Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 01 Dec, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge/Current Affairs (50 questions)

1

Guru Pankaj Charan Das and Guru Debaprasad Das are associated with which of the following dance forms?

  1. ((a))

    Manipuri 

  2. ((b))

    Odissi 

  3. ((c))

    Kathak 

  4. ((d))

    Kathakali

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Odissi 

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

  • Odissi is one of the classical dance forms of India originating from the state of Odisha.
  • Guru Pankaj Charan Das and Guru Debaprasad Das were pioneering figures in the revival and popularization of Odissi dance in the mid-20th century.
  • Odissi dance is characterized by its fluid movements, sculpturesque poses, and its emphasis on expressions and gestures (abhinaya).
  • This dance form is traditionally performed to the classical Odissi music, which is a combination of Hindustani and Carnatic music styles.

Additional Information

  • Manipuri
  • Manipuri is a classical dance form from the northeastern state of Manipur.
  • It is known for its graceful and fluid movements, often depicting the Raas Leela (divine love story of Radha and Krishna).
  • The dance form incorporates themes from Vaishnavism and regional deities.
  • Musical accompaniment includes traditional Manipuri instruments like the pung (drum) and pena (string instrument).
  • Kathak
  • Kathak is one of the major classical dance forms of India, originating from North India.
  • It is characterized by intricate footwork, spins, and expressive gestures and storytelling (katha).
  • Kathak dance has both Hindu and Muslim cultural influences and is performed to Hindustani classical music.
  • The dance form developed through the courts of the Mughal emperors and the Hindu temples.
  • Kathakali
  • Kathakali is a traditional dance-drama form from the southwestern state of Kerala.
  • It is known for its elaborate costumes, detailed makeup, and intricate facial expressions and gestures (mudras).
  • The themes of Kathakali performances are usually based on Hindu epics such as the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • The musical accompaniment includes traditional Kerala instruments like chenda (drum) and maddalam (drum).
2

Which of the following policies is generally revealed by the annual financial statement of the Government of India? 

  1. ((a))

    Monetary policy

  2. ((b))

    Industrial policy

  3. ((c))

    Fiscal policy 

  4. ((d))

    Population policy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fiscal policy 

The correct answer is Fiscal policy.

Key Points

  • The annual financial statement of the Government of India, also known as the Union Budget, primarily reveals the government's fiscal policy.
  • Fiscal policy involves the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy.
  • It is a crucial tool for managing economic performance, controlling inflation, and encouraging employment.
  • Through the budget, the government outlines its revenue and expenditure plans for the upcoming financial year.

Additional Information

  • Monetary Policy
  • It is the process by which the central bank of a country, like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), controls the supply of money, often targeting an inflation rate or interest rate to ensure price stability and general trust in the currency.
  • Monetary policy is typically implemented by adjusting interest rates, through open market operations, or changing the amount of money banks are required to keep in reserves.
  • Industrial Policy
  • This policy pertains to the government's strategic effort to encourage the development and growth of the industrial sector of the economy.
  • It includes measures like subsidies, tax incentives, and regulations to enhance the competitiveness of industries.
  • Population Policy
  • This policy involves the strategies and activities aimed at achieving a specific pattern of population change.
  • It includes measures to control population growth, improve health and family planning services, and ensure a balanced demographic structure.
  • Fiscal Policy
  • It refers to the use of government spending and tax policies to influence economic conditions, including aggregate demand, employment, inflation, and economic growth.
  • The government uses fiscal policy to allocate resources in a way that benefits the economy, often through targeted spending on public services and infrastructure.
  • Fiscal policy can be expansionary (increasing government spending or decreasing taxes) or contractionary (decreasing government spending or increasing taxes).
  • The effectiveness of fiscal policy depends on various factors, including the timing, the state of the economy, and how the changes are perceived by the public and businesses.
3

In medieval architecture, Khanqahs are associated with _____. 

  1. ((a))

    sufi saints 

  2. ((b))

    nawabs 

  3. ((c))

    traders 

  4. ((d))

    queens

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

sufi saints 

The correct answer is sufi saints.

Key Points

  • Khanqahs are buildings where Sufi saints and their followers would gather for spiritual retreat and discussion.
  • They served as centers of learning and community activities, often offering lodging and food to travelers and the needy.
  • Khanqahs played a significant role in the propagation of Sufism and its teachings during the medieval period.
  • Many Khanqahs were established by prominent Sufi saints and became important cultural and spiritual centers.

Additional Information

  • Sufism: A mystical Islamic belief system that emphasizes the inward search for God and shuns materialism. Sufis seek to achieve spiritual closeness to God through practices such as prayer, meditation, and asceticism.
  • Sufi Saints: These are revered figures within the Sufi tradition, known for their piety, wisdom, and spiritual guidance. They often attracted disciples and followers who sought their teachings and blessings.
  • Functions of Khanqahs: Apart from being spiritual centers, Khanqahs also served as places for communal living, education, and social welfare. They often provided shelter, food, and care for the poor and travelers.
  • Historical Importance: Khanqahs were instrumental in spreading Islamic culture and teachings across various regions. They played a crucial role in the cultural and intellectual life of medieval Islamic societies.
4

Which of the following committees/commissions was set up in 1976 for recommending for fundamental duties by the Indira Gandhi Government ? 

  1. ((a))

    Thakaar Commission

  2. ((b))

    Sarkaria Commission 

  3. ((c))

    Swaran Singh Committee 

  4. ((d))

    Shah Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swaran Singh Committee 

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

  • The Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 by the Indira Gandhi Government.
  • The committee was tasked with the responsibility of recommending fundamental duties that should be included in the Indian Constitution.
  • This committee's recommendations led to the incorporation of Part IV-A and the addition of Article 51A in the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 51A lays down a code of 11 fundamental duties for Indian citizens.

Additional Information

  • Thakaar Commission
  • The Thakaar Commission was constituted to look into the affairs of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India.
  • It aimed at addressing grievances and ensuring the rights of these communities are safeguarded.
  • Sarkaria Commission
  • The Sarkaria Commission, constituted in 1983, was tasked with examining the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in India.
  • Its focus was on improving coordination and cooperation between the states and the center.
  • Shah Commission
  • The Shah Commission was established in 1977 to investigate excesses committed during the Emergency period in India (1975-1977).
  • It examined various abuses of power, including arbitrary detentions and human rights violations.
5

The Narora Atomic Power Station is situated on the banks of the Ganga in _______ state. 

  1. ((a))

    Bihar 

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal 

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand 

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is located in the Bulandshahar district of Uttar Pradesh on the banks of the Ganga River.
  • NAPS is one of the first indigenously constructed nuclear power stations in India.
  • It consists of two units, each with a capacity of 220 MW, making the total capacity 440 MW.
  • It uses pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWR) which are fueled by natural uranium and moderated by heavy water (deuterium oxide).

