Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 02 Dec, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Only (ii) is true.

Key Points

• Self-help groups (SHGs) are typically informal groups of people who come together for a common purpose, often related to financial or social improvement.
• SHGs are usually composed of individuals who share similar social and economic backgrounds, facilitating mutual understanding and support.
• These groups are often focused on micro-entrepreneurship, where members contribute to a common fund and can take small loans from it.
• SHGs are not always formally registered but operate on trust and mutual benefit.

Additional Information

• Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
• Self-help groups are small voluntary associations of people, preferably from the same socio-economic background.
• They come together for the purpose of solving their common problems through self-help and mutual help.
• SHGs are often focused on micro-financing, where members contribute to a common fund and can take small loans from it at reasonable interest rates.
• They play a crucial role in the social and economic empowerment of individuals, especially women in rural areas.
• Micro-entrepreneurs
• Micro-entrepreneurs are individuals who operate very small businesses, often with minimal capital investment and few employees.
• These businesses are usually informal and operate on a small scale, but they provide essential goods and services to their communities.
• Micro-entrepreneurship is a key component of SHGs, as it allows members to improve their livelihoods through small-scale business activities.
• Registration of SHGs
• While some SHGs may choose to register formally with local authorities or organizations, many operate informally.
• Registration can provide SHGs with greater access to resources, government schemes, and financial services.
• However, the informal nature of many SHGs allows for greater flexibility and ease of operation.

The correct answer is Sukarchakia.

Key Points

• Ranjeet Singh, also known as Maharaja Ranjeet Singh, was the founder of the Sikh Empire in Punjab.
• He belonged to the Sukarchakia Misal, one of the prominent Misals (confederacies) of the Sikh community during the 18th century.
• The Sukarchakia Misal was named after its founder, Nawab Sukha Singh.
• Ranjeet Singh successfully unified various Sikh Misals and established a powerful empire, with Lahore as its capital.

Additional Information

• Misal
• A Misal was a sovereign state or confederacy in the Sikh tradition, each led by a different chief or leader known as a Misaldar.
• There were 12 prominent Misals in the 18th-century Sikh confederacy, including Sukarchakia, Ahluwalia, Kanhaiya, and Bhangi.
• These Misals were primarily military and political organizations that played a crucial role in defending Sikh territories against external invasions.
• Maharaja Ranjeet Singh
• Born on 13 November 1780, Ranjeet Singh became the leader of the Sukarchakia Misal after his father's death.
• He is credited with establishing a unified Sikh Empire in the early 19th century, encompassing parts of present-day India and Pakistan.
• His reign marked the consolidation of the Sikh territories and the establishment of a strong and efficient administrative system.
• Ranjeet Singh's leadership and military prowess earned him the title of "Sher-e-Punjab" (Lion of Punjab).
• Lahore
• Located in present-day Pakistan, Lahore served as the capital of the Sikh Empire under Maharaja Ranjeet Singh.
• The city became a center of cultural, economic, and political activities during his reign.
• Ranjeet Singh's administration brought about significant developments in infrastructure, including the construction of roads, canals, and forts.
• Sikh Empire
• The Sikh Empire was a major power in the Indian subcontinent during the early 19th century.
• It was established by Maharaja Ranjeet Singh, who unified various Sikh Misals and expanded the empire's territory through conquests and alliances.
• The empire's administration was known for its secular policies, promoting religious tolerance and inclusivity.
• The Sikh Empire eventually fell to the British East India Company in the mid-19th century, following the Anglo-Sikh wars.

The correct answer is 1943.

Key Points

• The parallel government in Satara, Maharashtra, known as Parti Sarkar, was established in 1943.
• It was created by young leaders who aimed to provide an alternative governance model during the British colonial period.
• The Parti Sarkar ran People's courts and organized constructive work, focusing on local governance and justice.
• This movement was part of a broader effort to challenge British rule and demonstrate the capacity for Indian self-governance.

Additional Information

• Parti Sarkar:
• It was a revolutionary movement that ran a parallel government in the Satara district of Maharashtra during the British rule in India.
• The movement was part of the Indian freedom struggle and sought to demonstrate that Indians could govern themselves.
• Parti Sarkar's activities included running people's courts to settle disputes and organizing various developmental and constructive works in the region.
• The movement played a significant role in mobilizing local support against British colonial rule and contributed to the broader independence movement.
• People's Courts:
• These were judicial bodies set up by the Parti Sarkar to resolve disputes and administer justice outside the British legal framework.
• People's courts aimed to provide fair and speedy justice to the local populace, which was often denied under the British judicial system.
• Constructive Work:
• This refers to various developmental activities undertaken by the Parti Sarkar to improve the socio-economic conditions of the local people.
• Constructive work included initiatives in education, healthcare, agriculture, and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Carrying forward the legacy of Gramin Natak and folk dancing.

Key Points

• Ramchandra Manjhi is a Padma Shri awardee in 2021 for his exceptional contribution to the field of folk art.
• He is renowned for his work in Gramin Natak (rural theatre) and folk dancing, specifically associated with the Bhojpuri region.
• His dedication to preserving and promoting traditional folk theatre forms has been instrumental in keeping these art forms alive for future generations.
• Manjhi's performances are celebrated for their authenticity, cultural richness, and the ability to convey social messages through art.

Additional Information

• Padma Shri Awards
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India, awarded by the Government of India.
• It is given for distinguished service in various fields including arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• The award was instituted in 1954 and is announced every year on Republic Day (26th January).
• Gramin Natak
• Gramin Natak refers to traditional rural theatre that is performed in villages across India.
• These performances often include elements of dance, music, and drama and are deeply rooted in local folklore and traditions.
• Gramin Natak serves not only as a form of entertainment but also as a means of preserving and transmitting cultural heritage and social values.
• Folk Dancing
• Folk dancing is a traditional dance that reflects the life of the people of a certain country or region.
• In India, folk dances vary according to the region and are performed on various occasions like festivals, weddings, and social gatherings.
• Folk dances are important cultural expressions and are often passed down through generations.

The correct answer is Gautamiputra Satakarni.

Key Points

• Gautamiputra Satakarni was one of the greatest kings of the Satavahana dynasty.
• He is known for his military conquests and for consolidating the Satavahana Empire in the Deccan region.
• He ruled from around 78 CE to 106 CE and brought significant portions of central and southern India under Satavahana control.
• Gautamiputra Satakarni is also credited with defeating the Saka rulers and restoring the prestige of the Satavahana dynasty.

Additional Information

• Satavahana Dynasty
• The Satavahana dynasty was an ancient Indian dynasty based in the Deccan region.
• They ruled from approximately 1st century BCE to 3rd century CE.
• The dynasty is known for its contributions to Indian culture, art, and architecture.
• The Satavahanas were also notable for their trade and maritime activities, establishing connections with the Roman Empire and other regions.
• Deccan Region
• The Deccan is a large plateau in western and southern India.
• It is bounded by the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats and covers parts of modern-day Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
• The region has a rich history and has been ruled by various dynasties, including the Satavahanas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and others.
• Saka Rulers
• The Sakas, also known as Scythians, were a group of Iranian nomadic tribes who migrated into India around the 1st century BCE.
• They established several kingdoms in northwestern and western India, including the Indo-Scythian and Western Satraps kingdoms.
• The Saka rulers are known for their conflicts with the Satavahana dynasty and other Indian kingdoms.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance.
• It originated from the traveling bards of ancient northern India, known as Kathakars or storytellers.
• Kathak dancers tell various stories through their hand movements, footwork, and facial expressions.
• Kamalini Asthana was recognized for her significant contribution to the Kathak dance form and was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022.

Additional Information

• Odissi
• Odissi is a classical dance form that originated from the Indian state of Odisha.
• It is characterized by its intricate footwork, sculpturesque poses, and fluid movements.
• Odissi is known for its grace and lyrical beauty.
• Kuchipudi
• Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It involves both dance and drama and is known for its quick footwork, dramatic expressions, and spirited movements.
• Kuchipudi is performed with a perfect blend of Tandava (vigorous dance) and Lasya (gentle dance).
• Sattriya
• Sattriya is a classical dance form from the Indian state of Assam.
• It was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnav saint and reformer Srimanta Sankardev.
• Sattriya dance is characterized by its devotional themes and is traditionally performed in monasteries called Satras.

This source code provides a detailed solution to the question by highlighting the key points about Kathak and additional information about other classical dance forms mentioned in the options.

The correct answer is Vijayalaya.

Key Points

• Vijayalaya Chola was the founder of the Medieval Chola dynasty.
• He rose to power in the 9th century CE by capturing Tanjavur from the Muttarayas, a feudatory of the Pallavas.
• Vijayalaya utilized the opportunity provided by the decline of the Pallavas to establish the Chola kingdom.
• His reign marked the beginning of the resurgence of the Chola dynasty, which later became a dominant power in South India.

Additional Information

• Chola Dynasty
• The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in the history of southern India.
• The dynasty originated in the rich Kaveri River valley.
• They were known for their contributions to art, architecture, and administration.
• The Cholas left a lasting legacy through their temples and their efficient governance, which included a highly organized administrative structure.
• Tanjavur (Thanjavur)
• It is a city in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
• Thanjavur is an important center of South Indian religion, art, and architecture.
• The city is home to the Brihadeshwara Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Thanjavur was the capital of the Chola dynasty during its peak.
• Pallavas
• The Pallavas were a South Indian dynasty that existed from 275 CE to 897 CE.
• They ruled a large portion of southern India, including the modern Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
• Their capital was Kanchipuram, which was a center of learning and culture.
• The Pallavas were known for their architectural achievements, such as the rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram.
• Muttarayas
• The Muttarayas were a dynasty that ruled over parts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
• They were feudatories under the Pallavas and later became independent rulers.
• The Muttarayas played a significant role in the early history of the Cholas.
• They were known for their patronage of Jainism and Hinduism.

The correct answer is Milkha Singh.

Key Points

• Milkha Singh, also known as The Flying Sikh, was an Indian track and field sprinter who was introduced to the sport while serving in the Indian Army.
• He is a former Indian track and field sprinter who was the only Indian athlete to win an individual athletics gold medal at a Commonwealth Games until 2010.
• Milkha Singh represented India in the 1956, 1960, and 1964 Olympics and became a sporting icon in the country.
• His autobiography, 'The Race of My Life', co-written with his daughter Sonia Sanwalka, was published in 2013 and has been an inspiration to many.

Additional Information

• Track and Field Athletics
• Track and field athletics is a sport that includes various competitive athletic contests based on running, jumping, and throwing.
• The name "track and field" is derived from the sport's typical venue: a stadium with an oval running track enclosing a grass field where the jumping and throwing events take place.
• Commonwealth Games
• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations.
• The event was first held in 1930, and has taken place every four years since then, except 1942 and 1946, which were cancelled due to World War II.
• Olympics
• The Olympic Games are leading international sporting events featuring summer and winter sports competitions in which thousands of athletes from around the world participate in a variety of competitions.
• The Olympic Games are considered the world's foremost sports competition with more than 200 nations participating.
• Autobiography
• An autobiography is a self-written account of the life of oneself.
• Autobiographies are often written by famous people and can provide personal insights into the life of the author and the events they have experienced.

The correct answer is Indirect taxes.

Key Points

• Indirect taxes are levied on goods and services rather than on income or profits.
• The tax is collected by an intermediary (such as a retailer) from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax (such as the consumer).
• Examples of indirect taxes include Value Added Tax (VAT), Goods and Services Tax (GST), excise duty, and customs duty.
• Indirect taxes are typically included in the price of goods and services, making them less visible to consumers compared to direct taxes.

Additional Information

• Corporation Taxes
• Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the net income or profit of corporations and other business entities.
• It is calculated on the basis of the company's income and is paid directly by the company to the government.
• Direct Taxes
• Direct taxes are levied directly on the income or wealth of individuals or organizations.
• Examples include income tax, corporation tax, and property tax.
• These taxes are paid directly by the taxpayer to the government.
• Indirect Taxes
• Indirect taxes are levied on goods and services rather than on income or profits.
• The tax is collected by an intermediary (such as a retailer) from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax (such as the consumer).
• Examples include Value Added Tax (VAT), Goods and Services Tax (GST), excise duty, and customs duty.
• These taxes are typically included in the price of goods and services.
• Both Direct and Indirect Taxes
• Some tax systems incorporate both direct and indirect taxes to ensure a comprehensive tax structure.
• This combination helps in balancing the tax burden between different types of taxpayers and sectors.

The correct answer is Article 129.

Key Points

• Article 129 of the Constitution of India declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record.
• This means that the Supreme Court’s judgments, proceedings, and acts are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
• The records of the Supreme Court have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court.
• As a court of record, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment or with a fine.

