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

62

Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Red is sitting fourth to the right of White. Blue is sitting second to the right of Gray. Black is sitting third to the right of Pink. White is the immediate neighbour of Gray and Black.. Who is the immediate neighbour of Red and Pink?

  1. ((a))

    Blue

  2. ((b))

    Black

  3. ((c))

    Gray

  4. ((d))

    White

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blue

Given: Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

  1. Red is sitting fourth to the right of White.

  2. White is the immediate neighbour of Gray and Black.

  1. Blue is sitting second to the right of Gray. Here case 2 gets eliminated.

  1. Black is sitting third to the right of Pink.

So, Blue is the immediate neighbour of Red and Pink.

Hence, the correct answer is "Blue".

63

Which figure from the given options would replace the question mark (?) if the following figure series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

In figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Bottom-middle and bottom-right symbols are interchanging their position and bottom-left symbol is the same.

All middle symbols and all top-symbols are interchanging their position with each other in clockwise.

In figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

Top-middle and top-right symbols are interchanging their position and top-left symbol is the same.

All middle symbols and all bottom-symbols are interchanging their position with each other in clockwise.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

64

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

In figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Top symbols are shifting ahead in right side.

Middle letter and bottom-middle symbol interchange their position.

In figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All surface symbols are interchanging in clockwise direction with each other.

New symbol is added in middle alternatively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

65

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Exit : Leave

  1. ((a))

    Fate : Fete

  2. ((b))

    Select : Choose 

  3. ((c))

    Start : End

  4. ((d))

    Moat : Mote

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Select : Choose 

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Synonyms

Here,

Exit : Leave → Exit and Leave are synonyms.

Similarly,

Select : Choose → Select and Choose are synonyms.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

66

Six numbers, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 and 26 are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown here. Find the number on the face opposite 21. 

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

For find the opposite surface of '21', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

From both dices, 23 and 26 are common. So, remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

So, 24 will be opposite to 21.

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

67

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Figure will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

68

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(4, 42, 5),(3, 45, 7)

  1. ((a))

    (6, 49, 3)

  2. ((b))

    (6, 32, 2) 

  3. ((c))

    (7, 43, 4) 

  4. ((d))

    (7, 42, 5)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(6, 32, 2) 

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (1st number + 2) × (3rd number + 2) = 2nd number.

Now,

For (4, 42, 5):

⇒ (4 + 2) × (5 + 2)

= 6 × 7 = 42.

For (3, 45, 7)

⇒ (3 + 2) × (7 + 2)

= 5 × 9 = 45.

Similarly, for Option 2: (6, 32, 2)

⇒ (6 + 2) × (2 + 2)

= 8 × 4 = 32.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

69

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'AB' as shown. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

70

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face having ‘2’. 

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

For find the opposite surface of '2', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

From both dices, 4 is common and on the same surface. So, all remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

1 is opposite to 3.

6 is opposite to 5.

So, 4 will be opposite to 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

71

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

400 : 200 :: 248 : ? :: 256 : 128

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    148

  4. ((d))

    114

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

124

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (2nd number × 2) = 1st number.

Now,

For, 400 : 200

⇒ 200 × 2 = 400.

For, 256 : 128

⇒ 128 × 2 = 256.

Similarly, for 248 ∶ ?

⇒ 248 / 2 = 124.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

72

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

29 - 23 + 42 × 21 ÷ 2 = 10

  1. ((a))

    − and ÷ 

  2. ((b))
    • and ÷
  3. ((c))

    − and ×

  4. ((d))

    ÷ and ×

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

÷ and ×

Given equation: 29 - 23 + 42 × 21 ÷ 2 = 10

Option 1) - and ÷

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 29 ÷ 23 + 42 × 21 - 2 = 10

⇒ 1.27 + 42 × 21 - 2 = 10

1.27 + 882 - 2 = 10

883.27 - 2 = 10

⇒ 881.27 ≠ 10

Option 2) + and ÷

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 29 - 23 ÷ 42 × 21 + 2 = 10

29 - 11.5 + 2 = 10

31 - 11.5 = 10

⇒ 19.5 ≠ 10

Option 3) − and ×

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 29 × 23 + 42 - 21 ÷ 2 = 10

29 × 23 + 42 - 10.5 = 10

667 + 42 - 10.5 = 10

709 - 10.5 = 10

⇒ 698.5 ≠ 10

Option 4) ÷ and ×

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 29 - 23 + 42 ÷ 21 × 2 = 10

⇒ 29 - 23 + 2 × 2 = 10

29 - 23 + 4 = 10

33 - 23 = 10

10 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ and ×".

