Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 03 Dec, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Krishna Nagar

Key Points

• Krishna Nagar is a para-badminton player, and is associated with the following:
• 2020 Summer Paralympics: Won a gold medal in the men's singles SH6 event
• 2024 Paris Paralympics: Defended his title and competed in the men's singles badminton event
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Recipient of the award for para-badminton
• World champion: Won the title in Thailand earlier in 2024

Additional Information

• Sumit Antil – A para-athlete from India specializing in javelin throw. He won a gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics in the Men's Javelin Throw F64 event, setting a new world record with a throw of 68.55 meters.
• Manish Narwal – A para-shooter who won a gold medal in the Men's 50m Pistol SH1 event at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics. His achievement was notable for his resilience, winning the event with a Paralympic record score.
• Avani Lekhara – A para-shooter who won two medals at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics: a gold in the 10m Air Rifle Women SH1 and a bronze in the 50m Rifle 3 Position Women SH1. She became the first Indian woman to win gold at the Paralympics.

The correct answer is Mizroram

Key Points

• Mizoram is the second most literate state in India according to the 2011 Census, with a literacy rate of 91.33%: 
• Mizoram: 91.33%
• Kerala:93.91%
• Mizoram's high literacy rate is also reflected in its female literacy rate, which was 89.27% in 2011.
• The state government has implemented policies to improve literacy rates, especially for women.
• The two most literate districts in India are in Mizoram, with Serchhip and Aizawl having literacy rates of 98.76% and 98.50%, respectively.

The correct answer is Kathak

Key Points

• Sitara Devi was a Kathak dancer:
• Known for: A renowned Kathak dancer who popularized the classical dance form
• Awards: Received the Padma Shri, Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, Nritya Nipun, and Kalidas Samman
• Performances: Performed at prestigious venues around the world, including the Royal Albert Hall in London and the Carnegie Hall in New York
• Nickname: Known as the "Nritya Samragini", or Empress of Dance
• Other accomplishments: Also an actress and singer, appearing in 52 movies, including Roti, Najma, and Aabroo
• Born: In Kolkata on November 8, 1920
• Died: On November 25, 2014 at Jaslok Hospital
• Introduced Kathak to Bollywood: A pioneer who introduced the classical art form to mainstream Bollywood
• Contribution to Kathak: Her performances helped make Kathak a respectable dance form and gain global recognition
• Kathak is a classical dance form that is usually performed solo and focuses on footwork.
• It is the only classical dance that is associated with Hindustani or North Indian music.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam
• A classical dance from Tamil Nadu, India. It expresses Hindu and Jain spiritual ideas and South Indian religious themes.
• Bharatanatyam is known for its strong lines, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
• Kathakali
• A classical dance from Kerala, India. It involves storytelling through footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions, accompanied by music and vocal performance
• Kuchipudi
• A classical dance from Andhra Pradesh, India. The name Kuchipudi comes from a village in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Paralympic Shooting

Key Points

• Avani Lekhara is associated with Paralympic shooting:
• Achievements
• Avani Lekhara is an Indian rifle shooter who won two gold medals in the 10m rifle event at the 2020 and 2024 Paralympics.
• She is the first Indian woman to win two gold medals at the Paralympics.
• Avani was initially drawn to archery, but transitioned to shooting in 2015 after being inspired by Abhinav Bindra.
• She has set world records in para shooting.
• Avani competes in the SH1 rifle shooting class, where athletes with impairments in their legs, such as amputation or paraplegia, can support the weight of the rifle themselves

Additional Information

 

• Freestyle Wrestling (Para-wrestling)
• Para-wrestling, a sport for athletes with disabilities, includes freestyle wrestling in its competitions.
• This discipline is part of the Paralympic Games, and the rules and techniques are similar to regular freestyle wrestling, with adaptations to meet the needs of athletes with impairments.
• Wrestlers compete in weight categories, and the events are divided based on the type of impairment.
• India has had strong performers in this sport, such as Sushil Kumar and Ravi Kumar Dahiya in regular wrestling, while para-wrestlers like Sumit and Deepak have excelled in their categories.
• Para-athletics
• Para-athletics includes track and field events for athletes with physical, visual, or intellectual impairments. Some popular events are:
• Track events: 100m, 200m, and 400m sprints, long-distance running, and relay events.
• Field events: Shot put, discus, javelin, and long jump.
• Para-athletics classifications depend on the athlete’s disability. For instance, wheelchair athletes might compete in different classes than those with limb differences.
• Sumit Antil (javelin) and Mariyappan Thangavelu (high jump) are examples of Indian para-athletes who have made significant achievements in this area.
• Para-badminton
• Para-badminton is one of the fastest-growing para-sports, and it was introduced to the Paralympic Games in 2020.
• It includes both singles and doubles events in men's and women's categories. Athletes with a range of disabilities, such as wheelchair users, athletes with visual impairments, and amputees, compete in this sport.
• The classification system in para-badminton helps ensure fair competition based on the athlete's level of impairment. India has excelled in this sport, with players like Pramod Bhagat (who won a gold medal in Tokyo 2020) and Manasi Joshi (a world champion in para-badminton).

The correct answer is Article 23-24

Key Points

• Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution are related to the Right Against Exploitation:
• Article 23
• Prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and any act of compelling a person to work without wages.
• It also recognizes the inherent dignity and rights of individuals.
• Article 24
• Prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, and other hazardous jobs.
• It also bars the employment of children between 14 and 18 years of age in any hazardous occupations.
• The Right Against Exploitation is one of the fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.
• The Constitution's Articles 12 to 35 provide for six Fundamental Rights of India.

Additional Information

• Articles 28–29 of the Indian Constitution are part of the Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution, which also includes: 
• Article 28: Deals with the freedom of religion in educational institutions
• Article 29: Deals with cultural and educational rights, including the right to conserve a distinct language, script, or culture, and the right to be admitted to state-maintained educational institutions without discrimination
• Articles 25–28: Deal with the freedom of religion
• Article 32: Deals with the right to constitutional remedies
• Here are some other fundamental rights in the Constitution:
• Articles 14–18: Deal with the right to equality
• Articles 19–22: Deal with the right to freedom

The correct answer is Gurjara- Pratihara

Key Points

• Nagabhatta I established the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in the Malwa region of India in the 8th century:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled over northern and western India from the 8th to 11th century.
• They were also known as the Gurjara. The dynasty played a significant role in India's defense against Arab invaders.
• They were also known for their contributions to art, culture, and architecture.
• The dynasty declined due to dynastic strife.
• The final blow came when Indra III of the Rashtrakutas raided the Gurjara-Pratihara capital of Kannauj.

Additional Information

• Tomaras
• Ruled parts of present-day Haryana and Delhi from the 8th to 12th centuries.
• The Tomaras were a Rajput clan, and their rule is documented in coins and inscriptions. The Chahamanas of Shakambhari displaced the Tomaras in the 12th century.
• Chauhans
• Ruled in Rajasthan, particularly in the regions around Delhi, Ajmer, and Ranthambore. Prithviraja III, a Chauhan ruler, defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1191, but was defeated by Ghori himself in 1192.
• Paramars
• Ruled in Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat, especially around Malwa.
• The Paramaras of Malwa were one of the feudatories of the Pratihara empire that declared independence.

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points 

• The Election Commission of India was established in 1950.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body established by the Constitution of India with the mandate to oversee and regulate elections throughout the country.
• Article 324 of the Constitution empowers the Election Commission with the authority and responsibility for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to various offices, including parliament, state legislatures, the presidency, and the vice presidency.
• As such, the Election Commission functions as a nationwide entity, serving both the Central government and the state governments.
• This esteemed body administers elections for a multitude of governmental positions, including the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils, as well as the offices of the President and Vice President of the nation.
• The Election Commission operates within the framework provided by the Constitution, as stipulated in Article 324, and implements relevant electoral laws such as the Representation of the People Act

Important Points

• Established in 1950, the Election Commission initially comprised only one Chief Election Commissioner.
• However, on October 16, 1989, ahead of the 1989 General Election, two additional Commissioners were appointed, albeit for a brief period until January 1, 1990.
• Subsequently, the Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989, was enacted, transforming the commission into a multi-member body. Since then, a three-member Commission has been operational, with decisions made through majority voting.
• Situated in New Delhi, the commission is supported by its secretariat. Assisting the Election Commissioners are Deputy Election Commissioners, typically comprising Indian Administrative Service officers.
• Rajiv Kumar, a former Indian Administrative Service officer born on February 19, 1960, assumed office as the 25th Chief Election Commissioner of India on May 15, 2022, succeeding Sushil Chandra.