Additional Information

• Article 126:
• This article deals with the appointment of an acting Chief Justice of India.
• It states that when the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform duties, the President can appoint an acting Chief Justice from among the judges of the Supreme Court.
• Article 128:
• This article allows for the attendance of retired judges at sittings of the Supreme Court.
• It states that the Chief Justice of India, with the prior consent of the President, can request any retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court to act as a judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
• Article 125:
• This article deals with the salaries, allowances, leave of absence, pensions, etc., of the judges of the Supreme Court.
• It ensures that the judges receive such emoluments and privileges as determined by Parliament by law, and until so determined, as specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Fort of Kushalgadh is an important historical monument located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• Madhya Pradesh, often called the heart of India, is known for its rich history and numerous historical sites.
• The state is home to several other notable forts and palaces, showcasing its historical significance.
• Kushalgadh fort is a popular tourist attraction that reflects the architectural and cultural heritage of Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh is known for its rich history, culture, and architecture. It is home to several UNESCO World Heritage Sites including the Khajuraho Group of Monuments and the Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi.
• The state has a diverse geography, featuring both plains and plateaus, and is rich in natural resources, including forests and mineral wealth.
• Madhya Pradesh is also known for its vibrant tribal culture, with a significant population of indigenous tribes, each with its own unique traditions and customs.
• Important cities in Madhya Pradesh include Bhopal (the capital), Indore (the largest city), and Gwalior, which is known for its historical significance.
• Fort of Kushalgadh
• The Fort of Kushalgadh is one of the many historical forts located in Madhya Pradesh, reflecting the state’s architectural heritage.
• Forts in Madhya Pradesh are known for their strategic importance in historical battles and their architectural grandeur.
• Kushalgadh fort, like many other forts in the region, is a testament to the engineering and architectural skills of ancient Indian builders.
• Forts in Madhya Pradesh often feature intricate carvings, robust fortifications, and were centers of administration and military strength in their time.

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

• The Chidambaram temple, also known as Thillai Nataraja Temple, is dedicated to Lord Shiva in his form of Nataraja, the cosmic dancer.
• Bharatnatyam is a classical Indian dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, which is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
• The Gopurams of the Chidambaram temple are famous for their artistic and intricate architecture, which includes many sculptures depicting the various poses of Bharatnatyam.
• Bharatnatyam is one of the oldest classical dance traditions in India, and it has been an essential part of Tamil culture and heritage.

Additional Information

• Chidambaram Temple
• The Chidambaram Temple is located in the town of Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu, India.
• It is one of the most ancient and celebrated shrines in India, dating back to the Chola dynasty.
• The temple is renowned for its magnificent architecture, including its four Gopurams (gateway towers), which are covered with sculptures depicting various mythological stories and dance forms.
• The temple is particularly famous for its association with Lord Shiva as Nataraja, the lord of dance, and it is a significant pilgrimage site for devotees of Shiva.
• Bharatnatyam
• Bharatnatyam is a major classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu, India.
• It is known for its grace, purity, tenderness, and sculpturesque poses.
• The dance form has its roots in the Natya Shastra, an ancient Indian treatise on dance and drama written by Bharata Muni.
• Traditionally, Bharatnatyam was performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in the temples of Tamil Nadu as a form of worship.
• Today, it is performed on stage and has gained international recognition as one of the classical dance forms of India.

The correct answer is Microfinancing started in India majorly due to the nationalisation of banks.

Key Points

• Microfinance in India evolved to fill the gaps created by the formal banking institutions.
• Microfinance initiative in India was taken by NABARD.
• The Reserve Bank of India had appointed the Malegam Committee to go into the regulation of microfinance institutions.
• Microfinance institutions provide small-scale financial services to low-income individuals or those who do not have access to typical banking services.

Additional Information

• Microfinance
• Microfinance is a type of banking service provided to unemployed or low-income individuals or groups who otherwise would have no other access to financial services.
• The goal of microfinance is to give low-income people an opportunity to become self-sufficient by providing a means of saving money, borrowing money, and insurance.
• Microfinance institutions (MFIs) are financial organizations that provide microfinance services.
• Microfinance in India started in the 1980s with the establishment of self-help groups (SHGs) and NGOs.
• NABARD
• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on July 12, 1982.
• NABARD is responsible for the development of the agriculture sector and rural areas in India.
• It provides and regulates credit and other facilities to promote agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
• NABARD has played a significant role in the development of SHGs and microfinance in India.
• Malegam Committee
• The Malegam Committee was appointed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in October 2010.
• The committee was tasked with studying the issues and concerns in the microfinance sector.
• The committee submitted its report in January 2011, recommending a separate regulatory framework for MFIs.
• It suggested capping the interest rates charged by MFIs and setting up a Microfinance Development and Equity Fund.
• Nationalisation of Banks
• Bank nationalization in India occurred in 1969 and 1980.
• The primary objective was to ensure that banking services were available to the poorer sections of society and to reduce the concentration of wealth.
• While nationalization increased the reach of banking services, it was not the primary driver for the start of microfinance in India.
• Microfinance evolved more significantly due to the efforts to fill gaps left by formal banking institutions and the initiatives taken by NABARD and other organizations.

The correct answer is Rowlatt Act.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government in March 1919, which aimed at curbing the growing nationalist upsurge in India.
• It authorized the government to imprison any person suspected of terrorism living in British India for up to two years without a trial.
• This Act allowed the British to arrest and detain individuals without any judicial process and suppress press freedom.
• Mahatma Gandhi launched a movement against this oppressive law, leading to widespread protests and strikes, making him a national leader.

Additional Information

• Morley-Minto Reforms
• The Morley-Minto Reforms, also known as the Indian Councils Act 1909, introduced separate electorates for Muslims and provided for the inclusion of Indians in the governance of British India.
• It was an attempt to appease the demands of Indians for greater participation in the government.
• Salt Tax
• The Salt Tax was a tax levied on the production of salt, which was a basic necessity.
• This tax led to the famous Salt March by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Vernacular Press Act
• The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 by Lord Lytton, aimed at curbing the freedom of the Indian language press.
• The act prohibited the publication of any material that could incite dissatisfaction or rebellion against the British government.
• Rowlatt Act
• The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, gave the British government extraordinary powers to suppress subversive activities.
• It led to widespread unrest and was one of the precursors to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in April 1919, where hundreds of unarmed civilians were killed.
• The protests against the Rowlatt Act marked a significant moment in the Indian independence movement, bringing together people from different regions and backgrounds.

The correct answer is vital for the economy.

Key Points

• In the initial years of independence, the Indian government took control of key industries to ensure the security and stability of the economy.
• These industries included sectors such as defense, railways, atomic energy, and heavy industries.
• The government aimed to foster economic growth and self-reliance by managing industries that were crucial for national development.
• State control helped in regulating these industries, ensuring equitable distribution of resources, and preventing monopoly practices.

Additional Information

• Nationalization
• Nationalization refers to the process by which the government takes control of private industry or assets and converts them into public ownership.
• This was a common practice in many newly independent countries to ensure control over critical sectors.
• India nationalized several key industries and banks to build a robust economic structure.
• Mixed Economy
• India adopted a mixed economy model post-independence, combining elements of both capitalism and socialism.
• This model allowed both private and public sectors to coexist, with the state playing a significant role in guiding economic development.
• It aimed at achieving balanced economic growth, reducing inequalities, and providing public welfare.
• Five-Year Plans
• India's economic planning through Five-Year Plans focused on strategic sectors to achieve rapid industrialization and economic growth.
• The plans included development targets and resource allocation strategies for various sectors, emphasizing state control over vital industries.
• These plans were instrumental in shaping India's economic policies and industrial base in the initial years of independence.
• Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
• PSUs are government-owned corporations or state-owned enterprises created to undertake commercial activities on behalf of the government.
• They play a crucial role in the economic development of the country, especially in sectors critical to national interest.
• PSUs like Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) were established to strengthen India's industrial base.

The correct answer is Manipuri.

Key Points

• Manipuri dance is one of the major Indian classical dance forms, originating from the northeastern state of Manipur.
• Lai Haraoba is a ritualistic festival celebrated in Manipur, which includes elements of Manipuri dance.
• The dance form is characterized by gentle and lyrical movements, often narrating themes from Hindu epics and mythology.
• Manipuri dance has a unique style that includes intricate hand gestures and facial expressions, making it distinct from other Indian classical dance forms.

Additional Information

• Kathakali
• Kathakali is a major form of classical Indian dance that originated in the state of Kerala.
• It is known for its elaborate costumes, detailed gestures, and well-defined body movements presented in tune with the playback music and complementary percussion.
• The themes of Kathakali are typically based on Hindu epics such as the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
• Kathak
• Kathak is one of the eight major forms of Indian classical dance and traces its origins to the nomadic bards of ancient northern India, known as Kathakars or storytellers.
• The dance form emphasizes intricate footwork and spins, as well as expressions and gestures that convey the narrative.
• Kathak is traditionally performed to classical Hindustani music.
• Odissi
• Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in the temples of Odisha.
• It is known for its fluid movements, grace, and sculpturesque poses that are often inspired by the carvings in the ancient temples of Odisha.
• Odissi dance is accompanied by Odissi music, which is a classical music form of Odisha.

The correct answer is Government of India Act of 1935.

Key Points

• The Government of India Act of 1935 was a major legislative act passed by the British Parliament that laid the foundation for the establishment of federal structure in India.
• This Act introduced provincial autonomy and proposed a federal structure of government, which later influenced the Indian Constitution significantly.
• The Act also established the Federal Court of India, which was the precursor to the Supreme Court of India.
• Emergency powers were also detailed in this act, allowing the British authorities to suspend the autonomy of the provinces in times of emergency.

Additional Information

• Federal Structure:
• The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
• This federal structure laid down the division of powers between the central government and the provinces.
• Judiciary:
• The Act established the Federal Court of India, which was the highest court in India until the establishment of the Supreme Court in 1950.
• The Federal Court had original, appellate, and advisory jurisdictions.
• Governor System:
• The Act provided for the office of the Governor in each province, who was appointed by the British Crown.
• The Governor had substantial powers, including the power to override the decisions of the elected provincial governments.
• Emergency Powers:
• The Government of India Act of 1935 empowered the Governor-General to assume greater control over the provinces in case of a breakdown of constitutional machinery or during emergencies.
• These powers were a precursor to the emergency provisions laid down in the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is January-February.

Key Points

• The Maru Mahotsava, also known as the Desert Festival, is celebrated in the city of Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
• This festival is usually held in the months of January and February each year.
• The festival showcases the rich and colorful culture of Rajasthan, featuring folk music, dance, camel races, and other traditional activities.
• Tourists from all over the world visit Jaisalmer during this festival to experience the vibrant cultural heritage of the region.

Additional Information

• Jaisalmer
• Jaisalmer, known as the "Golden City," is a town in the Indian state of Rajasthan, located in the heart of the Thar Desert.
• The city is famous for its yellow sandstone architecture, including the Jaisalmer Fort, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• It is a popular tourist destination, attracting visitors with its historical forts, palaces, and temples.
• Desert Festival
• The Desert Festival is an annual event organized by the Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation.
• The festival features various cultural events such as folk performances, camel races, turban tying competitions, and more.
• It aims to promote the rich cultural heritage of Rajasthan and attract tourists to the region.
• Rajasthan's Cultural Heritage
• Rajasthan is known for its diverse and vibrant cultural heritage, including traditional music, dance, art, and crafts.
• The state is home to various folk dance forms such as Ghoomar, Kalbeliya, and Bhavai.
• Rajasthan's handicrafts, including textiles, pottery, and jewelry, are renowned for their intricate designs and craftsmanship.

The correct answer is Thomas Hardy.

Key Points

• Thomas Hardy was an English novelist and poet who lived from 1840 to 1928.
• He is best known for his novels set in the semi-fictional region of Wessex, which corresponds to the south-west and south of England.
• Jude the Obscure was Hardy's last novel, published in 1895.
• The novel explores themes of class, education, religion, and marriage, reflecting Hardy's critical view of Victorian society.

