Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1924

Key Points

• The first National Games, also known as the Indian Olympic Games, were held in 1924 in Lahore, then part of undivided India.
• The National Games are a multi-sport event that aims to identify and promote talent at the grassroots level.
• The games are held every two years, rotating between different states.
• The main purpose of the National Games is to identify talent from across the country who could bring laurels at the Olympics.
• The National Games were originally known as the Indian Olympic Games until 1940, when they were renamed the National Games.
• The 1940 National Games were hosted in Mumbai.

Additional Information

• India first participated in the Olympic Games in 1900.
• The International Olympic Committee is a governing body of the Olympics.
• The first modern Olympics were held in 1896 in Athens, Greece.
• Norman Pritchard represented India at the 1900 Olympics, making it the nation’s first Olympic appearance. India sent its first contingent at the 1920 Olympics.
• India first sent a team to the Summer Olympic Games in 1920.
• India won its first gold medal in Hockey at Amsterdam Olympics 1928 and until 1956 Indian men's Hockey team remained unbeaten in Olympics.
• India’s last gold medal in Hockey was in the year 1980 Moscow Olympics.
• In the 1952 Summer Olympics wrestler K.D. Jadhav won the first individual medal for independent India.
• Milkha Singh is the first Indian athlete to reach the Olympic finals in Athletics.

The correct answer is the Expenditure Method

Key Points

• The expenditure method is also known as the income disposal method.
• It's a method of calculating a country's national income by measuring the final expenditure of all sectors of the economy.
• The expenditure method includes the following components: Private consumption expenditure, Government consumption expenditure, Gross capital formation, and Net exports.
• The expenditure method is the most common way to estimate a country's gross domestic product (GDP).
• The GDP calculated using this method is nominal GDP, which needs to be adjusted for inflation to get the real GDP.
• To avoid double counting, the expenditure method only considers final expenditure. Intermediate expenditure on goods that are used for further production is excluded

Additional Information

• Product method
• Also known as the value added method, this method calculates national income by adding up the monetary value of all final goods and services produced in an economy.
• It takes into account the value added to a product at each stage of production.
• Income method
• This method calculates national income by focusing on the income received from factors of production, such as land and labour.
• While the statistical data and tools used to measure national income may differ between these methods, they should all give the same result conceptually.
• If the methods do not give the same estimate, it may be due to a lack of relevant statistical data.

The correct answer is Temple roofs that are composed of several slabs

Key Points

• In the context of Indian temple architecture, phamsana refers to temple roofs that are composed of several flat, horizontal slabs, typically arranged in a stepped or layered manner.
• This style is characteristic of certain regional temples, particularly in northern India.
• Phamsana is distinct from the curvilinear Shikhara style seen in many Nagara-style temples.
• The flat, layered nature of phamsana roofs provides a different aesthetic and structural design compared to the towering spire-like Shikhara.

Additional Information

• A structure of flat round slab at the top of the temple – This might refer to the kalasha or an architectural finial, but it is not phamsana.
• The distance between the Garbhagriha and mandapa – This refers to the layout or the spatial arrangement, not a roof style.
• The top of the temple where the dhwaja (flag) is situated – This refers to the stupa or kalasha, not phamsana.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi

Key Points

• The dance form that originated in Kuchelapuram, also known as Kuchipudi, is one of the eight major classical dances of India
• Kuchipudi originates from the village of Kuchelapuram in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a classical Indian art form that combines dance, drama, and music.
• Kuchipudi has its roots in the ancient Hindu Sanskrit text of Natya Shastra.
• Traditional instruments used in Kuchipudi performances include the mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and tambura.
• This dance-drama style beautifully blends Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (expressional dance), and Natya (drama) to narrate stories, often of mythological significance.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Bhatark

Key Points

• The Maitraka dynasty of Vallabhi was founded by Bhatark, a general in the Gupta Empire, around the late 5^th century CE.
• After the decline of the Gupta Empire, Bhatark established his own rule in Vallabhi (modern-day Gujarat) and laid the foundation of the Maitraka dynasty.
• Vallabhi became an important cultural and educational center during the Maitraka rule.
• The dynasty lasted until the mid-8^th century CE when it was overrun by Arab invaders.

Additional Information

• Yashodharman
• Yashodharman was a powerful ruler of Malwa in central India during the 6^th century CE.
• Significant achievements:
• He is best known for his defeat of the Hunas (Huns) under their leader Mihirakula, marking the decline of the Huns' influence in India.
• Yashodharman is commemorated in inscriptions, such as the Mandasor Inscription, which celebrates his victory and independence from Gupta overlordship.
• Baladitya
• Baladitya was a prominent ruler of the Gupta Empire.
• He ruled during the late 5^th to early 6^th century CE and was likely the son or successor of Skandagupta.
• Significant achievements:
• Known for his struggle against the Hunas and his attempts to repel their invasions.
• According to some accounts, Baladitya managed to capture and humiliate Mihirakula, the Huna ruler.

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam

Key Points

• Padma Subrahmanyam is well known for her work in the classical Indian dance form of Bharatanatyam.
• She is a leading figure in the field, known for her creativity and ability to blend tradition and modernity in her work.
• Subrahmanyam is also a choreographer, teacher, author, Indologist, and research scholar.
• Bharatanatyam originated from the solo dance of temple dancers, or devadasis, in Tamil Nadu.
• Some elements of Bharatanatyam include: 
• Alarippu: A simple dance with rhythm that seeks the blessing of a god
• Jatiswaram: A Nritta component without expression
• Shabdam: A dramatic element with expressed words
• Varnam: A combination of dance and emotion that expresses a story
• Padam: The artist's mastery of abhinaya, or spiritual message
• Jawali: A fast-tempo performance of short love lyrics
• Thillana: A concluding stage with pure dance (Nritta)

Additional Information

The correct answer is Dr Manmohan Singh

Key Points

• The LPG model of development (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) was introduced in 1991 as part of economic reforms to address India's balance of payments crisis.
• These reforms marked a shift from a controlled economy to a more market-oriented one.
• Dr Manmohan Singh, the then Finance Minister, played a pivotal role in introducing these reforms under the leadership of Prime Minister PV Narasimha Rao.

Additional Information

• Liberalisation:
• Reduced government restrictions on industries.
• Opened up the economy to market forces by abolishing the License Raj.
• Encouraged foreign direct investment (FDI) by relaxing trade barriers and quotas.
• Privatization:
• Transferred ownership or management of public enterprises to private players.
• Reduced the monopoly of public sector enterprises in industries like telecommunications, banking, and energy.
• Globalization:
• Integrated the Indian economy with the global market by encouraging exports and imports.
• Allowed multinational corporations (MNCs) to operate in India.
• Removed restrictions on foreign trade and investments.

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam

Key Points

• Padma Subrahmanyam is well known for her work in the classical Indian dance form of Bharatanatyam.
• She is a leading figure in the field, known for her creativity and ability to blend tradition and modernity in her work.
• Subrahmanyam is also a choreographer, teacher, author, Indologist, and research scholar.
• Bharatanatyam originated from the solo dance of temple dancers, or devadasis, in Tamil Nadu.
• Some elements of Bharatanatyam include: 
• Alarippu: A simple dance with rhythm that seeks the blessing of a god
• Jatiswaram: A Nritta component without expression
• Shabdam: A dramatic element with expressed words
• Varnam: A combination of dance and emotion that expresses a story
• Padam: The artist's mastery of abhinaya, or spiritual message
• Jawali: A fast-tempo performance of short love lyrics
• Thillana: A concluding stage with pure dance (Nritta)

Additional Information

The correct answer is Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Key Points

• A Standing Committee is a permanent committee consisting of members from either or both Houses of Parliament — Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
• These committees are set up to deal with specific issues or perform detailed scrutiny of government policies, bills, or financial matters.
• Membership: Members are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, depending on the committee's type and function.

Additional Information

• Types: There are different types of Standing Committees, such as:
• Departmental Standing Committees (examining ministry-specific policies and bills).
• Financial Committees (Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, etc.).
• Other Standing Committees (e.g., Committee on Privileges, Committee on Petitions).
• Permanent in Nature: Unlike ad hoc committees, these are permanent and reconstituted periodically.
• Vidhan Sabha: This is the State Legislative Assembly, not part of the Union Parliament, so its members do not form Standing Committees in the context of Parliament.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Rural Development

Key Points

• The Ministry of Rural Development is responsible for governing the Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY)
• The IAY was launched in 1985 by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
• The IAY is a flagship program of the Ministry of Rural Development that aims to reduce poverty and provide housing for the rural poor.
• The IAY is a sub-scheme of the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP).

Additional Information

• Ministry of Rural Development
• Focuses on rural development through programs such as grants for health and education, affordable housing, and public work programs.
• Ministry of Human Resource Development
• Includes the Department of Higher Education and the Department of School Education & Literacy.
• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• Works for the welfare of marginalized and disadvantaged groups, including people with disabilities, senior citizens, and victims of drug abuse.
• Ministry of Labour and Employment
• Works to ensure the welfare of workers in the unorganized sector, including weavers, fishermen, and construction workers.