The correct answer is Gautamiputra

Key Points

• The Satavahana king who restored the Satavahana realm to its earlier greatness around 125 CE was Gautamiputra Satakarni.
• He is widely regarded for his military prowess and efforts to restore the strength and territorial integrity of the Satavahana Empire, which had weakened due to internal strife and external invasions.
• Gautamiputra Satakarni is known for his successful campaigns against the Kshatrapas (Western Kshatrapas) and other invaders, which allowed the Satavahanas to regain control over large parts of western and central India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Stupas

Key Points

• Harmika is a feature of Buddhist stupas.
• It is a balcony-like structure that represents the home of the gods.
• Other features of Buddhist stupas include:
• Anda: A hemispherical mound
• Yashti: A mast that rises from the harmika
• Umbrella: Surrounds the harmika
• Railing: Separates the sacred space from the outside world
• Card: Richly installed at the four cardinal points
• Elevation: Provides a vertical perspective
• Toranas: Decorated gateways at the cardinal directions
• Medhi: A circular terrace
• Buddhist Architecture of India - RajRAS | RAS Exam Preparation
• Stupas are dome-shaped structures that symbolize the universe and the path to enlightenment.
• The dome represents the universe, and the square base symbolizes the earth.

The correct answer is Government of India Act,1935

Key Points

• The federal scheme, judiciary, and governors system of the Constitution of India are drawn from the Government of India Act of 1935:
• Federal system: The Act established a federal system of government with a central government and autonomous provincial governments.
• Judiciary: The Act established a federal court.
• Governors: The Act vested the executive authority of provinces in the Governors.
• The Act also established the groundwork for the bicameral legislature, with a Council of State (upper house) and a Federal Assembly (lower house).
• The Act was passed by the British Parliament in August 1935 and came into effect in 1937.
• It was a significant development in India's constitutional and political history.

The correct answer is Beijing 2008

Key Points

• Abhinav Bindra is a retired sport shooter and he is also an Indian businessman.
• Bindra is India's first individual Olympic gold medalist.
• He won the gold medal in the 10-meter air rifle event at the 2008 Summer Olympics.
• Since 1980, It was also India's first Olympic gold medal.
• He won the Arjuna award in 2000.
• He was also awarded "Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna" in 2002 and "Padma Bhushan" in 2009.

Additional Information 

• Bindra is the first shooter to have held concurrently the world and Olympic titles for the men's 10-meter air rifle event and having earned those honors at the Summer Olympics 2008 and the ISSF World Shooting Championships 2006.
• He has also won 9 medals at the Commonwealth Games.
• Bindra also won 3 gold medals at the Asian Games.

The correct answer is Sri Narayana Guru

Key Points

• Sri Narayana Guru preached the doctrine of "one caste, one religion, one God for all men".
• He also started the Dharma Paripalana Yogam Movement on this idea

Additional Information

• Here are some other social reformers and their contributions:
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy
• Founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to promote social equality and monotheism.
• He also advocated for a modern education system that included Western subjects and stressed the importance of female education.
• Mukund Das (Mahima Gosain)
• Founded the Satya Mahima Dharma in the 1860s to preach the existence of only one god.
• Bal Shastri Jambhekar and Dadoba Panderung
• Founded the Paramahansa Mandali in 1849 to work for the abolition of caste.
• Baba Dayal Das
• Launched the Nirankari movement in the 1840s to worship the formless God (Nirankar).
• Thakur Singh Sandhawalia and Giani Gian Singh
• Founded the Singh Sabha of Amritsar in 1873 to restore the purity of Sikhism
• Jyotirao Phule
• Founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 to educate the lower classes and make them aware of their rights.
• He fought for caste equality, established schools for girls in Maharashtra, and supported the causes of Black slaves in America.
• Swami Vivekananda
• Founded the Ramakrishna Mission, a Hindu religious and spiritual organization, on May 1, 1897.

The correct answer is the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act

Key Points

• The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 allows the same person to be appointed as the Governor of two or more states in India.
• This amendment is related to the reorganization of states.
• When a person is appointed as the Governor of more than one state, the President determines how the emoluments and allowances are shared between the states.
• The person is also entitled to any other emoluments, allowances, and privileges that Parliament may determine

Additional Information

• 9th Constitutional Amendment Act
• This act of 1960 gave the President the power to suspend the operation of any article or provision of the National Capital Territory.
• 11th Constitutional Amendment Act
• This act of 1961 changed the process for electing the Vice-President.
• The Vice-President is now elected by members of both Houses of Parliament in a joint meeting.
• 18th Constitutional Amendment Act
• This act was passed in 1966.

The correct answer is sunspots

Key Points

• Dark patches on the sun are called sunspots:
• Sunspots are cooler regions on the sun's surface that appear dark because they are surrounded by a hotter surface.
• They are caused by intense magnetic fields that inhibit the flow of hot gas from the sun's interior to the surface.
• Sunspots can be the size of planets. They are typically made up of a dark center called the umbra and a lighter outer region called the penumbra.
• Sunspots have magnetic fields that are thousands of times stronger than Earth's.
• These magnetic fields can create active regions on the sun that can lead to solar flares and coronal mass ejections.
• Sunspots can look like specks on the sun's surface.
• One theory for how sunspots are created is that the sun's rotation causes the magnetic field to become "wound up".
• This stretching creates tubes in the magnetic field that break the surface and create areas of lower temperature

The correct answer is Stone

Key Points

• The pillars in stupas built during Ashoka’s reign were primarily made of stone.
• Ashoka's reign (circa 268–232 BCE) is known for the construction of numerous stupas and pillars as part of his efforts to spread Buddhism across India.
• The Ashokan pillars were made of polished sandstone, not granite or marble.
• These pillars often featured inscriptions detailing Ashoka's edicts and policies, which were written in Prakrit and other languages.
• Bricks were used in the construction of the stupa structures, but the pillars themselves were carved out of stone, particularly sandstone.
• These pillars are iconic symbols of Ashoka’s commitment to Buddhist teachings and his role in the spread of the religion.
• The most famous Ashokan pillar is the Lion Capital at Sarnath, which is also the national emblem of India.

The correct answer is Only II

Key Points

• GDP is used to measure human development.
• This statement is incorrect.
• GDP measures the economic output of a country but does not directly measure human development, which is better captured by indices like the Human Development Index (HDI).
• GDP focuses on the value of goods and services produced, not factors such as health, education, or inequality.
• Externalities are not taken into account while estimating GDP.
• This statement is correct.
• GDP does not account for externalities, which are the unintended positive or negative effects of economic activities (e.g., pollution, environmental degradation).
• These impacts are not reflected in GDP calculations, even though they influence societal well-being.
• Services provided by housewives are included while estimating GDP.
• This statement is incorrect.
• GDP only includes market-based activities—those involving monetary transactions.
• Services like household work done by housewives (or unpaid domestic labor) are not included because they do not involve monetary transactions in the formal economy.

The correct answer is Ali Akbar Khan

Key Points

• Ali Akbar Khan was the son of Ustad Allauddin Khan:
• Ali Akbar Khan was a Hindustani classical musician who played the sarod.
• He was a member of the Maihar gharana and was known for his virtuosity.
• He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1967 and the Padma Vibhushan in 1989.
• He was also the first Indian musician to receive a MacArthur Fellowship in 1991.

Additional Information

• Ustad Allauddin Khan was also a musician who formed an orchestra troupe called the "Maihar String Band". He was honored with the title of "Khan Saheb" by the British Government. He received the Sangeet Natak Academy Award in 1952, the Padmabhushan in 1958, and the Padmabibhushan in 1971.
• Other descendants of Ustad Allauddin Khan who became musicians include his daughter Annapurna Devi, nephew Raja Hossain Khan, and grandson Aashish Khan.

The correct answer is the 4th Five-Year Plan

Key Points

• The family planning program was undertaken in India during the Fourth Five-Year Plan, which was implemented from 1969 to 1974.
• The plan gave family planning the highest priority, second only to agricultural production.
• The plan set targets for sterilization and IUCD insertions.
• The plan aimed to reduce the birth rate from 39 per thousand population to 32 per thousand population by 1973-74.
• The plan aimed to increase the number of users of conventional contraceptives from 3.24 million in 1969-70 to 10 million in 1973-74.
• The plan created the Department of Family Planning within the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• The plan received the public commitment of the top leadership in the country.

Additional Information

• 2nd Five-Year Plan
• This plan was from 1956 to 1961 and was focused on rapid industrialization, especially in basic and heavy industries.
• It was also known as the Mahalanobis Plan and was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• 5th Five-Year Plan
• This plan was from 1974 to 1978 and was focused on removing poverty and achieving self-reliance.
• It introduced the Indian National Highway System for the first time.
• 7th Five-Year Plan
• This plan was from 1985 to 1990 and had a growth rate of 6%. It was successful despite severe drought conditions for the first three years.
• The guiding principles of this plan were growth, equity, social justice, self-reliance, and improved efficiency and productivity.

The correct answer is General Motors Company

Key Points

• The company that is NOT an Indian multinational company isGeneral Motors Company
• General Motors Company (GM) is an American multinational corporation headquartered in Detroit, Michigan, and is not an Indian company.
• The other companies are Indian multinational corporations:
• Arvind Mills Limited – An Indian multinational company known for its textiles and apparel business.
• Tata Consultancy Services Limited (TCS) – A global IT services and consulting company, part of the Indian Tata Group.
• Asian Paints Limited – An Indian multinational company specializing in manufacturing paints and coatings.