73

In a certain code language, ‘BAE’ is written as ‘512’ and ‘WIN’ is written as ‘14923’. How will ‘HER’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    1826

  2. ((b))

    1844

  3. ((c))

    1838

  4. ((d))

    1858

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1858

The logic followed here is:

‘BAE’ is written as ‘512’

‘WIN’ is written as ‘14923’

Similarly, ‘HER’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "1858".

74

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation.

5416362*9

  1. ((a))

    +, ×, –, ÷, =

  2. ((b))

    ÷, –, ×, +, =

  3. ((c))

    –, ×, +, ÷, =

  4. ((d))

    +, –, ×, ÷, = 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

–, ×, +, ÷, =

Given equation: 5416362*9

Option 1) +, ×, –, ÷, =

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 54 + 16 × 3 – 6 ÷ 2 = 9

⇒ 54 + 16 × 3 – 3 = 9

54 + 48 – 3 = 9

102 – 3 = 9

⇒ 99 = 9

Option 2) ÷, –, ×, +, =

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 54 ÷ 16 – 3 × 6 + 2 = 9

⇒ 3.375 – 3 × 6 + 2 = 9

3.375 – 18 + 2 = 9

5.375 – 18 = 9

⇒ 12.625 = 9

Option 3) –, ×, +, ÷, =

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 54 - 16 × 3 + 6 ÷ 2 = 9

⇒ 54 - 16 × 3 + 3 = 9

54 - 48 + 3 = 9

57 - 48 = 9

⇒ 9 = 9

Option 4) +, –, ×, ÷, = 

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 54 + 16 – 3 × 6 ÷ 2 = 9

⇒ 54 + 16 – 3 × 3 = 9

54 + 16 – 9 = 9

70 – 9 = 9

⇒ 61 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is "–, ×, +, ÷, =".

75

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The option figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

If 4 men or 8 women can do a work in 12 days, then in how many days can 9 men and 6 women do the same work?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Given:

4 men or 8 women can complete the work in 12 days.

Work done by 4 men in 12 days = 1 unit of work.

Work done by 8 women in 12 days = 1 unit of work.

Total work (W) = 1 unit.

Formula used:

Work rate = Total work ÷ Time

Combined rate = Work rate of men + Work rate of women

Time = Total work ÷ Combined rate

Calculation:

Work rate of 4 men in 1 day:

⇒ Work rate = Total work ÷ Time = 1 ÷ 12 = 1/12 units/day.

⇒ Rate of 1 man = (1/12) ÷ 4 = 1/48 units/day.

Work rate of 8 women in 1 day:

⇒ Work rate = Total work ÷ Time = 1 ÷ 12 = 1/12 units/day.

⇒ Rate of 1 woman = (1/12) ÷ 8 = 1/96 units/day.

Combined rate of 9 men and 6 women:

⇒ Rate = (9 × 1/48) + (6 × 1/96)

⇒ Rate = 9/48 + 6/96

⇒ Rate = 18/96 + 6/96 = 24/96 = 1/4 units/day.

Time taken by 9 men and 6 women:

⇒ Time = Total work ÷ Combined rate

⇒ Time = 1 ÷ (1/4) = 4 days.

∴ 9 men and 6 women can complete the work in 4 days.

77

The selling price of 32 items is equal to the cost price of 45 items. What is the percentage of profit made on the sale of each item?

  1. ((a))

    40.75%

  2. ((b))

    40.5%

  3. ((c))

    40.725%

  4. ((d))

    40.625%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40.625%

Given:

The selling price of 32 items is equal to the cost price of 45 items.

Formula Used:

Percentage of Profit = (Profit) / (Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of each item be C and the selling price of each item be S.

According to the given condition,

32S = 45C

⇒ S = (45 / 32)C

Profit on each item = Selling Price - Cost Price

⇒ Profit = S - C

⇒ Profit = (45 / 32)C - C

⇒ Profit = ((45 / 32) - 1)C

⇒ Profit = ((45 - 32) / 32)C

⇒ Profit = (13 / 32)C

Percentage of Profit = (Profit) / (Cost Price) × 100

⇒ Percentage of Profit = 1332CC×100\frac{\frac{13}{32}C}{C} × 100

⇒ Percentage of Profit = (13 / 32) × 100

⇒ Percentage of Profit = 40.625%

The correct answer is option 4.

