Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 14 Nov, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Dhana Nanda.

Key Points

• Dhana Nanda was the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty in ancient India.
• Chandragupta Maurya, with the guidance and support of his mentor Chanakya, defeated Dhana Nanda to establish the Maurya Empire.
• The Nanda dynasty was known for its substantial military strength and wealth, which was a significant challenge for Chandragupta Maurya.
• The defeat of Dhana Nanda marked the end of the Nanda dynasty and the beginning of the Maurya Empire, one of the largest empires in Indian history.

Additional Information

• Chandragupta Maurya
• Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire and is considered one of the greatest rulers in Indian history.
• He was guided by Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, who was a brilliant political strategist and philosopher.
• Chandragupta's reign marked the unification of most of the Indian subcontinent under one central authority for the first time.
• He abdicated his throne in favor of his son, Bindusara, and became a Jain monk, spending his last years in Karnataka.
• Nanda Dynasty
• The Nanda dynasty ruled in northern India during the 4th century BCE, prior to the rise of the Maurya Empire.
• The Nandas were known for their significant military strength and extensive control over the Indian subcontinent.
• They maintained a large standing army and accumulated substantial wealth, which they used to maintain their power.
• The Nanda dynasty's rule was marked by substantial economic development and administrative control.
• Chanakya
• Chanakya was an ancient Indian teacher, philosopher, economist, jurist, and royal advisor.
• He authored the ancient Indian political treatise called the Arthashastra, which provides guidelines on governance, economics, and military strategy.
• Chanakya played a crucial role in the establishment of the Maurya Empire by mentoring and guiding Chandragupta Maurya.
• He is often referred to as the "Indian Machiavelli" for his political acumen and strategies.

The correct answer is Exclusive Original Jurisdiction.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India has Exclusive Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States.
• This jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning that no other court can hear these types of disputes.
• Under Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to adjudicate in disputes involving the Government of India and States.
• Exclusive Original Jurisdiction ensures that such disputes are resolved at the highest level of the judiciary, maintaining the balance and sovereignty of the federal structure.

Additional Information

• Advisory Jurisdiction
• Under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India can refer any question of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
• The advisory opinion given by the Supreme Court is not binding.
• Appellate Jurisdiction
• Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals against the judgments of lower courts (High Courts) in civil, criminal, and constitutional matters.
• Articles 132, 133, and 134 of the Constitution deal with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Writ Jurisdiction
• Under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court can issue writs to enforce the fundamental rights of individuals.
• The writs include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Kajli Teej is a prominent cultural festival celebrated in the Indian state of Rajasthan.
• It is particularly celebrated with great enthusiasm in the city of Bundi.
• The festival is dedicated to Goddess Parvati and is observed by women for the well-being of their husbands.
• The celebration includes a grand procession of the goddess, traditional folk music, dance performances, and various cultural activities.

Additional Information

• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan, meaning "Land of Kings," is India's largest state by area, located in the northwest part of the country.
• The state is known for its rich cultural heritage, majestic forts, palaces, and vibrant festivals.
• Some of the other famous festivals of Rajasthan include Pushkar Fair, Desert Festival, Gangaur, and Mewar Festival.
• Rajasthan is home to the Thar Desert and is known for its traditional Rajasthani cuisine, colorful attire, and handicrafts.
• Kajli Teej Festival
• It is celebrated on the third day of the Krishna Paksha (waning phase of the moon) in the Hindu month of Bhadrapada.
• The festival symbolizes the reunion of Goddess Parvati and Lord Shiva after a long period of penance by Parvati.
• Women dress in their best traditional attire, apply mehendi (henna) on their hands, and participate in the Teej procession.
• The procession features beautifully decorated palanquins, camels, and folk artists performing traditional dances and music.

The correct answer is Senior-most judge of High Court available.

Key Points

• The Governor of a state takes an oath or affirmation before the Chief Justice of the High Court of that state.
• In the absence of the Chief Justice, the oath is administered by the senior-most judge of that High Court available.
• This provision ensures that there is always an authority available to administer the oath to the Governor.
• The oath or affirmation is a constitutional requirement as per Article 159 of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India.
• He/she is appointed by the President of India and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• The Governor's powers and duties are derived from the Constitution of India, various laws, and the instructions of the President.
• Chief Justice of the High Court:
• The Chief Justice of a High Court is the head of the judiciary in a state.
• He/she is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.
• The Chief Justice oversees the functioning of the High Court and ensures the administration of justice in the state.
• Article 159 of the Indian Constitution:
• Article 159 deals with the oath or affirmation by the Governor.
• It mandates that the Governor shall take an oath or affirmation before entering upon his office.
• The oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the High Court available.

The correct answer is Mera Khaata, Bhagya Vidhaata.

Key Points

• The slogan of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is Mera Khaata, Bhagya Vidhaata, which translates to "My Account, My Destiny Creator".
• This slogan emphasizes the importance of financial inclusion and how having a bank account can change the destiny of individuals, especially the poor and marginalized.
• PMJDY aims to provide universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household.
• The initiative also focuses on financial literacy, access to credit, insurance, and pension facilities, thereby fostering economic inclusion.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
• Launched on 28th August 2014, the scheme aims at ensuring access to various financial services such as availability of basic savings bank accounts, access to need-based credit, remittances facility, insurance, and pension to the excluded sections i.e., weaker sections & low-income groups.
• PMJDY is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.
• Special benefits under PMJDY include no minimum balance required, accidental insurance cover of Rs. 1 lakh, life cover of Rs. 30,000 payable on the death of the beneficiary, and easy transfer of money across India.
• The scheme also provides beneficiaries with a RuPay Debit Card which comes with in-built accidental insurance cover, and access to overdraft facility after satisfactory operation of the account for 6 months.
• Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
• It is a national health insurance scheme spearheaded by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• It is considered to be the world's largest government-financed health assurance initiative.
• It aims to provide free access to health insurance coverage for India's low-income earners.
• AB-PMJAY provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year, catering specifically to secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across public and private impanelled hospitals throughout the country.
• This significant scheme is fully financed by the Indian government, serving as an important stepping stone towards achieving universal healthcare in India.
• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
• It is a government-backed accident insurance scheme in India launched on May 9, 2015, by PM Narendra Modi.
• PMSBY aims to provide a highly affordable insurance scheme for the poor and underprivileged people.
• It is available to individuals in the age group of 18 to 70 years who own a bank account.
• At a nominal annual premium of Rs.12, beneficiaries receive a risk coverage of Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability, and Rs.1 lakh for partial disability.
• This prime ministerial scheme plays a pivotal role in uplifting the vulnerable strata of society and is a step towards protection against unforeseen risks.
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
• It was launched on 9th May 2015 by PM Narendra Modi.
• It is a government-backed life insurance scheme in India aimed at increasing the penetration of life insurance coverage among Indians.
• It is available to individuals aged 18 to 50 years with a bank account.
• This scheme offers a life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs for a one-year period, which extends from June 1st to May 31st of the next year.
• The annual premium for this policy is ₹ 436 (US$5.50).
• The amount will be automatically debited from the subscriber's account annually.
• The PMJJBY scheme is an important initiative taken by the Indian government to provide affordable life insurance to its citizens.

The correct answer is Jain.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011 of India, the Jain community recorded the highest literacy rate among all the religious communities.
• The overall literacy rate for the Jain community was 94.88%, which is significantly higher than the national average.
• Among Jains, both males and females had high literacy rates, with males at 97.4% and females at 92.1%.
• The Jain community has always placed a strong emphasis on education and learning, contributing to their high literacy rates.

Additional Information

• Census 2011 of India
• The Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of India conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• It was conducted in two phases: the house listing and housing census phase and the population enumeration phase.
• The Census provides comprehensive data on various demographic parameters such as population size, distribution, socio-economic conditions, literacy rates, and religious affiliations.
• The data collected helps in formulating policies, planning, and implementing various programs at the central and state levels.
• Literacy Rate
• Literacy rate is defined as the percentage of people aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• It is a crucial indicator of the educational status of a population and is used to measure the success of educational policies and programs.
• Higher literacy rates are generally associated with better socio-economic development, improved health outcomes, and increased opportunities for individuals.
• Religious Communities in India
• India is a diverse country with a multitude of religious communities including Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, and others.
• Each religious community has its own unique cultural, social, and educational practices and traditions.
• The Constitution of India ensures freedom of religion and provides for the protection and promotion of the rights of all religious communities.

The correct answer is Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.

Key Points

• Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, an eminent Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer, played a key role in the anti-caste movement in India.
• The Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes (now known as Scheduled Castes).
• The pact was signed on 24th September 1932 in Yerwada Central Jail, Pune.
• It aimed at providing reserved seats for the depressed classes in the provincial legislatures within the general electorate.

Additional Information

• Background of the Poona Pact:
• Prior to the Poona Pact, the British government had announced the Communal Award in 1932, which provided separate electorates for minorities and the depressed classes.
• Dr. Ambedkar supported the separate electorates as it would provide political representation to the oppressed classes.
• Mahatma Gandhi opposed the separate electorates, fearing it would divide Hindu society.
• He went on a hunger strike to protest against it, leading to negotiations between Gandhi and Ambedkar.
• Terms of the Poona Pact:
• The Poona Pact provided for a single Hindu electorate, with reserved seats for the depressed classes.
• Out of the total 148 seats in the provincial legislatures, 71 seats were reserved for the depressed classes.
• Additionally, the pact ensured adequate representation of the depressed classes in the central legislature and other sectors.
• Significance of the Poona Pact:
• The pact marked a significant moment in the history of India's struggle for independence, reflecting the internal challenges of caste and social inequality.
• It highlighted the efforts to integrate the depressed classes into the mainstream political framework of India.
• The agreement paved the way for future affirmative action policies in India aimed at the upliftment of marginalized communities.

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• India adopted a dual exchange rate system on March 1, 1992.
• The system was introduced as part of the economic reforms initiated by the government to stabilize the Indian economy.
• This system is also known as the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS).
• Under LERMS, 40% of foreign exchange earnings were to be surrendered at the official rate, and the remaining 60% were to be converted at market-determined rates.

Additional Information

• Dual Exchange Rate System
• A dual exchange rate system is where a country's currency has multiple exchange rates for different transactions. This can help stabilize the economy during transition periods.
• It allows the government to manage the official exchange rate while letting market forces determine the other rate, providing a balance between control and flexibility.
• Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS)
• LERMS was introduced in 1992 as part of India's economic liberalization.
• It aimed to gradually move towards a market-determined exchange rate system while maintaining some control over foreign exchange.
• This system was a transitional arrangement before fully adopting a unified exchange rate system.
• Economic Reforms of 1991-1992
• The Indian government initiated comprehensive economic reforms in 1991-1992 to combat a severe balance of payments crisis.
• These reforms included liberalization of the economy, reduction of tariffs, deregulation of markets, and opening up to foreign investment.
• The introduction of LERMS was a key part of these reforms, aimed at improving foreign exchange reserves and stabilizing the economy.

The correct answer is Jaishankar Prasad.

Key Points

• Jaishankar Prasad is one of the most famous Hindi authors and poets, known for his contributions to Hindi literature.
• He is best known for his historical and mythological plays, poems, and novels.
• Some of his notable works include 'Kamayani', 'Skandagupta', and 'Chandragupta'.
• Prasad's work often reflects a blend of romanticism and realism, and he played a significant role in the Chhayavad (Neo-romanticism) movement in Hindi literature.