Additional Information

  • Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)
  • A PHWR is a type of nuclear reactor that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
  • PHWRs are known for their ability to use natural uranium as fuel without the need for enrichment, making them more economical and versatile.
  • They operate at high efficiency and have a flexible design that allows for online refueling, meaning the reactor does not need to be shut down to replace spent fuel.
  • PHWR technology was initially developed in Canada, and many countries, including India, have adopted and further developed this technology.
  • Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
  • NPCIL is a government-owned corporation responsible for the generation of nuclear power for electricity in India.
  • It operates under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • NPCIL was established in 1987 and has since been responsible for the design, construction, commissioning, and operation of nuclear power reactors.
  • It plays a crucial role in India's energy sector by contributing to the country's energy security through the use of clean and reliable nuclear power.
  • Nuclear Power in India
  • India's nuclear power program aims to provide a significant portion of the country's electricity through nuclear energy.
  • The country operates multiple nuclear power plants, with many more under construction or in the planning stages.
  • India has a three-stage nuclear power program that includes using uranium, thorium, and advanced reactors to achieve long-term sustainability and energy independence.
  • The use of nuclear power helps reduce India's reliance on fossil fuels and contributes to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Safety and Regulation
  • The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is the regulatory body responsible for ensuring the safety of nuclear power plants in India.
  • The AERB sets and enforces standards for radiation safety, nuclear safety, and environmental protection in the nuclear power sector.
  • India's nuclear power plants are designed and operated with stringent safety measures to prevent accidents and protect the public and the environment.
  • Regular safety drills, inspections, and maintenance are conducted to ensure the continued safe operation of nuclear power plants.
6

The rate at which consumers convert the chemical energy in their food into their biomass is called: 

  1. ((a))

    primary productivity 

  2. ((b))

    secondary productivity 

  3. ((c))

    gross primary productivity 

  4. ((d))

    net tertiary productivity

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

secondary productivity 

The correct answer is secondary productivity.

Key Points

  • Secondary productivity refers to the rate at which consumers (heterotrophs) convert the chemical energy of their food into their own biomass.
  • This process is crucial for energy transfer within food webs and ecosystems, as it reflects the efficiency of energy conversion from one trophic level to another.
  • Secondary productivity is influenced by factors such as the quality and quantity of food available, the metabolic rate of the consumers, and environmental conditions.
  • It is measured in units of energy (such as joules or calories) or biomass (such as grams) per unit area per unit time.

Additional Information

  • Primary Productivity
  • Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophs to organic substances.
  • Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the total rate of photosynthesis in a given area.
  • Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the rate of energy storage as biomass after accounting for the energy lost through respiration.
  • Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)
  • GPP is the total amount of energy captured by producers in an ecosystem through photosynthesis over a specific time period.
  • It represents the total primary production before any energy is used for respiration.
  • Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
  • NPP is the energy that remains after subtracting the energy producers use for respiration from the GPP.
  • NPP is the energy available to herbivores and other consumers in the ecosystem.
  • Tertiary Productivity
  • Though not a commonly used term, tertiary productivity would refer to the rate at which higher-level consumers (such as predators) convert their food into biomass.
  • This level of productivity is usually encompassed within secondary productivity, which includes all consumers.
7

Which of the following novels is NOT written by Chetan Bhagat? 

  1. ((a))

    The Girl in Room 105

  2. ((b))

    One Arranged Murder

  3. ((c))

    Who Will Cry When You Die?

  4. ((d))

    400 Days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Who Will Cry When You Die?

The correct answer is Who Will Cry When You Die?.

Key Points

  • Who Will Cry When You Die? is a book written by Robin Sharma, not Chetan Bhagat.
  • Robin Sharma is a Canadian writer, best known for his book series "The Monk Who Sold His Ferrari".
  • Chetan Bhagat is a famous Indian author known for his novels like "Five Point Someone," "2 States," and "Half Girlfriend".
  • The other options such as The Girl in Room 105, One Arranged Murder, and 400 Days are indeed written by Chetan Bhagat.

Additional Information

  • The Girl in Room 105
  • It is a novel written by Chetan Bhagat and was released in 2018.
  • The book is a romantic thriller about a young man named Keshav who gets involved in solving the mystery of his ex-girlfriend's death.
  • One Arranged Murder
  • Released in 2020, this novel by Chetan Bhagat is a murder mystery with a backdrop of an arranged marriage.
  • It follows the story of Keshav and Saurabh, who try to solve the murder of Saurabh's fiancée.
  • 400 Days
  • This novel by Chetan Bhagat was published in 2021.
  • The book is a mystery about a missing girl and the efforts to find her.
  • Who Will Cry When You Die?
  • Written by Robin Sharma, it is part of the series "The Monk Who Sold His Ferrari."
  • The book offers life lessons and tips for leading a meaningful life.
8

Which of the following festivals is NOT widely celebrated by the tribal people of Jharkhand? 

  1. ((a))

    Sarhul 

  2. ((b))

    Jawa 

  3. ((c))

    Hareli 

  4. ((d))

    Karma

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hareli 

The correct answer is Hareli.

Key Points

  • Hareli is a traditional festival primarily celebrated in the Chhattisgarh region and not widely celebrated in Jharkhand.
  • The festival is associated with the farming community of Chhattisgarh and involves the worship of farm equipment and cattle.
  • Hareli marks the onset of the rainy season and is celebrated by preparing various traditional dishes and performing rituals to ensure a good harvest.
  • Unlike Sarhul, Jawa, and Karma, which are significant tribal festivals in Jharkhand, Hareli does not hold similar importance in Jharkhand's tribal culture.

Additional Information

  • Sarhul
  • Sarhul is a major tribal festival celebrated by the Oraon, Munda, and Ho tribes of Jharkhand.
  • It marks the beginning of the New Year and the arrival of the spring season.
  • The festival involves the worship of trees and other elements of nature, signifying the close bond between the tribal people and their natural surroundings.
  • Cultural performances, songs, and dances are an integral part of the Sarhul celebrations.
  • Jawa
  • Jawa is another important festival celebrated by the tribal communities of Jharkhand.
  • It is primarily a women's festival, celebrated for the well-being of brothers and the prosperity of the family.
  • The festival includes singing, dancing, and various rituals performed by women.
  • It is a time for social gatherings and strengthening community bonds.
  • Karma
  • Karma is one of the most popular festivals among the tribal people of Jharkhand.
  • It is celebrated in honor of the Karam tree, which is considered sacred by the tribes.
  • The festival involves the worship of the Karam tree, singing, dancing, and various rituals aimed at ensuring good harvests and prosperity.
  • Karma is celebrated with great enthusiasm and serves as an important cultural event for the tribal communities.
9

Who was the autobiographer of ‘Ace against Odds’? 

  1. ((a))

    Mithali Raj 

  2. ((b))

    PV Sindhu 

  3. ((c))

    Sania Nehwal 

  4. ((d))

    Sania Mirza

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sania Mirza

The correct answer is Sania Mirza.

Key Points

  • Sania Mirza is a professional Indian tennis player who has been a former world No. 1 in doubles.
  • She has won six Grand Slam titles in her career.
  • She is considered one of the most successful female Indian tennis players and one of the highest-paid and high-profile athletes in the country.
  • The autobiography, 'Ace against Odds', was published in July 2016 and it chronicles her journey and achievements in the world of tennis.

