Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 02 Dec, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Which of the following is the key aspect of Constitutional bodies? 

  1. ((a))

    Made by the Parliament

  2. ((b))

    Made by the President and PM

  3. ((c))

    Temporary status

  4. ((d))

    Mentioned in the Constitution

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mentioned in the Constitution

The correct answer is Mentioned in the Constitution

Key Points

  • Constitutional bodies are institutions that derive their powers and authority from the provisions explicitly stated in the Constitution of India.
  • These bodies cannot be altered or removed without amending the Constitution itself.
  • Examples include the Election Commission of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), and the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
  • Mentioned in the Constitution:
  • These bodies are specifically referred to in various articles of the Indian Constitution. For example:
  • Election Commission of India: Article 324
  • Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): Articles 315-323
  • Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG): Article 148
  • Finance Commission: Article 280

Additional Information

  • Made by the Parliament:

This refers to statutory bodies, which are established by laws passed in Parliament. Examples include the National Green Tribunal (NGT) or the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). These are not mentioned in the Constitution.

  • Made by the President and PM:

The President and Prime Minister alone do not have the power to create constitutional bodies. The creation of such bodies requires constitutional provisions.

  • Temporary Status:

Constitutional bodies are permanent and exist as long as the Constitution itself. Temporary bodies, such as a commission set up for a specific purpose, are different and are not constitutional bodies.

2

Which State has the maximum strength of members in Lok Sabha? 

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka 

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha House is 550 members - 530 members to represent the States and 20 members to represent the Union Territories.
  • The current strength of the Lok Sabha is 543 seats.
  • Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of Lok Sabha seats i.e 80.
  • Tamil Nadu has 39 Lok Sabha seats.
  • Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan have 25 Lok Sabha seats each.

Additional Information 

  • Lok Sabha:
  • Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament.
  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and is not subject to dissolution while the Lok Sabha has a five-year term, and is subject to dissolution at the end of its term.
  • The Lower House can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • It can also be dissolved if the President feels that no feasible government can be formed after the resignation or fall of a regime.
  • The maximum strength of the House is 552 members.
  • To become a member of Parliament, one should not be less than 30 years of age in the case of Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age in the case of Lok Sabha
  • To become a member of Lok Sabha, a candidate should have the following eligibility criteria:
  • The candidate should be a citizen of India.
  • The candidate should have at least 25 years of age.
  • The candidate should not hold an office of profit under the Indian government or the government of any other state.
  • The candidate should not be an unstable mind.

Important Points

  • 104th Amendment Act, 2020 -
  • Extended the deadline for the cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states assemblies from Seventy years to Eighty.
  • Removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
3

What is the name of the phenomenon by which light splits into its component colours upon passing through a prism?  

  1. ((a))

    Diffraction 

  2. ((b))

    Dispersion 

  3. ((c))

    Reflection 

  4. ((d))

    Refraction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dispersion 

The correct answer is Dispersion

Key Points

  • The phenomenon where white light splits into its component colors when passing through a prism is called dispersion.
  • White light is made up of seven bands of colors, each with a different wavelength.
  • When white light passes through a medium, each color travels at a different speed and has a different angle of refraction.
  • This causes the light to split, or disperse.
  • For example, when light travels from air into water, it slows down, causing it to continue to travel at a different angle or direction.

Additional Information

  • Diffraction
  • When a wave passes through a small opening or around a barrier, it bends and spreads out.
  • This can be demonstrated by placing obstacles in a ripple tank and observing the path of the water waves.
  • Reflection
  • When light rays bounce off a surface.
  • The law of reflection states that the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.
  • Refraction
  • When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, it changes direction at the boundary.
  • The path of the light depends on the density of the materials.
  • For example, light bends toward the normal when it travels from a less dense medium to a denser medium.
  • Rainbows are formed by a combination of refraction, dispersion, and total internal reflection.
  • When sunlight passes through water droplets in the atmosphere, the droplets act like prisms, refracting and dispersing the light, reflecting it internally, and then refracting it again when it exits the droplet.
4

The dance-pavilion (mandapa), the vast complex within a quadrilateral precinct of the Odisha school of architecture, is known as _________.  

  1. ((a))

    Jagamohana 

  2. ((b))

    Vimana 

  3. ((c))

    Deul 

  4. ((d))

    Gopuram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jagamohana 

The correct answer is Jagmohana

Key Points

  • The dance-pavilion (mandapa) in the Odisha school of architecture is known as the Jaganmohan.
  • The Jaganmohan is a large enclosed space made of black granite that is said to be the largest in Hindu architecture.
  • Mandapas
  • In Indian temple architecture, a mandapa is a pillared hall or pavilion for rituals.
  • Mandapas can be open or closed, depending on whether they have walls.
  • Odisha school of architecture
  • Also known as the Kalinga school of temple architecture, this style of Hindu architecture is characterized by three types of temples: Rekha Deul, Pidha Deul, and Khakhara Deul.
  • Shikhara
  • In Odisha, the shikhara is called the deul.
  • It is almost vertical until the top, where it bends sharply inwards

Additional Information

  • Vimana: A tower that sits above the inner sanctum, or garbhagriha, of a Hindu temple.
  • Vimanas are usually pyramid-shaped and have multiple stories.
  • In South Indian temples, the vimana is often smaller than the gopuram, which is the main entrance gateway.
  • In Odisha temples, the vimana is the tallest structure in the temple.
  • Gopuram: A large entrance gateway that sits in the center of the front wall of a Hindu temple.
  • Gopurams are one of the most striking architectural features of a temple complex.
  • Deul: A Hindu temple
5

Who among the following Buddhist monks came from China to India during the reign of Chandragupta II? 

  1. ((a))

    Song Yun

  2. ((b))

    Fa-Hien

  3. ((c))

    Hiuen-Tsang

  4. ((d))

    I-Tsing

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fa-Hien

The correct answer is Fa- Hien

Key Points

  • Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler who came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II
  • Fa-Hien traveled to India from China in 399 A.D. to study Buddhism and collect Buddhist scriptures.
  • Fa-Hien visited India in the early 5th century AD

Additional Information

  • Other Chinese Buddhist travelers to India
  • Hiuen Tsang:
  • A famous Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of King Harshavardhan.
  • He studied Buddhism in monasteries such as Kashmir, Sialkot, Kanauj, and Nalanda.
  • He wrote a book called Si-yu-ki (Record of the Western Countries).
  • I-tsing:
  • A Chinese traveller and Buddhist monk who came to India by sea in 675 A.D.
  • He stayed at the Nalanda monastery for ten years, studying the Vinya
6

The Lingayats community of present-day Karnataka originated in the 12th century CE due to the emergence of a movement led by _________ .  

  1. ((a))

    Tevaram 

  2. ((b))

    Basavanna 

  3. ((c))

    Sambandar 

  4. ((d))

    Shivanaris

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Basavanna 

The correct answer is Basavanna

Key Points

  • The Lingayats community of present-day Karnataka originated in the 12th century CE due to the emergence of a movement led by Basavanna:
  • Basavanna
  • A Brahmana minister in the court of the Chalukya king Bijjala Raya of Kalyana (1157-68 AD).
  • The Virasaiva movement, also known as the Lingayats, was a major social reform movement in 12th century Karnataka.
  • The name of the movement literally means "that which is said".
  • The followers of Basavanna were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga).
  • The Sharana-movement was inspired by the Nayanars, and emphasized personal religious experience over text-based dogmatism.
  • A prolific efflorescence of Bhakti literature emerged in the form of vachana in simple Kannada in the 12th century, in North Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Tevaram:
  • A collection of devotional hymns dedicated to Lord Shiva, composed by Tamil Saivaite poets (Nayanars) like Sambandar, Appar, and Sundarar during the 7th-9th centuries CE.
  • A prominent Tamil Saivaite saint and one of the three composers of Tevaram.
  • He is known for his devotional hymns in praise of Lord Shiva.
  • Shivanaris:
  • Likely refers to women devotees of Shiva or female saints associated with Shaivism.
  • This term might also symbolize the devotion and contributions of women in Shaivite traditions.
7

Which of the following movements was started by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan? 

  1. ((a))

    Khudai Khidmatgars

  2. ((b))

    Ghadhar Movement 

  3. ((c))

    The Deccan Revolt

  4. ((d))

    Individual Satyagraha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Khudai Khidmatgars

The correct answer is Khudai Khidmatgars

Key Points

  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as Frontier Gandhi, founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement (also called the "Red Shirts") in 1929.
  • This was a non-violent movement in the North-West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan) aimed at promoting social reform, unity, and the end of British rule.
  • It aligned closely with Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of non-violence.

Additional Information 

  • Ghadhar Movement
  • The Ghadhar Movement was initiated by Indian expatriates, primarily in the USA and Canada, in 1913.
  • It aimed to overthrow British rule in India through armed rebellion.
  • Leaders like Lala Hardayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Kartar Singh Sarabha were prominent figures in this revolutionary movement.
  • The Deccan Revolt
  • The Deccan Revolt occurred in the 1870s in the Deccan region of India.
  • It was a peasant uprising against oppressive moneylenders who charged exorbitant interest rates.
  • Individual Satyagraha
  • Individual Satyagraha was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1940 during the freedom struggle.
  • It was a non-violent movement that allowed selected individuals to protest against British rule without inciting mass agitation.
8

Khuallam and Cheraw are the dance forms of which of the following states? 

  1. ((a))

    Manipur 

  2. ((b))

    Mizoram 

  3. ((c))

    Assam 

  4. ((d))

    Tripura

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mizoram 

The correct answer is Mizoram

Key Points

  • Khuallam and Cheraw are dance forms from the state of Mizoram
  • Khuallam
  • The name translates to "Dance of the Guests".
  • It is performed by guests at the Khuangchawi ceremony.
  • The performer sways a traditional Mizo cloth wrapped around their shoulder.
  • Cheraw
  • Also known as the Bamboo Dance, this is a traditional and famous dance of Mizoram.
  • It is performed by six to eight people holding bamboo staves on another bamboo placed on the ground.
  • The dancers step in and out of the bamboo sticks while dancing to the beat of drums and gongs.
  • It is often performed during special occasions, such as when there is a bumper harvest.
  • Other traditional dances of Mizoram include Sarlamkai, Chheihlam, and Mizo

Additional Information

 

ManipurThang Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung Cholom, Rakhal, Nat Rash, Maha Rash, Raukhat, Dol Cholam, Khamba Thaibi, Nupa Dance, Raslila, Khubak Ishei, Lhou Sha
MizoramCheraw Dance, Khuallam, Chailam, Sawlakin, Chawnglaizawn, Zangtalam, Par Lam, Sarlamkai/ Solakia, Tlanglam, Khanatm, Pakhupila, Cherokan
TripuraHozagiri
AssamBihu, Bichhua, Natpuja, Maharas, Kaligopal, Bagurumba, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai etc
9

Which of the given statements about Phylum Angiosperms are correct?

A. Angiosperms are non-vascular plants with stems, roots and leaves.

B. The seeds of the angiosperm are naked.

C. These make up the majority of all plants on earth.

D. The seeds develop inside the plant organs and form fruit.

  1. ((a))

    Only A and C

  2. ((b))

    Only C and D 

  3. ((c))

    Only A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only C and D 

The correct answer is Only C and D

Key Points

  • These make up the majority of all plants on Earth.
  • Angiosperms, or flowering plants, represent the largest and most diverse group of plants in the plant kingdom.
  • They account for about 80-90% of all known plant species, which means the majority of plants we encounter daily, such as trees, shrubs, grasses, and herbs, belong to this group.
  • Angiosperms thrive in a wide variety of habitats, from forests and grasslands to deserts and aquatic environments.
  • Their dominance is due to several evolutionary advantages, including:
  • Efficient vascular system (xylem and phloem) for water and nutrient transport.
  • The development of flowers that attract pollinators (like bees, birds, and bats), increasing their chances of reproduction.
  • The production of fruits that help in the protection and dispersal of seeds by animals, wind, or water.
  • Examples of angiosperms include mango trees, wheat, roses, and grass species.
  • Hence this statement is correct
  • The seeds develop inside the plant organs and form fruit.
  • In angiosperms, seeds are enclosed within a protective structure known as the ovary.
  • This feature distinguishes them from gymnosperms, where seeds are exposed ("naked seeds").
  • Here’s the process:
  • Reproduction in Angiosperms: Angiosperms reproduce sexually via flowers. After pollination and fertilization, the ovules within the ovary develop into seeds.
  • Formation of Fruit: The ovary surrounding the seeds matures into a fruit, which serves two critical functions:
  • Protection of Seeds: The fruit safeguards the seeds during their development.
  • Seed Dispersal: Fruits aid in dispersal, as they may be eaten by animals, carried by wind, or float on water to spread seeds to new locations.
  • For example:
  • In mangoes, the fleshy part we eat is the fruit, and the seed is enclosed inside it.
  • In peas, the pod is the fruit, and the seeds are the peas inside the pod.​
  • Hence this statement is correct
10

What is the minimum age required for the appointment of a person as a governor? 

  1. ((a))

    30 years

  2. ((b))

    25 years

  3. ((c))

    35 years 

  4. ((d))

    18 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

35 years 

The correct answer is 35 years.