Additional Information

• Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
• He was an Indian Hindi poet, essayist, and academician, considered as one of the most important modern Hindi poets.
• Some of his famous works include 'Rashmirathi' and 'Parashuram ki Prateeksha'.
• Dinkar's poetry is infused with patriotism, and he is often referred to as the 'National Poet' of India.
• Harivansh Rai Bachchan
• He was a noted Indian poet of the Nayi Kavita literary movement of early 20th century Hindi literature.
• He is best known for his early work 'Madhushala'.
• Bachchan's poetry is marked by a lyrical quality and a focus on themes of love, humanism, and existentialism.
• Namvar Singh
• He was a renowned Indian literary critic, linguist, and writer in the Hindi language.
• He contributed significantly to Hindi literature through his critical essays and analysis of Hindi texts.
• Singh was known for his scholarly rigor and his role in shaping modern Hindi literary criticism.

The correct answer is it has the largest flower in the plant kingdom.

Key Points

• Rafflesia arnoldii is a species of flowering plant noted for producing the largest individual flower on Earth.
• The flower can grow up to 3 feet (1 meter) in diameter and weigh up to 15 pounds (7 kilograms).
• It is a parasitic plant, meaning it derives its nutrients from another plant (specifically, vines of the genus Tetrastigma).
• The flower emits a strong odor of decaying flesh, which attracts pollinators such as flies.

Additional Information

• Parasitic Plants
• These are plants that rely on other plants for their nutrition. They attach themselves to the host plant and extract water and nutrients.
• Examples include mistletoe, dodder, and broomrape.
• Pollination
• Pollination is the process by which pollen is transferred to the female reproductive organs of a plant, thereby enabling fertilization.
• In the case of Rafflesia arnoldii, flies are the primary pollinators, attracted by the flower's smell of decaying flesh.
• Endangered Species
• Rafflesia arnoldii is considered a rare and endangered species due to habitat loss and the destruction of its host plants.
• Conservation efforts are in place to protect this unique plant and its ecosystem.
• Largest Flowers
• Other notable large flowers include the Titan Arum (Amorphophallus titanum), which can reach over 10 feet (3 meters) in height but consists of multiple small flowers forming an inflorescence.
• Rafflesia arnoldii holds the record for the largest single flower.

The correct answer is proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Undertakings.

Key Points

• The National Investment Fund (NIF) was constituted by the Government of India in November 2005.
• The primary objective of NIF is to channelize the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs).
• The funds collected are invested in selected public sector mutual funds, which are chosen by the Department of Disinvestment.
• The returns from these investments are used to finance social sector schemes and to meet the capital investment requirements of profitable and revivable Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).

Additional Information

• Disinvestment
• Disinvestment refers to the process of selling or liquidating assets or subsidiaries by the government, usually to reduce the fiscal burden or to improve efficiency in public sector enterprises.
• In India, disinvestment primarily targets Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs).
• The proceeds from disinvestment are used for various purposes including financing social sector schemes and infrastructure development.
• Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs)
• CPSUs are government-owned corporations or state enterprises created by the Government of India to undertake commercial activities on behalf of the government.
• These enterprises play a crucial role in the economic development of the country by contributing significantly to the GDP and providing employment.
• Examples include companies like Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), and Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL).

The correct answer is 1951.

Key Points

• The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India in 1951.
• The event marked the beginning of a major continental multi-sport event for athletes from across Asia.
• It was the first time India hosted such a large-scale sports event, setting a precedent for future games.
• The Asian Games are held every four years, bringing together athletes from all over Asia to compete in various sports.

Additional Information

• Asian Games
• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, from March 4 to March 11, 1951.
• The event was organized by the Asian Games Federation until 1978, after which the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) took over the organization.
• The Asian Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and are the second-largest multi-sport event after the Olympics.
• Olympic Council of Asia (OCA)
• The OCA is a governing body of sports in Asia, responsible for organizing the Asian Games and other regional games.
• It was established in 1982 and is headquartered in Kuwait City, Kuwait.
• The OCA aims to promote the Olympic movement and sports activities in Asia.
• The council also oversees the development and progress of sports across the continent.
• New Delhi
• New Delhi is the capital city of India and one of its largest metropolitan areas.
• It has been the host city for many international events, including the first Asian Games in 1951.
• New Delhi is known for its rich history, cultural heritage, and as a political and administrative center.
• The city has several sports complexes and stadiums that have hosted various national and international sports events.

The correct answer is Sedimentary rocks.

Key Points

• Sedimentary rocks are formed by the accumulation and lithification of mineral and organic particles.
• They are typically deposited in layers and often contain fossils of plants and animals.
• The processes of weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, and compaction are all involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks.
• Common examples of sedimentary rocks include sandstone, limestone, and shale.

Additional Information

• Weathering
• Weathering is the process of breaking down rocks, soils, and minerals through direct contact with the Earth's atmosphere, water, and biological organisms.
• It can be classified into physical weathering (mechanical breakdown) and chemical weathering (decomposition of minerals).
• Erosion
• Erosion involves the removal and transportation of weathered materials by natural agents such as water, wind, ice, or gravity.
• This process plays a critical role in shaping the Earth's landscape.
• Transportation
• Transportation refers to the movement of sediments from one place to another by agents such as water, wind, or ice.
• Rivers, glaciers, and wind are common transport agents that move sediments to different locations.
• Deposition
• Deposition occurs when the transported sediments settle down in a new location.
• This process creates layers of sediments that accumulate over time.
• Compaction and Lithification
• Compaction is the process by which sediments are pressed together under their own weight, reducing pore space between particles.
• Lithification is the transformation of these compacted sediments into solid rock through cementation, where minerals precipitate and bind the particles together.
• Fossils
• Fossils are the preserved remains or traces of ancient living organisms.
• They are commonly found in sedimentary rocks and provide valuable information about the history of life on Earth.

The correct answer is Option 3 (A, B and C).

Key Points

• Easter is celebrated for the resurrection of Jesus Christ, an event that is central to Christian belief.
• According to the Bible, Jesus was resurrected three days after being crucified, an event that is commemorated as Easter.
• Good Friday is observed to remember the day Jesus Christ was crucified, marking his sacrifice for humanity.
• All the statements A, B, and C are correct regarding Christian festivals.

Additional Information

• Easter
• It is the most important festival in the Christian calendar, celebrating the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead.
• It is observed on the first Sunday after the first full moon following the vernal equinox.
• The week preceding Easter is known as Holy Week, which includes Maundy Thursday (commemorating the Last Supper) and Good Friday (commemorating the crucifixion).
• Good Friday
• It is a Christian holiday commemorating the crucifixion of Jesus and his death at Calvary.
• It is observed during Holy Week as part of the Paschal Triduum on the Friday preceding Easter Sunday.
• It is also known as Holy Friday, Great Friday, Great and Holy Friday, and Black Friday.
• Crucifixion of Jesus
• Crucifixion is a method of capital punishment where the victim is tied or nailed to a large wooden cross and left to hang until death.
• According to the New Testament, Jesus was crucified, died, and was buried, and on the third day, he rose again from the dead.
• This event is central to Christian theology, symbolizing Jesus' sacrifice for humanity's sins and his victory over death.
• Resurrection of Jesus
• The resurrection of Jesus is the Christian belief that Jesus rose from the dead on the third day after his crucifixion.
• This event is commemorated on Easter Sunday and is the cornerstone of Christian faith, signifying hope and eternal life.
• It is described in the New Testament and is considered the foundation of Christian belief and theology.

The correct answer is IDBI.

Key Points

• IDBI Bank primarily focuses on industrial finance and development and is not a key player in the microfinance sector.
• IDBI stands for Industrial Development Bank of India, established to provide credit and other financial facilities for the development of the fledgling Indian industry.
• Microfinance institutions generally target low-income populations and provide small loans, whereas IDBI focuses on larger industrial projects.
• Other financial entities like Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks, and Commercial Banks are more actively involved in microfinance activities.

Additional Information

• Microfinance:
• Microfinance is a type of banking service provided to unemployed or low-income individuals or groups who otherwise would have no other access to financial services.
• The aim of microfinance is to give low-income people an opportunity to become self-sufficient by providing a means of saving money, borrowing money, and insurance.
• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
• Established to provide credit and other facilities to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas.
• RRBs are jointly owned by the Government of India, the concerned State Government, and the Sponsor Bank.
• Small Finance Banks (SFBs):
• These banks provide basic banking services of acceptance of deposits and lending to the unserved and underserved sections including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries, and unorganized sector entities.
• SFBs are similar to microfinance institutions but operate on a larger scale and offer more varied services.

The correct answer is Muhammad Bin Tughluq.

Key Points

• The Begumpuri mosque was built during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughluq, who ruled from 1325 to 1351.
• Muhammad Bin Tughluq was a ruler of the Tughluq dynasty, which was a Muslim dynasty of Turkic origin that ruled over the Delhi Sultanate.
• The mosque is located in Jahanpanah, one of the four cities of Delhi built by the Tughluq dynasty.
• The Begumpuri mosque is one of the largest and most significant mosques from the Tughluq period, showcasing Indo-Islamic architectural styles.

Additional Information

• Muhammad Bin Tughluq
• Muhammad Bin Tughluq was known for his ambitious projects and administrative reforms, although many of them failed due to poor execution.
• He is also infamous for his decision to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, which caused significant hardship to the population.
• His reign saw the expansion of the Delhi Sultanate to its greatest extent, covering most of the Indian subcontinent.
• Despite his failures, he was a learned ruler, proficient in multiple languages, and had a deep interest in philosophy, science, and the arts.
• Delhi Sultanate
• The Delhi Sultanate refers to the various Muslim dynasties that ruled over large parts of India from the 13th to the 16th centuries.
• It began with the establishment of the Mamluk dynasty in 1206 and ended with the emergence of the Mughal Empire in 1526.
• The Sultanate period is known for its cultural and architectural achievements, as well as the establishment of a centralized administrative system.
• Key dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate include the Mamluk, Khilji, Tughluq, Sayyid, and Lodi dynasties.

The correct answer is Being a custodian of the early dance form of Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

• R Muthukannammal is recognized as a living custodian of the early dance form of Bharatnatyam.
• She has preserved the traditional dance form of Bharatnatyam through her dedication and passion.
• Her contribution has been acknowledged by conferring her the Padma Shri award in 2022.
• She has played a crucial role in keeping the heritage of Bharatnatyam alive for future generations.

Additional Information

• Bharatnatyam
• Bharatnatyam is a major form of Indian classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork, along with a sophisticated vocabulary of hand and facial gestures.
• This dance form is traditionally performed by women.
• The dance is usually accompanied by classical Carnatic music.
• Padma Shri Award
• It is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India.
• It is awarded by the Government of India, every year on India's Republic Day.
• The award recognizes individuals for their distinguished contribution in various spheres such as arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• Recipients of the Padma Shri award are announced annually on Republic Day and are conferred by the President of India at a ceremonial function at Rashtrapati Bhavan.