Additional Information

• Thomas Hardy's Literary Contributions:
• Hardy wrote both novels and poetry, and he is considered one of the most significant English writers of the 19th century.
• Some of his other famous novels include "Tess of the d'Urbervilles," "Far from the Madding Crowd," and "The Mayor of Casterbridge."
• His works often focused on tragic characters struggling against their passions and social circumstances.
• Victorian Literature:
• Victorian literature refers to English literature during the reign of Queen Victoria (1837-1901).
• This period saw a flourishing of the novel as a literary form, with themes often addressing social issues, morality, and the consequences of the Industrial Revolution.
• Notable Victorian authors include Charles Dickens, the Brontë sisters, George Eliot, and Anthony Trollope.
• Wessex:
• Wessex is a fictional region created by Hardy, based on the real counties of Dorset, Somerset, Hampshire, and Wiltshire.
• Hardy's use of Wessex allowed him to create a detailed and consistent world in which his characters lived and interacted.
• The landscape and rural life of Wessex play a significant role in his storytelling, often reflecting the harsh realities of 19th-century rural England.
• Themes in "Jude the Obscure":
• The novel explores the struggles of Jude Fawley, a working-class young man who aspires to become a scholar.
• The themes include the rigidity of social class structures, the barriers to education, and the oppressive nature of marriage and religion.
• The book was controversial at the time of its publication for its critical portrayal of institutions and its depiction of sexual relationships.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The first ICC Men's T20 Cricket World Cup was held in 2007.
• India won the inaugural ICC Men's T20 World Cup by defeating Pakistan in the final.
• The final match took place on 24th September 2007 at Wanderers Stadium, Johannesburg, South Africa.
• India was led by captain MS Dhoni, who played a crucial role in guiding the team to victory.

Additional Information

• ICC Men's T20 World Cup
• The ICC Men's T20 World Cup is an international championship of Twenty20 International cricket.
• Organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC), the tournament presently consists of 16 teams, comprising the top 10 teams from the rankings and six other teams chosen through the T20 World Cup Qualifier.
• The event has generally been held every two years. However, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the 2020 edition was rescheduled to 2021.
• The format of the tournament includes a group stage, Super 12s, semi-finals, and a final.
• Twenty20 (T20) Cricket
• Twenty20 cricket, also known as T20, is a shortened format of cricket where each team plays a single innings, batting for a maximum of 20 overs.
• The format was initially introduced by the England and Wales Cricket Board (ECB) in 2003 for the inter-county competition in England and Wales.
• T20 cricket has gained immense popularity worldwide due to its fast-paced and entertaining nature.
• The format has led to the creation of various domestic T20 leagues such as the Indian Premier League (IPL), Big Bash League (BBL), and Caribbean Premier League (CPL).
• MS Dhoni
• Mahendra Singh Dhoni, commonly known as MS Dhoni, is a former Indian cricketer and captain of the Indian national team.
• Under his captaincy, India won the 2007 ICC T20 World Cup, the 2010 and 2016 Asia Cups, the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup, and the 2013 ICC Champions Trophy.
• Dhoni is known for his calm demeanor, strategic acumen, and finishing abilities in cricket matches.
• He is one of the most successful captains in the history of Indian cricket and has been awarded numerous accolades for his contributions to the sport.

The correct answer is Industrial Finance Corporation of India.

Key Points

• Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) is not classified as either a 'Navratna' or 'Maharatna' company in India.
• IFCI is a development finance institution in India, established to provide long-term financial assistance to the industrial sector.
• The company was established in 1948 as a statutory corporation and was later converted into a company under the Companies Act, 1956.
• Unlike 'Navratna' or 'Maharatna' companies, which are typically large and profitable public sector enterprises, IFCI focuses on providing financial support for industrial development.

Additional Information

• Navratna Companies:
• Navratna is a status given to certain public sector enterprises (PSEs) in India that have comparative advantages and greater autonomy to compete in the global market.
• To be eligible for Navratna status, a company must have achieved a certain level of financial performance and operational efficiency.
• Navratna companies enjoy greater financial and operational autonomy compared to other PSEs.
• Examples of Navratna companies include Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), and National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO).
• Maharatna Companies:
• Maharatna is a status given to the largest and most profitable public sector enterprises in India.
• To qualify for Maharatna status, a company must have a substantial global presence and significant operational and financial autonomy.
• Maharatna companies have greater flexibility in investment and expansion decisions.
• Examples of Maharatna companies include Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Oil & Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), and National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC).
• Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI):
• IFCI was established in 1948 to provide long-term financial assistance to the industrial sector in India.
• It was the first Development Financial Institution (DFI) in the country.
• IFCI's main objective is to provide financial support for the growth and development of industries in India.
• It offers a range of financial products and services, including project finance, corporate loans, and advisory services.
• Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs):
• PSEs are government-owned corporations or companies in which the central or state government holds a majority stake.
• They play a crucial role in the economic development of the country by providing essential services and infrastructure.
• PSEs are categorized into different statuses such as Miniratna, Navratna, and Maharatna based on their performance and strategic importance.
• The government provides different levels of autonomy and financial powers to these enterprises based on their status.

The correct answer is 17.

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 categorized industries into three schedules.
• Schedule A listed 17 industries exclusively reserved for the public sector.
• These industries were considered crucial for the nation's economy and included arms and ammunition, atomic energy, railways, etc.
• The objective was to ensure state control over the commanding heights of the economy.

Additional Information

• Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956:
• This policy aimed at accelerating the rate of economic growth and speeding up industrialization.
• It emphasized the role of the state in the development of industries and the importance of the public sector in commanding heights of the economy.
• The resolution classified industries into three categories – Schedule A, Schedule B, and Schedule C.
• Schedule A contained 17 industries exclusively reserved for the public sector, Schedule B included industries where both the public and private sectors could operate, and Schedule C was open to the private sector with state intervention as needed.
• Public Sector:
• The portion of an economy composed of all levels of government and government-controlled enterprises.
• Public sector industries are typically those that are considered vital for national interests and include sectors like defense, energy, and infrastructure.
• Schedule A Industries:
• These included industries of strategic importance like arms and ammunition, atomic energy, railways, air transport, and defense equipment.
• The government aimed to have complete control and ownership over these industries to ensure national security and self-reliance.
• Objectives of the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956:
• To establish a socialistic pattern of society by expanding the public sector.
• To reduce income and wealth inequalities.
• To prevent the concentration of economic power in few hands.
• To promote balanced regional development by setting up industries in backward areas.

The correct answer is Bombay High Court.

Key Points

• The Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• It was one of the three High Courts in India established at the Presidency towns by the Letters patent granted by Her Majesty Queen Victoria, bearing date June 26, 1862.
• The High Court is located in Mumbai, the capital city of Maharashtra.
• The court has regional branches at Nagpur, Aurangabad, and Panaji (Goa).

Additional Information

• High Courts in India
• India has a high court in each state and union territory, although some high courts have jurisdiction over more than one state or union territory.
• High Courts are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory, and they are empowered to hear both civil and criminal matters.
• They also have the power to hear appeals from lower courts and to issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights.
• The judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the state.
• Union Territories of Daman and Diu
• Daman and Diu were two separate districts of the union territory of Daman and Diu until 2019.
• In 2020, they were merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli to form the new union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• These territories were part of Portuguese India until they were annexed by India in 1961.
• The High Court with jurisdiction over these territories is the Bombay High Court.
• Jurisdiction
• Jurisdiction refers to the official power to make legal decisions and judgments.
• In the context of High Courts, it refers to the geographic area or the range of cases over which the court has authority.
• Some High Courts have jurisdiction over multiple states or union territories, while others are limited to a single state or union territory.
• The jurisdiction of a High Court can be extended or altered by legislation.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar has consistently been one of the states with the highest levels of poverty in India.
• According to the 2011 Census, Bihar had a very high percentage of its population living below the poverty line.
• The lack of industrial development and high population density contribute to the high poverty rates in Bihar.
• Efforts have been made to improve the situation, but challenges remain due to infrastructural and socio-economic factors.

Additional Information

• Understanding Poverty
• Poverty is a state where an individual or community lacks the financial resources and essentials for a minimum standard of living.
• It is a multifaceted concept that includes social, economic, and political elements.
• In India, poverty is often measured using income levels and consumption patterns.
• Poverty Line in India
• The poverty line is an economic benchmark used to measure the minimum level of income required to secure the necessities of life.
• In India, the poverty line is determined by the Planning Commission based on the expenditure required for a minimum calorific intake and other basic needs.
• As per the Tendulkar Committee report, the poverty line is based on consumption expenditure and includes spending on food, education, health, etc.
• 2011 Census
• The Census of India 2011 was the 15th National Census since 1871 and was conducted by the Census Commissioner of India.
• The census collected data on various socio-economic parameters including population, poverty levels, literacy rates, housing conditions, and employment.
• This data is crucial for policy-making and implementation of welfare schemes.
• Government Initiatives to Alleviate Poverty
• MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act): Provides at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY): Aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor with a target of building 20 million affordable houses by 31 March 2022.
• National Food Security Act (NFSA): Aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately two-thirds of India's 1.2 billion people.
• Various state-specific initiatives and central schemes aim to target poverty reduction through skill development, financial inclusion, and social security measures.

The correct answer is Sitar.

Key Points

• Budhaditya Mukherjee is a prominent Sitar player known for his proficiency and contribution to Hindustani classical music.
• Vilayat Khan was one of the most famous Sitar players and belonged to the Imdadkhani Gharana, known for the Gayaki Ang style of playing.
• Mustaq Ali Khan was another notable Sitar maestro and was renowned for his Dhrupad style of playing.
• The Sitar is a plucked string instrument used in Hindustani classical music, known for its rich tonal quality and complex playing technique.

Additional Information

• Surbahar
• Also known as the bass sitar, it is a plucked string instrument used in the Hindustani classical music of North India.
• It was developed in the 19th century and has a deeper tone compared to the sitar.
• It is used for playing the slower, more meditative sections of a raga.
• Sarod
• A string instrument, used mainly in Indian classical music.
• It is known for a deep, weighty, introspective sound.
• It is also known for its characteristic smooth, sliding sound (glissando or meend), produced by the absence of frets.
• Santoor
• A hammered dulcimer of Persian descent, it is played with a pair of light wooden mallets.
• It is a trapezoid-shaped instrument and has multiple strings (usually 72 to 100).
• The Indian santoor is more rectangular than its Persian counterpart and has more strings.
• Sitar
• A plucked stringed instrument, predominantly used in Hindustani classical music.
• It has a long neck with 20 metal frets and six to seven main strings.
• It also has 13 sympathetic strings that run underneath the frets and resonate with the played strings, adding to its complex sound.

The correct answer is Himalayan region.

Key Points

• Terrace farming is a traditional agricultural practice in the Himalayan region due to its steep slopes and mountainous terrain.
• It helps in reducing soil erosion and water runoff, which are common issues in hilly areas.
• Terrace farming allows for the cultivation of various crops such as rice, maize, and potatoes, which are essential for the local populations.
• This method of farming is crucial for maximizing arable land area and ensuring food security in the Himalayan region.

Additional Information

• Terrace Farming
• Terrace farming is a method of carving steps or terraces into the slopes of hilly or mountainous regions to create flat areas for agriculture.
• This technique helps in retaining soil moisture, preventing soil erosion, and making efficient use of water.
• It is commonly used in areas with uneven terrain where traditional farming methods are not feasible.
• Himalayan Region
• The Himalayas are a mountain range in South Asia, separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
• The region is known for its high peaks, including Mount Everest, the highest point on Earth.
• The climate and topography of the Himalayas make terrace farming an essential practice for local agriculture.
• Soil Erosion
• Soil erosion is the process by which the top layer of soil is removed by natural forces such as wind and water.
• It is a significant issue in hilly areas where heavy rainfall and steep slopes can lead to rapid loss of fertile soil.
• Terrace farming helps to mitigate soil erosion by creating flat surfaces that reduce the speed of water runoff.
• Water Runoff
• Water runoff refers to the flow of water, typically from precipitation, over the surface of the land.
• In hilly regions, rapid water runoff can lead to soil erosion and loss of nutrients from the soil.
• Terracing helps to slow down water runoff and allows for better absorption of water by the soil.

The correct answer is 2 minutes.

Key Points

• In archery, the time limit to shoot an end of three arrows is 2 minutes.
• This rule ensures that competitions proceed at a steady pace and prevents unnecessary delays.
• It also ensures that archers manage their time effectively and maintain their focus under time pressure.
• The 2-minute rule is standardized across various archery tournaments to ensure consistency and fairness in the sport.

Additional Information

• End
• An 'end' in archery refers to a set number of arrows shot before scores are tallied and arrows are retrieved.
• In most competitions, an end consists of three or six arrows.
• The time allowed to shoot these arrows is fixed to ensure the competition moves smoothly.
• Scoring in Archery
• Each arrow shot scores points based on where it lands on the target.
• Targets are marked with concentric circles, with the innermost circle scoring the highest points (usually 10 points).
• The total score for an end is the sum of the points from all arrows shot in that end.
• Time Management
• Effective time management is crucial in archery to ensure that all arrows are shot within the allotted time.
• Archers often practice shooting within the time limit to develop a consistent rhythm and avoid time-related penalties.
• Penalties for exceeding the time limit can include point deductions or disqualification of the end.
• Standardization of Rules
• Archery competitions follow standardized rules set by governing bodies such as World Archery (WA).
• These rules ensure consistency and fairness across different events and competitions.
• The 2-minute rule for shooting three arrows is one such standardized rule.

