Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 14 Nov, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Phalguna, Krishna Paksha, Chaturdashi.

Key Points

• Drik Panchang
• Drik Panchang is a comprehensive online Hindu almanac that provides detailed astrological and calendar-related information.
• It is used to determine auspicious dates and times for various Hindu religious practices and rituals.
• Drik Panchang includes data on festivals, vrat (fasting) dates, and other important Hindu events.
• It uses precise astronomical calculations to provide daily panchang details like tithi (lunar day), nakshatra (constellation), yoga, karana, and vara (weekday).
• The platform also offers tools to calculate muhurat (auspicious time) for various ceremonies like weddings and housewarming events.
• Drik Panchang covers multiple Hindu calendars such as the Vikram Samvat and Shaka Samvat.
• The website and app are available in multiple languages to cater to a wide audience.
• It also includes predictive astrology features like horoscopes and horoscope matching for marriage.
• The panchang is updated regularly to reflect accurate sunrise, sunset, moonrise, and moonset times for different locations.
• Drik Panchang is widely used by Hindus around the world for both religious and everyday planning.

 Additional Information

• Maha Shivaratri
• Maha Shivaratri is a major Hindu festival dedicated to Lord Shiva, one of the primary deities in Hinduism.
• It is celebrated annually on the 14th night of the new moon during the waning phase in the Hindu month of Phalguna or Magha, which typically falls in February or March.
• The festival is marked by ritualistic fasting, night-long vigils, and the chanting of Shiva mantras. Devotees visit Shiva temples to perform special pujas and offer milk, honey, and bilva (bael) leaves to the Shiva Lingam.
• Maha Shivaratri is believed to be the day when Shiva married Parvati or performed the Tandava, a cosmic dance of creation, preservation, and destruction. It is considered highly auspicious for spiritual growth, attracting devotees seeking the blessings for longevity and prosperity.
• The festival emphasizes self-restraint, meditation, and the purification of the mind and soul.

The correct answer is Saina Nehwal.

Key Points

• Saina Nehwal, India’s star badminton player and World Number 4, Padma Shri and Khel Ratna awardee.
• She is the girl who brought laurels to India by winning an Olympic medal at the age of twenty-two.
• In "Playing to Win", she talks about her childhood and growing–years; her relationship with the most important people in her life; the ups and downs of her celebrated career, from district-level wins to the Olympics; and the sacrifices needed to succeed in any sport.
• She also reveals little-known facts and offers a peek into her many avatars—daughter, sister, student, and the regular girl behind the badminton prodigy.
• This book reveals what a typical day in Saina’s life is like—rigorous training, a strict diet, and no parties or sleepovers.
• It's not all work and no play; Saina loves to shop, eat ice cream (post wins only), and play games on her iPad.
• With candid photographs and badminton tips from the pro herself, this book showcases the making of a badminton champ—in her own words.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Growth, Modernisation, Equity and Self-reliance .

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution's concept of five-year plans was influenced by the Soviet Union (now Russia), which had successfully implemented five-year plans for economic development.
• The Soviet system of economic planning had a particularly strong impact on Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
• In order to direct its efforts at economic development after gaining independence, the Indian government created the concept of five-year plans.
• The First Five-Year Plan was introduced in 1951, and the Planning Commission of India was founded to create and carry out these plans.
• The National Development Council (NDC) headed by the Prime Minister with all Chief Minister and cabinet ministers are the final authority to approve the five-year-long policy.
• The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which formed India's Five-Year Plans.
• In 2014, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi announced to dissolve the Planning Commission and replace it by a new institution named NITI Aayog.

Additional Information

• Five-year plans :​

The correct answer is Taj Mahotsav.

Key Points

• The Taj Mahotsav 2024 is scheduled to take place from February 17th to 27th.
• Location: It is being organized at Shilpgram in Agra, near the Taj Mahal, known for its historical significance.
• Celebration: The festival is dedicated to honoring the enduring love story of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan and Mumtaz.
• Cultural Showcase: Taj Mahotsav aims to showcase the talents of local artists, craftspeople, culinary experts, and performers from Uttar Pradesh.
• Inaugural Edition: The first Taj Mahotsav took place in 1992, and the upcoming event marks its 32nd edition.
• Department of Tourism: The festival is orchestrated by the Department of Tourism to promote cultural heritage and tourism.
• Mughal-style Procession: It features an annual Mughal-style procession, adding to the grandeur of the event.
• Artisan Participation: Scores of local artisans from diverse regions of India converge to exhibit their craftsmanship.
• Cultural Diversity: Expect to witness various art forms, cuisines, and performances representing the cultural diversity of India.
• Artistic Expressions: Visitors can experience unique creations such as marble and zardozi decor items, chikankari dresses, silk sarees, and intricately carved wooden pieces.

The correct answer is PV Narasimha Rao.

Key Points

• New economic policy-
• ​New economic policy was adopted in 1991 in India during a typical economic crisis.
• India was facing macroeconomic problems such as inflation, the inverse balance of payment, higher fiscal deficits, the oil crisis, inverse foreign exchange reverse etc during the 90s.
• To combat these macroeconomic problems India chose to reform the economy following the IMF and World Bank.
• Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation were three broad policies in the New economic policy.

Additional Information

• Lawyer and politician PV Narasimha Rao led India as its ninth prime minister from 1991 to 1996.
• As the "Father of Indian Economic Reforms," he is frequently referred to.
• He oversaw significant economic development, a significant administration, and various domestic events that had an impact on India's national security.
• He was brought to Vangara, a village in the Bheemadevarpalle Mandal of the current Hanamkonda district in Telangana, where Pamulaparthi Ranga Rao and Rukminamma adopted him.

The correct answer is Article 200 .

Key Points

• Article 200 : Provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature,is presented to the Governor,The Governor shall declare -
• That he assents to the bill.
• That he withholds the assent therefrom
• That he reserves the Bill for President's consideration
• The Governor may, as soon as possible, return the bill(other than the money bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But if the bill is again passed by the legislature with or without amendment, The Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom.
• If in the opinion of Governor, the bill if it became law would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position. He shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President.
• If the Governor reserves a bill for the President's consideration the enactment of the bill then depends on the assent or refusal of assent by the President.
• State bill reserved for President's consideration may be classified as follows:-
• Bills must be reserved for the President's consideration.
• Bills which may not specifically falls under any of the above categories, yet may be reserved by the Governor for President's consideration under Article 200.

Additional Information

• Article 201- When a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President, the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom:
• It regulated the assent of the President to a Bill reserved for his consideration by the Governor.
• Article 164 of the constitution:
• The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.
• The other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
• The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• Article 264
• Article 264 of the Indian Constitution provides definitions for the purposes of Part XII.
• It defines the term "Finance Commission" as a Finance Commission constituted under article 280.

The correct answer is Unused food .

Key Points

Vitamins can be categorized based on their solubility: water-soluble and fat-soluble.

• Vitamin A is fat-soluble.
• Vitamin B is water-soluble.
• Vitamin C is water-soluble.
• Vitamin K is fat-soluble.
• Vitamin D is fat-soluble.

Water-soluble vitamins, such as Vitamin C, dissolve in water and are typically not stored in large amounts in the body. They need to be consumed more regularly in the diet. On the other hand, fat-soluble vitamins (such as A, D, and K) are absorbed along with fats in the diet and can be stored in the body's fatty tissues.

 Additional Information

• Glucose:
• Glucose is a simple sugar and an essential carbohydrate in biology, serving as a primary energy source for cells.
• It is crucial for cellular respiration, where cells convert glucose and oxygen into energy, carbon dioxide, and water.
• The body regulates glucose levels in the blood through hormones like insulin and glucagon, produced by the pancreas.
• Nutrients:
• Nutrients are substances obtained from food that are vital for growth, energy, and maintaining bodily functions.
• They are classified into macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, fats) and micronutrients (vitamins, minerals), each playing unique roles in the body.
• Proper intake of a balanced mix of these nutrients is essential for overall health and prevention of diseases.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• Governor
• In India, the governor of a state holds office at the pleasure of the president, which means that the president can remove the governor from office at any time without assigning any reason.
• This power is vested in the president under Article 156(1) of the Constitution of India.
• The president is advised by the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister.
• In practice, this means that the decision to remove a governor is usually taken by the central government, led by the Prime Minister.
• There are a number of reasons why the central government might want to remove a governor. These could include:
• If the governor is acting in a way that is considered to be unconstitutional or illegal.
• If the governor is not fulfilling their constitutional duties, such as providing assents to bills passed by the state legislature.
• If the governor is not acting in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• If the governor is acting in a way that is considered to be detrimental to the interests of the state or the country.
• However, the central government is unlikely to remove a governor without a clear and compelling reason. This is because removing a governor is a serious matter that can damage the relationship between the central government and the state government.

Additional Information

• Deputy Speaker
• The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is the second-highest legislative officer of the Lok Sabha.
• Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
• The Lok Sabha has not had a Deputy Speaker for the last 16 months. Instead, a panel of MPs has been assisting the Speaker.
• Chief Minister
• Chief Minister is the real executive authority i.e., de facto executive.
• The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
• The governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.
• But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion and then ask him to prove the majority within a reasonable period.
• Speaker
• Article 93 deals with the appointment of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
• The inaugural holder of the office of the Lok Sabha was M. A. Ayyangar.
• The term length of the deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha is five years during the term of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Purohita.

Key Points

• The beginning of the Vedic Period is from 1500 to 600 BC.
• The Vedic Period is divided into 2 parts:
• Early Vedic Period (1500- 1000 BC)
• Later Vedic Period (1000 - 600 BC)
• Actually, the Aryans crossed vindhyachal and stepped into Madhya Pradesh Between 1100-600 BC.
• So, we can say that they come in the later Vedic period.​

Additional Information

​Early Vedic Period:

• It started in 1500 BC and ends in 1000 BC.
• The caste system was flexible and based on profession rather than birth.
• There was no concept of Shudra or untouchables.
• Women were allowed a greater degree of freedom in this period. They are allowed to participate in the political process of the time to a certain extent.
• Kingship was fluid as the kings were elected for a fixed period by the local assembly known as Samiti.
• Rigveda: This text is cited as the earliest text from this period.

Later Vedic Period:

• It started in 1000 BC and ends in 600 BC.
• The caste system became more rigid in this period in this period with birth being the main criterion.
• Shudras became a mainstay in the Later Vedic Period. Their sole function was to serve those of the upper castes.
• Women were restricted from their participation in society by being relegated to subordinate and docile roles.
• As society became more urbanized during this Period, the need for stable leadership was realized. Thus the absolute rule of the kings became more and more prominent.
• Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda: This text is cited as the later text from this period.

​Thus, Vedic period in ancient India as known as 1500 BC - 600 BC.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• India has a vast network of inland waterways that include river bodies, canals, backwaters and creeks.
• According to the National Waterways Act, 2016, 111 inland waterways (including five national waterways in India declared earlier) have been declared as ‘national waterways’.
• Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), a statutory authority in charge of the waterways in India, is responsible for the timely execution of national waterways projects and to ensure improved water transportation in India.
• Out of the 111 National Waterways (NWs) declared under the National Waterways Act, of 2016, 13 NWs are operational for shipping and navigation and cargo/passenger vessels are moving on them.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Non-metal – Lead .