The correct answer is Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is responsible for the overall development and welfare of India's tribal populations.
• It formulates policies, programs, and schemes to promote the economic and social development of tribal communities.
• The NISHTHA (National Initiative for School Heads and Teachers Holistic Advancement) capacity-building programme aims to improve the quality of school education through integrated teacher training.
• The collaboration with NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) aims to enhance the professional development of teachers and principals in Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS), which cater to tribal students.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
• This ministry is responsible for coordinating all skill development efforts across the country.
• It aims to remove the disconnect between demand and supply of skilled manpower, build the vocational and technical training framework, skill upgradation, and build new skills.
• Ministry of Minority Affairs
• This ministry is responsible for the development and welfare of minority communities in India.
• It implements various schemes and programs for their socio-economic development, educational empowerment, and protection of their cultural and linguistic identity.
• Ministry of Education
• This ministry is responsible for the development of human resources in India, primarily through the formulation of policies, planning, and administration of education in the country.
• It oversees both school and higher education and implements various schemes aimed at improving literacy rates and educational standards.
• NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training)
• NCERT is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education.
• It assists and advises the central and state governments on academic matters related to school education.
• NCERT develops curriculum and textbooks, educational kits, and digital materials to improve the quality of school education.

The correct answer is 48.

Key Points

• The molecular formula of ozone is O₃, which means it consists of three oxygen atoms.
• The atomic mass of one oxygen atom (O) is approximately 16 atomic mass units (amu).
• To find the molecular mass of ozone (O₃), we need to sum the atomic masses of all the oxygen atoms present in the molecule: 3 * 16 amu = 48 amu.
• Hence, the molecular mass of an ozone molecule is 48 amu.

Additional Information

• Molecular Mass:
• Molecular mass (or molecular weight) is the mass of a given molecule, calculated as the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms present in the molecule.
• It is usually expressed in atomic mass units (amu) or Daltons (Da).
• For example, the molecular mass of water (H₂O) is calculated as 2*(1 amu) + 16 amu = 18 amu.
• Atomic Mass:
• The atomic mass of an element is the mass of a single atom of the element, typically expressed in atomic mass units (amu).
• It is approximately equivalent to the number of protons and neutrons in the atom (the mass number).
• For example, the atomic mass of carbon is approximately 12 amu.
• Ozone (O₃):
• Ozone is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms.
• It is a highly reactive and unstable form of oxygen, with a strong oxidizing ability.
• Ozone is found naturally in the Earth's stratosphere and forms the ozone layer, which absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.

The correct answer is Tamil.

Key Points

• Silappadikaram is one of the five great epics of ancient Tamil literature.
• The epic was composed by Ilango Adigal, a Jain monk, around the 2nd century CE.
• It is a tale of love, betrayal, and revenge, centred on the characters of Kovalan and Kannagi.
• The story highlights the social and cultural aspects of the Tamil society during that period.

Additional Information

• Silappadikaram
• It is considered a treasure in Tamil literature for its literary excellence and historical value.
• The epic is divided into three books: Puhar Kandam, Maduraikandam, and Vanchikandam.
• Each book deals with different phases of the protagonist's life and the events leading to the tragic end.
• The work is known for its in-depth descriptions of the cities, architecture, and the lifestyle of the people during the time.
• Ilango Adigal
• He was a Jain monk and is revered as one of the great Tamil poets.
• His composition of Silappadikaram is considered a significant contribution to Tamil literature.
• Ilango Adigal's work is noted for its narrative style and moral themes.
• Tamil Literature
• It is one of the oldest and richest literary traditions in the world.
• Tamil literature has a vast array of poetry, epics, and philosophical works.
• It includes contributions from various poets and scholars over centuries, reflecting the social, cultural, and political milieu.
• Many Tamil literary works have been translated into various languages, extending their reach and influence globally.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Jhali is a traditional folk dance primarily performed by the people of Himachal Pradesh.
• This dance form is characterized by its vibrant and energetic movements, often performed during local festivals and cultural gatherings.
• Jhali dance reflects the rich cultural heritage and traditions of the Himachal Pradesh region.
• The dance is usually accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the dhol, nagara, and shehnai, adding to its rhythmic and lively performance.

Additional Information

• Folk Dances of India:
• Folk dances are traditional dances performed by communities and are integral to the cultural heritage of a region.
• These dances are often performed during festivals, weddings, and other significant cultural events.
• Each state in India has its unique folk dances that reflect its cultural ethos and traditions.
• Himachal Pradesh:
• Himachal Pradesh is a northern Indian state in the Himalayas, known for its scenic landscapes and rich cultural heritage.
• The state is home to various traditional art forms, including folk dances, music, and crafts.
• Other popular folk dances of Himachal Pradesh include Nati, Dangi, and Chamba.
• Importance of Folk Dances:
• Folk dances play a crucial role in preserving and promoting the cultural heritage of a region.
• They provide a platform for communities to express their cultural identity and pass on traditions to future generations.
• Folk dances also contribute to the social cohesion and cultural vibrancy of a community.

The correct answer is Sufiana.

Key Points

• Bhajan Sopori was a renowned maestro of the Santoor, an Indian classical music instrument.
• He hailed from the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir, which has a rich tradition of Sufi music.
• Bhajan Sopori's family has been associated with the Sufiana Gharana for over six generations.
• He is credited with bringing the Santoor to the forefront of Indian classical music and has been honored with numerous awards for his contributions.

Additional Information

• Santoor
• The Santoor is a stringed musical instrument originating from the Kashmir region of India.
• It is traditionally made of walnut wood and has 72 strings, played with a pair of lightweight mallets.
• It is used in Indian classical music as well as in Sufi music and has a distinct, melodious sound.
• Bhajan Sopori has been instrumental in adapting the Santoor for Hindustani classical music.
• Sufiana Gharana
• The term "Gharana" refers to a family or lineage of musicians, known for a specific style or tradition of music.
• The Sufiana Gharana is known for its Sufi music, which is a devotional genre associated with the Sufi sect of Islam.
• Sufi music aims to inspire spiritual upliftment and is often characterized by its lyrical, poetic nature.
• The Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir has produced many acclaimed musicians, including Bhajan Sopori.
• Sufi Music
• Sufi music is a form of devotional music associated with the Sufi tradition within Islam.
• It is intended to inspire deep spiritual experiences and a sense of connection with the divine.
• Sufi music often includes instruments like the Santoor, harmonium, tabla, and vocals that recite poetry of Sufi saints.
• Bhajan Sopori's work has significantly contributed to the preservation and popularization of Sufi music.

The correct answer is Dissolution of the Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

• In India’s parliamentary system, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
• The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber, which means it is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every two years.
• The dissolution of the Rajya Sabha is not possible as per the Indian Constitution, making it distinct from the Lok Sabha, which can be dissolved.
• This feature ensures that there is always a functioning legislative body in the Indian Parliament to perform its duties and responsibilities.

Additional Information

• Presence of nominal and real executives
• In India’s parliamentary system, there is a clear distinction between the nominal executive (President) and the real executive (Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers).
• The President is the ceremonial head of the state, while the Prime Minister is the head of the government and exercises real executive powers.
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Ministers in India are required to be members of either house of Parliament.
• If a minister is not a member at the time of appointment, they must become a member within six months to continue in office.
• Majority party rule
• India follows a majority party rule, where the party with the majority of seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.
• The Prime Minister is usually the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• The Harappan city of Dholavira was divided into three main parts.
• The three parts are known as the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town.
• This division is significant as it highlights the advanced planning and architectural skills of the Harappan civilization.
• The citadel was the most important part, housing the ruling class, while the middle and lower towns were inhabited by the common people and artisans.

Additional Information

• Harappan Civilization
• The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, was one of the world's earliest urban civilizations, flourishing around 2500 BCE in the northwestern regions of South Asia.
• This civilization is noted for its advanced city planning, architecture, and social organization.
• Major cities of the Harappan Civilization include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, and Dholavira.
• The civilization was characterized by its impressive public infrastructure, including well-planned streets, drainage systems, and large public baths.
• Dholavira
• Dholavira is an archaeological site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, India.
• It is one of the largest and most prominent Harappan sites discovered so far.
• The site was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and has provided valuable insights into the urban planning and social structure of the Harappan civilization.
• Dholavira is known for its sophisticated water conservation systems and unique architectural features.
• Citadel, Middle Town, and Lower Town
• The citadel was the high area in the city, often fortified and housing the ruling elite and important administrative and religious buildings.
• The middle town was where the affluent class resided, including merchants and traders.
• The lower town was the residential area for the common people, including artisans and laborers, and was often more densely populated.
• This division of the city into different parts based on function and social hierarchy is indicative of the complex and organized nature of Harappan society.

The correct answer is Gram.

Key Points

• Gram, also known as chickpea, is a major crop grown in the Rabi season in North India.
• Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
• Gram is a leguminous crop and is a rich source of protein, making it an important part of the diet in India.
• It is predominantly grown in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.

Additional Information

• Rabi Crops
• Rabi crops, also known as winter crops, are sown in the winter season and harvested in the summer.
• These crops require a relatively cool climate during the growing season and a warm climate during the harvesting period.
• Examples of Rabi crops include wheat, barley, mustard, and peas.
• Kharif Crops
• Kharif crops, also known as monsoon crops, are sown at the beginning of the rainy season and harvested at the end of the monsoon.
• These crops require a lot of water and hot weather to grow.
• Examples of Kharif crops include rice, maize, cotton, and millets.
• Leguminous Crops
• Leguminous crops belong to the family Leguminosae and are known for their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
• These crops have symbiotic relationships with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules.
• Leguminous crops are an important source of protein and include crops like peas, beans, lentils, and gram.

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an Indian nationalist, teacher, and independence activist.
• He was one of the first leaders of the Indian Independence Movement and is considered "The Father of Indian Unrest".
• Tilak was a strong advocate of Swaraj (self-rule) and his famous declaration, "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it!" became a rallying cry for Indian nationalists.
• He was part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, which included Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal, who were prominent leaders in the early phase of the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• Lala Lajpat Rai
• Also known as Punjab Kesari, Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and played a pivotal role in the Indian independence movement.
• He was associated with the Arya Samaj and was part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
• He is remembered for his role in the protest against the Simon Commission, during which he sustained injuries leading to his death.
• Aurobindo Ghosh
• Sri Aurobindo was an Indian philosopher, yogi, and nationalist.
• He was one of the early leaders of the Indian independence movement and later turned to spiritual pursuits.
• He founded the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in Pondicherry.
• Bipin Chandra Pal
• He was a prominent Indian nationalist, orator, and a member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
• Pal was a strong advocate of Swadeshi and the boycott of British goods as a form of protest against colonial rule.
• He is regarded as the 'Father of Revolutionary Thoughts' in India.

The correct answer is Ibrahim Lodhi.

Key Points

• The first battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi on 21 April 1526.
• This battle marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
• Ibrahim Lodhi was the Sultan of Delhi and the last ruler of the Lodhi dynasty.
• Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodhi and established Mughal rule in India, laying the foundation of the Mughal Empire.

Additional Information

• Babur
• Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
• He was a descendant of Timur on his father's side and Genghis Khan on his mother's side.
• Babur's victory in the first battle of Panipat was significant as it led to the establishment of the Mughal dynasty in India.
• Ibrahim Lodhi
• Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of the Lodhi dynasty.
• He ascended the throne of the Delhi Sultanate in 1517 after the death of his father, Sikandar Lodhi.
• His reign ended with his defeat and death in the first battle of Panipat in 1526.
• First Battle of Panipat
• The battle was fought near the town of Panipat in present-day Haryana.
• It is considered one of the largest and most significant battles in Indian history.
• The battle was notable for the use of gunpowder firearms and field artillery by Babur, which were relatively new to Indian warfare at the time.
• Babur's victory in this battle paved the way for the establishment of Mughal rule in India, which lasted for several centuries.

