Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 02 Dec, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

When did Italian traveller Marco Polo visit Kerala?

  1. ((a))

    15th CE

  2. ((b))

    8th CE

  3. ((c))

    10th CE

  4. ((d))

    13th CE

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

13th CE

The correct answer is **13th **CE

Key Points

  • Italian explorer Marco Polo visited Kerala in 1292 CE
  • Polo landed on India's Coromandel Coast in 1292 while returning home from China.
  • He visited the Tamil Pandya Kingdom, which is near Tanjore.
  • He also travelled to southern India during the reign of Rudramma Devi of the Kakatiya Dynasty.
  • Polo observed the thriving trade, industries, and economic activities in southern India during the late 13th century.

Additional Information

  • He also mentioned the Jewish colonies that existed during the 13th century.
  • Visit to St. Thomas' tomb
  • Polo visited the tomb of St. Thomas in Mylapore.
  • Marco Polo's epic journey to China was a big con – Team ...
  • Polo was a Venetian merchant, explorer, and writer. He spent more than a year in South India, observing the local customs and trade practices.
2

The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta and KT Telang in which of the following years?

  1. ((a))

    1887

  2. ((b))

    1885

  3. ((c))

    1886

  4. ((d))

    1888

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1885

The correct answer is 1885

Key Points

  • Bombay Presidency Association was established by Phirozshah Mehta, K.T Telang and Badruddin Tyabji.
  • It was founded in 1885.
  • The reactionary policies of Lytton and the Ilbert Bill controversy led to the formation of The Bombay Presidency Association.
  • The Association championed Indian interests and hosted the first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay at the end of 1885.
  • Phirozshah Mehta was knighted by the British Government in India for his service to the law.
  • He was one of the founding members and President of the Indian National Congress in 1890.
  • In 1910, he started "The Bombay Chronicle" which was an English-language weekly newspaper, which became an important nationalist voice of its time.
3

Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March in 1930 from ________.

  1. ((a))

    Yerawada Ashram

  2. ((b))

    Dandi Ashram

  3. ((c))

    Surat Ashram

  4. ((d))

    Sabarmati Ashram 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sabarmati Ashram 

The correct answer is Sabarmati Ashram, Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram, Gujarat.
  • Dandi March is also known as Salt Satyagraha.
  • Mahatma Gandhi sent a letter on March 2, 1930, to inform the Viceroy Lord Irwin that he and the others would begin breaking the Salt Laws in 10 days.
  • The march spanned 240 miles (390 km), from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, which was called Navsari at that time (now in the state of Gujarat)
  • He began his journey on 12th March and broke the salt law by generating salt from seawater on 6th April 1930.
  • On 5th May, Mahatma Gandhi was arrested.

Additional Information

  • The Salt Satyagraha was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi against the salt tax that was imposed by the British Government in India.
  • Salt was a commodity used by all people of every community and the poor people were affected more by the salt tax.
  • Until the passing of the 1882 Salt Act, Indians were making salt from seawater free of cost.
  • But the Salt Act gave the British a monopoly over the production of salt and the authority to impose a salt tax.

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4

The famous Hindi novel ‘Gaban’ is written by:

  1. ((a))

    Dharmveer Bharati

  2. ((b))

    Amrita Pritam

  3. ((c))

    Munshi Premchand

  4. ((d))

    Mahadevi Verma

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Munshi Premchand

The correct answer is Munshi Premchand

Key Points

  • Munshi Premchand has written the famous Hindi Novel "Godan".
  • It was first published in 1936 and is considered one of the greatest Hindi novels of modern Indian literature.
  • Premchand was a pioneer of Hindi and Urdu social fiction.
  • It highlights the struggle between the peasant and the money-lender backed by various forces.

Additional Information

  • Gillu is written by the famous writer Mahadevi Verma. It is a touching story of a squirrel named Gillu.
  • Amrita Pritam is one of the best known Punjabi authors and poets.
  • She wrote fiction, non-fiction, poetry and essays. She has over 100 works to her name and had been honored with some of the highest awards in the country including the Sahitya Akademi, Bharatiya Jnanpith, and Padma Vibhushan.
5

In which of the following states is the famous Rumtek monastery located?

  1. ((a))

    Uttarakhand

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Sikkim

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim

Key Points

  • Rumtek Monastery is one of the oldest monastery located in Sikkim, founded by Wangchuk Dorjee in 1966.
  • It is also related to Karmapa controversy.
  • Rumtek Monastery is set atop a hill overlooking Gangtok and is one of Sikkim's most important and substantial monasteries.
  • In the sixteenth century, Wangchuk Dorje, the ninth Karmapa Lama, constructed the monastery.
  • It was formerly known as the Dharma Chakra Center and is home to a stunning shrine temple and a monastic community.
  • The shrine was built with the intention of spreading the Buddha's teachings throughout the world.
  • The Rumtek Monastery is 23 kilometres from Gangtok and is encircled by mountains that are lush and verdant.
  • The monastery features a golden stupa and numerous sculptures that belonged to the 16th Karmapa preserved.
  • After China seized Tibet, many religious gurus moved from Tibet to Sikkim, giving the monastery its prominence.

Additional Information

  • Famous Monasteries located in Jammu Kashmir is Alchi Monastery, Basgo Monastery, Chemrey Gompa, Dikshit  Monastery.
  • Famous Temples located in Himachal Pradesh is Sankat Mochan Temple, Tara Devi Temple Jakhoo Temple,  Hidimba Temple, Maa Sharvari Temple, Vashisht Temple, Naina Devi Ji.
  • Famous Monasteries located in Arunachal Pradesh is Tawang Monastery, Bomdila Monastery, Urgelling Monastery.
6

Monolithic pillars of sandstone during Ashoka’s reign, were crowned with animal figures like _________ elephant and lion along with inscriptions of Buddhist concepts.

  1. ((a))

    bull

  2. ((b))

    dog

  3. ((c))

    horse

  4. ((d))

    cat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

bull

The correct answer is Bull

Key Points

  • The monolithic sandstone pillars of Ashoka's reign were crowned with animal figure bulls.
  • Bulls
  • The bull on the pillar represents the zodiac sign of Taurus, the month in which Buddha was born.
  • The pillars also have inscriptions of Buddhist concepts and commemorate events in the life of the Buddha.
  • The Pillars of Ashoka, which were erected by the 3rd century BC Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the Great

Additional Information

  • Lions
  • The four lions seated back to back on the pillar represent power, courage, confidence, and pride.
  • The best-preserved pillar capital from Sarnath is used as the Emblem of India.
  • Elephants
  • The elephant on the pillar represents the dream of Queen Maya, a white elephant entering her womb.
  • Horses
  • The galloping horse on the pillar represents the horse Kanthaka, which Buddha is said to have used to leave princely life.
7

In which of the following years did India start celebrating National Sports Day?

  1. ((a))

    2015

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2013

  4. ((d))

    2012

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2012

The correct answer is 2012

Key Points 

  • The National Sports Day in India is celebrated on August 29.
  • National Sports Day was included in the list of celebratory days in India for the first time in 2012.
  • The National Sports Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of hockey legend Dhyan Chand Singh.
  • The government has also used this day as a platform to launch various sports schemes, including the Khelo India movement, which was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2018.
  • The National Sports Day is also an occasion that sees the nation honour its sporting heroes with recognitions like the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, Arjuna Award, Dhyan Chand Award and the Dronacharya Award.
  • At a special ceremony held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, the President of India takes this day to confer these awards.
8

Padma Vibhushan awardee Kathak dancer and choreographer, Birju Maharaj belonged to which of the following Gharanas?

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur

  2. ((b))

    Kalka - Bindadin

  3. ((c))

    Gwalior

  4. ((d))

    Benaras

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kalka - Bindadin

The correct answer is Kalka- Bindadin

Key Points

  • Padma Vibhushan awardee Kathak dancer and choreographer Pandit Birju Maharaj belonged to the Kalka-Bindadin gharana of Lucknow
  • He received several prestigious honors, including the Padma Vibhushan (1986), the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, the Kalidas Samman, the National Film Award (2012), and the Filmfare Award (2016).
  • Apart from his classical performances, he also choreographed dances for Bollywood films like Umrao Jaan, Dedh Ishqiya, and Bajirao Mastani, blending traditional Kathak with cinematic expression.
  • Born into a well-known Kathak dancing family, he carried forward the legacy of his lineage and became an icon in Indian classical dance.

Additional Information

  • Lucknow Gharana:
  • Focuses on graceful and subtle movements with a strong emphasis on storytelling and expression.
  • Known for its beautiful spins (chakkars) and expressive mudras (hand gestures).
  • Jaipur Gharana:
  • Known for its complex and rapid footwork, with an emphasis on rhythm and speed.
  • Strongly rooted in pure dance and intricate patterns.
  • Benaras Gharana:
  • Known for its vigorous footwork and energetic performance style, incorporating elements of drama and narration.
9

Identify the correct statement in the context of five-year plans in India.

(i) In the first five-year plan, the top priority was given to agriculture.

(ii) In the second five-year plan, the top priority was given to industry.

  1. ((a))

    Only (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Both (i) and (ii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (i)

  4. ((d))

    Neither (i) nor (ii)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both (i) and (ii)

The correct answer is Both (i) and (ii) 

Key Points

  • First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956):
  • The top priority was given to agriculture.
  • This was essential due to food shortages and the need to achieve self-sufficiency in food production.
  • Major initiatives included investments in irrigation, land reforms, and community development programs.
  • Hence this statement is true
  • Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961):
  • The top priority was given to industry, particularly heavy industries.
  • This plan focused on building the foundation for industrial growth, emphasizing sectors like steel, power, and infrastructure.
  • It followed the Mahalanobis model, which stressed the importance of industrialization for economic growth.
  • Hence this statement is also true

Additional Information

  • Basic information about planning commission and 5-year plans:
  • Planning commission founded: 1950.
  • Planning Commission head: Prime Minister
  • First five-year plan launched: in 1951
  • A total number of 5-year plans: 12.
  • Last five-year plan: 2012 to 2017 (Under PM Manmohan Singh).
  • Planning Commission dissolved: 2014 (By PM Narendra Modi).
10

Which of the following statements about ecological succession is/are correct?

 

Statement 1: It is a gradual and clearly predictable change in the species composition of a given area.

 

Statement 2: It is a method of ecological conservation.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is true

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 2 is true

  3. ((c))

    Statements 1 and 2 are both false

  4. ((d))

    Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only statement 1 is true

The correct answer is Only statement 1 is true.

Key Points

  • Ecological succession is a natural process through which ecosystems change and develop over time.
  • It involves a series of stages where different communities of plants and animals colonize an area, leading to changes in the ecosystem.
  • The process is gradual and predictable, often starting with pioneer species and leading to a climax community.
  • Succession helps in the recovery of ecosystems after disturbances and contributes to biodiversity.

Additional Information

  • Ecological Succession:
  • It is a process by which the structure of a biological community evolves over time.
  • There are two main types of succession: primary succession and secondary succession.
  • Primary succession occurs in lifeless areas where there is no soil, such as after a volcanic eruption or glacier retreat.
  • Secondary succession occurs in areas where a disturbance has destroyed an existing community but left the soil intact, such as after a forest fire or hurricane.
  • Pioneer Species:
  • The first species to colonize previously disrupted or damaged ecosystems.
  • These species are typically hardy and able to withstand harsh conditions.
  • Examples include lichens and mosses in primary succession.
  • Climax Community:
  • The final, stable community in a succession sequence that remains relatively unchanged until a disturbance occurs.
  • It represents the endpoint of ecological succession.
  • Examples include mature forests, grasslands, or coral reefs.
  • Ecological Conservation:
  • While succession contributes to ecosystem recovery and biodiversity, it is not itself a conservation method.
  • Conservation involves active efforts to protect and preserve ecosystems and species, such as habitat restoration, protected areas, and legislation.
11

The Constitution of India provides for a ________ integrated judicial system.

  1. ((a))

    single-level

  2. ((b))

    multi-level

  3. ((c))

    dual-level

  4. ((d))

    three-level

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

single-level

The correct answer is a single -level

Key Points 

  • Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated and independent judicial system.
  • The Apex court of the Nation is the Supreme Court.
  • There are however different courts in states. High Court is the highest court in the state judicial system.
  • Below it is subordinate courts of civil and criminal matters.
  • The higher courts in the hierarchy have the power of hearing an appeal from the lower court and it can go until it reaches the Supreme Court whose decision will be final and binding.
  • Unlike the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.

Additional Information

  • The judiciary (also known as the judicial system, judicature, judicial branch, judicative branch, and court or judiciary system) is the system of courts that adjudicates legal disputes/disagreements and interprets, defends, and applies the law in legal cases.
  • The judiciary is the system of courts that interprets, defends, and applies the law in the name of the state.
  • The judiciary can also be thought of as the mechanism for the resolution of disputes.
12

In which state is the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary located?

  1. ((a))

    Nagaland

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh

Key Points

  • The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh, India
  • The sanctuary is spread across the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in the eastern part of the state, and is bordered by Rajasthan.
  • It covers an area of 368.62 square kilometers (142.32 square miles).
  • The sanctuary was developed in September 2022 and has a dedicated hospital for cheetahs.

Additional Information

  • The sanctuary is home to a variety of flora and fauna, including:
  • Trees: Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu, and Palash
  • Herbivores: Chinkara, Nilgai, and Spotted Deer
  • Carnivores: Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena, and Jackal
  • The sanctuary also has many places of historical, archeological, and religious importance, including Chaurasigarh, Chaturbhujnath temple, and Bhadkaji rock paintings.
  • The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is also India's second home for cheetahs, after Kuno National Park
13

Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala is currently heading which of the following institutions?