The correct answer is 1985-1990

Key Points

• The Seventh Five Year Plan in India was from 1985 to 1990
• The plan's main objectives included: 
• Increasing agricultural production
• Increasing economic productivity
• Generating employment
• Establishing a self-sufficient economy
• Introducing the Min Needs Program for the poor
• Improving the transport and communication system
• Increasing government investments in healthcare
• The plan was implemented under the rule of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
• India's growth rate during this period was 6%, which was higher than the targeted 5%.

Additional Information

• The first five-year plan in India was launched in 1951 and since then, India has witnessed twelve Five Year Plans.
• The present government had however discontinued the Five-year plan system and a new mechanism was put into place.
• The decades-old Five-Year Plans was replaced by a three-year action plan, which will be part of a seven-year strategy paper and a 15-year vision document.
• The Niti Aayog has replaced the Planning Commission in the Modi Cabinet and launched three-year action plans from April 1, 2017, onwards.

The correct answer is Gyan Panchami

Key Points

• Gyan Panchami is celebrated by Jains and not by Sikhs.
• It is a day dedicated to the worship of knowledge and spiritual learning.
• Sikhs may respect knowledge and education, but this festival is not part of Sikh religious traditions.
• Gyan Panchami is part of the Jain religious calendar and is not focused on Sikh traditions or history.

Additional Information

• Hola Mohalla:
• Hola Mohalla is a significant Sikh festival, especially in Punjab, and it is celebrated a day after Holi.
• It was established by Guru Gobind Singh Ji as a day for Sikhs to showcase their martial arts skills, strength, and valor.
• It is observed with a display of military and cultural processions, prayers, and feasts. This is undoubtedly a Sikh festival.
• Baisakhi:
• Baisakhi is one of the most important festivals for Sikhs.
• It celebrates the formation of the Khalsa by Guru Gobind Singh Ji in 1699 and also marks the beginning of the harvest season in Punjab.
• Sikhs observe this day by gathering at Gurudwaras, participating in processions, and reflecting on the significance of the Khalsa.
• Lohri:
• Lohri is a harvest festival celebrated predominantly in Punjab.
• While it is widely celebrated by Sikhs, it is not exclusively a Sikh festival.
• It is also celebrated by Hindus and other communities, marking the end of winter and the beginning of the harvest season. Sikhs, especially in Punjab, celebrate Lohri with much enthusiasm, but it is not specifically tied to Sikh religious teachings or history.
• It is a cultural festival more than a religious one.

The correct answer is 2 months.

Key Points

• The proclamation of Constitutional Emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within 2 months from the date of its issue.
• If the approval is not obtained within this period, the proclamation ceases to operate.
• This approval is necessary to ensure that the emergency remains in force and the powers granted under it can continue to be exercised.
• The 2-month period gives both houses of Parliament sufficient time to deliberate and decide on the necessity of continuing the emergency.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Emergency:
• Also known as President's Rule, it is declared under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution.
• It occurs when the President is satisfied that the governance in a state cannot be carried out according to the provisions of the Constitution.
• During this period, the state's executive authority is exercised by the central government, and the state's legislative assembly may be dissolved or suspended.
• This provision is intended to ensure that governance in any state is in accordance with constitutional provisions and maintains the rule of law.
• Parliamentary Approval:
• Both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) must approve the proclamation by a simple majority within 2 months of its issuance.
• If Lok Sabha is dissolved during this period, the proclamation must be approved by Rajya Sabha within 2 months and by Lok Sabha within 30 days of its reconstitution.
• This process ensures democratic oversight and accountability over the use of emergency powers.

The correct answer is Anuj Dhar

Key Points

• What Happened to Netaji?" is a book written by Anuj Dhar, published in 2005.
• The book delves into the mysterious disappearance of Subhas Chandra Bose (Netaji) in 1945, exploring various theories and questions regarding his fate after he was reportedly last seen in Taipei, Taiwan, following a plane crash.
• Anuj Dhar investigates the official accounts surrounding Bose's death and raises questions about the authenticity of these claims.
• The book argues that the government of India may have concealed information about Netaji's whereabouts, and it also highlights various conspiracy theories about his possible survival and the role of the Indian government in suppressing the truth.

Additional Information

• Arvind Adiga is known for his book "The White Tiger," which won the Booker Prize in 2008.
• Vikram Seth is famous for his works like "A Suitable Boy".
• Kiran Desai is the author of "The Inheritance of Loss," which won the Booker Prize in 2006.

The correct answer is Madras and Bombay

Key Points

• The Ryotwari System was introduced by the British under Thomas Munro and Sir John Malcolm in the early 19^th century (around 1820) as a way to collect land revenue directly from the peasants (known as "ryots").
• Madras (now Tamil Nadu) and Bombay (now Mumbai, including parts of Gujarat) were the main regions where this system was implemented.
• In the Ryotwari system, the government dealt directly with individual farmers, rather than through intermediaries like zamindars (landlords), as was the case in the Zamindari System.
• Under the Ryotwari system, the peasants were required to pay a fixed land revenue, and the amount was assessed based on the quality of the land.
• It was implemented in parts of southern and western India, particularly in Madras (Tamil Nadu) and Bombay (Maharashtra).

The correct answer is Bihar

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, the state with the Lowest female literacy rate was Bihar.
• The female literacy rate in Bihar was recorded at 53.33%, which was one of the lowest among states.
• States Female literacy
• Maharashtra: The female literacy rate in Maharashtra was recorded at 82.34% in 2011.
• Chhattisgarh: The female literacy rate in Chhattisgarh was recorded at 70.25% in 2011.
• West Bengal: The female literacy rate in West Bengal was recorded at 76.26% in 2011.
• the highest female literacy rate, which was in Kerala at 92.07%.

Additional Information

 Census 2011

• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15^th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
• The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India its population is more than the population of Brazil.

The correct answer is 12

Key Points

• The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) in India provides vaccinations for 12 vaccine-preventable diseases
• Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, Severe form of childhood tuberculosis, Hepatitis B, Meningitis, Pneumonia caused by Haemophilus influenza type B
• Rotavirus diarrhea
• The UIP also provides a vaccine for Japanese encephalitis in endemic districts of selected states. All vaccines are provided free of cost.
• The program primarily targets children under the age of 5 years and pregnant women to protect them from preventable diseases

Additional Information

• The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) in India is a crucial public health initiative aimed at preventing vaccine-preventable diseases in children and women, particularly focusing on those diseases that contribute to morbidity and mortality in the country.
• The UIP was launched in 1985 by the Government of India.
• It has been a key part of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) since 2005.
• The UIP is one of the most cost-effective public health interventions and has helped reduce the rate of vaccine-preventable deaths in children under five.
• Some of the program's major milestones include the elimination of polio in 2014 and maternal and neonatal tetanus in 2015

The correct answer is Sonu Nigam

Key Points

• Sonu Nigam received the Padma Shri in 2023.
• The Padma Shri is India's fourth-highest civilian award.
• Sonu Nigam is known for his vocal technique, stage presence, and versatility.
• He is also considered a mentor to many upcoming singers

Additional Information

• Shankar Mahadevan: Padma Shri in 2019.
• A.R. Rahman: Padma Shri in 2000, later awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2010.
• Arijit Singh: Has not received a Padma award as of 2022.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand

Key Points

• The Jhora dance is performed in the state of Uttarakhand as a springtime celebration
• The Jhora dance originated in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
• The Jhora dance is typically performed in the spring season.
• The Jhora dance is also performed at weddings, festivals, and fairs.

Additional Information

• Community dance: The Jhora dance is a community dance that brings together people of all castes.
• Dance moves: The Jhora dance involves men and women moving in a circle, holding hands, and slightly bending forward.
• Each step is taken with a slight jump and accompanied by neck and shoulder movements.
• Traditional drum: The Jhora dance is performed to the accompaniment of the traditional drum, known as the "Hurka".

The correct answer is Genghis Khan

Key Points

• The Mughal rulers were descendants of Genghis Khan from their mother's side
• The Mughal rulers were descendants of two great lineages of rulers.
• On their mother's side, they were descendants of Genghis Khan, the Mongol ruler who ruled over parts of China and Central Asia.
• On their father's side, they were descendants of Timur, the ruler of Iran, Iraq, and modern-day Turkey.
• Pride in Timurid ancestry
• The Mughals took pride in their Timurid ancestry because Timur was a great conqueror who captured Delhi in 1398.
• They did not like to be called Mongol because of the massacre of many people associated with Genghis Khan's memory.
• Babur, the founder of the Mughal dynasty, was distantly related to Genghis Khan through his mother, Qutlugh Nigar Khanum.
• She was the daughter of Yunus Khan, a descendant of Genghis Khan's second son, Chaghatai.