The correct answer is 4 years.

Key Points

• The FIFA World Cup is held every four years, making it one of the most anticipated events in the football calendar.
• The tournament brings together the top national teams from around the world to compete for the prestigious title.
• The four-year cycle allows teams time to develop and qualify through regional tournaments and qualifiers.
• Historically, the FIFA World Cup has been held every four years since its inception in 1930, with exceptions during World War II.

Additional Information

• FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association)
• FIFA is the international governing body of association football, futsal, and beach soccer, established in 1904.
• Its headquarters are in Zurich, Switzerland.
• FIFA is responsible for organizing major international football tournaments, including the FIFA World Cup.
• FIFA World Cup
• The FIFA World Cup is the most prestigious football tournament in the world, first held in 1930.
• It features 32 teams competing over a month-long period.
• The tournament is watched by millions of people worldwide, making it one of the biggest sporting events.
• The reigning champions are the French national football team, who won the 2018 FIFA World Cup in Russia.
• Qualification Process
• National teams must go through a qualification process to earn a spot in the World Cup.
• Each of the six FIFA continental zones has its own qualifying tournaments.
• The qualification process typically takes place over the three years leading up to the World Cup.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Ajita Srivastava is renowned for her contributions to the folk music of Uttar Pradesh.
• She has performed various traditional forms of music that are native to the region such as Kajri, Dadra, and Thumri.
• Her efforts in preserving and promoting the cultural heritage of Uttar Pradesh through her music have been widely recognized.
• In 2022, she was honored with the prestigious Padma Shri award for her remarkable contribution to the arts.

Additional Information

• Padma Shri Award
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India.
• It is awarded by the Government of India to citizens of India in recognition of their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity, including the arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• It has been awarded annually on Republic Day since 1954.
• The awardees receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
• Folk Music of Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh is known for its rich tradition of folk music which includes various forms such as Kajri, Dadra, Thumri, and Holi songs.
• These forms of music are an integral part of the cultural heritage of the state and are performed on various occasions and festivals.
• Folk music in Uttar Pradesh is characterized by its lyrical beauty, expressive melodies, and the use of traditional instruments.
• Prominent artists like Ajita Srivastava have played a significant role in preserving and popularizing these traditional music forms.

The correct answer is Barak.

Key Points

• The Barak River is one of the major rivers in northeastern India and eastern Bangladesh.
• It originates from the Manipur hills and flows through the states of Nagaland, Manipur, and Assam in India.
• The Barak River eventually bifurcates into the Surma and Kushiyara rivers in Bangladesh.
• The river and its tributaries, including Katakhal, Jiri, Chiri, Modhura, Longai, Sonai, Rukni, and Singla, play a crucial role in the agriculture and livelihoods of the regions it flows through.

Additional Information

• Barak River
• The Barak River is a part of the Surma-Meghna River System. It is 900 km long, making it one of the longest rivers in the region.
• The river is known for its significant seasonal variations in flow, which can lead to flooding during the monsoon season.
• It is an essential water source for irrigation and supports a variety of aquatic life, contributing to the region's biodiversity.
• The river basin is also home to several ethnic groups and communities who rely on it for their daily needs and cultural practices.
• Chambal River
• The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India, known for its clean waters and the National Chambal Sanctuary, which is a habitat for the critically endangered gharial.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The river is famous for its ravines and is historically known as the hideout of dacoits.
• Damodar River
• The Damodar River flows through the Indian states of Jharkhand and West Bengal and is known as the 'Sorrow of Bengal' due to its devastating floods.
• It is a major river in eastern India and a tributary of the Hugli River.
• The river basin is rich in coal, leading to extensive mining activities in the region.
• Ghaghra River
• The Ghaghra River, also known as the Karnali, is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganges River in India.
• It originates in the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Mansarovar and flows through Nepal before entering India.
• The river is known for its high sediment load and significant contribution to the Ganges River system.

The correct answer is Road transport.

Key Points

• Road transport provides door-to-door service, which is highly convenient for passengers and goods transport.
• It is the most flexible mode of transport, allowing for easy and quick access to even the remotest areas.
• Road transport facilitates the movement of goods and passengers within cities, towns, and rural areas, making it an essential part of the transport network.
• It is particularly useful for short and medium distances, where other modes of transport might not be feasible or economical.

Additional Information

• Waterways
• Involves the transportation of goods and passengers through rivers, canals, and seas.
• It is cost-effective for bulk and heavy goods over long distances.
• However, it does not provide door-to-door service and is dependent on the availability of ports and navigable waters.
• Railways
• Facilitates the movement of large volumes of goods and passengers over long distances.
• It is efficient and economical for mass transit.
• However, railways cannot provide door-to-door service as they are limited to fixed rail routes and stations.
• Airways
• Is the fastest mode of transport for long distances.
• It is suitable for the transportation of passengers and high-value, low-volume goods.
• However, it is expensive and does not provide door-to-door service, as it is limited to airports and requires additional transport to reach final destinations.

The correct answer is Anita Desai.

Key Points

• Anita Desai is an acclaimed Indian author known for her significant contributions to Indian literature.
• She has been shortlisted for the Booker Prize three times for her novels Clear Light of Day (1980), In Custody (1984), and Fasting, Feasting (1999).
• Anita Desai is a member of the American Academy of Arts and Letters, reflecting her recognition as a writer of great merit.
• Her writing often explores themes of personal and cultural identity, the inner lives of women, and the complexities of human relationships.

Additional Information

• Anita Desai
• Anita Desai was born on June 24, 1937, in Mussoorie, India. She is of German and Bengali descent and writes in English.
• She has received numerous awards for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award, the Padma Shri, and the Padma Bhushan.
• Desai's body of work includes novels, short stories, and children's books, and she is regarded as one of the foremost Indian writers in English.
• Her novel In Custody was adapted into a film by Merchant Ivory Productions, directed by Ismail Merchant.
• Other Important Authors and Their Works
• Arundhati Roy
• Arundhati Roy is an Indian author best known for her novel The God of Small Things, which won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997.
• She is also a political activist involved in environmental and human rights causes.
• Arvind Adiga
• Arvind Adiga is an Indian author and journalist. His debut novel, The White Tiger, won the Man Booker Prize in 2008.
• His work often addresses issues of social inequality and economic disparity in India.
• Kiran Desai
• Kiran Desai is an Indian author and the daughter of Anita Desai. She won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for her novel The Inheritance of Loss.
• Her writing explores themes of globalization, migration, and the clash of cultures.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana–Urban (PMAY-U) was launched in 2015 by the Government of India.
• The scheme aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor with a target of building 20 million (2 crores) affordable houses by 31 March 2022.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• PMAY-U is aligned with the vision of "Housing for All" by 2022, a flagship mission of the Government of India.

Additional Information

• Components of PMAY-U
• In-Situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR): Using land as a resource with private sector participation for providing houses to eligible slum dwellers.
• Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS): Providing interest subsidy on housing loans to EWS, LIG, MIG-I, and MIG-II beneficiaries.
• Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP): Financial assistance to EWS houses being built with different agencies.
• Beneficiary-led Individual House Construction/Enhancement (BLC): Assistance to individual eligible families of EWS categories to either construct new houses or to enhance existing houses.
• Technology Sub-Mission: Focuses on the adoption of modern, innovative, and green technologies and building materials for faster and quality construction of houses.
• Eligibility: The scheme is targeted at the urban poor including Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Lower Income Groups (LIG), and Middle Income Groups (MIG).
• Funding: The scheme is funded through the central government and various financial institutions to ensure the availability of required funds for the effective implementation of the mission.

The correct answer is Article 42.

Key Points

• Article 42 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It directs the State to make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
• The Directive Principles are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government and aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
• Although non-justiciable, these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

Additional Information

• Article 42: Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
• Article 42 falls under Part IV of the Indian Constitution, which lists the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• This Article emphasizes the importance of ensuring fair and decent working conditions for workers.
• It also underscores the significance of maternity relief, advocating for policies that support women during pregnancy and childbirth.
• The provision ensures the well-being of workers and promotes gender equality in the workplace.
• Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
• This Article directs the State to provide free and compulsory education for children until they complete the age of six years.
• It highlights the importance of early childhood care and education in the overall development of children.
• Article 44: Uniform civil code for the citizens
• Article 44 directs the State to endeavor to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens throughout the territory of India.
• The aim is to ensure that all citizens are governed by the same set of secular laws, irrespective of their religion.
• Article 43: Living wage, etc., for workers
• This Article directs the State to secure a living wage, ensuring decent standards of life and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.
• The provision emphasizes the importance of fair remuneration and the overall well-being of workers.

The correct answer is equal justice and free legal aid.

Key Points

• Article 39A of the Indian Constitution directs the state to ensure that the legal system promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity.
• It mandates the state to provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
• This article aims at securing that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity.
• It envisions a legal system that is accessible to the poor and marginalized sections of society.

Additional Information

• Right to Work, to Education and to Public Assistance in Certain Cases (Article 41)
• This article directs the State to make effective provisions for securing the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
• It is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy aimed at promoting social and economic democracy.
• Provisions for Just and Humane Conditions of Work (Article 42)
• This article directs the State to make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
• It aims to ensure that workers have a safe and healthy working environment.
• Living Wage, etc., for Workers (Article 43)
• This article directs the State to secure, by suitable legislation or economic organization or in any other way, to all workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life, and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities.
• It also includes the promotion of cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas.

The correct answer is Secretary General.

Key Points

• The Secretary General is the administrative head of the Secretariat of each House of Parliament.
• They are responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning of the House and its Committees.
• The Secretary General is appointed by the presiding officer of the respective House.
• They play a crucial role in providing advice on parliamentary procedures and practices.

Additional Information

• Speaker:
• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament of India.
• The Speaker is responsible for maintaining order and decorum in the house and ensuring that the legislative process runs smoothly.
• The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.
• President:
• The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of India and the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories.
• The President has the power to summon and prorogue either house of Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• Deputy Speaker:
• The Deputy Speaker is the second-highest-ranking official in the Lok Sabha after the Speaker.
• The Deputy Speaker assists the Speaker in the discharge of their duties and presides over the house in the absence of the Speaker.
• The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Bihar.

Key Points

• Maharashtra is the second-most populous state in India according to the 2011 Census, with a population of approximately 112 million.
• Bihar is the third-most populous state in India according to the 2011 Census, with a population of around 104 million.
• When combined, the total population of Maharashtra and Bihar is approximately 216 million, making them the group with the highest population among the given options.
• These two states together surpass the population of other combinations of states listed in the options.

Additional Information

• Census of India 2011
• The Census of India 2011 is the 15th Indian Census conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• It provides comprehensive data on the population, such as demographic, social, cultural, and economic attributes of the population.
• This census is used for policy-making, planning, and administration to ensure the equitable distribution of resources and services.
• Population Density
• Population density is a measurement of population per unit area or unit volume; it is a key geographical term.
• In the Census of India 2011, population density is expressed as the number of persons per square kilometer.
• States with high population densities face unique challenges in terms of resource allocation, infrastructure, and services.
• Urbanization
• Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas and the ways in which society adapts to this change.
• Maharashtra, with major cities like Mumbai and Pune, is one of the most urbanized states in India.
• Urbanization impacts economic development, lifestyle, and environmental sustainability.
• State Economic Contributions
• Maharashtra is considered the financial capital of India, contributing significantly to the national GDP.
• Bihar, primarily an agrarian state, has shown remarkable growth in the past decade, with improvements in infrastructure and social development indicators.
• Understanding the economic contributions of states helps in balanced regional development and policy-making.