78

A person divides his property so that his wife's share to his daughter's and the daughter's share to his son's, are both in the ratio 1 ∶ 4. If the wife gets ₹5,000 less than the son, the value (in ₹) of the whole property is:

  1. ((a))

    7,000

  2. ((b))

    5,000

  3. ((c))

    6,000

  4. ((d))

    8,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7,000

Given:

The ratio of the wife's share to the daughter's share = 1 ∶ 4.

The ratio of the daughter's share to the son's share = 1 ∶ 4.

The wife gets ₹5,000 less than the son.

Calculation:

(Wife's share)/(Daughter's share) = 1/4 

(Daughter's share)/(Son's share) = 1/4

After combine the ratio, we get

Wife's share : Daughter's share : Son's share = 1 : 4 : 16

Let wife's share = Rs. x

Daughter's share = 4x

Son's share = 16x

Total Property = x + 4x + 16x = 21x

According to question,

16x - x = 5000

15x = 5000

21x = (5000/15x) × 21x = 7000

The value (in ₹) of the whole property = Rs. 7000

79

The LCM of two numbers is 18 times their HCF. One of the numbers is 16 and the sum of the HCF and LCM is 152. What is the other number?

  1. ((a))

    32

  2. ((b))

    72

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

72

Shortcut Trick

Let HCF be H. Then LCM = 18H.

Sum: H + 18H = 152 ⇒ 19H = 152 ⇒ H = 8.

LCM = 18 × 8 = 144.

Using Product of Numbers = HCF × LCM:

16 × Other Number = 8 × 144 ⇒ Other Number = 144 ÷ 2 = 72.

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM = 18 × HCF

Sum of HCF and LCM = 152

First Number (n1) = 16

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ Let HCF = x

LCM = 18x

⇒ x + 18x = 152

⇒ 19x = 152

⇒ x = 152 ÷ 19 = 8

HCF = 8 and LCM = 18 × 8 = 144

⇒ n1 × n2 = HCF × LCM

⇒ 16 × n2 = 8 × 144

⇒ n2 = (8 × 144) ÷ 16

⇒ n2 = 144 ÷ 2 = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF Property

The HCF of two or more numbers is the greatest number that divides each of them exactly. LCM is always a multiple of HCF.

Co-prime Numbers

If the HCF of two numbers is 1, they are called co-prime numbers. For co-prime numbers, LCM is simply the product of the numbers.

80

In an equilateral triangle, each side is 'a' units. The altitude of this triangle is:

  1. ((a))

     a√3/2

  2. ((b))

    4a/3

  3. ((c))

    (√3a/√2

  4. ((d))

    (3a2/4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 a√3/2

Given:

In an equilateral triangle, each side is 'a' units.

Formula Used:

Altitude of an equilateral triangle = a32\frac{a √{3}}{2}

Calculation:

Side of the equilateral triangle = a units

Altitude = a32\frac{a √{3}}{2}

⇒ Altitude = a32\frac{a √{3}}{2}

The altitude of the equilateral triangle is a32\frac{a √{3}}{2} units.

81

The inradius of a triangle is 7 cm and its area is 343 cm2. The perimeter of the triangle is

  1. ((a))

    98 cm

  2. ((b))

    68 cm

  3. ((c))

    88 cm

  4. ((d))

    49 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

98 cm

Given:

Inradius of the triangle = 7 cm

Area of the triangle = 343 cm2

Formula Used:

Area of triangle = (Inradius × Perimeter) / 2

Calculation:

Let the perimeter of the triangle be P.

Using the formula:

Area = (Inradius × Perimeter) / 2

⇒ 343 = (7 × P) / 2

⇒ 343 = 7P / 2

Multiplying both sides by 2:

⇒ 686 = 7P

Dividing both sides by 7:

⇒ P = 686 / 7

⇒ P = 98 cm

The perimeter of the triangle is 98 cm.

82

A sum of Rs. 2,52,500 at the rate of 4.5% per annum for a period of 2.5 years will amount to how much (in Rs) if the money is invested at simple interest?