  1. ((a))

    IMF

  2. ((b))

    Asian Development Bank

  3. ((c))

    WTO

  4. ((d))

    World Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

WTO

The correct answer is WTO

Key Points

  • Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala is the current Director-General of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  • She took office on March 1, 2021, and is the first woman and first African to hold the position.
  • Her first term ends on August 31, 2025.
  • Okonjo-Iweala is an economist and international development expert with over 30 years of experience.
  • She also serves on Twitter's board of directors, chairs the Gavi vaccine alliance, and is a special envoy for the World Health Organization's COVID-19 fight

Additional Information

  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the World Trade Organization (WTO), and the Asian Development Bank are all organizations that work in different areas of international economics: 
  • Focuses on macroeconomic and financial stability to promote economic growth and prevent currency devaluation.
  • World Bank: Provides financial assistance to developing nations to reduce poverty and support development.
  • The World Bank was originally established in 1944 as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) to help rebuild Europe and Japan after World War II.
  • World Trade Organization (WTO): Manages the rules of trade between nations by settling agreements to encourage free trade.
  • Asian Development Bank: Has headquarters in Metro Manila, Philippines, and field offices in Asia and the Pacific.
14

National Sports University is situated in _________.

  1. ((a))

    Imphal

  2. ((b))

    Itanagar

  3. ((c))

    New Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Imphal

The correct answer is Imphal

Key Points

  • National Sports University:-
  • It is India's first institute dedicated to the study of sports science, sports management, sports coaching, and other related fields.
  • The university is located in Manipur, a northeastern state of India.
  • National Sports University was established by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India in 2018.
  • Its objective is to promote sports education in the country and provide specialized knowledge and skills in order to train coaches, sports scientists, and sports managers.
  • It offers various programs:-
  • Sports Sciences: This area of study relates to the scientific principles and techniques that can be applied to improve athletic performance.
  • Sports Coaching: This relates to the strategic, leadership, communication, and motivational skills needed to effectively coach sports teams or individual athletes.
  • Sports Management: This area of study covers the management of sports teams, sports events, sports marketing, and sports facilities, etc.
  • Physical Education: This is the study of physical activity and its impact on health, physical competence, and overall wellbeing.

Additional Information

  • Other Important Institutions of India:- 
  • University of Delhi (DU): Often regarded as one of India's top universities, it offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs in a broad array of disciplines.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU): Located in Delhi, JNU offers programs in a variety of disciplines, focusing on postgraduate and doctoral level study.
  • Banaras Hindu University (BHU): Based in Varanasi, this university offers a range of undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs.
  • Visva-Bharati University: This is a Central University and an 'Institution of National Importance' located in Santiniketan, West Bengal.
  • Aligarh Muslim University (AMU): Located in Aligarh, this university is notable for its diverse range of disciplines in undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs.
  • Jamia Millia Islamia: Located in New Delhi, this university offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral degrees in a wide range of disciplines.
  • Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law (RGNUL): One of India's top National Law Universities, located in Patiala, Punjab.
15

In which of the following years was the National Human Rights Commission formed?

  1. ((a))

    1965

  2. ((b))

    1980

  3. ((c))

    2000

  4. ((d))

    1993

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1993

The correct answer is 1993

Key Points

  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on October 12, 1993
  • The NHRC is a statutory and non-constitutional body that promotes and preserves human rights.
  • The Parliament of India enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 to establish the NHRC.
  • The PHRA also established State Human Rights Commissions and Human Rights Courts to prevent and prosecute serious human rights violations.

Additional Information

  • The President of India appoints the chairperson and members of the NHRC on the recommendation of a committee.
  • The committee includes: 
  • The Prime Minister (chairperson)
  • The Home Minister
  • The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Lower House)
  • The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (Upper House)
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Lower House)
  • The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House
16

Which of the following Articles lays down the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health?

  1. ((a))

    Article 44

  2. ((b))

    Article 46

  3. ((c))

    Article 45

  4. ((d))

    Article 47

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 47

The correct answer is Article 47.

Key Points

  • Article 47 of the Indian Constitution lays down the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and to improve public health.
  • This article is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government.
  • While the DPSPs are non-justiciable, they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country and aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life.
  • Article 47 specifically emphasizes the state's role in improving public health and nutrition, which is crucial for the overall development and well-being of its citizens.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • The DPSPs are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
  • These principles are borrowed from the Irish Constitution and are aimed at establishing social and economic democracy.
  • They are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts for their violation.
  • However, they act as a yardstick in the governance of the country, guiding the state in making policies and laws.
  • Article 44
  • Article 44 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
  • This implies that the state shall strive to create a common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, and inheritance for all its citizens, irrespective of their religion.
  • Article 45
  • Article 45 initially provided for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
  • This objective has been achieved with the enactment of the Right to Education Act in 2009.
  • Subsequently, Article 45 was amended to provide for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.
  • Article 46
  • Article 46 directs the State to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • It also mandates the state to protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
17

Chandrayaan-3 leaves Earth’s surface by burning a huge amount of fuel. The gases released then push the rocket upwards against gravity. Which law of motion is applied here?

  1. ((a))

    Newton’s 1st law of motion

  2. ((b))

    Newton’s law of gravitation

  3. ((c))

    Newton’s 3rd law of motion

  4. ((d))

    Newton’s 2nd law of motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Newton’s 3rd law of motion

The correct answer is Newton's 3rd law of motion.

Key Points

  • Newton's 3rd law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • This law is applied in the case of Chandrayaan-3 launching where the gases released from burning fuel exert a force on the rocket, and the rocket exerts an equal and opposite force on the gases, propelling it upwards.
  • The reaction force of the gases being expelled downwards pushes the rocket upwards against the gravitational pull of the Earth.
  • Newton's 3rd law of motion is fundamental in understanding the mechanics of propulsion in rocketry and other moving systems.

Additional Information

  • Newton's 1st law of motion (Law of Inertia)
  • This law states that an object at rest will stay at rest, and an object in motion will stay in motion at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force.
  • It explains the concept of inertia, which is the resistance of any physical object to a change in its state of motion or rest.
  • Newton's 2nd law of motion (Law of Acceleration)
  • This law states that the acceleration of an object depends on the mass of the object and the amount of force applied.
  • The formula associated with this law is F = ma, where F is the force applied, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration.
  • Newton's law of gravitation
  • This law states that every point mass attracts every other point mass in the universe with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The formula is F = G * (m1 * m2) / r^2, where G is the gravitational constant, m1 and m2 are the masses, and r is the distance between the centers of the two masses.
18

At which of the following places did Gandhiji conduct his first experiment of Satyagraha in India?

  1. ((a))

    Champaran

  2. ((b))

    Calcutta

  3. ((c))

    Cawnpore

  4. ((d))

    Ahmedabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Champaran

The correct answer is Champaran.

Key Points

  • Gandhiji conducted his first experiment of Satyagraha in India at Champaran in 1917.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha was aimed at addressing the grievances of the indigo farmers who were being exploited by the British planters.
  • This movement marked a significant beginning in the Indian freedom struggle, showcasing the power of non-violent resistance.
  • Gandhiji's success in Champaran provided a blueprint for future Satyagraha movements across India.

Additional Information

  • Satyagraha:
  • Satyagraha is a form of non-violent resistance or civil resistance initiated by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The term 'Satyagraha' is derived from the Sanskrit words 'Satya' (meaning truth) and 'Agraha' (meaning insistence or holding firmly to).
  • It was a fundamental principle of Gandhi's philosophy and played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement.
  • Gandhi believed that non-violence and truth were the most powerful tools to combat oppression and injustice.
  • Champaran Satyagraha:
  • The Champaran Satyagraha was Gandhi's first active involvement in the Indian freedom struggle after his return from South Africa.
  • It was initiated in response to the plight of indigo farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar, who were forced to cultivate indigo under oppressive conditions imposed by British planters.
  • Gandhi's intervention led to an official inquiry and ultimately resulted in the abolition of the exploitative system.
  • This movement not only alleviated the suffering of the farmers but also demonstrated the effectiveness of Satyagraha as a tool for social and political change.
  • Non-violent Resistance:
  • Non-violent resistance is a method of protest that seeks to achieve social or political goals through symbolic protests, civil disobedience, economic or political non-cooperation, and other non-violent means.
  • It is based on the principle of not using physical force to achieve objectives.
  • Gandhi's philosophy of non-violence, or 'Ahimsa,' was deeply rooted in his belief that moral force is more powerful than physical force.
  • Non-violent resistance has been used successfully in various global movements, including the American civil rights movement led by Martin Luther King Jr.
19

Which of the following statements about Fundamental Duties is correct?

I) Sardar Swaran Singh recommended the inclusion of a chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution of India.

II) Promotion of cooperative societies is a fundamental duty.

  1. ((a))

    Only 2

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2

  3. ((c))

    Only 1

  4. ((d))

    Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only 1

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

  • Sardar Swaran Singh was the one who recommended the inclusion of a chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution of India.
  • His recommendations led to the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new part, namely Part IVA to the Constitution, which consists of a single Article 51A that specifies the Fundamental Duties.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties:
  • They are intended to serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well.
  • These duties are essentially moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
  • The idea of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of the USSR.
  • There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
  • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976:
  • This amendment is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to the extensive changes it brought to the Indian Constitution.
  • It amended various articles of the Constitution and added new provisions.
  • One of the significant changes was the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in Part IVA of the Constitution.
  • Sardar Swaran Singh Committee:
  • The committee was constituted in 1976 to make recommendations on fundamental duties and the need for amending the Constitution.
  • Based on its recommendations, the 42nd Amendment Act was enacted.
  • Promotion of Cooperative Societies:
  • The promotion of cooperative societies is not listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
  • However, it is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43B, which was added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011.
20

The Multidimensional Poverty Index of India does NOT consider which of the following for calculating the index?

  1. ((a))

    Environmental quality

  2. ((b))

    Health

  3. ((c))

    Education

  4. ((d))

    Standard of Living

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Environmental quality

The correct answer is Environmental quality.

Key Points

  • The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute poverty covering over 100 developing countries.
  • The MPI uses three dimensions to measure poverty: health, education, and standard of living.
  • Environmental quality is not considered in the calculation of the MPI.
  • The MPI was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Additional Information

  • Health
  • This dimension includes indicators such as nutrition and child mortality.
  • It aims to reflect the ability of individuals to live long and healthy lives.
  • Education
  • This dimension measures years of schooling and school attendance.
  • It helps to assess the ability to gain knowledge and skills.
  • Standard of Living
  • This dimension includes several indicators such as access to electricity, drinking water, sanitation, flooring, cooking fuel, and assets.
  • It assesses the overall living conditions and quality of life.
  • Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
  • The MPI was introduced in 2010 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
  • It complements traditional income-based poverty measures by capturing the multiple deprivations that people face at the same time.
  • The MPI is used to measure acute poverty and to identify the poorest of the poor.
  • It provides a more comprehensive picture of poverty and can help policymakers to target resources and interventions more effectively.
21

Which of the following organisations was founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1904?

  1. ((a))

    Free India Society

  2. ((b))

    Jugantar

  3. ((c))

    Indian Independence League

  4. ((d))

    Abhinav Bharat Society

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Abhinav Bharat Society

The correct answer is Abhinav Bharat Society.

Key Points

  • Abhinav Bharat Society was a secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1904.
  • The society was initially named Mitra Mela before being renamed to Abhinav Bharat Society in 1906.
  • It aimed at promoting revolutionary activities to overthrow British rule in India through armed rebellion.
  • The society played a significant role in the Indian independence movement, inspiring many young revolutionaries.

Additional Information

  • Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
  • Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, commonly known as Veer Savarkar, was an Indian independence activist, politician, lawyer, writer, and the formulator of the Hindutva philosophy.
  • He was born on May 28, 1883, in Bhagur, a village near Nashik in Maharashtra.
  • He was a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement and was known for his radical views and activities against British rule.
  • He was arrested in 1909 by the British authorities for his involvement in revolutionary activities and sentenced to life imprisonment in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Jugantar
  • Jugantar was a Bengali revolutionary organization that operated in the early 20th century against British rule.
  • It was a part of the larger Anushilan Samiti and was involved in various revolutionary activities, including armed attacks and bombings.
  • Indian Independence League
  • The Indian Independence League was a political organization formed in 1927 in India and overseas to organize and promote the Indian independence movement.
  • It played a crucial role during World War II in collaboration with the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
  • Free India Society
  • The Free India Society was an organization formed by Indian students in England in the early 20th century to promote the cause of Indian independence.
  • It was associated with prominent Indian leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai, Mahatma Gandhi, and V. D. Savarkar.
22

The first National Games after independence were held in _________.

  1. ((a))

    Jabalpur

  2. ((b))

    Madras

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    New Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lucknow

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

  • The first National Games after independence were held in Lucknow in the year 1948.
  • The National Games serve as a platform for athletes from various states and union territories to showcase their talents.
  • These games are held to promote sportsmanship, unity, and competitiveness among the athletes of India.
  • Lucknow, the capital city of Uttar Pradesh, has a rich history and is known for its cultural heritage and significant contributions to sports.

Additional Information

  • National Games of India:
  • The National Games of India is a multi-sport event held in the country, modeled after the Olympic Games.
  • The games are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and are conducted once every two years.
  • The event features a wide range of sports disciplines, including athletics, swimming, boxing, wrestling, and many more.
  • The National Games aim to identify and nurture sporting talent in India and provide athletes with an opportunity to compete at a high level.
  • Indian Olympic Association (IOA):
  • The IOA is the governing body responsible for the Olympic movement and other multi-sport events in India.
  • It was established in 1927 and is affiliated with the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
  • The IOA is responsible for selecting athletes and teams to represent India at the Olympic Games and other international competitions.
  • The organization also plays a crucial role in promoting and developing sports in India through various initiatives and programs.
  • Sports Infrastructure in Lucknow:
  • Lucknow is home to several sports facilities and stadiums, including the Babu Banarasi Das Indoor Stadium and the KD Singh Babu Stadium.
  • The city has hosted numerous national and international sporting events, contributing to the growth of sports in the region.
  • In addition to traditional sports, Lucknow also promotes indigenous sports like kabaddi and kho-kho.
  • The sports infrastructure in Lucknow is continually being upgraded to support the training and development of athletes.
  • Significance of the National Games:
  • The National Games play a vital role in the development of sports in India by providing a competitive platform for athletes.
  • The event helps in identifying potential talent that can represent India at international competitions, including the Olympics.
  • The games also foster a sense of unity and national pride among participants and spectators.
  • By hosting the National Games, different states get the opportunity to showcase their sports infrastructure and organizational capabilities.
23

Which of the following is an example of a joint sector industry?