The correct answer is Barmer

Key Points

• The HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Ltd (HRRL) is being constructed in the Balotra district of Rajasthan, in the Pachpadra Tehsil:
• The HRRR is a joint venture between the Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and the Government of Rajasthan (GoR):
• HPCL holds 74% of the stake in the HRRR, while the GoR holds the remaining 26%.
• The HRRR is a 9 Million Metric Tonnes Per Annum (MMTPA) refinery and petrochemical complex.
• It can process a mix of imported and local crudes.
• Expansion
• The refinery capacity is planned to be expanded from 9.0 to 18.0 MMTPA in the future.
• Environmental benefits
• The refinery complex includes a wetland habitat for migratory birds, natural surface water body rejuvenation, and avenue plantation.
• Completion
• The project was originally scheduled for completion by December 2022, but was delayed due to pandemic-related shutdowns.
• The refinery is now expected to be commissioned by January 2025.

The correct answer is 1911

Key Points

• Narayan Malhar Joshi, a follower of Gokhale, founded the Social Service League in Bombay in 1911.
• The league's goals were to improve the working and living conditions of the masses.
• Educational initiatives
• The league offered educational programs to help uneducated male and female laborers and mill workers.
• Training programs
• The league trained volunteers to help with relief work during disasters like floods, famines, and epidemics.
• Social service
• The league collected and studied social facts, and discussed social issues to form public opinion.
• Legal assistance
• The league provided legal assistance and advice to the poor and uneducated.
• Schools, libraries, and more
• The league ran schools, libraries, reading rooms, nurseries, and cooperative societies.
• Joshi was also the general secretary of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) from 1925 to 1929 and from 1940 to 1948.
• He left the AITUC in 1931 to form the All India Trade Union Federation

The correct answer is Mary Kom

Key Points

• Unbreakable is an autobiography by Indian boxer Mary Kom and co-authored by Dina Serto
• It was published in the year of 2013.
• The book is about Kom's life, including her childhood, struggles, and success in boxing.
• It also covers her attempts to study despite household and farm work, which many young Indian girls can relate to.

Additional Information

• Laishram Sarita Devi
• Sport: Boxing
• Achievements:
• Former world champion in the lightweight category.
• Won the gold medal at the 2006 World Championships and several medals at the Asian Games and Asian Championships.
• Sarita is known for her aggressive fighting style and resilience in the ring.
• Notable Moment:
• At the 2014 Asian Games, Sarita protested a controversial decision in her semifinal bout, which became a widely discussed incident in sports ethics.
• Lovlina Borgohain
• Sport: Boxing
• Achievements:
• Won a bronze medal in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the women’s welterweight category.
• Two-time bronze medalist at the World Championships (2018 and 2019).
• Vijender Singh
• Sport: Boxing (Amateur and Professional)
• Achievements:
• Won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, becoming the first Indian boxer to achieve this feat.
• Also won medals at the World Championships, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.

The correct answer is the Nagoya protocol

Key Points

• The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• It focuses on the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources.
• Key Objectives:
• Conservation of Biological Diversity: Ensures that ecosystems, species, and genetic resources are preserved.
• Sustainable Use: Promotes the sustainable use of genetic resources for long-term ecological balance.
• Equitable Benefit Sharing: Establishes mechanisms to share the benefits derived from genetic resources with the communities or countries that provide them.

Additional Information

• Rio Protocol:
• Refers to the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (1992), which laid the groundwork for sustainable development principles but does not focus specifically on biodiversity.
• Geneva Protocol:
• A treaty related to the prohibition of the use of chemical and biological weapons in warfare (1925). It is unrelated to biodiversity.
• Montreal Protocol:
• An international treaty aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out the production of substances that deplete it (1987).

The correct answer is 1928​

Key Points

• The Hindustan Socialist 'Republican Association formed in 1928 at Ferozeshah Kotla in Delhi
• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA):
• Hindustan Republic Association at a historic meeting in the ruins of Ferozshah Kotla in Delhi was converted into Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in September 1928.
• Under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of HRA was changed to Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• The participants included Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, Bhagwaticharan Vohra from Punjab and Bejoy Kumar Sinha, Shiv Verma and Jaidev Kapur from the United Provinces.
• The HSRA decided to work under a collective leadership and adopted socialism as its official goal.

The correct answer is Mohiniattam

Key Points

• Gopika Varma is a famous Mohiniyattam dancer who received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2018
• Here are some other awards and accolades that Gopika Varma has received:
• Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Award, Kalaimamani, Kalashree, and Nritya Choodamani title.
• Gopika Varma was born in Trivandrum, Kerala on July 11, 1969.

Additional Information

• She trained in Mohiniyattam under several gurus, including Kalyanikutty Amma, Chandrika Kurup, Girija, Sreedevi Rajan, and Kalamandalam Sugandhi.
• She also studied other aspects of dance, such as Abhinaya and Sopanam music.
• Gopika Varma is now based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• She is the founder of Kalavardhini, a trust that supports the teaching and promotion of classical dance.
• She also teaches Bharatnatyam at Kalavardhini.

The correct answer is Jim Corbett, National Park

Key Points

• ​Jim Corbett National Park is the first national park in India
• Jim Corbett National Park is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, India.
• It was established in the year 1936, making it India's oldest national park.
• The park was originally named Hailey National Park, after Sir Malcolm Hailey, the Governor of the United Provinces at the time.
• It was later renamed after Jim Corbett, a renowned naturalist, conservationist, and former tiger hunter.
• The primary purpose of the park is to protect endangered Bengal tigers, as it was the first to come under the Project Tiger initiative in 1973.​
• The park is now over 1,300 square kilometers in size and has a variety of flora and fauna.
• A national park is a protected area that is designed to protect and develop wildlife and its environment.
• As of January 2023, India has 106 national parks that cover 1.35% of the country's geographical area.

Additional Information

• Gir National Park
• It is located in Gujarat
• Established: 1965
• Famous for: The only habitat of the Asiatic Lions in the world.
• Significance: Plays a vital role in conserving Asiatic Lions and supports a diverse ecosystem including leopards, antelopes, and crocodiles.
• Kaziranga National Park
• It is located in Assam
• Established: 1905 (as a reserve forest, declared a national park in 1974).
• Famous for**: The one-horned rhinoceros, which constitutes the largest population of this species in the world.**
• Significance: A UNESCO World Heritage Site, it also supports tigers, elephants, and swamp deer, forming part of the Big Five of Kaziranga.
• Rajaji National Park
• It is located inUttarakhand
• Established: 1983
• Famous for: Its population of Asian elephants and other wildlife, including leopards and tigers.
• Significance: Located in the Shivalik range, it is known for its diverse flora and fauna and serves as an important wildlife corridor.

The correct answer is Article 112

Key Points

• The government budget is prepared under Article 112 of the Constitution of India.
• This article states that the President must present an annual financial statement, also known as the Union Budget, to both houses of Parliament.
• The statement includes estimated government receipts and expenditures for the financial year, which runs from April 1 to March 31.
• The budget must also be approved by Parliament.
• The annual financial statement includes: 
• Salaries, allowances, and pensions
• Judgments, decrees, and awards
• Other expenditure declared by Constitution or Parliament

Additional Information

• Article 109
• Provides the procedure for the passage of Money Bills in Parliament.
• States that a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and must be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.
• The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill but can suggest recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
• Article 101
• Explains conditions under which a Member of Parliament (MP) may vacate their seat.
• If a person is elected to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, or to Parliament and a state legislature, they must vacate one seat.
• An MP's seat is also vacated if they are absent for 60 consecutive days without permission.
• Article 100
• Describes the quorum required for either House of Parliament to conduct business (10% of the total membership).
• States how voting is conducted in Parliament and that decisions are usually made by a majority of members present and voting.
• Ensures that the functioning of the House is not affected by vacancies.

The correct answer is U Srinivas

Key Points

• U. Srinivas was a renowned mandolin virtuoso in Carnatic music.
• He is credited with popularizing the mandolin, a Western instrument, in Indian classical music.
• Known as the "Mandolin Maestro," Srinivas started performing at a very young age and gained international fame for his innovative and soulful performances.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Odissi

Key Points

• The terms Mahari and Gotipua are associated with the Indian classical dance form of Odissi
• Mahari
• A dancer who performed the Mahari Dance, which is the origin of Odissi.
• Maharis would sing verses from the Gita Govinda to please the divine trinity of Lord Jagannatha.
• Gotipua
• A young boy who was dressed as a female to perform the Gotipua dance, which originated as an offshoot of the Mahari tradition.
• Gotipua is a traditional dance form in Odisha where young boys dress as women to praise Jagannath and Krishna.
• Odissi is one of the eight Indian Classical Dances and is known for its storytelling through movement, expression, and rhythm.
• Many of its themes are drawn from Hindu mythology and folklore.

Additional Information

• Kuchipudi
• This dance form is from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• It is said to manifest earthly elements in the human body.
• Some famous proponents of this dance form include Radha Reddy and Raja Reddy, Yamini Krishnamurthy, and Indrani Rehman.
• Odissi
• This dance form is from Odisha.
• It is said to symbolize water.
• Some famous proponents of this dance form include Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Kelu Charan Mohapatra, Sonal Mansingh, Sharon Lowen, and MYrla Barvie.
• Sattriya
• This dance form is from Assam.
• It is governed by strict principles for footwork, music, hasta mudras, and aharyas.