Additional Information

• Mahmud Ghazni:
• Full Name: Mahmud of Ghazni
• Period: Reigned from 971 to 1030 AD.
• Origin: He was the ruler of the Ghaznavid Empire (in present-day Afghanistan and Iran).
• Known for his 17 invasions of India, during which he looted wealth, including the famous temple of Somnath.
• He is often remembered as a brutal invader, but also for promoting Persian culture and spreading Islam in the region.
• Iltutmish:
• Full Name: Shams-ud-Din Iltutmish
• Period: Reigned from 1211 to 1236 AD.
• Origin: He was a Turkic slave who rose to become the Sultan of Delhi.
• Established the Delhi Sultanate as a strong and stable empire.
• Iltutmish is known for consolidating Muslim rule in India and introducing important administrative reforms.
• He was the first Sultan of Delhi to be recognized by the Caliph of Baghdad, enhancing his legitimacy.
• Timur:
• Full Name: Timur (also known as Tamerlane)
• Period: Reigned from 1370 to 1405 AD.
• Origin: Timur was a Turkic-Mongol ruler from Central Asia, and he founded the Timurid Empire.
• Known for his military conquests across Persia, India, and parts of the Middle East.
• His invasion of India in 1398 led to the destruction of Delhi and the slaughter of tens of thousands of people.
• Despite his reputation for brutality, he also made notable contributions to art, architecture, and culture, especially in Samarkand.

The correct answer is In 1875

Key Points

• The Arya Samaj was established by Dayananda Saraswati in Mumbai on 10 April 1875.
• It is a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief of the Vedas.
• It was the first Hindu organization to introduce proselytization in Hinduism.
• Although never involved in politics, Swami Dayanand Saraswati was the source of inspiration for variety of political leaders during India's struggle for independence.
• For example, the call for 'Swarajya' was used by him, and later taken by Lokmanya Tilak.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was a part of the organisation.
• The Indian Constitution adopted the call for abolition of caste system, untouchability, status of women. All of them were first preached by Arya Samaj.
• Today it has branches all over the world.

The correct answer is a space-centre

Key Points

• The famous Sriharikota island of India is known as a space centre
• Sriharikota is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), India's primary satellite launch centre and spaceport.
• The SDSC is a lead centre of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Sriharikota is a long, narrow island in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh, India.
• It's located between the Bay of Bengal and Pulicat Lake.
• Strategic location
• Sriharikota's proximity to the equator makes it a strategically important location for space launches.
• Sriharikota has a tropical wet and dry climate with hot summers and mild winters.

Additional Information

• ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of Government of India, headquartered in the city of Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• It was established by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
• Eminent scientist Dr Vikram Sarabhai had a big role in this development.
• The INCOSPAR became ISRO in 1969.
• ISRO Chairman: Dr. S Somanath

The correct answer is Decreasing

Key Points

• The biological wealth of the planet is declining rapidly, and human activities are the primary cause.
• some trends in the decline of biological wealth:
• The current rate of species extinction is 100 to 1000 times faster than before humans existed.
• The IUCN Red List documents the extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years.
• The World Wildlife Fund's Living Planet Report 2022 found that wildlife populations have declined by 69% on average since 1970.
• Human actions have significantly altered three-quarters of the land-based environment and 66% of the marine environment.
• Two percent of megafauna species have gone extinct over the past 500 years.
• Biodiversity provides humans with many benefits, including food, water, raw materials, climate regulation, and flood control.
• These benefits are often taken for granted, but when they are degraded, it can lead to unintended consequences.

Additional Information

• Government Initiatives for Conservation of Biodiversity 
• ​The Central government passed the Wild Life Protection Act in 1972.
• Under this act inter alia is provided for the creation of protected areas to conserve biodiversity and punishment will be given for hunting of specified animals.
• In 2010 Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules were formed for the protection of wetlands in the state.
• A national plan has been set up for the conservation of the aquatic ecosystem. Under this plan, proper assistance will be given to the States for the management of wetlands including Ramsar sites in the country.
• Establishment of Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to control illegal trade in wildlife, including endangered species.
• Different research centres have been set up like Wildlife Institute of India, Bombay Natural History Society and Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History to do research on how to conserve biodiversity.
• Banning of the veterinary use of diclofenac drug by the Indian government as it causes a rapid decline in the number of Gyps vultures.

The correct answer is A, B and C

Key Points

• Statement A:They serve as a warning against anti-national elements and anti-social activities."
• This statement is Correct:
• Fundamental duties were introduced in the Indian Constitution (Article 51A, through the 42^nd Amendment in 1976) to emphasize the responsibilities of citizens, including fostering unity, protecting sovereignty, and respecting national ideals.
• This acts as a moral and ethical warning against anti-national and anti-social behavior.
• Statement B:"They serve as a source of inspiration for citizens and foster a sense of discipline and commitment among them."
• This statement is Correct:
• Fundamental duties aim to inspire citizens to perform civic responsibilities, maintain discipline, and strengthen democratic values.
• They are meant to instill patriotism and promote responsible citizenship.
• Statement C:There is no legal sanction against violation of fundamental duties."
• This statement is Correct
• The fundamental duties are non-justiciable, meaning there is no direct legal sanction for their violation.
• However, Parliament has the power to enact laws to enforce specific duties, and certain laws indirectly enforce them (e.g., the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, penalizing disrespect to the national flag).

Additional Information

• Fundamental duties come under Part IVA and Article 51A.
• These duties are statutory and are not enforceable by law but are taken into account by the courts while adjudicating any matter.
• Fundamental Duties in the Constitution are inspired by USSR.
• Japan is the only democratic country, other than India, to have Fundamental duties in its Constitution.
• These duties were incorporated through the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 in the Constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Only 8 Fundamental duties were based on the Swaran Singh Committee recommendation while the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act added 10 Fundamental duties in the Constitution.
• Later, the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002 was passed that introduced one more fundamental duty in the Constitution. Now there are Eleven Fundamental duties in the Constitution.
• Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable

The correct answer is Both socialist and mixed economies

Key Points

• Socialist and command economies, also known as planned economies, are economic systems that give preference to planning to make economic policies:
• Socialist economy
• In a socialist economy, the government owns and controls all productive resources, and the central planning authority makes decisions.
• The goal is to benefit society as a whole.
• Mixed economies:
• Mixed economies combine elements of both capitalism and socialism.
• While private enterprises play a role, the government actively intervenes in planning economic policies to ensure social welfare, control monopolies, and address market failures.
• Examples of countries with command economies include Cuba, North Korea, and the former Soviet Union.
• China transitioned from a command economy to a mixed economy in 1978, which blends communist and capitalist elements.

The correct answer is 1013 MB

Key Points

• The normal air pressure at sea level is 1,013.2 millibars.
• The air at the surface is denser due to gravity, which hence has greater pressure.
• Air pressure is measured using a mercury barometer or aneroid barometer.
• The value of what we call standard sea-level pressure is 760mm of mercury, 1013.25 x103 dynes per square centimeter, 14.70 pounds per square inch, 1013.25 millibars, or simply one standard atmosphere which is 101.325 kilopascals.
• The air majorly contains 72 percent nitrogen and 21 percent oxygen, in addition to a small amount of carbon dioxide, hydrogen, etc.
• Air has weight and thus, like liquids, it exerts pressure.
• A force is exerted by the atmospheric air on all objects in the atmosphere and on the earth.
• The force or thrust exerted on a unit area by the atmospheric air is defined as atmospheric pressure.
• 1.013 x 105 Pa is the approximate value of atmospheric pressure on the earth's surface.
• The standard atmospheric pressure is 0.760 mHg at 0 °C.
• This is a pressure equal to 101325 Pa.

The correct answer is ₹816

Key Points

• According to an International Monetary Fund paper, extreme poverty, defined by the World Bank as living on US$1.9 or less in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms.
• According to the Planning Commission in 2011-12, the national poverty line using Tendulkar methology is Rs 816  per capita per month for rural areas and Rs 1000 per capita per month for urban areas of India.
• The current poverty line is 1,059.42 Indian Rupees per month in rural areas and 1,286 Indian rupees per month in urban areas.

Additional Information POVERTY MEASUREMENT IN INDIA:

• Poverty can be defined as a condition in which an individual or household lacks the financial resources to afford a basic minimum standard of living.
• India has a long history of studies on measurement of poverty. The erstwhile Planning Commission was the nodal agency in India for estimation of poverty.
• Various expert groups constituted by the Planning Commission have estimated the number of people living in poverty in India:
• Working Group (1962).
• Study by VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971).
• Task Force on “Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand” headed by Dr. Y. K. Alagh (1979).
• Lakdawala Expert Group (1993): Headed by Professor D.T. Lakdawala.
• Tendulkar Expert Group (2009): It was setup in 2005 and was headed by Suresh Tendulkar.
• Rangrajan Committee (2014): It was set up in 2012 and was headed by Chakravarthi Rangarajan$.