  1. ((a))

    Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

  2. ((b))

    National Highway Authority of India

  3. ((c))

    Steel Authority of India Limited

  4. ((d))

    Oil India Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Oil India Limited

The correct answer is Oil India Limited.

Key Points

  • Oil India Limited (OIL) is a joint sector company where the government collaborates with private entities to run the business.
  • The company was established in 1959 and is a key player in the oil and gas sector in India.
  • OIL is involved in the exploration, development, and production of crude oil and natural gas, transportation of crude oil, and production of LPG.
  • The Government of India holds a significant share in the company, making it a joint sector enterprise.

Additional Information

  • Joint Sector Enterprises
  • These are businesses where the government collaborates with private firms to undertake the establishment and operations of industries.
  • The primary objective is to combine the resources and expertise of both sectors for effective and efficient management.
  • Such collaborations often aim at reducing the risk involved and increasing the capital investment for large-scale projects.
  • Examples include Oil India Limited and Maruti Udyog Limited.
  • Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
  • It is a state-owned aerospace and defense company based in India.
  • HAL is primarily involved in the design, fabrication, and assembly of aircraft, jet engines, helicopters, and their spare parts.
  • It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
  • National Highway Authority of India (NHAI)
  • NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Government of India, responsible for the management of a network of over 50,000 km of National Highways.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
  • NHAI is involved in the construction, management, and maintenance of highways.
  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
  • SAIL is one of the largest state-owned steel-making companies in India and one of the top steel makers in the world.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Steel, Government of India.
  • SAIL produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants, located principally in the eastern and central regions of India.
24

Lalitha and Saroja Chidambaram are the noted _______ singers.

  1. ((a))

    folk

  2. ((b))

    Sufi

  3. ((c))

    Hindustani classical

  4. ((d))

    Carnatic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Carnatic

The correct answer is Carnatic.

Key Points

  • Lalitha and Saroja Chidambaram are renowned for their contributions to Carnatic music, a classical music form of South India.
  • Carnatic music is known for its intricate rhythms and devotion to melody, often focusing on compositions known as kritis.
  • The Chidambaram sisters have performed in many prestigious music festivals and have been honored with numerous awards for their musical excellence.
  • Carnatic music is typically performed with vocalists accompanied by instrumentalists, including the violin, mridangam, and veena.

Additional Information

  • Folk Music
  • Folk music is a genre that reflects the traditional music of a community or region.
  • It is often passed down orally through generations and can vary widely from one culture to another.
  • Examples include bhangra from Punjab, Baul songs from Bengal, and Lavani from Maharashtra.
  • Sufi Music
  • Sufi music is associated with the mystical branch of Islam known as Sufism.
  • It often includes devotional songs known as qawwalis, which aim to inspire spiritual growth and connection with the divine.
  • Famous Sufi musicians include Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan and Abida Parveen.
  • Hindustani Classical Music
  • Hindustani classical music is a major tradition of Indian classical music, prevalent in North India.
  • It is characterized by its elaborate ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
  • Prominent exponents include Ravi Shankar, Zakir Hussain, and Bhimsen Joshi.
  • Carnatic Music
  • Carnatic music is the classical music tradition of South India.
  • It emphasizes vocal music, with compositions known as kritis forming the core of the repertoire.
  • It is known for its complex rhythms (tala) and melodic patterns (raga).
  • Famous Carnatic musicians include M. S. Subbulakshmi, Tyagaraja, and M. Balamuralikrishna.
25

Vijayanagar Emperor Achyuta Deva Raya belonged to the __________ dynasty.

  1. ((a))

    Sangama

  2. ((b))

    Saluva

  3. ((c))

    Tuluva

  4. ((d))

    Aravidu

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tuluva

The correct answer is Tuluva.

Key Points

  • Achyuta Deva Raya was a ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.
  • The Tuluva dynasty was the third dynasty that ruled the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • This dynasty was founded by Narasa Nayaka, the father of the famous emperor Krishnadevaraya.
  • Achyuta Deva Raya succeeded his brother Krishnadevaraya to the throne and ruled from 1529 to 1542.

Additional Information

  • Vijayanagara Empire
  • The Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty.
  • It was based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India.
  • The empire is named after its capital city, Vijayanagara, whose ruins surround modern Hampi, now a World Heritage Site in Karnataka.
  • The empire rose to prominence as a culmination of attempts by southern powers to ward off Islamic invasions by the end of the 13th century.
  • Sangama Dynasty
  • The Sangama dynasty was the first dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • It was established by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I.
  • They were initially tributaries of the Delhi Sultanate before declaring independence and founding the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Saluva Dynasty
  • The Saluva dynasty was the second dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • It was founded by Saluva Narasimha Deva Raya in 1485 after he seized the throne from the declining Sangama dynasty.
  • Aravidu Dynasty
  • The Aravidu dynasty was the fourth and last dynasty to rule the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • It was founded by Tirumala Deva Raya in 1570 after the fall of the Tuluva dynasty.
  • The Aravidu dynasty continued to rule parts of South India until the early 17th century.
26

Who among the following is the Mohiniyattam dancer who wrote the book 'Mohiniyattam: Charitravam Aattaparakaravum', and who received the prestigious Kalidas Samman in 1997?

  1. ((a))

    Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma

  2. ((b))

    Rukmini Devi Arundale

  3. ((c))

    Yamini Krishnamurthy

  4. ((d))

    Shobhana Narayan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma

The correct answer is Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma.

Key Points

  • Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma is a renowned Mohiniyattam dancer who has significantly contributed to the classical dance form.
  • She is the author of the book 'Mohiniyattam: Charitravam Aattaparakaravum', which explores the history and techniques of Mohiniyattam.
  • In recognition of her contributions to Indian classical dance, she was awarded the prestigious Kalidas Samman in 1997.
  • She is often referred to as the 'Mother of Mohiniyattam' due to her tireless efforts in reviving and promoting the dance form.

Additional Information

  • Mohiniyattam
  • Mohiniyattam is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from Kerala.
  • The dance is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements and subtle facial expressions, reflecting the essence of feminine grace.
  • Mohiniyattam is performed by women and is known for its delicate footwork and rhythmic patterns.
  • The term 'Mohiniyattam' comes from 'Mohini' – the female avatar of the Hindu god Vishnu, and 'aattam' – meaning dance.
  • Kalidas Samman
  • The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious arts award presented annually by the government of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • It is awarded in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual arts.
  • The award is named after the classical Sanskrit poet Kalidas, known for his literary works like 'Meghaduta' and 'Shakuntala'.
  • Recipients of the Kalidas Samman are honored for their outstanding contributions to their respective fields.
  • Kalamandalam
  • Kalamandalam is a premier center for learning Indian performing arts, especially those that originated in Kerala.
  • It was established in 1930 by the renowned poet Vallathol Narayana Menon.
  • The institution offers training in classical dance forms such as Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, and Koodiyattam, as well as classical music and theatre.
  • Kalamandalam has played a crucial role in preserving and promoting the traditional art forms of Kerala.
27

Patanjali is well known for the compilation of :

  1. ((a))

    Ayurveda

  2. ((b))

    Yoga Sutra

  3. ((c))

    Bramhasutra

  4. ((d))

    Panchatantra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Yoga Sutra

The correct answer is Yoga Sutra.

Key Points

  • Patanjali is an ancient Indian sage who is traditionally credited with authoring the Yoga Sutra, an important collection of aphorisms on yoga practice.
  • The Yoga Sutra is a foundational text of classical yoga philosophy and practice.
  • The compilation is divided into four chapters: Samadhi Pada, Sadhana Pada, Vibhuti Pada, and Kaivalya Pada, each addressing different aspects of yoga.
  • The Yoga Sutra outlines the eight limbs of yoga (Ashtanga Yoga) which are Yama, Niyama, Asana, Pranayama, Pratyahara, Dharana, Dhyana, and Samadhi.

Additional Information

  • Ayurveda
  • Ayurveda is an ancient system of medicine that originated in India over 3,000 years ago.
  • It focuses on maintaining balance in the body through diet, herbal treatment, and yogic breathing.
  • Key texts of Ayurveda include the Charaka Samhita, Sushruta Samhita, and Ashtanga Hridaya.
  • Brahmasutra
  • The Brahmasutra, also known as Vedanta Sutra, is a key philosophical text in the Vedanta school of Hindu philosophy.
  • It is attributed to the sage Vyasa and is composed of 555 aphorisms that systematically expound Vedantic teachings.
  • The Brahmasutra is one of the three canonical texts (Prasthanatrayi) of the Vedanta school, the other two being the Upanishads and the Bhagavad Gita.
  • Panchatantra
  • The Panchatantra is an ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables in Sanskrit verse and prose.
  • It was written by Vishnu Sharma and is intended as a guide for political and social conduct.
  • The stories are divided into five books, each focusing on a particular aspect of governance and human behavior.
28

________ is the largest slum in Asia.

  1. ((a))

    Dharavi

  2. ((b))

    Kathputli

  3. ((c))

    Baiganwadi

  4. ((d))

    Banganga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dharavi

The correct answer is Dharavi.

Key Points

  • Dharavi is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India.
  • It is considered one of the largest slums in Asia and the world.
  • Dharavi spans over 2.1 square kilometers and is home to approximately 700,000 to 1,000,000 people.
  • Despite its poverty, Dharavi is known for its thriving small-scale industries such as pottery, textiles, and recycling.

Additional Information

  • Slum Definition
  • A slum is a densely populated urban residential area characterized by substandard housing and squalor.
  • Slums often lack basic services such as sanitation, clean water, reliable electricity, and adequate living space.
  • Urbanization and Slums
  • Rapid urbanization often leads to the growth of slums as people migrate to cities in search of better economic opportunities.
  • Due to high demand and limited supply of affordable housing, many people end up living in informal settlements.
  • Economic Activity in Dharavi
  • Dharavi is a hub for numerous small-scale industries, generating an estimated annual turnover of over $1 billion USD.
  • These industries include leather goods, textiles, pottery, and food production, among others.
  • Social and Health Challenges
  • Residents of slums like Dharavi often face significant health challenges due to poor living conditions.
  • Common issues include malnutrition, infectious diseases, and lack of access to healthcare services.
29

Which of the following is an NBFC-MFI that operates in the Joint Liability Group lending model of Grameen?

  1. ((a))

    Aarohan Financial Services Limited

  2. ((b))

    Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd

  3. ((c))

    Equitas Small Finance Bank

  4. ((d))

    Bandhan Financial Services Private Limited

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd

The correct answer is Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd.

Key Points

  • Fusion Microfinance Pvt Ltd is a Non-Banking Financial Company-Microfinance Institution (NBFC-MFI) that operates in the Joint Liability Group (JLG) lending model of Grameen.
  • This model involves forming small groups of borrowers who provide mutual guarantees for each other's loans.
  • Fusion Microfinance primarily focuses on providing financial services to women entrepreneurs in rural and semi-urban areas.
  • The institution aims to empower low-income households by providing them with access to affordable credit.

Additional Information

  • Non-Banking Financial Company-Microfinance Institution (NBFC-MFI)
  • NBFC-MFIs are financial institutions that provide microfinance services, primarily to low-income clients.
  • They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and must adhere to specific guidelines related to lending, interest rates, and other operational aspects.
  • Joint Liability Group (JLG)
  • JLG is a group lending model where a small group of individuals come together to form a group and guarantee each other's loans.
  • This model reduces the risk for lenders and ensures better repayment rates as group members are collectively responsible for each other's loans.
  • Grameen Model
  • The Grameen model of microfinance was pioneered by Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus in Bangladesh.
  • It focuses on providing small loans to impoverished individuals, particularly women, to enable them to start or expand small businesses.
  • The model emphasizes trust and social capital over traditional collateral requirements.
  • Empowerment through Microfinance
  • Microfinance institutions aim to empower low-income households by providing them with access to financial services that are otherwise unavailable to them.
  • This includes not only credit but also savings, insurance, and other financial products.
  • By enabling individuals to invest in income-generating activities, microfinance helps in poverty alleviation and economic development.
30

Who among the following used the term Evergreen Revolution for increasing agricultural production in India?

  1. ((a))

    Raj Krishna

  2. ((b))

    RKV Rao

  3. ((c))

    MS Swaminathan

  4. ((d))

    Norman Borlaug

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MS Swaminathan

The correct answer is MS Swaminathan.

Key Points

  • MS Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in India.
  • He coined the term Evergreen Revolution to signify the importance of sustainable agricultural practices.
  • The Evergreen Revolution aims at enhancing agricultural productivity while ensuring environmental sustainability.
  • Swaminathan has played a pivotal role in developing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice, which significantly boosted India's food production.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution
  • It refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that took place between the 1940s and the late 1960s.
  • The Green Revolution led to the adoption of modern agricultural techniques like the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and irrigation facilities.
  • It significantly increased food grain production, especially in developing countries like India, making them self-sufficient in food production.
  • However, the Green Revolution also led to environmental issues such as soil degradation, overuse of water resources, and increased use of chemical inputs.
  • Evergreen Revolution
  • This term was introduced by MS Swaminathan to advocate for sustainable agricultural practices.
  • The Evergreen Revolution focuses on integrating technology with traditional farming methods to ensure long-term agricultural productivity and environmental sustainability.
  • It aims to address the negative impacts of the Green Revolution by promoting organic farming, crop diversification, and soil health management.
  • The goal is to achieve food security without compromising the health of the ecosystem.
  • Norman Borlaug
  • He was an American agronomist and the father of the Green Revolution globally.
  • Borlaug's work in developing high-yielding crop varieties and modern agricultural techniques helped save millions from famine.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his contributions to world peace through increasing food supply.
31

Cell nucleus was discovered by ______________.

  1. ((a))

    Robert Brown

  2. ((b))

    Matthias Schleiden

  3. ((c))

    Rudolf Virchow

  4. ((d))

    Robert Hook

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Robert Brown

The correct answer is Robert Brown.