Key Points

• Lead (Pb):
• Lead has an atomic number of 82 and an atomic mass of approximately 207.2 u (atomic mass units).
• It is a heavy metal that is dense, soft, and highly malleable, with a bluish-gray color.
• Lead is commonly used in batteries, radiation shielding, and certain types of glass and pigments.
• However, due to its toxicity, its use in household products like paints and pipes has significantly decreased to prevent lead poisoning.

Additional Information

• Zinc (Zn):
• Zinc has an atomic number of 30 and an atomic mass of about 65.38 u.
• It is a bluish-white, lustrous metal that is brittle at room temperature but malleable when heated.
• Zinc is widely used for galvanizing iron and steel to prevent rusting, as well as in alloys such as brass.
• It is also an essential micronutrient in the human diet, crucial for immune function, wound healing, and DNA synthesis.
• Platinum (Pt):
• Platinum has an atomic number of 78 and an atomic mass of approximately 195.08 u.
• It is a dense, malleable, and highly unreactive metal with a silvery-white appearance.
• Platinum is extensively used in catalytic converters, laboratory equipment, electrical contacts, and jewelry.
• Its resistance to corrosion makes it valuable in chemical and industrial applications, and it also plays a role in some medical treatments and devices.
• Iron (Fe):
• Iron has an atomic number of 26 and an atomic mass of about 55.85 u.
• It is a silvery-gray metal that is prone to rusting when exposed to moisture and oxygen.
• Iron is the most widely used metal, primarily in the form of steel, due to its strength and affordability.
• It is also a crucial element in biology, forming part of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
• Iron deficiency can lead to anemia, a condition characterized by fatigue and weakness

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

Rowlatt Act

• The Rowlatt Act was passed by the government under the period of Lord Chelmsford.
• It was passed in February 1919.
• Every single Indian member of the Central Legislative Council opposed it.
• The act authorised the government to imprison any suspect without trial and conviction in the court of law.
• It enables the government to suppress the habeas corpus.
• They wanted to replace the provision of repression during wartime Defence of India Act 1915 with a permanent law.
• It was based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt’s Committee of 1918.
• The act was resented by the Indian public and opposed by all Indian members of the Council.
• Gandhi organised a protest movement that led to the Massacre of Amritsar (April 1919).
• The act was never actually implemented.

 Additional Information

• This act was enacted on the recommendations of the Sedition committee under Sir Sydney Rawlaw.
• Dr Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew protested against this act in Punjab and got arrested and in response to this arrest mass gathered in Jalliawallah Bagh and Jalliawalah bagh massacre happened in April 1919.

The correct answer is Tabla.

Key Points

• Ustad Allah Rakha
• Ustad Alla Rakha Qureshi popularly known as Alla Rakha, was an Indian tabla player who specialized in Hindustani classical music.
• He was a frequent accompanist of sitar player Pandit Ravi Shankar and was largely responsible for introducing Tabla to the western audience.
• Alla Rakha left home at age 12 to learn tabla under the great master (ustad) Mian Qadir Baksh.
• He also trained under Ashik Ali Khan, a vocalist admired especially for his mastery of the khayal Hindustani song repertoire.
• Ustad Sabir Khan
• youngest amongst the renowned tabla players of our country.
• He is the only living heir and sole representative of Farrukhabad Gharana.
• Pandit Kishan Maharaj ​
• Pandit Kishan Maharaj of Benara s Gharana was a tabla player.
• He was born on September 3, 1923, in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1973 and the Padma Bhushan in 1991 for his contribution to Indian classical music.
• Pandit Kishan Maharaj was known for his unique style of playing tabla, which was a blend of the Banaras and Delhi gharans.
• Pandit Jnan Prakash Ghosh 
• Jnan Prakash Ghosh was a harmonium and tabla player from India.
• He was also a composer, teacher, and scholar of Indian classical music.
• He trained many eminent musicians, such as Ravi Shankar, Anindo Chatterjee, and Ajoy Chakrabarty.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for his contributions to music.

The correct answer is Palakkad Fort.

Key Points

• Palakkad Fort:
• Palakkad Fort, also known as Tipu's Fort, is situated in the state of Kerala.
• It was originally built in 1766 by Hyder Ali, the ruler of Mysore. The fort is known for its well-preserved architecture and is constructed primarily from granite.
• It played a significant role during the Mysore Wars, witnessing several battles between the British and Mysorean forces.
• Today, the fort is maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India and serves as a popular tourist attraction, showcasing Kerala's historical legacy.

Additional Information

• Kittur Fort:
• Kittur Fort is located in the Belagavi district in the state of Karnataka.
• It was constructed in the early 18th century by Allappa Gowda Sardesai.
• The fort is historically significant for its association with Rani Chennamma, who led a famous rebellion against the British East India Company in 1824.
• The fort complex includes a palace, a museum, and a memorial dedicated to the valiant queen. Kittur Fort stands as a symbol of resistance and valor in Indian history.
• Hoysaleswara Temple:
• Hoysaleswara Temple is located in Halebidu, which is in the state of Karnataka.
• It was built in the 12th century under the patronage of King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala Empire.
• The temple is renowned for its intricate sculptures and detailed architectural designs, characteristic of Hoysala artistry.
• Dedicated to Lord Shiva, the temple complex features two large shrines and a wealth of ornate carvings depicting various Hindu deities and mythological stories.
• Hoysaleswara Temple is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and attracts many visitors interested in art and history.
• Gol Gumbaz:
• Gol Gumbaz is situated in the city of Bijapur, in the state of Karnataka.
• The mausoleum was constructed in 1656 and serves as the resting place of Sultan Mohammed Adil Shah of the Bijapur Sultanate.
• Famous for its massive dome, which is the second-largest in the world, Gol Gumbaz is an outstanding example of Indo-Islamic architecture.
• The tomb is specifically noted for its "Whispering Gallery," where even the slightest sound is echoed multiple times.
• It remains a significant historical monument and a popular tourist attraction in Karnataka.

The correct answer is 6 - 14 Years.

Key Points

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament of India in December 2002, and it came into effect on July 1, 2003.
• This amendment inserted Article 21A in the Constitution, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• It made it mandatory for the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in this age group.
• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, was enacted to operationalize this constitutional mandate.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Amendment:
• A constitutional amendment is a change made to the Constitution of a country, which requires a specific procedure to be followed for its adoption.
• In India, a constitutional amendment requires a special majority in both houses of Parliament and, in certain cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
• Article 21A:
• Article 21A was added to the Indian Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
• It stipulates that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years in a manner determined by law.
• Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009:
• The RTE Act was enacted to give effect to Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
• It mandates that every child has a right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.
• It also lays down the responsibilities of the State, parents, schools, and teachers to ensure the implementation of this right.
• Impact of the Amendment:
• This amendment has significantly increased the enrollment rates in primary schools across India.
• It has also brought attention to issues such as infrastructure, quality of education, and teacher training in the Indian educational system.

The correct answer is Haryank dynasty.

Key Points

The correct answer is MRTP Act.

Key PointsMRTP Act was repealed and is replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, with effect from September 1, 2009.

• The Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969, was enacted
• To ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of economic power in hands of a few.
• To provide for the control of monopolies.
• To prohibit monopolistic and restrictive trade practices.
• The Competition Act was passed in 2002 and has been amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007.

Additional Information

• FEMA Act 
• Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) which was passed in the year 1999, replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973.
• The purpose of FEMA is to consolidate and amend the law related to foreign exchange for facilitating external trade and payment in an orderly manner and also to develops a foreign exchange market in India.
• FEMA is applicable to all parts of India. The act is also applicable to all branches, offices, and agencies outside India owned or controlled by a person who is a resident of India.
• The FEMA head-office, also known as Enforcement Directorate is situated in New Delhi and is headed by a Director.
• Industrial Policy Act 1991:
• The government controls trade restrictions through various measures and policies, including the Industrial Policy Act 1991.
• The Industrial Policy Act of 1991 was a significant policy reform introduced by the Indian government to liberalize and deregulate the industrial sector.
• It aimed to promote competition, attract foreign investment, and facilitate trade by removing unnecessary restrictions and barriers.
• Under the Industrial Policy Act 1991, the government implemented several measures to liberalize trade, such as reducing import tariffs, relaxing licensing requirements, promoting foreign direct investment, and encouraging technological advancements.
• These reforms helped in opening up the Indian economy, expanding trade opportunities, and integrating India into the global market.
• Foreign Trade Policy 
• The tenure of the foreign trade policy is 5 years and its license renewed annually.
• The FTP is updated every year on the 31st of March and the modifications, improvements and new schemes become effective from 1st April of every year.

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

International Chess Federation or  FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs)

 

Additional Information 

• Cricket:
• The International Cricket Council (ICC), the global governing body for cricket, is headquartered in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
• In cricket, terms such as "innings," "wicket," "bowler," "batsman," and "over" are commonly used.
• The sport involves two teams of eleven players each, who take turns batting and fielding.
• Major cricket formats include Test matches, One Day Internationals (ODIs), and Twenty20 (T20) games. Key international tournaments are the Cricket World Cup and the ICC T20 World Cup.
• Tennis:
• The International Tennis Federation (ITF), which governs the sport of tennis worldwide, is headquartered in London, United Kingdom.
• Common tennis terms include "serve," "fault," "ace," "break point," and "love" (meaning zero).
• Tennis can be played in singles (one-on-one) or doubles (two-on-two) formats.
• The sport is played on various surfaces such as grass, clay, and hard courts, each affecting the game's dynamics.
• Premier events include the four Grand Slam tournaments: Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and the US Open.
• Badminton:
• The Badminton World Federation (BWF), responsible for the oversight and development of badminton, is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• Key terms in badminton include "shuttlecock," "smash," "drop shot," "net shot," and "rally."
• The sport is played with either singles or doubles matches, and the objective is to score points by striking the shuttlecock over the net into the opponent's court.
• Badminton is played on a rectangular court divided by a net. Major competitions include the All England Open, Thomas Cup, and the Olympics.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Haryana will host the 4th Khelo India Youth Games.
• Khelo India Youth Games is scheduled to take place after the Tokyo Olympics in 2021.
• The Games will be held at Panchkula in Haryana.
• This was announced by Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju and Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar.
• Usually, the Khelo India Youth Games take place in January every year.

 Additional Information

• Haryana: 
• Lok Sabha seats - 10.
• Rajya Sabha seats - 5.
• National Parks - Kalesar National Park, Sultanpur National Park.
• Dams - Kaushalya Dam (Yamuna River), Ottu barrage (Ghaggar River), Anagpur Dam (Hakra River).

The correct answer is Shillong.

Key Points

The highest rainfall in India and the world is recorded at Mawsynram village of Meghalaya.