The correct answer is General Malik Ghulam Muhammad

Key Points

• General Malik Ghulam Muhammad, who was the Governor-General of Pakistan, was the Chief Guest at India's Republic Day Parade in 1955.
• Ghulam Muhammad Malik (also called G.M. Malik) is a Pakistani former military officer who commanded the 10 Corps, Rawalpindi of the Pakistan Army.
• 10 Corps was responsible for defending the entire Line of Control between Pakistan administered Kashmir and the Indian-administered Kashmir.
• This was a significant event in the early years of India-Pakistan relations, as it reflected efforts to foster goodwill and diplomacy between the two neighboring countries.

Additional Information

• Abdel Fatah-al-Sisi: The President of Egypt, who was the Chief Guest for India's Republic Day Parade in 2023.
• Queen Elizabeth II: She has never been a Chief Guest at India's Republic Day celebrations.
• Nelson Mandela: The President of South Africa, who was the Chief Guest for the Republic Day Parade in 1995, marking the strong ties between India and post-apartheid South Africa.

The correct answer is Aga Khan Cup

Key Points

• The Aga Khan Cup is related to hockey
• The Agha Khan Cup is a prestigious hockey tournament in India that originated in Mumbai.
• It's named after the Aga Khan, a prominent figure in the early 20th century.
• The tournament has been instrumental in the development of hockey in India.
• The Aga Khan or his successor, Aga Khan IV, presents a new trophy each time the cup is won outright.
• Ireland won the cup outright in 1977, 1978, and 1979.
• Other trophies associated with hockey include:
• Bombay Gold Cup,Beighton Cup, Dhyan Chand Trophy, Lady Ratan Tata Trophy, Nehru Trophy, Rangaswami Trophy, Scindia Trophy, World Cup, Masters Champions Trophy

Additional Information

• Thomas Cup
• A trophy awarded to the winners of men's international badminton team competitions.
• The International Badminton Federation (IBF) manages the competitions, and Sir George Thomas donated the cup in 1939.
• Ranji Trophy
• A trophy associated with cricket.
• Davis Cup
• A trophy associated with men's tennis.
• The International Tennis Federation (ITF) organizes the annual competitions between teams from over 150 countries.
• The Davis Cup was originally called the International Lawn Tennis Trophy and was first played in 1900

The correct answer is the Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Key Points

• The Make in India scheme is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• Launched by: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 25, 2014
• Goal: To promote India as a global manufacturing destination
• Focus areas: New processes, new infrastructure, new sectors, and new mindset
• Achievements: India has emerged as a global growth oasis
• The Make in India initiative is a collaboration between the central government, state governments, and various ministries and departments.
• The central government formulates schemes, programs, and policies, while the states have their own schemes to attract investments.

Additional Information

• Ministry of External Affairs
• This ministry offers services like the Tatkaal Passport Service, which allows applicants to receive their passports faster than the regular process.
• The ministry also offers the Know India Programme (KIP), which aims to strengthen the connection between Indian diaspora youth and their ancestral homeland.
• Ministry of Finance
• The current Finance Minister of India is Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman.
• Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
• This ministry is committed to fostering transparency, accountability, and fairness in AI practices.

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

• As per the Census of India 2011, Rajasthan had a population density of 200 people per square kilometer, which is more than 100 people per square kilometer.
• Rajasthan, despite being the largest state in India by area, has a relatively low population density compared to other densely populated states but exceeds the 100 people/sq. km benchmark.

Additional Information

• Population Density of the Other States (2011 Census):
• Arunachal Pradesh: 17 people per sq. km, the lowest in India due to its large area and sparse population.
• Mizoram: 52 people per sq. km, reflecting its hilly terrain and smaller population.
• Sikkim: 86 people per sq. km, a sparsely populated Himalayan state.

Census 2011

• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
• The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India its population is more than the population of Brazil.

The correct answer is option 2

Key Points

• The Second Five-Year Plan in India was designed with a focus on industrialization under the guidance of P.C. Mahalanobis, an economist.
• It emphasized the development of heavy industries and the public sector to lay the foundation for long-term economic growth.
• The Second five-year plan was based on the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953.
• PC Mahalanobis established the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Calcutta in 1931 and for the same reason, he is known as the father of Indian Statistics. He was a member of the first Planning Commission of free India.

Additional Information

• The second five-year plan was for the year 1956-1961, this plan was based on the Russian model of industrialization.
• The second five-year plan focused on the development of the public sector and rapid Industrialisation. The plan attempted to determine a balanced allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximize long-run economic growth.
• As a result, hydroelectric power projects across the country and five steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela were established with the help of Russia, Britain (the U.K), and West Germany respectively. Coal production was increased. More railway lines were added all over the country.
• The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and Atomic Energy Commission of India was established to promote research in India.

The correct answer is Godavari

Key Points

• The Godavari River is known as the Dakshin Ganga, which translates to "Southern Ganges".
• It is the largest river in peninsular India and India's second-longest river after the Ganga.
• It originates in the Nasik district of Maharashtra from the slopes of the Western Ghats.
• It flows eastward across the Deccan plateau of peninsular India.
• Its tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.
• It has been revered in Hindu scriptures for many millennia.

Additional Information

• Tapi River (or Tapti River)
• Origin: Satpura range, Madhya Pradesh.
• Flows Through: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat.
• Length: Approximately 724 km.
• Outflow: Arabian Sea.
• One of the three major rivers in peninsular India that flow westward (others being the Narmada and Mahi).
• Narmada River
• Origin: Amarkantak Plateau, Madhya Pradesh.
• Flows Through: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat.
• Length: Approximately 1,312 km.
• Outflow: Arabian Sea.
• Known as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh," the Narmada flows through the picturesque Marble Rocks at Bhedaghat and is one of India's most sacred rivers.
• Kaveri River
• Origin: Talakaveri, Western Ghats, Karnataka.
• Flows Through: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu.
• Length: Approximately 800 km.
• Outflow: Bay of Bengal.
• Considered a sacred river, it supports agriculture and provides water for irrigation in southern India, especially Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

The correct answer is Nagaland

Key Points

• The Kundang Lem festival is celebrated in Nagaland
• Kundang Lem is celebrated on April 1st every year by the Chang tribe.
• The festival lasts for five days, with various cultural events and rituals taking place.
• It is monitored by the Haongang clan, which plays a significant role in overseeing the festivities and traditions.
• Kundang Lem holds cultural and religious significance for the Chang tribe, celebrating their heritage and community spirit.
• The Chang tribe of Nagaland is known for its unique cultural practices and traditions.
• The Chang community observes six major festivals in a year, including Kundang Lem, Poang Lüm, and Jeinyu Lem.
• The Haongang clan monitors these three festivals, and the Ung clan monitors the remaining three festivals.

Additional Information 

 

 

​

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

• Maharashtra is the leading producer of jowar in India. In 2024, Maharashtra produced approximately 1.4 million metric tons of jowar, followed by Karnataka and Rajasthan.
• Maharashtra and Karnataka produce 57.2% of India's jowar, while the next largest producers are Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh, which contribute 11.9%.
• Jowar is a cereal crop that can be grown in all seasons and is the fifth most important cereal crop in the world.
• It's rich in calcium, dietary fiber, and essential amino acids, and is used in dishes like dosas, idlis, porridge, and baked goods.

The correct answer is option 1929.

Key Points 

• The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed on 28th September 1929, to eradicate the evil of Child Marriage.
• It came into force on 1st April 1930.
• It is popularly known as Sarda Act.
• It made child marriage a Punishable and cognizable offense.
• Under the Act, the minimum age for a girl’s marriage was set to 14 years, and that for boys was fixed at 18 years.

Additional Information 

• The Act was amended in 1978 post-independence, in order to increase the age limit. The age limit was increased to 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.
• The Act still failed to be proven effective in restraining child marriages in India. One of the major reasons was the punishment under the Act.
• In order to bring reforms under the law, the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 was enacted, with increased punishment for the offenders.
• The new Child Marriage Amendment bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20th December 2021. The primary objective of this bill is to raise the legal marriage age for females from 18 to 21 in India.
• The justification behind this amendment is the enforcement of the Constitutional mandate of gender equality as the legal marriage age for males in India is 21.

The correct answer is Grassland

Key Points

• The biome with the subtype called "Tropical Savannah" is grassland:
• Tropical grasslands, also known as savannas, are grasslands with scattered trees.
• They are located between the tropical rainforest and desert biomes, near the equator, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• Savannas are known for their two distinct seasons: a wet season and a dry season.

Additional Information

• During the wet season, vegetation grows, including lush green grasses and wooded areas. In the dry season, there is very little rain.
• Savannas are important ecosystems that are frequently used for livestock grazing and may serve as carbon sinks.
• They are also known as "the big game country" or "a land of safari" because thousands of animals are trapped or killed each year by people from all over the world.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for collecting data and publishing literacy rates in India:
• Literacy rates
• The MoSPI publishes literacy rates for India and states, including gender-wise literacy rates for rural and urban areas.
• Census of India
• The MoSPI's National Statistical Office provides information on literacy rates, such as the 2017 literacy rate of 77.7%.
• The MoSPI also monitors the performance of the country's infrastructure sectors, central sector projects, and the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS).

Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• This ministry was formed in 1999 by merging the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
• It has two wings: Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• The Statistics Wing includes the National Statistical Office (NSO),
• which is made up of the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• The Programme Implementation (PI) Wing has three divisions:
• Central Twenty Point Programme (TPP), Infrastructure and Project Monitoring (IPM), and Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS).
• Ministry of Rural Development: The current Minister of Rural Development is Shri Shivraj Singh Chauhan.
• Ministry of External Affairs: The current Minister of External Affairs is Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.
• Ministry of Education: The current Minister of State for Education is Dr. Sukanta Majumdar.

The correct answer is a result of three separate cases before the Supreme Court

Key Points

• The collegium system for appointing judges to the High Court and Supreme Court in India came into existence as a result of three separate cases before the Supreme Court, known as the Three Judges Cases:
• Second Judges Case (1993)
• Established that "consultation" meant "concurrence" and that the Chief Justice of India's (CJI) opinion was institutional, not individual
• Third Judges Case (1998)
• The Supreme Court laid down nine guidelines for the functioning of the collegium, reinforcing the primacy of the judiciary over the executive
• The collegium system is a mechanism for appointing and transferring judges that is headed by the CJI and four other senior judges.
• The system was adopted to ensure democracy in the judicial system.
• However, it has been criticized for a number of reasons, including: Lack of transparency, Lack of established criteria for eligibility and selection, Lack of representation of marginalized communities, Potential for nepotism and favoritism, and Violation of the principle of checks and balances

The correct answer is Brihadratha

Key Points

• Brihadratha Maurya was the last ruler of the Mauryan Empire, ruling from 187–185 BCE:
• Brihadratha was assassinated by his general, Pushyamitra Shunga, who then established the Shunga Empire.
• Some other rulers of the Mauryan Empire include: 
• Chandragupta: Ruled from 320–298 BCE
• Bindusara: Ruled from 298–272 BCE
• Ashoka: Ruled from 268–232 BCE
• Dasharatha: Ruled from 232–224 BCE
• Samprati: Ruled from 224–215 BCE
• Shalishuka: Ruled from 215–202 BCE
• Devavarman: Ruled from 202–195 BCE
• Shatadhanva: Ruled from 195–187 BCE

Additional Information

• Dasharatha Maurya
• Dynasty: Maurya Dynasty
• Significance: Dasharatha Maurya was one of the ancient rulers of the Maurya dynasty, often noted for his reign before the rise of Emperor Ashoka. Not much is known about his reign, as historical records are sparse, but he is believed to have contributed to the consolidation of Mauryan rule in early periods.
• Shalishuka
• Dynasty: Maurya Dynasty
• Significance: Shalishuka was a king of the Maurya dynasty, who ruled after Ashoka's reign. He is most notable for being one of the successors during a period of relative instability within the Maurya Empire. His rule is not as well-documented as that of Ashoka, but he played a part in maintaining the empire's control in its later years.
• Samprati
• Dynasty: Maurya Dynasty
• Significance: Samprati was a Mauryan emperor, considered to be a follower of Jainism. After the reign of Ashoka, Samprati continued the promotion of Jainism and is credited with spreading Jain philosophy and establishing Jain centers across the empire. His reign marked a continuation of the influence of Jainism in the Maurya Empire following Ashoka's policies.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• The series of four wars fought between the British and the Kingdom of Mysore in South India during the 18th century was known as the Anglo-Mysore War.
• First Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1767-1769 AD.
• Governor: Lord Verelst was the governor during this period.
• In the first Anglo-Mysore, the British, the Nizam, and the Marathas fought together against Hyder Ali.
• Treaty of Madras: Hyder Ali wins against the British. A defence treaty was concluded in 1769.
• Second Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1780-1784 AD.
• Governor: Lord Warren Hastings was the governor during this period.
• In the second Anglo-Mysore, Hyder Ali, the Nizam, and the Marathas fought together against the British.
• Hyder Ali defeated Colonel Bailey.
• Hyder Ali died in 1782 during the Second Anglo-Mysore War and was succeeded by his son Tipu Sultan.
• Treaty of Mangalore: The Second Anglo-Mysore War ended with the signing of the Treaty of Mangalore by the Tipu Sultan in 1784.
• Third Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought between 1790-1792 AD.
• Governor: Lord Cornwallis was the governor during this period.
• In the third Anglo-Mysore, the British, the Nizam, and the Marathas fought together against Tipu Sultan.
• Treaty of Srirangapatna: It was signed by the Tipu Sultan in 1792.
• Fourth Anglo-Mysore War: It was fought in 1799.
• Governor: Lord Wellesley was the governor during this period.
• Tipu died in 1799 while defending the Mysore capital, Srirangapatna.
• The threat of the French to the British ended by the year 1799.

The correct answer is France

Key Points

• The principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity were taken from the French Revolution and were included in the Indian Constitution.
• These ideals were integral to the democratic philosophy that influenced the Constitution, particularly in promoting individual freedoms and social justice.
• These principles were central to the French motto "Liberté, égalité, fraternité", and they inspired the Indian leaders while drafting the Constitution.

Additional Information

• United Kingdom:
• India’s constitutional framework was influenced by the British model, especially the parliamentary system and the rule of law.
• The concept of the Cabinet system, bicameral legislature, and law-making procedure were all drawn from the UK's political system.
• Parliamentary sovereignty and common law were also inherited.
• Ireland:
• The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Irish Constitution.
• Ireland’s Constitution, which emphasized social welfare and justice, influenced India's approach to socio-economic rights.
• United States of America:
• The ideas of federalism and fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the US Constitution.
• The system of judicial review, where courts have the power to examine and invalidate laws inconsistent with the Constitution, was another influence from the United States.

The correct answer is Sattriya.

Key Points

• The Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15th century A.D by Srimanta Sankardev.
• Sattriya dance is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• It was recognized as a classical dance by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
• It is a classical dance of Assam.
• The dance form evolved and expanded as a distinctive style of dance later on.
• Due to its religious character and association with the Sattras, this dance style has been aptly named Sattriya.
• Srimanta Sankardev was an Assamese saint-scholar, poet, writer, dancer, actor, singer, artist, social-religious reformer, and significant person in the cultural and religious history of Assam, India. Srimanta Sankardev lived in the 15th and 16th centuries.

Additional InformationOther classical Dance forms of India:-

The correct answer is phytoplankton

Key Points

• In a pond ecosystem, the first trophic level includes phytoplankton
• In any ecosystem, the first trophic level is made up of producers. Phytoplankton are the producers in an aquatic ecosystem like a pond, and they produce their own food.
• Here are some other organisms and their trophic levels in a pond ecosystem: 
• Zooplankton: The second trophic level
• Small fish: The third trophic level

Additional Information

• Grasshopper
• A primary consumer, or herbivore, that is directly dependent on producers
• Cow
• A primary consumer, or herbivore, that is directly dependent on producers
• Phytoplankton
• A producer that uses sunlight to create energy through photosynthesis
• Zooplankton
• A consumer that is part of the plankton community, which is divided into phytoplankton (plants) and zooplankton (animals)

The correct answer is Articles 20 and 21

Key Points

• Articles 20 and 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantee protection against arbitrary arrest and detention and the right to life and personal liberty, respectively.
• These rights cannot be suspended even during the operation of a National Emergency (as per Article 359 of the Constitution).
• Specifically, Article 20 protects individuals against retroactive criminal laws and double jeopardy, while Article 21 ensures that no person can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

Additional Information

• Articles 14 and 15: These guarantee equality before the law and protection against discrimination, but they can be suspended during an emergency, except in certain cases of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Articles 23 and 24: These deal with prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor, but can be suspended during an emergency.
• Articles 18 and 19: Article 18 relates to the abolition of titles, and Article 19 guarantees freedom of speech and expression; both can be suspended during an emergency.

The correct answer is ​A.P.J Abdul Kalam.

Key Points

• A.P.J Abdul Kalam was the 11^th President of India.
• He served as the President of India from 2002 to 2007.
• 'Wings of Fire' is the autobiography of A.P.J Abdul Kalam.
• He is the first scientist to become the President of India.
• He is the first President of India to visit the Siachen glacier.
• He is the first President to vote in the Assembly election.
• The concept of the PURA(Providing Urban Amenities to Rural Areas) scheme was given by A.P.J Abdul Kalam.
• Billion beats e-newspaper was started by A.P.J Abdul Kalam.
• He was honored with the Bharat Ratna award in 1997.

Additional Information 

• Notable works of A.P.J Abdul Kalam are:
• India 2020.
• Ignited Minds.
• Indomitable Spirit.
• Advantage India: From Challenge to Opportunity.
• Playing It My Way is the autobiography of Sachin Tendulkar.
• My Country My Life is the autobiography of L. K. Advani.
• One Life Is Not Enough is the autobiography of K. Natwar Singh,

The correct answer is the Department of Agriculture and Farmer's Welfare

Key Points

• The Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is not a part of the financial sector:
• Financial sector
• The financial sector is made up of companies and individuals that offer financial services, such as banks, commercial institutions, brokers, and mortgage lenders.
• Non-financial sector
• The non-financial sector is made up of independent legal companies and market producers that produce goods and offer non-financial services.