Key Points

  • Robert Brown was a Scottish botanist who made significant contributions to botany through his pioneering use of the microscope.
  • He is best known for his discovery of the cell nucleus in 1831 while examining orchid pollen grains.
  • Brown observed a small, dense, round body within the cells of the orchid, which he called the "nucleus."
  • His discovery of the nucleus was crucial for the development of cell theory, which states that all living organisms are composed of cells.

Additional Information

  • Cell Nucleus:
  • The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells that contains most of the cell's genetic material.
  • The nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane called the nuclear envelope, which contains pores to regulate the passage of materials between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
  • Within the nucleus, the genetic material (DNA) is organized into structures called chromosomes, which are essential for cell division and the regulation of gene expression.
  • The nucleolus, a specialized region within the nucleus, is responsible for ribosome synthesis and assembly.
  • Matthias Schleiden:
  • Matthias Schleiden was a German botanist who, along with Theodor Schwann, co-founded the cell theory.
  • In 1838, Schleiden proposed that all plant tissues are composed of cells and that the cell is the basic unit of life.
  • Rudolf Virchow:
  • Rudolf Virchow was a German physician and pathologist who is considered one of the founders of modern pathology.
  • He is best known for his statement "Omnis cellula e cellula," which means "every cell originates from another existing cell."
  • This statement was a fundamental contribution to the cell theory, emphasizing the continuity of life through cellular reproduction.
  • Robert Hooke:
  • Robert Hooke was an English scientist and polymath who is best known for his work in microscopy.
  • In 1665, Hooke published "Micrographia," a book in which he described his observations of cork cells using a microscope. He coined the term "cell" to describe the box-like structures he observed.
32

Where is the headquarters of the National Rifle Association of India situated?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

New Delhi

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The headquarters of the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) is situated in New Delhi.
  • New Delhi is the capital city of India and serves as the center for many national-level organizations and associations.
  • NRAI is the governing body for shooting sport in India, overseeing all aspects of the sport across the country.
  • Being located in New Delhi allows NRAI to be in close proximity to various government bodies and sports authorities.

Additional Information

  • National Rifle Association of India (NRAI)
  • The NRAI was established in 1951 to promote and popularize the shooting sport in India.
  • It is affiliated with the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF), Asian Shooting Confederation (ASC), and Commonwealth Shooting Federation (CSF).
  • The association conducts various national championships and trials to select shooters for international competitions.
  • NRAI also provides training and support to aspiring shooters through various programs and initiatives.
  • Shooting Sport
  • Shooting is a sport that involves tests of proficiency (accuracy and speed) using various types of guns such as firearms and air guns.
  • Competitions are held for both individual and team events, and they are classified by the type of firearm, distance, and shooting position.
  • It is a part of the Olympic Games, and events are categorized into rifle, pistol, and shotgun disciplines.
  • India has produced several renowned shooters who have won medals at the Olympics, World Championships, and other international events.
  • New Delhi
  • New Delhi is the capital of India and the seat of all three branches of the Government of India, namely the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary.
  • It is one of the eleven districts of Delhi and the seat of the Government of the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT).
  • New Delhi hosts various national institutions, including the Parliament of India, the Rashtrapati Bhavan (President's House), and the Supreme Court of India.
  • The city is also known for its rich history, cultural heritage, and serves as a major hub for international diplomacy and commerce.
33

Baliyatra is the cultural festival of which Indian state?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Jharkhand

  4. ((d))

    West Bengal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • Baliyatra is a major cultural festival celebrated in the Indian state of Odisha.
  • This festival commemorates the ancient maritime trade that Odisha had with other regions like Bali, Sumatra, Java, Sri Lanka, and Cambodia.
  • It is celebrated every year from Kartik Purnima, which is the full moon day in the month of Kartik (November-December).
  • The festival is marked by a large fair, cultural performances, food stalls, and the release of miniature boats in water bodies, symbolizing the ancient voyages.

Additional Information

  • Kartik Purnima
  • Kartik Purnima is a significant day in the Hindu calendar, observed on the full moon day of the Kartik month.
  • It is considered auspicious and is associated with various religious and cultural activities across India.
  • In Odisha, it marks the beginning of Baliyatra, celebrating the state's rich maritime history.
  • Maritime Trade of Ancient Odisha
  • Odisha, historically known as Kalinga, had a thriving maritime trade network with Southeast Asia.
  • Ancient traders from Odisha used to set sail to distant lands like Bali, Java, Sumatra, and other regions, carrying goods and culture.
  • This rich history is celebrated through the Baliyatra festival.
  • Cultural Significance
  • Baliyatra is more than just a fair; it is a cultural extravaganza showcasing Odisha's traditional music, dance, and crafts.
  • The festival provides a platform for artisans and craftsmen to exhibit and sell their products, promoting local heritage and skills.
  • Modern Celebrations
  • Today, Baliyatra is not only celebrated in Odisha but also attracts visitors from across the country and even abroad.
  • The fair includes various modern attractions such as amusement rides, food stalls, and exhibitions, making it a blend of tradition and modernity.
34

Which of the following ministries is the implementing ministry for ‘PM CARES for Children Scheme’?

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Women and Child Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Women and Child Development

The correct answer is Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Women and Child Development is responsible for the implementation of the 'PM CARES for Children Scheme'.
  • The scheme aims to support children who have lost both parents or legal guardians due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • It provides comprehensive care and protection to these children, including education, health, and financial support till they attain 18 years of age.
  • The initiative is funded by the PM CARES Fund, which was established to deal with emergencies and distress situations, such as the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

  • PM CARES Fund
  • The Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) was created to provide relief during emergencies, such as the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The fund is aimed at combating, containing, and providing relief efforts against the coronavirus outbreak and similar emergency situations.
  • It accepts voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations and is managed by a trust with the Prime Minister as its chairperson.
  • The funds collected are used for providing assistance to the affected, including healthcare, support for the poor and vulnerable, and other necessary interventions.
  • Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • The Ministry of Women and Child Development is a branch of the Government of India, established with the aim of addressing issues related to women and children in the country.
  • It formulates plans, policies, and programs to promote the welfare and development of women and children.
  • The ministry is responsible for implementing various schemes and initiatives, such as the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP).
  • It works in collaboration with other ministries, state governments, and non-governmental organizations to ensure the effective delivery of its programs.
  • COVID-19 Pandemic
  • The COVID-19 pandemic, caused by the novel coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2), was declared a global pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) in March 2020.
  • It has led to widespread health, economic, and social challenges across the world, necessitating coordinated efforts to manage and mitigate its impact.
  • Governments and organizations worldwide have implemented various measures, such as lockdowns, social distancing, and vaccination campaigns, to control the spread of the virus.
  • The pandemic has also highlighted the importance of robust healthcare systems, social protection mechanisms, and emergency response strategies.
35

Who was the author of ‘The Great Indian Novel’?

  1. ((a))

    Anees Salim

  2. ((b))

    Anuj Dhar

  3. ((c))

    Salim Khan

  4. ((d))

    Shashi Tharoor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Shashi Tharoor

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor.

Key Points

  • Shashi Tharoor is a renowned Indian author and politician.
  • He is known for his eloquent writing style and deep insights into Indian history and politics.
  • "The Great Indian Novel" is a satirical novel by Shashi Tharoor that retells the Mahabharata through the context of the Indian independence movement and the early years of the Republic of India.
  • Tharoor has won numerous literary awards and has been a significant figure in Indian literature.

Additional Information

  • The Great Indian Novel
  • The novel's title is a play on the title of the Indian epic, the Mahabharata, with "great" also referring to the British imperial name for India.
  • The novel covers the period from the British Raj and the Indian Independence Movement to the early years of the Indian Republic.
  • It is structured in 18 books, modeled after the 18 books of the Mahabharata, and each book is narrated by a character called Ved Vyas, which is also a nod to the traditional author of the Mahabharata.
  • The narrative intertwines historical and mythological events, blending real historical figures with fictional characters, providing a satirical and critical perspective on the Indian political landscape.
  • Shashi Tharoor
  • Shashi Tharoor is an Indian politician, diplomat, and author, currently serving as a Member of Parliament for Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
  • He has previously served as an Under-Secretary-General at the United Nations.
  • Tharoor has written numerous books, both fiction and non-fiction, including "Inglorious Empire", "The Paradoxical Prime Minister", and "Why I Am a Hindu".
  • He is known for his erudite and articulate speeches and writings, often addressing complex issues of Indian history, culture, and politics.
36

Which cargo port in India has the biggest capacity from the followings?

  1. ((a))

    Marmagao Port

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru Port

  3. ((c))

    Tuticorin Port

  4. ((d))

    New Mangalore Port

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jawaharlal Nehru Port

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru Port.

Key Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru Port, also known as Nhava Sheva, is the largest container port in India.
  • It handles around 55% of the total container traffic of all major ports in India.
  • The port was commissioned on 26 May 1989 and is located at Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • It has a total capacity of handling 10 million TEUs (Twenty-foot Equivalent Units) per year.

Additional Information

  • Marmagao Port
  • Located in Goa, Marmagao Port is one of the oldest ports on the west coast of India.
  • It primarily handles iron ore exports and has a capacity of around 7 million tonnes per annum.
  • Tuticorin Port
  • Tuticorin Port, also known as V.O. Chidambaranar Port, is located in Tamil Nadu.
  • It handles a variety of cargo including coal, salt, and general cargo with a capacity of 36.78 million tonnes per annum.
  • New Mangalore Port
  • New Mangalore Port is located in Karnataka and handles bulk cargo including petroleum products, iron ore, and coal.
  • It has a capacity of 77.77 million tonnes per annum.
37

Part IV-A of the Constitution of India contains _____________ Articles.

  1. ((a))

    four

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

    one

  4. ((d))

    two

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

one

The correct answer is one.

Key Points

  • Part IV-A of the Constitution of India contains only one Article, which is Article 51A.
  • Article 51A specifies the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
  • The Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.
  • These duties are inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union and aim to remind citizens of their responsibilities toward the nation.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • The Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution of India.
  • There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties, which include obligations such as respecting the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem, cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle, and protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • These duties also encompass promoting harmony, safeguarding public property, and striving for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
  • Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • The 42nd Amendment Act, also known as the "Mini-Constitution," was enacted during the Emergency period by the Indira Gandhi government.
  • This amendment brought significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties, changes to the Preamble, and various provisions strengthening the central government's power.
  • It is considered one of the most controversial amendments due to the extent of changes it introduced.
  • Soviet Union's Influence
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
  • The Soviet Constitution emphasized the duties of citizens towards the state and society, which influenced the drafting of similar duties in India.
38

Phytoplanktons are ________.

  1. ((a))

    primary consumers of lake ecosystem

  2. ((b))

    tertiary consumers of pond ecosystem

  3. ((c))

    producers in pond ecosystem

  4. ((d))

    secondary consumers of ocean ecosystem

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

producers in pond ecosystem

The correct answer is producers in pond ecosystem.

Key Points

  • Phytoplanktons are microscopic organisms that live in watery environments, both salty and fresh.
  • They are autotrophic, meaning they produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis, making them primary producers in aquatic ecosystems.
  • Phytoplanktons form the base of the aquatic food web, supporting a wide range of sea creatures including fish and whales.
  • They play a crucial role in carbon fixation, converting carbon dioxide into organic compounds and producing oxygen.

Additional Information

  • Primary Consumers:
  • These are organisms that feed on primary producers (plants and phytoplankton). Examples include zooplankton and herbivorous fish.
  • Secondary Consumers:
  • These are carnivores that feed on primary consumers. Examples include small fish that eat zooplankton.
  • Tertiary Consumers:
  • These are top predators that feed on secondary consumers. Examples include larger fish, birds, and marine mammals.
  • Photosynthesis:
  • A process used by plants and other organisms to convert light energy into chemical energy that can later be released to fuel the organisms' activities.
  • It generally involves the green pigment chlorophyll and generates oxygen as a byproduct.
39

Who among the following was the founder of Raigarh gharana of Kathak?

  1. ((a))

    Raja Chakradhar Singh

  2. ((b))

    Shambhu Maharaj

  3. ((c))

    Ishwari Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Janaki Prasad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Raja Chakradhar Singh

The correct answer is Raja Chakradhar Singh.

Key Points

  • Raja Chakradhar Singh was the founder of the Raigarh Gharana of Kathak.
  • He was the ruler of Raigarh in the state of Chhattisgarh.
  • Raja Chakradhar Singh was a connoisseur of arts and a patron of classical dance and music.
  • Under his patronage, the Raigarh Gharana of Kathak flourished, and he encouraged the blending of traditional Kathak with other forms of Indian classical dance and music.

Additional Information

  • Kathak
  • Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance.
  • The word 'Kathak' is derived from the Vedic Sanskrit word 'Katha' which means "story", and the Kathakars (storytellers) would narrate stories through dance, music, and songs.
  • Kathak is characterized by intricate footwork, spins (chakkars), and expressive gestures and facial expressions.
  • The dance form originated in North India and has three main gharanas (schools) – Lucknow, Jaipur, and Banaras, along with the Raigarh Gharana founded by Raja Chakradhar Singh.
  • Raigarh Gharana
  • The Raigarh Gharana is known for its unique style that incorporates elements of both the Lucknow and Jaipur Gharanas.
  • It emphasizes a combination of elaborate footwork, rhythmic patterns, and graceful movements.
  • The Gharana also includes compositions that integrate classical music and dance, contributing to a rich cultural heritage.
  • Raja Chakradhar Singh's contributions to the Raigarh Gharana have had a lasting impact on the development and popularity of Kathak dance.
40

The Strait of Gibraltar connects which of the following Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea and separates Spain on the European continent from Morocco on the African continent?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Ocean

  2. ((b))

    Pacific Ocean

  3. ((c))

    Southern Ocean

  4. ((d))

    Atlantic Ocean

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Atlantic Ocean

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean.

Key Points

  • The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
  • It separates southern Spain (Europe) from northern Morocco (Africa).
  • The strait is one of the busiest maritime passages in the world, crucial for global shipping routes.
  • Historically, the strait has been of immense strategic and economic importance.