  1. ((a))

    2,75,906.50

  2. ((b))

    2,78,906.25

  3. ((c))

    2,82,906.25

  4. ((d))

    2,80,906.25

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2,80,906.25

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 2,52,500

Rate of interest (R) = 4.5% per annum

Time (T) = 2.5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T)/(100)

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculation:

SI = (2,52,500 × 4.5 × 2.5)/(100)

⇒ SI = (2,52,500 × 11.25)/(100)

⇒ SI = 28,406.25

Amount (A) = 2,52,500 + 28,406.25

⇒ Amount (A) = 2,80,906.25

The amount will be Rs. 2,80,906.25.

83

In how many seconds will a 210 m long train, travelling at a speed of 97 km/h, come from behind and completely cross a 240 m long train travelling at 79 km/h in the same direction as that of the first train?

  1. ((a))

    96

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    90

  4. ((d))

    84

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90

Given:

Length of the first train = 210 m

Speed of the first train = 97 km/h

Length of the second train = 240 m

Speed of the second train = 79 km/h

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Relative Speed

Calculation:

Relative Speed = Speed of the first train - Speed of the second train

Relative Speed = 97 km/h - 79 km/h

Relative Speed = 18 km/h

Convert relative speed to m/s:

Relative Speed = 18 × (1000 / 3600) m/s

Relative Speed = 5 m/s

Distance to be covered = Length of the first train + Length of the second train

Distance = 210 m + 240 m

Distance = 450 m

Time = Distance / Relative Speed

Time = 450 / 5

Time = 90 seconds

The train will take 90 seconds to completely cross the second train.

84

The marked price of a book is Rs. 700 but the retailer gets a discount of 20%. If the retailer sells the book at marked price, then the profit percentage is:

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25%

Given:

Marked price of the book = Rs. 700

Retailer gets a discount of 20%

Retailer sells the book at marked price

Formula Used:

Discounted Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount Percentage)

Profit Percentage = [(Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

Discount Percentage = 20% = 20/100 = 0.2

Discounted Price = 700 × (1 - 0.2)

⇒ Discounted Price = 700 × 0.8

⇒ Discounted Price = 560

Selling Price = Marked Price = Rs. 700

Cost Price = Discounted Price = Rs. 560

Profit Percentage = [(Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price] × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = [(700 - 560) / 560] × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = [140 / 560] × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 0.25 × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 25%

The profit percentage is 25%.

85

A person loses 18% of his money and after spending 87% of the remainder, he is left with Rs. 122. How much did he originally have? (Approximate value)

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,200

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,143.8

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,300

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,144.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 1,144.5

Given:

A person loses 18% of his money and after spending 87% of the remainder, he is left with Rs. 122.

Formula Used:

Let the original amount be x .

After losing 18%, remaining amount = x - 0.18x = 0.82x

After spending 87% of the remainder, amount left = 0.82x - 0.87 × 0.82x = 0.13 × 0.82x = 0.1066x

Calculation:

Given that the amount left is Rs. 122.

⇒ 0.1066x = 122

⇒ x = 122 / 0.1066

⇒ x ≈ 1144.5

The original amount he had was approximately Rs. 1,144.5.

86

The compound interest on a sum of Rs. 8,000 becomes Rs. 1,261 in 18 months. Find the rate of interest if interest is compounded half-yearly.

  1. ((a))

    12%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    10%

  4. ((d))

    8%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10%

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 8,000

Compound Interest (CI) = Rs. 1,261

Time (T) = 18 months = 1.5 years

Interest is compounded half-yearly

Formula Used:

CI = P(1 + r/n)nt - P

Where,

P = Principal amount

r = annual interest rate

n = number of times interest is compounded per year

t = time in years

Calculation:

Given CI = Rs. 1,261

So, CI + P = Amount (A)

A = 8,000 + 1,261

A = 9,261

n = 2 (since interest is compounded half-yearly)

t = 1.5 years

We need to find the rate (r). Using the formula for compound interest:

A = P(1 + r/n)nt

9,261 = 8,000(1 + r/2)3

Divide both sides by 8,000:

⇒ 9,261 / 8,000 = (1 + r/2)3

⇒ 1.157625 = (1 + r/2)3

Take the cube root on both sides to solve for r:

⇒ (1.157625)1/3 = 1 + r/2

⇒ 1.05 = 1 + r/2

⇒ 1.05 - 1 = r/2

⇒ 0.05 = r/2

⇒ r = 0.05 × 2

⇒ r = 0.1

The rate of interest is 0.1 or 10%.