Key Points

  • The Governor of an Indian state generally holds office for a period of 5 years.
  • The Governor of the state is similar (not the same) to the President of the Union.
  • Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor.
  • A governor must:
  • be a citizen of India.
  • be at least 35 years of age.
  • not be a member of either house of the parliament or the house of the state legislature.
  • not hold any office of profit.

Additional Information

  • Article 157
  • A person to be eligible for appointment as Governor should be a citizen of India and has completed the age of 35 years.
  • Article 158
  • The Governor shall not be a member of the Legislature or Parliament; shall not hold any office of profit, shall be entitled to emoluments and allowances.
11

Which of the following neighbouring countries of India ranks the least in Human Development Index (HDI) 2021-22 among other countries? 

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh 

  2. ((b))

    Afghanistan

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan 

  4. ((d))

    Myanmar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Afghanistan

The correct answer is Afghanistan

Key Points

  • Afghanistan ranked the lowest in the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021-22 among its neighboring countries to India:
  • HDI ranking: Afghanistan ranked 169, while India ranked 131.
  • HDI value: Afghanistan's HDI value was 0.478, while India's was 0.633.
  • The HDI is a composite index that measures a country's average achievement in three areas: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living
12

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?  

  1. ((a))

    Third man – Cricket 

  2. ((b))

    Header – Hockey 

  3. ((c))

    Dribble – Hockey

  4. ((d))

    Bicycle kick – Basketball

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Third man – Cricket 

The correct answer is Third man – Cricket.

Key Points

  • Third man – Cricket: In cricket, the "third man" is a fielding position, usually situated on the off side behind the wicketkeeper, specifically towards the boundary.
  • Header – Hockey: "Header" is more commonly associated with football (soccer), where it refers to a player hitting the ball with their head.
  • Dribble – Hockey: While dribbling is a common term in sports like basketball and football (soccer), it is not typically associated with hockey.
  • In field hockey, "dribble" does apply correctly, but not in ice hockey.
  • Bicycle kick – Basketball: A "bicycle kick" is a term associated with football (soccer), describing an acrobatic shot where the player kicks the ball while in mid-air and off the ground, not with basketball.

Therefore, option 1 is the only correctly matched pair.

13

In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is it mentioned that “it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so”?  

  1. ((a))

    51A (i)

  2. ((b))

    51A (k) 

  3. ((c))

    51A (d) 

  4. ((d))

    51A (j)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

51A (d) 

The correct answer is 51A(d)

Key Points

  • The Article of the Constitution of India that states that it is the duty of every citizen to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so is Article 51A.
  • National service is a system of government service that can be compulsory or voluntary.
  • In India, there is no compulsory recruitment, but the National Service Act of 1972 allows certain people to be called to perform national service.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties under Article 51A
  • 51A(i):
  • "To safeguard public property and to abjure violence."
  • This fundamental duty emphasizes the importance of protecting public assets and refraining from violent actions.
  • 51A(k):
  • "Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years."
  • This was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making it a duty for parents/guardians to ensure children receive education.
  • 51A(j):
  • "To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement."
  • This duty encourages citizens to aim for excellence, contributing to the nation's progress
14

Who was the first president of the All-India Trade Union Congress?  

  1. ((a))

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. ((b))

    MN Roy

  3. ((c))

    NM Lokhande 

  4. ((d))

    Lokmanya Tilak

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lala Lajpat Rai

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai

Key Points

  • The country’s first national trade union, All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), turns 100 on October 30, 2020.
  • The first Congress of AITUC was held on October 31, 1920, in Bombay.
  • AITUC was founded by Lala Lajpat Rai.
  • AITUC was formed under Indian National Congress.
  • Presently Governed by President – Ramendra Kumar and General Secretary – Amarjeet Kaur.
  • Other leaders who participated in AITUC were:
  • Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
  • V. V. Giri, Sarojini Naidu.
  • C.R. Das, Jawarharlal Nehru.
  • Mohammad Ali Jinnah.
  • N. M. Joshi
  • Joseph Baptista.
  • Diwan Chaman Lall.

Additional Information

  • AITUC – National Conferences
National ConferenceYearPlacePresidentGeneral Secretary
1st1920BombayLala Lajpat RaiV.M. Pawar
2nd1921JhariaJoseph BaptistaDiwan Chaman Lall
3rd1923LahoreC.R. DasDiwan Chaman Lall
4th1924CalcuttaD.R. ThengdiF.J. Ginwala/ E.N.C. Sen
42nd2017Ranchi, JharkhandRamendra KumarAmarjeet Kaur

Important Points

  • Major Labour Unions and their Political Affiliation
  • Indian National Trade Union Congress – Indian National Congress.
  • Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh – Bharatiya Janata Party.
  • Centre for Indian Trade Unions – CPI(M).
  • Hind Mazdoor Sabha – Samajwadi Party.
15

The first five year plan was presented to the parliament by which of the following personalities? 

  1. ((a))

    Jawaharlal Nehru 

  2. ((b))

    Indira Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    PC Mahalanobis 

  4. ((d))

    Rajendra Prasad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jawaharlal Nehru 

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru 

Key Points

  • First Five Year Plan:
  • The first Indian prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, presented the First Five-Year Plan to the Parliament of India.
  • The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 and mainly focused on the development of the primary sector.
  • The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Harrod–Domar model with few modifications.
  • The target growth rate was 2.1% annual gross domestic product (GDP) growth; the achieved growth rate was 3.6% the net domestic product went up by 15
  • Many irrigation projects were initiated during this period, including the Bhakra, Hirakud, Mettur Dam, and Damodar Valley dams.
  • At the end of the plan period in 1956, five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were started and The University Grants Commission (UGC) was set up.
  • Contracts were signed to start five steel plants, which came into existence in the middle of the Second Five-Year Plan.
  • The plan was quasi-successful for the government.

Additional Information

  • Planning Commission, an agency of the government of India established in 1950 to oversee the country’s economic and social development, chiefly through the formulation of five-year plans.
  • Five-year plan first-time was Introduced by Stalin in the Soviet region.
  • First Five Year Plan(1951-1956):
  • It is based on Harrod-Domar Model.
  • It mainly focused on Agriculture.
  • Community Development Program is also introduced in this Plan.
  • Second Five Year Plan(1956-1961):
  • It is based on Mahalanobis Model.
  • It mainly focused on Industry.
  • Steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela were established with the help of Russia, Britain (the U.K), and West Germany respectively.
  • Fourth Five Year Plan(1969-1974):
  • It is based on Ashok Rudra Alon Model.
  • The smiling Buddha project was also introduced in this Plan.
  • 14 Commercial Banks were also Nationalised in this Plan.
  • Fifth Five-Year Plan(1974-1979):
  • It is based on D.P.Dhar Model.
  • The slogan "Garrebe Hatao" was also introduced in this plan.
  • Regional Rural Bank was established In this Plan(2 October 1975).
16

Who was selected as the ‘Best Male Athlete’ in the National Games-2022? 

  1. ((a))

    Sajan Prakash

  2. ((b))

    Siva Subaramani 

  3. ((c))

    Jeswin Aldrin

  4. ((d))

    Ram Baboo

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sajan Prakash

The correct answer is Sajan Prakash

Key Points

  • Sajan Prakash, a 29-year-old swimmer from Kerala, was named the best male athlete at the 36th National Games in 2022.
  • The 2022 National Games was held in Gujarat and featured over 8,000 athletes from all 36 states and Union Territories.
  • The games' motto was Judega India, Jitega India.

Additional Information

  • The 36th National Games were held in 2022 in the state of Gujarat.
  • Gujarat hosted the National Games for the first time in its history.
  • The games were held in various cities across the state, including Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, and Surat.
  • The National Games is a biennial multi-sport event in which athletes from different states of India participate.
  • The event is organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
  • The 36th National Games were originally scheduled to be held in 2021 but were postponed multiple times due to various reasons, including infrastructure issues and financial problems.
  • Haryana, Karnataka, and Maharashtra were the other options, but they did not host the 36th National Games.
  • However, Haryana has hosted the National Games four times in the past, Karnataka has hosted twice, and Maharashtra has hosted once.
17

Which of the following fundamental duties is violated when a person purposefully spoils an ancient monument?  

  1. ((a))

    To preserve our rich heritage and composite culture.

  2. ((b))

    To protect the unity and integrity of India.

  3. ((c))

    To develop a scientific outlook and humanism. 

  4. ((d))

    To defend the country when the need arises.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To preserve our rich heritage and composite culture.

The correct answer is To preserve our rich heritage and composite culture

Key Points

  • Fundamental Duty (Article 51A of the Indian Constitution):
  • One of the fundamental duties of Indian citizens is to "preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" (under 51A(f)).
  • Violated Duty: When a person purposefully spoils an ancient monument, they are violating this duty because such actions harm India’s cultural heritage, which is considered an important part of the nation’s composite culture.

Additional Information

  • To protect the unity and integrity of India: This duty is about maintaining national unity and would not directly apply to spoiling monuments.
  • To develop a scientific outlook and humanism: This is more related to promoting rational thinking and social responsibility, but not directly related to heritage preservation.
  • To defend the country when the need arises: This duty pertains to national defense, not cultural heritage.
18

Which of the following is the correct pair of autobiography and its autobiographer? 

  1. ((a))

    Long Walk to Freedom: Malcolm

  2. ((b))

    Mein Kampf: Adolf Hitler

  3. ((c))

    On Writing: Ernest Hemingway

  4. ((d))

    Open: Anne Frank

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mein Kampf: Adolf Hitler

The correct answer is Mein Kampf: Adolf Hitler

Key Points

  • Mein Kampf was written by Adolf Hitler, the leader of Nazi Germany.
  • Hitler wrote Mein Kampf while he was imprisoned after a failed coup attempt in 1923 known as the Beer Hall Putsch.
  • He was sentenced to prison for his role in the coup, which aimed to overthrow the Weimar government.
  • Time Period: The book was written between 1924 and 1925 during his time in Landsberg Prison, and the first volume was published in 1925, followed by a second volume in 1926.
  • Hence this pair is correct

Additional Information

  • Long Walk to Freedom: Malcolm 
  • Incorrect: Long Walk to Freedom is the autobiography of Nelson Mandela, not Malcolm (likely referring to Malcolm X).
  • On Writing: Ernest Hemingway
  • Incorrect: On Writing is the memoir of Stephen King, not Ernest Hemingway.
  • Open: Anne Frank
  • Incorrect: Open is the autobiography of Andre Agassi, the tennis player, not Anne Frank. Anne Frank is known for her diary The Diary of a Young Girl.
19

Which of the following Acts was replaced by the Competition Act 2002?  

  1. ((a))

    LERMS 

  2. ((b))

    FERA 

  3. ((c))

    MRTP 

  4. ((d))

    FEMA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MRTP 

The correct answer is MRTP

Key Points

  • The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP) of 1969 was replaced by the Competition Act of 2002:
  • The Competition Act of 2002 governs Indian competition law and came into effect on September 1, 2009.
  • The Competition Commission of India was established under this act to prevent activities that negatively impact competition in India.
  • The current competition law in India focuses on promoting competition, rather than curbing monopolies.
  • The MRTP Act had several disadvantages, including:
  • Bureaucratic procedures
  • Restrictions on business expansion
  • Discouragement of foreign investment
  • Lack of clarity in defining terms

Additional Information

​Competition Act, 2002:

  • The Competition Act, of 2002  is a law that governs commercial competition in India.
  • It replaced the erstwhile Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, of 1969.
  • The Competition Act aims to prevent activities that have an adverse effect on competition in India.
  • The Act mainly covers these aspects;
  • Prohibition of anti-competitive agreements.
  • Prohibition of abuse of dominance.
  • Regulation of combination (acquisition, mergers, and amalgamation of a certain size)
  • Establishment of the competition commission of India.
  • Power and functions of the competition commission of India.
20

Which of the following plutonic rocks is usually black or dark green in colour and is mainly composed of plagioclase and augite minerals?  

  1. ((a))

    Dolomite 

  2. ((b))

    Gabbro 

  3. ((c))

    Zeolites 

  4. ((d))

    Quartzite

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gabbro 

The correct answer is Gabbro

Key Points

  • Gabbro is a plutonic rock that is typically black or dark green in color and is mainly composed of plagioclase and augite minerals:
  • Gabbro is made up of calcium-rich plagioclase feldspar, pyroxenes, and iron oxides. It also contains trace amounts of olivine.
  • Gabbro's colour ranges from black to very dark green due to its mineral composition.
  • Gabbro is a coarse-grained rock.
  • Gabbro is used in construction projects, such as for crushed stone base materials, polished stone countertops, and floor tiles.
  • Gabbro is the most common rock in the ocean's deep crust. It can also be found in many ophiolites.
  • Gabbro is the plutonic equivalent of basalt. Basalt is a mafic rock, meaning it's rich in iron and magnesium, but poor in silica

Additional Information

  • Dolomite:
  • Dolomite is a type of sedimentary rock composed primarily of the mineral dolomite (CaMg(CO₃)₂).
  • It is chemically similar to limestone but contains magnesium as well as calcium.
  • Zeolites:
  • Zeolites are a group of minerals that are characterized by their ability to absorb and release water and other molecules.
  • They are aluminosilicates (made up of aluminum, silicon, and oxygen) and have a unique crystalline structure that forms cavities and channels.
  • Quartzite:
  • Quartzite is a metamorphic rock formed from the metamorphism of sandstone, specifically when sandstone undergoes heat and pressure, transforming it into a denser, harder rock.
21

What percentage of the water that falls on land returns to the atmosphere through evaporation from over the oceans as well as from other places?  