Additional Information

  • Mithali Raj
  • Mithali Raj is an Indian cricketer and the captain of the Indian women's national cricket team in Tests and ODIs.
  • She is the highest run-scorer in women's international cricket.
  • She is the only female cricketer to surpass the 6,000 run mark in Women's One Day Internationals.
  • She is often regarded as one of the greatest cricketers in the history of women's cricket.
  • PV Sindhu
  • PV Sindhu is an Indian professional badminton player.
  • She is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal in badminton.
  • She has won medals at multiple tournaments including the Olympics and on the BWF circuit, including a gold at the 2019 World Championships.
  • Sindhu is considered one of India's most successful sportspersons.
  • Saina Nehwal
  • Saina Nehwal is an Indian professional badminton singles player.
  • A former world no. 1, she has won over 24 international titles, including eleven Superseries titles.
  • She has represented India three times in the Olympics, winning a bronze medal in her second appearance at the London 2012 Olympics.
  • She is credited for increasing the popularity of badminton in India.
10

The Treaty of Rajpurghat was concluded by the East India Company with which Maratha power? 

  1. ((a))

    Gaekwads 

  2. ((b))

    Sindhia 

  3. ((c))

    Bhonsle 

  4. ((d))

    Holkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Holkar

The correct answer is Holkar.

Key Points

  • The Treaty of Rajpurghat was concluded by the East India Company with the Holkar dynasty, one of the prominent Maratha powers.
  • It was signed in December 1805 after the Holkars suffered defeat at the hands of the British forces.
  • The treaty marked the end of the Second Anglo-Maratha War, leading to the restoration of territories to the Holkars.
  • Yashwantrao Holkar was the ruling leader at the time of the treaty, and it significantly influenced the power dynamics in the region.

Additional Information

  • East India Company
  • The East India Company was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India, incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600.
  • It eventually came to rule large areas of India with its own private armies, exercising military power and assuming administrative functions.
  • The company's rule in India lasted until the Indian Rebellion of 1857, after which the British Crown took over control of India.
  • Maratha Empire
  • The Maratha Empire, or the Maratha Confederacy, was a powerful Indian warrior state that existed from 1674 to 1818.
  • The empire was founded by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674 with Raigad as its capital and expanded greatly under his successors.
  • By the early 18th century, the Marathas had become the dominant power in India.
  • The empire was eventually weakened by internal strife and the military and diplomatic tactics of the British East India Company.
  • Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-1805)
  • The Second Anglo-Maratha War was the second conflict between the British East India Company and the Maratha Empire in India.
  • The war was caused by the expansionist policies of both the Marathas and the British.
  • It resulted in the defeat of the Marathas and the establishment of British supremacy over most of India.
  • The war concluded with several treaties, including the Treaty of Rajpurghat with the Holkars.
  • Yashwantrao Holkar
  • Yashwantrao Holkar was a prominent Maratha ruler and the leader of the Holkar dynasty of Indore.
  • He was known for his military acumen and resistance against the British forces during the Second Anglo-Maratha War.
  • Despite his efforts, he was eventually forced to sign the Treaty of Rajpurghat with the British East India Company.
  • His reign is marked by significant military campaigns and efforts to consolidate power within the Maratha Confederacy.
11

According to the Census of India 2011, which state of India has the highest number of Scheduled Caste population ? 

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra 

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh 

  3. ((c))

    Bihar 

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh has the highest Scheduled Caste (SC) population in India, according to the Census of India 2011.
  • Uttar Pradesh's SC population constitutes around 20.5% of the state's total population.
  • The state government and central government have various schemes and policies in place to uplift the socio-economic status of the SC population.

Additional Information

  • Scheduled Castes (SC)
  • Scheduled Castes are groups of people who are historically marginalized and discriminated against in India.
  • The Indian Constitution provides certain privileges and rights to SCs to help uplift their socio-economic status.
  • They are entitled to reservations in education, jobs, and legislatures.
  • Various government schemes aim to improve their living conditions and provide opportunities for growth and development.
  • Census of India
  • The Census of India is a decennial (every 10 years) exercise conducted by the Government of India to gather demographic data.
  • It covers various aspects such as population size, density, distribution, and socio-economic characteristics.
  • The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census of the country.
  • The data collected helps in planning and implementing various government policies and programs.
  • Reservation Policy
  • The reservation policy in India provides reserved quotas for certain sections of society, including SCs, STs, and OBCs, in education, employment, and legislatures.
  • It aims to ensure equal opportunities and representation for historically disadvantaged groups.
  • The policy is implemented as per the guidelines provided by the Indian Constitution.
  • Various state and central government bodies monitor and enforce these reservations.
12

Which place in the Garo hills of Meghalaya may receive an amount of rainfall in a day equal to 10 years of rainfall in Jaisalmer of Rajasthan ? 

  1. ((a))

    Baghmara 

  2. ((b))

    Aminda 

  3. ((c))

    Tura 

  4. ((d))

    Cherrapunji

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tura 

The correct answer is Tura.

Key Points

  • Tura is located in the West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
  • Tura receives heavy rainfall due to the southwest monsoon and its proximity to the Bay of Bengal.
  • The region is known for its lush green hills and dense vegetation, which are sustained by significant rainfall.
  • Tura's climate is classified as subtropical highland, contributing to its heavy rainfall patterns.

Additional Information

  • Garo Hills
  • The Garo Hills are part of the Garo-Khasi range in Meghalaya, known for their biodiversity and unique ecosystems.
  • These hills are home to the Garo tribe, one of the major tribal communities in Meghalaya.
  • The Garo Hills receive high rainfall due to their geographical location and elevation, influencing the local climate and vegetation.
  • Rainfall Patterns in India
  • India experiences varied rainfall patterns due to its diverse geography and climate zones.
  • The southwest monsoon, occurring from June to September, is the primary source of rainfall for most parts of India.
  • Regions like Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in Meghalaya are among the wettest places on Earth, receiving extremely high annual rainfall.
  • In contrast, areas like Jaisalmer in Rajasthan receive very low rainfall, characteristic of arid and desert climates.
  • Monsoon Mechanism
  • The Indian monsoon is a complex meteorological phenomenon primarily influenced by the differential heating of land and ocean.
  • During the summer, low-pressure areas develop over the Indian subcontinent, drawing moist air from the Indian Ocean.
  • As this moist air ascends, it cools and condenses to form clouds, resulting in heavy rainfall.
  • The Himalayas play a crucial role in trapping the moist monsoon winds, enhancing the rainfall in the northern and northeastern regions.
  • Cherrapunji
  • Cherrapunji, located in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, is renowned for holding records of the highest annual and monthly rainfall.
  • It receives an average annual rainfall of around 11,777 mm.
  • The unique topography and wind patterns contribute to its exceptional rainfall, making it a significant point of study for meteorologists.
13

_______ means the transfer of ownership, management and control of public sector enterprises to the private sector. 

  1. ((a))

    Digitalisation 

  2. ((b))

    Globalisation 

  3. ((c))

    Liberalisation 

  4. ((d))

    Privatisation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Privatisation

The correct answer is Privatisation.

Key Points

  • Privatisation refers to the transfer of ownership, management, and control of public sector enterprises to the private sector.
  • The main objective of privatisation is to improve efficiency and productivity by involving private sector participation.
  • It often involves the sale of government-owned assets or stock to private entities.
  • Privatisation can lead to increased competition, better customer service, and innovation due to private sector management.