Additional Information

• Investment banks
• Provide services to large corporations and institutional investors, and are involved in complex financial transactions.
• Investment banks may underwrite the issuance of new securities, manage initial public offerings (IPOs), and provide advice on mergers, acquisitions, and reorganizations.
• Commercial banks
• Provide services to consumers and small and medium-sized businesses, and are involved in accepting deposits, making loans, and safeguarding assets.
• Some examples of commercial banks include the State Bank of India (SBI), Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) Bank, and Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) Bank.
• Stock exchange operations
• Provide a continuous market for the purchase and sale of securities, and facilitate the evaluation of securities.
• Stock exchanges also encourage capital formation and provide safety and security in dealings.

The correct answer is Evaporation

Key Points

• Evaporation is the process in which a liquid changes into vapor (gas) at temperatures below its boiling point.
• This happens when molecules at the surface of the liquid gain enough energy to overcome the forces of attraction between them and escape into the air as gas.
• Evaporation occurs naturally at temperatures below the boiling point and is a key part of processes like the water cycle.

Additional Information

• Melting: The process in which a solid changes into a liquid when it is heated to its melting point.
• Fusion: Another term for melting, specifically referring to the transition from solid to liquid.
• Sublimation: The direct change of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state (e.g., dry ice turning into carbon dioxide gas).

Counting the triangles:

Thus triangles are there in the following figure = 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Material and its source.

Here,

Linen : Flax → Linen is made from Flax.

Similarly,

Road : Asphalt → Road is made from Asphalt.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "1941".

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (1st number + 2nd number) - 20 = 3rd number.

Now,

For (58, 34, 72):

⇒ (58 + 34) - 20

= 92 - 20 = 72.

For (46, 28, 54)

⇒ (46 + 28) - 20

= 74 - 20 = 54.

Similarly, for Option 1: (56, 32, 68)

⇒ (56 + 32) - 20

= 88 - 20 = 68.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

PIGEON is coded as 11-18-20-22-12-13

NEST is coded as 13- 22-8-7,

Similarly, WOODPECKER will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "4-12-12-23-11-22-24-16-22-9".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Circle shape rotates in clockwise direction by 90° in each figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

For find the opposite surface of 'K', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from K we get;

In dice 2, K is adjacent to N and M.

In dice 3, K is adjacent to L and P.

→ K ⇔ K; M ⇔ L; N ⇔ P

So, the remaining 'O' will be the opposite face of 'K'.

Hence, the correct answer is "O".

Given: Seven people - A, B, C, D, X, Y and Z - are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

1. Only two people sit to the left of D.

2) Only one person sits to the right of X.

3. B sits second to the left of Z.

4. Y sits third to the left of A.

Here case 2 gets eliminate.

Final arrangement:

So, C sits at the second position from the left.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Square is decreasing by 1 from inside to outside.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

For find the opposite surface of 'Q', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from P we get;

In dice 2 P is adjacent to S and U.

In dice 3, P is adjacent to R and T.

→ P ⇔ P; U ⇔ R; S ⇔ T

So, the remaining 'P' will be the opposite face of 'Q'.

Hence, the correct answer is "P".

Given equation: 23210205 = 40 

Option 1) +, ×, –, ÷

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 + 2 × 10 - 20 ÷ 5 = 40 

⇒ 23 + 2 × 10 - 4 = 40

⇒ 23 + 20 - 4 = 40

⇒ 43 - 4 = 40

⇒ 39 = 40

Option 2) × − + ÷

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 × 2 - 10 + 20 ÷ 5 = 40 

⇒ 23 × 2 - 10 + 4 = 40

⇒ 46 - 10 + 4 = 40 

⇒ 50 - 10 = 40 

⇒ 40 = 40

Option 3) − + ÷ ×

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 - 2 + 10 ÷ 20 × 5 = 40 

⇒ 23 - 2 + 0.5 × 5 = 40 

⇒ 23 - 2 + 2.5 = 40 

⇒ 25.5 - 2 = 40 

⇒ 23.5 = 40 

Option 4) + − × ÷

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 23 + 2 - 10 × 20 ÷ 5 = 40 

⇒ 23 + 2 - 10 × 4 = 40 

⇒ 23 + 2 - 40 = 40 

⇒ 25 - 40 = 40 

⇒ -15 = 40 

Hence, the correct answer is "× − + ÷".

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st  number)² + 3 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 8 : 67

⇒ (8)² + 3 = 64 + 3 = 67.

For, 4 : 19

⇒ (4)²+ 3 = 16 + 3 = 19.

Similarly, for 6 ∶ ?

⇒ (6)² + 3 = 36 + 3 = 39.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "RKAH".

Statements:

Some blankets are quilts.

Some quilts are bedsheets.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All bedsheets are blankets. - False (because there is no direct relation between bedsheets are blankets. so, it can be possible but not definite)

II. Some bedsheets are blankets. - False (because there is no direct relation between bedsheets are blankets. so, it can be possible but not definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

Given equation: 264 * 4 * 7 * 87 * 370 * 5 

Option 1) ×− = + ÷

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 264 × 4 - 7 = 87 + 370 ÷ 5 

⇒ 1056 - 7 = 87 + 74 

⇒ 1049 = 161

Option 2) ÷ ×− + =

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 264 ÷ 4 × 7 - 87 + 370 = 5 

⇒ 66 × 7 - 87 + 370 = 5 

⇒ 462 - 87 + 370 = 5 

⇒ 832 - 87 = 5 

⇒ 745 = 5 

Option 3) ÷ ×− = +

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 264 ÷ 4 × 7 - 87 = 370 + 5 

⇒ 66 × 7 - 87 = 375 

⇒ 462 - 87 = 375 

⇒ 375 = 375 

Option 4) ÷ × = + −

Signs that can sequentially replace the * signs:

⇒ 264 ÷ 4 × 7 = 87 + 370 - 5

⇒ 66 × 7 = 457 - 5

⇒ 462 = 452

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ ×− = +".

The logic followed here is:

Top-right symbol shifts in bottom-right corner position, bottom-right symbol shifts in bottom-left corner position and bottom-left symbol shifts in top-left corner position.

Top-left symbol shifts in top-right position but replaced by a new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given figure is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

A boy goes to his school from his house at a speed of 5 km/h and returns at a speed of 10 km/h.

Formula used:

Average Speed = $\dfrac{2ab}{a+b}$

Where, a = speed while going, b = speed while returning

Calculation:

Average Speed = $\dfrac{2 \times 5 \times 10}{5 + 10}$

⇒ Average Speed = $\dfrac{100}{15}$

⇒ Average Speed = 6(2/3) km/h

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Radius (r) = 3 units

Height (h) = 8 units

Formula used:

For the largest straight rod (diagonal of the cylinder), we use the formula:

Length = $\sqrt{d^2 + h^2}$

Where d is the diameter of the base.

Calculation:

Diameter (d) = 2 × radius = 2 × 3 = 6 units

Length = $\sqrt{6^2 + 8^2}$

⇒ Length = $\sqrt{36 + 64}$

⇒ Length = $\sqrt{100}$

⇒ Length = 10 units

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The income of a person first increased by 10% and then it is decreased by 10%.

Formula used:

New Income = Original Income × (1 + Increase Rate) × (1 - Decrease Rate)

Calculations:

Let the original income be ₹100.

After a 10% increase:

New Income = 100 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ New Income = 100 × 1.1

⇒ New Income = ₹110

After a 10% decrease on ₹110:

New Income = 110 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ New Income = 110 × 0.9

⇒ New Income = ₹99

Change in income = New Income - Original Income

⇒ Change in income = 99 - 100

⇒ Change in income = -₹1

Percentage change = (Change in income / Original Income) × 100

⇒ Percentage change = (-1 / 100) × 100

⇒ Percentage change = -1%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

The HCF of 408 and 1309

Formula used:

Euclidean Algorithm

Calculations:

Using the Euclidean Algorithm:

1309 ÷ 408 = 3 remainder 85

408 ÷ 85 = 4 remainder 68

85 ÷ 68 = 1 remainder 17

68 ÷ 17 = 4 remainder 0

⇒ The HCF is 17

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Scooty price = Rs. 1,00,000

Down payment = Rs. 20,800

Number of installments = 4

Rate of interest = 25% 

Concept used : 

A = P + SI 

Where,

$SI = \frac{{P}×{R}×{T}}{100}$

Calculation:

Since Rs.20,800 was given for down payments.

∴ Amount to be paid  = Rs. 79200

According to the question,

⇒ 79200 + 79200 × 25/100 × 4 =

$[x + (x + \frac{25x}{100}) + (x + \frac{{25}×{2x}}{100}) + (x +\frac{{25}×{3x}}{100}) ]$

⇒ 79200 + 79200 × 25/100 × 4 = $[x + \frac{5x}{4} + \frac{3x}{2} + \frac{7x}{4}]$

⇒ 158400 = $\frac{22x}{4}$

⇒ 14400 = 2x/4

⇒ x = 28800

∴ The correct answer is Rs.28800.