  1. ((a))

    29%

  2. ((b))

    49%

  3. ((c))

    59%

  4. ((d))

    39%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

59%

The correct answer is 59%

Key Points

  • The total Earth's surface covered by water is 75%.
  • About 75% of the Earth’s surface is water-covered and the oceans hold about 96.5% of all Earth’s water.
  • Water also exists in the air as water vapor in rivers and lakes, icecaps and glaciers, and in the ground as soil moisture.
  • Nearly 59 percent of the water that falls on land returns to the atmosphere through evaporation from over the oceans as well as from other places.
  • The remainder runs off on the surface and infiltrates into the ground or a part of it becomes a glacier.

Additional Information

  • Total water on earth is primarily divided into two parts:
  • Freshwater (2.5%)
  • Saline water (97.4%) (oceans and seas)
  • Freshwater is again divided into four parts:
  • Icecaps and glaciers (68.7%)
  • Groundwater (30.1%)
  • Surface water (0.3%) (lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, etc.)
  • Others (0.9%) (soil moisture, atmospheric moisture, etc.)
22

Consider the following statements with respect to the purpose of privatisation:

(i) It improves financial discipline.

(ii) It facilitates modernization.

(iii) It helps in improving performance of the PSUs.

Choose the correct answer.

  1. ((a))

    All (i), (ii) and (iii) are true 

  2. ((b))

    Only (ii) is true

  3. ((c))

    Only (iii) is true

  4. ((d))

    Only (i) is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All (i), (ii) and (iii) are true 

The correct answer is All (i), (ii) and (iii) are true 

Key Points

  • It improves financial discipline:
  • Privatization often introduces greater financial accountability and efficiency because private companies are driven by profit motives.
  • They must ensure that their operations are cost-effective and financially viable, which leads to improved financial discipline compared to public sector enterprises (PSUs), which may be less profit-focused.
  • It facilitates modernization:
  • When a public sector unit is privatized, there is often an influx of new technology, better management practices, and capital investment, which facilitates modernization.
  • Private sector companies generally have a greater ability to innovate and modernize to stay competitive in the market.
  • It helps in improving the performance of PSUs:
  • Privatization can lead to improved performance by introducing better management, reducing bureaucratic inefficiencies, and motivating the company to compete effectively in the market.
  • It generally leads to better management practices, more effective decision-making, and a focus on profitability and customer satisfaction.
  • Thus, all three purposes of privatization contribute to the overall goal of making businesses more efficient, competitive, and financially sound.​
23

Indian music director AR Rahman won the Oscar in the year ___________.  

  1. ((a))

    2009 

  2. ((b))

    2008 

  3. ((c))

    2005 

  4. ((d))

    2011

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2009 

The correct answer is 2009

Key Points

  • Famous Indian singer and composer A. R. Rahman won the 'Best Original Song' and 'Best Original Score' awards in 2009 for his composition in the movie 'Slumdog Millionaire.
  • At the 81st Academy Awards(2009), he won an Oscar for "Best Original Song" for 'Jai Ho from the film Slumdog Millionaire.
  • The film was directed by Danny Boyle.
  • Indian well-known composer Gulzar also won an Oscar for composing the song Jai Ho.

Additional Information

  • Slumdog Millionaire had won eight Academy Awards, including those for best picture and best director.
  • This movie also won Golden Globe and Bafta awards.
  • Bhanu Athaiya- The first Indian to win an Academy Award for designing the costumes (55th Academy Awards) for the movie Gandhi(1982).
  • Resul Pookutty-Resul Pookutty is an Indian film sound designer, sound editor, and audio mixer. He won the Academy Award for Best Sound Mixing, along with Richard Pryke and Ian Tapp, for Slumdog Millionaire.
  • Mehboob Khan-  Mehboob Khan was a pioneer producer-director of Indian cinema, best known for directing the social epic Mother India, the first Indian movie nominated for the Oscar.
24

The promotion and development of a strong banking system is the function of _________  

  1. ((a))

    foreign bank

  2. ((b))

    commercial bank 

  3. ((c))

    regional rural bank

  4. ((d))

    central bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

central bank

The correct answer is Central bank

Key Points

  • The Central Bank, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India, is responsible for promoting and developing a strong and stable banking system in the country.
  • It regulates, supervises, and guides other banks to ensure the financial system's soundness and efficiency.
  • Functions of the Central Bank related to this include:
  • Regulation of commercial and regional rural banks.
  • Licensing and monitoring the performance of banks.
  • Issuing guidelines for financial stability.
  • Ensuring adequate credit flow to various sectors of the economy.

Additional Information

  • Foreign Bank
  • Foreign banks operate in a country but are headquartered in another nation (e.g., HSBC, Citibank).
  • Their primary role is to provide specialized services like foreign exchange, trade finance, or investment banking.
  • They do not have the responsibility of promoting or developing the overall banking system in the country.
  • Commercial Bank
  • Commercial banks (e.g., SBI, HDFC, ICICI) primarily focus on accepting deposits, lending money, and providing various financial services.
  • While they are crucial for economic development and customer banking needs, they operate under the regulations set by the central bank and do not oversee the banking system as a whole.
  • Regional Rural Bank (RRB)
  • RRBs are aimed at providing banking services to rural areas, especially to small farmers, artisans, and rural entrepreneurs.
  • They play a role in rural development but do not oversee or promote the entire banking system's stability or growth.
25

Which of the following is NOT an example of a public sector industry in India?   

  1. ((a))

    Tata Iron and Steel company

  2. ((b))

    National Thermal Power Corporation 

  3. ((c))

    Steel Authority of India Limit

  4. ((d))

    Bharat Heavy Electrical Limit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tata Iron and Steel company

The correct answer is Tata Iron and Steel Company

Key Points

  • ​Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is not an example of a public sector industry in India. \
  • TISCO is a privately owned company
  • Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), now known as Tata Steel, is one of the oldest and largest steel manufacturing companies in India
  • Founded: 1907 by Jamsetji Tata, a visionary industrialist.
  • Headquarters: Jamshedpur, Jharkhand, India.

Additional Information

  • National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
  • A public sector enterprise under the Government of India.
  • Engaged in power generation and allied activities.
  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
  • A public sector enterprise owned by the Government of India.
  • One of the largest steel-making companies in India.
  • Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
  • A public sector undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
  • Specializes in manufacturing electrical equipment.
26

Which Indian American music composer received the ASCAP Screen Music Awards 2020 for his NBC’s drama series ‘This is Us’? 

  1. ((a))

    Sid Sriram 

  2. ((b))

    Siddhartha Khosla

  3. ((c))

    Mickey Singh

  4. ((d))

    Paul Sabu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Siddhartha Khosla

The correct answer is Siddhartha Khosla.

Key Points

  • The Indian-American composer Siddhartha Khosla was awarded the ASCAP Screen Music Award in 2020 for his work on NBC's drama series, "This Is Us."
  • This prestigious award, bestowed by the American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers (ASCAP), recognized Khosla's exceptional contribution to the show's musical score.
  • Khosla's win highlights the growing influence of Indian-American artists in the global entertainment industry.
  • His success with "This Is Us" has further solidified his reputation as a talented and versatile composer.
  • The ASCAP Screen Music Awards celebrate the achievements of music creators in film, television, and video games.
  • By honoring Khosla, ASCAP acknowledged his significant impact on the television landscape.
27

On which of the following days, that is celebrated as a national festival, did India become a Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state? 

  1. ((a))

    Republic Day 

  2. ((b))

    Independence Day

  3. ((c))

    Martyr’s Day

  4. ((d))

    Gandhi Jayanti

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Republic Day 

The correct answer is Republic Day.

Key Points

  • Republic Day is celebrated every year on the 26th of January.
  • It marks the day when the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950, replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India.
  • On this day, India officially became a sovereign, democratic republic, and its people chose their own government.
  • The Republic Day celebration in India is a grand event with various ceremonial parades, cultural performances, and the iconic Republic Day parade held at Rajpath in New Delhi.
  • The President of India hoists the national flag, and various achievements of the nation are showcased during the celebrations.

 Additional Information

  • Historical Background: India gained independence from British colonial rule on August 15, 1947. However, it was on January 26, 1950, that India adopted its Constitution, becoming a fully sovereign and democratic republic.
  • Adoption of the Constitution: The Constituent Assembly of India, under the leadership of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, worked diligently to draft the Constitution of India, which took almost three years to complete. The Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into effect on January 26, 1950.
  • Purna Swaraj Declaration: Interestingly, January 26 has a historical significance even before the adoption of the Constitution. On January 26, 1930, the Indian National Congress declared the "Purna Swaraj" (Complete Independence) resolution, marking the demand for complete self-rule and freedom from British rule.
  • Republic Day Celebrations: The Republic Day celebrations in India are marked by various events, with the main parade held in the national capital, New Delhi. The President of India takes the salute at the Republic Day parade, which showcases the country's military might, cultural diversity, achievements, and socio-economic progress.
  • Chief Guest: Each year, a foreign head of state or a dignitary is invited as the chief guest for the Republic Day parade. This tradition symbolizes India's diplomatic ties and global friendships.
  • Flag Hoisting and Celebrations: Republic Day is celebrated throughout the country with enthusiasm and patriotic fervor. The national flag is hoisted in schools, government offices, and public places. Cultural programs, flag hoisting ceremonies, and parades are organized in various cities and towns.
  • Importance of the Constitution: Republic Day not only commemorates the adoption of the Constitution but also emphasizes the significance of the guiding principles and fundamental rights enshrined in it. The Constitution of India serves as the supreme law of the country, ensuring justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens.
28

Who among the following led the rebels in Kanpur in the revolt of 1857? 

  1. ((a))

    Tatya Tope

  2. ((b))

    Nana Saheb Peshwa 

  3. ((c))

    Kunwar Singh

  4. ((d))

    Birjis Qadr

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nana Saheb Peshwa 

The correct answer is Nana Saheb Peshwa.

Key Points

  • Nana Saheb Peshwa 
  • On 5th June 1857, Nana Saheb was declared as Peshwa of Kanpur.
  • The original name of Nana Sahib was Dhondu Pant.
  • He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II.
  • He led the revolt of 1857 in Kanpur.
  • Tantia Tope was the general of Nana Saheb in the 1857 revolt.
  • It is believed that Nana Sahib escaped to Nepal when the rebellion collapsed.​

Additional Information

  • Tatya Tope
  • Also known as Ramachandra Pandurang Tope, he was one of the most notable Indian freedom fighters and a general in the Rebellion of 1857.
  • Born in 1814 in Nashik, Maharashtra, Tatya Tope was the only son of Pandurang Rao Tope and his wife Rukhmabai.
  • Tatya Tope was an intimate friend and the right hand of Nana Sahib, the adopted son of Peshwa.
  • In May 1857, Tatya Tope won the battle over the Indian troops of the East India Company at Kanpur.
  • He forced General Windham to retreat from the city of Gwalior.
  • He collaborated with Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi to seize Gwalior.
  • Tatya Tope was defeated by Sir Colin Campbell (later Baron Clyde) on December 6, 1857.
  • He was hanged on April 18, 1859, in General Meade’s camp at Shivpuri.
  • ​Kunwar Singh
  • The Revolt of 1857 was also called the First War of Independence and the 'Sepoy Mutiny'.
  • Veer Kunwar Singh passed away on 26 April 1858.
  • His legacy as a fearless warrior remains an inspiration for generations.
  • It was a widespread but unsuccessful revolt against British Rule from 1857-59.
  • In Bihar, the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh, the zamindar of Jagdishpur.
  • Babu Kunwar Singh ( 1777- 1858) was a zamindar of Jagdishpur near Arrah in the state of Bihar.
  • He belonged to a royal Ujjainiya (Panwar) Rajput house of Jagdispur, currently a part of Bhojpur district, Bihar.
  • He was the son of Raja Shahabzada Singh and Rani Panchratan Kunwar Devi Singh.
  • At the age of 80 years, during India's first war of Independence (1857-58), he assumed command of the soldiers who had revolted at Danapur on 5 July 1857.
  • He occupied Arrah which was relieved by major Eyre on 3rd  August.

In his last battle which was fought on 23 April 1858 near Jagdishpur, Kunwar Singh had a victory over the force led by Captain Le Grand.

  • Birjis Qadr​
  • Awadh was annexed by  the Britishers in 1856.
  • This angered Indians and was a cause of the Indian Mutiny (1857-58), the largest Indian rebellion against British rule.
  • The rebels of 1857 crowned Birjis Qadr as the "King of Awadh".
  • Birjis Qadr (20 august 1845- 14 August 1893) was the Nawab of Awadh from 1857 until 1858.
  • Following the outbreak of the Indian Mutiny, Qadr's mother appointed him monarch of the state in 1857 and she became his regent.

 Thus, we can say that Birjis Qad r was crowned as the "King of Awadh" by rebels of 1857.