The correct answer is Wolffia.

Key Points

• Wolffia is a genus of aquatic plants commonly known as watermeal or duckweed.
• It is the smallest flowering plant on Earth.
• Wolffia has the highest protein content among aquatic plants, making it a potential source of protein for both humans and animals.
• It can be found in freshwater bodies across the globe, including ponds, lakes, and slow-moving streams.

Additional Information

• Monocot Plants
• Monocots, or monocotyledons, are one of the major groups of flowering plants (angiosperms) that have a single embryonic leaf, or cotyledon.
• Examples include grasses, lilies, orchids, and palms.
• Monocots are characterized by their parallel leaf venation, fibrous root systems, and floral parts typically in multiples of three.
• Aquatic Plants
• Aquatic plants are plants that have adapted to living in aquatic environments (saltwater or freshwater).
• They are also known as hydrophytes or macrophytes.
• Aquatic plants can be submerged, floating, or emergent, depending on their growth habits and adaptations.
• Protein Content in Plants
• Protein content in plants varies widely and is an important factor for human and animal nutrition.
• Legumes, such as soybeans and lentils, are well-known for their high protein content.
• Aquatic plants like Wolffia have gained attention due to their high protein content, which can be comparable to traditional protein sources.
• Distribution and Habitat of Wolffia
• Wolffia species are found in various freshwater habitats, including ponds, lakes, marshes, and slow-moving streams.
• They are widely distributed across the globe, found in temperate and tropical regions.
• Wolffia thrives in nutrient-rich waters and can form dense mats on the surface of water bodies.

The correct answer is Allelopathy.

Key Points

• Allelopathy refers to the biological phenomenon by which one organism produces biochemicals that influence the growth, survival, development, and reproduction of other organisms.
• The biochemicals involved are called allelochemicals and can have beneficial or detrimental effects on target organisms.
• Allelopathy is commonly observed in plants, where certain plants release chemicals that can inhibit the germination or growth of neighboring plants.
• This phenomenon plays a significant role in agriculture, horticulture, and forestry, as it can affect crop yields and plant biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Allotropy
• Allotropy refers to the existence of two or more different forms of an element in the same physical state.
• Examples include carbon, which can exist as diamond, graphite, and graphene.
• Allotropic forms have different physical properties and chemical behaviors.
• Allopathy
• Allopathy is a term used to describe the mainstream medical use of pharmacologically active agents or physical interventions to treat or suppress symptoms or pathophysiologic processes of diseases or conditions.
• It is often contrasted with homeopathy, a different system of medicine.
• Allelomorph
• Allelomorph, now commonly referred to as an allele, is one of two or more versions of a gene that are found at the same place on a chromosome.
• Alleles can result in different traits, such as eye color or blood type.
• The combination of alleles that an individual has is known as their genotype.

The correct answer is Biological catalysts.

Key Points

• Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts in various biochemical reactions within the body.
• They speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.
• Each enzyme is specific to a particular substrate, and this specificity is due to the enzyme's active site.
• Enzymes are crucial for numerous bodily functions, including digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication.

Additional Information

• Substrates
• Substrates are the molecules upon which enzymes act.
• When a substrate binds to the enzyme's active site, it forms an enzyme-substrate complex, leading to a chemical reaction and the formation of products.
• Receptors
• Receptors are protein molecules located on the cell surface or within cells.
• They receive and respond to chemical signals, such as hormones or neurotransmitters.
• Receptors play a key role in cellular communication and signal transduction.
• Physical activity
• Physical activity refers to any movement that requires energy expenditure.
• This includes activities such as walking, running, swimming, and dancing.
• Regular physical activity is essential for maintaining overall health and well-being.

The correct answer is Ravi Shankar.

Key Points

• Ravi Shankar was a renowned Indian sitar virtuoso and composer who significantly contributed to popularizing Indian classical music globally.
• The collaboration between Yehudi Menuhin and Ravi Shankar led to the creation of the album 'West Meets East' in 1967, which was a landmark in the fusion of Western and Eastern musical traditions.
• Ravi Shankar's influence extended to notable Western musicians, including George Harrison of The Beatles, who studied under him and integrated Indian music into The Beatles' work.
• Ravi Shankar was awarded several prestigious awards, including Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, for his contributions to music.

Additional Information

• Yehudi Menuhin
• Yehudi Menuhin was an American-born violinist and conductor who became one of the most famous violinists of the 20th century.
• He was known for his exceptional technique, emotional depth, and his efforts to use music to bridge cultural divides.
• Menuhin's collaboration with Ravi Shankar was part of his broader interest in exploring and incorporating different musical traditions into his work.
• Indian Classical Music
• Indian classical music is one of the oldest musical traditions in the world, with origins tracing back over two thousand years.It is broadly divided into two major traditions: Hindustani music (North Indian) and Carnatic music (South Indian).
• Ravi Shankar was a key figure in Hindustani classical music, known for his mastery of the sitar and his deep understanding of ragas and talas.
• Fusion Music
• Fusion music blends elements from different musical genres to create new, hybrid forms.
• The 'West Meets East' album is a seminal example of fusion music, combining Western classical music with Indian classical music.
• This genre aims to transcend cultural boundaries and create a universal musical language.

The correct answer is Cooperative Societies.

Key Points

• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle of State Policy related to Cooperative Societies.
• This amendment aimed at encouraging the formation, autonomy, and democratic functioning of cooperative societies.
• It introduced Part IXB in the Constitution which is dedicated to cooperative societies, ensuring their free and fair management and operations.
• The amendment aims to ensure better governance, accountability, and transparency in the functioning of cooperative societies.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• DPSPs are guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the state of India, to be kept in consideration while framing laws and policies.
• These principles are aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy and achieving the welfare state.
• They are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not enforceable by any court but are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The DPSPs are listed in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
• This amendment provided constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies.
• It aimed to ensure that cooperative societies function in a democratic, professional, autonomous, and economically sound manner.
• The amendment introduced Part IXB to the Constitution, which contains provisions related to the incorporation, regulation, and dissolution of cooperative societies.
• It also added Article 43B in the Directive Principles of State Policy, which states that the State shall endeavor to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies.
• Cooperative Societies
• Cooperative societies are voluntary associations of individuals who come together to achieve a common economic objective.
• They operate on the principles of self-help, mutual help, and democratic management.
• These societies play a crucial role in sectors like agriculture, credit, marketing, housing, and production in India.
• The primary objective of a cooperative society is to provide support to its members and work towards their economic upliftment.

The correct answer is Article 51A.

Key Points

• Article 51A of the Indian Constitution enumerates the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
• These duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Originally, there were 10 Fundamental Duties, but the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added an 11th duty.
• The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.

Additional Information

• 42nd Amendment Act (1976)
• The 42nd Amendment Act is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" because of its wide-ranging changes to the Constitution of India.
• This amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution in response to the internal and external challenges faced by the country.
• It aimed to balance citizens' rights with their duties to ensure that rights are enjoyed responsibly.
• Swaran Singh Committee
• The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Government of India to make recommendations on the constitutional amendments to be made.
• The committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
• It was named after Dr. Swaran Singh, who was the then Union Minister of External Affairs.
• 86th Amendment Act (2002)
• The 86th Amendment Act added the 11th Fundamental Duty which states: "A parent or guardian must provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen."
• This amendment also made education a fundamental right for children in this age group under Article 21A.
• Non-justiciable Nature of Fundamental Duties
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by law through judicial means.
• However, they act as a moral obligation for citizens and aim to promote a sense of discipline and commitment towards the nation.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Mizoram had a high 'Total Literacy Rate' of 91.33% as per the Census of India 2011.
• The 'Male Literacy Rate' in Mizoram was an impressive 93.35% according to the same census.
• The state has consistently invested in education, leading to significant literacy achievements.
• Mizoram's emphasis on educational infrastructure and accessibility has played a crucial role in achieving these literacy rates.

Additional Information

• Total Literacy Rate
• It is the percentage of people aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• This rate is a crucial indicator of a region's educational development and socio-economic progress.
• Male Literacy Rate
• It refers to the percentage of males aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• This metric helps in understanding the gender disparity in education and its impact on society.
• Census of India 2011
• It was the 15th National Census of India since 1872 and was conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India.
• The census provides comprehensive data on various demographic parameters including literacy rates, population distribution, and socio-economic factors.
• The data from the census is crucial for planning and policy-making at both national and state levels.
• Significance of High Literacy Rates
• High literacy rates are associated with improved socio-economic conditions, better healthcare, and increased civic participation.
• Literate populations are better equipped to utilize technology, contribute to the economy, and participate in governance processes.

The correct answer is Magnesium.

Key Points

• Magnesium is a highly reactive metal, especially when compared to other metals like lead, zinc, and mercury.
• It belongs to the alkali earth metal group and has the atomic number 12.
• It reacts readily with water to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas, and it also reacts vigorously with acids and other substances.
• Due to its high reactivity, magnesium is often used in pyrotechnics, flares, and incendiary devices.

Additional Information

• Reactivity of Metals:
• Reactivity of metals refers to how easily they undergo chemical reactions, especially with acids, water, and oxygen.
• Highly reactive metals can lose their electrons easily and form positive ions.
• Reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in order of their reactivity from highest to lowest.
• Alkali Earth Metals:
• The alkali earth metals are a group of elements in the second group of the periodic table.
• They include beryllium, magnesium, calcium, strontium, barium, and radium.
• These metals are known for their high reactivity and are usually found in compound form in nature.
• Uses of Magnesium:
• Magnesium is used in the manufacturing of lightweight materials for cars and airplanes.
• It is also used in the production of electronics, such as laptops and mobile phones, due to its strength and low density.
• In the health industry, magnesium compounds are used as dietary supplements and in medicines to treat magnesium deficiency.
• Safety Precautions with Magnesium:
• Due to its high reactivity, magnesium should be handled with care, especially in powdered form.
• It should be stored in a cool, dry place away from moisture and sources of ignition.
• When burning, magnesium produces a very bright white light and can cause severe eye damage; hence, proper eye protection should be worn.

The correct answer is 1981.

Key Points

• India and Maldives signed the trade agreement in the year 1981.
• The agreement was significant as it focused on the export of vital commodities between the two nations.
• This agreement marked an important step in enhancing economic cooperation between India and Maldives.
• It helped in strengthening the bilateral relations and ensured the supply of essential goods, promoting mutual benefit.

Additional Information

• Trade Agreements
• Trade agreements are treaties signed between countries to facilitate trade and economic cooperation.
• These agreements often include provisions for the reduction or elimination of tariffs, quotas, and other trade barriers.
• They aim to promote free trade and economic integration among the signatory countries.
• Examples of trade agreements include the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) and the European Union (EU) Single Market.
• Bilateral Relations
• Bilateral relations refer to the political, economic, and cultural relations between two sovereign states.
• These relations can encompass various aspects, including trade, defense, education, and tourism.
• Strong bilateral relations often lead to mutual benefits and enhanced cooperation between the countries involved.
• India has established strong bilateral relations with many countries, including the Maldives, through various agreements and partnerships.
• Economic Cooperation
• Economic cooperation involves collaboration between countries to improve economic ties and achieve common economic goals.
• This can include joint ventures, trade agreements, investment treaties, and shared development projects.
• Economic cooperation can lead to increased trade, investment, and economic growth for the participating countries.
• India and Maldives have engaged in economic cooperation through agreements like the 1981 trade agreement.
• Export of Vital Commodities
• Vital commodities refer to essential goods that are crucial for the survival and well-being of a population.
• This can include food, fuel, medicines, and other necessary items.
• Exporting vital commodities helps in meeting the needs of countries that may lack sufficient resources domestically.
• The 1981 trade agreement between India and Maldives facilitated the export of such essential goods, ensuring their availability in the Maldives.

The correct answer is 1/6.

Key Points

• In the State Legislative Council, 1/6th of the members are nominated by the Governor.
• The Governor nominates members who are persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service.
• The nomination of members by the Governor is aimed at ensuring that the Council includes individuals with expertise in various fields.
• This provision is a part of the bicameral legislature system in some states of India, providing a mechanism for the inclusion of knowledgeable and experienced individuals in the legislative process.