87

Two wires, 18 m and 24 m long, are to be cut into pieces of equal length. Find the maximum length of each piece (in m).

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    18

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

Given:

Length of the first wire = 18 m.

Length of the second wire = 24 m.

Formula Used:

To find the maximum length of each piece, we need to determine the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of the lengths of the two wires.

Calculation:

To find the GCD of 18 and 24:

Prime factorization of 18 = 2 × 32

Prime factorization of 24 = 23 × 3

GCD is the product of the smallest power of each common prime factor.

Common prime factors are 2 and 3.

Smallest power of 2 = 21

Smallest power of 3 = 31

⇒ GCD = 21 × 31

⇒ GCD = 2 × 3

⇒ GCD = 6

The maximum length of each piece is 6 m.

88

The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 63. Which of the following is the largest number among them?

  1. ((a))

    65

  2. ((b))

    69

  3. ((c))

    67

  4. ((d))

    71

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

67

Given:

The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 63.

Formula Used:

Average of n consecutive odd numbers = Middle number

Calculation:

Let the 5 consecutive odd numbers be: x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8

Given that their average is 63.

Average = (x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6) + (x+8))/(5)

⇒ (5x + 20)/(5) = 63

⇒ 5x + 20 = 315

⇒ 5x = 295

⇒ x = 59

The 5 consecutive odd numbers are: 59, 61, 63, 65, 67

The largest number among them is 67.

89

Find the greatest number that divides 90, 180 and 240 exactly.

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

30

Given:

Numbers: 90, 180, 240

Formula Used:

To find the greatest number that divides multiple numbers exactly, use the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD).

Calculation:

Prime factorization:

90 = 2 × 32 × 5

180 = 22 × 32 × 5

240 = 24 × 3 × 5

Find the minimum power of each common prime factor:

2: min(1, 2, 4) = 1

3: min(2, 2, 1) = 1

5: min(1, 1, 1) = 1

GCD = 21 × 31 × 51

GCD = 2 × 3 × 5

⇒ GCD = 30

The greatest number that divides 90, 180, and 240 exactly is 30.

90

The base of a right-angle triangle is increased by 60%. How much its height should be decreased to retain the same area?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    45.2%

  3. ((c))

    60%

  4. ((d))

    37.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

37.5%

Given:

Initial base = bb, initial height = hh, initial area = 12×b×h\frac{1}{2} \times b \times h.

New base = b+60b + 60%\text{ of }b = 1.6b.

The area remains the same.

New height = h1h_1.

Formula used:

Area of triangle = 12×Base×Height\frac{1}{2} \times \text{Base} \times \text{Height}.

Calculation:

To retain the same area:

12×b×h=12×1.6b×h1\frac{1}{2} \times b \times h = \frac{1}{2} \times 1.6b \times h_1.

Equating the areas:

⇒ b×h=1.6b×h1b \times h = 1.6b \times h_1

⇒ h=1.6h1h = 1.6h_1

⇒ h1=h1.6h_1 = \frac{h}{1.6}

Percentage decrease in height:

⇒ Decrease=hh1=hh1.6=h×(111.6)\text{Decrease} = h - h_1 = h - \frac{h}{1.6} = h \times \left(1 - \frac{1}{1.6}\right)

⇒ Decrease=h×0.61.6=h×0.375\text{Decrease} = h \times \frac{0.6}{1.6} = h \times 0.375

Percentage decrease=0.375×100=37.5\text{Percentage decrease} = 0.375 \times 100 = 37.5%.

∴ The height should be decreased by 37.5% to retain the same area.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

In MS Excel 365, Which of the following is NOT a type of chart in MS Excel? 

  1. ((a))

    Line chart 

  2. ((b))

    Bar chart 

  3. ((c))

    Pie chart 

  4. ((d))

    Space chart 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Space chart 

The correct answer is Space chart .

Key Points

  • Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet program included in the Microsoft Office suite of applications.
  • It features calculation, graphing tools, pivot tables, and a macro programming language called VBA (Visual Basic for Applications).
  • Excel is widely used for data analysis, financial modeling, and other tasks involving numerical data.
  • Users can customize various aspects of Excel, including column widths, to better suit their specific needs and preferences.