29

In which type of sale minimum 51% of stake of PSE is sold to private sector?  

  1. ((a))

    minority 

  2. ((b))

    mixed 

  3. ((c))

    standard 

  4. ((d))

    strategic

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

strategic

The correct answer is strategic.

Key Points

  • When a minimum of 51% of the stake in a Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) is sold to the private sector, it is referred to as Strategic Disinvestment.
  • This type of disinvestment involves the transfer of management control along with a substantial portion of the government's shareholding.
  • Strategic disinvestment is often undertaken to improve the financial performance of a PSE, enhance its efficiency, and attract private sector investment.
  • By transferring management control to a strategic buyer, the government aims to unlock the potential of the enterprise and promote economic growth.
30

Which of the following trees are found in the Deciduous forests of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Teak 

  2. ((b))

    Ebony 

  3. ((c))

    Rosewood 

  4. ((d))

    Mahogany

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Teak 

The correct answer is Teak.

Key Points

  • Deciduous forests primarily grow in areas with rainfall between 100 to 200 cm.
  • They are prevalent in the foothills of the Himalayas, parts of central India, and along the eastern Ghats.
  • Sal, amla, shisham, and mahua are common species found in these forests.
  • While there are deciduous forests in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, they are not typically classified as moist deciduous due to the different environmental conditions.

 Additional Information

  • Distribution:
  • Moist deciduous forests are also found in Orissa and along the foothills of the Western Ghats.
  • Ecological Importance:
  • These forests play a critical role in maintaining the ecological balance, supporting diverse wildlife, and aiding in the regulation of the climate.
  • Conservation Efforts:
  • Efforts are ongoing to preserve these forests, which face threats from logging and land conversion for agriculture and development.
31

In which year was the Ranji Trophy cricket event series launched? 

  1. ((a))

    1938 

  2. ((b))

    1955 

  3. ((c))

    1934 

  4. ((d))

    1930

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1934 

The correct answer is 1934.

Key Points

Ranji Trophy:

  • The Ranji Trophy is a Domestic Class National level Cricket tournament. This is one of the oldest cricket tournament in India that was started in 1934.
  • In this tournament many of the multiple teams representing the Regional and State cricket associations. The tournament currently consists of 38 teams, with all 28 states in India and four of the nine union territories having at least one representation from their territory.
  • The trophy is named after the first Indian cricketer who played international cricket Ranjit Singh Ji after that it was known as 'Ranji Trophy'.
  • The tournament played in a round-robin and knock out format. The winner of the inaugural edition was the Bombay cricket team and Mumbai holds the number of most titles record they won this trophy 41st times in their history.
  • The current Ranji Trophy holds by the Saurashtra team (2019) winner.

Image of the Trophy:

Notes:

  • The Ranji Trophy is organized by BCCI (Board of Control for Cricket in India) which was founded in December 1928. Its headquarters is located in Mumbai(Maharastra).
32

Who among the following is NOT associated with the introduction of Green Revolution in India? 

  1. ((a))

    MS Swaminathan 

  2. ((b))

    Inder kumar Gujral 

  3. ((c))

    Vandana Shiva 

  4. ((d))

    Norman Borlaug

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inder kumar Gujral 

The correct answer is Inder kumar Gujral.

Key Points

  • Green Revolution in India:
  • The term green revolution was first used by William Gaud and Norman Borlaug is the Father of the Green Revolution.
  • In the year 1965, the government of India launched the Green Revolution with the help of a geneticist, now known as the father of the Green revolution (India) M.S. Swaminathan.
  • The movement of the green revolution was a great success and changed the country’s status from a food-deficient economy to one of the world’s leading agricultural nations.
  • It started in 1967 and lasted till 1978.

 Additional Information

  • Major aspects:
  • High Yielding Varieties (HYV)
  • Mechanization of Agriculture
  • Use of Chemical Fertilizers and Pesticides
  • Irrigation
33

What is the full form of IOA?

  1. ((a))

    International Olympic Association 

  2. ((b))

    Indian  Olympic Amateur

  3. ((c))

    Indian Olympic Association

  4. ((d))

    India Olympic Association

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Indian Olympic Association

The correct answer is Indian Olympic Association.

Key Points

  • The Indian Olympic Association is officially affiliated to the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
  • The IOC is responsible for the organization and oversight of the Olympic Games.
  • The IOC works with National Olympic Committees, International Sports Federations, and other organizations to promote Olympism worldwide.
  • Being affiliated with the IOC allows the Indian Olympic Association to participate in the Olympic Games and have access to various programs and support from the IOC.

 Additional Information

IOC FactDescription
FoundationIOC was founded on 23 June 1894 in Paris, France, with the aim of promoting peace and unity through sports.
Olympic CharterThe guiding document for the Olympic Movement, outlining the fundamental principles and rules of the Olympic Games.
HeadquarterThe IOC's headquarter is located in Lausanne, Switzerland since 1915.
MembershipConsists of National Olympic Committees, International Sports Federations, and IOC members who are representatives of the Olympic Movement.
Olympic GamesOrganizes both the Summer and Winter Olympic Games, which are held every four years in different countries.
34

Which of the following is an example of Pteridophytes?  

  1. ((a))

    Funaria 

  2. ((b))

    Sphagnum 

  3. ((c))

    Polytrichum 

  4. ((d))

    Salvinia

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Salvinia

The correct answer is Salvinia.

Key Points

  • Pteridophyta:
  • Pteridophyta Plants from this group have well-developed roots, stems, and leaves, and separate tissues for the conduction of food and water.
  • They do not bear flowers and fruits.
  • They reproduce with the help of spores formed along the back or posterior surface of their leaves.
  • Examples - are ferns like Nephrolepis, Marsilea, Pteris, Adiantum, Equisetum, Selaginella, Lycopodium, etc.

 Additional Information

  • Kingdom plants are divided into five groups- Thallophytes, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms.
  • Thallophyta
  • The plant body is not differentiated from roots, stems, and leaves.
  • They are commonly called algae.
  • Bryophyta
  • These are small terrestrial plants.
  • They show differentiation in the body design, with stem, leaf-like structures, and root-like structures.
  • Pteridophyta
  • The plant body is differentiated into roots, stems, and leaves, apart from having a specialized tissue for conduction.
  • Gymnosperms
  • Gymnosperms are plants with naked seeds.
  • Angiosperms
  • Angiosperms are seed-bearing plants. Seeds develop inside tissues that get modified to form the fruit of the plant.
35

Kumudini Lakhia won the Padma Bhushan for which form of dance?  

  1. ((a))

    Kathak

  2. ((b))

    Kathakali 

  3. ((c))

    Kuchipudi 

  4. ((d))

    Bharatnatyam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kathak

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

  • Kathak dance
  • ​One of the eight primary styles of Indian classical dance is kathak.
  • It is an Uttar Pradesh classical dancing style. The storytellers or itinerant bards known as Kathakars in ancient northern India are often credited as the creators of Kathak.
  • The Vedic Sanskrit words Katha, which means "story," and Kathakar, which means "the one who tells a story" or "to do with stories," are the roots of the word Kathak.
  • Traveling Kathakars used dance, songs, and music to transmit tales from the great epics and ancient mythology. Kathak dancers use intricate footwork, flexible body movements, and, most importantly, expressive face expressions to convey a variety of stories.

 Additional Information

  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is a classical dance form that originates from Kerala, a state in the southern part of India.
  • It is distinguished by its vibrant costumes, elaborate makeup, and face masks that the performers wear.
  • Kathakali translates to "Story-Play" and is known for its intricate storytelling, detailed gestures, and expressive eye movements.
  • The dance form combines dance, music, drama, and literature into a composite art form, making it unique and complex.
  • Themes of Kathakali are mostly taken from the Indian epics like Mahabharata, Ramayana, and other ancient scriptures.
  • It is performed exclusively by men and involves rigorous physical training to master the art form.
  • The music used in Kathakali is called Sopanam and is sung in the Malayalam language.
  • Kuchipudi 
  • One of the eight principal Indian classical dances is Kuchipudi.
  • It comes from the Andhra Pradesh state of India, specifically the village of Kuchipudi.
  • Kuchipudi was created as a way to worship Krishna, a Hindu deity.
  • Siddhendra Yogi, a gifted poet and visionary who belonged to the Vaishnava sect and had the ability to give some of his visions solid form, created the Kuchipudi style of Yakshagaana in the 17th century.
  • Kuchipudi is renowned for its dynamic storytelling, dramatic characterization, outstanding, rapid dancing, and expressive eye movements.
  • Tandava (the regal, masculine) and Lasya (lyrical graceful and feminine energy) are combined in this dance.
  • Other famous dance forms of Andhra Pradesh include - Vilasini Natyam, Andhra Natyam, Bhamakalpam, Veeranatyam, Dappu, Tappeta Gullu, Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta Bommalu.
  • ​Bharatnatyam
  • Bharatnatyam dance origin can be traced from back to Sadir-the solo dance of temple dancer or devadasis in Tamil Nadu.
  • Bharatnatyam is also known as Dashiattam.
  • Elements of Bharatnatyam:
  • Alarippu-seeking blessing of god with simple dance steps in rhythm.
  • Jatiswaram-Nritta component with devoid expression.
  • Shabdam-dramatic element with expressed words.
  • Varnam-combination of dance and emotion to express a story.
  • Padam-mastery over abhinaya of a spiritual message by the artist.
  • Jawali-Its performed at short love lyrics at a fast tempo.
  • Thillana-It is known as the concluding Stage with pure dance(Nritta).
36

According to Arthasastra, Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by which of the following rulers?  

  1. ((a))

    SeleucusI Nicator

  2. ((b))

    Leonidas I

  3. ((c))

    Peisistratos 

  4. ((d))

    Pericles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SeleucusI Nicator

The correct answer is SeleucusI Nicator.

Key Points

  • Megasthenes was an ambassador who was sent to the court of Chandragupta Maurya by the Greek ruler, Seleucus Nicator.
  • He wrote a book entitled ‘Indica’ which gives information about the  Mauryan period.
  • In his book, Megasthenes mentioned about the administration of the capital city, towns and rural areas.
  • The capital city and towns was administered by officials called 'Astynomois'.
  • The rural areas were administered by officals called 'Agronomois'.
  • The 'Astynomois' were 30 in number and were divided into 6 committees of 5 members each.
  • These committees were in charge of:
  • ​industrial arts
  • entertainment and surveillance of foreigners
  • maintaining records of births and deaths
  • trade and commerce
  • supervising the public sale of goods
  • collection of taxes on merchandise sold in the market
37

Which of the following dances is performed by monks and Lamas in monastery to ward off evils and spirits?  

  1. ((a))

    Cham 

  2. ((b))

    Kullu Nati 

  3. ((c))

    Hikat 

  4. ((d))

    Rauf

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cham 

The correct answer is Cham.

Key Points

  • Cham Mask dance is a sacred dance ritual celebrated in Bhutan.
  • The dance is performed by monks and laymen wearing masks and costumes.
  • It is an essential part of the religious festivals known as Tsechus, which are held in various monasteries and dzongs across Bhutan.
  • The dance is believed to bring blessings to onlookers and establish a connection with the spiritual world.
  • Cham dances often depict stories and legends from Buddhist texts and are accompanied by traditional music.

 Additional Information

  • Kullu Nati 
  • Kullu Nati Dance:  Nati is the most famous folk dance in Himachal Pradesh. In the Guinness world record book, it is listed as the largest folk dance.
  • Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Dhaman, Chhapeli, and Mahasu are the folk dance of Himachal Pradesh.
  • Hikat 
  • Hikat is danced by forming pairs, extending their arms and with the body inclined, they go round and round at the same position.
  • This dance is filled with joy and is associated with Jammu and Kashmir.
  • This dance is performed by everyone to welcome the spring season in Kashmir and celebrates the harvesting season.
  • When the dance originated, there were no instruments or music, people hold their wrists and just sing and spin. As the dance progress, it speeds up and beats become faster.
  • But nowadays, you will hear and feel the music and the sound of Rabab, drums accompanying the folk dance.
  • Damali, Rauf and Mandjas are the other folk dances from Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Rauf
  • Rauf is a traditional folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • It is performed mainly by women during the spring season and on various festive occasions.
  • The dance is characterized by its rhythmic movements and is often accompanied by folk songs.
  • Rauf is an integral part of the cultural heritage of Jammu and Kashmir and reflects the region's rich traditions and customs.
38

Courage and Conviction: An Autobiography, is written by whom among the following army generals turned politicians?  

  1. ((a))

    Bhuwan Chandra Khanduri 

  2. ((b))

    Vijay Kumar Singh

  3. ((c))

    Joginder Jaswant Singh

  4. ((d))

    Rajyawardhan Singh Rathod

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vijay Kumar Singh

The correct answer is Vijay Kumar Singh.

Key Points

  • General Vijay Kumar Singh, PVSM, AVSM, YSM, ADC is an Indian politician and a former four-star General in the Indian Army.
  • He is the current Minister of State in the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and the Ministry of Civil Aviation in the Second Modi ministry.
  • He was born on 10 May 1951 in Pune.
  • Courage and Conviction: An Autobiography is an autobiographical book by Indian General Vijay Kumar Singh written with Shiv Kunal Verma.
  • He is a member of the Lok Sabha since 2014 from the Bhartiya Janta Party.
39

Which Amendment Act established that Article 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended, even in emergency?  