• It is also known as the land of clouds.
• Mawsynram is a village located in the East Khasi Hills in the district of Meghalaya state in northeastern India, which is 65 kilometres from Shillong.
• The average annual rainfall is 467 inches (11,861mm).
• The main majority of rains is during the monsoon season.
• Basically, due to the high altitude, it rarely gets truly hot in Mawsynram.
• 14,234 mm is the recorded rainfall in the year 2010.
• According to the Guinness Book of World Records, Mawsynram received 26,000 millimetres (1,000 in) of rainfall in 1985.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Women's World Boxing Championship 2023:-
• The 2023 IBA Women's World Boxing Championships will be the 13th edition of the tournament, and will be held in New Delhi, India from 15-30 November 2023.
• The tournament will be contested by over 300 boxers from over 100 countries.
• The Women's World Boxing Championships is the most prestigious event in women's boxing, and is held every two years.
• The tournament is organized by the International Boxing Association (IBA), and is the highest level of competition for women's boxers.
• The 2023 Women's World Boxing Championships will be held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi.
• The stadium has a capacity of over 13,000, and is one of the largest indoor stadiums in India.
• The tournament will be contested in 12 weight categories, from flyweight (51 kg) to heavyweight (81+ kg).
• The boxers will compete in a single-elimination tournament, with the winners of each match advancing to the next round. The winners of the final matches in each weight category will be crowned world champions.

The correct answer is Article 41.

Key Points

• Article 41:
• Article 41 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the state shall make effective provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases such as unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement within its economic capacity.
• This article falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• It emphasizes social security and welfare for citizens. Although not legally enforceable, it provides a guiding framework for state policies.

Additional Information

• Article 44:
• Article 44 directs the state to strive to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens throughout India.
• This article is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• It aims to establish common personal laws irrespective of religion.
• The goal is national integration and equal treatment under the law.
• Article 43:
• Article 43 calls on the state to endeavor to secure a living wage, decent working conditions, and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.
• It is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The article highlights the importance of workers' welfare and quality of life.
• It serves as a guideline for labor policies, though it is not enforceable by law.
• Article 42:
• Article 42 directs the state to make provisions for just and humane working conditions and maternity relief.
• This article is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• It underscores the importance of protecting the health and rights of workers, especially women.
• The principle is not legally enforceable but guides legislative efforts to ensure worker welfare.

The correct answer is Rhyolite.

Key Points

Classification of Rocks

• Igneous Rocks
• Igneous rocks are crystalline solids that form directly from the cooling of magma.
• This is an exothermic process (it loses heat) and involves a phase change from the liquid to the solid-state.
• Igneous rocks are given names based upon two things: composition (what they are made of) and texture (how big the crystals are)
• Intrusive igneous rocks crystallize below Earth's surface, and the slow cooling that occurs there allows large crystals to form.
• Examples: diorite, gabbro, granite, pegmatite, and peridotite.
• Extrusive igneous rocks erupt onto the surface, where they cool quickly to form small crystals.
• Some cool so quickly that they form an amorphous glass.
• Examples: andesite, basalt, dacite, obsidian, pumice, rhyolite, scoria, and tuff.
• Sedimentary rocks
• Sedimentary rocks are formed by the accumulation of sediments
• They are formed by
• Weathering (breccia, conglomerate, sandstone, siltstone, and shale)
• Can form when dissolved material precipitate from solution (Rock salt, iron ore, chert, flint, some dolomites, and some limestones)
• Accumulation of plant or animal debris (coal, some dolomites, and some limestones)
• Metamorphic rocks
• Metamorphic rocks have been modified by heat, pressure, and chemical processes, usually while buried deep below Earth's surface.
• Exposure to these extreme conditions has altered the mineralogy, texture, and chemical composition of the rocks.
• Example: gneiss, phyllite, schist, and slate, Marble, etc.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Siddi, also known by the names of sheedi and Habshi, is one of the major tribal communities of Gujarat, while a few of them also live in parts of Karnataka, Goa, and Maharastra.
• Most Siddis are believed to be the descendants of slaves, sailors, servants, and merchants from the Bantu-speaking parts of East Africa who arrived and became residents of the subcontinent during the 1200-1900 CE period.
• The cultural heritage of Siddis dates back almost 300 years.

 Additional Information

• Gujarat
• Capital - Gandhinagar
• CM - Bhupendrabhai Patel
• Governor - Acharya Devvrat

The correct answer is Muhammad Bin Tughluq.

Key Points

• The Tughlaq dynasty was a Muslim dynasty of Turkic origin, that ruled over Delhi.
• Tughlaq dynasty was established by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq in 1320 when Ghazi Malik assumed the throne under the title of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq.

 Additional Information

• The time period of Tughlaq dynasty was from 1320 AD to 1413 AD.
• The most important rulers of this dynasty were Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Muhammad bin Tughluq, and Feroz Shah Tughluq.
• The dynasty reached its zenith between 1330 and 1335 AD during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq.
• In 1323 AD, Muhammad bin Tughluq captured Warangal.
• He shifted his capital from Delhi to Devagiri, however later he ordered to reshift capital to Delhi.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq introduced the copper currency system.
• The chronological order of Tughluq rulers are Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq, Muhammad-bin-Tughluq, Feroz Shah Tughluq, Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq Shah II, Abu Bakr Shah and Nasir-ud-din Mohammed Tughlaq.

The correct answer is 6 - 14 years.

Key Points

• It is a Fundamental Duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
• This duty is outlined under Article 51A(k) of the Indian Constitution.
• The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, also mandates free and compulsory education for children in this age group.
• The RTE Act stipulates that every child has a right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties
• Fundamental Duties are a set of obligations that every Indian citizen is expected to perform to contribute to the welfare of the country and uphold its unity and integrity.
• They were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A of the Constitution.
• Article 51A
• Article 51A of the Indian Constitution specifies the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
• These duties include respecting the Constitution, the national flag and the national anthem, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, and providing educational opportunities to children, among others.
• Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009
• The RTE Act, 2009, aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
• The Act makes it obligatory on the part of the government to ensure that every child gets free elementary education.
• It also lays down the norms and standards related to pupil-teacher ratios, buildings and infrastructure, school-working days, teacher-working hours, etc.

The correct answer is Reprieve – It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character.

Key Points

• Commutation – It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form.
• Respite – It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of that which was originally awarded.
• Reprieve – It implies a temporary stay of the execution of a sentence, especially of death.
• Pardon – It removes both the sentences and the conviction, freeing the person from all legal penalties and disabilities.

Additional Information

• Commutation:
• This power allows the President to reduce the severity of a punishment or sentence. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to life imprisonment.
• Respite:
• This is the award of a lesser sentence due to special circumstances such as the physical disability of the convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
• Reprieve:
• A reprieve is a temporary delay of punishment, especially a death sentence.
• It is typically granted to allow the convict more time to seek a pardon or some other form of clemency.
• Pardon:
• A pardon completely absolves the person of the crime and the conviction, effectively erasing all legal consequences of the offense.
• It is an act of clemency that forgives the convict and releases them from further punishment.

The correct answer is Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd.

Key Points

• Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd is an RBI-registered NBFC-MFI that focuses on providing financial services to underserved women in India.
• It operates on the Joint Liability Group (JLG) lending model of Grameen, which enables group borrowing and ensures better repayment rates.
• The company aims to empower women entrepreneurs by providing them with easy access to credit for their small businesses.
• Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd has a presence in multiple states across India, ensuring a wide reach and impact on improving financial inclusion.

Additional Information

• Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)
• An NBFC is a financial institution that provides banking services without meeting the legal definition of a bank.
• NBFCs are involved in various financial activities, including loans and credit facilities, retirement planning, money markets, underwriting, and merger activities.
• They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the RBI Act, 1934.
• Microfinance Institution (MFI)
• Microfinance Institutions are organizations that provide financial services to low-income individuals or those who do not have access to typical banking services.
• MFIs aim to promote financial inclusion by offering small loans, savings, insurance, and other basic financial products.
• These institutions play a crucial role in empowering economically disadvantaged communities and fostering entrepreneurship.
• Joint Liability Group (JLG) Model
• The JLG model is a lending methodology where a small group of individuals (usually women) come together to borrow from a bank or financial institution.
• All group members guarantee each other's loans, thus reducing the risk of default and ensuring better credit discipline.
• This model is particularly effective in microfinance, where traditional collateral is not available.
• Grameen Model
• The Grameen model of microfinance was pioneered by Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus in Bangladesh.
• It focuses on providing small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral.
• The model emphasizes trust and social capital, where peer pressure within groups ensures high repayment rates.

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

• Wheat is one of the primary subsistence crops grown in Uttar Pradesh.
• Subsistence crops are those grown primarily for the consumption of the farmer's family rather than for sale or trade.
• Uttar Pradesh is one of the leading states in India in the production of wheat.
• Wheat is a staple food in many parts of India and provides essential nutrition to the population.

Additional Information

• Jute
• Jute is a long, soft, shiny vegetable fiber that can be spun into coarse, strong threads.
• It is primarily grown in West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam, not Uttar Pradesh.
• Jute is mainly used for making gunny bags, ropes, and other industrial products.
• Cotton
• Cotton is a soft, fluffy staple fiber that grows in a boll around the seeds of cotton plants.
• It is primarily grown in states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Punjab, not Uttar Pradesh.
• Cotton is used in the textile industry for making clothes.
• Sugarcane
• Sugarcane is a tropical, perennial grass that is used to produce sugar.
• It is a major commercial crop in Uttar Pradesh.
• Unlike subsistence crops, sugarcane is grown primarily for sale and processing into sugar and other products.

The correct answer is George Bernard Shaw.

Key Points

• Annie Besant was a British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer, orator, educationist, and philanthropist.
• She was a prominent figure in the Fabian Society, a socialist organization in the United Kingdom.
• George Bernard Shaw, an Irish playwright and critic, was one of the founding members of the Fabian Society and had a significant influence on Annie Besant.
• The Fabian Society aimed at the establishment of a democratic socialist state in the United Kingdom through gradual and reformist means.

Additional Information

• Fabian Society
• Established in 1884, the Fabian Society is a British socialist organization that aimed to advance the principles of democratic socialism via gradualist and reformist efforts rather than revolutionary means.
• It is associated with the Labour Party in the UK and was instrumental in the party's formation.
• The society's members, known as Fabians, have included prominent figures such as George Bernard Shaw, H.G. Wells, and Sidney and Beatrice Webb.
• The society's influence extended into the fields of politics, education, and social reform.
• George Bernard Shaw
• George Bernard Shaw (1856-1950) was an Irish playwright, critic, polemicist, and political activist.
• He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1925 and is best known for his plays, including "Pygmalion" and "Man and Superman."
• Shaw was a co-founder of the London School of Economics and a member of the Fabian Society, where he advocated for gradual social reform and the establishment of a welfare state.
• His works and ideas had a significant influence on contemporary social and political thought.
• Annie Besant
• Annie Besant (1847-1933) was a prominent British socialist, theosophist, women's rights activist, writer, and orator.
• She became involved in the Indian independence movement and served as the president of the Indian National Congress in 1917.
• Besant was also influential in the Theosophical Society, where she worked to promote spiritual and educational reforms.
• Her contributions to social reform, education, and the fight for Indian independence remain significant in history.