The correct answer is India

Key Points

• The first Asian Games were held in India.
• Like the Olympic Games, they are held every four years.
• The first edition of the Asian Games was held in New Delhi on 8 to 11 March 1951.
• From 1954 they were held every four years.
• Athletes from 11 nations participated in the inaugural games, which featured six sports (association football, athletics, basketball, cycling, swimming, and weight lifting).
• The Games were officially opened by Indian President Rajendra Prasad at the Dhyan Chand National Stadium.
• Japan topped the medal table with 24 gold, 21 silver and 15 bronze medals.

Additional Information

• Asian Games
• The Asian Games is the largest multi-sport event in Asia, organized every four years.
• The event is governed by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), and the first edition took place in 1951 in New Delhi, India
• Over 45 nations participate in the Games, competing in various disciplines such as athletics, swimming, badminton, and martial arts, among others.
• The Asian Games aim to foster unity, promote excellence in sports, and enhance cooperation among Asian countries through healthy competition.

The correct answer is 1905

Key Points

• The Swadeshi movement took place in 1905 to protest the British partition of Bengal
• The Swadeshi movement was formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall.
• The movement was a protest against the British decision to partition Bengal, and involved boycotting British products and using Indian-made goods instead.
• On October 16, 1905, the day the partition came into effect, people in Calcutta called a hartal, fasted, and paraded the streets singing "Bande Mataram".
• Key figures in the movement included Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai.

Additional Information

• Timeline of Swadeshi movement:
• ​In 1900, Bengal was the major province in British India.
• The Indian national movement began in Bengal and thus, Britishers decided to part Bengal.
• When Lord Curzon, then Viceroy of India, announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905.
• Indian National Congress, initiated the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
• Swadeshi movement was launched as a protest movement which also gave a lead to the Boycott movement in the country.
• In 1909, the movement had spread across the country and people had started anti-partition and anti-colonial movements.
• In Andhra Pradesh, the Swadeshi movement was also known as the Vandemataram movement In 1910.
• There were many secret associations that had been set up and there were many revolutionary movements, which were synonymous with the Swadeshi movement.
• Later movements by Mahatma Gandhi from 1915, such as the Satyagraha movement, the Non-Cooperation movement were based on the Swadeshi movement.

The correct answer is 12^th April 1927

Key Points

• The Kirti Kisan Party (KKP) was established on 12^th April 1927 in Amritsar with the primary objective of uniting and mobilizing workers and peasants to address socio-economic injustices under British colonial rule and oppressive landlords
• The KKP was an offshoot of the Kirti movement, which originated from the activities of the Ghadar Party.
• Many leaders of the Ghadar Party, after returning to India from abroad, decided to focus on agrarian and labor issues as a means to resist colonial oppression.
• The "Kirti" (Worker) publication became the voice of these efforts, spreading awareness and advocating for social and economic equality.
• The party was led by prominent Ghadarites and leftist leaders, such as Santokh Singh, Bhagat Singh, and others who were deeply influenced by socialist principles.

The correct answer is a-iii,b-i,c-ii

Key Points

• (a) Nationalisation of 14 banks → 1969 (iii)
• The nationalisation of 14 banks happened in 1969 under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh appointed the Governor of RBI → 1982 (i)
• Dr. Manmohan Singh was appointed the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1982.
• (c) Demonetisation of Rs. 10,000 bank notes → 1978 (ii)
• The demonetisation of Rs. 10,000 bank notes happened in 1978.
• So, the correct match is:
• a-iii, b-i, c-ii.

The correct answer is Ek Kadam Swachhata ki Ore

Key Points

• The slogan of the Swachh Bharat Mission is "Ek Kadam Swachhata Ki Ore", which translates to "A step towards cleanliness" in English.
• This slogan has been used for the past 10 years.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Swachh Bharat Mission on October 2, 2014.
• The mission's logo features Mahatma Gandhi's spectacles with "Swachh Bharat" written on the lenses.

Additional Information

• Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
• On 2^nd October 2014, Swachh Bharat Mission was launched throughout the length and breadth of the country as a national movement.
• Shri Narendra Modi launched the Swachh Bharat Mission at Rajpath in New Delhi.
• Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is also known as Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, or Clean India Mission
• The campaign aims to achieve the vision of a ‘Clean India’ by 2^nd October 2019,i.e. on the 150 birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Under the mission, all villages, Gram Panchayats, Districts, States and Union Territories in India declared themselves “open-defecation free” (ODF) by 2 October 2019, the 150^th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• There is the construction of over 100 million toilets in rural India.
• The Mission Coordinator for SBM is the Secretary, Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MDWS)
• SBM has two Sub-Missions, the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).
• Phase 1 of the Swachh Bharat mission lasted till October 2019.
• The objectives of the first phase of the mission also included eradication of manual scavenging, generating awareness and bringing about a behavior change regarding sanitation practices, and augmentation of capacity at the local level.
• Phase 2 will be implemented between 2020–21 and 2024-25.
• The second phase of the mission aims to sustain the open defecation-free status and improve the management of solid and liquid waste.

The correct answer is 57 BC

Key Points

• The Vikram Era, also known as the Vikram Samvat, is a historical calendar system that was started by King Vikramaditya of Ujjain, traditionally dated to 57 BCE.
• King Vikramaditya:
• He was a legendary king of the Gupta Dynasty (often thought to have ruled around the 1^st century BCE).
• While the exact dates of his reign are debated, the Vikram Era is attributed to his victory over the Shakas (Scythians), who had invaded parts of India.
• This victory is said to have marked the beginning of the Vikram Era.
• The Vikram Samvat is primarily used in India for religious and cultural purposes and is still followed in parts of India, especially in Nepal and some North Indian states.
• The calendar's year count starts from 57 BCE and is typically about 57 years ahead of the Gregorian calendar used internationally.

The correct answer is Bihar

Key Points

• Jhijhiya is a popular folk dance of Bihar, India, that is performed exclusively by women.
• The dance is performed during the Navaratri festival, which lasts for nine nights and is dedicated to the worship of the three forms of the Hindu goddess Durga: Kali, Lakshmi, and Saraswati.
• The festival is celebrated in the mythological town of Mithila, which is located in the northern part of Bihar.
• Jhijhiya is a fast-paced dance that is accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the dhol, shehnai, and bansuri.
• The dance is typically performed by groups of women who wear colorful sarees and bangles, and the movements involve a lot of footwork and hand gestures.

Additional Information

• Famous Folk dance of Bihar
• Bideshiya is a form of dance drama that is believed to have been created by Bhikhari Thakur, a barber with a passion for drama.
• It deals with social issues and conflict between traditional and modern, rich and poor.
• Domkach is performed in the bridegroom's house by women during a marriage ceremony.
• Fagua is a dance and also a type of folk song performed during Holi.
• Jat-Jatin is the most popular folk dance of North Bihar, especially in the Mithila and Koshi regions. It is performed by a man and a woman, the man is going far away to work. The dance reflects poverty and sorrow.
• Jhijhian is sung and danced during a drought as a prayer to Indra for rain. Its music is usually a singer, a harmonium and a drum.
• Jhumri is similar to Gujarat's Garba.
• Kajari is popular in Bihar's Bhojpuri-speaking region. It often describes a woman's longing for her lover as the black monsoon cloud hangs in the summer sky, and is sung during the rainy season.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, the Union Territory (UT) with the lowest population was Lakshadweep.
• The total population of Lakshadweep was about 64,473 (as per the 2011 Census).
• It is a group of islands in the Arabian Sea, and its population is relatively small compared to other UTs due to its geographic location and limited land area.
• Lakshadweep consists of 36 small islands, and its remote location in the Arabian Sea contributes to its low population.
• The islands are sparsely populated with limited infrastructure, which results in a smaller population compared to other Union Territories.

Additional Information

• Puducherry: The population of Puducherry in 2011 was 1,247,953, making it more populous than Lakshadweep.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli: The population of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was 342,853 in 2011, also larger than Lakshadweep's population.
• Daman and Diu: The population of Daman and Diu in 2011 was 242,911, again larger than Lakshadweep's.

The correct answer is Cauvery Basin

Key Points

• The river that is bounded by the Tungabhadra sub-basin of the Krishna basin in the northern side and the Palar sub-basin in the southern side is the Cauvery Basin.
• Tungabhadra Sub-basin: The Tungabhadra River is a major tributary of the Krishna River, flowing primarily through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Tungabhadra sub-basin is part of the larger Krishna River Basin, located in the northern region of the Cauvery Basin.
• Palar Sub-basin: The Palar River is an important river in the southern part of India, flowing through the states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Palar sub-basin is located to the south of the Cauvery Basin.
• Now, the Cauvery Basin lies in between these two sub-basins:
• The Tungabhadra sub-basin, which is part of the Krishna Basin, borders the Cauvery Basin to the north.
• The Palar sub-basin borders the Cauvery Basin to the south.
• Thus, the Cauvery River Basin is geographically bounded by the Tungabhadra sub-basin to the north and the Palar sub-basin to the south.