  1. ((a))

    41st Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    43rd Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

    42nd Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

    44th Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

44th Amendment Act

The correct answer is 44th Amendment Act.

Key Points

  • 44th Amendment Act
  • In 1978, the Constitution (44th) Amendment Act was passed by the then-ruling Janata Party, repealing the right to property accorded to every citizen in Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
  • The fundamental right consequently became a mere legal right that could not be challenged in the courts based on constitutional law.
  • 44 Amendment Act, 1978:
  • Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).
  • Empowered the president to send back once the advice of the cabinet for reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
  • Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor, and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
  • Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency.
  • Made the President declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
  • Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.​

Additional InformationSome important Amendment Act

 

Amendment ActChanges made
41st  amendment actChairman and members of the State Public Service Commissions retiring age changed from 60 to 62 years(article 316).
42nd amendment act"Socialist" and "Integrity" added to Preamble,new directive principles of state policy added(Article 39A,43A,48A).
44th amendment                         actRight to property not a fundamental right.It has been shifted from Article 31 to 300A.
61th amendment actChanged eligible voters age from 21 to 18 years.
86th amendment actThe right to education was made a fundamental right(Article 21A).
101 amendment actIntroduction of Goods and service tax.
40

Who among the following made significant contribution to the formation of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928?  

  1. ((a))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

  2. ((b))

    Lala Lajpat Rai 

  3. ((c))

    Subhash Chandra Bose 

  4. ((d))

    Bhagat Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bhagat Singh

The correct answer is Bhagat Singh.

Key Points

  • Revolutionary nationalists such as Bhagat Singh, Chandra Shekhar Azad, Sukhdev and others wanted to fight against colonial rule and the rich exploiting classes through a revolution of workers and peasants.
  • For this purpose, they founded the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928 at Ferozeshah Kotla in Delhi.
  • In 1928, the HRA underwent a significant transformation and was renamed the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) to reflect the socialist ideology that had taken root among its members.
  • The HSRA was committed to the idea of armed revolution as a means of achieving Indian independence.
  • Its members carried out a number of high-profile acts of political violence, including the assassination of British police officer John Saunders in 1928, and the bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi in 1929.

Additional Information

  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
  • He was born on 23rd July 1856 in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra.
  • Tilak joined Congress in 1890.
  • He was opposed to moderate ways and views and had a more radical and aggressive stance against British rule.
  • He was one of the first advocates of Swaraj or self-rule. He gave the slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.”
  • He believed that no progress was possible without self-rule.
  • He was part of the extremist faction of the INC and was a proponent of boycotts and Swadeshi movements.
  • He published two papers – Kesari in Marathi and Mahratta in English. He was fearless in his criticism of the government in these papers.
  • He was sentenced to 18 months imprisonment on charges of “incitement to murder”. He had written that killers of oppressors could not be blamed, quoting the Bhagavad Gita.
  • Along with Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai, he was called the ‘Lal-Bal-Pal’ trio of extremist leaders.
  • He was one of the founders of the All India Home Rule League, along with Annie Besant and G S Khaparde.
  • For his political ideals, Tilak drew heavily from the ancient Hindu scriptures.
  • He called for people to be proud of their heritage. He was against the blatant westernisation of society.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai:
  • He founded the National School at Lahore.
  • He presided over the AITUC in 1920 AD.
  • He boycotted the Simon Commission and demonstrated against it at Lahore, during which he was brutally assaulted by the police and he subsequently succumbed to his injuries.
  • He was called the Sher-e-Punjab (Lion of Punjab).
  • He was inspired by Mahatma Hansraj.
  • He was the President of the special session of the Congress at Calcutta, 1920 AD.
  • He opposed the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 AD.
  • He founded Swaraj Party with Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das.
  • He was the editor of Bande Matram, Punjab and The People.
  • Subhash Chandra Bose:
  • He founded the Independence for India League with Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • He was elected as the President of INC at its Haripura Session (1938) and Tripuri Session (1939) but resigned from Tripuri due to differences with Mahatma Gandhi.
  • He took the charge of the Indian Army (Azad Hind Fauj) in 1943 in Singapore and set up an Indian Provisional government there.
  • Subhash Chandra Bose was the one who addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation.
  • He gave the famous slogans–Dilli Chalo and Jai Hind.
  • The India Struggle was his autobiography.
  • He was called Desh Nayak by Rabindranath Tagore.
  • Bhagat Singh​
  • Bhagat Singh, one of the most revered martyrs of the Indian independence movement, was born on September 28, 1907, in Banga, Punjab (present-day Pakistan).
  • At the young age of 23, he was sentenced to death by the British government in the Lahore conspiracy case on 23 March 1931.
  • At the age of 12, Bhagat Singh had seen the JallianwalaBagh massacre, after that he took a vow to free India from Britishers.
  • He was a member of the Hindustan Republican Association.
  • After witnessing the brutal beating and death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh and his fellow revolutionaries pledged to take revenge.
  • Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru targeted John P. Saunders (who was mistaken for James A. Scott) police officer responsible for Lala’s death.
  • All three revolutionaries were executed in secrecy on 23 March 1931, even before their trial on 24 March.
41

What is the term used for a group of people in India, who are always poor and those who are usually poor but who may sometimes have a little more money? 

  1. ((a))

    Relative poor

  2. ((b))

    Churning poor 

  3. ((c))

    Chronic poor 

  4. ((d))

    Transient poor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chronic poor 

The correct answer is Chronic poor.

Key Points

  • Chronic Poor: Consistently live in poverty, often due to systemic factors like lack of education, healthcare, or opportunities.

Additional Information

  • Relative Poor: Experience poverty relative to a specific society or group, falling below the average standard of living but may not be destitute.
  • Churning Poor: Frequently cycle in and out of poverty, often due to seasonal work, economic shocks, or other temporary factors.
  • Transient Poor: Temporarily experience poverty due to unexpected events like job loss, illness, or natural disasters, but typically recover their financial stability.
42

‘Transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce’ is the vision of which rural livelihood mission?  

  1. ((a))

    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

  2. ((b))

    Employment Assurance Scheme

  3. ((c))

    National Rural Employment Programme 

  4. ((d))

    Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

The correct answer is Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana.

Key Points

  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana -
  • It is one of the initiatives taken by the 'Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India to promote rural livelihoods.
  • This scheme was started in the year 2014 under the 'National Rural Livelihood Mission'.
  • The main objective of this scheme is to provide training and placement to poor rural unemployed youth.

Additional Information

  • Employment Assurance Scheme
  • The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) was launched by the Government of India in 1993.
  • The primary objective of the scheme was to provide wage employment to the rural poor during the lean agricultural season.
  • The scheme targeted unskilled manual workers who were in need of employment.
  • It aimed to create durable community assets and infrastructure in rural areas.
  • The scheme was later merged into the Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY) in 2001
  • ​National Rural Employment Programme 
  • The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) is a significant government initiative aimed at enhancing livelihood security for rural households in India.
  • It provides guaranteed wage employment for at least 100 days in a financial year to every rural household willing to do unskilled manual work.
  • Under NREGA, adult members of a rural household can apply to their local gram panchayat for registration and receive a job card.
  • This job card entitles them to demand work from the government. The scheme prioritizes works that benefit at least one-third women wage-seekers.
43

The Majuli festival of North-East India is celebrated on the banks of which river? 

  1. ((a))

    Dhansiri 

  2. ((b))

    Kolong 

  3. ((c))

    Barak 

  4. ((d))

    Lui

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lui

The correct answer is Lui.

Key Points

  • Majuli Festival is celebrated in the northeast side of the country, in the state of Assam.
  • The place to celebrate the jubilee is the bank of River Luit, which happens to have the biggest swash islet in the world.
  • This jubilee starts on the 21st of November each time and continues to the 24th of the same month.
  • The sub-divisional headquarters of the Majuli Island, Garmur is well known for its ethereal scenic beauty where this jubilee is observed.

Additional Information

  • Majuli, for a long time, has been the artistic capital of Assam, and thus, it has a number of artistic and religious traditions, running from the 16th century.
  • The Majuli festival showcases the traditions through the performances of the native groups and exhibitions, where the remnants of the old traditions are displayed.
44

Which of the following trophic levels has maximum energy?  

  1. ((a))

    Trophic level-1

  2. ((b))

    Trophic level-3

  3. ((c))

    Trophic level-2

  4. ((d))

    Trophic level-4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Trophic level-1

The correct answer is Trophic level-1.

Key Points

  • The trophic level with the maximum energy is the first trophic level, which consists of producers.
  • These organisms, primarily plants, capture solar energy through photosynthesis and convert it into chemical energy stored in organic molecules.
  • As energy flows through the food chain, it is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
  • However, with each transfer, a significant portion of energy is lost as heat.
  • This phenomenon is known as the 10% energy rule, which states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next.
45

Which traditional dance of Goa is performed during the Shigmo festival?  

  1. ((a))

    Lavani 

  2. ((b))

    Jagar 

  3. ((c))

    Morulem 

  4. ((d))

    Kalbelia

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Morulem 

The correct answer is Morulem.

Key Points

  • Shigmo or Shishirotsava is a spring festival celebrated in the Indian state of Goa
  • It is one of the major festivals of the Hindu community.
  • It is also celebrated by the Konkani diaspora and the Indian festival of Holi is part of it.
  • Shigmo festivals also continue in various rural parts of Goa, spanning over a fortnight, with different days earmarked for celebrations in different areas.
  • This festival is celebrated around March each year.
  • It is linked to the Hindu lunar calendar, hence its date according to the Gregorian calendar varies.

 Additional Information 

  • There are two variants of the Shigmo festival: Dhakto Shigmo which is a small Shigmo and Vhadlo Shigmo which is a big Shigmo.
  • Dhakto Shigmo is generally celebrated by farmers, the labor class, and the rural population
  • While Vhadlo Shigmo is of greater consequence and is celebrated by everyone together.

 Important Points

  • Goa is a state in western India with coastlines stretching along the Arabian Sea.
  • Its long history as a Portuguese colony prior to 1961 is evident in its preserved 17th-century churches and the area’s tropical spice plantations.
  • Goa is also known for its beaches, ranging from popular stretches at Baga and Palolem to those in laid-back fishing villages such as Agonda.
  • Land area: 3,702 km²
  • Capital: Panaji
  • Chief minister: Pramod Sawant
  • Population: 18.2 lakhs
46

Which of following states/union territories is a leading producer of saffron?  

  1. ((a))

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Jammu and Kashmir 

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand 

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jammu and Kashmir 

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

  • Jammu and Kashmir is the largest producer of saffron in India.
  • The region's unique climatic conditions and soil type contribute to the high-quality saffron production.
  • Saffron cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir is predominantly carried out in the Pampore region, often referred to as the 'Saffron Town of Kashmir'.
  • The saffron from this region is known for its deep color, distinct aroma, and superior quality.

Additional Information

  • Saffron is a highly valued spice derived from the flower of Crocus sativus, commonly known as the "saffron crocus".
  • India is one of the leading producers of saffron globally, with Jammu and Kashmir contributing the majority of the production.
  • Saffron is used extensively in cooking, traditional medicine, and as a dyeing agent.
  • Efforts are being made to expand saffron cultivation to other regions, but Jammu and Kashmir remains the primary hub due to its ideal growing conditions.
47

Vivekananda Rock Memorial, a place of great scenic beauty, is located in ________, which has both historical and religious significance. 

  1. ((a))

    Chennai 

  2. ((b))

    Hyderabad 

  3. ((c))

    Mangalore 

  4. ((d))

    Kanyakumari

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kanyakumari

The correct answer is Kanyakumari.

Key Points

  • Vivekananda Rock Memorial is the most popular monument situated in the southernmost tip of Kanyakumari district in the state of Tamil Nadu in India and 500 meters away from the mainland.
  • It was built in 1970 in honour of the great Indian monk and reformer Swami Vivekananda and took six years to complete the construction.
  • The rocks are surrounded by the Laccadive Sea or Lakshadweep Sea.
  • A meditation hall known as Dhyana Mandapam is also attached to the memorial for visitors to meditate
  • It is believed that after meditating for three days and three nights at the rock, Swami Vivekananda attained enlightenment and transformed himself from a simple monk to an enlightened being.
  • Thiruvalluvar Statue is 133 feet near Vivekanandha Rock, denotes 133 chapters of (Tirukkural) tall stone sculpture of the popular Tamil Poet- Saint Thiruvalluvar, who authored the Thirukkural Couplets.
  • Kanyakumari is also known as " Cape Comorin" and famous for its unique ocean sunrise, sunset and moonrise.
  • Tamil Nadu lies in the southernmost part of the Indian Peninsula.
  • Tamil Nadu is the first state to ban lotteries.
48

Who among the following was the author of Gita Govinda, composed during the reign of Lakshmana Sena?  

  1. ((a))

    Vishakhadatta 

  2. ((b))

    Jayadeva 

  3. ((c))

    Somadeva 

  4. ((d))

    Vatsyayana

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jayadeva 

The correct answer is Jayadeva.