The correct answer is Mayilattam.

Key Points

• Mayilattam is a folk dance from Tamil Nadu, South India, also known as the peacock dance.
• In this dance, the performers dress up as peacocks, and it is characterized by its vibrant costumes and elaborate makeup.
• The dancers wear a peacock headgear and a beak, and their costumes include eye-catching feathers that mimic the appearance of a peacock.
• Mayilattam is traditionally performed during temple festivals and special occasions to entertain and seek blessings from the deities.

Additional Information

• Garadi
• Garadi is a traditional folk dance of the Puducherry region in South India.
• It is performed during festivals and special occasions, featuring dancers dressed in vibrant costumes.
• The dance is accompanied by traditional music and instruments such as drums and cymbals.
• Padayani
• Padayani is a ritual dance performed in Kerala, South India.
• It is associated with the worship of goddess Bhadrakali and is performed in temple festivals.
• The dancers wear elaborate masks and costumes, and the dance depicts mythological stories and legends.
• Kummi
• Kummi is a traditional folk dance of Tamil Nadu, South India.
• It is usually performed by women during festivals and social gatherings.
• The dance involves rhythmic clapping and steps, and it is often accompanied by folk songs.

The correct answer is Yamuna River is a tributary of Ganga River.

Key Points

• The Yamuna River is one of the major rivers of northern India and the longest tributary of the Ganga River.
• It originates from the Yamunotri Glacier in the Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
• The Yamuna River flows through several states, including Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, and Uttar Pradesh, before merging with the Ganga at Allahabad (Prayagraj).
• The Yamuna River plays a crucial role in the irrigation and water supply of the regions it flows through, supporting agricultural activities and providing drinking water to millions of people.

Additional Information

• Mahanadi River
• The Mahanadi River flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, not just Chhattisgarh.
• It is one of the major rivers in eastern India and is known for the Hirakud Dam, one of the longest dams in the world.
• Godavari River
• The Godavari River is the second longest river in India and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
• It does not flow through Haryana.
• Sone River
• The Sone River originates near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, not in Punjab.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Bihar before joining the Ganga River.

The correct answer is Investment in basic and heavy industries.

Key Points

• Most Five-Year Plans in India have emphasized the importance of investment in basic and heavy industries to build a strong industrial base.
• These investments were crucial for achieving self-sufficiency in industrial production and reducing dependence on foreign imports.
• The focus on heavy industries was aimed at improving the infrastructure, creating jobs, and fostering technological advancements within the country.
• Significant resources were allocated towards sectors like steel, coal, cement, and machinery, which were considered the backbone of industrial development.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans
• The Five-Year Plans were a series of centralized and integrated national economic programs, devised by the Planning Commission of India, to coordinate and steer the economy towards growth and development.
• The first Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951 and focused primarily on agriculture and irrigation to address food shortages and economic stability post-independence.
• Over the years, the focus of the plans shifted from agriculture to industry and services, reflecting the changing needs and priorities of the Indian economy.
• Basic and Heavy Industries
• Basic industries refer to industries that provide raw materials to other industries, such as iron and steel, which are essential for construction and manufacturing.
• Heavy industries are those that require large capital investment and produce goods that are used in other industries, such as machinery, mining, and shipbuilding.
• Investment in these sectors is crucial for industrialization, as they lay the foundation for further economic development and technological progress.
• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956
• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 laid down the framework for industrial development in India, emphasizing the importance of heavy industries and their role in the economy.
• It classified industries into three categories: those to be exclusively owned by the state, those where the state would play a dominant role, and those left to the private sector.
• This policy was instrumental in shaping the industrial landscape of India and promoting public sector enterprises in key industries.
• Planning Commission of India
• The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India that formulated Five-Year Plans and coordinated the economic policies of the country from 1950 to 2014.
• It was replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) in 2015, which focuses on fostering cooperative federalism and promoting sustainable development through strategic and long-term policy frameworks.

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

• The fluid mosaic model was proposed by S. J. Singer and Garth Nicolson in 1972.
• This model describes the structure of cell membranes as a mosaic of components including phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and carbohydrates.
• The model suggests that the lipid bilayer is fluid, allowing for the lateral movement of proteins and lipids within the layer.
• It has been widely accepted and provides a foundational understanding of membrane dynamics and functionality.

Additional Information

• Membrane Proteins
• These proteins are integral or peripheral, playing crucial roles in various cellular processes such as signaling, transport, and cell recognition.
• Integral proteins span the lipid bilayer, while peripheral proteins are attached to the exterior or interior surfaces of the membrane.
• Lipids
• Phospholipids form the basic structure of the membrane, creating a bilayer with hydrophobic tails and hydrophilic heads.
• Cholesterol molecules are interspersed within the bilayer, providing stability and modulating fluidity.
• Fluidity
• Fluidity refers to the ability of lipids and proteins to move laterally within the layer, which is essential for membrane function and flexibility.
• Factors affecting fluidity include temperature, lipid composition, and the presence of cholesterol.
• Mosaic
• The term "mosaic" refers to the patchwork of proteins that float in or on the fluid lipid bilayer like boats on a pond.
• This concept emphasizes the diversity and dynamic nature of the membrane's components.

The correct answer is 34.

Key Points

• The Ellora Caves are a complex of 34 caves located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India.
• The caves consist of Buddhist monasteries, Hindu temples, and Jain temples, showcasing the religious harmony of the time.
• The construction of these caves took place between the 6th and 10th centuries, during the rule of various dynasties.
• The Ellora Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, renowned for their rock-cut architecture and intricate carvings.

Additional Information

• Ellora Caves
• The Ellora Caves are an impressive complex of rock-cut caves representing three different religions: Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism.
• The 12 Buddhist caves (Caves 1–12) primarily consist of monasteries and are the earliest structures, dated between 600 and 730 AD.
• The 17 Hindu caves (Caves 13–29) were constructed between 600 and 870 AD and include the remarkable Kailasa temple (Cave 16), which is the largest single monolithic rock excavation in the world.
• The 5 Jain caves (Caves 30–34) were built between 800 and 1000 AD and are known for their detailed carvings and intricate craftsmanship.
• Ellora is known for its architectural brilliance, including intricate carvings, sculptures, and frescoes that depict deities, mythical creatures, and scenes from ancient texts.

The correct answer is Rowlatt Act.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British Indian Government in March 1919.
• It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities.
• It allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
• This act led to widespread anger and protests across India, including the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Additional Information

• Indian Slavery Act
• Passed in 1843, it aimed to abolish slavery in British India.
• It declared the sale or purchase of any person as a slave illegal.
• Indian Contract Act
• Enacted in 1872, it governs the contractual relationships in India.
• It lays down the conditions under which promises made by parties to a contract will be legally binding on them.
• Negotiable Instruments Act
• Passed in 1881, it deals with promissory notes, bills of exchange, and cheques.
• It defines the laws relating to the characteristics and functioning of negotiable instruments.
• Rowlatt Act
• Also known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919.
• It was based on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt.
• The act was widely opposed by Indian leaders and led to the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is carbon dioxide.

Key Points

• Autotrophs are organisms that can produce their own food from inorganic substances using light or chemical energy.
• In the process of photosynthesis, autotrophs, such as plants, use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.
• Carbon dioxide is a key reactant in the Calvin cycle, which is a part of the photosynthesis process.
• By fixing carbon dioxide, autotrophs help reduce the amount of this greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, playing a crucial role in carbon cycling.

Additional Information

• Autotrophs:
• These are organisms that can synthesize their own food from simple inorganic substances.
• They are classified into two main types: photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs.
• Photoautotrophs: These organisms, such as plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, use sunlight as their energy source for photosynthesis.
• Chemoautotrophs: These organisms obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic substances, such as sulfur or ammonia, and are often found in extreme environments like deep-sea vents.
• Photosynthesis:
• It is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy, usually from the sun, into chemical energy in the form of glucose.
• The general equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂.
• Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, which contain the pigment chlorophyll that captures light energy.
• Carbon Fixation:
• This is the process of converting inorganic carbon (CO₂) into organic compounds by living organisms.
• In plants, the Calvin cycle is the most common pathway for carbon fixation.
• During the Calvin cycle, CO₂ is fixed into a stable intermediate compound, which is then converted into glucose.

The correct answer is Sir Dorabji Tata.

Key Points

• Sir Dorabji Tata was the first President of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• He was instrumental in India's participation in the Olympic Games.
• Under his leadership, India sent its first team to the 1920 Antwerp Olympics.
• He was a prominent industrialist and philanthropist, and a key figure in the Tata Group.

Additional Information

• Indian Olympic Association (IOA)
• The IOA is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games, Asian Games, and other international athletic meets.
• It also manages the Indian contingent during the events.
• The IOA was established in 1927, and it is recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• Olympic Games
• The Olympic Games are leading international sporting events featuring summer and winter sports competitions.
• Thousands of athletes from around the world participate in various competitions.
• The Games are held every four years, with the Summer and Winter Games alternating by occurring every four years but two years apart.
• Tata Group
• The Tata Group is an Indian multinational conglomerate headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• It was founded in 1868 by Jamsetji Tata; the group gained international recognition after purchasing several global companies.
• It is one of India's largest and oldest industrial groups.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The dance form "Raai" is native to the Bundelkhand region which spans across both Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• "Raai" is a traditional folk dance known for its vibrant and expressive style, often performed during festive occasions and cultural events in Madhya Pradesh.
• The dance is often performed by women who wear colorful traditional attire and use intricate hand and foot movements to tell stories and depict various emotions.
• Ram Sahay Panday has been instrumental in promoting and preserving this dance form, earning recognition with the Padma Shri award for his contributions.

Additional Information

• Padma Shri:
• It is the fourth highest civilian award in India, awarded for distinguished service in various fields such as arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• Established in 1954, the award is announced every year on India's Republic Day (26th January).
• The recipients of the Padma Shri are selected by a committee constituted by the Prime Minister of India.
• It is a recognition of the individual's exceptional and distinguished contribution to their respective fields.
• Bundelkhand Region:
• Bundelkhand is a geographical and cultural region located in the central part of India, primarily in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• The region is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical monuments, and traditional art forms.
• Famous tourist attractions in Bundelkhand include the Khajuraho temples, Orchha fort, and Jhansi fort.
• The region has a distinct identity, often associated with bravery and valor due to its historical significance in various battles and resistance movements.
• Traditional Folk Dances of Madhya Pradesh:
• Madhya Pradesh is home to a variety of traditional folk dances, each unique to different tribal and cultural communities.
• Some popular folk dances include Gaur Maria, Charkula, Jawara, and Matki dance.
• These dances are often performed during festivals, weddings, and other community celebrations, reflecting the cultural diversity of the state.
• They are characterized by colorful costumes, energetic movements, and traditional music, often played using indigenous instruments.