Additional Information

• Bicameral Legislature
• A bicameral legislature is a legislative body with two chambers or houses.
• In India, the Parliament at the national level is bicameral, consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• Similarly, some states in India have a bicameral legislature, consisting of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad)
• The State Legislative Council is the upper house in states with a bicameral legislature.
• Members of the State Legislative Council are elected and nominated from various constituencies and categories, including graduates, teachers, and local authorities.
• The Council acts as a revisory body, providing an additional layer of scrutiny to legislation passed by the State Legislative Assembly.
• Role of the Governor
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, appointed by the President of India.
• The Governor has various powers and functions, including legislative, executive, and discretionary powers.
• One of the legislative functions of the Governor is to nominate members to the State Legislative Council as per the provisions of the Constitution.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The first edition of the Khelo India University Games was held in 2020.
• The event took place in Bhubaneswar, the capital city of Odisha.
• The Khelo India University Games is part of the Khelo India initiative, which aims to promote sports culture in India at the grassroots level.
• The Games saw participation from various universities across India, making it a significant step towards nurturing young sports talent in the country.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Programme
• The Khelo India programme was introduced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in 2018.
• It aims to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country and establishing India as a great sporting nation.
• The programme includes initiatives for talent identification, sports infrastructure development, and support for athletes.
• It comprises various components such as Khelo India School Games, Khelo India Youth Games, Khelo India University Games, and Khelo India Winter Games.
• Importance of University Games
• University Games provide a platform for young athletes to showcase their talent and gain competitive experience.
• They help in identifying and nurturing sports talent at the university level.
• These games promote the importance of physical fitness and sports among the youth.
• Participation in such events can lead to greater opportunities for athletes, including scholarships and professional training.
• Sports Infrastructure Development
• The development of sports infrastructure is a crucial aspect of the Khelo India initiative.
• It includes the construction and upgradation of sports facilities across the country.
• The aim is to provide athletes with state-of-the-art facilities to train and compete.
• This also includes the establishment of sports academies and centers of excellence.

The correct answer is Atomic and Railway Operations.

Key Points

• Atomic and railway operations are strategically important sectors for national security and infrastructure, hence they are reserved for the public sector.
• The government maintains control over these sectors to ensure consistent and regulated management.
• Atomic energy involves sensitive technology and materials, requiring strict government oversight.
• Railway operations are crucial for national connectivity and economic stability, thus remaining under government control ensures reliability and safety.

Additional Information

• Liberalisation Policy:
• The Liberalisation Policy in India, initiated in 1991, aimed to open up the economy by reducing government regulations and restrictions on business operations.
• It involved measures like deregulation of industries, reduction of import tariffs, and the encouragement of foreign investment.
• The policy shift was aimed at increasing economic growth, improving efficiency, and integrating India into the global economy.
• Despite liberalisation, certain key sectors were retained under public sector control for strategic and security reasons.
• Public Sector:
• The public sector comprises enterprises and services owned and operated by the government.It aims to provide essential services, generate employment, and ensure equitable distribution of resources.
• Public sector enterprises are often found in critical sectors like defense, railways, and atomic energy to safeguard national interests.
• The government retains control over these sectors to maintain strategic security and public welfare.
• Atomic Energy Sector:
• The atomic energy sector involves the development and management of nuclear power and technology.It includes activities like nuclear power generation, research, and the handling of radioactive materials.
• This sector is highly regulated due to the potential risks associated with nuclear technology and materials.
• The government controls this sector to ensure safe and secure operations, preventing misuse and ensuring public safety.
• Railway Operations:
• Railway operations refer to the management and operation of the railway network, including passenger and freight services.Railways play a crucial role in national transportation, economic development, and connectivity.
• Government control ensures the provision of affordable and reliable services, maintenance of infrastructure, and adherence to safety standards.
• Public sector railways contribute to regional development, employment generation, and economic stability.

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

• The concept of judicial review in the Indian Constitution is derived from the Constitution of the United States of America (USA).
• Judicial review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitutionality of laws and executive actions.
• In the USA, the concept was established in the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803).
• It ensures that the laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive are in accordance with the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Judicial Review
• It is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary.
• It is an essential function of the judiciary to safeguard the supremacy of the Constitution and to protect the fundamental rights of citizens.
• In India, judicial review is considered a basic feature of the Constitution, which cannot be amended or taken away by the Parliament.
• Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution provide the basis for judicial review of legislative and executive actions.
• Marbury v. Madison (1803)
• This case is significant in American constitutional history as it established the principle of judicial review in the United States.
• The case was decided by the Supreme Court under Chief Justice John Marshall.
• The ruling declared that the Supreme Court had the power to nullify an act of Congress if it was found to be in conflict with the Constitution.
• Indian Constitution and Judicial Review
• The Indian Constitution explicitly confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary through Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246.
• The Constitution of India provides a system of checks and balances to ensure that no organ of the government exceeds its powers.
• Judicial review in India plays a critical role in maintaining the rule of law and ensuring the protection of fundamental rights.

The correct answer is Hariyali.

Key Points

• Hariyali is a watershed development scheme launched by the Ministry of Rural Development of India.
• The primary aim of the Hariyali scheme is to promote sustainable development and management of watershed areas in rural regions.
• It focuses on soil and water conservation, afforestation, and other allied activities to enhance the rural economy.
• The scheme encourages community participation and aims to improve the livelihood of rural people by ensuring the availability of water for agricultural and other purposes.

Additional Information

• Watershed Development
• Watershed development refers to the conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all the resources (natural, human, and social) within a watershed area.
• It aims to balance the ecosystem by ensuring water availability, enhancing agricultural productivity, and improving the socio-economic conditions of the people living in the watershed area.
• Watershed development programs typically involve activities like soil and water conservation, afforestation, pasture development, rainwater harvesting, and sustainable agricultural practices.
• The watershed approach is holistic and integrates various sectors including agriculture, forestry, and water resources management.
• Ministry of Rural Development
• The Ministry of Rural Development in India is responsible for the development and welfare of rural areas and communities.
• It implements various schemes and programs aimed at alleviating poverty, generating employment, and improving infrastructure and living conditions in rural areas.
• Some of the key programs under the Ministry include the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (Gramin), and National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
• The Ministry plays a crucial role in addressing the challenges faced by rural communities and ensuring sustainable development.
• Sustainable Development
• Sustainable development refers to the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• It involves a balanced approach to economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental protection.
• Sustainable development aims to achieve long-term stability and well-being for both human societies and the natural environment.
• Key principles of sustainable development include resource efficiency, environmental stewardship, social equity, and intergenerational responsibility.

The correct answer is Government of India Act (1935).

Key Points

• The Government of India Act (1935) was the last pre-independence constitution of India.
• It was the longest act (with 321 sections and 10 schedules) enacted by the British Parliament for India.
• This act provided the framework for the establishment of an all-India federation and provincial autonomy.
• Many features of the Government of India Act (1935) were later incorporated into the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26 January 1950.

Additional Information

• Government of India Act (1919)
• Also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, it introduced a dual form of government (diarchy) for the major provinces.
• Under this act, provincial subjects were divided into two categories: transferred and reserved.
• The act aimed to increase Indian participation in the administration and introduced the concept of a bicameral legislature at the Centre.
• Government of India Act (1858)
• It marked the end of the East India Company's rule and transferred control of India to the British Crown.
• The office of the Secretary of State for India was established and vested with complete authority and control over the Indian administration.
• This act also created the office of the Viceroy of India, who was the Crown's representative.
• Government of India Act (1930)
• There is no specific Government of India Act of 1930. It is likely a typographical error in the options provided.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Bagh Caves are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh in India.
• They are a group of nine rock-cut monuments famous for their exquisite paintings.
• The caves are situated in the Dhar district, near the town of Bagh.
• Bagh Caves are known for their Buddhist mural paintings similar to those found in Ajanta Caves.

Additional Information

• Bagh Caves
• Bagh Caves are renowned for their ancient Buddhist rock-cut architecture and paintings, dating back to the late 4th to 6th century AD.
• The caves were excavated on the southern slopes of the Vindhya Range, a major mountain range in central India.
• The caves served as viharas, which are Buddhist monasteries, providing living quarters for monks.
• The most significant cave is the Cave 4, also known as Rang Mahal, which is adorned with intricate murals depicting stories from the Jataka tales and other Buddhist texts.
• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh is a state located in central India, often referred to as the "Heart of India" due to its geographical location.
• The state is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical monuments, and natural beauty.
• It is home to several UNESCO World Heritage Sites, including the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, the Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi, and the rock shelters of Bhimbetka.
• Madhya Pradesh has a significant tribal population and is known for its diverse traditions, arts, and crafts.

The correct answer is Chittagong Armory Raid.

Key Points

• Surya Sen, popularly known as Master Da, was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and the chief architect of the Chittagong Armory Raid.
• The Chittagong Armory Raid took place on 18 April 1930 in Chittagong, then part of British India (now in Bangladesh).
• Surya Sen led a group of revolutionaries in an attempt to raid the British armory in Chittagong and seize weapons to fight against the British rule.
• The raid was an important event in the history of Indian independence movement as it demonstrated the spirit and determination of Indian revolutionaries.

Additional Information

• Kakori Conspiracy
• The Kakori Conspiracy was an armed robbery on the Kakori train near Lucknow on 9 August 1925 by the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
• Prominent revolutionaries involved included Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Chandrashekhar Azad.
• The objective was to fund their revolutionary activities by looting the government treasury carried in the train.
• Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case
• This was an assassination attempt on the British official Kingsford by Indian revolutionaries Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki on 30 April 1908.
• The attack took place in Muzaffarpur, Bihar, but resulted in the death of two British women instead of Kingsford.
• Khudiram Bose was later arrested and executed, becoming a martyr in the Indian independence movement.
• Delhi Conspiracy Case
• This was a plot to assassinate the then Viceroy of India, Lord Hardinge, during a procession in Delhi on 23 December 1912.
• The attack was planned by Rash Behari Bose and Basanta Kumar Biswas, who threw a bomb at Lord Hardinge's elephant.
• Although Lord Hardinge was injured, he survived the attack.
• Chittagong Armory Raid
• The raid was an attempt by Indian revolutionaries to raid the armory of the police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory on 18 April 1930.
• Surya Sen led a group of revolutionaries in this endeavor, with the aim of destroying the British control over the region.
• Although they were unable to achieve their ultimate goal, the raid inspired many and highlighted the bravery and commitment of the revolutionaries.
• Surya Sen was eventually captured and hanged by the British on 12 January 1934.

The correct answer is 20 per cent.

Key Points

• The Indus Water Treaty (IWT) was signed between India and Pakistan on 19th September 1960, with the World Bank being a signatory as well.
• Under the treaty, India was allocated the unrestricted use of all the waters of the eastern rivers (Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi) while Pakistan was allocated the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).
• India, however, is entitled to use 20% of the total water carried by the Indus river system for irrigation, power generation, and transport purposes.
• The treaty has been a successful example of conflict resolution between two countries sharing water resources.

Additional Information

• Indus Water Treaty (IWT)
• The IWT is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank. It was signed in Karachi on 19 September 1960 by then Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of Pakistan Ayub Khan.
• The treaty allocates the use of the river waters of the Indus basin between India and Pakistan. The basin comprises six rivers: the Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.
• The treaty gives India control over the waters of the three eastern rivers – the Beas, the Ravi, and the Sutlej, while Pakistan has control over the waters of the three western rivers – the Indus, the Jhelum, and the Chenab.
• The treaty allows India to use the water of the western rivers for limited irrigation use and unrestricted use for power generation, domestic use, and non-consumptive use like navigation, fish culture, etc.
• Water Sharing
• India is allowed to use 20% of the water from the western rivers for purposes such as irrigation, power generation, and transport. This amounts to around 3.6 million acre-feet (MAF) of water.
• The treaty specifies that the flow of the rivers shall not be obstructed by any party, ensuring a continuous supply of water to both countries.
• Conflict Resolution
• The IWT has a permanent Indus Commission with a commissioner from each country, which meets regularly to discuss and resolve any issues that arise.
• In case of disputes, the treaty outlines a process of arbitration which involves a neutral expert appointed by the World Bank.

The correct answer is Sayyid dynasty.

Key Points

• The Sayyid dynasty was founded by Khizr Khan who claimed to be a descendant of Prophet Muhammad.
• It ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1414 to 1451.
• The Sayyid dynasty succeeded the Tughlaq dynasty and preceded the Lodi dynasty.
• During the Sayyid rule, the Delhi Sultanate faced numerous internal and external challenges, including invasions and internal revolts.