Given:

The ratio of A and B is 4 : 3

The ratio of B and C is 7 : 2

Formula used:

To find the ratio of A : B : C, we need to make the B term the same in both ratios.

Calculation:

The ratio of A and B is 4 : 3

The ratio of B and C is 7 : 2

To make the B term the same in both ratios:

A : B = 4 : 3 = 4 × 7 : 3 × 7 = 28 : 21

B : C = 7 : 2 = 21 : 6

Therefore, A : B : C = 28 : 21 : 6

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

The concentration of three acids, P, Q and R, is given as 15%, 25% and 35%, respectively.

They are mixed in the ratio of x : 3 : 5, resulting in a 28% concentration solution.

Formula used:

Concentration of mixture = (Concentration_P ×  x + Concentration_Q × 3 + Concentration_R × 5) / (x + 3 + 5)

Calculation:

28 = (15x + 25 ×  3 + 35 × 5) / (x + 3 + 5)

⇒ 28(x + 8) = 15x + 75 + 175

⇒ 28x + 224 = 15x + 250

⇒ 28x - 15x = 250 - 224

⇒ 13x = 26

⇒ x = 2

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

The sum of the smallest three-digit prime number and the largest three-digit prime number is:

Formula used:

Smallest three-digit prime number = 101

Largest three-digit prime number = 997

Calculation:

Sum = Smallest three-digit prime number + Largest three-digit prime number

⇒ Sum = 101 + 997

⇒ Sum = 1098

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Radius (r) = 12 cm

Cost of painting per cm² = ₹7

Formula used:

Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Calculations:

Surface area = 4 × (22/7) × 12²

⇒ Surface area = 4 × (22/7) × 144

⇒ Surface area = 4 × 22 × 144 / 7

⇒ Surface area = 12672 / 7

⇒ Surface area ≈ 1810 cm²

Cost = 1810 × 7

⇒ Cost ≈ ₹12,672

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

Original Salary = ₹40,000

New Salary = ₹45,000

Formula Used:

Percentage Increment = [(New Salary - Original Salary) ÷ Original Salary] × 100

Calculations:

Increment = ₹45,000 - ₹40,000 = ₹5,000

Percentage Increment = (₹5,000 ÷ ₹40,000) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increment = 12.5%

Final Answer:

The percentage increment in Rohan’s monthly salary is 12.5%.

Given:

The tag price of an item is ₹250.

After a discount of x% of tag price, the shopkeeper earns 1.25x% profit.

x = 10

Formula used:

Let the cost price be C.

Selling Price (SP) = Tag Price - Discount

Profit Percentage = ((SP - C) / C) × 100

Calculation:

Tag Price = ₹250

Discount = x% of ₹250

⇒ Discount = 10% of ₹250

⇒ Discount = ₹250 × 10/100

⇒ Discount = ₹25

SP = ₹250 - ₹25

⇒ SP = ₹225

Profit = 1.25x% of C

⇒ Profit = 1.25 × 10% of C

⇒ Profit = 12.5% of C

⇒ Profit = 0.125C

SP = C + Profit

⇒ ₹225 = C + 0.125C

⇒ ₹225 = 1.125C

⇒ C = ₹225 / 1.125

⇒ C = ₹200

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Alternate Method 

Formula Used:

Cost Price = Selling Price ÷ (1 + Profit% ÷ 100)

Selling Price = Tag Price × (1 - Discount% ÷ 100)

Calculations:

Selling Price = ₹250 × (1 - 10 ÷ 100) = ₹250 × 0.9 = ₹225

Cost Price = ₹225 ÷ (1 + 12.5 ÷ 100) = ₹225 ÷ 1.125 = ₹200

Final Answer:

The cost of the item is ₹200.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹9,200

Repair Cost = ₹1,200

Selling Price (SP) = ₹12,000

Formula used:

Profit Percentage = $\frac{Profit}{Cost Price} \times 100$

Where, Profit = SP - (CP + Repair Cost)

Calculations:

Profit = 12000 - (9200 + 1200)

⇒ Profit = 12000 - 10400

⇒ Profit = 1600

Profit Percentage = $\frac{1600}{10400} \times 100$

⇒ Profit Percentage = $\frac{1600}{104}$

⇒ Profit Percentage = 15.38%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

98, 145, 505

Formula used:

LCM of a set of numbers is found by using their prime factorization and taking the highest power of each prime factor.

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 98 = 2 × 7²

Prime factorization of 145 = 5 × 29

Prime factorization of 505 = 5 × 101

LCM = 2 × 7² × 5 × 29 × 101

⇒ LCM = 2 × 49 × 5 × 29 × 101

⇒ LCM = 2 × 49 × 5 × 2929

⇒ LCM = 2 × 49 × 14645

⇒ LCM = 2 × 717605

⇒ LCM = 1435210

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Prakash can do a piece of work in 18 days.

Mukesh works twice as fast as Prakash.

Formula used:

Work rate of Prakash = 1 work / 18 days

Work rate of Mukesh = 2 × (1 work / 18 days)

Total work rate when working together = Work rate of Prakash + Work rate of Mukesh

Calculation:

Work rate of Prakash = 1/18

Work rate of Mukesh = 2 × (1/18) = 2/18 = 1/9

Total work rate when working together = 1/18 + 1/9

⇒ Total work rate = 1/18 + 2/18

⇒ Total work rate = 3/18

⇒ Total work rate = 1/6

⇒ Time to complete the work when working together = 1 / (Total work rate)

⇒ Time = 1 / (1/6)

⇒ Time = 6 days

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

A sum becomes 1331/729 times of itself in 3 years.

Formula used:

A = P × (1 + r/100)^t

Where, r = rate

Calculations:

1331/729 = (1 + r/100)³

⇒ (1331/729)^1/3 = 1 + r/100

⇒ 11/9 = 1 + r/100

⇒ 11/9 - 1 = r/100

⇒ 2/9 = r/100

⇒ r = (2/9) × 100

⇒ r = 200/9

⇒ r ≈ 22.22% or $22\frac{2}{9}$

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is Calibri, 11.

Key Points

• The default font style in MS Word 365 for Windows 10 is Calibri.
• The default font size in MS Word 365 for Windows 10 is 11.
• Calibri is a sans-serif typeface that has been the default font in Microsoft Office since 2007.
• The size 11 is chosen because it provides a good balance of readability and space efficiency on standard documents.

Additional Information

• Font Style: A font style refers to the visual appearance of the text. This includes characteristics such as typeface, weight (bold, light), style (italic, oblique), and other attributes.
• Font Size: Font size is the size of the text, typically measured in points (pt). One point is 1/72 of an inch. Therefore, 11pt is approximately 0.153 inches in height.
• Sans-Serif Typeface: Sans-serif typefaces do not have the small projecting features called "serifs" at the end of strokes. Calibri is a sans-serif typeface, which typically offers a cleaner and more modern look.
• Microsoft Office Suite: Microsoft Office 365 includes a suite of productivity applications such as Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and Outlook. Each application comes with default settings, including font style and size, to standardize documents and presentations.
• Readability and Space Efficiency: The choice of Calibri 11pt as the default font and size in MS Word 365 is aimed at achieving optimal readability and space efficiency. It ensures that documents are easy to read while also making efficient use of page space.

The correct answer is Table Insertion.

Key Points

• Table Insertion is the feature in MS-Word 365 that allows users to insert tables into their documents.
• This feature is typically found under the "Insert" tab on the Ribbon.
• Users can customize the number of rows and columns when inserting a table.
• Table Insertion facilitates the organization of data in a structured format, making it easier to read and analyze.

Additional Information

• Table Creation: This term generally refers to the process of creating tables but is not a specific feature name in MS-Word 365.
• Table Design: This feature in MS-Word 365 allows users to style and format tables after they have been inserted, including changing borders, shading, and applying table styles.
• Table Layout: This feature provides options for modifying the structure of an existing table, such as merging cells, adjusting cell size, and distributing rows and columns evenly.
• Insert Tab: The "Insert" tab on the Ribbon is where users can find the Table Insertion feature along with other options for adding various elements to a document, such as pictures, charts, and hyperlinks.

The correct answer is Comma.

Key Points

• A comma is used to separate multiple email addresses in the recipient, CC (carbon copy), and BCC (blind carbon copy) fields of an email.
• This allows the email client to recognize each address as a distinct recipient and send the email to all listed addresses.
• Using commas helps prevent errors in email delivery by ensuring each email address is parsed correctly.
• Most email clients and services, such as Gmail, Outlook, and Yahoo Mail, use commas to separate multiple email addresses.

Additional Information

• Email Clients:
• Email clients are software applications used to access and manage a user’s email.
• Examples of popular email clients include Microsoft Outlook, Mozilla Thunderbird, and Apple Mail.
• These clients allow users to compose, send, receive, and organize emails.
• CC (Carbon Copy):
• CC is a way to send a copy of an email to additional recipients beyond the primary recipient.
• All recipients in the CC field can see each other's email addresses.
• It is used when the sender wants to keep others informed without requiring a response.
• BCC (Blind Carbon Copy):
• BCC is similar to CC but with a key difference: recipients in the BCC field are hidden from each other.
• It is used to send a copy of an email to multiple recipients without revealing their email addresses to each other.
• This is useful for maintaining privacy and preventing reply-all chains.
• Email Address Format:
• An email address typically follows the format: [email protected].
• The username is the unique identifier for the recipient within the email system.
• The domain indicates the email server hosting the recipient's mailbox.