Additional Information

• Mahanadi Basin:
• The Mahanadi River flows through the central-eastern part of India, mainly in the state of Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
• The Mahanadi Basin is located to the north of the Krishna Basin.
• Brahmani Basin:
• The Brahmani River flows through Odisha and Jharkhand and is also in the eastern part of India.
• It lies to the northeast of the Krishna and Cauvery basins.
• Tapi Basin:
• The Tapi River flows in the western part of India, mainly through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.

The correct answer is Article 43

Key Points

• Article 43 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• It deals with the state's responsibility to ensure a living wage, decent working conditions, and the full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities for workers.
• The aim is to secure a decent standard of life for all citizens, particularly workers.
• It specifically calls for the state to work towards securing:
• A living wage.
• Conditions of work that ensure a decent standard of life.
• Full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities.
• This article underscores the state's role in promoting economic justice and improving the quality of life for workers

Additional Information

• Article 44:
• Article 44 of the Indian Constitution falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy, containing guidelines for the central and state governments of India.
• It states: "The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India".
• The directive principles, though they are non-justiciable rights of the people, are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The uniform civil code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set of laws governing every citizen.
• The proposal has been a part of political debate and caused significant controversy due to the importance of religion in people's lives
• Article 42:
• Article 42 directs the state to make provisions for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• While it also relates to workers' welfare, it is more specific to working conditions and maternity benefits, unlike Article 43, which addresses broader welfare goals.
• Article 45:
• ​Article 45 under Directive Principles of State Policy laid down the foundation stone of free and compulsory education in the country.
• The article states that “ the state shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this constitution, for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years”.
• Article 45 recognizes the child’s right to get an education and directs the state

The correct answer is Australia

Key Points

• The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia.
• The Indian Constitution's Seventh Schedule divides powers between the Union and State governments into three lists:
• the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
• Both the Central and State Governments can make laws on the subjects in the Concurrent List.

Additional InformationBorrowed from other Countries:

• Australia: Concurrent List, Federal features, Freedom of trade.
• UK: Parliamentary system, Rule of law, Common law.
• US: Fundamental Rights, Judicial review.
• Ireland: Directive Principles, Nominated members in Rajya Sabha.
• Canada: Federal structure, Residuary powers.
• Germany: Emergency provisions.
• France: Republican ideals.
• Japan: Independent judiciary.
• Portugal: Directive Principles.

The correct answer is the Least distance of distinct vision

Key Points

• The term for the minimum distance at which objects can be seen most distinctly without strain is the least distance of distinct vision.
• It is also known as the near point of the eye.
• For a young adult with normal vision, the near point is about 25 cm.
• The least distance of distinct vision varies with age: 
• Infants: The least distance of distinct vision is about 5 to 8 cm.
• Older people: The least distance of distinct vision increases due to weakened muscles responsible for adjusting the eye lens.
• This defect is called Presbyopia.
• The farthest point up to which the eye can see objects clearly is called the far point of the eye.
• For a normal eye, the far point is infinity.

Additional Information

• Presbyopia
• Presbyopia is the gradual loss of your eye's ability to focus on nearby objects.
• It is a natural, often annoying part of aging.
• Presbyopia usually becomes noticeable in your early to mid-40s and continues to worsen until around age 65.
• The ciliary muscles lose their ideal functioning power over time and do not work effectively.
• Even the crystalline lens loses its flexibility over time (it starts hardening), thereby affecting its focusing power.
• Presbyopia can be treated with the use of simple eyeglasses with convex lenses (positive power).
• ​Near- Sightedness( Myopia)
• It is a common vision condition in which a person can see objects near to him clearly but objects farther away are blurry.
• It occurs when the shape of the eye causes light rays to bend( refract) incorrectly, focusing images in the front of the retina instead of on the retina.
• Nearsightedness may develop gradually or rapidly often worsening during childhood and adolescence.
• Nearsightedness is easily corrected with prescription eyeglasses or contact lenses.
• Lenses used to correct nearsightedness are concave in shape. In other words, they are thinner at the center and thicker at the edge.
• Far- Sightedness( Hypermetropia)
• It is a common vision condition in which a person can see distant objects clearly, but objects nearby are blurry.
• It is the condition of the eyes where the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.
• Here, the light is focussed behind the retina instead of focusing on the retina.
• Correction of farsightedness uses a converging lens that compensates for the under convergence by the eye.
• The converging lens produces an image farther from the eye than the object so that the farsighted person can see it clearly.

The correct answer is 7

Key Points

• A match is played by two teams, each with a maximum of eleven players.
• One must be the goalkeeper.
• A match may not start or continue if either team has fewer than seven players.
• Each of the two competing teams can have a maximum of 11 players on the field at any time.
• Playing with more on the field is punishable by a penalty.

Additional Information

• The International Football Association Board (IFAB) was founded in 1886 and is responsible for the Laws of the Game in association football.
• The Laws of the Game are the codified rules that help govern the sport of football and ensure consistency across all levels of play.
• In official competitions, teams are also required to have a specific number of players on the bench as substitutes, typically ranging from 3 to 7 players depending on the competition rules.
• The goalkeeper is a crucial position and must be one of the players on the field at all times.
• Substitutions can be made during the match to replace tired or injured players, ensuring that a team can maintain at least the minimum number of players required.

The correct answer is Tantrik

Key Points

• Tantrik worship, in ancient and medieval India, often focused on the worship of deities, particularly Goddesses, and was characterized by rituals that sometimes bypassed the traditional caste and class distinctions.
• It involved esoteric practices, mantras, rituals, and meditative techniques that aimed to achieve spiritual power and liberation.
• Tantrism was closely linked with Shaktism, the worship of the feminine divine, and was seen as a form of devotion where societal norms like caste were less emphasized in the ritual context.

Additional Information

• Shaiva:
• Refers to worship centered around Shiva and was more structured with caste considerations in its practices.
• Mantric:
• While mantras (sacred chants) are an integral part of many forms of worship, including Tantrik worship, mantric rituals do not specifically highlight the disregard for caste and class distinctions as seen in Tantrism.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established on 22 October 1774 by the Regulating Act of 1773.
• The drawback of this act was that the powers of the SC were not clearly defined.
• It replaced the Mayer’s Court of Calcutta.
• Sir Elijah Impey was the first judge of this court.
• Lemaister was also a Puisne Judge of the Supreme Court of Calcutta.
• The Supreme Court was with One Chief Justice and three other judges.
• The judge's term length was life tenure.

Additional Information 

• Regulating Act of 1773 was an act of the British Government in which government takes step first time to control and regulate the affairs of EIC in India.
• It had civil and criminal jurisdiction over the British subjects and not Indian natives.
• It has great constitutional importance.
• It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the natives.
• The Court formed under this act has the following composition:
• Elijah Impey- CJI.
• Lemaistre- Puisne Judge from 1774 to 1777.
• John Hyde- Puisne Judge from 1774 to 1796.
• Rober Chambers- Puisne Judge from 1774 to 1783.
• Sir William Jones- Puisne judge from 1783 to 1794.
• Sir William Dunkin- Puisne Judge from 1791.

The correct answer is Dholavira

Key Points

• Water reservoirs, dams, and embankments were found at the Harappan site of Dholavira in Gujarat, India
• Dholavira is known for its advanced water management system, which includes a network of stone-cut reservoirs and canals.
• The reservoirs were used to collect rainwater, which was vital in the rainfall-deficient region.
• Other archaeological evidence of water supply systems from the Harappan civilization includes: Wells with brick lining and Similar evidence at Mohanjodaro and Harappa

Additional Information

• Surkotada (Gujarat, India)
• Things Found:
• Fortified Settlement: Surkotada is one of the important sites of the Indus Valley Civilization, featuring a fortified structure, which was likely used for defensive or administrative purposes.
• Evidence of Animal Domestication: The site is notable for the discovery of horse remains, which is significant as horses were not commonly found in other Harappan sites. This has led to some debate about the role of horses in Harappan culture.
• Pottery and Artifacts: Numerous pieces of ceramic pottery and stone tools have been found, providing insights into the daily life and craftsmanship of the people.
• Mehrgarh (Balochistan, Pakistan)
• Things Found:
• Early Farming and Animal Husbandry: Mehrgarh is one of the earliest sites of the Neolithic period (7000 BCE - 3300 BCE). It shows evidence of early agriculture (wheat, barley) and the domestication of animals like cattle and goats.
• Stone and Terracotta Tools: The site has yielded many stone tools as well as terracotta figurines, which reflect early artistic expressions.
• Early Architecture: Evidence of mud-brick houses has been found, indicating the development of settled life.
• Beads and Ornaments: Mehrgarh is renowned for its production of beads, especially made from lapis lazuli, turquoise, and carnelian, demonstrating trade links with regions like Afghanistan and Iran.
• Ropar (Punjab, India)
• Things Found:
• Harappan Artifacts: Ropar is an important site in the Punjab region with evidence of Harappan pottery and stone tools.
• Pipes and Drainage Systems: Archaeologists have uncovered drainage systems and terracotta pipes, which resemble the urban planning seen in other Harappan cities like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa.
• Seals and Figurines: Seals with Indus script and figurines have been found, suggesting the presence of trade and cultural practices similar to other Indus Valley Civilization sites.
• Evidence of a Well-Planned Settlement: The layout of the site indicates organized town planning, including fortified structures and residential areas.