Additional Information

• Tughlaq dynasty
• The Tughlaq dynasty ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1320 to 1413.
• Founded by Ghiyath al-Din Tughlaq, it is known for its administrative reforms and architectural achievements, including the fort of Tughlaqabad in Delhi.
• The most notable ruler was Muhammad bin Tughlaq, known for his ambitious but often impractical policies, including the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad.
• Despite its initial success, the dynasty faced severe challenges, including revolts and invasions, leading to its eventual decline.
• Lodi dynasty
• The Lodi dynasty was the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to 1526.
• Founded by Bahlul Lodi, it was a Pashtun dynasty and marked the beginning of Afghan rule in India.
• The most notable ruler was Sikandar Lodi, who expanded the territory and improved administrative efficiency.
• The dynasty ended with the defeat of Ibrahim Lodi by Babur in the Battle of Panipat in 1526, leading to the establishment of the Mughal Empire.
• Khalji dynasty
• The Khalji dynasty ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1290 to 1320.
• Founded by Jalal-ud-din Khalji, it is known for its military campaigns and expansion of the Sultanate's territory.
• Alauddin Khalji, the most prominent ruler, implemented significant economic and administrative reforms and successfully defended the Sultanate against Mongol invasions.
• The dynasty came to an end with the assassination of the last Khalji ruler, Qutb-ud-din Mubarak Shah, by his own nobles.
• Mamluk dynasty
• The Mamluk dynasty, also known as the Slave dynasty, ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1206 to 1290.
• It was founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad of Ghor, who became the first Sultan of Delhi.
• The dynasty is known for its architectural contributions, including the construction of the Qutb Minar.
• The Mamluk dynasty ended with the rise of the Khalji dynasty in 1290.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• In Olympic archery events, there are 10 concentric rings on the target.
• Each ring represents a different scoring sector, with scores ranging from 1 to 10.
• The innermost ring, known as the "bullseye," scores the highest points, which is 10 points.
• The target face used in Olympic archery has a diameter of 122 cm, and the rings are arranged concentrically.

Additional Information

• Target Face:
• The target face in Olympic archery is a circular sheet of paper or synthetic material.
• The diameter of the target face is 122 cm for recurve archery and 80 cm for compound archery.
• Scoring Zones:
• The target is divided into 10 concentric scoring zones, with each zone having a different point value from 1 to 10.
• The outermost ring scores 1 point, and the scores increase by 1 point for each inner ring, culminating in the bullseye which scores 10 points.
• Bullseye:
• The bullseye is the center-most ring of the target and scores 10 points.
• It is also sometimes referred to as the "gold" due to its color.
• Archery Equipment:
• Archers use a bow and arrows to shoot at the target from a specified distance.
• Recurve bows are used in Olympic archery events, while compound bows are used in other competitions.
• Other equipment includes sights, stabilizers, finger tabs, arm guards, and quivers.

The correct answer is Dust and sea salt.

Key Points

• Hygroscopic nuclei are tiny particles that attract water molecules from the air.
• Dust and sea salt serve as primary hygroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere.
• These particles facilitate the condensation of water vapor into liquid droplets, forming clouds.
• Without hygroscopic nuclei, the formation of clouds would be significantly less efficient.

Additional Information

• Hygroscopic Nuclei:
• These are tiny particles suspended in the atmosphere that have the ability to attract and hold water molecules.
• Examples include dust, sea salt, smoke, and certain types of pollution.
• They are crucial for the process of cloud formation as they provide surfaces for water vapor to condense upon.
• Hygroscopic nuclei are essential for the formation of raindrops, which eventually fall to the ground as precipitation.
• Condensation:
• Condensation is the process by which water vapor in the air is changed into liquid water.
• This process is essential for cloud formation and occurs when air is cooled to its dew point or when it becomes saturated with water vapor.
• Condensation releases latent heat, which can affect atmospheric stability and weather patterns.
• Cloud Formation:
• Clouds form when moist air rises and cools, causing the water vapor to condense onto hygroscopic nuclei.
• The types of clouds that form depend on various factors, including the altitude at which condensation occurs and the atmospheric conditions.
• Clouds are categorized into different types such as cumulus, stratus, cirrus, and nimbus based on their appearance and altitude.
• Sea Salt:
• Sea salt particles are created from the evaporation of seawater and are a major component of atmospheric aerosols.
• These particles are highly effective at attracting water molecules, making them excellent hygroscopic nuclei.
• Sea salt particles contribute significantly to cloud formation, especially in coastal and marine environments.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The first electric train in India ran between Bombay (now Mumbai) and Kurla in Maharashtra.
• This historic event took place on February 3, 1925.
• The train was operated by the Great Indian Peninsula Railway (GIPR).
• The electrification of this route marked the beginning of the electrification of Indian Railways.

Additional Information

• Electrification of Railways:
• Railway electrification involves converting conventional railway tracks and systems to be powered by electricity.
• This process includes the installation of overhead wires, substations, and other infrastructure to support electric locomotives and trains.
• Electric trains are generally more efficient, environmentally friendly, and cost-effective compared to diesel-powered trains.
• Globally, many countries have undertaken extensive railway electrification projects to modernize their rail networks.
• Great Indian Peninsula Railway (GIPR):
• The Great Indian Peninsula Railway was one of the pioneering railway companies in India.
• It was established in 1849 and played a significant role in the development of the Indian railway network.
• The GIPR operated in the western and central parts of India, primarily in Maharashtra and surrounding regions.
• It was later merged into the Indian Railways network, which is now one of the largest railway systems in the world.
• History of Indian Railways:
• Indian Railways is the fourth-largest railway network in the world by size.
• The first passenger train in India ran on April 16, 1853, between Bombay (Mumbai) and Thane.
• Indian Railways has played a crucial role in the economic and social development of the country.
• It continues to be a vital mode of transportation for millions of passengers and tonnes of freight across India.

The correct answer is Rajagaha.

Key Points

• Rajagaha, also known as Rajgir, was the initial capital of the Magadha Mahajanapada, an important kingdom in ancient India.
• It was one of the major cities during the time of Gautama Buddha and was a prominent center of political and spiritual activities.
• Rajagaha is known for its strategic location, surrounded by five hills, which made it a well-protected and fortified city.
• It later became an important site for both Jainism and Buddhism, with numerous monasteries and historical sites related to these religions.

Additional Information

• Magadha Mahajanapada:
• Magadha was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) of ancient India, located in present-day Bihar.
• It played a significant role in the history of India, being the center of the Maurya and Gupta empires, which significantly contributed to Indian civilization.
• The region was known for its rich culture, economic prosperity, and strategic military importance.
• Pataliputra:
• Pataliputra later became the capital of Magadha after Rajagaha. It was founded by Ajatashatru, the king of Magadha, and became a major political and cultural hub.
• Pataliputra was the capital city during the reign of the Maurya dynasty, including Emperor Ashoka, and continued to be an important city during the Gupta period.
• Vaishali:
• Vaishali was another significant ancient city, known for being the capital of the Licchavi republic and an important center for both Buddhism and Jainism.
• It is notable for its association with Lord Mahavira and Gautama Buddha, who spent considerable time here.

Given: 30 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 2 * 27

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) ÷, ×, +, –, =

30 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 2 * 27 ⇒ 30 ÷ 6 × 5 + 4 - 2 = 27

⇒ 30 ÷ 6 × 5 + 4 - 2 = 27

⇒ 5 × 5 + 4 - 2 = 27

⇒ 25 + 4 - 2 = 27

⇒ 29 - 2 = 27

⇒ 27 = 27 (LHS = RHS)

Option  2) +, –, ×, ÷, =

30 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 2 * 27 ⇒ 30 + 6 - 5 × 4 ÷ 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 6 - 5 × 4 ÷ 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 6 - 5 × 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 6 - 10 = 27

⇒ 36 - 10 = 27

⇒ 26 ≠ 27 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) +, ×, –, =, ÷ 

30 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 2 * 27 ⇒ 30 + 6 × 5 - 4 = 2 ÷ 27

⇒ 30 + 6 × 5 - 4 = 2 ÷ 27

⇒ 30 + 30 - 4 = 0.07

⇒ 60 - 4 = 0.07

⇒ 56 ≠ 0.07 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) +, ×, –, ÷,=

30 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 2 * 27 ⇒ 30 + 6 × 5 - 4 ÷ 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 6 × 5 - 4 ÷ 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 6 × 5 - 2 = 27

⇒ 30 + 30 - 2 = 27

⇒ 58 ≠ 27 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven people, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, are sitting in a straight row facing north.

1) Only two people sit to the right of S.

2) Only three people sit between Q and S.

3) R sits to the immediate right of S and to the immediate left of U.

4) T sits to the immediate right of P.

5. P is not a neighbour of Q.

After positioning P and T, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. V.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, V sits second from the extreme left end of the row.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘BASKET’ is written as ‘64’

And,

'TANKER' is written as ‘75’

Similarly,

‘VACATION’ is written as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the option figure 2 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: 1st number × 3 + 1 = 2nd number

2nd number × 3 - 5 = 3rd number.

Given:

For (13, 40, 115):

⇒ 13 × 3 + 1 = 39 + 1 = 40 = 2nd number

⇒ 40 × 3 - 5 = 120 - 5 = 115 = 3rd number

For (5, 16, 43):

⇒ 5 × 3 + 1 = 15 + 1 = 16 = 2nd numbe

⇒ 16 × 3 - 5 = 48 - 5 = 43  = 3rd number

Similarly, in Option (1)

For (11, 34, 97):

⇒ 11 × 3 + 1 = 33 + 1 = 34 (which should match 2nd number, but here it's 34, so logic seems different)

⇒ 34 × 3 - 5 = 102 - 5 = 97 (this holds true)

 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1: (11, 34, 97).

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series → 

The left diagonal elements interchange positions.

The center element and top right corner element interchange positions.

The bottom left corner element is replaced by new element.

2) Second box series →

The top row elements interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All pets are birds → Does not follow (As all crows are birds and some crows are pets. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some birds are crows → Follow (As all crows are birds. As whole crows comes in birds, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only Conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The number of squares in the given figure are shown below:

1) Number of squares = 12 + 22 ⇒ 5

As, there are 2 same shapes, therefore (5 × 2) = 10

2) Number of squares = 2

Thus, as marked there are a total of (10 + 2) = 12 squares in the given figure.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (2nd number ÷ 3) × 2 = 1st number.

Now,

For 18 ∶ 27

⇒ (27 ÷ 3) × 2 = 9 × 2 = 18.

For 16 ∶ 24

⇒ (24 ÷ 3) × 2 = 8 × 2 = 16.

Similarly, for ? ∶ 36

⇒ (36 ÷ 3) × 2 = 12 × 2 = 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. Lines at right diagonals corners → The number of lines increases in the sequence of even number series.

2) Lines at left diagonals corners → The number of lines increases in the sequence of even number series.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different dices the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 1 is common on both the dice, it is clear that 3, 4, 5, and 6 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 2 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

4 → 6

3 → 5

1 → 2

So, the opposite side of "5" will be side "3".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

1. For star element → The number of star element decreases subsequently.

2) For plus sign element → The number of plus sign element increases subsequently.

3. For arrow element → The arrow element flipped horizontally subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

 

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 32 * 6 * 12 * 67 * 2 = 81

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1) +, ×, −, ÷

32 * 6 * 12 * 67 * 2 = 81 ⇒ 32 + 6 × 12 - 67 ÷ 2 = 81

⇒ 32 + 6 × 12 - 67 ÷ 2 = 81

⇒ 32 + 6 × 12 - 33.5 = 81

⇒ 32 + 72 - 33.5 = 81

⇒ 104 - 33.5 = 81

⇒ 70.5 ≠ 81 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) ÷, −, ×, +

32 * 6 * 12 * 67 * 2 = 81 ⇒ 32 ÷ 6 - 12 × 67 + 2 = 81

⇒ 32 ÷ 6 - 12 × 67 + 2 = 81

⇒ 5.33 - 12 × 67 + 2 = 81

⇒ 5.33 + 2 - 804 = 81

⇒ 7.33 - 804 = 81

⇒ -796.67 ≠ 81 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) −, ×, ÷, − 

32 * 6 * 12 * 67 * 2 = 81 ⇒ 32 - 6 × 12 ÷ 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 32 - 6 × 12 ÷ 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 32 - 6 × 0.17 - 2 = 81

⇒ 32 - 1.02 - 2 = 81

⇒ 28.98 ≠ 81 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) ×, ÷, +, − 

32 * 6 * 12 * 67 * 2 = 81 ⇒ 32 × 6 ÷ 12 + 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 32 × 6 ÷ 12 + 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 32 × 0.5 + 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 16 + 67 - 2 = 81

⇒ 83 - 2 = 81

⇒ 81 = 81 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

HEAD : IGDH

And,

HAND : ICQH

Similarly,

BACK : ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 3 is common on both the dice, it is clear that 1, 5, 2, and 6 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 4 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 6

5 → 2

3 → 4

So, the opposite side of "5" will be side "2".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

For find the opposite surface of 'Q', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, A is common and on the same surface. So, all remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

A is opposite to A.