Key Points

  • Lakshmana Sena
  • Lakshmana Sen (1178-1205 AD), the ruler of the Sena dynasty, successfully demonstrated his military skills in many wars during the reign of his father.
  • He had won by attacking against Gahadwal King Jaichand.
  • He did military campaigns till Banaras and Allahabad.
  • Also successfully faced the attacks of Kalchuri rulers.
  • In 1202 AD, the Muslim invader Ikhtayaruddin Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khalji attacked its capital Lakhnauti.
  • Laxmana Sen fled from there without fighting and continued to rule in East Bengal till 1205 AD.
  • After that Vishwaroop Sen and Keshav Sen became weak rulers.
  • The result was that the Sena kingdom came under the rule of the Deva dynasty.

Additional Information

  • Gita ­Govinda written by Kavi Jaydeva in Kannada.
  • Jayadeva was born in the middle of the 12th century and his birthplace was Kendubilwa.
  • Gita ­Govinda describes the relationship between Krishna and Srimati Radhika and the Gopis (female cow herders) of Vrindavana.
  • The Gita Govinda is organized into twelve chapters.
49

Fundamental duties are narrated in which Article of the Indian Constitution?  

  1. ((a))

    Article 16 (A)

  2. ((b))

    Article 21

  3. ((c))

    Article 51 (A)

  4. ((d))

    Article 42

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 51 (A)

The correct answer is Article 51 (A).

Key Points

  • Article 51 (A)
  • ​Part IV-A (Article 51-A) deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • The Constitution (forty-second amendment) Act, 1976 has incorporated fundamental duties in Article 51(a) of the constitution of India.
  • This feature is borrowed from the constitution of the USSR.
  • It contains originally 10 duties.
  • Now it contains 11 duties after the 86th amendment act, 2002.
  • Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable and hence can’t be taken to a court of law.

Additional Information

  • Article 16 (A)
  • Article 16(A) of the Indian Constitution is a crucial provision that empowers the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
  • Article 21​
  • Article 21 is one of the prime Articles comprising Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with fundamental rights.
  • Article 21 is the protection of life and personal liberty.
  • No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  • It guarantees life and personal liberty to all persons irrespective of caste or gender.
  • It guarantees the right of persons to live with human dignity.
  • All the aspects of life go to make a person's life meaningful, complete, and worth living.
  • Article 42
  • Article 42 insists that the State should ensure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
50

Which of the following is NOT an important and direct contribution of a well-developed commercial banking sector?  

  1. ((a))

    Facilitation of successful implementation of the monetary policy

  2. ((b))

    Mobilisation of savings 

  3. ((c))

    Establishment of the agricultural market

  4. ((d))

    Capital formation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Establishment of the agricultural market

The correct answer is Establishment of the agricultural market.

Key Points

  • Commercial banking is a cornerstone of the financial system, offering a range of services to individuals and businesses.
  • These banks accept deposits, provide loans, and facilitate financial transactions.
  • They play a crucial role in economic growth by mobilizing savings and channeling them into productive investments.
  • Commercial banks are categorized into various types, including public sector banks, private sector banks, foreign banks, and regional rural banks.
  • Each type has its unique characteristics and caters to specific customer segments.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates and supervises the commercial banking sector to ensure its stability and soundness.
  • The RBI implements monetary policy to control inflation and stimulate economic activity.
  • It also sets guidelines for lending rates, reserve requirements, and other banking practices.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Middle shape rotates in clockwise direction by 90°.

Arrow shifts its position in corners in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

52

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

SIGN : JCEO : : ONLY : UHJK : : MORE : ?

  1. ((a))

    ANLJ 

  2. ((b))

    ANKI 

  3. ((c))

    BMLI 

  4. ((d))

    BNKI

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ANKI 

The logic followed here is:

SIGN : JCEO

ONLY : UHJK

Similarly, MORE : ?  

Hence, the correct answer is "ANKI".

53

How many cubes are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

The number of cubes in the given figure:

From the given shape, there are 3 cubes in the front, 4 cubes in the middle and 3 cubes on the backside.

So, there are a total of 10 cubes in the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "10".

54

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

5, 6, 8, 12, 20, ?

  1. ((a))

    13 

  2. ((b))

    34 

  3. ((c))

    32 

  4. ((d))

    36

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

36

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "36".

55

Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

EHD, GJF, ILH, KNJ, ?

  1. ((a))

    MQL 

  2. ((b))

    MPL 

  3. ((c))

    NPK 

  4. ((d))

    MPK

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

MPL 

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "MPL".

56

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

57

Which of the following figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure from the given options will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

58

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Position of % is the same in middle.

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

Diagonal symbols are interchanging their position with each other.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All corner symbols are shifting their position in anticlockwise.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

59

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

60

1 is related to 24 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 84. To which of the following is 21 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

    108 

  2. ((b))

    98 

  3. ((c))

    104 

  4. ((d))

    112

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

104 

The logic followed here is: Number × 4 + 20

1 is related to 24 → 1 × 4 + 20 = 24

16 is related to 84 → 16 × 4 + 20 = 84

Similarly, 21 is related to: → 21 × 4 + 20 = 104

Hence, the correct answer is "104".

61

Which of the following option figures will complete the pattern in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure from the given options will complete the pattern:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

62

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The paper look when unfolded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

63

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'AB' as shown.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

64

In a code language, if RIVER is coded as 9 - 18 - 5 - 22 - 9 and VALLEY is coded as 5 - 26 - 15 - 15 - 22 - 2, then how will MOUNTAIN be coded? 

  1. ((a))

    14 - 11 - 6 - 12 - 6 - 26 - 18 - 13

  2. ((b))

    15 - 13 - 7 - 14 - 8 - 1 - 19 - 14

  3. ((c))

    14 - 12 - 6 - 13 - 7 - 26 - 18 - 13

  4. ((d))

    13 - 11 - 5 - 12 - 6 - 25 - 17 - 12

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14 - 12 - 6 - 13 - 7 - 26 - 18 - 13

The logic followed here is:

RIVER is coded as 9 - 18 - 5 - 22 - 9

VALLEY is coded as 5 - 26 - 15 - 15 - 22 - 2,

Similarly, MOUNTAIN will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "14 - 12 - 6 - 13 - 7 - 26 - 18 - 13".

65

Six numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find the number on the face opposite to 3.

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6

For find the opposite surface of '3', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

When we move in clockwise direction starting from 3 we get;

→ 3 ⇔ 3; 2 ⇔ 1; 5 ⇔ 4

So, the remaining '6' will be the opposite face of '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

66

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(30, 2, 3)

(100, 4, 5)

  1. ((a))

    (100, 6, 4) 

  2. ((b))

    (64, 4, 2)

  3. ((c))

    (75, 3, 5)

  4. ((d))

    (120, 7, 3)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(75, 3, 5)

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: (3rd number × 5) × 2nd number = 1st number.

Now,

For (30, 2, 3):

⇒ (3 × 5) × 2

= 15 × 2 = 30.

For (100, 4, 5):

⇒ (5 × 5) × 4

= 25 × 4 = 100.

Similarly, for Option 3: (75, 3, 5)

⇒ (5 × 5) × 3

= 25 × 3 = 75.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

67

Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All roses are lilies.

All lilies are flowers.

Conclusions:

I. All roses are flowers.

II. Some roses are not flowers.

III. No rose is a flower.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion III follows

  2. ((b))

    Either conclusion I or III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows 

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only conclusion I follows 

Statements:

All roses are lilies.

All lilies are flowers.

The least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. All roses are flowers. - True (because All roses are lilies and All lilies are flowers. So, All roses are flowers it is true)

II. Some roses are not flowers. - False (because All roses are lilies and All lilies are flowers. So, Some roses are not flowers it is not possible)

III. No rose is a flower. - False (because All roses are lilies and All lilies are flowers. So, No rose is a flowers it is not possible)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

68

Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is not allowed.)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

69

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘6’.

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

For find the opposite surface of '6', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

In both dice, 1 and 4 are common.

So, the remaining '3' will be the opposite face of '6'.

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

70

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

In figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

All three corner symbols are interchanging their position.

Middle 2 letters are interchanging with each other.

In figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All three diagonal letters are interchanging their position.

Bottom-left symbol replaced by new symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

71

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given expression.

101 * 32 * 4 * 5 * 7 * 128

  1. ((a))

    –, ×, +, ÷, =

  2. ((b))

    –, ÷, +, ×, = 

  3. ((c))

    ÷, +, ×, –, = 

  4. ((d))

    +, ×, –, ÷, =

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

–, ÷, +, ×, = 

Given equation: 101 * 32 * 4 * 5 * 7 * 128  

Option 1) –, ×, +, ÷, =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 101 - 32 × 4 + 5 ÷ 7 = 128

⇒ 101 - 32 × 4 + 0.71 = 128

⇒ 101 - 128 + 0.71 = 128

⇒ 101.71 - 128 = 128

⇒ -26.29 = 128

Option 2) –, ÷, +, ×, = 

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 101 - 32 ÷ 4 + 5 × 7 = 128 

⇒ 101 - 8 + 5 × 7 = 128 

⇒ 101 - 8 + 35 = 128 

⇒ 136 - 8 = 128 

⇒ 128 = 128

Option 3) ÷, +, ×, –, = 

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 101 ÷ 32 + 4 × 5 - 7 = 128 

⇒ 3.15 + 4 × 5 - 7 = 128 

⇒ 3.15 + 20 - 7 = 128

⇒ 23.15 - 7 = 128  

⇒ 16.15 = 128  

Option 4) +, ×, –, ÷, =

By replacing the * signs:

⇒ 101 + 32 × 4 - 5 ÷ 7 = 128

⇒ 101 + 32 × 4 - 0.71 = 128

⇒ 101 + 128 - 0.71 = 128

⇒ 229 - 0.71 = 128

⇒ 228.29 = 128

Hence, the correct answer is "–, ÷, +, ×, =".

72

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

73

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

From figure 1 to 2 and figure 3 to 4:

2nd and 4th letter shift in one step ahead in left side and in place of O and T, new letters are added.

Position of last letter in right side is on the same position.

From figure 2 to 3 and figure 4 to 5:

All letters are shifting their position in a circular manner.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

74

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

88 ÷ 4 − 15 × 3 = 1 + 4

  1. ((a))

    = and +

  2. ((b))

    = and −

  3. ((c))

    = and ÷ 

  4. ((d))

    = and ×

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

= and ×

Given equation: 88 ÷ 4 − 15 × 3 = 1 + 4

Option 1) = and +

After two signs interchanged:

88 ÷ 4 − 15 × 3 + 1 = 4

⇒ 22 − 15 × 3 + 1 = 4

22 − 45 + 1 = 4

23 − 45 = 4

⇒ -22 = 4

Option 2) = and -

After two signs interchanged:

⇒ 88 ÷ 4 = 15 × 3 - 1 + 4

⇒ 22 = 45 - 1 + 4

⇒ 22 = 49 - 1

⇒ 22 = 48 

Option 3) = and ÷ 

After two signs interchanged:

⇒ 88 = 4 − 15 × 3 ÷ 1 + 4

⇒ 88 = 4 − 15 × 3 + 4

⇒ 88 = 4 − 45 + 4

⇒ 88 = 8 − 45

⇒ 88 = -37

Option 4) = and ×

After two signs interchanged:

⇒ 88 ÷ 4 − 15 = 3 × 1 + 4

22 − 15 = 3 + 4

⇒ 7 = 7

Hence, the correct answer is "= and ×".

75

Six friends, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting on a circular bench, facing away from the centre but not necessarily in the same order. O and J are the neighbours of N. M is sitting to the immediate right of J. L is sitting third to the left of N. Who is sitting second to the right of M? 

  1. ((a))

    N

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    O

  4. ((d))

    L

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

K

Given: Six friends, J, K, L, M, N and O, are sitting on a circular bench, facing away from the center.

1) M is sitting to the immediate right of J.

  1. O and J are the neighbours of N.

  1. L is sitting third to the left of N.

Final arrangement:

So, K is sitting second to the right of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "K".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

What is the percentage change in the population if the total number of persons was 245000 in 2021 and 294000 in 2022?  

  1. ((a))

    20% increase

  2. ((b))

    16.67 % decrease

  3. ((c))

    15% increase

  4. ((d))

    22% increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20% increase

Given:

Population in 2021 = 245000

Population in 2022 = 294000

Formula used:

Percentage Change = (NewValueOldValue)OldValue×100\dfrac{(New Value - Old Value)}{Old Value} \times 100

Calculation:

Percentage Change = (294000245000)245000×100\dfrac{(294000 - 245000)}{245000} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Change = 49000245000×100\dfrac{49000}{245000} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Change = 15×100\dfrac{1}{5} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Change = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

77

Mohit purchased a table for Rs. 3,500 and due to some scratches on it top, he sold it for Rs. 3,200. What is his loss percentage (rounded off to two decimals)?  