The correct answer is Arabic.

Key Points

• Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan scholar and explorer who is widely recognized for his extensive travels.
• Rihla is the name of his travelogue, which translates to "The Journey" in Arabic.
• Ibn Battuta's Rihla was originally written in Arabic, the scholarly and literary language of the Islamic world at that time.
• The Rihla provides a detailed account of his travels, covering about 75,000 miles across the Islamic world and beyond.

Additional Information

• Ibn Battuta
• Born in 1304 in Tangier, Morocco, Ibn Battuta was one of the greatest travelers of the medieval world.
• His journeys lasted for almost 30 years, covering North Africa, the Horn of Africa, West Africa, Southern Europe, Eastern Europe, the Middle East, South Asia, Central Asia, Southeast Asia, and China.
• His travels were initially motivated by the desire to go on the Hajj, the Islamic pilgrimage to Mecca.
• He visited many of the known Islamic lands and beyond, making observations on the cultures, people, governance, and practices of the regions he traveled.
• Rihla
• The term "Rihla" means journey in Arabic and refers to a genre of Arabic literature that details a journey or series of journeys.
• Ibn Battuta's Rihla is one of the most famous works of this genre.
• The Rihla of Ibn Battuta was compiled from his travel notes and dictated to a scholar named Ibn Juzayy in the court of Sultan Abu Inan Faris.
• This travelogue is a valuable historical document, providing insight into the medieval Islamic world and the various cultures Ibn Battuta encountered.
• Significance of Arabic
• During Ibn Battuta's time, Arabic was the lingua franca of the Islamic world.
• It was the language of scholarship, science, literature, and governance.
• Arabic enabled scholars and travelers to communicate and share knowledge across vast distances within the Islamic empire.
• The use of Arabic for the Rihla made the work accessible to a wide audience within the Islamic world and ensured its preservation and influence.

The correct answer is Article 18 (2).

Key Points

• Article 18 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the abolition of titles.
• Clause (2) of Article 18 states that no citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
• This provision is meant to ensure that Indian citizens do not owe allegiance to any foreign power through the acceptance of titles.
• Article 18 in its entirety is aimed at abolishing the practice of conferring titles that create artificial social hierarchies.

Additional Information

• Article 18 (1)
• No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State.
• This clause prohibits the Indian government from conferring any titles that are not related to military or academic achievements.
• Article 18 (3)
• No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State.
• This clause restricts non-citizens holding office under the Indian State from accepting titles from foreign states without presidential consent.
• Article 18 (4)
• No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State.
• This clause prohibits persons holding office under the Indian State from accepting any form of present, emolument, or office from foreign states without presidential consent.

The correct answer is mridangam.

Key Points

• Anantha R Krishnan is a renowned mridangam player known for his exceptional skill and contribution to Carnatic music.
• He is recognized for his innovative techniques and has collaborated with many eminent musicians globally.
• Anantha R Krishnan has performed in several prestigious music festivals and has received numerous accolades for his performances.
• He comes from a family of legendary mridangam players, further enriching his understanding and mastery of the instrument.

Additional Information

• Mridangam
• The mridangam is a percussion instrument from South India and is a primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music performances.
• It is a double-headed drum made of wood, with the two drumheads being made of animal skin. The right head (valanthalai) produces a higher pitch while the left head (edanthalai) produces a lower pitch.
• Playing the mridangam involves complex finger and hand techniques, requiring years of practice to master the intricate rhythms and patterns.
• The mridangam has a rich history, being mentioned in ancient Indian texts and sculptures, and remains a vital part of Indian classical music traditions.
• Flute
• The flute is a woodwind instrument without reeds, producing sound from the flow of air across an opening.
• In Indian classical music, the bamboo flute, known as bansuri in the North and venu in the South, is widely used.
• The flute has a significant presence in various musical traditions globally, from classical to folk music.
• Santoor
• The santoor is a trapezoid-shaped hammered dulcimer, originating from the Indian subcontinent, particularly used in Kashmiri and Hindustani music.
• It has a set of strings stretched over a wooden box, and the sound is produced by striking the strings with a pair of mallets.
• The santoor is known for its rich, resonant sound and is often used in classical Indian compositions.
• Sitar
• The sitar is a plucked string instrument used in Hindustani classical music, known for its distinctive sound and complex playing techniques.
• It has a long neck with movable frets and sympathetic strings that resonate with the played strings, adding to its rich tonal quality.
• The sitar became globally popular in the 20th century, especially through the works of maestros like Ravi Shankar.

The correct answer is The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Key Points

• The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) was the first country to introduce the concept of Five-Year Plans.
• The USSR introduced its first Five-Year Plan in 1928 under the leadership of Joseph Stalin.
• The primary goal of the first Five-Year Plan was to rapidly industrialize the nation and boost its economy.
• The success of the Soviet Five-Year Plans influenced many other countries, including India, to adopt similar planning strategies for economic development.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans
• Five-Year Plans are centralized and integrated national economic programs.
• The concept was first implemented in the Soviet Union and later adopted by various other countries.
• These plans aim to develop sectors such as agriculture, industry, and services by setting specific targets over a five-year period.
• The plans are designed to achieve rapid economic development and are often associated with socialist and centrally planned economies.
• Soviet Five-Year Plans
• The first Soviet Five-Year Plan (1928-1932) focused on the rapid industrialization of the USSR, particularly in heavy industries such as steel, coal, and machinery.
• The plan also aimed to collectivize agriculture to increase productivity and ensure state control over food supplies.
• Despite initial challenges and resistance, the first plan achieved significant industrial growth and laid the foundation for future economic development.
• Subsequent Five-Year Plans continued to build on these achievements, with varying degrees of success and challenges.
• India's Five-Year Plans
• India adopted the concept of Five-Year Plans after gaining independence in 1947.
• The Planning Commission was established in 1950 to oversee the formulation and implementation of these plans.
• India's first Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and energy production to rebuild the economy after independence.
• India continued to implement Five-Year Plans until the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015.

The correct answer is Citadel.

Key Points

• The Great Bath is one of the most famous and well-preserved structures of the ancient city of Mohenjo-Daro.
• It was discovered in the Citadel area of Mohenjo-Daro, indicating its significance in the urban planning of the city.
• The Citadel was a fortified area that contained important buildings and structures, likely used for administrative and religious purposes.
• The Great Bath measures approximately 12 meters long, 7 meters wide, and 2.4 meters deep, and it was likely used for ritual bathing.

Additional Information

• Mohenjo-Daro:
• Mohenjo-Daro is one of the largest settlements of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, located in present-day Pakistan.
• The name Mohenjo-Daro means "Mound of the Dead Men" in Sindhi.
• The city was built around 2500 BCE and was one of the world's earliest major urban centers.
• The site was rediscovered in the 1920s by archaeologists Rakhaldas Bandyopadhyay and John Marshall.
• Indus Valley Civilization:
• The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the northwestern regions of South Asia, including present-day Pakistan and northwest India.
• It is also known as the Harappan Civilization, named after the first discovered site, Harappa.
• The IVC is noted for its advanced urban planning, architecture, and social organization.
• Key features of the IVC include well-planned cities, sophisticated drainage systems, and the use of standardized weights and measures.
• Citadel:
• The Citadel was a raised area in the city, typically fortified, and contained important structures such as granaries, public baths, and assembly halls.
• The elevated platform of the Citadel provided protection from floods and attacks.
• It was likely the center of administration and religious activities in the city.
• Ritual Bathing:
• Ritual bathing was an important practice in many ancient civilizations, often associated with religious and ceremonial activities.
• The Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro is one of the earliest examples of a large, public water tank used for such purposes.
• The meticulous construction and waterproofing of the Great Bath suggest its significance in the cultural and religious life of the inhabitants.

The correct answer is Both statements 1 and 2 correct.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Cropland is indeed a man-made ecosystem created by human activities for the purpose of agriculture.
• Statement 2: Cropland ecosystems generally have very low genetic diversity because they are typically monocultures or limited to a few crop species.
• Croplands are heavily managed environments, often involving activities such as plowing, planting, irrigation, and the application of fertilizers and pesticides.
• These ecosystems are designed to maximize the production of specific crops, leading to reduced biodiversity compared to natural ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Man-made Ecosystems
• Man-made ecosystems, also known as artificial or anthropogenic ecosystems, are created and maintained by humans.Examples include croplands, urban areas, and reservoirs.
• These ecosystems often require continuous human intervention to sustain their functions and productivity.
• Genetic Diversity
• Genetic diversity refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in the genetic makeup of a species.
• It is essential for the adaptability and survival of species, as it allows populations to adapt to changing environmental conditions.
• In croplands, genetic diversity is often low because farmers typically grow a limited number of high-yield crop varieties.
• Monoculture
• Monoculture is the agricultural practice of growing a single crop species over a large area for a consecutive number of years.
• While it can increase efficiency and yield, it also makes crops more vulnerable to pests and diseases, which can spread rapidly in genetically uniform populations.
• Sustainable Agriculture
• Sustainable agriculture aims to produce food in a way that maintains the health of ecosystems and conserves biodiversity.
• Techniques include crop rotation, polyculture, and the use of organic fertilizers and pest control methods.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the temples of Tamil Nadu.
• It is one of the oldest classical dance traditions in India, with its roots tracing back to the ancient Tamil culture.
• Bharatanatyam combines expressive dance (abhinaya) with rhythmic footwork (nritta) to convey religious and mythological stories.
• The dance form is typically performed by a solo dancer and is accompanied by Carnatic music.

Additional Information

• Origin of Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam originated in the Hindu temples of Tamil Nadu and was initially performed by devadasis (temple dancers).
• The dance form's history can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient treatise on performing arts written by the sage Bharata.
• It was later codified and standardized in the 19th and 20th centuries by notable dance gurus such as Rukmini Devi Arundale and E. Krishna Iyer.
• Structure of a Bharatanatyam Performance:
• A typical Bharatanatyam performance consists of a series of dances, including Alarippu (invocation), Jatiswaram (pure dance), Shabdam (expressive dance), Varnam (narrative dance), Padams (lyrical dance), and Tillana (concluding dance).
• Each segment showcases the dancer's technical prowess, emotional expression, and storytelling ability.
• Costume and Makeup:
• Bharatanatyam dancers wear traditional costumes, usually consisting of a saree draped in a distinctive style that allows for freedom of movement.
• The makeup includes intricate facial designs, expressive eye makeup, and jewelry that enhances the dancer's expressions and movements.
• Significance of Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam is not just a dance form but a spiritual practice that conveys stories from Hindu mythology and religious themes.
• It plays a crucial role in preserving and promoting Indian cultural heritage and is performed at various cultural festivals and events worldwide.

The correct answer is Mirabai Chanu.