Additional Information

  • Digitalisation
  • Digitalisation refers to the use of digital technologies to change a business model and provide new revenue and value-producing opportunities.
  • It is the process of moving to a digital business.
  • Digitalisation involves the conversion of information into a digital format.
  • This term is often used in the context of the digital transformation of business and society.
  • Globalisation
  • Globalisation is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide.
  • It involves the international exchange of goods, services, information, technology, and cultural practices.
  • Globalisation has led to increased economic interdependence and the global spread of technology and innovation.
  • It can have both positive and negative impacts on economies, societies, and cultures.
  • Liberalisation
  • Liberalisation refers to the relaxation of government restrictions, usually in areas of social, political, and economic policy.
  • In the context of economic policy, it means reducing state intervention in the economy.
  • Liberalisation can include measures like reducing tariffs, deregulating markets, and encouraging foreign investment.
  • It aims to create a more competitive and efficient economic environment.
14

The beautiful square-shaped Mughal architecture, Kanch Mahal is situated in which of the following cities of India?

  1. ((a))

    Agra 

  2. ((b))

    Ahmedabad 

  3. ((c))

    Aurangabad 

  4. ((d))

    Hyderabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Agra 

The correct answer is Agra.

Key Points

  • Kanch Mahal is a beautiful example of Mughal architecture located in Agra, India.
  • It is a square-shaped structure built during the reign of Jahangir in the early 17th century.
  • Originally, Kanch Mahal served as a royal hunting lodge for the Mughal emperors.
  • The building is known for its intricate tile work and splendid architectural design.

Additional Information

  • Mughal Architecture
  • Mughal architecture is a style developed by the Mughals in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries throughout the extent of their empire in the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is known for its large-scale use of marble, intricate carvings, and symmetrical designs.
  • Famous examples include the Taj Mahal, Red Fort, and Humayun's Tomb.
  • This architectural style is a blend of Islamic, Persian, Turkish, and Indian architecture.
  • Agra
  • Agra is a city on the banks of the Yamuna river in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is renowned for its Mughal-era buildings, including the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri.
  • Agra was the capital of the Mughal Empire during the 16th and early 18th centuries.
  • The city is a major tourist destination because of its many splendid Mughal-era buildings.
  • Jahangir
  • Jahangir was the fourth Mughal Emperor who ruled from 1605 to 1627.
  • His reign is characterized by the development of Mughal art and culture.
  • He was known for his interest in art, architecture, and nature.
  • Jahangir's era saw the construction of many significant buildings and gardens.
  • Tile Work
  • Tile work refers to the decorative tiles used in the construction and ornamentation of buildings.
  • It involves the use of glazed and unglazed tiles to create intricate patterns and designs.
  • Tile work was a popular decorative technique in Mughal architecture.
  • The tiles are often brightly colored and feature geometric and floral designs.
15

Which of the following is an external agency with which NABARD has collaborated to promote micro - finance in 2005 - 06 ? 

  1. ((a))

    International Monetary Fund

  2. ((b))

    International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

  3. ((c))

    Swiss Agency for Development Cooperation 

  4. ((d))

    New Development Bank, BRICS

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swiss Agency for Development Cooperation 

The correct answer is Swiss Agency for Development Cooperation.

Key Points

  • The Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC) is an international cooperation agency within the Swiss Federal Department of Foreign Affairs (FDFA).
  • It is responsible for the overall coordination of development activities and humanitarian aid delivered by the Swiss Confederation.
  • In 2005-06, NABARD collaborated with SDC to promote micro-finance in India, aiming to improve the financial inclusion of the rural poor.
  • SDC has a long-standing history of supporting various development projects across the globe, with a focus on poverty reduction, sustainable development, and economic cooperation.

Additional Information

  • NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
  • Established on 12 July 1982, NABARD is an apex development bank in India.
  • Its mandate is to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology, and institutional development for securing prosperity.
  • NABARD provides refinance support for building rural infrastructure and strengthening rural credit delivery systems, besides other activities.
  • Micro-finance
  • Micro-finance refers to financial services, such as loans, savings, insurance, and fund transfers, provided to low-income individuals or groups who traditionally lack access to banking services.
  • It is designed to promote financial inclusion and support entrepreneurship, reduce poverty, and empower economically disadvantaged communities.
  • Micro-finance institutions (MFIs) play a crucial role in providing these services to the underserved sections of society.
  • International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • Established in 1944, the IMF is an organization of 190 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.
  • The IMF provides policy advice, financial assistance, and technical assistance to its member countries.
  • International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
  • Also known as the World Bank, the IBRD is an international financial institution that offers loans and financial assistance to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries for development projects.
  • Its goal is to reduce poverty and support sustainable development.
  • New Development Bank (NDB)
  • Established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) in 2014, the NDB supports public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation, and other financial instruments.
  • Its primary focus is on infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies and developing countries.
16

Who among the following wrote the famous song, ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’, which became the national anthem of Bangladesh after its independence in 1971 ? 

  1. ((a))

    Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

  2. ((b))

    Ramprasad Sen

  3. ((c))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  4. ((d))

    Madhusudan Dutt

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rabindranath Tagore

The correct answer is Rabindranath Tagore.

Key Points

  • Rabindranath Tagore was a renowned poet, writer, composer, philosopher, and painter from India.
  • He wrote the song 'Amar Sonar Bangla' in 1905 during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
  • The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla' became the national anthem of Bangladesh after its independence in 1971.
  • Tagore is also known for writing the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' and was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.

Additional Information

  • Amar Sonar Bangla:
  • 'Amar Sonar Bangla' is a song written in the Bengali language by Rabindranath Tagore in 1905.
  • The song was written during the first partition of Bengal, intended to unite Bengali people and promote the Swadeshi movement against the British rule.
  • After the independence of Bangladesh in 1971, the first ten lines of the song were adopted as the national anthem of Bangladesh.
  • Rabindranath Tagore:
  • Rabindranath Tagore was born on May 7, 1861, in Kolkata, India.
  • He was a polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music, as well as Indian art with Contextual Modernism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
  • In 1913, he became the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for his book "Gitanjali" (Song Offerings).
  • Tagore's literary work includes poetry, novels, short stories, dramas, and essays covering various topics, from politics to personal reflections.
  • Bangladesh Independence:
  • Bangladesh gained independence from Pakistan on December 16, 1971, following the Bangladesh Liberation War.
  • The war was a result of the political and economic discrimination against the Bengali population of East Pakistan by the ruling authorities of West Pakistan.
  • The declaration of independence was made on March 26, 1971, which is now celebrated as Bangladesh's Independence Day.
  • The war led to the creation of the People's Republic of Bangladesh.
17

Who was the President of the Board of Trade when the Cabinet Mission visited India ? 

  1. ((a))

    AV Alexander

  2. ((b))

    Lord Wavell 

  3. ((c))

    Stafford Cripps

  4. ((d))

    Pethick Lawrence

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stafford Cripps

The correct answer is Stafford Cripps.