Additional Information

  • Atlantic Ocean
  • The Atlantic Ocean is the second-largest ocean in the world, covering approximately 20% of the Earth's surface.
  • It is bounded by the Americas to the west and Europe and Africa to the east.
  • The ocean plays a crucial role in regulating the global climate and weather patterns.
  • It is an essential route for international trade and has numerous important shipping lanes.
  • Strait of Gibraltar
  • The Strait of Gibraltar is about 13 kilometers (8 miles) wide at its narrowest point.
  • It has been a critical geographical feature for navigation and trade for centuries.
  • The strait also marks the boundary between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea.
  • It is one of the key routes for oil and gas transportation and other maritime traffic between Europe, Africa, and Asia.
  • Maritime Significance
  • The Strait of Gibraltar is one of the world's busiest maritime routes, with thousands of ships passing through it annually.
  • It serves as a passage for vessels traveling between the Atlantic and the Mediterranean, including those from the Suez Canal to the Americas.
  • The strait's strategic location has made it a focal point for naval operations and maritime security.
41

Rajya Sabha enjoys which special power under Article 312 of the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    To put restriction on Government

  2. ((b))

    To appoint members of Human Rights Commission

  3. ((c))

    To create new All India service

  4. ((d))

    To extend special rights to certain people

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To create new All India service

The correct answer is To create new All India service.

Key Points

  • Article 312 of the Constitution of India grants the Rajya Sabha the special power to create new All India Services.
  • This power is exercised by passing a resolution with a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • All India Services are unique to India and include services such as the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFS).
  • The establishment of new All India Services is aimed at ensuring a uniform standard of administration across the states of India.

Additional Information

  • Article 312 of the Constitution of India:
  • It empowers Parliament to create new All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by a two-thirds majority.
  • All India Services are crucial for maintaining high standards of governance and uniformity in administration throughout the country.
  • All India Services:
  • These services are common to both the Union and the States.
  • Officers of these services serve both under the Central Government and State Governments, ensuring a bridge between the Centre and the States.
  • IAS, IPS, and IFS are the existing All India Services.
  • Rajya Sabha's Role:
  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India and represents the states and union territories.
  • It has the power to pass resolutions that can lead to the creation of new All India Services.
  • This ensures that the states have a say in the creation and functioning of such important services.
42

Which of the following is the outcome of globalisation of a country’s economy?

  1. ((a))

    Outsourcing

  2. ((b))

    Monetary policy reforms

  3. ((c))

    Dis-investment

  4. ((d))

    Fiscal policy reforms

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Outsourcing

The correct answer is Outsourcing.

Key Points

  • Outsourcing refers to the practice of hiring external firms to handle work that was previously done internally. This can include services like customer support, IT services, manufacturing, etc.
  • Globalisation has enabled companies to access a larger pool of resources and talent at competitive rates, making outsourcing a viable and often cost-effective option.
  • Through outsourcing, companies can focus on their core business activities and delegate non-core functions to specialized service providers, thus improving efficiency and productivity.
  • Outsourcing can lead to job creation in developing countries, thus contributing to their economic growth and development.

Additional Information

  • Globalisation
  • Globalisation refers to the process by which businesses or other organisations develop international influence or start operating on an international scale.
  • It is characterized by the free flow of goods, services, and capital across borders, the spread of technology, and the movement of people.
  • Globalisation has led to increased trade and investment, higher levels of economic integration, and cultural exchanges among nations.
  • While globalisation can bring about economic growth and development, it can also lead to challenges such as income inequality, cultural homogenization, and environmental degradation.
  • Monetary Policy Reforms
  • Monetary policy reforms refer to changes or adjustments made to a country's monetary policy to achieve economic objectives such as controlling inflation, managing employment levels, and ensuring economic stability.
  • These reforms can include adjustments to interest rates, changes in the money supply, and other measures implemented by the central bank.
  • Monetary policy reforms are often used to respond to economic crises and to promote sustainable economic growth.
  • Dis-investment
  • Dis-investment refers to the process of selling off government-owned assets or shares in public sector enterprises to private investors.
  • It is often used as a strategy to reduce the fiscal burden on the government, improve public sector efficiency, and promote private sector participation in the economy.
  • Dis-investment can also help in raising funds for other development and social welfare programs.
  • Fiscal Policy Reforms
  • Fiscal policy reforms involve changes to government spending and taxation policies to influence economic activity.
  • These reforms can include tax cuts or increases, changes in government spending on infrastructure, education, and healthcare, and measures to reduce the fiscal deficit.
  • Fiscal policy reforms aim to promote economic growth, reduce unemployment, and ensure long-term fiscal sustainability.
43

Music composer Debojyoti Mishra has won the Best Music Director award at the 20th Imagine India Film Festival in __________ for his work in film ‘Bansuri: The Flute’.

  1. ((a))

    Spain

  2. ((b))

    France

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    Italy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Spain

The correct answer is Spain.

Key Points

  • The 20th Imagine India Film Festival was held in Spain, recognizing outstanding contributions to cinema.
  • Debojyoti Mishra won the Best Music Director award for his work in the film 'Bansuri: The Flute'.
  • 'Bansuri: The Flute' is a renowned film that has received critical acclaim for its music and storytelling.
  • The Imagine India Film Festival is known for celebrating artistic excellence and cultural diversity in the film industry.

Additional Information

  • Imagine India Film Festival
  • The Imagine India Film Festival is an annual event that takes place in Spain, focusing on showcasing films from India and other Asian countries.
  • The festival aims to promote cultural exchange and understanding through cinema, providing a platform for filmmakers to showcase their work.
  • It features a variety of categories, including feature films, documentaries, and short films, with awards given for different aspects of filmmaking such as direction, acting, and music.
  • The festival attracts international attention and participation, highlighting the diverse and rich cinematic traditions of the participating countries.
  • Debojyoti Mishra
  • Debojyoti Mishra is an acclaimed Indian music composer known for his work in both the film industry and theatre.
  • He has composed music for numerous films, receiving accolades for his ability to blend traditional and contemporary music styles.
  • His work in 'Bansuri: The Flute' has been particularly praised for its emotional depth and musical sophistication.
  • Mishra has also been involved in various cultural projects and collaborations, contributing to the enrichment of Indian music and arts.
  • 'Bansuri: The Flute'
  • 'Bansuri: The Flute' is a film that tells a poignant story, enriched by its musical score composed by Debojyoti Mishra.
  • The film has garnered attention for its narrative and the way music is intricately woven into the storytelling.
  • It has been featured in several film festivals, receiving praise for its artistic and technical achievements.
  • The music of the film plays a crucial role in conveying the emotional undertones and enhancing the overall viewing experience.
44

Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option regarding Indian folk and tribal dance styles.

 

i) Chailam is the folk dance of Mizoram.

 

ii) Hojagiri is the folk dance of Gujarat.

 

iii) Bidesia is the folk dance of Bihar.

  1. ((a))

    Only (ii) is correct.

  2. ((b))

    Both (i) and (iii) are correct.

  3. ((c))

    Both (ii) and (iii) are correct.

  4. ((d))

    Only (i) is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both (i) and (iii) are correct.

The correct answer is Both (i) and (iii) are correct.

Key Points

  • Chailam is indeed the folk dance of Mizoram. This dance is traditionally performed during the festival of Chapchar Kut.
  • Bidesia is a popular folk dance-drama of Bihar, known for its unique style and thematic presentations often revolving around social issues.
  • Hojagiri, which was incorrectly attributed to Gujarat in the question, is actually a folk dance of the Reang community in Tripura.
  • Folk and tribal dances are an integral part of India's cultural heritage, reflecting the traditions, values, and life of the local communities.

Additional Information

  • Chailam Dance:
  • Chailam is performed during the Chapchar Kut festival, which is one of the most significant festivals in Mizoram.
  • The dance involves both men and women forming a circle and dancing to the beat of traditional instruments like the drum and gong.
  • It is a celebration of the end of the agricultural season and a time for the community to come together in joy and festivity.
  • Hojagiri Dance:
  • Hojagiri is a folk dance performed by the Reang community in Tripura.
  • The dance is known for its unique balancing acts where the dancers balance on earthen pitchers and showcase intricate footwork and body movements.
  • It is usually performed during the Hojagiri festival, which is a post-harvest celebration.
  • Bidesia Dance:
  • Bidesia is a folk theatre form that originated in the Bhojpuri-speaking region of Bihar.
  • It was created by Bhikhari Thakur, who is often referred to as the 'Shakespeare of Bhojpuri literature'.
  • The dance-drama typically addresses social issues such as migration, women's rights, and economic hardships.
  • Performances are characterized by lively music, dance, and poignant storytelling that resonates with the rural audience.
45

If NDP at factor cost = ₹1,050 crore

Subsidies = ₹40 crore

Net factor income from abroad = ₹10 crore

How much is NNP at factor cost?

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,060 crore

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,100 crore

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,090 crore

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,040 crore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹1,060 crore

The correct answer is ₹1,060 crore.

Key Points

  • Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost is calculated by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to Net Domestic Product (NDP) at factor cost.
  • In this problem, NDP at factor cost is given as ₹1,050 crore.
  • Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is given as ₹10 crore.
  • Therefore, NNP at factor cost = NDP at factor cost + NFIA = ₹1,050 crore + ₹10 crore = ₹1,060 crore.

Additional Information

  • Net Domestic Product (NDP)
  • Net Domestic Product (NDP) is the total value of all goods and services produced within a country in a specific period, minus depreciation.
  • It is similar to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but excludes depreciation costs.
  • Net National Product (NNP)
  • Net National Product (NNP) is the market value of a nation's goods and services minus depreciation.
  • It includes the total income of a nation's residents and businesses, including any income from abroad.
  • Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA)
  • Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is the difference between the income residents receive from abroad for factor services (such as labor, capital) and the income paid to foreign residents for their factor services within the domestic economy.
  • It can be positive or negative depending on whether the nation is a net receiver or payer of factor income.
  • Subsidies
  • Subsidies are financial aids provided by the government to individuals or businesses to promote economic and social policies.
  • They are not directly related to the calculation of NNP at factor cost in this question.
46

In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is it mentioned that “it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem”?

  1. ((a))

    51A (f)

  2. ((b))

    51A (a)

  3. ((c))

    51A (k)

  4. ((d))

    51A (j)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

51A (a)

The correct answer is 51A (a).

Key Points

  • Article 51A of the Constitution of India enumerates the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
  • Clause (a) of Article 51A states that "it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem".
  • Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • These duties serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they must also be conscious of the duties they owe to their country, their society, and to their fellow citizens.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • The Fundamental Duties are a set of tenets enshrined in Part IVA of the Indian Constitution.
  • Initially, there were ten Fundamental Duties; later, an eleventh duty was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
  • These duties are inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union and aim to instill a sense of patriotic citizenship among Indian citizens.
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts for their violation.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • Also known as the "Mini-Constitution," the 42nd Amendment Act is one of the most comprehensive amendments to the Indian Constitution.
  • It brought about significant changes, including the addition of Fundamental Duties and the alteration of the Preamble to include the terms "Socialist" and "Secular."
  • It also curtailed the power of the judiciary and increased the power of the central government, making it a controversial amendment.
  • National Flag and National Anthem
  • The National Flag of India, also known as the Tiranga, consists of three horizontal stripes of saffron, white, and green, with a 24-spoke navy blue Ashoka Chakra in the center.
  • The National Anthem of India, "Jana Gana Mana," was composed by Rabindranath Tagore and adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem on January 24, 1950.
  • Both the National Flag and National Anthem are symbols of India's sovereignty, unity, and integrity, and are to be respected by all citizens.
47

Showcasing its wildlife and religious sites at the 74th parade, which of the following states’ tableau won 1st prize at the 2023 Republic Day?

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Uttarakhand

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Arunachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • Uttarakhand's tableau showcased the state's rich wildlife and prominent religious sites, capturing the essence of its natural beauty and cultural heritage.
  • The tableau featured iconic elements such as the Corbett National Park, famous for its tiger reserve and diverse flora and fauna.
  • It also highlighted significant religious sites like Kedarnath, which is one of the most revered pilgrimage destinations in India.
  • The intricate design and vibrant representation of Uttarakhand's tableau earned it the first prize at the 2023 Republic Day parade.

Additional Information

  • Republic Day Parade
  • The Republic Day parade is an annual event held in New Delhi, India, to mark the adoption of the Constitution of India on January 26, 1950.
  • The parade showcases India's cultural diversity, military prowess, and achievements in various fields.
  • Various states present their tableaux during the parade, highlighting their unique cultural heritage, achievements, and important landmarks.
  • The parade is attended by dignitaries, including the President of India, and is watched by millions of people across the country.
  • Jim Corbett National Park
  • Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India, established in 1936.It is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand and is named after the famous hunter and conservationist Jim Corbett.
  • The park is known for its Bengal tigers, diverse wildlife, and scenic landscapes.
  • It plays a crucial role in the conservation of tigers and is a popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts and tourists.
  • Kedarnath
  • Kedarnath is one of the holiest Hindu shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva, situated in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.
  • The temple is part of the Char Dham pilgrimage circuit, which includes four sacred shrines in the Indian Himalayas.
  • Kedarnath is located at an altitude of 3,583 meters and is known for its spiritual significance and breathtaking natural beauty.
  • The temple attracts thousands of pilgrims every year, especially during the summer months when the shrine is accessible.
48

Which of the following dynasties ruled Magadha just before the establishment of the Maurya Empire in ancient India by Chandragupta Maurya?

  1. ((a))

    Brihadratha

  2. ((b))

    Pradyot

  3. ((c))

    Shishunaga

  4. ((d))

    Nand

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nand

The correct answer is Nand.

Key Points

  • The Nanda Dynasty was the ruling dynasty of Magadha in northern India during the 4th century BCE.
  • It was established by Mahapadma Nanda, who is considered the first ruler of the dynasty.
  • The Nanda Dynasty is known for its vast wealth and extensive military strength, which helped in maintaining control over a large part of the Indian subcontinent.
  • The last ruler of the Nanda Dynasty, Dhana Nanda, was overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya, who then established the Maurya Empire.