The correct answer is Spelling and Grammar Check.

Key Points

• Spelling and Grammar Check is a feature in MS-Word 365 that helps users identify and correct spelling and grammar errors in their documents.
• It provides suggestions and explanations for each flagged item, allowing users to make informed corrections.
• This feature can be accessed from the Review tab on the Ribbon, making it easy for users to locate and utilize.
• The tool not only improves the accuracy of the document but also helps in enhancing the overall quality and professionalism of the written content.

Additional Information

• Thesaurus:
• The Thesaurus is a tool in MS-Word that helps users find synonyms (words with similar meanings) and antonyms (words with opposite meanings) for selected words.
• It is useful for improving the variety and richness of the language in a document.
• This feature can be accessed by right-clicking on a word and selecting 'Synonyms' or from the Review tab.
• Word Count:
• The Word Count feature provides information about the number of words, characters, paragraphs, and lines in a document.
• It is helpful for keeping track of the length of a document, particularly in academic and professional writing where word limits are common.
• This feature can be accessed from the Review tab or by clicking on the word count displayed in the status bar at the bottom of the MS-Word window.
• AutoCorrect:
• AutoCorrect is a feature that automatically corrects common typing errors and misspelled words as you type.
• It also allows users to create their own custom corrections for specific words or phrases.
• This feature helps in maintaining the accuracy and consistency of the document without manual intervention.

The correct answer is Ctrl + C.

Key Points

• Ctrl + C is the keyboard shortcut used to copy the selected text or cells in Microsoft Excel 365.
• This command places the copied content into the clipboard, allowing it to be pasted elsewhere.
• Using Ctrl + C is a quick and efficient way to duplicate data within the same worksheet or across different worksheets and workbooks.
• This shortcut is universally recognized across most software applications for the copy function, making it a standard practice.

Additional Information

• Clipboard
• The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
• When you use the Ctrl + C command, the selected data is copied to the clipboard.
• The clipboard can store text, images, files, and other types of data.
• Data in the clipboard can be pasted into other locations using the Ctrl + V shortcut.
• Keyboard Shortcuts
• Keyboard shortcuts are combinations of keys that provide an alternative way to do something that you’d typically do with a mouse.
• In Microsoft Excel, keyboard shortcuts are used to perform tasks quickly and efficiently.
• Examples include Ctrl + C for copy, Ctrl + X for cut, and Ctrl + V for paste.
• Microsoft Excel 365
• Microsoft Excel 365 is a spreadsheet software included in the Microsoft Office suite.
• It provides tools for data analysis, calculation, and visualization.
• Excel 365 is part of Microsoft’s Office 365 subscription, offering cloud-based features and regular updates.
• It supports a wide range of functions, formulas, and data manipulation techniques.
• Cut, Copy, and Paste
• Cut (Ctrl + X) removes the selected content from its original location and places it in the clipboard.
• Copy (Ctrl + C) duplicates the selected content and places a copy in the clipboard without removing it from its original location.
• Paste (Ctrl + V) inserts the content from the clipboard into the new location.
• These functions are essential for moving and duplicating data within and between documents.

The correct answer is Infrared.

Key Points

• Infrared technology is a type of unguided transmission media that uses light waves to transmit data.
• It operates in the range of 300 GHz to 400 THz, which is just below visible light on the electromagnetic spectrum.
• Infrared communication is commonly used for short-range communication, such as in remote controls and some wireless devices.
• It does not penetrate walls, making it a secure method of communication within a confined space.

Additional Information

• Coaxial Cable
• This is a type of guided transmission media used for high-frequency signal transmission.
• It consists of a central conductor, an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer.
• Coaxial cables are commonly used in cable television and internet connections.
• Twisted Pair Cable
• This is another type of guided transmission media that consists of pairs of twisted copper wires.
• It is used for telephone and Ethernet networks.
• Twisted pair cables help reduce electromagnetic interference.
• Optical Fibre Cable
• This guided transmission media uses light to transmit data over long distances with minimal loss.
• It consists of a core made of glass or plastic, surrounded by a cladding layer, and an outer protective layer.
• Optical fibre cables are widely used in telecommunications and data networking because of their high bandwidth and low attenuation.

The correct answer is Line chart.

Key Points

• A line chart displays information as a series of data points called 'markers' connected by straight line segments.
• It is particularly useful for showing trends over time, such as monthly sales data or stock prices.
• In MS Excel 365, line charts can be created by selecting the data range and choosing the 'Insert Line Chart' option.
• Line charts help in visualizing the data trend, making it easier to identify any patterns or anomalies over a period.

Additional Information

• Bar Chart
• A bar chart represents data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values they represent.
• Bar charts are used for comparing different categories of data.
• Pie Chart
• A pie chart is a circular statistical graphic divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportions.
• Each slice of the pie chart represents a category's contribution to the whole.
• Column Chart
• Similar to bar charts, column charts use vertical bars to display data.
• They are often used for comparing data across different categories over time.
• Trend Analysis
• Trend analysis is a technique used to analyze the current trend of data to predict future movements.
• Line charts are particularly useful for trend analysis as they show data points over a specific period.

The correct answer is Select the row and press Ctrl and the - (minus) key..

Key Points

• Pressing Ctrl and the - (minus) key simultaneously is a quick method to delete a row in MS Excel 365.
• This shortcut works efficiently without the need to navigate through context menus or ribbon options.
• This method is particularly useful for users who prefer keyboard shortcuts for faster operations.
• It can be used to delete multiple rows if multiple rows are selected before using the shortcut.

Additional Information

• Ctrl and - (minus) key:
• This is a keyboard shortcut used to delete selected rows or columns in Excel.
• When pressed, it will prompt a dialog box asking whether to shift cells up or left, or to delete the entire row or column, depending on the selection.
• It's a quick alternative to using the right-click context menu and selecting "Delete".
• It enhances productivity by reducing the need for mouse clicks and navigation.
• Other Methods to Delete Rows in Excel:
• Shift+Delete: This is generally used for permanently deleting files in Windows but does not apply to deleting rows in Excel.
• Delete key: Pressing the Delete key will clear the contents of the selected cells, but it will not delete the row itself.
• Alt+Delete: This combination does not have a default function to delete rows in Excel.
• Excel Shortcuts:
• Excel provides numerous keyboard shortcuts to speed up various tasks.
• Some common shortcuts include Ctrl+C (copy), Ctrl+V (paste), Ctrl+Z (undo), and Ctrl+A (select all).
• Mastering these shortcuts can significantly improve efficiency and productivity when working with Excel.

The correct answer is Locate specific words or topics in the Help content.

Key Points

• The 'Search' or 'Find' functionality in MS Word 365 allows users to locate specific words or phrases within the document.
• This tool is essential for quickly navigating through large documents by highlighting the searched terms.
• It can be accessed by using the shortcut Ctrl + F on Windows or Command + F on Mac.
• The 'Find' feature is part of the Editing group on the Home tab in the ribbon interface of MS Word 365.

Additional Information

• Find and Replace
• The 'Replace' function works alongside 'Find' to not only locate but also replace the found text with new text. This can be accessed using Ctrl + H on Windows or Command + H on Mac.
• This is particularly useful for making bulk edits or correcting recurring mistakes throughout the document.
• Navigation Pane
• The Navigation Pane provides a visual outline of the document, allowing users to quickly jump to different sections. This can be opened by selecting 'View' and then checking 'Navigation Pane'.
• In the Navigation Pane, users can also use the search bar to locate text, which highlights the instances directly in the pane.
• Advanced Find Options
• MS Word 365 offers advanced search options such as searching for text with specific formatting or using wildcards for more complex searches.
• These options can be accessed by clicking on 'More' in the Find and Replace dialog box.
• Search in Help Content
• MS Word 365 also provides a search function within its Help content, allowing users to quickly find guidance on various features and troubleshooting tips.
• Users can access this by clicking on the help icon (usually a question mark) and typing their query into the search bar.

The correct answer is Find and Replace.

Key Points

• The "Find and Replace" option in Microsoft Word 365 allows users to search for a specific word or phrase in the document.
• It also allows users to replace the found word or phrase with another specified word or phrase.
• This feature is extremely useful for quickly correcting repetitive mistakes or making multiple changes throughout a document.
• The "Find and Replace" functionality can be accessed by pressing "Ctrl + H" on the keyboard.

Additional Information

• Font Formatting: This option allows users to change the appearance of the text, including font type, size, color, and style (bold, italic, underline).
• Cut and Paste: This feature enables users to remove selected text or objects from one part of a document and insert them into another location within the same or different document.
• Spelling & Grammar: This tool helps users check the spelling and grammatical accuracy of the text within the document, providing suggestions for corrections.
• Find and Replace: A versatile tool that lets users locate specific words or phrases in a document and replace them with new text. This is especially useful for editing large documents.
• Additional Information: The "Find and Replace" feature can be found under the "Home" tab in the "Editing" group. It can also be accessed through the "Navigation Pane" for more advanced search options.