Key Points

• Mirabai Chanu won the silver medal in the Women's 49 kg weightlifting category at the Tokyo Olympics 2021.
• This was India's first medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2021, marking a historic achievement for the nation.
• Mirabai Chanu lifted a total of 202 kg (87 kg in snatch and 115 kg in clean & jerk) to secure the second position.
• Her victory ended India's 21-year wait for a weightlifting medal at the Olympics, the last being Karnam Malleswari's bronze in Sydney 2000.

Additional Information

• Weightlifting Categories
• Weightlifting is divided into different weight categories, and athletes compete in their respective categories.
• The main categories for women include 49 kg, 55 kg, 59 kg, 64 kg, 71 kg, 76 kg, 81 kg, and +87 kg.
• Athletes are required to lift weights in two types of lifts: the snatch and the clean & jerk.
• The combined total of the best successful lifts in both snatch and clean & jerk determines the winner.
• Tokyo Olympics 2021
• The Tokyo Olympics 2021, officially known as the Games of the XXXII Olympiad, was held from July 23 to August 8, 2021.
• Originally scheduled for 2020, the event was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The event featured 339 events in 33 sports across 42 venues.
• Despite the challenges, Tokyo 2021 was one of the most memorable Olympic Games, with strict health protocols and no spectators in most events.
• India's Performance
• India sent a strong contingent to the Tokyo Olympics 2021, comprising 127 athletes.
• India achieved a record haul of 7 medals, including 1 gold, 2 silver, and 4 bronze.
• Notable medalists included Neeraj Chopra (gold in javelin throw), Ravi Kumar Dahiya (silver in wrestling), and PV Sindhu (bronze in badminton).
• This was India's best performance in terms of total medals won at a single Olympic Games.

The correct answer is Nitrogen (N).

Key Points

• Nitrogen (N) is not a noble gas; it is a diatomic molecule in its natural form and makes up around 78% of the Earth's atmosphere.
• Noble gases are a group of chemical elements with similar properties under standard conditions: they are all odorless, colorless, monatomic gases with very low chemical reactivity.
• Argon (Ar), Neon (Ne), and Helium (He) are all noble gases, belonging to Group 18 of the periodic table, also known as the noble gas group.
• Nitrogen is located in Group 15 of the periodic table and is known for forming strong triple bonds in diatomic N₂ molecules, contributing to its inertness under normal conditions.

Additional Information

• Noble Gases
• Noble gases include Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and Radon (Rn).
• They are characterized by their full valence electron shell, which makes them very stable and unreactive.
• They are used in various applications such as lighting (Neon lights), welding (Argon), and even in medical fields (Helium for respiratory treatments).
• Due to their inert nature, they do not easily form compounds, making them useful in environments where reactions are undesirable.
• Nitrogen
• Nitrogen is a non-metal element with the symbol N and atomic number 7.
• It is essential for life, being a critical component of amino acids and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
• Nitrogen is largely inert due to the strong triple bond in N₂ molecules, requiring high energy to break.
• It is used in various industrial processes, including the production of ammonia for fertilizers through the Haber process.

The correct answer is prevailing prices.

Key Points

• National income at current prices is calculated based on the current or prevailing prices in the market during the year of measurement.
• It reflects the actual monetary value of goods and services produced in the economy during a given period, without adjusting for inflation.
• This method provides a nominal measure of national income, which can be higher due to price increases over time.
• It is important for understanding the real-time economic performance but can be misleading for comparing economic performance over different periods due to the impact of inflation.

Additional Information

• Constant Prices:
• This method calculates national income by using the prices of a base year to remove the effects of inflation.
• It provides a real measure of national income, allowing for accurate comparisons over different periods.
• Constant prices help in understanding the actual growth in the volume of goods and services produced.
• Future Prices:
• Future prices are speculative and not used for calculating current national income.
• They are often used in financial markets and economic forecasting to predict future economic conditions.
• Comparative Prices:
• Comparative prices are used to compare the prices of goods and services across different markets or periods.
• They help in understanding price differentials and cost competitiveness.

The correct answer is Option 1: i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c.

Key Points

• Producers are organisms, like green plants, that produce their own food through photosynthesis.
• Primary consumers are herbivores, like rabbits, that eat producers.
• Secondary consumers are carnivores, like foxes, that eat primary consumers.
• Decomposers are organisms, like bacteria and fungi, that break down dead matter and waste.

Additional Information

• Producers:
• They are the base of the food chain and are typically green plants that use sunlight to make their own food through photosynthesis.
• Examples include trees, grasses, and algae.
• Primary Consumers:
• These are herbivores that feed directly on producers.
• Examples include rabbits, deer, and caterpillars.
• Secondary Consumers:
• These are carnivores that feed on primary consumers.
• Examples include foxes, snakes, and birds of prey.
• Decomposers:
• They play a crucial role in breaking down dead organisms and waste products, returning nutrients to the ecosystem.
• Examples include bacteria, fungi, and certain insects.

The correct answer is Lewis Carroll.

Key Points

• Lewis Carroll is the pen name of Charles Lutwidge Dodgson, an English writer, mathematician, and logician.
• He was born on January 27, 1832, and died on January 14, 1898.
• Lewis Carroll is best known for his literary works, especially "Alice's Adventures in Wonderland" (1865) and its sequel "Through the Looking-Glass" (1871).
• His work is characterized by the use of wordplay, logic, and fantasy, making it popular among both children and adults.

Additional Information

• Herman Melville
• Herman Melville was an American novelist, short story writer, and poet of the American Renaissance period.
• He is best known for his novel "Moby-Dick" (1851).
• His other notable works include "Typee" (1846) and "Billy Budd, Sailor" (posthumously published in 1924).
• Edgar Allan Poe
• Edgar Allan Poe was an American writer, poet, editor, and literary critic.
• Poe is best known for his poetry and short stories, particularly his tales of mystery and the macabre.
• His notable works include "The Raven" (1845), "The Tell-Tale Heart" (1843), and "The Fall of the House of Usher" (1839).
• Mary Shelley
• Mary Shelley was an English novelist, best known for her Gothic novel "Frankenstein: or, The Modern Prometheus" (1818).
• She also edited and promoted the works of her husband, the Romantic poet and philosopher Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Her other works include "The Last Man" (1826) and "Valperga" (1823).

The correct answer is Socialist, secular.

Key Points

• The Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976, added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• This amendment is known as the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.
• The aim was to reflect the socialist and secular ideals of the Indian nation and to reinforce the commitment of the state to these principles.
• This amendment was introduced during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Additional Information

• Preamble of the Indian Constitution
• The Preamble is an introductory statement that outlines the guiding principles and philosophy of the Indian Constitution.
• It reflects the values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
• The Preamble begins with the words "We, the people of India," signifying that the power and authority of the government are derived from the people.
• It was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
• Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
• This amendment is often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution" because of its wide-ranging impact on the Indian Constitution.
• It made significant changes to the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and other parts of the Constitution.
• One of the key changes was the addition of the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble.
• The amendment also aimed to reduce the power of the judiciary and increase the power of the Parliament.
• Socialist
• The term "Socialist" in the Preamble signifies the commitment of the Indian state to social and economic equality.
• It implies that the government will strive to reduce inequalities in income and wealth and ensure a fair distribution of resources.
• It also emphasizes the state's role in providing social security and welfare to its citizens.
• Secular
• The term "Secular" in the Preamble signifies that the Indian state does not have an official religion and treats all religions equally.
• It implies that the government will not favor or discriminate against any religion.
• It also emphasizes the state's commitment to maintaining religious harmony and ensuring the freedom of religion for all citizens.

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8 April 2015.
• It aims to provide loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
• The loans are classified as Shishu (up to Rs. 50,000), Kishore (Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 5 lakh), and Tarun (Rs. 5 lakh to Rs. 10 lakh).
• This scheme is implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)
• PMMY stands for Pradhan Mantri Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.
• The scheme was launched to provide financial support to small business units.
• MUDRA provides refinance to various lending institutions such as Banks, NBFCs, and MFIs for lending to micro units having a loan requirement up to Rs. 10 lakh.
• The primary objective is to promote and ensure the growth of micro-enterprises in the country.
• Bharat Rojgar Yojana
• It is not a specific scheme launched by the Indian Government.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
• Launched in 2005, MGNREGA is aimed at enhancing the livelihood security of households in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM)
• PM-SYM is a pension scheme for unorganized workers launched in 2019.
• The scheme assures a monthly pension of Rs. 3,000 after attaining the age of 60 years.

The correct answer is Kerala and Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate in India according to the 2011 census, with a literacy rate of 93.91%.
• Lakshadweep followed closely with a literacy rate of 92.28%, making it one of the top regions with high literacy rates.
• The high literacy rate in Kerala is attributed to its long-standing emphasis on education and the effective implementation of various educational schemes.
• Lakshadweep's high literacy rate can be credited to the concerted efforts by the administration to improve educational infrastructure and access to education.

Additional Information

• Census of India
• The Census of India is a decennial exercise conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The first complete census was conducted in 1881, and it has been carried out every 10 years since then.
• The primary objective of the census is to collect demographic data to help in planning and policy-making for the country's development.
• The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872.
• Literacy Rate
• Literacy rate is defined as the percentage of people who are able to read and write with understanding at a specified age.
• In India, the literacy rate is calculated for individuals aged seven years and above.
• A high literacy rate is an indicator of the effective implementation of educational policies and a well-established educational infrastructure.
• It is crucial for the socio-economic development of a region as it impacts employment, health, and overall quality of life.
• Educational Policies in Kerala
• Kerala has a long history of progressive educational policies and has made significant investments in education.
• Initiatives such as the universalization of elementary education, the mid-day meal scheme, and the encouragement of public-private partnerships have been pivotal.
• The state has consistently focused on improving the quality of education and ensuring access to education for all sections of society.
• Kerala's high literacy rate is often cited as a model for other states in India to emulate.

The correct answer is Subhash Chandra Bose.

Key Points

• Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc in 1939 after resigning from the Indian National Congress.
• The Forward Bloc was established to consolidate the political left and radical elements within the Indian independence movement.
• Bose formed the Forward Bloc to achieve complete independence for India and to challenge the British colonial rule more aggressively.
• Subhash Chandra Bose was a prominent leader in the Indian freedom struggle and played a crucial role in the formation of the Indian National Army (INA).