Key Points

  • Stafford Cripps was a British Labour politician and a key member of the Cabinet during World War II.
  • He was appointed as the President of the Board of Trade in 1945 under Prime Minister Clement Attlee's government.
  • Stafford Cripps played a significant role in the Cabinet Mission that visited India in 1946 to discuss the transfer of power from British rule to Indian leadership.
  • As a member of the Cabinet Mission, Cripps was instrumental in presenting proposals for the formation of a constituent assembly and an interim government in India.

Additional Information

  • Cabinet Mission
  • The Cabinet Mission was a high-powered delegation sent by the British government to India in March 1946.
  • The mission comprised three members: Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, and AV Alexander.
  • The primary objective was to discuss and plan the transfer of power from British rule to Indian leadership while maintaining India's unity.
  • The mission proposed a three-tier federal structure and recommended the formation of an interim government and a constituent assembly.
  • Despite its efforts, the mission failed to achieve a consensus between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, leading to the eventual partition of India and Pakistan in 1947.
  • Lord Wavell
  • Lord Wavell was the Viceroy of India from 1943 to 1947.
  • He played a crucial role in World War II, particularly in the Burma Campaign against Japanese forces.
  • Wavell initiated the Wavell Plan in 1945, which aimed to involve Indian leaders in the governance process through the formation of an Executive Council.
  • However, the plan was not successful due to disagreements between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
  • AV Alexander
  • Albert Victor Alexander, commonly known as AV Alexander, was a British Labour politician and a member of the Cabinet Mission.
  • He served as the First Lord of the Admiralty during World War II and played a key role in the British war effort.
  • Alexander was known for his strong support for the Indian independence movement.
  • Pethick Lawrence
  • Frederick Pethick-Lawrence, 1st Baron Pethick-Lawrence, was a British Labour politician and a member of the Cabinet Mission.
  • He served as the Secretary of State for India and Burma from 1945 to 1947.
  • Pethick-Lawrence was a strong advocate for Indian self-governance and played a significant role in the discussions leading to India's independence.
18

Kalhan, a 12th century author, had described the history of which of the following regions in his book titled ‘Rajatarangini’ ?

  1. ((a))

    Orissa 

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat 

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan 

  4. ((d))

    Kashmir

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kashmir

The correct answer is Kashmir.

Key Points

  • Kalhan was a 12th century poet and historian who authored the book 'Rajatarangini'.
  • 'Rajatarangini' is a historical chronicle that provides a detailed account of the history of Kashmir.
  • The work consists of eight books and covers the history of Kashmir from the earliest times until the 12th century.
  • Kalhan's writing is considered one of the earliest and most comprehensive records of the history of Kashmir and is highly valued for its detailed and methodical approach.

Additional Information

  • Kalhan:
  • He was a Kashmiri Brahmin and the son of a minister in the court of Harsha of Kashmir.
  • Kalhan's primary source for his work was the oral traditions and previous records that were available to him, which he meticulously compiled into 'Rajatarangini'.
  • 'Rajatarangini':
  • The title 'Rajatarangini' translates to 'River of Kings' and it chronicles the lives and reigns of the kings of Kashmir.
  • The work is notable for its poetic elegance, historical accuracy, and the use of primary sources.
  • It is considered one of the most important sources of early Indian history, particularly for the region of Kashmir.
  • Historical Context:
  • Kashmir has a rich history that has been influenced by various dynasties and rulers, including the Mauryas, Kushans, and Guptas.
  • Kalhan's work provides insight into the political, cultural, and social aspects of Kashmir during different periods.
  • His account includes details about the administration, economy, and religious practices of the time.
19

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education was founded in _________. 

  1. ((a))

    1965 

  2. ((b))

    1957 

  3. ((c))

    1960 

  4. ((d))

    1956

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1957 

The correct answer is 1957.

Key Points

  • The Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) was founded in 1957.
  • It is located in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • The institute was named after the valiant freedom fighter Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi.
  • It offers various undergraduate, postgraduate, and diploma courses in physical education and sports sciences.

Additional Information

  • History of LNIPE
  • The institute was established with the aim of promoting physical education and sports in India.
  • It was initially named as Lakshmibai College of Physical Education (LCPE).
  • In 1973, it was upgraded to the status of a National Institute and was renamed as Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE).
  • Courses Offered
  • LNIPE offers Bachelor of Physical Education (B.P.Ed), Master of Physical Education (M.P.Ed), and Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.) in Physical Education.
  • It also offers diploma courses in sports coaching and sports management.
  • Infrastructure and Facilities
  • The institute boasts state-of-the-art infrastructure including well-equipped laboratories, libraries, sports complexes, and hostels.
  • It has facilities for various sports like athletics, basketball, football, cricket, hockey, and more.
  • Notable Alumni
  • Many notable sports personalities and coaches have graduated from LNIPE, contributing significantly to Indian sports.
20

A wood boring shipworm is:

  1. ((a))

    umax 

  2. ((b))

    teredo 

  3. ((c))

    patella 

  4. ((d))

    chiton

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

teredo 

The correct answer is teredo.

Key Points

  • Teredo is a genus of wood-boring bivalve mollusks, commonly known as shipworms.
  • Shipworms, including those from the genus Teredo, are notorious for boring into and damaging wooden structures submerged in seawater, such as ships, piers, and docks.
  • Teredo species have elongated, worm-like bodies and shell-like valves at their anterior end which they use to bore into wood.
  • They are capable of digesting cellulose in wood, thanks to symbiotic bacteria present in their gills that help them break down the wood fibers.

Additional Information

  • Umax
  • Umax is not related to wood-boring organisms. It is often associated with imaging products and technology, such as scanners and printers.
  • Patella
  • Patella refers to a genus of marine gastropod mollusks known as limpets. They are not wood-boring and are commonly found attached to rocks in the intertidal zone.
  • Chiton
  • Chitons are marine mollusks belonging to the class Polyplacophora. They have a distinctive eight-plated shell and are found on rocky shores but are not known for boring into wood.
21

A kangaroo ran 150 m in the first 40 seconds and then, it ran 100 m in the next 10 seconds. Still, its displacement was only 50 m. The average speed of the kangaroo is:

  1. ((a))

    1 m/s 

  2. ((b))

    10 m/s 

  3. ((c))

    3.75 m/s

  4. ((d))

    5 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5 m/s

The correct answer is 5 m/s.

Key Points

  • The kangaroo covered a total distance of 150 m + 100 m = 250 m.
  • The total time taken by the kangaroo is 40 s + 10 s = 50 s.
  • Average speed is calculated as the total distance divided by the total time.
  • Thus, the average speed = 250 m / 50 s = 5 m/s.

Additional Information

  • Distance: It refers to the total path covered by an object. It is a scalar quantity and only has magnitude.
  • Displacement: It is the shortest distance from the initial to the final position of an object. It is a vector quantity, having both magnitude and direction.
  • Speed: It is the rate at which an object covers distance. It is a scalar quantity and is given by the formula: Speed = Distance / Time.
  • Average Speed: It is the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It gives a general idea of how fast an object is moving overall.
  • Velocity: It is the rate of change of displacement. It is a vector quantity and is given by the formula: Velocity = Displacement / Time.
  • In this context, although the displacement of the kangaroo is only 50 m, for average speed calculation, the total distance covered (250 m) is considered.
22

Chirag Chandrashekhar Shetty is related to _________.