The correct answer is the Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in public services

Key Points

• Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution of India
• It directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.
• The purpose of this article is to ensure the independence of the judiciary, which is a fundamental principle for maintaining the rule of law and protecting individual rights.
• By separating these functions, the judiciary can act impartially without interference from the executive branch of government.

Additional Information

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of guidelines in the Indian Constitution that guide the government in making laws and policies.
• The DPSPs are found in Articles 36 to 51 of Part IV of the Constitution.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) have been amended four times through the following amendments to the Indian Constitution:
• 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976: Added four new DPSPs, including Articles 39, 39A, 43A, and 48A. These DPSPs include: 
• Article 39: Securing opportunities for children's healthy development
• Article 39A: Promoting equal justice and providing free legal aid to the poor
• Article 43A: Securing workers' participation in industry management
• Article 48A: Protecting and improving the environment, and safeguarding forests and wildlife
• 44^th Amendment Act of 1978: Added a new DPSP under Article 38, which requires the state to reduce inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities
• 86^th Amendment Act of 2002: Changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made basic education a fundamental right under Article 21A
• 97^th Amendment Act of 2011: Added a new DPSP for cooperative societies under Article 43B.

The correct answer is The Great Indian Novel

Key Points

• The Great Indian Novel" by Shashi Tharoor is a satirical and allegorical reimagining of the Indian epic Mahabharata.
• The novel cleverly weaves India's history, politics, and independence movement into the framework of the Mahabharata, blending mythology with modern events.
• The title itself is a pun on the phrase "The Great Indian Epic."
• Characters and events from the Mahabharata are reinterpreted to represent political figures and incidents from India's struggle for freedom and post-independence era.

Additional Information

• Why I Am A Hindu
• A non-fiction work that explores the philosophy, beliefs, and diversity of Hinduism, along with Tharoor's personal connection to the religion.
• The Hindu Way: An Introduction to Hinduism
• This book provides a deeper understanding of Hinduism, its traditions, practices, and relevance in contemporary times.
• Tharoorosaurus
• A playful collection of essays showcasing Tharoor's linguistic flair and love for the English language, explaining uncommon words with wit and humor.

The correct answer is Soil, minerals, wind and rainfall

Key Points

• Abiotic elements are the non-living components of an ecosystem.
• These include physical and chemical factors such as soil, minerals, water, wind, sunlight, temperature, and rainfall.
• Soil, minerals, wind, and rainfall
• This option consists entirely of abiotic components, which are non-living factors that shape the ecosystem.
• A natural body consisting of minerals, organic matter, air, and water.
• It provides a foundation for plant growth, influences water storage, and regulates nutrient cycling in the ecosystem.
• Minerals:
• Inorganic substances present in soil and rocks, essential for plant nutrition.
• They include elements like calcium, magnesium, potassium, and phosphorus.
• Wind:
• A physical force that affects the dispersal of seeds and pollens.
• It also influences temperature, evaporation, and weather patterns.
• Rainfall:
• A critical water source that impacts the availability of water in the ecosystem.
• It directly influences plant growth and provides hydration for animals.

Additional Information

• Option 1 includes grass, insects, and frogs, which are biotic (living) components.
• Option 2 includes grasses, flowers, and honeybees, which are biotic components.
• Option 3 includes grass and flowers, which are biotic components.

The correct answer is Monsoon

Key Points

• The climate of India is called a tropical monsoon climate
• India's climate is tropical because it's located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The monsoon part of the name comes from the two seasonal winds that affect the climate: the northeast monsoon and the southwest monsoon.
• The southwest monsoon brings most of the country's rainfall, which occurs during the monsoon season of July–September.
• Other features
• India's climate is characterized by wet and dry seasons, but some areas, like the Thar desert and Ladakh, don't have wet seasons.
• The Shivalik Hills region is the wettest part of the country, while the Aravalli Hills is the driest.

Additional Information

• Alpine climate
• This climate has an average temperature below 10°C (50°F) in every month of the year.
• It's found in high-altitude mountain regions above the treeline.
• Arctic climate
• This climate is found near the Earth's poles and has consistently cold temperatures throughout the year.
• Arctic tundra has fewer plant species and more limited wildlife than alpine tundra.
• Tundra climate
• This **climate has an average temperature of between 0°C and 10°**C for the warmest month.
• Tundra climates can occur at altitude, which is usually called an alpine climate.
• Tundra climates have some plant life, but the growing season is too short for trees. Instead, you'll find dwarf shrubs, grasses, and other small plants.

The correct answer is V. Dhannamal

Key Points

• Veenai Dhannamal (1867–1938) was a celebrated veena player in Carnatic music.
• She belonged to a lineage of exceptional musicians and was known for her nuanced and expressive playing style.
• She pioneered a distinctive style of veena playing, often referred to as the Dhannamal Bani (school/style), which emphasized gamakas (ornamentation) and subtle artistry.
• Her music greatly influenced the evolution of Carnatic instrumental music.

Additional Information

• Other veena Exponents

The correct answer is Fatty acid

Important Points

• When glucose is not available in the body, the body can use fatty acids and amino acids as alternative energy sources
• But this question is asked in Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On 03 Dec, 2023 Shift 2) ,
• so according to this the correct answer is fatty Acid

Key Points

• When glucose is not available in the body, fatty acids, amino acids, and liver glycogen can be used as energy sources
• Fatty acids
• When blood glucose levels drop, the body breaks down fatty acids stored in adipose tissue to produce energy.
• Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl CoA in the liver, which can be oxidized to produce ATP.
• Amino acids
• When glycogen and lipid stores are depleted, amino acids become the body's primary energy source.
• Glucogenic amino acids can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis.
• When blood glucose levels drop, the body breaks down liver glycogen into glucose and releases it into the bloodstream.

Additional Information

• Lactic acid:
• Lactic acid is primarily a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism.
• It can be converted back into glucose via the Cori cycle in the liver
• Carbonic acids:
• Carbonic acid is formed from carbon dioxide and water and plays a role in maintaining pH balance in the body, not in energy metabolism.

The correct answer is Ultimate Kho-Kho League

Key Points

• The Ultimate Kho Kho (UKK) league was started in 2022
• The first season of UKK was held from August 14 to September 4, 2022.
• The matches were held at the Shree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex in Pune.
• The six teams that participated in the first season were:
• Chennai Quick Guns
• Gujarat Giants
• Mumbai Khiladis
• Odisha Juggernauts
• Rajasthan Warriors
• Telugu Yoddhas

Additional Information

• The Odisha Juggernauts won the first season by beating the Telugu Yoddhas 46-45 in the final.
• The first season of UKK had 64 million viewers, with 41 million of those viewers from India.
• This made it the third-most viewed non-cricket sports tournament in India.
• The UKK league was created to popularise the traditional Indian sport of kho-kho at the national and international level. T
• The league also aims to professionalise the sport and make it more mainstream.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

Number of triangles at the base line = 3

Formula Used = \({n(n + 2)(2n + 1)\over 8}\)

Where; n = 3

So,

Number of triangles = \({3(3 + 2)(2 \times 3 + 1)\over 8}\)

= \({3(3 + 2)(6 + 1)\over 8}\)

= \({3 \times 5 \times 7\over 8}\)

= 13.125 ≈ 13

Thus, there are a total of 13 triangles.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'are' is code for the word 'north'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. For '

' element → The whole element shifts 135º anticlockwise subsequently.

2. For '

' element → The element shifts to next alternate side '

' element  anticlockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 5 is common on both the dices II and III, it is clear that 6, 4, 3, and 2 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 1 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

6 → 3

4 → 2

5 → 1

So, the opposite side of "6" will be side "3".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All cats are rats → Does not follow (As some rats are bats and some bats are cats. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some bats are rats → Follow (As some rats are bats. As some part of rats is common with bats, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Groupings of individuals based on profession.

Here,

Player : Team → Player is a member of a Team.

Similarly,

Artist : Troupe/Team → Artist is a member of a Troupe/Team.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series → All the elements shift anticlockwise.

2) Second box series → 

The top row elements interchange positions.

The bottom row elements interchange positions.