  1. ((a))

    8.56%

  2. ((b))

    8.57%

  3. ((c))

    8.58%

  4. ((d))

    8.55%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8.57%

Given:

Mohit purchased a table for ₹3,500

Mohit sold the table for ₹3,200

Formula used:

Loss Percentage = LossCostPrice×100\frac{Loss}{Cost Price} \times 100

Calculation:

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss = ₹3,500 - ₹3,200

⇒ Loss = ₹300

Loss Percentage = 3003500×100\frac{300}{3500} \times 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = (300 / 3,500) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 8.57%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

78

A hemispherical bowl has 7 cm radius. It is to be painted inside as well as outside. The cost (in Rs.) of painting it at the rate of Rs. 6 per 4 cmis: (Take π=227\pi = \frac{22}{7})

  1. ((a))

    785

  2. ((b))

    980

  3. ((c))

    880

  4. ((d))

    924

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

924

Given:

Radius (r) = 7 cm

Cost per 4 cm2 = Rs. 6

Formula used:-

<br>

Curved Surface Area of Hemisphere = 2πr²

<br>

Total surface area to be painted = Surface area (inside) + Surface area (outside)

Calculations:

Surface area (inside) = 2π(7)2 = 2π(49) = 2 × (22/7) × 49

⇒ Surface area (inside) = 308 cm2

Total Surface Area = Inside Surface Area + Outside Surface Area

<br>

Total Surface Area = 308 cm2  + 308 cm2             

Total Surface Area = 616 cm2 

The cost of painting this area at the given rate of Rs. 6 per 4 cm2

Cost = (Total Surface Area / 4 cm²)   × Rs. 6

Cost = (616 / 4) × 6 = Rs. 924    

<br>

∴The cost of painting of the hemispherical Rs.924

79

A alone can finish a work in 12 days and B can finish it in 18 days. If they work together and finish it, then out of the total of Rs. 6,000, A will get:  

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 3,800

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3,600

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,400

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 3,600

Given:

A alone can finish a work in 12 days

B alone can finish a work in 18 days

Total amount = Rs. 6,000

Formula used:

Work done by A in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by B in 1 day = 1/18

Share of A = (Work done by A in 1 day) / (Work done by A in 1 day + Work done by B in 1 day)

Calculation:

Work done by A in 1 day = 1/12

Work done by B in 1 day = 1/18

⇒ Total work done by A and B in 1 day = 1/12 + 1/18

⇒ Total work done by A and B in 1 day = (3 + 2) / 36

⇒ Total work done by A and B in 1 day = 5/36

Share of A = (1/12) / (5/36)

⇒ Share of A = (1/12) × (36/5)

⇒ Share of A = 3/5

⇒ Amount received by A = (3/5) × 6000

⇒ Amount received by A = 3600

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

80

The smallest 5-digit prime number is: 

  1. ((a))

    10007 

  2. ((b))

    10003 

  3. ((c))

    10001 

  4. ((d))

    10009 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10007 

Given:

The smallest 5-digit prime number is:

Formula used:

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

Calculations:

We need to check each option to determine the smallest 5-digit prime number.

Option 1: 10007

Check if 10007 is a prime number:

10007 is not divisible by any prime number less than or equal to √10007 (approximately 100.04).

⇒ 10007 is a prime number.

Option 2: 10003

Check if 10003 is a prime number:

Cannot be prime numbers as divisible by 7 

⇒ 10003 is not a prime number.

Option 3: 10001

Check if 10001 is a prime number:

10001 is divisible by 73 (10001 ÷ 73 = 137).

⇒ 10001 is not a prime number.

Option 4: 10009

Check if 10009 is a prime number:

10009 is not divisible by any prime number less than or equal to √10009 (approximately 100.04).

⇒ 10009 is a prime number.

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

81

If the average of ten numbers is 16.2 and if 3 is subtracted from each number, then the new average of the ten numbers is:  

  1. ((a))

    16.1 

  2. ((b))

    13.2 

  3. ((c))

    15.1

  4. ((d))

    14.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13.2 

Given:

Average of 10 numbers = 16.2

Numbers reduced by = 3

Formula used:

New average = Old average - Reduction per number

Calculation:

New average = 16.2 - 3

⇒ New average = 13.2

∴ The new average is 13.2.

82

A trader marked his goods at 12% above the cost price. He sold half the stock at the marked price, one quarter at a discount of 12% on the marked price and the rest at a discount of 30% on the marked price. His total gain is:

  1. ((a))

    0.24%

  2. ((b))

    1.24%

  3. ((c))

    1.85%

  4. ((d))

    0.79%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.24%

Given:

Marked price (MP) = 12% above cost price (CP)

Sold half the stock at MP

Sold one-quarter at 12% discount on MP

Sold one-quarter at 30% discount on MP

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Calculation:

Let CP = 100

Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 12% of 100

⇒ MP = 100 + 12

⇒ MP = 112

Selling half at MP:

⇒ SP1 = 112 × 1/2

⇒ SP1 = 56

Selling one quarter at a discount of 12% on MP:

⇒ SP2 = 112 × (1 - 0.12) × 1/4

⇒ SP2 = 112 × 0.88 × 1/4

⇒ SP2 = 24.64

Selling the rest at a discount of 30% on MP:

⇒ SP3 = 112 × (1 - 0.30) × 1/4

⇒ SP3 = 112 × 0.70 × 1/4

⇒ SP3 = 19.6

Total SP:

⇒ Total SP = SP1 + SP2 + SP3

⇒ Total SP = 56 + 24.64 + 19.6

⇒ Total SP = 100.24

Total gain:

⇒ Gain = Total SP - CP

⇒ Gain = 100.24 - 100

⇒ Gain = 0.24

Gain percentage:

⇒ Gain % = (Gain / CP) × 100

⇒ Gain % = (0.24 / 100) × 100

⇒ Gain % = 0.24%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

83

At simple interest, a certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1,250 in 2 years and to Rs. 2,000 in 5 years. The rate of interest per annum (rounded off to two places of decimal) is:  

  1. ((a))

    27.27%

  2. ((b))

    33.33%

  3. ((c))

    11.11%

  4. ((d))

    16.67%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

33.33%

Given:

Amount in 2 years (A2) = ₹1250

Amount in 5 years (A5) = ₹2000

Time difference = 5 - 2 = 3 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Principal (P) × Rate (R) × Time (T) / 100

Difference in amounts = Simple Interest for 3 years

Rate (R) = (SI × 100) / (P × T)

Calculation:

Difference in amounts: ₹2000 - ₹1250 = ₹750

Simple Interest for 3 years = ₹750

Principal (P) = Amount in 2 years - SI for 2 years

SI for 2 years = ₹750 × (2 / 3) = ₹500

P = ₹1250 - ₹500 = ₹750

Rate (R):

R = (SI × 100) / (P × T)

⇒ R = (750 × 100) / (750 × 3)

⇒ R = 100 / 3

⇒ R = 33.33%

∴ The rate of interest is 33.33% per annum.

84

Find the greatest number by which, when the numbers 47, 95 and 187 are divided, it leaves the same remainder in each case.  

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

Given:

Numbers: 47, 95, 187

Formula used:

To find the greatest number that leaves the same remainder when dividing multiple numbers, we use the GCD (Greatest Common Divisor) of the differences between the numbers.

Calculation:

First, find the differences:

95 - 47 = 48

187 - 95 = 92

187 - 47 = 140

Now, find the GCD of 48, 92, and 140.

48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

92 = 2 × 2 × 23

140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7

Common factors: 2 × 2 = 4

⇒ GCD = 4

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

85

An athlete crosses a distance of 1800 m in 12 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour? 

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9

Given:

Distance = 1800 m

Time = 12 minutes

Formula used:

Speed (km/hr) = (Distance in km) / (Time in hours)

Calculation:

Distance in km = 1800 / 1000 = 1.8 km

Time in hours = 12 / 60 = 0.2 hours

⇒ Speed = 1.8 / 0.2

⇒ Speed = 9 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is  9 km/hr.

86

Find the number of coins, 0.2 cm thick and 2 cm in diameter, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 12 cm and diameter 5 cm.  

  1. ((a))

    405 

  2. ((b))

    425 

  3. ((c))

    375 

  4. ((d))

    470

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

375 

Given:

Thickness of each coin = 0.2 cm

Diameter of each coin = 2 cm ⇒ Radius (rcoin) = 1 cm

Height of the cylinder (hcylinder) = 12 cm

Diameter of the cylinder = 5 cm ⇒ Radius (rcylinder) = 2.5 cm

Formula used:

Volume of a cylinder = πr2h

Number of coins = Volume of cylinder / Volume of one coin

Calculation:

Volume of one coin:

Vcoin = πr2h

⇒ Vcoin = π × (1)2 × 0.2 = 0.2π cm3

Volume of the cylinder:

Vcylinder = πr2h

⇒ Vcylinder = π × (2.5)2 × 12

⇒ Vcylinder = π × 6.25 × 12 = 75π cm3

Number of coins:

Number of coins = Vcylinder / Vcoin

⇒ Number of coins = 75π / 0.2π

⇒ Number of coins = 375

∴ The number of coins required is 375.

87

The difference between the CI and SI on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 4% percent per annum is Rs. 152. Find the sum invested.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 31,275

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 31,225

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 31,250

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 31,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 31,250

Given:

The difference between the CI and SI on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 152.

Formula used:

CI - SI for 3 years = P × (r/100)2 × [(300 + r)/100]

Calculations:

152 = P × (4/100)2 × [(300 + 4)/100]

⇒ 152 = P × (16/10000) × (304/100)

⇒ 152 = P × (16/10000) × (304/100)

⇒ 152 = P × (16 × 304) / 1000000

⇒ 152 = P × 4864 / 1000000

⇒ 152 = P × 0.004864

⇒ P = 152 / 0.004864

⇒ P = 31,250

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

88

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 17% and its denominator is decreased by 12%, the value of the fraction is 3944 \frac{39}{44}. What is the original fraction?

  1. ((a))

    13 \frac{1}{3}

  2. ((b))

    37 \frac{3}{7}

  3. ((c))

    78 \frac{7}{8}

  4. ((d))

    23 \frac{2}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

23 \frac{2}{3}

Formula used:

Let the original fraction be x/y.

New fraction = (1.17x) / (0.88y) = 39 / 44

Calculation:

(1.17x) / (0.88y) = 39 / 44

⇒ (1.17x × 44) / (0.88y × 44) = (39 × 44) / (44 × 44)

⇒ (1.17 / 0.88) × (x / y) = 39 / 44

⇒ x / y = (39 × 0.88) / (44 × 1.17)

⇒ x / y = 0.88 / 1.17

⇒ x / y = 2 / 3

∴ The original fraction is 2/3.

89

If pq=0.5\frac{p}{q}=0.5, then 3pq3p+q\frac{3 p-q}{3 p+q} is:

  1. ((a))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    15 \frac{1}{5}

  3. ((c))

    13 \frac{1}{3}

  4. ((d))

    14 \frac{1}{4}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15 \frac{1}{5}

Given:

p/q = 0.5

Formula used:

(3p - q) / (3p + q)

Calculation:

p/q = 0.5

⇒ p = 0.5q

(3p - q) / (3p + q)

⇒ (3(0.5q) - q) / (3(0.5q) + q)

⇒ (1.5q - q) / (1.5q + q)

⇒ 0.5q / 2.5q

⇒ 0.5 / 2.5

⇒ 1 / 5

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

90

The salaries of P, Q and R are in the ratio 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 6. If R’s salary is  ₹ 15,000 more than that of P, then Q’s salary is:

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 25,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 20,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 30,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 35,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 20,000

Given:

The salaries of P, Q, and R are in the ratio 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 6.

R's salary is ₹15,000 more than that of P.

Formula used:

Let the salaries be 3x, 4x, and 6x respectively for P, Q, and R.

6x - 3x = ₹15,000

Calculation:

6x - 3x = ₹15,000

⇒ 3x = ₹15,000

⇒ x = ₹5,000

Q's salary = 4x

⇒ Q's salary = 4 × ₹5,000

⇒ Q's salary = ₹20,000

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following options can be used in MS Word 365 if you want to save your document in another location with the same or different name?  

  1. ((a))

    Print 

  2. ((b))

    Save As

  3. ((c))

    New 

  4. ((d))

    Open  

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Save As

The correct answer is Save As.

Key Points

  • The "Save As" function allows users to save the current document in a different location.
  • It enables users to save the document with a different name or format.
  • This function is useful for creating a copy of the document while preserving the original version.
  • It can be accessed through the "File" menu or by using the keyboard shortcut F12.

Additional Information

  • Print
  • The "Print" option is used to print the document on paper.
  • It allows users to select a printer, adjust print settings, and specify the number of copies.
  • Print is useful for creating physical copies of the document.
  • New
  • The "New" option is used to create a new, blank document.
  • It opens a new instance of a document, allowing users to start fresh.
  • This option is typically found in the "File" menu or can be accessed using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+N.
  • Open
  • The "Open" option is used to open an existing document.
  • It allows users to browse through their files and select a document to open in MS Word.
  • This option is useful for editing or viewing previously created documents.
92

In Microsoft Excel 365, what is the cell address of the intersection between column L and row 26?  

  1. ((a))

    L26 

  2. ((b))

    125L

  3. ((c))

    26L

  4. ((d))

    L125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L26 

The correct answer is L26.