  1. ((a))

    Cricket 

  2. ((b))

    Badminton 

  3. ((c))

    Tennis 

  4. ((d))

    Chess

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Badminton 

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

  • Chirag Chandrashekhar Shetty is a prominent Indian badminton player specializing in men's doubles.
  • He has achieved significant success in international tournaments, often partnering with Satwiksairaj Rankireddy.
  • Chirag Shetty and his partner have won prestigious titles, including the Thailand Open and the Commonwealth Games.
  • They have been consistently ranked among the top badminton doubles pairs in the world by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).

Additional Information

  • Badminton
  • Badminton is a popular racquet sport played using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
  • The game can be played in singles (one player per side) and doubles (two players per side) formats.
  • It is an Olympic sport with five events: men's singles, women's singles, men's doubles, women's doubles, and mixed doubles.
  • The Badminton World Federation (BWF) is the international governing body for the sport, overseeing international competitions and the world rankings.
  • Badminton requires a combination of agility, speed, and precision, with players often covering significant distances on the court during a match.
  • Chirag Chandrashekhar Shetty
  • Born on July 4, 1997, Chirag Shetty has emerged as one of India's top badminton doubles players.
  • He, along with his partner Satwiksairaj Rankireddy, has made history by winning multiple international titles.
  • Chirag Shetty's achievements have contributed significantly to the growing popularity of badminton in India.
  • He has represented India in various prestigious tournaments, including the Commonwealth Games and the BWF World Championships.
  • International Tournaments
  • Major international tournaments in badminton include the All England Open, BWF World Championships, and the Thomas & Uber Cup.
  • Players earn points from these tournaments, which contribute to their world rankings.
  • The Olympic Games is one of the most prestigious events for badminton players, held every four years.
  • Winning these tournaments often requires a high level of skill, strategy, and physical fitness.
23

Palghat Raghu was a famous _________ player.

  1. ((a))

    sarangi 

  2. ((b))

    mridangam 

  3. ((c))

    flute 

  4. ((d))

    tabla

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

mridangam 

The correct answer is mridangam.

Key Points

  • Palghat Raghu was a legendary Indian percussionist known for his expertise in playing the mridangam, a classical Indian percussion instrument.
  • He was born in the Palghat district of Kerala, which is known for producing several renowned mridangam artists.
  • Palghat Raghu received numerous awards and recognitions, including the prestigious Padma Shri from the Government of India in 1985.
  • He was a highly respected figure in Carnatic music circles and collaborated with many distinguished musicians throughout his career.

Additional Information

  • Mridangam
  • The mridangam is a double-headed drum that is an essential component of South Indian classical music (Carnatic music).
  • It is made from a hollowed piece of jackfruit wood and has two drumheads, each producing different pitches.
  • The mridangam is played with the hands, and the musician uses various techniques to produce a wide range of sounds and rhythms.
  • It is considered the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music, often paired with instruments like the violin, flute, and veena.
  • Other Instruments Mentioned:
  • Sarangi: A bowed, short-necked string instrument from India, used primarily in Hindustani classical music.
  • Flute: A woodwind instrument that produces sound from the flow of air across an opening. In Indian classical music, the bansuri is a popular bamboo flute.
  • Tabla: A pair of twin hand drums from the Indian subcontinent, widely used in Hindustani classical music and other genres.
24

According the Census 2011 of India, which state of India has the second highest literacy rate? 

  1. ((a))

    Meghalaya

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu 

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka 

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mizoram

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

  • Mizoram has the second highest literacy rate in India as per the Census 2011.
  • The literacy rate in Mizoram is 91.33%, which is just below Kerala, the state with the highest literacy rate.
  • Mizoram has consistently focused on improving its education system, which has resulted in a high literacy rate.
  • The state has numerous educational institutions and initiatives that have contributed to its high literacy levels.

Additional Information

  • Literacy Rate:
  • It is the percentage of people who are able to read and write with understanding in a specific population.
  • It is a key social indicator of the development of a region or country.
  • High literacy rates are often associated with better socio-economic development.
  • Census 2011:
  • The Census of India 2011 was the 15th Census of India since 1871.
  • It provides comprehensive data on the population, including various socio-economic indicators like literacy, employment, and housing.
  • The data collected helps in planning and implementing government policies and programs.
  • Education Initiatives in Mizoram:
  • Various government and non-governmental initiatives have been undertaken to promote education in Mizoram.
  • The state has implemented programs to improve school infrastructure and provide free textbooks and uniforms.
  • Special emphasis is placed on the education of girls and marginalized communities.
  • Adult education programs have also been introduced to improve the literacy rate among the adult population.
25

How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ? 

  1. ((a))

    25 

  2. ((b))

    12 

  3. ((c))

    19 

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12 

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

  • The President of India has the authority to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament.
  • These nominations are intended to ensure that the Rajya Sabha includes individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Article 80 of the Indian Constitution provides for the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha by the President.
  • Such nominations help in bringing expert opinion and knowledge into the legislative process, enriching the debates and discussions in the Rajya Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Rajya Sabha
  • The Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is the upper house of India's bicameral Parliament, with the Lok Sabha being the lower house.
  • It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes, and 12 are nominated by the President.
  • The members serve staggered six-year terms, with a third of the members retiring every two years.
  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • Article 80 of the Indian Constitution
  • Article 80 deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
  • It specifies that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than 250 members.
  • Of these, 12 members are nominated by the President for their expertise in specific fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • The remainder of the members are elected by the states and union territories' legislative assemblies.
  • Nomination Process
  • The President of India nominates individuals to the Rajya Sabha based on their distinguished contribution to various fields.
  • This process ensures that the Rajya Sabha benefits from the expertise and knowledge of eminent personalities.
  • Nominations are made in accordance with the provisions of Article 80 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Role of Nominated Members
  • Nominated members play a crucial role in enriching the legislative process by providing insights and perspectives from their respective fields.
  • They are not bound by party affiliations and can contribute independently to the functioning of the Rajya Sabha.
  • They participate in debates, discussions, and the overall legislative process, bringing in their expert knowledge and experience.
26

The Election Commission of India became a three-member body in 1989, again it was made into a single member body in the year _________ . 

  1. ((a))

    1990 

  2. ((b))

    1993 

  3. ((c))

    1992 

  4. ((d))

    1991

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1990 

The correct answer is 1990.

Key Points

  • The Election Commission of India was initially established as a single-member body.
  • In 1989, the Election Commission was expanded to a three-member body to handle the increased workload and responsibilities.
  • However, this three-member structure was reverted back to a single-member body in 1990.
  • The change back to a single-member body was part of a process to streamline the decision-making process within the commission.