The correct answer is Mon Apr 01 1935 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on 1st April 1935.
• RBI is the central banking institution of India, which controls the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee.
• It was initially set up in Calcutta (now Kolkata) but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• The establishment of RBI was recommended by the Hilton Young Commission in 1926.

Additional Information

• Role and Functions of RBI
• The RBI performs various developmental and promotional functions such as controlling monetary policy, regulating and supervising financial systems, and managing the country's foreign exchange.
• It acts as the banker's bank and custodian of foreign exchange.
• The RBI is responsible for formulating and implementing India's monetary policy to ensure price stability and adequate flow of credit to productive sectors.
• It also plays a critical role in regulating and supervising the financial system to ensure financial stability and public confidence in the system.
• History of RBI
• The RBI was initially set up as a private entity but was nationalized in 1949.
• It was established following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• The original headquarters of RBI was in Calcutta (Kolkata) before moving to Mumbai.
• The RBI's central office is located in Mumbai, where the Governor sits and policies are formulated.
• Structure of RBI
• The RBI is managed by a central board of directors appointed by the Government of India.
• The board is comprised of a Governor, four Deputy Governors, and other directors appointed by the government.
• The Governor is the chief executive of the RBI and is responsible for its overall direction and control.
• The current Governor of RBI (as of October 2023) is Shaktikanta Das.

The correct answer is Guru Ghasidas.

Key Points

• Guru Ghasidas was a prominent social reformer and spiritual leader of the Satnami sect in the early 19th century.
• The Satnami movement was initiated by Guru Ghasidas for the upliftment of the marginalized and oppressed communities, particularly the leather workers in Central India.
• He emphasized the principles of truth, non-violence, and equality, and preached against the caste-based discrimination prevalent in society.
• Guru Ghasidas is revered as a significant figure in the history of social reform in India, and his teachings continue to inspire many.

Additional Information

• Satnami Movement
• The Satnami movement emerged as a significant socio-religious movement in Central India, particularly in the Chhattisgarh region.
• It was started by Guru Ghasidas in the early 19th century to challenge the social hierarchies and caste-based discrimination.
• The movement emphasized the worship of Satnam (the True Name) and rejected the orthodox practices and rituals of the dominant Brahminical religion.
• Satnamis, the followers of the movement, primarily belong to the Dalit community and have a strong presence in Chhattisgarh and neighboring regions.
• Guru Ghasidas
• Guru Ghasidas was born in 1756 in the village of Girodpuri in present-day Chhattisgarh.
• He is considered a pioneer of the Satnami sect, which aimed to eradicate social evils and promote equality and justice.
• Guru Ghasidas preached the message of truth, unity, and non-violence, and his teachings emphasized the inherent dignity and worth of every individual.
• He is remembered for his efforts to uplift the marginalized sections of society and his contribution to the social reform movement in India.

The correct answer is specialised defensive player.

Key Points

• The libero is a player specialized in defensive skills.
• They cannot attack the ball from above the net's height.
• The libero wears a different color jersey from the rest of the team.
• They cannot serve, block, or attempt to block.

Additional Information

• Volleyball Positions
• In volleyball, each player has a specific position and role.
• The main positions are setter, outside hitter, middle blocker, opposite hitter, and libero.
• The setter is the playmaker, setting up the ball for attackers.
• Outside hitters and opposite hitters are responsible for attacking and blocking.
• Middle blockers are key defensive players who block opponents' attacks.
• Libero Rules
• The libero is restricted to playing in the back row.
• A libero cannot attack the ball if it is above the height of the net.
• They are not allowed to serve (except in some specific competitions), block, or attempt to block.
• The libero position was introduced to enhance the defensive skills and ball control of the team.
• Libero's Special Jersey
• The libero must wear a jersey of a different color from their teammates to be easily distinguishable.
• This helps referees and players to identify the libero quickly, ensuring that libero rules are followed.

The correct answer is British.

Key Points

• The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British model.
• India adopted the British parliamentary system as it was familiar to the Indian leaders who were exposed to British legal and parliamentary traditions.
• The Indian parliamentary system comprises two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), similar to the British Parliament's House of Commons and House of Lords.
• The President of India is the constitutional head of the country, similar to the British monarch, while the Prime Minister of India is the head of government, similar to the British Prime Minister.

Additional Information

• Parliamentary System:
• A parliamentary system is a system of democratic governance where the executive branch derives its legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature (parliament); the executive and legislative branches are thus interconnected.
• In a parliamentary system, the head of state is usually different from the head of government. The head of government is typically the prime minister, who is appointed by the head of state.
• Lok Sabha:
• The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is the lower house of India's bicameral parliament. Its members are directly elected by the people of India.
• The Lok Sabha is responsible for making laws and representing the people's interests. It has significant powers, including the ability to pass money bills and hold the government accountable.
• Rajya Sabha:
• The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, is the upper house of India's bicameral parliament. Its members are elected by the legislative assemblies of states and union territories.
• The Rajya Sabha represents the states and union territories and acts as a revising chamber for legislation passed by the Lok Sabha.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister of India is the head of government and is appointed by the President. The Prime Minister is usually the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha.
• The Prime Minister leads the executive branch of the government, sets government policy, and represents the country in international affairs.
• President:
• The President of India is the head of state and is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of parliament and the legislative assemblies of states and union territories.
• The President has a range of powers and functions, including appointing the Prime Minister, representing the country in ceremonial matters, and acting as the supreme commander of the armed forces.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The first column elements and first element second column shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The left diagonal elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 5 and 4 are common on both the dice, it is clear that 3 will be opposite to it 2.

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "3".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: 156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1): + and −

156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74 ⇒ 156 ÷ 12 + 4 × 65 − 87 = 74

⇒ 156 ÷ 12 + 4 × 65 − 87 = 74

⇒ 13 + 4 × 65 − 87 = 74

⇒ 13 + 260 − 87 = 74

⇒ 273 − 87 = 74

⇒ 186 ≠ 74 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): = and ×

156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74 ⇒ 156 ÷ 12 − 4 = 65 + 87 × 74

⇒ 156 ÷ 12 − 4 = 65 + 87 × 74

⇒ 13 − 4 = 65 + 6438

⇒ 9 ≠ 6503 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3): × and −

156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74 ⇒ 156 ÷ 12 × 4 − 65 + 87 = 74

⇒ 156 ÷ 12 × 4 − 65 + 87 = 74

⇒ 13 × 4 − 65 + 87 = 74

⇒ 52 + 87 − 65 = 74

⇒ 139 − 65 = 74

⇒ 74 = 74 (LHS = RHS)

Option  4): + and =

156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74 ⇒ 156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 = 87 + 74

⇒ 156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 = 87 + 74

⇒ 13 − 4 × 65 = 161

⇒ 13 − 260 = 161

⇒ 247 ≠ 161 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Six friends - A, B, C, D, E, and F - were sitting around a circular table, facing the center. They were seated equidistant from each other.

1. A was seated third to the right of B.

2. E was seated immediately to the left of D.

3. A was seated exactly between F and D.

After positioning E, F and D only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. C.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, C was seated third to the left of D.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (1st number) × 3 + 3rd number = 2nd number.

Now,

For (39, 130, 13):

⇒ 39 × 3 + 13

⇒ 117 + 13 = 130 = 2nd number

For (45, 150, 15)

⇒ 45 × 3 + 15

⇒ 135 + 15 = 150 = 2nd number

Similarly, for Option 3: (35, 115, 10)

⇒ 35 × 3 + 10

⇒ 105 + 10 = 115 = 2nd number

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The first and second column elements shift clockwise subsequently.

No change in the rest of the elements.

2) Second box series →

The first row elements shift clockwise subsequently.

No change in the rest of the elements.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘WAR’ is written as ‘39’

And,

‘ZIP’ is written as ‘30’

Similarly,

‘YES’ is written as

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 3 is common on both the dice I and III, it is clear that 1, 5, 2, and 4 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 6 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

5 → 2

1 → 4

3 → 6

So, the opposite side of "4" will be side "1".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option Figure 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

Ⅰ. Some shoes are jackets → Follow (As some shoes are shirts and all shirts are jackets. As whole shirts comes in jackets and has some part common with shoes, therefore it is true.)

Ⅱ. All jackets are shoes → Does not follow (As some shoes are shirts and all shirts are jackets.. As whole shirts comes in jackets and has some part common with shoes, therefore it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, ​Only conclusion I follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 4) + 1 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 17 : 69

⇒ (17 × 4) + 1 = 68 + 1 = 69.

For, 21 : 85

⇒ (21 × 4) + 1 = 84 + 1 = 85.

Similarly, for ? ∶ 109

⇒ (27 × 4) + 1 = 108 + 1 = 109.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The number of triangles in the given figure are shown below:

1) As there are marked 9 parts (same shape), therefore (9 × 2) = 18 triangles

2) Number of triangles = 3

3) Number of triangles = 9

Thus, as marked there are a total of (18 + 3 + 9) = 30 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As B is common on both the dice II and III, it is clear that A, C, E, and F are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. D will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

C → E

A → F

B → D

So, the opposite side of "D" will be side "B".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

YDVJ : PHMN

And,

FJBE : WNSI

Similarly,

PXYS : ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the option figure 3 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As D is common on both the dice, it is clear that B, F, C, and A are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e., E will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

F → C

B → A

D → E

So, the opposite side of "E" will be side "D".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The corner elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The two center bottom elements interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The elements shift clockwise in the circle of Z-shape subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 1 is common on both the dices, it is clear that X, 3, Z, and 2 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. Y will be opposite to it.

​

Opposite pairs:

X → 2

3 → Z

1 → Y

So, the opposite side of "Y" will be side "1".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 156 ÷ 12 − 4 × 65 + 87 = 74

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1): +, ×, –, ÷, =

13 * 7 * 32 * 56 * 4 * 73 ⇒ 13 + 7 × 32 - 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 + 7 × 32 - 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 + 7 × 32 - 14 = 73

⇒ 13 + 224 - 14 = 73

⇒ 237 - 14 = 73

⇒ 223 ≠ 73 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): ×, –, +, ÷, =

13 * 7 * 32 * 56 * 4 * 73 ⇒ 13 × 7 - 32 + 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 × 7 - 32 + 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 × 7 - 32 + 14 = 73

⇒ 91 + 14 - 32 = 73

⇒ 105 - 32 = 73

⇒ 73 = 73 (LHS = RHS)

Option  3): –, ÷, +, ×, =

13 * 7 * 32 * 56 * 4 * 73 ⇒ 13 - 7 ÷ 32 + 56 × 4 = 73

⇒ 13 - 7 ÷ 32 + 56 × 4 = 73

⇒ 13 - 0.21 + 56 × 4 = 73

⇒ 13 + 224 - 0.21 = 73

⇒ 237 - 0.21 = 73

⇒ 236.79 ≠ 73 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): –, ×, +, ÷, =

13 * 7 * 32 * 56 * 4 * 73 ⇒ 13 - 7 × 32 + 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 - 7 × 32 + 56 ÷ 4 = 73

⇒ 13 - 7 × 32 + 14 = 73

⇒ 13 + 14 - 224 = 73

⇒ 27 - 224 = 73

⇒ 197 ≠ 73 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given:

$\frac{0.061 \times 0.061 \times 0.061+0.031 \times 0.031 \times 0.031}{0.061 \times 0.061-0.061 \times 0.031+0.031 \times 0.031}$

Formula Used:

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{0.061 \times 0.061 \times 0.061+0.031 \times 0.031 \times 0.031}{0.061 \times 0.061-0.061 \times 0.031+0.031 \times 0.031}$

⇒ $\frac{(0.061)^3+(0.031)^3}{(0.061)^2 -0.061 \times 0.031+(0.031)^2 }$

⇒ $\frac{(0.061)^3+(0.031)^3}{(0.061)^2 -0.061 \times 0.031+(0.031)^2 }$

Using identity,

⇒ $\frac{(0.061+0.031)((0.061)^2 -0.061 \times 0.031+(0.031)^2)}{(0.061)^2 -0.061 \times 0.031+(0.031)^2 }$

⇒ 0.061 + 0.031

⇒ 0.092

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

A can complete the work in 8 days.