The center element is replaced by new element subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The first and last elements of the first row interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise.

2) Second box series → 

The first row elements shift clockwise.

The bottom row elements interchange positions.

The fourth element of the first row from the left is replaced by new element subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 16 ÷ 2 + 54 - 3 × 2 = 50480÷0.3×5+500190+9×27÷1.6=2480÷0.3×5+500190+9×27÷1.6=2480÷0.3×5+500190+9×27÷1.6=2

According to the question, after interchanging the signs:

Option 1): + and ×

16 ÷ 2 + 54 - 3 × 2 = 50 ⇒ 16 ÷ 2 × 54 - 3 + 2 = 50

⇒ 16 ÷ 2 × 54 - 3 + 2 = 50

⇒ 8 × 54 - 3 + 2 = 50

⇒ 432 + 2 - 3 = 50

⇒ 434 - 3 = 50

⇒ 431 ≠ 50 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): − and +

16 ÷ 2 + 54 - 3 × 2 = 50 ⇒ 16 ÷ 2 − 54 + 3 × 2 = 50

⇒ 16 ÷ 2 − 54 + 3 × 2 = 50

⇒ 8 − 54 + 3 × 2 = 50

⇒ 8 + 6 − 54 = 50

⇒ 14 − 54 = 50

⇒ -40 ≠ 50 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3): − and ×

16 ÷ 2 + 54 - 3 × 2 = 50 ⇒ 16 ÷ 2 + 54 × 3 - 2 = 50

⇒ 16 ÷ 2 + 54 × 3 - 2 = 50

⇒ 8 + 54 × 3 - 2 = 50

⇒ 8 + 162 - 2 = 50

⇒ 170 - 2 = 50

⇒ 168 ≠ 50 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): ÷ and −

16 ÷ 2 + 54 - 3 × 2 = 50 ⇒ 16 - 2 + 54 ÷ 3 × 2 = 50

⇒ 16 - 2 + 54 ÷ 3 × 2 = 50

⇒ 16 - 2 + 18 × 2 = 50

⇒ 16 + 36 - 2 = 50

⇒ 52 - 2 = 50

⇒ 50 = 50 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Rupin, Sunny, Guddu, Shradha, Naveen and Rahul are sitting around a circular table facing each other and sitting opposite to each other. 

1) Naveen is opposite Shradha. 

2) Rupin is between Naveen and Rahul.

As position of Rupin with respect to Naveen is not known yet, therefore there are two possible cases.

Case 1)

Case 2)

3) Guddu is not the immediate neighbour of Naveen.

After positioning Guddu, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Sunny.

Case 1)

Case 2)

Thus, in both the cases, Rahul is opposite to Sunny.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 3) = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 54 : 162

⇒ 54 × 3 = 162.

For, 88 : 264

⇒ 88 × 3 = 264.

Similarly, for 26 : ?

⇒ 26 × 3 = 78.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Equation: 55 C 5 A 40 B 2 A 320 D 4 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 55 - 5 + 40 × 2 + 320 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 55 - 5 + 40 × 2 + 80 = ?

⇒ 55 - 5 + 80 + 80 = ?

 

⇒ 215 - 5 = 210.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As F is common on both the dices I and II, it is clear that A, D, C, and E are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. B will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

D → C

A → E

F → B

So, the opposite side of "B" will be side "F".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

3The logic follows here is:

Logic: 1^st number × 3 - 8 = 2^nd number × 2 + 3 = 3^rd number.

For, (5, 7, 17)

⇒ 5 × 3 = 15 - 8 = 7 × 2 = 14 + 3 = 17

For, (7, 13, 29)

Similarly, 

 (11, 25, 53) 

⇒  11 × 3 = 33 - 8 = 25 × 2 = 50 + 3 = 53

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As U is common on both the dices, it is clear that S, R, P, and T are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. Q will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

S → T

R → P

U → Q

So, the opposite side of "P" will be side "R".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

Radius (r) = 7 cm

Height (h) = 12 cm

π = 22/7

Formula used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a cylinder = 2πr² + 2πrh

Calculation:

TSA = 2πr² + 2πrh

Substitute the given values:

TSA = 2 × (22/7) × (7)² + 2 × (22/7) × 7 × 12

TSA = 2 × (22/7) × 49 + 2 × (22/7) × 7 × 12

TSA = (22/7) × 98 + (22/7) × 168

TSA = (22 × 98)/7 + (22 × 168)/7

TSA = (2156)/7 + (3696)/7

TSA = (2156 + 3696)/7

TSA = 5852/7

TSA = 835.71 cm²

∴ The total surface area of the cylinder is 836 cm².

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,90,625

Rate (r) = 8% per annum

Time (t) = 2 years

Interest is compounded half-yearly, so the number of compounding periods (n) = 2 × 2 = 4 compounding periods.

Step 1: Determine the number of compounding periods

Since interest is compounded half-yearly, there are 2 compounding periods per year. So, for 2 years, the total number of compounding periods will be:

n = 2 × 2 = 4 compounding periods.

Step 2: Calculate the interest rate per period

The annual interest rate is 8%, so the interest rate per half-year will be:

Rate per period = 8% / 2 = 4%.

Step 3: Calculate the amount after 2 years

Using the compound interest formula:

Amount = Principal × (1 + (rate / 100))ⁿ

Substituting the values:

Amount = ₹3,90,625 × (1 + (4 / 100))⁴

Amount = ₹3,90,625 × (1.04)⁴

Amount = ₹3,90,625 × 1.16985856

Amount = ₹4,56,976

Step 4: Calculate the compound interest

Compound Interest (CI) = Amount - Principal

CI = ₹4,56,976 - ₹3,90,625

CI = ₹66,351

∴ The compound interest on ₹3,90,625 in 2 years at 8% per annum compounded half-yearly is ₹66,351.

Given:

Percentage increase = 30%

To find:

Percentage decrease that cancels out the 30% increase.

Concept:

If the salary is increased by a percentage, it becomes (100 + increase)% of the original salary.

If the salary is then decreased by a percentage, the new salary becomes (100 - decrease)% of the new increased salary.

To cancel out the increase, the product of the increase and the decrease should be 100%. In other words:

\( (1 + \frac{30}{100}) \times (1 - \frac{d}{100}) = 1 \)

Step 1: Solve for the percentage decrease (d):

\( 1.30 \times (1 - \frac{d}{100}) = 1 \)

\( 1 - \frac{d}{100} = \frac{1}{1.30} \)

\( 1 - \frac{d}{100} = \frac{10}{13} \)

\( \frac{d}{100} = 1 - \frac{10}{13} = \frac{3}{13} \)

\( d = \frac{3}{13} \times 100 \)

\( d = \frac{300}{13} \approx 23 \frac{1}{3} \)%

Conclusion:

The percentage decrease required to exactly cancel out a 30% increase is 23 (1/3)%.

Given:

1. The ratio of marks of Prabhu and Raghu is 7 : 8.
2. The ratio of marks of Raghu and Raghav is 5 : 4.

To find:

The ratio of marks of Prabhu and Raghav.

Step 1: Let the marks of Prabhu, Raghu, and Raghav be:

Marks of Prabhu = 7x

Marks of Raghu = 8x

Marks of Raghav = 4y

Step 2: Use the second ratio to relate Raghu's marks:

From the second ratio (Raghu : Raghav = 5 : 4), we can write:

8x = 5k and 4y = 4k (where k is a constant).

Step 3: Solve for x and y:

From 8x = 5k, we get:

x = 5k / 8

From 4y = 4k, we get:

y = k

Step 4: Substitute the values of x and y in terms of k into the Prabhu to Raghav ratio:

The ratio of marks of Prabhu to Raghav is:

Prabhu's marks : Raghav's marks = (7x) : (4y)

= (7 × 5k / 8) : (4 × k)

= (35k / 8) : (4k)

Canceling k from both terms:

Step 5: Simplify the ratio:

35 / 8 : 4 = 35 : 32

Therefore, the ratio of marks obtained by Prabhu and Raghav is 35 : 32.

Given:

The e×pression to be simplified is:

(231 + 19)² + (231 - 19)² / (231 × 231 + 19 × 19)

Step 1: Expand the numerator:

Numerator = (231 + 19)² + (231 - 19)²

Expanding each square:

(231 + 19)² = 231² + 2 × 231 × 19 + 19²

(231 - 19)² = 231² - 2 × 231 × 19 + 19²

Adding both expressions together:

Numerator = (231² + 2 × 231 × 19 + 19²) + (231² - 2 × 231 × 19 + 19²)

Numerator = 231² + 231² + 19² + 19²

Numerator = 2 × 231² + 2 × 19²

Step 2: Simplify the denominator:

Denominator = 231 × 231 + 19 × 19

Denominator = 231² + 19²

Step 3: Simplify the entire expression:

Now, substitute the simplified e×pressions for the numerator and denominator:

(2 × 231² + 2 × 19²) / (231² + 19²)

Factor out the common term "2" from the numerator:

2 × (231² + 19²) / (231² + 19²)

Step 4: Cancel common terms:

The (231² + 19²) terms cancel out, leaving:

2

Therefore, the value of the given e×pression is 2.