Additional Information

  • Election Commission of India (ECI):
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at national and state levels.
  • The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
  • The ECI was established on January 25, 1950.
  • Initially, the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. Two additional Commissioners were appointed for the first time on October 16, 1989, but they had a very short tenure until January 1, 1990.
  • Chief Election Commissioner (CEC):
  • The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India.
  • The CEC has tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • The CEC can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner and the two Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers.
  • Election Commissioners:
  • They assist the Chief Election Commissioner in the discharge of his/her duties.
  • The President of India appoints the Election Commissioners.
  • They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • Article 324:
  • Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
  • It vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.
  • The article ensures the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission.
27

In cricket, a full - pitched ball aimed at the batsman’s toes or on the crease line is called ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Yorker

  2. ((b))

    Zooter 

  3. ((c))

    waft 

  4. ((d))

    googly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yorker

The correct answer is Yorker.

Key Points

  • A yorker is a delivery in cricket that lands on or near the batsman's toes or the crease line.
  • It is bowled to target the base of the stumps or the batsman's feet.
  • Yorkers are typically used to prevent batsmen from scoring runs, especially in the death overs of limited-overs cricket.
  • They are difficult to hit because they arrive at the batsman very quickly and give them less time to adjust their shot.

Additional Information

  • Googly
  • A googly is a type of delivery bowled by a leg-spinner. It is designed to deceive the batsman by turning in the opposite direction to a normal leg break.
  • When bowled by a right-arm leg-spinner, a googly turns from the off side to the leg side for a right-handed batsman.
  • It is also known as a 'wrong'un'.
  • Zooter
  • A zooter is a type of delivery bowled by a leg-spinner. It is typically flatter and faster than a normal leg break.
  • The zooter is often used to deceive the batsman by not spinning or by skidding through low after pitching.
  • Waft
  • A waft is an informal term used to describe a careless or wild shot played by a batsman.
  • It generally refers to a shot where the batsman swings the bat without much control or precision.
28

Which of the following animals had the most prestigious place in society during the later Vedic period? 

  1. ((a))

    Horse

  2. ((b))

    Elephant 

  3. ((c))

    Bull 

  4. ((d))

    Cow

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cow

The correct answer is Cow.

Key Points

  • During the later Vedic period, the cow held a prestigious place in society and was considered sacred.
  • The cow was a symbol of wealth and prosperity, and its ownership was a mark of social status.
  • Cows were central to the economy; they provided milk, which was a major dietary component, and were used in religious rituals.
  • The protection of cows was emphasized in the later Vedic texts, and harming a cow was considered a great sin.

Additional Information

  • Later Vedic Period
  • The later Vedic period is generally considered to be from 1000 BCE to 500 BCE.
  • It marks the time when the Vedic society started expanding from the northwest of the Indian subcontinent to the Ganges plain.
  • During this period, the Vedic texts such as the Brahmanas, Aranyakas, and the Upanishads were composed.
  • Socio-Economic Structure
  • The society was divided into four varnas: Brahmins (priests), Kshatriyas (warriors), Vaishyas (traders and agriculturists), and Shudras (servants).
  • Agriculture became the main occupation, and the use of iron tools increased agricultural productivity.
  • Cattle rearing and dairy farming were significant aspects of the economy.
  • Religious Practices
  • Yajnas (sacrificial rituals) became more elaborate and complex during this period.
  • The importance of deities like Indra, Agni, and Soma continued, but new gods and goddesses such as Prajapati and Rudra gained prominence.
  • Cows were often offered in sacrifices and were considered essential for religious ceremonies.
  • Significance of Cow
  • The cow was seen as a 'giver' of life and sustenance through its milk, ghee (clarified butter), and other dairy products.
  • The term 'Gograhana' referred to the act of cow protection or securing cattle, which was a duty of the community.
  • References to the cow as 'Aghnya' (not to be killed) and 'Kamadhenu' (the cow of plenty) in Vedic texts highlight its revered status.
29

Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure of the body? 

  1. ((a))

    Sphygmomanometer 

  2. ((b))

    Thermometer 

  3. ((c))

    Stethoscope 

  4. ((d))

    Heart Rate Monitor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sphygmomanometer 

The correct answer is Sphygmomanometer.

Key Points

  • A sphygmomanometer is a medical instrument used to measure blood pressure.
  • It consists of an inflatable cuff to restrict blood flow, and a mercury or mechanical manometer to measure the pressure.
  • The instrument measures two types of pressure: systolic and diastolic.
  • It is commonly used in clinical settings as well as at home to monitor blood pressure.

Additional Information

  • Thermometer
  • A thermometer is a device that measures temperature or a temperature gradient.
  • It has various forms including mercury thermometers, digital thermometers, and infrared thermometers.
  • Thermometers are used in medical settings to measure body temperature.
  • Stethoscope
  • A stethoscope is a medical device used to listen to the internal sounds of a body.
  • It is commonly used to hear heartbeats, lung sounds, and other body sounds.
  • Stethoscopes are essential tools for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and monitoring patients.
  • Heart Rate Monitor
  • A heart rate monitor is a personal monitoring device that allows one to measure their heart rate in real-time or record the heart rate for later study.
  • It is commonly used in sports and fitness activities to track cardiovascular performance.
  • Heart rate monitors come in various forms such as wristbands, chest straps, and smartwatches.
30

Who among the following was the founder of the slave dynasty who was the army commander of Muhammad Ghori earlier ?

  1. ((a))

    Qutbuddin Aibak 

  2. ((b))

    Iltutmish 

  3. ((c))

    Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah

  4. ((d))

    Muizuddin Bahram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Qutbuddin Aibak 

The correct answer is Qutbuddin Aibak.

Key Points

  • Qutbuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty in India, which is also known as the Mamluk dynasty.
  • He was initially a slave who rose to the rank of an army commander under Muhammad Ghori, a prominent ruler of the Ghurid Empire.
  • After the death of Muhammad Ghori, Qutbuddin Aibak established himself as an independent ruler in Delhi in 1206.
  • Qutbuddin Aibak is also known for commissioning the construction of the Qutub Minar, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Delhi.

Additional Information

  • Slave Dynasty (Mamluk Dynasty)
  • The Slave dynasty, also known as the Mamluk dynasty, was the first of the Delhi Sultanates, ruling from 1206 to 1290.
  • It was founded by Qutbuddin Aibak, who was originally a slave purchased by Muhammad Ghori, and later rose to become his trusted general and governor of Indian territories.
  • The term "Mamluk" means "owned" or "slave" in Arabic, indicating that many rulers of this dynasty were originally slaves.
  • The Slave dynasty contributed significantly to the establishment of Muslim rule in India and laid the foundation for subsequent dynasties.
  • Muhammad Ghori
  • Muhammad Ghori was a ruler of the Ghurid Empire who played a crucial role in the expansion of Muslim rule into the Indian subcontinent.
  • He conducted several military campaigns in northern India, defeating various Rajput kings and other local rulers.
  • His notable victory at the Second Battle of Tarain in 1192 against Prithviraj Chauhan paved the way for Muslim dominance in northern India.
  • Muhammad Ghori's conquests laid the groundwork for the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Qutub Minar
  • The Qutub Minar is a minaret that forms part of the Qutub complex, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Delhi, India.
  • It was commissioned by Qutbuddin Aibak in 1192 and completed by his successor, Iltutmish.
  • The minaret is 73 meters tall, making it the tallest brick minaret in the world.
  • The Qutub Minar is an excellent example of Indo-Islamic architecture, featuring intricate carvings and inscriptions in Arabic.
31

The strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the north and northwestern India are called: 

  1. ((a))

    Loo 

  2. ((b))

    Foehn 

  3. ((c))

    Khamsin 

  4. ((d))

    Sirocco

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Loo 

The correct answer is Loo.