Additional Information

  • Magadha
  • Magadha was an ancient Indian kingdom in southern Bihar, and it played a significant role in the history of India.
  • It was known for its powerful rulers and military prowess, which allowed it to dominate other regions.
  • Magadha became the center of various important dynasties, including the Haryanka, Shishunaga, Nanda, and Maurya dynasties.
  • Chandragupta Maurya
  • Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire in ancient India.
  • He established the empire by overthrowing the Nanda Dynasty with the help of his mentor and advisor, Chanakya.
  • Chandragupta's reign marked the beginning of one of the largest empires in Indian history, which included a significant part of the Indian subcontinent.
  • Chanakya
  • Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, was an ancient Indian teacher, philosopher, economist, jurist, and royal advisor.
  • He played a crucial role in the establishment of the Maurya Empire by assisting Chandragupta Maurya in his rise to power.
  • Chanakya is traditionally identified as the author of the Arthashastra, an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
  • Arthashastra
  • The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian Sanskrit treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
  • It is attributed to Chanakya and is considered one of the most comprehensive texts on governance and administration from ancient India.
  • The Arthashastra discusses various topics, including politics, economics, military strategy, law, and diplomacy.
49

Match the columns with respect to the ranking of the given countries on the Human Development Index 2021/2022 out of 191 countries.

CountryRank
1.Chinaa.161
2.Nepalb.143
3.Pakistanc.79
  1. ((a))

    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a

  2. ((b))

    1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b

  3. ((c))

    1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c

  4. ((d))

    1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a

The correct answer is 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a.

Key Points

  • China is ranked 79 on the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021/2022, reflecting its relatively high level of development among the given countries.
  • Nepal holds the rank of 143, indicating a medium level of human development.
  • Pakistan is ranked 161, suggesting a lower level of human development compared to China and Nepal.
  • The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.

Additional Information

  • Human Development Index (HDI):
  • The HDI is a summary measure for assessing long-term progress in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life (life expectancy), access to knowledge (education), and a decent standard of living (income).
  • It was introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990.
  • Countries are ranked on a scale from 0 to 1, with higher values indicating higher human development.
  • The HDI is used to compare the level of development of different countries and to assess the impact of economic policies on quality of life.
  • Significance of HDI Rankings:
  • High HDI rankings indicate countries with higher life expectancy, better education systems, and higher income per capita.
  • Countries with lower HDI rankings may face challenges such as poverty, poor healthcare, and inadequate education.
  • Policies aimed at improving healthcare, education, and income distribution can help improve a country's HDI ranking.
  • Implications for Policy:
  • Governments use HDI rankings to identify areas that need improvement and to allocate resources more effectively.
  • International organizations and donors also use HDI data to target development assistance and to monitor progress.
  • Higher HDI rankings can attract foreign investment and improve a country's global standing.
50

Chitrakot Falls is a natural waterfall known as Niagara Falls of India, located on the _______ river in the state of Chhattisgarh, India.

  1. ((a))

    Varahi River

  2. ((b))

    Indravati River

  3. ((c))

    Mandovi River

  4. ((d))

    Chandravanka River

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Indravati River

The correct answer is Indravati River.

Key Points

  • Chitrakot Falls is situated on the Indravati River in the state of Chhattisgarh, India.
  • It is often referred to as the Niagara Falls of India due to its horseshoe shape and large volume of water.
  • The falls are located approximately 38 kilometers from Jagdalpur in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.
  • The height of Chitrakot Falls is about 29 meters (95 feet), making it one of the widest waterfalls in India.

Additional Information

  • Indravati River
  • The Indravati River is a tributary of the Godavari River, one of the major rivers in India.
  • It originates from the Eastern Ghats in Odisha and flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra before joining the Godavari River in Telangana.
  • The river passes through dense forests and tribal regions, contributing significantly to the irrigation and water resources in these areas.
  • Chhattisgarh
  • Chhattisgarh is a state located in central India, known for its rich cultural heritage and natural beauty.
  • The state is famous for its waterfalls, caves, and wildlife, making it a popular destination for nature enthusiasts and tourists.
  • Chhattisgarh is also known for its tribal communities, who have preserved their unique traditions and customs over the centuries.
  • Waterfalls in India
  • India is home to numerous breathtaking waterfalls, each with its unique charm and significance.
  • Some of the famous waterfalls in India include Jog Falls in Karnataka, Dudhsagar Falls in Goa, Athirappilly Falls in Kerala, and Nohkalikai Falls in Meghalaya.
  • These waterfalls attract thousands of tourists every year, contributing to the local economy and promoting eco-tourism.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Find the number on the face opposite to the one showing '4'.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5

For find the opposite surface of '4', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from 6 we get;

In dice 1, 6 is adjacent to 5 and 2.

In dice 2, 6 is adjacent to 4 and 1.

→ 6 ⇔ 6; 2 ⇔ 1; 5 ⇔ 4

So, the remaining '5' will be the opposite face of '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

52

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

53

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

XPEQ, TNIS, ?, LJQW, HHUY

  1. ((a))

    PLNU

  2. ((b))

    OLNU

  3. ((c))

    OKNV

  4. ((d))

    PLMU

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

PLMU

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "PLMU".

54

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some Fishes are Cats.

All Cats are Soft.

Conclusions:

I. All Soft are Cats.

II. Some Fishes are Soft.

  1. ((a))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows.

Statements:

Some Fishes are Cats.

All Cats are Soft.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All Soft are Cats. - False (because All cats are soft so All soft are cats it is possible only)

II. Some Fishes are Soft. - True (because Some Fishes are Cats and All Cats are Soft. So, Some Fishes are Soft too)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows."

55

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

All letters in vertical are shifting their position from top to bottom.

Letter on left surface and on right surface are interchanging their position.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All four surface letters are shifting their position.

Middle letter is at the same position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

56

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

57

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The figures will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

58

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

59

In a certain code language, 'SUGAR' is written as 'VHBST' and 'TEAPOT’ is written as 'FBQPUU'. How will 'PAINT' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    UOJBQ

  2. ((b))

    QBJOU

  3. ((c))

    BJOUQ

  4. ((d))

    BJOQU

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BJOUQ

The logic followed here is:

'SUGAR' is written as 'VHBST'

'TEAPOT’ is written as 'FBQPUU

Similarly, 'PAINT' will be written as:

Hence, the correct answer is "BJOUQ".

60

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

56, 97, 179, 343, 671, ?

  1. ((a))

    3231

  2. ((b))

    1327

  3. ((c))

    3442

  4. ((d))

    4232

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1327

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "1327".

61

Following question consists of 4 figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Problem Figures followed by 4 other figures called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the four Problem Figures.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

All shapes are shifting in anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

62

If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘×’, ‘C’ denotes ‘−’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

(98 C 8) B 2 A 16 = ?

  1. ((a))

    104

  2. ((b))

    98

  3. ((c))

    196

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

196

Given Equation: (98 C 8) B 2 A 16 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning+×÷

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ (98 C 8) B 2 A 16 = ?

(98 − 8) × 2 + 16 = ?

90 × 2 + 16 = ?

180 + 16

196

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

63

Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

64

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(12, 44), (17, 64)

  1. ((a))

    (27, 94)

  2. ((b))

    (31, 124)

  3. ((c))

    (22, 84)

  4. ((d))

    (18, 74)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(22, 84)

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: 1st number × 4 - 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For (12, 44):

⇒ 12 × 4 - 4

= 48 - 4 = 44.

For (17, 64)

⇒ 17 × 4 - 4

= 68 - 4 = 64.

Similarly, for Option 3: (22, 84)

⇒ 22 × 4 - 4

= 88 - 4 = 84.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Code
65

Which of the figures given in the options is embedded in the following figure? (Rotation is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

66

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

67

How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

  1. ((a))

    23

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

Counting the triangles:

Thus triangles are there in the given figure = 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

68

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

69

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

All 3 bottom symbols are interchanging their position.

Top-left symbol shifts in middle surface and middle surface symbol shifts in middle position, middle shifts in middle-right position and middle-right symbol shifts in top-left corner position.

Top-right corner symbol interchange its position with left-middle position symbol.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All 3 top symbols are interchanging their position.

Bottom and middle all 6 symbols are interchanging their position

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

70

Four different positions of the same dice are shown below. What is opposite to 3?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 4,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from 3 we get;

In dice 1, 3 is adjacent to 2 and 6.

In dice 4, 3 is adjacent to 5 and 1.

3 ⇔ 3; 2 ⇔ 1; 5 ⇔ 6

So, the remaining '4' will be the opposite face of '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

71

Observe the dots on a dice (one to six dots) in the following figures. How many dots are contained on the face opposite to that containing two dots?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

One

For find the opposite surface of 'two dots', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

In both dice, 4 and 6 dots are common.

So, the remaining 'one dot' will be the opposite face of 'two dots'.

Hence, the correct answer is "One".

72

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

NEVER : PGXGT :: BELOW : DGNQY :: AGAIN : ________

  1. ((a))

    DJDLQ

  2. ((b))

    BHBJO

  3. ((c))

    CICKP

  4. ((d))

    ZFZHM

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CICKP

The logic followed here is:

NEVER : PGXGT

BELOW : DGNQY

Similarly, AGAIN : ________

Hence, the correct answer is "CICKP".

73

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

34 : 170 :: 68 : ? :: 17 : 85

  1. ((a))

    360

  2. ((b))

    340

  3. ((c))

    320

  4. ((d))

    300

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

340

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 5) = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 34 : 170

⇒ (34 × 5) = 170.

For, 17 : 85

⇒ (17 × 5) = 85.

Similarly, for 68 : ?

⇒ (68 × 5) = 340.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

74

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

2 × 4 ÷ 5 - 25 + 5 = 8

  1. ((a))

    − and ×

  2. ((b))

    − and +

  3. ((c))

    ÷ and +

  4. ((d))

    ÷ and ×

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

÷ and +

Given equation: 2 × 4 ÷ 5 - 25 + 5 = 8

Option 1) − and ×

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 2 - 4 ÷ 5 × 25 + 5 = 8

⇒ 2 - 0.8 × 25 + 5 = 8

2 - 20 + 5 = 8

7 - 20 = 8

⇒ -13 = 8

Option 2) − and +

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 2 × 4 ÷ 5 + 25 - 5 = 8

⇒ 2 × 0.8 + 25 - 5 = 8

⇒ 1.6 + 25 - 5 = 8

26.6 - 5 = 8

⇒ 21.6 = 8

Option 3) ÷ and +

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 2 × 4 + 5 - 25 ÷ 5 = 8

2 × 4 + 5 - 5 = 8

8 + 5 - 5 = 8

13 - 5 = 8

8 = 8

Option 4) ÷ and ×

By interchanging which two signs:

⇒ 2 ÷ 4 × 5 - 25 + 5 = 8

0.5 × 5 - 25 + 5 = 8

2.5 - 25 + 5 = 8

7.5 - 25 = 8

⇒ -17.5 = 8

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ and +".

75

Seven girls - H, J, K, L, M, N and O - are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only four girls sit between O and N. Only O sits to the right of L. H sits exactly between J and K. Who among the following sits at the extreme left end of the row?

  1. ((a))

    J

  2. ((b))

    M

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M

Given: Seven girls - H, J, K, L, M, N and O - are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

  1. Only O sits to the right of L.

2) Only four girls sit between O and N.

  1. H sits exactly between J and K.

Final arrangement:

So, M sits at the extreme left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "M".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

Raju sold a watch to Sanjeev at a 20% gain; Sanjeev sold it to Mukesh at a loss of 10%. If Mukesh bought it for ₹4,860, then at what price did Raju purchase it?

  1. ((a))

    ₹4,450

  2. ((b))

    ₹4,500

  3. ((c))

    ₹4,400

  4. ((d))

    ₹4,550

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹4,500

Given:

Raju sold a watch to Sanjeev at a 20% gain.

Sanjeev sold it to Mukesh at a loss of 10%.

Mukesh bought it for ₹4,860.

Formula Used:

Let the purchase price of the watch for Raju be ₹P.

Raju's selling price to Sanjeev = P + 20% of P = P + 0.2P = 1.2P

Sanjeev's selling price to Mukesh = 1.2P - 10% of 1.2P = 1.2P - 0.12 × 1.2P = 1.2P × 0.9 = 1.08P

Calculation:

Mukesh bought the watch for ₹4,860.

So, 1.08P = 4,860

⇒ P = 4,860 / 1.08

⇒ P = 4,500

The price at which Raju purchased the watch is ₹4,500.

77

The ratio of a Aman’s age to Shivam’s age is 4 : 3. The product of their ages is 588. The ratio of their ages after 5 years will be:

  1. ((a))

    31 : 25

  2. ((b))

    33 : 24

  3. ((c))

    35 : 26

  4. ((d))

    33 : 26

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

33 : 26

Given:

The ratio of Aman's age to Shivam's age is 4 : 3.

The product of their ages is 588.

Formula Used:

Let Aman's age be 4x and Shivam's age be 3x.

4x × 3x = 588

Ratio of their ages after 5 years = (Aman's age + 5) : (Shivam's age + 5)

Calculation:

4x × 3x = 588

12x2 = 588

⇒ x2 = 588 / 12

⇒ x2 = 49

⇒ x = 7

Aman's age = 4x = 4 × 7 = 28

Shivam's age = 3x = 3 × 7 = 21

Aman's age after 5 years = 28 + 5 = 33

Shivam's age after 5 years = 21 + 5 = 26

Ratio of their ages after 5 years = 33 : 26

The correct answer is option 4.

78

The population of a village 4 years ago was 3,20,000. Due to migration to cities, it decreases at the rate of 5% every year. Find the decrease in its population in the last 4 years.

  1. ((a))

    83,595

  2. ((b))

    59,358

  3. ((c))

    53,985

  4. ((d))

    93,558

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

59,358

Given:

Population of a village 4 years ago = 3,20,000

Rate of decrease per year = 5%

Formula Used:

Population after n years = P × (1 - r/100)n

Decrease in population = Initial Population - Population after n years

Calculation:

Initial Population, P = 3,20,000

Rate of decrease, r = 5%

Number of years, n = 4

Population after 4 years = 3,20,000 × (1 - 5/100)4

⇒ Population after 4 years = 3,20,000 × (0.95)4

⇒ Population after 4 years = 3,20,000 × 0.8145

⇒ Population after 4 years ≈ 2,60,642

Decrease in population = 3,20,000 - 2,60,642

⇒ Decrease in population = 59,358

The decrease in the population in the last 4 years is 59,358.