B can complete the work in 10 days.

C can complete the work in 12 days.

Formula Used:

Work done per day by all working together = $\left(\frac{1}{A} + \frac{1}{B} + \frac{1}{C}\right)$

Time taken to complete the work together = 1/(Work done per day by all working together)

Calculation:

Work done per day by A = 1/8

Work done per day by B = 1/10

Work done per day by C = 1/12

Work done per day by all working together:

$\left(\frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{12}\right)$

Finding LCM of 8, 10, and 12 = 120

$\left(\frac{15}{120} + \frac{12}{120} + \frac{10}{120}\right)$

$\left(\frac{15 + 12 + 10}{120}\right)$

$\left(\frac{37}{120}\right)$

Time taken to complete the work together:

$\frac{1}{\left(\frac{37}{120}\right)}$

$\left(\frac{120}{37}\right)$

All of them together will complete the work in $\left(\frac{120}{37}\right)$ days.

Given:

Diameter of the sphere = 30 cm

Radius of the sphere (r₁) = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 cm

Diameter of the wire = 10 cm

Radius of the wire (r₂) = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 cm

Formula used:

Volume of sphere = Volume of wire

$\dfrac{4}{3}\pi r_1^3 = \pi r_2^2 \times \text{length of wire (L)}$

Calculation:

$\dfrac{4}{3} \pi (15)^3 = \pi (5)^2 \times L$

⇒ $\dfrac{4}{3} \times 15^3 = 5^2 \times L$

⇒ $\dfrac{4}{3} \times 3375 = 25 \times L$

⇒ $\dfrac{13500}{3} = 25 \times L$

⇒ $4500 = 25 \times L$

⇒ $\dfrac{4500}{25} = L$

⇒ L = 180 cm

∴ The length of the wire is 180 cm.

Shortcut Trick

According to the question, 45% of Ram's money added to 50% of Soham's money equals 86% of Soham's money.

Equating the parts: 45% of Ram = (86% − 50%) of Soham.

45 × Ram = 36 × Soham.

Ratio of Soham to Ram (S/R) = 45 ÷ 36 = 5 ÷ 4.

Required Percentage = (5 ÷ 4) × 100 = 125%.

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let Ram's money be R and Soham's money be S.

Equation: 45% of R + 50% of S = 86% of S.

Calculations:

⇒ (45/100) × R + (50/100) × S = (86/100) × S

⇒ 0.45R + 0.50S = 0.86S

⇒ 0.45R = 0.86S − 0.50S

⇒ 0.45R = 0.36S

⇒ S/R = 0.45 ÷ 0.36

⇒ S/R = 45 ÷ 36 = 5/4

⇒ Percentage of Soham's money with respect to Ram's = (S/R) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (5/4) × 100 = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Additional Information

Percentage Representation

To find what percentage A is of B, use the formula: (A ÷ B) × 100. Here, Ram's money is the base (B).

Ratio to Percentage

A ratio x : y can be converted to a percentage by multiplying the fraction (x/y) by 100. Common fractions like 5/4 = 1.25 = 125%.

Percentage Change

Percentage Increase/Decrease = (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100.

Given:

The 5th prime number and the prime number immediately greater than 100.

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = Number1 × Number2

Calculation:

The 5th prime number = 11

The prime number immediately greater than 100 = 101

Product of these numbers = 11 × 101

⇒ 11 × 101 = 1111

The product of the 5th prime number and the prime number immediately greater than 100 is 1111.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5000

Time (t) = 2 years

Rate of interest (borrowed) = 4% p.a.

Rate of interest (lent) = 25/4% p.a.

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = $\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}$

Gain = Interest received - Interest paid

Calculation:

Interest paid:

⇒ SI = $\frac{5000 \times 4 \times 2}{100}$

⇒ SI = ₹400

Interest received:

⇒ SI = $\frac{5000 \times \frac{25}{4} \times 2}{100}$

⇒ SI = ₹625

Gain:

⇒ Gain = ₹625 - ₹400

⇒ Gain = ₹225

∴ The gain in the transaction is ₹225.

Given:

Initial population = 1,87,500

Birth rate = 13%

Death rate = 9%

Formula Used:

Population after n years = Initial population × (1 + net growth rate)ⁿ

Calculation:

Net growth rate = Birth rate - Death rate

Net growth rate = 13% - 9% = 4% = 0.04

Population after 2 years = 1,87,500 × (1 + 0.04)²

⇒ Population after 2 years = 1,87,500 × 1.04²

⇒ Population after 2 years = 1,87,500 × 1.0816

⇒ Population after 2 years = 2,02,800

The population of the country after 2 years is 2,02,800.

Shortcut Trick

Net growth rate = Birth rate - Death rate = 13% - 9% = 4%

For 2 years, successive change:

⇒ Population after 2 years = 1,87,500 × (100 + 4) / 100 × (100 + 4) / 100 = 2,02,800

∴ Population of the country after 2 years = 2,02,800.

Given:

Train: 550 km at 55 km/h

Plane: 4500 km at 500 km/h

Boat: 400 km at 25 km/h

Auto: 55 km at 35 km/h

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance traveled / Total time taken

Calculation:

Total Distance = 550 + 4500 + 400 + 55

Total Distance = 5505 km

Time taken by Train = 550 / 55

Time taken by Train = 10 hours

Time taken by Plane = 4500 / 500

Time taken by Plane = 9 hours

Time taken by Boat = 400 / 25

Time taken by Boat = 16 hours

Time taken by Auto = 55 / 35

Time taken by Auto = $\frac{55}{35}$

Time taken by Auto = $\frac{11}{7}$ hours

Total Time = 10 + 9 + 16 + $\frac{11}{7}$

Total Time = 35 + $\frac{11}{7}$

Total Time = $\frac{245 + 11}{7}$

Total Time = $\frac{256}{7}$

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Average Speed = 5505 / $\frac{256}{7}$

$\text{Average Speed} = \frac{5505 \times 7}{256}$

$\text{Average Speed} = \frac{38535}{256}$

Average Speed = 150¹³⁵⁄₂₅₆ km/h

The average speed for the entire journey is 150¹³⁵⁄₂₅₆ km/h.

Shortcut Trick

Check the conditions using the given prime number values for k.

Substitute k = 2:

k = 2 (Prime), k² + 3 = 7 (Prime), k³ + 5 = 13 (Prime).

Since all values are prime numbers, the condition is satisfied.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method

Given: k, (k² + 3) and (k³ + 5) are prime numbers.

We test the value of k starting from the smallest prime number.

Case 1: Let k = 2

⇒ First number = 2 (It is a prime number)

⇒ Second number = k² + 3 = 2² + 3 = 4 + 3 = 7 (It is a prime number)

⇒ Third number = k³ + 5 = 2³ + 5 = 8 + 5 = 13 (It is a prime number)

Case 2: Let k = 3

⇒ First number = 3 (Prime)

⇒ Second number = k² + 3 = 3² + 3 = 12 (Not a prime number)

Case 3: Let k = 7

⇒ First number = 7 (Prime)

⇒ Second number = k² + 3 = 7² + 3 = 52 (Not a prime number)

⇒ Only k = 2 satisfies the condition that all three expressions are prime.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has exactly two factors: 1 and itself.

Even Prime Number

2 is the only even prime number. All other prime numbers are odd.

Smallest Prime

The smallest prime number is 2. Note that 1 is neither prime nor composite.

Composite Numbers

Numbers that have more than two factors are called composite numbers (e.g., 4, 6, 8, 9, 10).

Given:

Price increase of tea = 28%

Expenditure remains unchanged

Formula Used:

Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{\text{Percentage increase in price}}{100 + \text{Percentage increase in price}} \times 100$

Calculation:

Percentage increase in price = 28%

Equation:

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{28}{100 + 28} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{28}{128} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{28 \times 100}{128}$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{2800}{128}$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption ≈ 21.875

To the nearest whole number, the percentage reduction in consumption should be 22%.

Given:

Length of sides of the triangle are 24 cm, 17 cm, and 9 cm.

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle using Heron's formula:

Area = $√{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}$

where s is the semi-perimeter of the triangle, and a , b , c are the lengths of the sides.

s = (a + b + c) / 2

Calculation:

Let a = 24 cm, b = 17 cm, and c = 9 cm.

Semi-perimeter s = (24 + 17 + 9) / 2

Semi-perimeter s = 50 / 2

Semi-perimeter s = 25 cm

Area = $√{25(25-24)(25-17)(25-9)}$

Area = $√{25 \times 1 \times 8 \times 16}$

Area = $√{3200}$

Area = $40 √{2}$

The area of the triangle is 40√2 cm².

Given:

Marked price is 75% more than the cost price.

Discount on the marked price = 40%.

Formula Used:

Percentage Profit = $\frac{Selling Price - Cost Price}{Cost Price} \times 100$

Calculation:

Let Cost Price (CP) = 100.

Marked Price (MP) = CP + 75% of CP = 100 + 75 = 175.

Discount = 40% of MP = 40% of 175 = 0.40 × 175 = 70.

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount = 175 - 70 = 105.

Percentage Profit = $\frac{SP - CP}{CP} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage Profit = $\frac{105 - 100}{100} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage Profit = $\frac{5}{100} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage Profit = 5%

The percentage profit is 5%.

Given:

First five composite numbers: 4, 6, 8, 9, 10.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / (Total count of numbers)

Calculation:

Sum of first five composite numbers = 4 + 6 + 8 + 9 + 10

Sum = 37

Total count of numbers = 5

Average = Sum / Total count

⇒ Average = 37 / 5

⇒ Average = 7.4

The average of the first five composite numbers is 7.4.

Shortcut Trick

Under similar conditions, the ratio of an object's height to the length of its shadow is constant.

Ratio = Height of Pole ÷ Shadow of Pole = 8.3 ÷ 4.15 = 2

Height of the Tree = Shadow of Tree × Ratio

Height of the Tree = 40 × 2 = 80 m

∴ The correct answer is 80 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of the pole = 8.3 m

Shadow of the pole = 4.15 m

Shadow of the tree = 40 m

Formula Used:

Since the shadows are cast under similar conditions, the angle of elevation of the sun is the same, forming similar triangles. Therefore:

Height of Object 1 ÷ Shadow of Object 1 = Height of Object 2 ÷ Shadow of Object 2

Calculation:

Let the height of the tree be h m.

⇒ 8.3 ÷ 4.15 = h ÷ 40

⇒ 2 = h ÷ 40

⇒ h = 40 × 2

⇒ h = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80 m.