Additional Information

• Subhash Chandra Bose
• Subhash Chandra Bose was born on January 23, 1897, in Cuttack, Odisha, India.
• He was an Indian nationalist whose defiant patriotism made him a hero in India.
• Bose advocated for complete and immediate independence from British rule, unlike the more gradual approach favored by Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress leadership.
• He was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress twice, in 1938 and 1939, but resigned from the Congress due to ideological differences with Gandhi and the Congress high command.
• Indian National Congress
• The Indian National Congress (INC) is a political party in India founded in 1885.
• The INC played a significant role in the Indian independence movement against British rule.
• Key leaders of the INC included Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Vallabhbhai Patel, among others.
• Indian National Army (INA)
• The Indian National Army (INA) was an armed force formed by Indian nationalists in 1942 in Southeast Asia during World War II.
• Subhash Chandra Bose took command of the INA in 1943 and sought to overthrow British rule in India with the help of Axis powers.
• The INA played a crucial role in the independence movement, inspiring many Indians to join the struggle for freedom.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY) was introduced in 2016.
• It was part of the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016.
• The scheme was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• PMGKY was launched to allow individuals to declare their undisclosed income and pay a penalty and tax to avoid prosecution.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY)
• It aimed to curb black money and bring undisclosed income to the mainstream economy.
• Under the scheme, individuals could declare their black money by paying a tax at 30% of the undisclosed income, along with a penalty of 10% and a surcharge of 33% of tax (i.e., 33% of 30%).
• The declarant had to deposit 25% of the undisclosed income in the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme (PMGKDS), which would be interest-free and locked in for four years.
• The scheme was a part of the government's efforts to curb tax evasion and increase transparency in the financial system.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
• Launched on 28th August 2014, PMJDY aims to provide universal access to banking facilities.
• It focuses on ensuring financial inclusion for all households in the country by providing them with easy access to financial services like bank accounts, credit, insurance, and pensions.
• Under this scheme, bank accounts can be opened with zero balance, and account holders are provided with a RuPay debit card.
• PMJDY also provides accidental insurance cover of Rs. 1 lakh and an overdraft facility of Rs. 5,000.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)
• Launched in 2015, PMAY aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor by 2022.
• It includes two components: PMAY (Urban) and PMAY (Gramin).
• Under PMAY (Urban), the government provides interest subsidies on home loans to beneficiaries.
• PMAY (Gramin) focuses on providing financial assistance for constructing houses in rural areas.
• The mission also aims to promote sustainable and eco-friendly technologies in the construction of houses.

The correct answer is Chitra Visweswaran.

Key Points

• Chitra Visweswaran is a renowned Bharatnatyam dancer and choreographer.
• She has been honored with several prestigious awards including the Padma Shri in 1992.
• Chitra Visweswaran is the founder of the Chidambaram Academy of Performing Arts in Chennai.
• In 2021, she was awarded the Natya Kalanidhi award by the Music Academy in Chennai for her contributions to Bharatnatyam.

Additional Information

• Bharatnatyam
• Bharatnatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating from Tamil Nadu.
• It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
• This dance form is traditionally performed by women and has its roots in the temples and courts of southern India.
• Bharatnatyam performances are usually based on themes from Hindu mythology and spiritual ideas.
• Natya Kalanidhi Award
• The Natya Kalanidhi award is a prestigious honor bestowed by the Music Academy in Chennai.
• It is awarded to exceptional artists for their outstanding contributions to the field of dance, particularly Bharatnatyam.
• The award is part of the December music and dance festival organized by the Music Academy annually.
• Previous recipients of the award include legendary dancers and choreographers who have significantly impacted the classical dance scene in India.
• Chidambaram Academy of Performing Arts (CAPA)
• Founded by Chitra Visweswaran, CAPA is a premier institution dedicated to the teaching and propagation of Bharatnatyam.
• Located in Chennai, the academy offers training in classical dance and has produced numerous accomplished dancers.
• CAPA also organizes performances, workshops, and festivals to promote classical dance and provide a platform for young dancers.
• The academy is known for its rigorous training programs and emphasis on preserving the traditional aspects of Bharatnatyam.

The correct answer is Uday Shankar.

Key Points

• Uday Shankar is renowned for creating fusion arts by blending European theatrical techniques with Indian Classical dance forms.
• He also incorporated elements from Indian folk and tribal dance into his performances, creating a unique style.
• Uday Shankar's innovative approach helped popularize Indian dance on a global stage.
• He was a pioneer in modern dance in India and influenced many generations of dancers and choreographers.

Additional Information

• Indian Classical Dance:
• Indian Classical Dance refers to the traditional dance forms of India which have a rich cultural heritage and are deeply rooted in classical literature and mythology.
• Examples include Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, and Manipuri.
• These dances are characterized by intricate footwork, expressive hand gestures, and elaborate costumes.
• Folk and Tribal Dance:
• Folk and Tribal dances are performed by various communities in India and reflect the traditional lifestyle, culture, and beliefs of the people.
• These dances are usually performed during festivals, rituals, and celebrations and are an expression of joy and social togetherness.
• Each region of India has its own unique folk and tribal dances, such as Bhangra from Punjab, Garba from Gujarat, and Bihu from Assam.
• European Theatrical Techniques:
• These techniques refer to the methods and styles used in European theater, which include elements like stagecraft, lighting, set design, and dramatic storytelling.
• These techniques focus on enhancing the overall impact of the performance and creating a more immersive experience for the audience.
• Uday Shankar incorporated these techniques to add a new dimension to Indian dance performances, making them more visually and emotionally engaging.

This source code provides a detailed solution to the question, including key points about Uday Shankar and additional information on the relevant terminologies.

The correct answer is Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

Key Points

• Rabindranath Tagore, a renowned poet and writer, renounced his Knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
• The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab.
• During the massacre, British troops under the command of General Dyer opened fire on a peaceful gathering, resulting in the death of hundreds of unarmed civilians.
• This brutal act deeply affected Tagore, prompting him to return his Knighthood as a form of protest.
• The incident is considered one of the darkest chapters in the history of British rule in India and played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
• Tagore's renunciation of the Knighthood was a symbolic gesture to express his outrage and solidarity with the victims of British colonial oppression.

Additional Information

• Bengal partition, 1905
• It was officially announced on 19 July 1905 by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India.
• A new province of East Bengal and Assam was announced, with a population of 3.1 crores, and a Muslim-Hindu ratio of 3:2. Bengal, the western province, was overwhelmingly Hindu.
• Pitt's India Act of 1784
• ​​The Pitt’s India Act, of 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784.
• Pitt’s India Act, of 1784 was passed to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• It allowed the Court of Directors to manage commercial affairs but created a new body called the Board of Control to manage political affairs.
• Kamagatamaru case, 1914
• ​Komagatamaru was a Japanese ship on which a group of Indians attempted to immigrate to Canada in April 1914.
• It carried 376 passengers from Punjab and out of all only 24 were admitted to Canada and the rest were returned to India.
• The ship returned to Kolkata Port in September 1914, the passengers were asked to take the Punjab-bound train, which they refused and in conflict 22 people died.

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2, figure 3 to 4 and figure 5 to 6:

• Top-left and top-middle letter shift in next step ahead in top-right.
• Bottom-second-right and bottom-middle shift in next step ahead in bottom-left.
• Bottom-right letter shifts in top-right corner and top-right corner letter shifts in middle position and middle position letter shifts in bottom-right corner.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

• Top-second-left and top-third-letter shift in next step ahead in top-right position.
• Bottom-second-right and bottom-right corner letter shift in next step ahead in bottom-left position.
• Bottom-left letter shifts in top-left corner and top-left corner letter shifts in middle position and middle position letter shifts in bottom-right corner.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "4608".

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

For find the opposite surface of '12', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from 12 we get;

→ 12 ⇔ 12; 9 ⇔ 10; 8 ⇔ 7

So, the remaining '11' will be the opposite face of '12'.

Hence, the correct answer is "11".

Given equation: 198 * 11 * 18 * 20 * 50 * 294

Option 1) ÷ , ×, = , + , – 

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 198 ÷ 11 × 18 = 20 + 50 - 294

⇒ 18 × 18 = 20 + 50 - 294

⇒ 324 = 70 - 294

⇒ 324 = -224

Option 2) ÷ , + , ×, – , = 

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 198 ÷ 11 + 18 × 20 - 50 = 294

⇒ 18 + 18 × 20 - 50 = 294

⇒ 18 + 360 - 50 = 294

⇒ 540 - 50 = 294

⇒ 490 = 294

Option 3) ÷ , ×, – , + , = 

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 198 ÷ 11 × 18 - 20 + 50 = 294

⇒ 18 × 18 - 20 + 50 = 294

⇒ 324 - 20 + 50 = 294

⇒ 374 - 20 = 294

⇒ 354 = 294

Option 4) ÷ ,×, + , –, =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 198 ÷ 11 × 18 + 20 - 50 = 294

⇒ 18 × 18 + 20 - 50 = 294

⇒ 324 + 20 - 50 = 294

⇒ 344 - 50 = 294

⇒ 294 = 294

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ ,×, + , –, =".

Statements:

Some roses are lilies.

Some lilies are jasmine.

The least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. Some jasmines are roses. - False (Because there is no direct relation given between jasmines are roses. So, It does not follow)

II. All jasmines are roses. - False (Because there is no direct relation given between jasmines are roses. So, It does not follow)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Counting the number of triangles:

  

Thus triangles are there in the given figure = 28

Hence, the correct answer is "28".

The logic followed here is:

Square shifts into the corners in clockwise and one new shape gets added around the square (which is added in left, top, right and bottom).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Diseases caused by pathogens.

Here,

Virus : Influenza → Influenza is a disease caused by a Virus.

Similarly,

Fungus : Aspergillosis → Aspergillosis is a disease caused by a Fungus.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The figure that best completes the pattern given: 

Logic: Given triangle is divided in to sub triangles which is multiple of 2. So, first triangle has 2 triangle inside it, then 2nd triangle has 4, then third triangle has 6. So, in the next triangle should have 8 sub triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: √(2nd number + 3) = 1st number.

Now,

For, 7 : 46

⇒ √(46 + 3) = √49 = 7

and 11 : 118 

⇒ √(118 + 3) = √121 = 11

Similarly, for ? : 78

⇒ √(78 + 3) = √81 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "EMON".

The figure from the given options will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: 242 * 11 * 76 * 34 * 2 * 32 

Option 1) ÷ − + × = 

After replacing the * signs with mathematical signs:

⇒ 242 ÷ 11 - 76 + 34 × 2 = 32 

⇒ 22 - 76 + 34 × 2 = 32 

⇒ 22 - 76 + 68 = 32 

⇒ 90 - 76 = 32 

⇒ 14 = 32 

Option 2) ÷ + −× = 

After replacing the * signs with mathematical signs:

⇒ 242 ÷ 11 + 76 - 34 × 2 = 32 

⇒ 22 + 76 - 34 × 2 = 32 

⇒ 22 + 76 - 68 = 32 

⇒ 98 - 68 = 32 

⇒ 30 = 32 

Option 3) + ÷ − = × 

After replacing the * signs with mathematical signs:

⇒ 242 + 11 ÷ 76 - 34 = 2 × 32 

⇒ 242 + 0.14 - 34 = 2 × 32 

⇒ 242.14 - 34 = 64

⇒ 208.14 = 64

Option 4) ÷ + − = ×

After replacing the * signs with mathematical signs:

⇒ 242 ÷ 11 + 76 - 34 = 2 × 32 

⇒ 22 + 76 - 34 = 2 × 32 

⇒ 98 - 34 = 64

⇒ 64 = 64

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ + − = ×".

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: C, D, E, F, M and N are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. F sits to the immediate left of N.