Additional Information

  • Space Chart: A visual representation of data using symbols or icons to depict information, often used for geographical or spatial data.
  • Line Chart: A chart that uses lines to connect data points, showing trends and changes over time or across categories.
  • Bar Chart: A chart that uses rectangular bars to represent data, comparing values across different categories.
  • Pie Chart: A circular chart divided into slices, each representing a proportion of a whole.
92

Which of the following is used in MS Word 365 to change the case in a reverse way?

  1. ((a))

    Reverse case 

  2. ((b))

    Change case 

  3. ((c))

    Toggle case 

  4. ((d))

    Alter case

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Toggle case 

The correct answer is Toggle case.

Key Points

  • Toggle Case: Converts the case of each character in the selected text, switching between uppercase and lowercase.
  • Reverse Case: Reverses the case of each character in the selected text, converting uppercase to lowercase and vice versa.
  • Change Case: Allows you to change the case of the entire selected text to uppercase, lowercase, sentence case, or title case.
  • Alter Case: A more advanced case-changing option that offers granular control over case changes, such as capitalizing the first letter of each word or sentence.
  • Case Sensitivity: Refers to the distinction between uppercase and lowercase letters when searching or comparing text.

 Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word 365
  • Part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite, Word is a word processing application that allows users to create, edit, and format text documents.
  • It offers various tools such as spell check, grammar check, and a thesaurus to assist in writing and editing documents.
  • MS Word 365 is cloud-based, enabling users to access and collaborate on documents from any device with internet connectivity.
  • It includes advanced features like real-time collaboration, which allows multiple users to work on a document simultaneously.
93

In Microsoft Excel 365, which option should be selected if you want to save a workbook as a macro-enabled workbook with a different file name and location?

  1. ((a))

    Save As

  2. ((b))

    Save a Copy 

  3. ((c))

    Save Excel

  4. ((d))

    Save Workspace 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Save As

The correct answer is Save As.

Key Points

Open a document.Ctrl+O
Create a new document.Ctrl+N
Save the document.Ctrl+S
Close the document.Ctrl+W
Cut the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+X
Copy the selected content to the Clipboard.Ctrl+C
Paste the contents of the Clipboard.Ctrl+V
Select all document content.Ctrl+A
Apply bold formatting to text.Ctrl+B
Apply italic formatting to text.Ctrl+I
Apply underline formatting to text.Ctrl+U
Decrease the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+[
Increase the font size by 1 point.Ctrl+]
Center the text.Ctrl+E
Align the text to the left.Ctrl+L
Align the text to the right.Ctrl+R
Cancel a command.Esc
Undo the previous action.Ctrl+Z
Redo the previous action, if possible.Ctrl+Y
Adjust the zoom magnification.Alt+W, Q, then tab in the Zoom dialogue box to the value you want.
Split the document window.Ctrl+Alt+S
Remove the document window split.Alt+Shift+C or Ctrl+Alt+S
94

What icon is used for attaching a file or document to an email message?

  1. ((a))

    Pen icon

  2. ((b))

    Smiley icon

  3. ((c))

    Paper clip icon

  4. ((d))

    Trash can icon

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Paper clip icon

The correct answer is Paper clip icon.

Key Points

  • Paper Clip Icon: Used to attach files to a cell, allowing you to link external documents or images to your spreadsheet.
  • Pen Icon: Indicates that a cell is in edit mode, allowing you to modify its contents directly.
  • Smiley Icon: Represents a formula or function that has been entered into a cell, typically used for calculations or data analysis.
  • Trash Can Icon: Used to delete a selected cell, row, or column from the spreadsheet.
  • Comment Icon: Indicates that a comment has been added to a specific cell, providing additional notes or explanations.

 Additional Information 

  • The "send" part of an email typically specifies the email server.
  • The email server is responsible for sending, receiving, and storing emails.
  • It is a crucial component of the email infrastructure, handling the routing of messages between different users and domains.
  • The email server information includes details such as the outgoing (SMTP) server address.
    1. User Name:
  • This is generally associated with the email account and is used for authentication when logging into the email system. It's often part of the email address (e.g., [email protected]).
    1. Email Server:
  • The email server is a computerized system that manages email. It has two main components:
  • Incoming Mail Server (IMAP or POP3): Responsible for receiving emails. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 (Post Office Protocol) are two common protocols used for this purpose.
  • Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP): Responsible for sending emails. When you send an email, your email client connects to the SMTP server to dispatch the message.
    1. Email Client:
  • An email client is a software application that allows users to send and receive emails. Examples include Microsoft Outlook, Mozilla Thunderbird, and Apple Mail. The email client interacts with the email server to manage emails.
    1. Organization Name:
  • This is typically not specified in the "send" part of an email. The organization name is more associated with the sender's information within the email content or signature. The email server, however, handles the routing and delivery of emails without necessarily specifying the organization name in the sending process.