Key Points

  • The cell address in Microsoft Excel is determined by the intersection of a column and a row.
  • Columns in Excel are labeled alphabetically, from A to Z, and then continue with AA, AB, etc.
  • Rows in Excel are labeled numerically, starting from 1 and going onwards.
  • The intersection of column L and row 26 is denoted as L26.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Excel Cell Addressing
  • In Microsoft Excel, cells are referenced by their column letter and row number. For example, the cell at the intersection of column A and row 1 is referenced as A1.
  • Columns are labeled with letters starting from A to Z, followed by AA to ZZ, and so on. For example, after column Z comes column AA, AB, etc.
  • Rows are numbered starting from 1 and continue sequentially. For example, the first row is labeled as 1, the second as 2, and so on.
  • When referencing a cell, the column letter always comes first, followed by the row number. Therefore, the cell at the intersection of column L and row 26 is referenced as L26.
  • Excel Cell Address Uses
  • Cell addresses are used in formulas and functions to reference specific data points in the spreadsheet.
  • They are also used for navigation and data management within the spreadsheet.
  • Understanding cell addressing is fundamental for efficiently working with Excel's various features, including data analysis, charting, and automation.
  • Excel supports both relative and absolute cell references, which are crucial for creating dynamic and robust spreadsheets.
93

What is the purpose of the ‘Help’ feature in Microsoft Word 365?  

  1. ((a))

    It allows you to print the current document.

  2. ((b))

    It provides assistance and information about using Microsoft Word. 

  3. ((c))

    It opens a new blank document.

  4. ((d))

    It creates a backup copy of the document.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It provides assistance and information about using Microsoft Word. 

The correct answer is It provides assistance and information about using Microsoft Word..

Key Points

  • The 'Help' feature in Microsoft Word 365 is designed to assist users by providing guidance and information on how to use various features and functions within the software.
  • It contains a comprehensive library of articles, tutorials, and troubleshooting tips to help users effectively utilize Word.
  • This feature can be accessed through the 'Help' menu or by pressing F1 on the keyboard, offering immediate assistance.
  • It is an essential resource for both new and experienced users to learn more about the application and resolve any issues they may encounter while using it.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word 365
  • Microsoft Word 365 is part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite, a subscription-based service that offers access to a variety of productivity software.
  • It is a word processing application used for creating, editing, and formatting text documents, including reports, letters, and resumes.
  • Word 365 includes advanced features such as real-time collaboration, cloud storage, and integration with other Office 365 applications like Excel and PowerPoint.
  • This application is widely used in both professional and personal settings for various document-related tasks.
  • Features of Microsoft Word 365
  • Real-time Collaboration: Allows multiple users to work on the same document simultaneously, with changes being updated in real-time.
  • Cloud Storage: Documents can be saved directly to OneDrive, providing easy access from any device with an internet connection.
  • Formatting and Design Tools: Includes a wide range of tools for text formatting, styles, templates, and design elements to create professional-looking documents.
  • Integration: Seamless integration with other Microsoft Office 365 applications, enhancing productivity and workflow.
  • Troubleshooting in Microsoft Word 365
  • Help Menu: Provides access to a variety of support resources, including articles, tutorials, and forums.
  • Online Support: Users can access online support from Microsoft’s official website, including live chat and email support options.
  • Community Forums: Microsoft hosts community forums where users can seek help from other users and experts.
  • Automatic Updates: Ensures that the software is always up-to-date with the latest features and security patches.
94

Which of the following is used to save text temporarily when it is copied or cut in MS word 365?  

  1. ((a))

    Memoryboard 

  2. ((b))

    Clipboard 

  3. ((c))

    Textboard 

  4. ((d))

    Copyboard

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Clipboard 

The correct answer is Clipboard.

Key Points

  • The Clipboard is a temporary storage area for text and other data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
  • When text is copied or cut in MS Word 365, it is stored in the Clipboard until it is pasted.
  • The Clipboard can hold multiple items, allowing users to copy and paste several pieces of text and data sequentially.
  • The Clipboard is essential for efficient text editing and data manipulation within MS Word and across other Office applications.

Additional Information

  • Memoryboard
  • This is not a standard term used in MS Word or other Office applications.
  • It could be a misunderstanding or a misinterpretation of the term "memory," which generally refers to computer memory (RAM).
  • Textboard
  • This is not a recognized term in MS Word.
  • It might be confused with the Clipboard, but it is not used in any standard context related to text storage or transfer.
  • Copyboard
  • This term is not used in MS Word.
  • It might be confused with the Clipboard, but it is not a standard term in text editing software.

This source code provides a detailed solution to the question, highlighting the correct option and key points about the Clipboard. It also includes additional information to clarify why the other options are incorrect or irrelevant.

95

In MS Excel 365, which of the following keyboard shortcuts opens the Print option? 

  1. ((a))

    Shift + P

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + P

  3. ((c))

    Alt + P

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Alt + P

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl + P

The correct answer is Ctrl + P.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + P is the standard keyboard shortcut for opening the Print dialog in most Windows applications, including MS Excel 365.
  • This shortcut allows users to quickly access the print settings without navigating through menus, thereby enhancing efficiency.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + P can significantly improve productivity by reducing the time taken to perform repetitive tasks.
  • Besides MS Excel 365, Ctrl + P is also commonly used in other Microsoft Office applications like Word, PowerPoint, and Outlook for printing documents.

Additional Information

  • Print Dialog
  • The Print dialog is a window that appears when you initiate a print command (usually by pressing Ctrl + P) in applications like MS Excel.
  • It provides various options to customize the printing process, such as selecting the printer, setting the number of copies, adjusting page orientation, and choosing specific pages to print.
  • Advanced settings in the Print dialog may include options for printing in color or grayscale, adjusting print quality, and managing print layouts.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts
  • Keyboard shortcuts are combinations of keys that provide quick access to certain functions within software applications.
  • They are designed to enhance user efficiency by minimizing the need to navigate through menus and use the mouse.
  • Common keyboard shortcuts in MS Excel include Ctrl + C for copy, Ctrl + V for paste, and Ctrl + S for save.
  • Microsoft Excel 365
  • MS Excel 365 is a spreadsheet application developed by Microsoft as part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite.
  • It offers various features for data organization, analysis, and visualization, including formulas, pivot tables, and charts.
  • Excel 365 is cloud-based, which means users can access their spreadsheets from any device with an internet connection and collaborate in real-time with others.
96

In MS-Word 365, what is the purpose of the ‘Tell me what you want to do’ feature in the Help menu? 

  1. ((a))

    It automatically corrects formatting errors in the document.

  2. ((b))

    It allows you to search for specific commands and features within the application. 

  3. ((c))

    It offers grammar and spelling suggestions for the selected text.

  4. ((d))

    It provides a list of recent documents for quick access.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It allows you to search for specific commands and features within the application. 

The correct answer is It allows you to search for specific commands and features within the application.

Key Points

  • The 'Tell me what you want to do' feature in MS-Word 365 is designed to help users find specific commands and tools quickly without having to navigate through the various menus.
  • This feature is particularly useful for new users who are not familiar with the interface or for experienced users who need to locate a rarely used command.
  • Users can type in keywords or phrases related to the task they want to accomplish, and the feature will provide a list of relevant options and commands.
  • It enhances productivity by saving time and making it easier to access the functionalities needed to complete tasks efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word 365:
  • Microsoft Word 365 is part of the Microsoft 365 suite of applications, which provides cloud-based services for document creation, collaboration, and sharing.
  • It offers various features such as real-time co-authoring, advanced formatting tools, and accessibility options.
  • Being cloud-based, it allows users to access their documents from any device with an internet connection.
  • Word 365 is continually updated with new features and improvements, providing a dynamic and evolving user experience.
  • Help Menu:
  • The Help menu in MS-Word 365 is designed to assist users with any questions or issues they may encounter while using the application.
  • It provides access to various resources such as tutorials, guides, and support documentation.
  • Users can search for specific topics or browse through the available help articles to find the information they need.
  • This menu is a valuable tool for both beginners and advanced users looking to maximize their use of Microsoft Word.
  • Productivity Tools:
  • Productivity tools are software applications designed to help users accomplish tasks more efficiently and effectively.
  • Examples include word processors, spreadsheets, presentation software, and project management tools.
  • These tools often include features such as templates, automation, and collaboration capabilities to streamline workflows.
  • Microsoft 365, which includes Word 365, is a comprehensive suite of productivity tools used by individuals and organizations worldwide.
97

In MS Excel 365, which of the following is the correct way to address the cell located in the third row and fifth column?  

  1. ((a))

    5A 

  2. ((b))

    35 

  3. ((c))

    3A 

  4. ((d))

    E3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

E3

The correct answer is E3.

Key Points

  • In MS Excel, cells are referenced using a combination of column letters and row numbers.
  • The column letters start from A and go up to Z, then AA, AB, and so on.
  • The row numbers start from 1 and go incrementally downwards.
  • The cell located in the third row and fifth column is addressed as "E3". "E" stands for the fifth column, and "3" stands for the third row.

Additional Information

  • Column Letters:
  • Columns are labeled alphabetically starting from A to Z.
  • After Z, the columns continue as AA, AB, AC, and so on.
  • This labeling helps in identifying the precise location of data within the sheet.
  • Row Numbers:
  • Rows are numbered starting from 1 and increase incrementally down the sheet.
  • Row numbers are used in conjunction with column letters to reference specific cells.
  • Cell Reference:
  • A cell reference combines the column letter and row number to locate a specific cell within the worksheet.
  • For example, the cell reference "A1" refers to the cell in the first column and the first row.
  • Similarly, "E3" refers to the cell in the fifth column (E) and third row (3).
  • Importance of Cell References:
  • Using cell references allows for dynamic data management and formula creation within Excel.
  • It facilitates the process of data analysis, reporting, and visualization.
  • Understanding cell references is crucial for efficient spreadsheet navigation and data manipulation.
98

Which of the following is used when the sender does NOT want one or more of the recipients to know that someone else was copied on the message?  

  1. ((a))

    From 

  2. ((b))

    BCC 

  3. ((c))

    CC 

  4. ((d))

    To

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BCC 

The correct answer is BCC.

Key Points

  • BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy, which means that the recipients in the BCC field are hidden from each other and the main recipients.
  • When you send an email using BCC, the recipients included in the BCC field do not know who else has received the email.
  • This feature is particularly useful when you want to maintain the privacy of the recipients or avoid exposing their email addresses to each other.
  • BCC can also be used to send a copy of an email to someone discreetly without informing the main recipients.

Additional Information

  • From: This field indicates who is sending the email. It contains the sender's email address and possibly their name.
  • To: This field is used to specify the primary recipients of the email. The email addresses entered here are visible to all recipients.
  • CC: CC stands for Carbon Copy. The email addresses entered in this field are visible to all recipients. It is used when you want to send a copy of the email to additional recipients apart from the primary ones.
  • BCC: BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy. The email addresses entered in this field are not visible to the other recipients. This is used when you want to send a copy of the email to someone without disclosing their email address to the other recipients.
99

What do you mean by LAN? 

  1. ((a))

    Local Around Network

  2. ((b))

    Local Area Network

  3. ((c))

    Last Active Network

  4. ((d))

    Live Area Network

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Local Area Network

The correct answer is Local Area Network.

Key Points

  • A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers within a limited area such as a residence, school, laboratory, university campus or office building.
  • LANs are characterized by higher data-transfer rates, smaller geographic range, and lack of a need for leased telecommunication lines.
  • They are typically used to share resources such as files, printers, games, or other applications.
  • LANs can be wired (using Ethernet cables) or wireless (using Wi-Fi).

Additional Information

  • Wide Area Network (WAN)
  • A WAN spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country.
  • WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as LANs or MANs.
  • The most well-known example of a WAN is the Internet.
  • WANs are typically established using leased telecommunication lines.
  • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
  • A MAN spans a larger area than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, such as a city or a large campus.
  • MANs are designed to extend over an entire city, and they may be used to connect several LANs within a city.
  • MANs are typically owned by a single organization such as a government entity or large corporation.
  • Personal Area Network (PAN)
  • A PAN is a computer network organized around an individual person within a single building.
  • PANs are used to connect personal devices such as computers, smartphones, tablets, printers, and other devices.
  • Bluetooth and USB are common technologies used to create PANs.
100

In MS Word 365 which of the following shortcut keys is used to go to the beginning of the document? 

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Del 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + End

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Home

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + Ins

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ctrl + Home

The correct answer is Ctrl + Home.

Key Points

  • The Ctrl + Home shortcut key is used to move the cursor to the beginning of the document in MS Word.
  • In MS Word, the Home key alone moves the cursor to the beginning of the current line.
  • Combining Ctrl with the Home key extends this functionality to the entire document.
  • This shortcut is universally recognized across different versions of MS Word, including MS Word 365.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + Del
  • This shortcut is used to delete the word to the right of the cursor.
  • It is useful for quickly removing text without having to manually highlight it.
  • Ctrl + End
  • This shortcut moves the cursor to the end of the document.
  • It is the opposite of Ctrl + Home.
  • Ctrl + Ins
  • This shortcut is typically used to copy the selected text to the clipboard.
  • It is an alternative to the common Ctrl + C copy command.
  • Home
  • Pressing the Home key moves the cursor to the beginning of the current line.
  • It is particularly useful for navigating within a single line of text.

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