2. N is not an immediate neighbour of M.

3. D sits second to the right of M.

4. C is not an immediate neighbour of D.

From the diagram, D and M are the immediate neighbour of E. But M is not present in options.

So, D is an immediate neighbour of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

The logic followed here is:

Number of sides of outer figure decrease by 1.

Inside given figures decrease by 1 in next figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

‘CALIBER’ is written as ‘ECNGDGT’

‘BURNING’ is written as ‘DWTLKPI’

Similarly, ‘AUCTION’ will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "CWERKQP".

The logic followed here is: (1st number - 3rd number) × 11 = 2nd number

(40, 253, 17) → (40 - 17) × 11 = 23 × 11 = 253

(30, 187, 13) → (30 - 13) × 11 = 17 × 11 = 187

Similarly, (50, 385, 15) → (50 - 15) × 11 = 35 × 11 = 385

Hence, the correct answer is "385".

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1,500

Rate of Interest (R) = 5% p.a.

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = $\frac{P \times R \times T}{100}$

Calculation:

SI = $\frac{1,500 \times 5 \times 3}{100}$

⇒ SI = $\frac{22,500}{100}$

⇒ SI = ₹225

The simple interest on a sum of ₹1,500 at 5% p.a. for 3 years is ₹225.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = 100 (assume)

Marked Price (MP) = CP + 35% of CP

Discount = 20% on MP

Formula used:

Profit Percentage = ((Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Marked Price = 100 + 35% of 100

Marked Price = 100 + 35

Marked Price = 135

Discount = 20% of 135

Discount = (20/100) × 135

Discount = 27

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price - Discount

Selling Price = 135 - 27

Selling Price = 108

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Profit = 108 - 100

Profit = 8

Profit Percentage = (8 / 100) × 100

Profit Percentage = 8%

The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

We need to find the unit digit of the product of all prime numbers between 51 and 78.

Formula used:

To determine the unit digit of the product, focus on the unit digits of each prime number and multiply them together.

Calculation:

The prime numbers between 51 and 78 are: 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73.

The unit digits of these primes are: 3, 9, 1, 7, 1, 3.

Now, calculate the product of these unit digits:

⇒ (3 × 9 × 1 × 7 × 1 × 3)

⇒ 3 × 9 = 27 (unit digit is 7)

⇒ 7 × 1 = 7 (unit digit remains 7)

⇒ 7 × 7 = 49 (unit digit is 9)

⇒ 9 × 1 = 9 (unit digit remains 9)

⇒ 9 × 3 = 27 (unit digit is 7)

∴ The unit digit of the product of all prime numbers between 51 and 78 is 7.

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 4,650

Loss = Rs. 350

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss

Percentage Loss = (Loss / CP) × 100

Calculation:

CP = SP + Loss

CP = 4,650 + 350

CP = 5,000

Percentage Loss = (Loss / CP) × 100

⇒ Percentage Loss = (350 / 5,000) × 100

⇒ Percentage Loss = 0.07 × 100

⇒ Percentage Loss = 7%

The percentage loss is 7%.

Given:

The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 48.

The difference between the two numbers is 13.

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be x and y.

Given: LCM × HCF = 48

Also, given: |x - y| = 13

We need to find two numbers such that their product is 48 and their difference is 13.

Let's start with the given options:

Option 1: 9 and 22

Product = 9 × 22 = 198

Difference = |9 - 22| = 13

Option 2: 6 and 19

Product = 6 × 19 = 114

Difference = |6 - 19| = 13

Option 3: 3 and 16

Product = 3 × 16 = 48

Difference = |3 - 16| = 13

Option 4: 10 and 23

Product = 10 × 23 = 230

Difference = |10 - 23| = 13

From the options, only Option 3 satisfies both conditions.

The correct answer is option 3: 3 and 16.

Given:

Slant height of the cone = 5 cm

Diameter of the cone = 8 cm

Radius of the cone = 8/2 = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of the cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Using the Pythagorean theorem to find the height (h):

h = √(l² - r²)

where l is the slant height and r is the radius.

Calculation:

h = √(5² - 4²)

⇒ h = √(25 - 16)

⇒ h = √9

⇒ h = 3 cm

Volume of the cone:

Volume = (1/3) × π × 4² × 3

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × 16 × 3

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × 48

⇒ Volume = (22 × 48) / 21

⇒ Volume = 1056 / 21

⇒ Volume ≈ 50.28 cm³

The volume of the cone is approximately 50.28 cm³.

Given:

After a 15% decline, the income of Ajay stands at Rs. 2,12,500.

Formula Used:

Original Income = Declined Income / (1 - Decline Percentage)

Calculation:

Let the original income be X.

After a 15% decline, income becomes 85% of the original income.

85% of X = Rs. 2,12,500

0.85 × X = 2,12,500

⇒ X = 2,12,500 / 0.85

⇒ X = 2,50,000

Ajay's original income was Rs. 2,50,000.

Given:

In a 600 m race, A gave B a head start of 5 seconds and still won the race by 20 seconds.

The ratio of the speed of A to the speed of B is 2 ∶ 1.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Calculation:

Let the speed of B be x m/sec.

Then, the speed of A = 2x m/sec.

Time taken by A to cover 600 m = 600 / 2x

Time taken by B to cover 600 m = 600 / x

According to the question,

Time taken by B - Time taken by A = 25 sec (B had a head start of 5 seconds and lost by 20 seconds)

⇒ (600 / x) - (600 / 2x) = 25

⇒ 600(2 - 1) / 2x = 25

⇒ 600 / 2x = 25

⇒ 600 = 50x

⇒ x = 600 / 50

⇒ x = 12 m/sec

The speed of B is 12 m/sec.

Given:

Number of students in the class = 50

Average marks of 20 students = 70

Average marks of remaining 30 students = 80

Formula Used:

Average marks = Total marks of all students / Total number of students

Calculation:

Total marks of 20 students = 20 × 70

Total marks of 20 students = 1400

Total marks of 30 students = 30 × 80

Total marks of 30 students = 2400

Total marks of all students = 1400 + 2400

Total marks of all students = 3800

Total number of students = 50

Average marks = 3800 / 50

Average marks = 76

The average marks of the whole class is 76.

Given:

The man agreed to pay:

Rs. 4,200 at the end of the first year.

Rs. 4,410 at the end of the second year.

Compound interest rate = 5% per annum.

We need to find the sum borrowed.

Formula used:

Compound Interest Formula: $A = P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^t$

Where:

A = Amount after t years.

P = Principal.

r = Rate of interest per annum.

t = Time (in years).

Calculations:

The payment of Rs. 4,200 at the end of the first year and Rs. 4,410 at the end of the second year cover the borrowed amount and interest.

Total borrowed amount = Present value of Rs. 4,200 (first year) + Present value of Rs. 4,410 (second year).

Present value = Future value / (1 + r/100)^t

Present value of Rs. 4,200:

$PV_1 = 4,200 / (1 + 5/100)^1$ = 4,200 / 1.05 = Rs. 4,000

Present value of Rs. 4,410:

$PV_2 = 4,410 / (1 + 5/100)^2 = 4,410 / (1.05)^2$ = 4,410 / 1.1025 = Rs. 4,000

Total borrowed amount = PV₁ + PV₂ = 4,000 + 4,000 = Rs. 8,000

The sum borrowed is Rs. 8,000.

Given:

Time reduction = 80%

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

New Speed = (Initial Speed × 100) / (100 - Time Reduction Percentage)

Percentage Increase in Speed = (New Speed - Initial Speed) / Initial Speed × 100

Calculation:

Let the initial speed be S and initial time be T.

Since the time is reduced by 80%, the new time will be 20% of the initial time.

New Time = 0.2T

Since the distance is fixed,

Initial Distance = S × T

New Distance = New Speed × New Time

Since the distance remains the same,

S × T = New Speed × 0.2T

⇒ New Speed = S / 0.2

⇒ New Speed = 5S

Percentage Increase in Speed = (5S - S) / S × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 4S / S × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 400%

The woman should increase the speed of her car by 400% to reduce the time by 80% to cover a fixed distance.

Given:

A can finish the work in 10 days.

B can finish the work in 16 days.

C can finish the work in 12 days.

A, B, and C work one after the other in that order.

They complete 3 cycles of ABC before A and C leave.

Formula Used:

Work completed per day = 1 / Number of days to complete the work individually

Work completed in 1 cycle (ABC) = Work completed by A + Work completed by B + Work completed by C

Total work completed in 3 cycles = 3 × Work completed in 1 cycle

Remaining work = Total work - Work completed in 3 cycles

Time taken by B to complete the remaining work = Remaining work / Work completed by B per day

Calculation:

Work completed by A in 1 day = 1 / 10

Work completed by B in 1 day = 1 / 16

Work completed by C in 1 day = 1 / 12

Work completed in 1 cycle (ABC) = (1 / 10) + (1 / 16) + (1 / 12)

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{12}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{24 + 15 + 20}{240}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{59}{240}$

Total work completed in 3 cycles = 3 × (59 / 240)

$\Rightarrow \frac{177}{240}$

Remaining work = 1 - (177 / 240)

$\Rightarrow \frac{240 - 177}{240}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{63}{240}$

Time taken by B to complete the remaining work = (63 / 240) / (1 / 16)

$\Rightarrow \frac{63}{240} \times 16$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1008}{240}$

$\Rightarrow 4 \frac{1}{5}$ days

The time B alone will complete the rest of the work in 4¹/₅ days.

Given:

Volume of the cone = $\frac{128}{3} \pi$

Height of the cone (h) = 2 × radius of the cone (r)

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = $\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h$

Slant height (l) of the cone = $√{r^2 + h^2}$

Calculation:

We know, Volume of cone = $\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h$

Given volume is $\frac{128}{3} \pi$, so:

$\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h = \frac{128}{3} \pi$

⇒ $\pi r^2 h = 128 \pi$

⇒ $r^2 h = 128$

Since h = 2r:

⇒ $r^2 (2r) = 128$

⇒ $2r^3 = 128$

⇒ $r^3 = 64$

⇒ $r = \sqrt[3]{64}$

⇒ $r = 4$

Now, h = 2r = 2 × 4 = 8

Slant height (l) = $\sqrt{r^2 + h^2}$

⇒ $\sqrt{4^2 + 8^2}$

⇒ $\sqrt{16 + 64}$

⇒ $\sqrt{80}$

The slant height of the cone is √80

Formula Used:

Two numbers are co-prime if their greatest common divisor (GCD) is 1.

Calculation:

Option 1: (7, 35)

GCD(7, 35) = 7

Since GCD ≠ 1, they are not co-primes.

Option 2: (217, 651)

GCD(217, 651) = 217

Since GCD ≠ 1, they are not co-primes.

Option 3: (32, 62)

GCD(32, 62) = 2

Since GCD ≠ 1, they are not co-primes.

Option 4: (198, 175)

GCD(198, 175)

⇒ 198 = 2 × 3² × 11

⇒ 175 = 5² × 7

Since there are no common factors other than 1, GCD(198, 175) = 1

Since GCD = 1, they are co-primes.