When you send an email, your email client uses the specified email server to send the message to the recipient's email server. The recipient's email client then retrieves the email from their email server using the incoming mail server. This process is facilitated by standardized protocols like SMTP, IMAP, and POP3.

95

What is the main purpose of a search engine? 

  1. ((a))

    Editing news articles

  2. ((b))

    Playing online games 

  3. ((c))

    Sending emails

  4. ((d))

    Finding information on the internet 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Finding information on the internet 

The correct answer is Finding information on the internet.

Key Points

Search Engine:

  • A search engine is a software accessed on the Internet that searches a database of information according to the user's query.
  • The engine provides a list of results that best match what the user is trying to find.
  • Today, there are many search engines available on the Internet, each with its own abilities and features.
  • The first search engine ever developed is considered Archie, which was used to search for FTP files, and the first text-based search engine is considered Veronica.
  • Currently, the most popular and well-known search engine is Google. Other popular search engines include AOL, Ask.com, Baidu, Bing, DuckDuckGo, and Yahoo.
96

Which icon is commonly used to undo the last action performed in MS Word 365? 

  1. ((a))

    A pair of scissors

  2. ((b))

    A curved arrow pointing to the left 

  3. ((c))

    A trash can

  4. ((d))

    A pencil

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A curved arrow pointing to the left 

The correct answer is A curved arrow pointing to the left

Key Points

  • The icon commonly used to undo the last action performed in MS Word 365 is A curved arrow pointing to the left
  • Undo Function:
  • The Undo command allows users to reverse their last action in Word, such as typing, formatting, or deleting.
  • Icon Description:
  • The curved arrow pointing to the left represents the "Undo" action in the toolbar or ribbon.
  • In addition to the icon, you can use the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Z (Windows) or Command + Z (Mac) to quickly undo your last action in MS Word 365.

Additional Information

  • MS Word​
  • The leading creators of MS Word software are Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, launched in 1983 under Microsoft corporation.
  • Microsoft word is recognised as a word processor software which means that a user can rewrite, erase or modify a document as per the requirement.
  • The documents created in MS Word are very high in quality. MS Word creates reports, stories, letters, resumes etc.
  • It allows users to edit or modify the new or existing document with colour or any other formats like bold, italic and underline.
  • The file extension used in Ms Word is .doc or .docx.
97

In MS Excel 365, which of the following keyboard shortcut keys is used to insert a new row in MS-Excel 365? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Alt + n 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Alt + + (plus key) 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + shift + n

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + shift + + (plus key)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + shift + + (plus key)

The correct answer is Ctrl+shift++(plus key)

Key Points

  • The keyboard shortcut to insert a new row in MS Excel 365 is Ctrl + Shift + + (plus key).
  • This shortcut will add a new row above the selected row.
  • The same shortcut can be used to insert a new column.
  • First, select the column or any cell in the column, and then press Ctrl + Shift + +.

Additional Information

  • Some other keyboard shortcuts for Excel: 
  • Alt + Enter: Inserts a new line within a cell
  • Ctrl + K: Inserts a hyperlink
  • Ctrl + Space: or Shift + Space Selects an entire row or column
  • Ctrl + -. or Cmd+- Deletes rows or columns
  • Alt + H + D + C: Deletes columns
  • Alt + H + D + R: Deletes rows
98

How do we move the cursor to the beginning of a Microsoft Word 365 document? 

  1. ((a))

    By pressing ‘Ctrl + End’

  2. ((b))

    By pressing ‘Ctrl + Home’ 

  3. ((c))

    By pressing ‘Ctrl + PgUp’ 

  4. ((d))

    By pressing ‘Ctrl + PgDn’ 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

By pressing ‘Ctrl + Home’ 

The correct answer is By pressing ‘Ctrl + Home’ 

Key Points

  • To move the cursor to the beginning of a Microsoft Word 365 document, you can press Ctrl + Home
  • It is even if you are currently several pages down.
  • The equivalent shortcut is Command + Home, or Fn + Command + Left Arrow on some keyboards.
  • This shortcut is quicker and more precise than scrolling or using the mouse to navigate to the beginning of a lengthy document.