79

A thief was noticed by a policeman from a distance of 300 m. Seeing the policeman, the thief started running at 12 km/h and the policeman chased him at 13 km/h. What is the distance between them after 12 minutes?

  1. ((a))

    90 m

  2. ((b))

    120 m

  3. ((c))

    105 m

  4. ((d))

    100 m 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

100 m 

Given:

Distance between thief and policeman = 300 m.

Speed of thief = 12 km/h.

Speed of policeman = 13 km/h.

Time = 12 minutes.

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Speed of policeman - Speed of thief

Distance = Relative speed × Time

Calculation:

Relative speed = 13 km/h - 12 km/h

Relative speed = 1 km/h

Time = 12 minutes = 12/60 hours = 1/5 hours

Distance covered in 1/5 hours at 1 km/h = 1 km/h × 1/5 hours

⇒ Distance = 1/5 km

1 km = 1000 m

⇒ Distance = (1/5) × 1000 m

⇒ Distance = 200 m

Initial distance between them was 300 m

⇒ Distance after 12 minutes = Initial distance - Distance covered

⇒ Distance after 12 minutes = 300 m - 200 m

⇒ Distance after 12 minutes = 100 m

The distance between them after 12 minutes is 100 m.

80

Which of the following numbers is a prime number?

  1. ((a))

    143

  2. ((b))

    137

  3. ((c))

    141

  4. ((d))

    133

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

137

Shortcut Trick

Check divisibility for each number up to √143 ≈ 12 (i.e., 2, 3, 5, 7, 11).

143 = 11 × 13 (Not prime)

141 = 3 × 47 (Not prime)

133 = 7 × 19 (Not prime)

137 is not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, or 11.

∴ The correct answer is 137.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers 143, 137, 141, 133.

Formula Used: A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

⇒ For 143: Sum of digits = 1+4+3 = 8. Divisible by 11 (1+3 − 4 = 0). Not prime.

⇒ For 137: √137 ≈ 11.7. Primes to check: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11. None divide 137. Prime.

⇒ For 141: Sum of digits = 1+4+1 = 6. Divisible by 3. Not prime.

⇒ For 133: 133 ÷ 7 = 19. Not prime.

∴ The correct answer is 137.

Additional Information

Prime Number Test

To check if N is prime, test divisibility by all prime numbers less than or equal to √N.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 1.

Smallest Prime

2 is the only even prime number and the smallest prime number.

81

What is the value of 4 × 0.4 × 0.04 × 0.004 × 40 ?

  1. ((a))

    0.1024

  2. ((b))

    0.0256

  3. ((c))

    0.01024

  4. ((d))

    0.00256

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

0.01024

Given:

4 × 0.4 × 0.04 × 0.004 × 40

Formula Used:

Product of numbers

Calculation:

4 × 0.4 = 1.6

1.6 × 0.04 = 0.064

0.064 × 0.004 = 0.000256

0.000256 × 40 = 0.01024

The value of 4 × 0.4 × 0.04 × 0.004 × 40 is 0.01024.

82

A shopkeeper marks up the price of an article by 60%. He offers two successive discounts of 10% and 15% on it. He earns X% profit. What is the value of X ?

  1. ((a))

    20.4

  2. ((b))

    22.4

  3. ((c))

    23.60

  4. ((d))

    25.60

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

22.4

Given:

Markup on price = 60%

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 15%

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Selling Price - Cost Price)/Cost Price × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be ₹100.

Markup Price = CP + 60% of CP

Markup Price = 100 + 60% of 100

Markup Price = 100 + 60

Markup Price = ₹160

First Discount = 10% of ₹160

First Discount = 10/100 × 160

First Discount = ₹16

Selling Price after first discount = 160 - 16

Selling Price after first discount = ₹144

Second Discount = 15% of ₹144

Second Discount = 15/100 × 144

Second Discount = ₹21.6

Selling Price after second discount = 144 - 21.6

Selling Price after second discount = ₹122.4

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Profit = 122.4 - 100

Profit = ₹22.4

Profit % = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (22.4 / 100) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 22.4%

The value of X is 22.4%.

83

Simplify the following.

0.4×0.4+0.2×0.020.016 \frac{0.4 \times 0.4+0.2 \times 0.02}{0.016}

  1. ((a))

    101810 \frac{1}{8}

  2. ((b))

    101410 \frac{1}{4}

  3. ((c))

    101210 \frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    101510 \frac{1}{5}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

101410 \frac{1}{4}

Given:

Expression: (0.4 × 0.4 + 0.2 × 0.02) / 0.016

Formula Used:

Simplification of the given expression

Calculation:

First, calculate the numerator:

0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16

0.2 × 0.02 = 0.004

Numerator = 0.16 + 0.004

Numerator = 0.164

Now, calculate the division:

Denominator = 0.016

⇒ (0.164) / (0.016)

⇒ 10.25 = 101410 \frac{1}{4}

The correct answer is option 2.

84

The average of 7 consecutive integers is 7. What is the value of the greatest number in these?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

Given:

The average of 7 consecutive integers is 7.

Formula Used:

If n is the middle integer in 7 consecutive integers, then the integers are n - 3, n - 2, n - 1, n, n + 1, n + 2, n + 3.

Average of these integers = n.

Calculation:

Given average = 7

n = 7

Greatest number = n + 3

⇒ Greatest number = 7 + 3

⇒ Greatest number = 10

The greatest number in these 7 consecutive integers is 10.

85

A student’s marks (out of 100 in each subject) changed from the first term exams to the second term exams as follows: in Mathematics from 60 to 78, in Science 84 to 82, in Social studies 76 to 64. What is the percentage change in his marks from the first term exams to the second term exams?

  1. ((a))

    1.81% increase

  2. ((b))

    2.24% increase

  3. ((c))

    2.24% decrease

  4. ((d))

    1.81% decrease

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1.81% increase

Given:

Marks in first term:

Mathematics = 60, Science = 84, Social Studies = 76

Marks in second term:

Mathematics = 78, Science = 82, Social Studies = 64

Formula Used:

Percentage change in marks = [(Total marks in second term - Total marks in first term) / Total marks in first term] × 100

Calculation:

Step 1: Calculate total marks in first term:

Total marks in first term = 60 + 84 + 76 = 220

Step 2: Calculate total marks in second term:

Total marks in second term = 78 + 82 + 64 = 224

Step 3: Calculate percentage change:

Percentage change = [(224 - 220) / 220] × 100

⇒ Percentage change = (4 / 220) × 100

⇒ Percentage change = 1.81%

∴ The percentage change in his marks is 1.81%.

86

A pillar 42 cm in diameter is 15 m high. How much material (in cm3) was used to construct it ? (Take π = 227\frac{22}{7}).

  1. ((a))

    2.079 × 106

  2. ((b))

    2.079 × 10-4

  3. ((c))

    2.079 × 105

  4. ((d))

    2.079 × 10-3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.079 × 106

Given:

Diameter of the pillar = 42 cm

Height of the pillar = 15 m = 1500 cm

π = \frac{22}{7}

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder = π r2 h

Calculation:

Radius of the pillar = Diameter / 2 = 42 / 2 = 21 cm

Volume of the pillar = π r2 h

Volume = (22/7) × 212 × 1500

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 441 × 1500

⇒ Volume = 22 × 63 × 1500

⇒ Volume = 22 × 94500

⇒ Volume = 2079000 cm3

The correct answer is option 1: 2.079 × 106 cm3.

87

A sum becomes two times in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. Find the time (in years) in which the same amount will be seven times at the same rate of interest.

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

Given:

A sum becomes two times in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest formula: A=P(1+rt)A = P(1 + rt)

Where A is the amount, P is the principal, r is the rate of interest per year, and t is the time in years.

Calculation:

Let the principal amount be P and the rate of interest be r.

After 4 years, the amount becomes 2P.

Using the simple interest formula:

2P = P(1 + 4r)

⇒ 2 = 1 + 4r

⇒ 4r = 1

⇒ r = 1/4

We need to find the time (t) in which the amount becomes seven times the principal (7P):

Using the simple interest formula again:

7P = P(1 + rt)

⇒ 7 = 1 + (1/4)t

⇒ 7 - 1 = (1/4)t

⇒ 6 = (1/4)t

⇒ t = 6 × 4

⇒ t = 24

The time in which the same amount will be seven times at the same rate of interest is 24 years.

88

Ram and Shyam together can complete a work in 12 days. Shyam alone can complete the work in 15 days. Shyam alone worked for 5 days. After that, how long will Ram alone take to complete the work?

  1. ((a))

    29 days

  2. ((b))

    38 days

  3. ((c))

    35 days

  4. ((d))

    40 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40 days

Given:

Ram and Shyam together can complete the work in 12 days.

Shyam alone can complete the work in 15 days.

Shyam alone worked for 5 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by both together in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by Shyam alone in 1 day = 1/15

Work done by Ram alone in 1 day = 1/12 - 1/15

Remaining work after Shyam worked for 5 days = Total work - Work done by Shyam in 5 days

Time taken by Ram to complete the remaining work = Remaining work / Work done by Ram in 1 day

Calculation:

Work done by both together in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by Shyam alone in 1 day = 1/15

Work done by Ram alone in 1 day = 1/12 - 1/15

⇒ Work done by Ram alone in 1 day = (15 - 12) / (12 × 15)

⇒ Work done by Ram alone in 1 day = 3 / 180

⇒ Work done by Ram alone in 1 day = 1/60

Work done by Shyam in 5 days = 5 × (1/15)

⇒ Work done by Shyam in 5 days = 5/15

⇒ Work done by Shyam in 5 days = 1/3

Remaining work = 1 - 1/3

⇒ Remaining work = 2/3

Time taken by Ram to complete the remaining work = (2/3) / (1/60)

⇒ Time taken by Ram to complete the remaining work = (2/3) × 60

⇒ Time taken by Ram to complete the remaining work = 40 days

The correct answer is option 4.

89

The price of CNG is increased by 12%. By what percentage (correct up to two decimal places) must Shalini reduce consumption of CNG for her car so that there is no increment in her expenditure on CNG?

  1. ((a))

    13.64%

  2. ((b))

    12.00%

  3. ((c))

    10.71%

  4. ((d))

    9.33%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10.71%

Given:

The price of CNG is increased by 12%.

Formula Used:

If expenditure remains the same, then:

New Price × New Consumption = Old Price × Old Consumption

New Consumption = Old Consumption × (Old Price / New Price)

Percentage Reduction = (Old Consumption - New Consumption) / Old Consumption × 100

Calculation:

Let the old price be 1 unit and the old consumption be 1 unit.

New Price = Old Price + 12% of Old Price

New Price = 1 + 0.12

New Price = 1.12

New Consumption = 1 × (1 / 1.12)

New Consumption = 1 / 1.12

New Consumption = 0.892857

Percentage Reduction = (1 - 0.892857) / 1 × 100

Percentage Reduction = 0.107143 × 100

Percentage Reduction = 10.71%

The percentage reduction in consumption is 10.71%.

90

How many litres of water can a hemispherical bowl of radius 3 cm hold? (Use π = 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    56.52

  2. ((b))

    0.05652

  3. ((c))

    54.34

  4. ((d))

    0.05275

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.05652

Given:

Radius of the hemispherical bowl = 3 cm

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3) π r3

Calculation:

Volume of the bowl

⇒ (2/3) × 3.14 × 33

⇒ (2/3) × 3.14 × 27

⇒ 56.52 cm3

Since 1 cm3 = 0.001 liters

⇒ 56.52 cm3 = 56.52 × 0.001 liters

⇒ 0.05652 liters

The hemispherical bowl can hold 0.05652 liters of water.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

F1 is the shortcut key used by almost every Windows program to display which of the following menus?

  1. ((a))

    Rename

  2. ((b))

    Edit

  3. ((c))

    Help

  4. ((d))

    Refresh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Help

The correct answer is Help.

Key Points

  • The F1 key is universally recognized for opening the help menu in almost all Windows applications.
  • This function is crucial for users to quickly access help documentation or support resources within the software.
  • Help menus typically provide guidance on how to use the software, troubleshoot issues, and find additional resources.
  • The F1 key has been a standard for accessing help menus in software applications for many years, ensuring consistency and ease of use.

Additional Information

  • Shortcut Keys
  • Shortcut keys are combinations of keys that provide quick access to certain functions within a software application.
  • They are designed to save time and increase efficiency by allowing users to perform actions without navigating through menus.
  • Common examples include Ctrl+C for copy, Ctrl+V for paste, and Ctrl+Z for undo.
  • Help Menu
  • The help menu in a software application provides users with documentation and support for using the software.
  • It typically includes a user manual, troubleshooting tips, FAQs, and sometimes links to online resources or customer support.
  • Accessing the help menu can be critical for new users or when encountering issues with the software.
  • Windows Operating System
  • Windows is a series of operating systems developed by Microsoft, widely used on personal computers and enterprise environments.
  • It provides a graphical user interface (GUI) and supports a wide range of software applications.
  • Windows OS includes various built-in features and tools to enhance user productivity and system management.
  • Function Keys (F1-F12)
  • Function keys are located on the top row of a keyboard and serve specific purposes depending on the software being used.
  • In addition to F1 for help, other function keys include F2 for renaming files, F5 for refreshing the screen, and F11 for toggling full-screen mode in browsers.
  • These keys can often be customized or have additional functions when used with modifier keys like Ctrl, Alt, or Shift.
92

In MS Excel 365, how can you set a specific print area in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    By selecting the cells to be printed and defining the print area

  2. ((b))

    By adjusting the page margins in the print settings

  3. ((c))

    By changing the font size and style in the spreadsheet

  4. ((d))

    By applying conditional formatting to the data

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By selecting the cells to be printed and defining the print area

The correct answer is By selecting the cells to be printed and defining the print area.

Key Points

  • To set a specific print area in MS Excel, you need to select the cells that you want to print.
  • After selecting the cells, you can define the print area by going to the Page Layout tab and selecting 'Print Area' and then 'Set Print Area'.
  • This ensures that only the selected cells will be printed, ignoring other parts of the worksheet.
  • Defining a print area is particularly useful for large worksheets where you want to print only a specific section of your data.