P is opposite to R.

So, B will be opposite to Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "B".

The complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

The product of two numbers = 8427.

The HCF of these numbers = 53.

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF x LCM

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 53a and 53b.

Then, product of the numbers = (53a) x (53b) = 8427

⇒ 53² x a x b = 8427

⇒ 2809 x a x b = 8427

⇒ a x b = 3

Since a and b are factors of 3, possible pairs (a, b) are (1, 3) and (3, 1).

Hence, the two numbers can be 53 x 1 = 53 and 53 x 3 = 159.

The greater number is 159.

Given:

Three successive discounts of 15%, 10%, and 8%.

Formula Used:

Single equivalent discount, k = 1 - (1 - d₁) × (1 - d₂) × (1 - d₃)

Calculation:

Let the original price be P.

After the first discount of 15%, the price becomes P × (1 - 0.15).

After the second discount of 10%, the price becomes P × (1 - 0.15) × (1 - 0.10).

After the third discount of 8%, the price becomes P × (1 - 0.15) × (1 - 0.10) × (1 - 0.08).

So the effective price after all three discounts is:

P × (1 - 0.15) × (1 - 0.10) × (1 - 0.08)

P × 0.85 × 0.90 × 0.92

⇒ P × 0.85 × 0.90 × 0.92 = P × 0.702

The single equivalent discount k is:

⇒ k = 1 - 0.702

⇒ k = 0.298

Therefore, the single equivalent discount is 29.62%.

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Half of the clothes sold at 30% profit.

Half of the remaining clothes sold at 20% loss.

The rest sold at cost price.

Formula Used:

Net Profit or Loss Percentage = (Total Profit or Loss) / (Total Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the total cost price be 100 units.

Clothes sold at 30% profit:

⇒ Cost Price = 50 units

⇒ Selling Price = 50 × 1.30 = 65 units

Remaining clothes = 50 units

Half of the remaining clothes sold at 20% loss:

⇒ Cost Price = 25 units

⇒ Selling Price = 25 × 0.80 = 20 units

Remaining clothes sold at cost price:

⇒ Cost Price = 25 units

⇒ Selling Price = 25 units

Total Selling Price = 65 + 20 + 25 = 110 units

Total Cost Price = 100 units

Net Profit = Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price

⇒ Net Profit = 110 - 100 = 10 units

Net Profit Percentage = (10) / (100) × 100

⇒ Net Profit Percentage = 10%

The correct answer is option 2: Profit 10%

The monthly income of a person is Rs. 45,000. If his income is increased by 25%, then find his new monthly income (in Rs.). ,55500,58250,56250,11250,,3

Given:

Monthly income of the person = Rs. 45,000

Income increase percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

New Income = Old Income + (Old Income × Increase Percentage / 100)

Calculation:

Old Income = 45,000

Increase Percentage = 25%

Increase Amount = 45,000 × 25 / 100

⇒ Increase Amount = 45,000 × 0.25

⇒ Increase Amount = 11,250

New Income = 45,000 + 11,250

⇒ New Income = 56,250

The new monthly income is Rs. 56,250.

Given:

Area of the first triangle = 420 cm²

Base of the first triangle = 60 cm

Area of the second triangle = 1500 cm²

Base of the second triangle = 7.5 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle = (1/2) × base × height

Ratio of heights = height of the first triangle / height of the second triangle

Calculation:

For the first triangle:

Area = (1/2) × base × height

420 = (1/2) × 60 × height

⇒ 420 = 30 × height

⇒ height = 420 / 30

⇒ height = 14 cm

For the second triangle:

Area = (1/2) × base × height

1500 = (1/2) × 7.5 × height

⇒ 1500 = 3.75 × height

⇒ height = 1500 / 3.75

⇒ height = 400 cm

Ratio of heights = height of the first triangle / height of the second triangle

Ratio = 14 / 400

⇒ Ratio = 7 / 200

The ratio of the height of the first triangle to that of the second triangle is 7 ∶ 200.

Calculation:

The given expression,

⇒$\frac{0.0203 \times 2.92}{0.7 \times 0.0365 \times 2.9}$

Remove the decimal from numerator and denominator:

⇒$\frac{203 \times 292\times 10^6}{7 \times 365 \times 29\times 10^6}$

Cancel out the terms from numerator and denominator:

⇒$\frac{292}{365}$

⇒0.8

Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

We need to find the value of n for which 3ⁿ - 2ⁿ and 3ⁿ + 2ⁿ are prime numbers.

Formula Used:

To find n such that both 3ⁿ - 2ⁿ and 3ⁿ + 2ⁿ are prime numbers.

Calculation:

We need to check the options one by one:

For n = 4:

3⁴ - 2⁴ = 81 - 16 = 65 (not prime)

3⁴ + 2⁴ = 81 + 16 = 97 (prime)

For n = 2:

3² - 2² = 9 - 4 = 5 (prime)

3² + 2² = 9 + 4 = 13 (prime)

For n = 5:

3⁵ - 2⁵ = 243 - 32 = 211 (prime)

3⁵ + 2⁵ = 243 + 32 = 275 (not prime)

For n = 3:

3³ - 2³ = 27 - 8 = 19 (prime)

3³ + 2³ = 27 + 8 = 35 (not prime)

The correct answer is option 2

n = 2

Given:

The average of 10 terms = 50

The average of the first 5 terms = 45

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of terms / Number of terms

Calculation:

Sum of all 10 terms = 50 × 10

Sum of all 10 terms = 500

Sum of the first 5 terms = 45 × 5

Sum of the first 5 terms = 225

Sum of the remaining 5 terms = 500 - 225

Sum of the remaining 5 terms = 275

Average of the remaining 5 terms = 275 / 5

⇒ Average of the remaining 5 terms = 55

The average of the remaining 5 terms is 55.

Sample question: A person takes a loan of Rs. 4,000 for 3 years at 8% per annum compound interest. He repaid Rs. 2,000 in each of the first and second years. The amount he should pay at the end of the third year to clear all his debt is: 1)Rs. 500.20 2)Rs. 567.12 3)Rs. 546.05 4)Rs. 525.34 5) The correct answer is option 3

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 4,000

Rate (R) = 8% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Repayment in the first year = Rs. 2,000

Repayment in the second year = Rs. 2,000

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Calculation:

1. Amount at the end of the first year:

A₁ = 4000 × (1 + 8/100)¹

⇒ A₁ = 4000 × 1.08

⇒ A₁ = 4320

After repaying Rs. 2,000:

Remaining Amount = 4320 - 2000

⇒ Remaining Amount = 2320

2. Amount at the end of the second year:

A₂ = 2320 × (1 + 8/100)¹

⇒ A₂ = 2320 × 1.08

⇒ A₂ = 2505.60

After repaying Rs. 2,000:

Remaining Amount = 2505.60 - 2000

⇒ Remaining Amount = 505.60

3. Amount at the end of the third year:

A₃ = 505.60 × (1 + 8/100)¹

⇒ A₃ = 505.60 × 1.08

⇒ A₃ = 546.05

The amount to be paid at the end of the third year to clear all the debt is Rs. 546.05.

Given:

Total distance = 90 km

Total time = 9 hours

Speed on foot = 9 km/hr

Speed on bicycle = 18 km/hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total Distance = Distance on foot + Distance on bicycle

Total Time = Time on foot + Time on bicycle

Calculation:

Let the distance traveled on foot be d km.

Then, the distance traveled on bicycle = 90 - d km.

Time taken on foot = d / 9 hours

Time taken on bicycle = (90 - d) / 18 hours

Total Time = d / 9 + (90 - d) / 18

Given Total Time = 9 hours

⇒ d / 9 + (90 - d) / 18 = 9

⇒ (d)/(9) + (90 - d)/(18) = 9

Multiplying by 18 throughout:

⇒ 2d + 90 - d = 162

⇒ 2d - d = 162 - 90

⇒ d = 72

The distance he travels on foot is 72 km.

Given:

Radius of the hemisphere (r) = 9 cm

Height of the cone (h) = 72 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of the hemisphere = $\frac{2}{3} \pi r^3$

Volume of the cone = $\frac{1}{3} \pi R^2 h$

Calculation:

Volume of the hemisphere = $\frac{2}{3} \pi (9)^3$

Volume of the hemisphere = $\frac{2}{3} \pi × 729$

Volume of the hemisphere = $\frac{1458}{3} \pi$

Volume of the hemisphere = 486π

Volume of the cone = Volume of the hemisphere

$\frac{1}{3} \pi R^2 × 72 = 486 \pi$

⇒ R^2 × 24 = 486

⇒ R^2 = $\frac{486}{24}$

⇒ R^2 = 20.25

⇒ R = $\sqrt{20.25}$

⇒ R = 4.5 cm

The radius of the base of the cone is 4.5 cm.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 8,000

Amount (A) = Rs. 9,200

Time (T) = 3 years

Rate of interest (r) = ?

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × r × T) / 100

Amount (A) = P + SI

Calculation:

Simple Interest (SI) = A - P

⇒ SI = 9,200 - 8,000

⇒ SI = 1,200

Using SI formula:

⇒ 1,200 = (8,000 × r × 3) / 100

⇒ 1,200 = 24,000r / 100

⇒ 1,200 = 240r

⇒ r = 1,200 / 240

⇒ r = 5%

New rate of interest = r + 2% = 5% + 2% = 7%

New Simple Interest (SI) = (P × new rate × T) / 100

⇒ New SI = (8,000 × 7 × 3) / 100

⇒ New SI = 168,000 / 100

⇒ New SI = 1,680

New Amount = P + New SI

⇒ New Amount = 8,000 + 1,680

⇒ New Amount = 9,680

The amount Bhumika would have received is Rs. 9,680.

Given:

The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 3 ∶ 4.

Their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 2 ∶ 3.

Each saves Rs. 6,000 per month.

Formula Used:

Income - Expenditure = Savings

Calculation:

Let the monthly income of A be 3x and that of B be 4x.

Let the monthly expenditure of A be 2y and that of B be 3y.

Savings of A: 3x - 2y = 6000

Savings of B: 4x - 3y = 6000

We have the following system of equations:

1. 3x - 2y = 6000

2. 4x - 3y = 6000

To solve these equations, multiply the first equation by 3 and the second equation by 2:

3. 9x - 6y = 18000

4. 8x - 6y = 12000

Subtract the second equation from the first equation:

⇒ 9x - 6y - (8x - 6y) = 18000 - 12000

⇒ x = 6000

Substitute the value of x in the first equation:

⇒ 3(6000) - 2y = 6000

⇒ 18000 - 2y = 6000

⇒ 2y = 12000

⇒ y = 6000

Now, the monthly income of B is:

⇒ 4x = 4 × 6000 = 24000

The monthly income of B is Rs. 24,000.

Given:

Total payment for the work = Rs. 36,000.

Radha can complete the work in 20 days.

Shama can complete the work in 60 days.

With the help of Rama, they finished the work in 10 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by a person in 1 day = 1 / Number of days the person can complete the work.

Share of payment = (Work done by the person in 1 day × Total work days) × Total payment.

Calculation:

Work done by Radha in 1 day = 1 / 20

Work done by Shama in 1 day = 1 / 60

Let the work done by Rama in 1 day = 1 / x

Total work done in 1 day by all three = (1 / 20) + (1 / 60) + (1 / x)

Since they finished the work in 10 days, the total work done in 1 day by all three = 1 / 10

⇒ (1 / 20) + (1 / 60) + (1 / x) = 1 / 10

⇒ ($\frac{3}{60}$ + $\frac{1}{60}$ + $\frac{1}{x}$) = 1 / 10

⇒ $\frac{4}{60}$ + $\frac{1}{x}$ = 1 / 10

⇒ $\frac{4 + 1/x}{60}$ = 1 / 10

⇒ 4 + 1 / x = 6

⇒ 1 / x = 2

⇒ x = 30

So, Rama can complete the work in 30 days.

Work done by Rama in 10 days = 10 / 30 = 1 / 3

Rama's share of the payment = (1 / 3) × Rs. 36,000

Rama's share of the payment = Rs. 12,000

The correct answer is option 3.

Shortcut Trick

Fraction value of 44.44% = 4/9.

If consumption increases by a/b, price must decrease by a/(a+b) to keep expenditure constant.

Here, a = 4, b = 9, so decrease in price = 4 / (4 + 9) = 4/13.

Percentage decrease (P) = (4/13) × 100% = 400/13% = 30$10\over13$ %.

∴ The correct answer is 30$10\over13$ %.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in consumption = 44.44%

Expenditure remains constant.

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

Calculations:

⇒ 44.44% = 4 × 11.11% = 4/9

⇒ Let the initial consumption be 9 units.