Additional Information

  • Some other keyboard shortcuts for navigating a Word document:
  • Ctrl + Page Up: Moves the cursor to the top of the previous page
  • Ctrl + End: Moves the cursor to the end of the document
  • Shift + F5: Moves the cursor to the location of the previous revision
  • Page Down: Moves the cursor to the next page
  • Ctrl + Page Down: Moves the cursor to the top of the next page
  • Ctrl + F: Finds a keyword
  • Tab: Moves the cursor to the next table cell
  • End: Moves the cursor to the end of the line
  • Ctrl + Left arrow key: Moves the cursor one word to the left
  • Ctrl + Right arrow key: Moves the cursor one word to the right
  • Ctrl + Up arrow key: Moves the cursor up by one paragraph
  • Ctrl + Down arrow key: Moves the cursor down by one paragraph
99

Which of the following groups within the Insert tab will help us create a table in Microsoft Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Tables

  2. ((b))

    Illustrations

  3. ((c))

    Pages

  4. ((d))

    Links

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tables

The correct answer is Tables

Key Points

  • You can add a table in an MS Word document by navigating to the Insert Tab.
  • Within the Insert Tab, you can find the option to create a table, allowing you to specify the number of rows and columns.
  • The Insert Tab provides various other functionalities such as inserting pictures, shapes, charts, and other elements into your document.
  • Using the Insert Tab for adding tables helps in organizing data effectively in a structured format.

Additional Information

  • Links
  • The Links group allows you to insert and manage hyperlinks and related tools.
  • Hyperlink:
  • Insert a link to a web page, document, or email address.
  • Shortcut: Ctrl + K (Windows) or Command + K (Mac).
  • Bookmark:
  • Create a reference point within the document to jump back to later.
  • Pages
  • The Pages group helps you insert page elements to organize your document.
  • Cover Page:
  • Insert a professionally designed cover page at the beginning of your document.
  • Blank Page:
  • Add a new blank page at the cursor's position.
  • Page Break:
  • Start a new page from the current cursor position. Shortcut: Ctrl + Enter.
  • Illustrations
  • The Illustrations group allows you to visually enhance your document.
  • Pictures:
  • Insert images from your computer or online.
  • Shapes:
  • Add customizable shapes like lines, arrows, or geometric designs.
  • Icons:
  • Use built-in icons for professional-looking visual elements.
  • SmartArt:
  • Create diagrams to visually represent data or ideas.
  • Chart:
  • Insert charts for data visualization, such as bar graphs or pie charts.
  • Screenshot:
  • Insert a screenshot of an open window or a screen clipping.​
100

What are the icons below the menu bar in a word processing application called?

  1. ((a))

    Toolbar icons 

  2. ((b))

    Shortcut icons

  3. ((c))

    Format icons 

  4. ((d))

    Tool icons

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Toolbar icons 

The correct answer is Toolbar icons

Key Points

  • The icons below the menu bar in a word processing application, such as Microsoft Word, are typically part of the Toolbar or Ribbon.
  • A Toolbar contains a row of icons that represent commonly used commands or actions.
  • Examples: Save, Undo, Redo, Cut, Copy, Paste, etc.
  • In modern word processors like Microsoft Word, the Ribbon has replaced traditional toolbars.
  • It organizes commands into Tabs (e.g., Home, Insert, Layout) and Groups (e.g., Font, Paragraph, Styles).

Additional Information

  • The status bar is the area at the bottom of the Word window that indicates information about the current document.
  • It displays information about what page you are on, as well as your line number on the page and character number on the line.
  • The Standard toolbar is located just below the menu bar.
  • It contains buttons representing commands such as New, Open, Save, and Print.
  • It contains buttons representing text modifying commands, such as font, text size, bold, numbering, and bullets.
  • The “drawing toolbar” allows you to quickly and easily label pictures (e.g., maps) in a MS Word file.
  • You can add arrows, circle spots, or label with words.
  • You can quickly change the color and line width of these objects as well

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