Additional Information

  • Page Layout Tab:
  • The Page Layout tab in MS Excel contains various options that allow you to control the appearance and layout of your printed worksheet.
  • Options include setting margins, orientation, size, print area, breaks, background, and print titles.
  • Print Area:
  • A print area is one or more ranges of cells that you designate to print when you don't want to print the entire worksheet.
  • When you set a print area, Excel saves the print area with the workbook.
  • Each worksheet in a workbook can have its own print area.
  • Page Breaks:
  • Page breaks are used to control the layout of the printed pages by specifying where one page ends and the next begins.
  • You can insert or remove manual page breaks to ensure the data is printed as you want.
  • Print Titles:
  • Print titles are rows or columns that are repeated on every printed page.
  • This is useful for large datasets where you want to have headers or specific columns visible on every page for better readability.
93

Which of the following is the correct software used for Word processing?

  1. ((a))

    MS Excel

  2. ((b))

    MS PowerPoint

  3. ((c))

    MS Word

  4. ((d))

    MS Access

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MS Word

The correct answer is MS Word.

Key Points

  • MS Word is a word processing software developed by Microsoft.
  • It is part of the Microsoft Office suite and is widely used for creating and editing text documents.
  • MS Word offers a variety of features like spell check, grammar check, text formatting, and image insertion.
  • It allows users to create professional documents such as reports, letters, resumes, and brochures with ease.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel
  • It is a spreadsheet program developed by Microsoft.
  • MS Excel is used for data analysis, financial modeling, and creating charts and graphs.
  • It offers features like pivot tables, formulas, and macro programming.
  • MS Excel is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
  • MS PowerPoint
  • It is a presentation software developed by Microsoft.
  • MS PowerPoint is used to create slide show presentations.
  • It offers features like slide transitions, animations, and multimedia integration.
  • MS PowerPoint is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
  • MS Access
  • It is a database management system developed by Microsoft.
  • MS Access is used to create and manage databases.
  • It offers features like forms, reports, and SQL queries.
  • MS Access is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
94

What is the purpose of spellcheck in email composition?

  1. ((a))

    To check for and correct spelling errors

  2. ((b))

    To format the email text

  3. ((c))

    To add attachments to the email

  4. ((d))

    To translate the email into another language

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To check for and correct spelling errors

The correct answer is To check for and correct spelling errors.

Key Points

  • Spellcheck helps in identifying and correcting spelling mistakes in the text.
  • It enhances the professionalism and readability of the email content.
  • Spellcheck tools often provide suggestions for misspelled words, ensuring accuracy.
  • Automated spellcheck features can save time and reduce manual proofreading efforts.

Additional Information

  • Spellcheck in Email Composition:
  • Purpose: The main purpose of spellcheck is to identify and correct spelling mistakes in the text. This is crucial in professional communication to ensure that the email content is error-free and polished.
  • Functionality: Spellcheck tools work by scanning the text for words that are not found in the dictionary. When a misspelled word is detected, the tool highlights it and often provides suggestions for the correct spelling.
  • Importance: Using spellcheck helps maintain the credibility and professionalism of the sender. Emails with spelling errors can create a negative impression and may be perceived as unprofessional or careless.
  • Automatic vs Manual: Many email platforms offer automatic spellcheck features that underline misspelled words as you type. Additionally, users can manually run a spellcheck before sending the email to ensure all errors are corrected.
  • Formatting Email Text:
  • Formatting involves adjusting the font size, style, color, and alignment of the text to enhance the presentation of the email.
  • It is crucial for emphasizing important points and making the email visually appealing.
  • However, formatting is a separate function from spellcheck and does not involve correcting spelling errors.
  • Adding Attachments:
  • This function allows users to attach files such as documents, images, or other media to the email.
  • Attachments provide additional information or resources that support the email's content.
  • Adding attachments is a different task and is not related to correcting spelling errors.
  • Translating Emails:
  • Email translation tools convert the email text from one language to another.
  • This is helpful in communicating with recipients who speak different languages.
  • Translation is a separate feature and does not involve spellchecking the original text for spelling errors.
95

If the custom format of a number is XX,XX,XXX then how will 4482023 be displayed in Microsoft Excel 365?

  1. ((a))

    448,20,23

  2. ((b))

    4,48,2023

  3. ((c))

    44,82,023

  4. ((d))

    4482,02,3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

44,82,023

The correct answer is 44,82,023.

Key Points

  • In Microsoft Excel, custom number formats allow you to format numbers in a specific way, enhancing readability.
  • The format XX,XX,XXX is a custom format that groups digits in the 2-2-3 pattern, commonly used in certain locales for displaying large numbers.
  • When the number 4482023 is formatted with the custom format XX,XX,XXX, it will be displayed as 44,82,023.
  • This type of formatting is particularly useful in financial data representation, where clarity in large numbers is crucial.

Additional Information

  • Custom Number Formats in Excel
  • Custom number formats in Excel allow users to display numbers in various ways, including currency, percentages, dates, times, and more.
  • Custom formats are created using a combination of symbols and placeholders. For example, "#" is a digit placeholder, "," adds a thousand separator, and "0" forces a digit to display even if it's zero.
  • To create a custom number format, you can go to the "Format Cells" dialog box (Ctrl+1), choose "Custom," and then enter the desired format in the "Type" field.
  • Importance of Proper Number Formatting
  • Proper number formatting enhances the readability and comprehension of data, particularly in reports and financial statements.
  • It ensures consistency and professionalism in data presentation, which is vital for accurate interpretation and decision-making.
  • Using appropriate number formats can also help in avoiding errors and misinterpretations, especially in large datasets.
  • Examples of Custom Number Formats
  • ###,### - Displays numbers with comma separators for thousands. E.g., 1234567 will be displayed as 1,234,567.
  • 0.00% - Displays numbers as percentages with two decimal places. E.g., 0.1234 will be displayed as 12.34%.
  • [-409]#,##0.00 - Displays numbers as currency in US dollars with two decimal places. E.g., 1234.56 will be displayed as $1,234.56.
96

Which of the following is NOT an example of Instant Messaging in Internet?

  1. ((a))

    Discord

  2. ((b))

    Telegram

  3. ((c))

    WhatsApp

  4. ((d))

    Email

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Email

The correct answer is Email.

Key Points

  • Email is a method of exchanging messages between people using electronic devices.
  • Email operates across computer networks, primarily the Internet, and it is not considered an instant messaging service.
  • Instant Messaging (IM) services, like Discord, Telegram, and WhatsApp, allow users to communicate in real-time.
  • Email is typically used for more formal or long-form communication, whereas IM services are used for quick, conversational exchanges.

Additional Information

  • Discord
  • Discord is a VoIP, instant messaging, and digital distribution platform designed for creating communities.
  • Users communicate with voice calls, video calls, text messaging, media, and files in private chats or as part of communities called "servers".
  • Telegram
  • Telegram is a cloud-based instant messaging, video telephony, and VoIP service.
  • It allows users to send messages, photos, videos, and files of any type, as well as create groups for up to 200,000 people or channels for broadcasting to unlimited audiences.
  • WhatsApp
  • WhatsApp is a freeware, cross-platform messaging and Voice over IP (VoIP) service owned by Facebook.
  • It allows users to send text messages and voice messages, make voice and video calls, and share images, documents, user locations, and other media.
  • Email
  • Email (electronic mail) is a method of exchanging digital messages over the Internet or other computer networks.
  • It was one of the first uses of the Internet and is still one of the most widely used services.
  • Emails are typically used for longer, more formal communications.
97

What is the default alignment for text entered in Microsoft Excel 365 cells?

  1. ((a))

    Left aligned

  2. ((b))

    Justified

  3. ((c))

    Right aligned

  4. ((d))

    Center aligned

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Left aligned

The correct answer is Left aligned.

Key Points

  • By default, text entered into a cell in Microsoft Excel 365 is left-aligned. This means that the text starts at the left edge of the cell and moves towards the right.
  • Left alignment is the standard alignment for text in most spreadsheet applications, including Microsoft Excel, to ensure readability and consistency.
  • Numeric data, on the other hand, is right-aligned by default in Excel cells to facilitate easier reading and comparison of numbers.
  • Users can manually change the alignment of text in cells using the alignment options available in the toolbar or the Format Cells dialog box.

Additional Information

  • Cell Alignment in Microsoft Excel
  • Alignment refers to the position of text or data within the cell. It can be adjusted horizontally (left, center, right) or vertically (top, middle, bottom).
  • Horizontal alignment options include Left Align, Center Align, and Right Align, while vertical alignment options include Top Align, Middle Align, and Bottom Align.
  • Users can access alignment options from the Home tab in the Ribbon or by right-clicking on a cell and selecting Format Cells.
  • Proper alignment of cell contents is crucial for creating readable and professional-looking spreadsheets.
  • Format Cells Dialog Box
  • The Format Cells dialog box provides comprehensive options for formatting cells, including number formatting, alignment, font, border, fill, and protection.
  • To open the Format Cells dialog box, right-click on a cell or range of cells and select Format Cells, or press Ctrl+1 on your keyboard.
  • In the Alignment tab, users can set horizontal and vertical alignment, text control options (wrap text, shrink to fit, merge cells), and text direction.
  • Using the Format Cells dialog box, users can customize the appearance of their spreadsheet to improve readability and visual appeal.
98

In MS word 365, in word-processing software, what is the key difference between copying of text and cutting of text?

  1. ((a))

    Copying is reversible, while cutting is irreversible.

  2. ((b))

    Copying removes the text from the original location, while cutting retains the text in the original location.

  3. ((c))

    Copying duplicates the text to a new location, while cutting moves the text to a new location.

  4. ((d))

    Copying requires the use of a keyboard shortcut, while cutting is performed by using the mouse.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Copying duplicates the text to a new location, while cutting moves the text to a new location.

The correct answer is Copying duplicates the text to a new location, while cutting moves the text to a new location.

Key Points

  • Copying creates a duplicate of the selected text in a new location without removing it from the original location.
  • Cutting moves the selected text from the original location to a new location, effectively removing it from the original place.
  • Both operations use the clipboard to temporarily store the text. When you paste, the text is retrieved from the clipboard.
  • These functionalities allow users to efficiently rearrange or replicate text within a document or across different documents.

Additional Information

  • Clipboard: The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another. When you cut or copy data, it is stored on the clipboard until you paste it somewhere else.
  • Copying: When you copy text, the original text remains unchanged, and a duplicate of the text is placed in the clipboard. The copied text can then be pasted multiple times without affecting the original text.
  • Cutting: When you cut text, the original text is removed from its original location and placed in the clipboard. The cut text can then be pasted in a new location. Cutting is useful for moving text from one part of a document to another.
  • Pasting: Pasting inserts the clipboard's content into the new location. The text or data stored in the clipboard remains available for pasting until new data is cut or copied to the clipboard.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts: Common keyboard shortcuts for these actions include Ctrl+C (Copy), Ctrl+X (Cut), and Ctrl+V (Paste) on Windows, or Command+C, Command+X, and Command+V on macOS.
99

What is the keyboard shortcut for changing text alignment to the left in MS Word 365?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + J

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + C

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + L

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + R

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + L

The correct answer is Ctrl + L.

Key Points

  • In MS Word 365, Ctrl + L is the keyboard shortcut to align the text to the left.
  • This shortcut is used to quickly align a paragraph or selected text to the left margin.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + L increases efficiency by reducing the need to navigate through menus.
  • Text alignment is an important aspect of document formatting, and left alignment is commonly used for most text documents.

Additional Information

  • Text Alignment in MS Word:
  • Left Alignment (Ctrl + L): Aligns the text to the left margin.
  • Center Alignment (Ctrl + E): Centers the text horizontally on the page.
  • Right Alignment (Ctrl + R): Aligns the text to the right margin.
  • Justify Alignment (Ctrl + J): Aligns the text to both the left and right margins, adding extra space between words as necessary.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts in MS Word:
  • Keyboard shortcuts are combinations of keys that provide an alternative way to do something that you’d typically do with a mouse.
  • They are designed to help users quickly perform common tasks and improve workflow efficiency.
  • Examples include Ctrl + C for copy, Ctrl + V for paste, and Ctrl + Z for undo.
  • MS Word 365:
  • MS Word 365 is a word processing application that is part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite.
  • It offers a variety of features for creating, editing, and formatting documents.
  • Users can work collaboratively in real-time and access their documents from any device with internet connectivity.
100

Which of the following is NOT a word processing package?

  1. ((a))

    Adobe Photoshop

  2. ((b))

    Microsoft Word

  3. ((c))

    Apple Pages

  4. ((d))

    Google Docs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adobe Photoshop

The correct answer is Adobe Photoshop.

Key Points

  • Adobe Photoshop is a raster graphics editor developed and published by Adobe Inc. for Windows and macOS.
  • It was originally created in 1988 by Thomas and John Knoll. Since then, this software has become the industry standard not only in raster graphics editing but in digital art as a whole.
  • While Adobe Photoshop is widely used for photo editing, digital art, and graphic design, it is not a word processing package.
  • Word processing packages are specialized software applications used to create, edit, and format text documents. Examples include Microsoft Word, Apple Pages, and Google Docs.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word
  • Microsoft Word is a widely used commercial word processor designed by Microsoft.
  • It is a part of the Microsoft Office suite of productivity software.
  • Word allows users to create, edit, format, and print documents.
  • It provides tools for spell check, grammar check, text formatting, and more.
  • Apple Pages
  • Apple Pages is a word processing and desktop publishing application developed by Apple Inc.
  • It is part of the iWork productivity suite and runs on the macOS and iOS operating systems.
  • Pages allows users to create documents, newsletters, brochures, and more.
  • It features a variety of templates and design tools for creating visually appealing documents.
  • Google Docs
  • Google Docs is a web-based word processor offered by Google.
  • It is part of the Google Workspace suite of productivity tools.
  • Google Docs allows users to create, edit, and collaborate on documents in real-time.
  • Documents are stored in the cloud, making them accessible from any device with an internet connection.

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