Additional Information

Properties of Similar Triangles

When two right-angled triangles are formed under the same angle of elevation (such as by sun rays at the same time), they are similar, meaning the ratio of their corresponding sides is always identically equal.

Direct Proportion

The height of a vertical object and the length of its cast shadow are directly proportional. If Height ∝ Shadow, then H₁/S₁ = H₂/S₂.

Angle of Elevation

The phrase 'similar conditions' implies that the angle of elevation of the sun is identical for both locations, ensuring the shadow lengths follow the exact same geometric scale as the object heights.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of 150 guavas = ₹525

Selling Price (SP) per dozen (12 guavas) = ₹36

Formula Used:

Profit or Loss Percentage = $\frac{Profit or Loss}{Cost Price} × 100$

Calculation:

Total Selling Price (SP) for 150 guavas:

Number of dozens = 150 / 12

⇒ Number of dozens = 12.5

Selling Price (SP) for 12.5 dozens:

SP = 12.5 × ₹36

⇒ SP = ₹450

Loss = CP - SP

Loss = ₹525 - ₹450

⇒ Loss = ₹75

Loss Percentage:

Loss Percentage = (Loss / CP) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = (75 / 525) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = (1 / 7) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 14.29%

The correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is Hypertext Transfer Protocol.

Key Points

• Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the foundation of any data exchange on the Web.
• It is a stateless protocol, meaning each command is executed independently, without any knowledge of the previous commands.
• HTTP is an application layer protocol designed within the framework of the Internet protocol suite.
• It is used for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML, and is an essential protocol for web browsers to communicate with web servers.

Additional Information

• Domain Name Server (DNS)
• DNS is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network.
• It translates more readily memorized domain names to the numerical IP addresses needed for locating and identifying computer services and devices.
• It is an essential component for the functionality of the Internet.
• World Wide Web (WWW)
• The World Wide Web is an information system where documents and other web resources are identified by Uniform Resource Locators (URLs).
• It is accessible over the Internet and uses HTTP to transfer data.
• It was invented by Sir Tim Berners-Lee in 1989.
• Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
• A URL is a reference or address to a resource on the Internet.
• It is used to specify addresses on the World Wide Web.
• A URL has two main components: Protocol identifier (e.g., HTTP) and Resource name (e.g., www.example.com).

The correct answer is Option 3: Neither (1) Nor (2).

Key Points

• In MS Word 365, Ctrl + X is used to cut a document or selected text, not copy it.
• In MS Word 365, Ctrl + V is used to paste the content from the clipboard, not to move a document.
• To copy a document or selected text, the correct keyboard shortcut is Ctrl + C.
• To move a document or selected text, you typically cut it using Ctrl + X and then paste it using Ctrl + V.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + X (Cut):
• This command removes the selected text or item and places it on the clipboard for later use.
• It is commonly used to move text or objects from one location to another within a document or between different documents.
• Ctrl + C (Copy):
• This command copies the selected text or item to the clipboard without removing it from the original location.
• It allows users to duplicate text or objects within a document or across different documents.
• Ctrl + V (Paste):
• This command inserts the content from the clipboard into the current location of the cursor within the document.
• It is used to paste text or objects that have been cut or copied from another location.
• Clipboard:
• The clipboard is a temporary storage area in a computer's memory where cut, copied, or dragged data is stored.
• It holds the data until it is pasted into a new location or the computer is turned off.

The correct answer is F2.

Key Points

• The F2 key is used in MS Excel to enter edit mode for the selected cell, allowing you to make changes to its content.
• When you press F2, the cursor appears at the end of the cell's contents, enabling you to start editing immediately.
• Using F2 is a quick way to modify cell data without having to double-click the cell.
• This shortcut is highly efficient for users who frequently need to edit data in Excel spreadsheets.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + F1
• This shortcut toggles the display of the ribbon in MS Excel.
• Using Ctrl + F1, you can hide or show the ribbon, which contains the tabs and commands.
• F1
• Pressing F1 in MS Excel opens the Help pane.
• This key provides quick access to the Help documentation and support resources.
• Ctrl + F2
• Ctrl + F2 opens the Print Preview window in MS Excel.
• This allows you to see how your spreadsheet will look when printed.

The correct answer is TRIM.

Key Points

• The TRIM function in MS Excel 365 removes all spaces from a text string except for single spaces between words.
• This function is particularly useful for cleaning up data that may have irregular spacing issues due to copying, pasting, or human entry errors.
• The syntax for the TRIM function is TRIM(text), where text is the string from which you want to remove extra spaces.
• Applying the TRIM function can make text data more consistent and easier to process for further analysis.

Additional Information

• AVERAGE Function:
• The AVERAGE function calculates the mean of a group of numbers.
• The syntax is AVERAGE(number1, [number2], ...).
• It's used for finding the central value of a set of numbers.
• SUM Function:
• The SUM function adds all the numbers in a range of cells.
• The syntax is SUM(number1, [number2], ...).
• It's a fundamental function for quickly calculating totals in Excel.
• VLOOKUP Function:
• The VLOOKUP function searches for a value in the first column of a table and returns a value in the same row from a specified column.
• The syntax is VLOOKUP(lookup_value, table_array, col_index_num, [range_lookup]).
• It's often used for looking up and retrieving data from a specific column in Excel.

The correct answer is Increase font size.

Key Points

• The "Increase font size" option in MS Word 365 allows users to change the font size of the selected text to the next larger size available in the font size list.
• This feature is very useful for quickly adjusting text size, especially when working with documents that require varying levels of emphasis or readability.
• Using this option ensures that the text formatting remains consistent with the font size increments predefined in MS Word.
• It is a more efficient way to adjust font size compared to manually selecting from the font size dropdown list.

Additional Information

• Italics
• This option is used to italicize the selected text, making it slanted to the right.
• Italics is often used for emphasis, titles of works, or for foreign words within a text.
• Bold
• The "Bold" option makes the selected text thicker and darker, which is often used for emphasis or headings.
• Bold text stands out more prominently compared to regular text.
• Reduce font size
• This option decreases the font size of the selected text to the next smaller size available in the font size list.
• It is useful for adjusting the text size downward quickly.
• Font Size List
• The font size list in MS Word contains predefined font sizes (e.g., 8, 10, 12, 14, etc.) that users can select to adjust the size of their text.
• Font sizes can also be customized by typing a specific number into the font size field.

The correct answer is Print area.

Key Points

• The Print Area in MS Excel is a specific range of cells that you designate to print.
• When you set a Print Area, only the cells within that range are printed, leaving out the rest of the spreadsheet.
• You can set multiple Print Areas in a single worksheet, and each area will print as a separate page.
• To set the Print Area, you can go to the Page Layout tab, click on Print Area, and then select Set Print Area.

Additional Information

• View
• In Excel, the View tab allows you to switch between different views of your workbook, such as Normal, Page Layout, and Page Break Preview.
• It also provides options to zoom in and out of your worksheet, and to show or hide gridlines, headings, and the formula bar.
• Print Preview
• Print Preview is a feature that allows you to see how your worksheet will look when printed.
• It shows the layout of the pages, including margins, headers, and footers, and allows you to make adjustments before printing.
• Print Margin
• Print Margins refer to the blank space around the edges of the printed page.
• You can adjust the margins of your worksheet from the Page Layout tab to ensure that the content fits well within the printed page.

The correct answer is To organize information into lists or sequences..

Key Points

• Bullets and numbering help in structuring content in a clear and organized manner.
• They are primarily used to create lists, whether ordered or unordered.
• Using bullets and numbering can enhance readability and make the document more visually appealing.
• They are helpful in emphasizing important points and ensuring the reader can follow the sequence of information.

Additional Information

• Bullets:
• Bullets are symbols used to mark items in a list.
• Common bullet symbols include dots, dashes, and other shapes.
• They are used for unordered lists where the sequence of items does not matter.
• Numbering:
• Numbering is used to create ordered lists.
• Each item in the list is prefixed with a number or letter to indicate its position.
• Numbering is useful when the sequence of items is important, such as in steps of a procedure.
• MS Word 365:
• MS Word 365 is a word processing application provided by Microsoft as part of the Office 365 suite.
• It offers various tools for document formatting, including bullets and numbering.
• Users can customize bullets and numbering styles to suit their document's needs.

The correct answer is Plain Grid.

Key Points

• Plain Grid is one of the predefined table styles available in Microsoft Word 365.
• It provides a simple, clean, and organized layout for tabular data.
• Table styles in Word help maintain consistency and enhance the visual appeal of documents.
• Users can easily apply and customize these styles to suit their formatting needs.

Additional Information

• Chicago Manual of Style
• It is a style guide for American English published by the University of Chicago Press.
• It is widely used in publishing and academia for formatting and citation.
• It is not related to table styles in Microsoft Word.
• MLA (Modern Language Association)
• MLA style is a system for documenting sources in scholarly writing.
• It is commonly used in the humanities, especially in writing on language and literature.
• Like the Chicago Manual of Style, it is not associated with table styles in Word.
• APA (American Psychological Association)
• APA style is used for writing and formatting research papers in psychology and other social sciences.
• It provides guidelines on paper structure, citations, and references.
• It is also not a table style in Microsoft Word.

The correct answer is Email.

Key Points

• Email stands for electronic mail, which is a method of exchanging digital messages over the Internet.
• Emails are typically sent through SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) and received through IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) or POP3 (Post Office Protocol).
• Email services often include features such as attachments, enabling users to send files, documents, images, and other types of media.
• Emails are widely used for personal, business, and official communication due to their speed, reliability, and ability to be archived for future reference.

Additional Information

• Chrome
• Google Chrome is a cross-platform web browser developed by Google.
• It is known for its speed, simplicity, and security features.
• Chrome supports a wide range of web standards and technologies, including HTML5, CSS3, and JavaScript.
• It also has a large library of extensions and add-ons available through the Chrome Web Store.
• Bing
• Bing is a web search engine owned and operated by Microsoft.
• It provides various search services, including web, image, video, and map search results.
• Bing also powers search features in other Microsoft services, such as Cortana and Microsoft Edge.
• It competes directly with other search engines like Google and Yahoo.
• Mozilla
• Mozilla is a free software community known for its open-source products, primarily the Firefox web browser.
• Firefox is known for its focus on privacy and user control.
• Mozilla also develops other products, such as the Thunderbird email client and the Firefox OS mobile operating system.
• The organization promotes open standards and supports the advancement of the open web.

The correct answer is MS-Word.

Key Points

• MS-Word is a word processing software developed by Microsoft, which is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
• It allows users to create, edit, format, and save documents.
• Users can start a new blank document by selecting "File" > "New" > "Blank document" or by pressing "Ctrl + N".
• MS-Word provides various templates for different types of documents, such as resumes, reports, and letters, but a blank document is a common starting point.

Additional Information

• MS-Excel
• MS-Excel is a spreadsheet software developed by Microsoft.
• It is used for data analysis and visualization, featuring tools like pivot tables and chart creation.
• Excel allows users to perform complex calculations and create financial models.
• MS Outlook
• MS Outlook is an email client software developed by Microsoft.
• It helps users manage emails, calendar events, tasks, and contacts.
• Outlook is often used in corporate environments for communication and scheduling.
• MS-Powerpoint
• MS-Powerpoint is a presentation software developed by Microsoft.
• It is used to create slideshows composed of a series of individual slides.
• PowerPoint is widely used for educational, business, and professional presentations.