Given:

The numbers are: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 9, 11, and 18.

To find:

The average of these numbers.

Solution:

Step 1: Sum of the numbers

The sum of all the numbers is:

1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 9 + 11 + 18 = 56

Step 2: Count the total number of numbers

There are 8 numbers in total.

Step 3: Calculate the average

The formula for the average is:

Average = (Sum of all numbers) / (Total number of numbers)

Substituting the values:

Average = 56 / 8 = 7

Answer:

The average of 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 9, 11, and 18 is 7.

Shortcut Trick

Total discount from Dealer 1 = 15% of 5,00,000 = ₹75,000

Total discount from Dealer 2 = (12% of 3,00,000) + (6% of 2,00,000) + 6,000 (gift value)

Total discount from Dealer 2 = 36,000 + 12,000 + 6,000 = ₹54,000

Difference in Selling Prices = Difference in total discounts = 75,000 − 54,000 = ₹21,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹21,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹5,00,000

Dealer 1 Discount = 15%

Dealer 2 Discount = 12% on first ₹3,00,000, 6% on next ₹2,00,000, and a gift of ₹6,000.

Formula:

Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount

Marked Price: ₹5,00,000

Dealer 1 Discount (15%): ₹75,000

D2: 12% (3L) 6% (2L) Gift

Difference = ₹21,000

Calculations:

For Dealer 1:

⇒ Discount₁ = 15/100 × 5,00,000 = ₹75,000

⇒ SP₁ = 5,00,000 − 75,000 = ₹4,25,000

For Dealer 2:

⇒ Discount on first ₹3,00,000 = 12/100 × 3,00,000 = ₹36,000

⇒ Discount on next ₹2,00,000 = 6/100 × 2,00,000 = ₹12,000

⇒ Gift value = ₹6,000

⇒ Total Discount₂ = 36,000 + 12,000 + 6,000 = ₹54,000

⇒ SP₂ = 5,00,000 − 54,000 = ₹4,46,000

Difference in Selling Prices:

⇒ Difference = SP₂ − SP₁ = 4,46,000 − 4,25,000 = ₹21,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹21,000.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

A series of discounts a% and b% is equivalent to a single discount of [a + b − (ab/100)]%.

Effective Discount Rate

Total effective discount percentage = (Total Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100.

Marked Price vs Selling Price

Marked Price is the listed price, while Selling Price is the actual transaction price after all discounts and value-additions are adjusted.

Given:

The product of the first four prime numbers is 6545, and the product of the last four prime numbers is 24871. We need to find the last prime number.

Let the five prime numbers be:

p₁, p₂, p₃, p₄, p₅ (in ascending order).

Step 1: The product of the first four prime numbers:

p₁ × p₂ × p₃ × p₄ = 6545

Factorize 6545:

6545 ÷ 5 = 1309

1309 ÷ 7 = 187

187 ÷ 11 = 17

Thus, the prime factors of 6545 are:

6545 = 5 × 7 × 11 × 17

So, the first four prime numbers are:

p₁ = 5, p₂ = 7, p₃ = 11, p₄ = 17

Step 2: The product of the last four prime numbers:

p₂ × p₃ × p₄ × p₅ = 24871

We already know that p₂ = 7, p₃ = 11, p₄ = 17, so substitute these values into the equation:

7 × 11 × 17 × p₅ = 24871

Calculate the product of the first three primes:

7 × 11 = 77

77 × 17 = 1309

Now, solve for p₅:

1309 × p₅ = 24871

p₅ = 24871 ÷ 1309

p₅ = 19

Therefore, the last prime number is:

p₅ = 19

Given:

The number of men = 1200, and the food lasts for 15 days.

When the number of men increases by 1800, the total number of men becomes 1200 + 1800 = 3000.

Concept:

Food is inversely proportional to the number of men when the total amount of food remains constant. If the number of men increases, the number of days the food will last decreases.

Formula used:

Initial number of men × Initial number of days = Final number of men × Final number of days

Calculations:

1200 × 15 = 3000 × x

18000 = 3000 × x

x = 18000 / 3000

x = 6

Answer: The food will last for 6 days.

Given:

A shopkeeper sells 90 pens and makes a profit equal to the selling price of 30 pens.

Let:

Cost price of one pen = C

Selling price of one pen = S

Total selling price of 90 pens = 90 × S

Total cost price of 90 pens = 90 × C

Total profit = Selling price of 30 pens = 30 × S

Formula used:

Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

Step 1: Calculate the cost price of 90 pens:

Total profit = Total selling price - Total cost price

30 × S = (90 × S) - (90 × C)

Simplify:

30 × S = 90 × (S - C)

Simplify further:

S - C = (30 / 90) × S = (1 / 3) × S

So, Cost Price per pen (C) = S - (1 / 3) × S = (2 / 3) × S

Step 2: Calculate the profit percentage:

Profit per pen = S - C = S - (2 / 3) × S = (1 / 3) × S

Profit Percentage = (Profit per pen / Cost Price per pen) × 100

Profit Percentage = [(1 / 3) × S / (2 / 3) × S] × 100

Profit Percentage = (1 / 2) × 100 = 50%

Answer: The profit percentage is 50%.

Given:

Devendra leaves home at 8:25 am and reaches the office at 9:55 am every day. Therefore, the total time taken is:

9:55 am - 8:25 am = 1 hour 30 minutes (or 90 minutes).

On a particular day, he covers:

 3/10 of the total distance at 6/7 of his normal speed, and

 7/10 of the total distance at 7/6 of his normal speed.

To find: The time Devendra reaches the office on this particular day.

Solution:

Step 1: Normal time to cover the whole distance

Let the total distance be D and the normal speed be S.

The normal time taken to cover the entire distance is:

Time = D / S = 90 minutes

Step 2: Time for the first part of the journey (3/10 of the distance)

Distance for the first part = (3/10) × D

Speed for the first part = (6/7) × S

Time for the first part:

Time = (3/10 × D) / (6/7 × S)

Simplifying: Time = (3/10 × D) × (7/6 × 1/S) = (7/20) × (D / S)

Since we know D / S = 90 minutes from the normal time:

Time = (7/20) × 90 = 31.5 minutes

Step 3: Time for the second part of the journey (7/10 of the distance)

Distance for the second part = (7/10) × D

Speed for the second part = (7/6) × S

Time for the second part:

Time = (7/10 × D) / (7/6 × S)

Time = (7/10 × D) × (6/7 × 1/S) = (6/10) × (D / S)

Since we know D / S = 90 minutes from the normal time:

Time = (6/10) × 90 = 54 minutes

Step 4: Total time taken for the journey

Total time = Time for the first part + Time for the second part

Total time = 31.5 minutes + 54 minutes = 85.5 minutes

Step 5: Time Devendra reaches the office

Devendra leaves home at 8:25 am, and the time taken is 85.5 minutes (1 hour 25 minutes and 30 seconds).

Therefore, Devendra reaches the office at:

8:25 am + 1 hour 25 minutes 30 seconds = 9:50:30 am.

Answer: Devendra reaches the office at 9:50:30 am.

Given:

The LCM of two co-prime numbers is 667, and one of the numbers is 23. We need to find the other number.

Step 1: Understand the relationship between LCM and co-prime numbers:

When two numbers are co-prime, their LCM is the product of the two numbers. So, we can use the formula:

LCM(a, b) = a × b

Where a and b are the two co-prime numbers.

Step 2: Apply the given information:

Let the other number be x. Since the LCM of the two co-prime numbers is 667, we have:

23 × x = 667

Step 3: Solve for x:

x = 667 / 23

x = 29

Therefore, the other number is 29.

Given:

The employee's salary is first increased by 45% and then decreased by 45%.

To find:

The effective change in the employee's salary.

Solution:

Step 1: Let the initial salary be S

Initial salary = S

Step 2: Increase by 45%

The salary after a 45% increase is:

New salary = S + 45% of S = S + 0.45S = 1.45S

Step 3: Decrease by 45%

Now, the salary is decreased by 45%. The new salary after a 45% decrease on the increased salary (1.45S) is:

New salary = 1.45S - 45% of 1.45S = 1.45S × (1 - 0.45) = 1.45S × 0.55 = 0.7975S

Step 4: Calculate the effective change

The effective change is the difference between the new salary (0.7975S) and the initial salary (S):

Effective change = 0.7975S - S = -0.2025S

Step 5: Convert the change to percentage

The effective change as a percentage of the initial salary is:

Effective change percentage = (-0.2025S / S) × 100 = -20.25%

Answer:

The effective change in the employee's salary is a decrease of 20.25%.