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Let x = 5 and y = 8. We need to arrange the following fractions in ascending order:

$\frac{x+1}{y-1}, \frac{2 x}{2 y-3}, \frac{y+1}{2 x-1}, \frac{y+1}{3 x-y}$

Calculation:

Substitute x = 5 and y = 8 into each fraction:

1. (x+1)/(y-1) = (5+1)/(8-1) = 6/7
2. (2x)/(2y-3) = (2×5)/(2×8-3) = 10/13
3. (y+1)/(2x-1) = (8+1)/(2×5-1) = 9/9 = 1
4. (y+1)/(3x-y) = (8+1)/(3×5-8) = 9/7

Convert the fractions to decimals:

6/7 ≈ 0.857, 10/13 ≈ 0.769, 1 = 1, 9/7 ≈ 1.286

Arrange in ascending order:

10/13 (≈ 0.769), 6/7 (≈ 0.857), 1, 9/7 (≈ 1.286)

The numbers in ascending order are: $\frac{2 x}{2 y-3}, \frac{x+1}{y-1}, \frac{y+1}{2 x-1}, \frac{y+1}{3 x-y}$

The correct answer is Header and Footer

Key Points

• In MS Word 2010, the Page Number option is located under the Insert menu, specifically within the Header & Footer group.
• Menu Location:
• The Page Number option is under the Insert tab on the ribbon.
• Within the Insert tab, it is part of the Header & Footer group, as page numbers are often inserted into headers or footers.
• Accessing Page Numbers:
• Go to the Insert tab in the toolbar/ribbon.
• Look for the Header & Footer group, which includes options like Header, Footer, and Page Number.
• Click on the Page Number dropdown to see options for placing page numbers:
• Top of the Page
• Bottom of the Page
• Page Margins
• Current Position
• Customizing Page Numbers:
• After inserting page numbers, you can further customize their format by selecting the Format Page Numbers option from the dropdown.
• You can choose number formats (e.g., 1, 2, 3 or i, ii, iii) or specify a starting number.
• Relation to Header & Footer:
• When you insert a page number, Word automatically places it within the document's header or footer sections, depending on your choice.

Additional Information

• Pages: This group in the Insert tab includes options for adding a Cover Page or a Blank Page.
• Home Tab: 
• The Home tab is the default tab in Microsoft Word.
• The Home Tab displays the most commonly used commands.
• It has five groups of related commands - Clipboard, Font, Paragraph, Styles, and Editing.
• In Word and Excel, these include Copy, Cut, and Paste, Bold, Italic, Underscore, etc.
• Bold is used to highlight the text and capture the readers' attention.
• It could be used to draw extra attention to something important, describe emotions, or indicate actions.
• Page Layout:
• The Page Layout tab holds all the options that allow arranging document pages as required.
• It also allows to set margins, apply themes, control page orientation and size, add sections and line breaks, display line numbers and set paragraph indentation and lines.

The correct answer is Text

Key Points

• The most suitable data type for a person's first name in MS Excel 365 is Text
• A person's first name is made up of alphabetic characters, which are stored and recognized in Excel as text.
• Text data type is used for any data that is not numeric or doesn't fit other specific formats like dates or currency.
• Names, addresses, and other similar entries fall into this category.

Additional Information

• Microsoft 365 is a cloud-powered productivity platform.
• A subscription to Microsoft 365 provides all of the following:
• The latest productivity apps, such as Microsoft Teams, Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Outlook, OneDrive, and so much more.
• The ability to install on PCs, Macs, tablets, and phones.

The correct answer is Line Spacing

Key Points

• Line Spacing specifically controls the vertical distance between lines of text within a paragraph.
• You can access the Line Spacing options in the Home tab under the Paragraph group.
• Alternatively, you can right-click on the paragraph, choose Paragraph, and find the Line Spacing settings in the dialog box.
• There are several types of line spacing, including single, 1.15, 1.5, and double.
• Single spacing is the standard, where a new line of text is placed directly below the previous one.

Additional Information

• Text Indentation: 
• ​Indentation is the space between the margin and the text.
• It's often used to set a first-line indent for paragraphs.
• Indents can be used to create multilevel lists or to visually set paragraphs apart from one another.
• To indent text in Microsoft Word, you can use the Tab key, the Increase/Decrease Indent buttons, or the Paragraph dialog box
• Paragraph Border:
• Borders can be lines or boxes that surround a paragraph on one or more sides.
• They can be useful for emphasizing headings.
• To add a border to a paragraph in Microsoft Word, you can:
• Select the paragraph
• Go to Home > Borders
• Choose the type of border you want
• Paragraph Alignment:
• ​This determines the horizontal alignment of text (e.g., Left, Right, Center, Justify),
• Alignment refers to how text flows in relation to the page, column, table cell, or text box.
• shortcuts to align text:
• Left-align: Press Ctrl+L
• Right-align: Press Ctrl+R
• Center: Press Ctrl+E
• Justify: Press Ctrl+J

The correct answer is Active Sheet

Key Points

• The default print range in Microsoft Excel 365 when printing an entire worksheet is the active sheet
• To print the entire worksheet: Don't select anything, and then select File > Print > Print.
• To print a range of cells: Select the cells you want to print.
• To print the entire workbook: Before clicking Print, under Settings, click the arrow next to Print Active Sheets, and then click Print Entire Workbook.
• Excel prints sheets at their actual size by default, so the size of the worksheet determines how many pages it will take.
• To print an Excel sheet on one page, you can choose a scaling option in the Print Preview window.
• You can also set or clear a print area on a worksheet by clicking Print Area in the Page Setup group on the Page Layout tab.

Additional Information

• Microsoft 365 is a cloud-powered productivity platform. A subscription to Microsoft 365 provides all of the following: The latest productivity apps, such as Microsoft Teams, Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Outlook, OneDrive, and so much more. The ability to install on PCs, Macs, tablets, and phones.

The correct answer is Shift+ spacebar

Key Points

• Shift + Spacebar selects the entire row of the currently active cell.
• This shortcut is useful when you want to make changes to or apply formatting to an entire row
• If you want to select the row above, you would first need to move to a cell in that row (e.g., by pressing the Up Arrow key) and then use Shift + Spacebar to select it.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + Spacebar: This selects the entire column of the currently active cell, not the row.
• Alt + Spacebar: This opens the System Menu of the Excel application window; it doesn’t select any row or column.
• Ctrl + +: This is used to insert a new row, column, or cell, depending on the selection.

The correct answer is the Physical Layer

Key Points

• The Physical Layer is not a part of the Internet Protocol Suite (TCP/IP).
• The TCP/IP model has four layers – Application, Transport, Internet, and Network Access (Link) Layer.
• In contrast, the OSI model has seven layers, which includes the Physical Layer at the bottom.
• The TCP/IP model focuses on end-to-end communication, packet delivery, routing, and addressing in the internet.

Additional Information

• Application Layer: Provides services like HTTP, FTP, SMTP, DNS for user interaction and resource sharing.
• Transport Layer: Ensures reliable delivery through TCP/UDP, flow control, and error handling.
• Internet Layer: Responsible for logical addressing, routing, and packet forwarding (IP, ICMP, ARP).
• Network Access (Link) Layer: Handles data transfer over physical networks using Ethernet, Wi-Fi, etc.

Important Points

• The Physical Layer is a part of the OSI model, not TCP/IP, and deals with hardware specifications like cables, signals, and transmission medium.
• Data Link Layer (in OSI) ≈ Network Access Layer (in TCP/IP): Ensures error detection and framing of packets on local networks.
• Internet Layer (TCP/IP) ≈ Network Layer (OSI): Sends packets across multiple networks to the correct destination.

The correct answer is The text is deleted to the left of the cursor

Key Points

• When you select text in MS Word 365 and press the Backspace key, the selected text is deleted from the document.
• The deletion removes the selected text entirely, regardless of its position relative to the cursor, as the selection takes precedence.
• Each time you press and release the Backspace key, the insertion point moves back one space and the character occupying that space is deleted.
• You can also select text in Word by using the keyboard or mouse.
• For example, you can select all text in a document by pressing Ctrl+A.

Additional Information

• The text is moved to the end of the document: Pressing Backspace does not move text; it deletes it.
• Text can only be moved by cut-and-paste or drag-and-drop actions.
• The text is formatted with a bold style: Bold formatting is applied using Ctrl + B, not the Backspace key.
• The text is copied to the clipboard: Copying requires Ctrl + C, not the Backspace key.
• Backspace does not copy text.

The correct answer is to Increase the font size

Key Points

• The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Shift + > in MS Word 365 increases the font size of the selected text:
• Ctrl + ]: Increases the font size by one point
• Ctrl + [: Decreases the font size by one point

Additional Information

• Some other keyboard shortcuts for font size in MS Word:
• Align text
• In Microsoft Word, you can align text by selecting the Dialog Box Launcher in the Paragraph group, then selecting the Alignment drop-down menu.
• You can also use the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + J to justify text.
• In PowerPoint, you can choose Left, Center, Right, Justified, or Distributed from the Alignment box.
• Change text size in Windows
• To change the text size in Windows, you can go to Start > Settings > Accessibility > Text size. You can also adjust the Scale drop-down menu to make everything larger, including images and apps
• Ctrl + Shift + <: Decreases the font size
• Ctrl + Shift + F: Opens the Font dialogue box to change the font

The correct answer is Font styling

Key Points

• Font styling refers to text formatting options like bold, italic, or underline to emphasize or visually distinguish specific text in documents.
• These options can be accessed from the Home tab in the Font group in MS Word 365. You can also use keyboard shortcuts:
• Bold: Ctrl + B
• Italic: Ctrl + I
• Underline: Ctrl + U

Additional Information

• Hyperlinking: This is used to add links to web pages or locations in the document, not for text styling.
• Page margins: These define the blank spaces around the edges of the document and are unrelated to text emphasis.

The correct answer is Both(1) and (2)

Key Points

• An attachment in an email can include various types of files, such as:
• Digital photos: Files in formats like JPEG, PNG, GIF, etc.
• Documents: Text files (e.g., DOCX, PDF), spreadsheets, presentations, or other digital content.
• Email systems allow you to attach files of different types, making it versatile for sharing.
• Modern email services support multiple file formats as attachments.

Additional Information

• History of Electronic Mail (EMAIL)
• Electronic mail, or email, is a method of exchanging messages electronically over a computer network.
• It was one of the first applications of the internet and has had a significant impact on communication since its inception.
• The first email was sent in the early 1970s by an engineer named Ray Tomlinson.
• Tomlinson developed a program that allowed users to send messages to one another on the same computer.
• He chose the @ symbol to separate the user's name from the name of the computer they were using, and this is still used in email addresses today.
• In the 1980s, the internet began to expand beyond government and academic research institutions, and email became more widely used.
• The development of graphical user interfaces for computers made it easier for people to use email, and it became a popular way for individuals and businesses to communicate.
• Today, email is an essential part of modern communication, and billions of messages are sent every day.
• It is used for a wide range of purposes, including personal communication, business communication, and marketing.