⇒ Final consumption = 9 + 4 = 13 units.

⇒ Since Expenditure is constant, Price is inversely proportional to Consumption.

⇒ Ratio of initial to final consumption = 9 : 13

⇒ Ratio of initial to final price = 13 : 9

⇒ Reduction in price = 13 − 9 = 4 ratio units.

⇒ Percentage reduction (P) = (4 / 13) × 100% = 400/13 %

⇒ P = 30$10\over13$₃ %

∴ The correct answer is 30$10\over13$ %.

Additional Information

Constant Product Rule

If A × B = Constant, an increase in A by x/y leads to a decrease in B by x/(x+y).

Important Percentage Fractions

11.11% = 1/9, 22.22% = 2/9, 33.33% = 1/3, 44.44% = 4/9.

Price-Consumption Relation

If the price of a commodity increases by R%, reduction in consumption to keep expenditure constant is [R / (100+R)] × 100%.

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + F.

Key Points

• The shortcut key Ctrl + Shift + F is used to open the Font dialog box in MS Word 365.
• This shortcut allows users to quickly access font settings without navigating through menus.
• The Font dialog box provides options to change the font type, style, size, color, and other text effects.
• Using shortcut keys like Ctrl + Shift + F enhances productivity and efficiency while working with text documents.

Additional Information

• MS Word 365
• MS Word 365 is a popular word processing software developed by Microsoft, part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite.
• It offers a wide range of features for creating, formatting, and editing text documents.
• Users can insert images, tables, charts, and other multimedia elements into documents.
• MS Word 365 also includes collaboration tools that allow multiple users to work on a document simultaneously.
• Shortcut Keys
• Shortcut keys are combinations of keys that perform specific commands in software applications.
• They are designed to provide quick access to frequently used functions, saving time and effort.
• Common examples include Ctrl + C for copy, Ctrl + V for paste, and Ctrl + S for save.
• Knowing and using shortcut keys can significantly improve productivity when working with computer applications.
• Font Dialog Box
• The Font dialog box in MS Word 365 allows users to customize the appearance of text.
• Options available in the Font dialog box include font type, style (bold, italic), size, color, and underline style.
• Advanced options include text effects such as strikethrough, superscript, and subscript.
• Accessing the Font dialog box via shortcut keys like Ctrl + Shift + F provides a quick way to make detailed text adjustments.

The correct answer is W3C.

Key Points

• The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is the main international standards organization for the World Wide Web.
• W3C was founded and is led by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, in 1994.
• W3C's mission is to lead the Web to its full potential by developing protocols and guidelines that ensure long-term growth for the Web.
• W3C operates under an open and transparent process aimed at building consensus and ensuring high-quality standards.

Additional Information

• IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)
• IEEE is a professional association dedicated to advancing technological innovation and excellence.
• It is well known for its work in electrical and electronics engineering and computer science.
• IEEE is responsible for setting technical standards in various fields but is not specific to the Web.
• IEIT (Institution of Engineering and Technology)
• IEIT is a multidisciplinary professional engineering institution.
• It works to inspire, inform, and influence the global engineering community.
• However, it does not specifically oversee Web technologies.
• WHO (World Health Organization)
• WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• Its primary role is to direct and coordinate health within the UN system.
• WHO does not have a role in the standardization of Web technologies.

The correct answer is Portrait.

Key Points

• The default page orientation in Microsoft Word 365 is Portrait.
• Portrait orientation is taller than it is wide, making it suitable for most documents.
• This is the most commonly used orientation for text-heavy documents like letters, reports, and essays.
• Users can change the page orientation to Landscape if needed, which is wider than it is tall.

Additional Information

• Page Orientation:
• Page orientation refers to the direction in which a document is displayed or printed.
• There are two primary orientations: Portrait and Landscape.
• Portrait Orientation: This is the vertical orientation where the height of the page is greater than the width.
• Landscape Orientation: This is the horizontal orientation where the width of the page is greater than the height.
• Microsoft Word allows users to switch between these orientations based on their document needs.
• Changing Page Orientation:
• To change the page orientation in Microsoft Word, go to the "Layout" tab on the ribbon.
• Click on "Orientation" and choose either "Portrait" or "Landscape".
• This can be applied to the entire document or a selected section.
• Use Cases for Different Orientations:
• Portrait: Suitable for standard text documents, letters, articles, and reports.
• Landscape: Often used for presentations, charts, tables, and graphics-heavy documents.

The correct answer is 15 and 8.43.

Key Points

• The default row height in MS Excel 365 is 15 points.
• The default column width in MS Excel 365 is 8.43 characters.
• The column width is measured in characters of the default font (usually Calibri 11).
• These default settings can be changed according to the user's preference by adjusting the row height and column width manually.

Additional Information

• Row Height
• The row height in Excel is measured in points, where one point is equal to 1/72 of an inch.
• The default row height of 15 points translates approximately to 20 pixels on the screen.
• The row height can be adjusted by dragging the boundary below the row heading or by setting a specific height using the 'Row Height' option.
• Column Width
• The column width in Excel is measured in terms of the number of characters of the default font that can fit in the cell.
• The default column width of 8.43 characters allows for approximately 64 pixels of width.
• Column width can be adjusted by dragging the boundary on the right side of the column heading or by setting a specific width using the 'Column Width' option.
• Adjusting Row Height and Column Width
• To adjust the row height, select the row or rows you want to change, then go to the 'Home' tab, click on 'Format' in the 'Cells' group, and select 'Row Height'. Enter the desired height and click OK.
• To adjust the column width, select the column or columns you want to change, then go to the 'Home' tab, click on 'Format' in the 'Cells' group, and select 'Column Width'. Enter the desired width and click OK.
• Double-clicking the boundary between column headers will auto-fit the column to the width of the longest cell content.

The correct answer is Home.

Key Points

• The Home tab in MS Word 365 is where you can find the Bullets and Numbering options.
• This tab also contains basic text formatting tools such as font type, size, color, and alignment options.
• The Bullets and Numbering options are used to create ordered (numbered) and unordered (bulleted) lists to organize content.
• These tools are essential for improving the readability and structure of documents by clearly outlining key points and steps.

Additional Information

• Insert Tab
• The Insert tab allows users to add various elements to their document, such as tables, pictures, shapes, charts, links, headers, and footers.
• It is also used to insert symbols, equations, and text boxes.
• This tab is crucial for adding non-text elements to enhance the document's visual appeal and functionality.
• Mailings Tab
• The Mailings tab is designed for creating and managing mail merges.
• It allows users to create envelopes, labels, and personalized letters for mass mailing.
• This tab is particularly useful for businesses and organizations that need to send out bulk communications.
• File Tab
• The File tab, also known as the Backstage view, provides access to file management options such as saving, opening, closing, printing, and sharing documents.
• It also contains options for document properties, version history, and document protection settings.
• This tab is essential for managing the overall lifecycle and security of a document.

The correct answer is Surface Chart.

Key Points

• A Surface Chart in Excel is used to find the optimum combinations between two sets of data.
• It is particularly useful for displaying data in a three-dimensional view, making patterns or trends easier to observe.
• Contour maps, which represent data in three dimensions, are a type of surface chart.
• Surface charts can be used to visualize complex data and are often used in scientific and engineering fields.

Additional Information

• Surface Chart:
• A surface chart in Excel plots data points on a 3D surface, allowing you to see a comprehensive view of how the data points relate to each other.
• Surface charts can be used to visualize mathematical functions or any data that can be plotted in three dimensions.
• They help in identifying the optimum levels in a dataset by showing peaks, valleys, and flat areas.
• There are different types of surface charts like 3D Surface, Contour, Wireframe 3D Surface, and Wireframe Contour charts.
• Scatter Chart:
• Scatter charts are used to plot data points on the horizontal and vertical axes to show how much one variable is affected by another.
• They are useful for identifying relationships or patterns between two variables.
• Scatter charts are often used in statistical analysis and correlation studies.
• Radar Chart:
• Radar charts, also known as spider charts, are used to display multivariate data in the form of a two-dimensional chart.
• Each variable has its own axis, which starts from the same point in the center.
• Radar charts are useful for comparing multiple variables and identifying outliers or trends.
• Doughnut Chart:
• Doughnut charts are similar to pie charts but have a blank center, making them look like a doughnut.
• They are used to represent data in rings, where each ring corresponds to a data series.
• Doughnut charts are effective for comparing the proportions of different categories in a dataset.

The correct answer is Help.

Key Points

• The Help feature in MS Word 365 provides users with a comprehensive resource for troubleshooting and learning how to use various features.
• It includes a searchable database of articles, tutorials, and tips to assist users in resolving issues or learning new tasks.
• Users can access the Help feature by clicking on the Help tab or pressing F1 on their keyboard.
• The Help feature also offers a virtual assistant that can guide users through complex tasks step-by-step.

Additional Information

• Review:
• The Review tab in MS Word 365 is used for proofreading and editing documents.
• It includes features like Spelling & Grammar check, Thesaurus, Word Count, Track Changes, and Comments.
• These tools help in improving the quality of the document and facilitating collaboration with others.
• Insert:
• The Insert tab allows users to add various elements to their document such as tables, pictures, shapes, links, headers, and footers.
• It also includes options for inserting text boxes, symbols, and equations.
• Using the Insert tab helps in enhancing the visual appeal and functionality of the document.
• Edit:
• The Edit feature in MS Word 365 encompasses basic text editing functions like Cut, Copy, Paste, Undo, and Redo.
• It also includes options for formatting text, such as changing font styles, sizes, and colors.
• These tools are essential for creating and modifying the content of the document efficiently.

The correct answer is Page UP or Page Down.

Key Points

• Page UP and Page Down are used to move by one preview page when zoomed out in MS Word 365.
• These keys help in quickly navigating through the document without using the mouse.
• Page UP moves the view to the previous page, while Page Down moves the view to the next page.
• This functionality is especially useful when working with large documents.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + Alt + I: This shortcut key is used to switch in and out of Print Preview mode.
• Ctrl + P: This shortcut key is commonly used to open the Print dialog box in many applications, including MS Word.
• Ctrl + D: In MS Word, this shortcut key opens the Font dialog box to change font settings.

The correct answer is A predefined formula that performs calculations using values in a specific order.

Key Points

• A function in Microsoft Excel is a predefined formula that performs calculations using specific values in a particular order.
• Functions can be used to perform simple or complex calculations, making data analysis more efficient.
• Excel functions cover a wide range of categories, including mathematical, statistical, logical, text, date and time, and financial operations.
• Common functions include SUM, AVERAGE, IF, VLOOKUP, and CONCATENATE, which simplify the process of manipulating and analyzing data.

Additional Information

• SUM Function:
• The SUM function adds all the numbers in a range of cells.
• Example: =SUM(A1:A10) adds all the values from cell A1 to A10.
• AVERAGE Function:
• The AVERAGE function calculates the average (arithmetic mean) of a group of numbers.
• Example: =AVERAGE(B1:B10) calculates the average of the values from cell B1 to B10.
• IF Function:
• The IF function performs a logical test and returns one value for a TRUE result and another for a FALSE result.
• Example: =IF(C1>10, "Over 10", "10 or less") checks if the value in C1 is greater than 10 and returns "Over 10" if true, otherwise it returns "10 or less".
• VLOOKUP Function:
• The VLOOKUP function searches for a value in the first column of a table and returns a value in the same row from another column.
• Example: =VLOOKUP(D1, A1:B10, 2, FALSE) looks for the value in D1 within the range A1:B10 and returns the corresponding value from the second column.
• CONCATENATE Function:
• The CONCATENATE function combines two or more text strings into one string.
• Example: =CONCATENATE(E1, " ", F1) joins the text in E1 and F1 with a space in between.

The correct answer is attachments.

Key Points

• Attachments are files or documents that are included with an email message.
• They can be of various types, including documents, images, videos, and compressed files.
• Attachments are a convenient way to share additional information or files that are too large to include directly in the email body.
• Most email clients provide an option to add attachments to an email before sending it.

Additional Information

• Add-ons:
• In computing, add-ons are additional software components that add specific features to an existing software application.
• They are often used in web browsers to add functionalities such as ad blockers, password managers, and downloaders.
• Appends:
• To append means to add data to the end of an existing structure, such as adding a new record to the end of a file or a new element to the end of a list.
• It is a common operation in programming and data management.
• Attachments:
• As mentioned, attachments are files or documents included with an email.
• They allow users to send additional content without embedding it directly into the email text.
• Email clients usually support various attachment types, such as PDFs, Word documents, Excel sheets, images, and videos.
• Supplements:
• Supplements are additional sections or materials that provide extra information to support or enhance the main content.
• They are often used in publications, reports, or educational materials.