Key Points

  • The Loo is a strong, gusty, hot, dry wind that blows during the day in the summer season.
  • It is prevalent over the north and northwestern parts of India and Pakistan.
  • The temperature of the Loo can reach up to 45-50 degrees Celsius, making it extremely dangerous and potentially fatal to humans and animals.
  • The Loo wind is a significant weather phenomenon in these regions, known for its ability to cause heat strokes and dehydration.

Additional Information

  • Foehn
  • A Foehn is a type of dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the lee (downwind side) of a mountain range.
  • It is associated with the rapid warming and drying of air masses as they descend mountain slopes.
  • This phenomenon is common in the Alps and other mountainous regions.
  • Khamsin
  • Khamsin is a dry, hot, sandy wind blowing from the south, usually occurring in Egypt and the eastern Mediterranean region.
  • It typically occurs in late winter and early spring and can raise temperatures significantly.
  • Sirocco
  • Sirocco is a Mediterranean wind that comes from the Sahara and can reach hurricane speeds in North Africa and Southern Europe.
  • It is known for carrying large amounts of dust and sand from the desert into the Mediterranean regions.
32

Which of the following states was NOT amongst the top three states with highest total percentage of literacy rate, in the 2011 census ? 

  1. ((a))

    Kerala 

  2. ((b))

    Goa 

  3. ((c))

    Tripura 

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tripura 

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

  • Kerala, with a literacy rate of 93.91%, was the highest amongst all states in the 2011 census.
  • Goa had a literacy rate of 88.70%, placing it amongst the top three states.
  • Mizoram had a literacy rate of 91.58%, making it one of the top three states in terms of literacy rate.
  • Tripura, although having a high literacy rate of 87.22%, was not in the top three states in the 2011 census.

Additional Information

  • Literacy Rate:
  • Literacy rate is the percentage of people who are able to read and write with understanding in a specific language.
  • It is a crucial indicator of socio-economic progress and is used to assess the educational level of a population.
  • The literacy rate is often calculated for individuals above a certain age, typically 7 years and older, in India.
  • Census:
  • A census is a systematic collection of data about a population.
  • In India, the census is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The data collected includes demographic, social, and economic information, which is used for policy-making and resource allocation.
  • Top Three States in Literacy Rate (2011 Census):
  • Kerala: With a literacy rate of 93.91%, Kerala had the highest literacy rate in India as per the 2011 census.
  • Mizoram: Mizoram, with a literacy rate of 91.58%, was the second-highest.
  • Goa: Goa had a literacy rate of 88.70%, making it the third-highest in the 2011 census.
  • Importance of Literacy:
  • Literacy is fundamental for individual and societal development.
  • It enhances the ability of individuals to engage in economic activities, access healthcare, and participate in civic and political processes.
  • Higher literacy rates are associated with improved living standards and economic growth.
33

As of July 2023, the Vivek Express Train has longest route in India running between ________ and Kanyakumari. 

  1. ((a))

    Silchar 

  2. ((b))

    Guwahati 

  3. ((c))

    Dispur 

  4. ((d))

    Dibrugarh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dibrugarh

The correct answer is Dibrugarh.

Key Points

  • The Vivek Express is the longest train route in India, covering a distance of 4,273 kilometers.
  • It travels from Dibrugarh in Assam to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, connecting the northeastern part of India to the southernmost tip.
  • The train journey takes approximately 82 hours and 30 minutes, making it the longest train journey in terms of time as well.
  • Vivek Express was introduced in 2011 to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, hence the name Vivek Express.

Additional Information

  • Dibrugarh
  • Dibrugarh is a city in the northeastern state of Assam, India, and is known as the "Tea City of India" due to its numerous tea estates.
  • It is an important commercial center of Assam and serves as a major gateway to the eastern part of the state.
  • Dibrugarh is well connected by rail, road, and air, making it accessible for travelers and trade.
  • The city also has a rich cultural heritage, with numerous festivals and traditions celebrated throughout the year.
  • Kanyakumari
  • Kanyakumari is a coastal town in the southernmost part of India, located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • It is renowned for its unique geographical location where the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, and Bay of Bengal meet.
  • Kanyakumari is also famous for its beautiful sunrise and sunset views, attracting tourists from all over the world.
  • The town has several historical and cultural landmarks, including the Vivekananda Rock Memorial and the Thiruvalluvar Statue.
  • Swami Vivekananda
  • Swami Vivekananda was a Hindu monk and a key figure in the introduction of Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
  • He was born on January 12, 1863, and his teachings and philosophy have inspired millions of people worldwide.
  • Swami Vivekananda is best known for his speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he began his address with "Sisters and brothers of America."
  • His birth anniversary is celebrated as National Youth Day in India to honor his contributions and inspire the youth of the country.
34

Sangeet Natak Akademi award winner, Tapan Kumar Pattanayak is a _________ dancer.

  1. ((a))

    Odissi 

  2. ((b))

    Chhau 

  3. ((c))

    Mohiniattam 

  4. ((d))

    Manipuri

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chhau 

The correct answer is Chhau.

Key Points

  • Tapan Kumar Pattanayak is a renowned Chhau dancer who has been recognized for his significant contributions to this traditional dance form.
  • The Chhau dance is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk origins, originating from the eastern states of Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
  • Chhau dance integrates elements of folk and tribal traditions, and it is known for its vigorous and expressive movements, often depicting mythological stories and folklore.
  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is one of the most prestigious awards in India for performing arts, and winning this award highlights Tapan Kumar Pattanayak's mastery and dedication to Chhau dance.

Additional Information

  • Odissi
  • Odissi is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from the state of Odisha.
  • It is characterized by its intricate footwork, fluid movements, and expressive gestures.
  • Odissi dance is traditionally performed as a form of worship in temples and is known for its devotion and grace.
  • Mohiniattam
  • Mohiniattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, known for its graceful, swaying movements and feminine style.
  • It is traditionally performed solo by women and depicts themes of love and devotion.
  • The dance form emphasizes the Lasya aspect, which is the feminine and graceful movements.
  • Manipuri
  • Manipuri dance originates from the northeastern state of Manipur and is known for its lyrical and graceful movements.
  • It often depicts themes from the life of Lord Krishna and Radha, focusing on devotion and spirituality.
  • Manipuri dance is characterized by its elegant hand gestures, gentle footwork, and flowing costumes.
35

Which of the following constitutions inspired for the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Canadian 

  2. ((b))

    Irish 

  3. ((c))

    USSR 

  4. ((d))

    USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

USSR 

The correct answer is USSR.

Key Points

  • The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of the USSR.
  • Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • These duties are listed in Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A.
  • The Fundamental Duties serve as a reminder to Indian citizens that while enjoying their rights, they also have certain duties to the nation.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • The Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
  • There are 11 Fundamental Duties listed in the Indian Constitution.
  • These duties emphasize the importance of a responsible citizenry in maintaining the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of the nation.
  • Some of the duties include respecting the Constitution, the national flag, and the national anthem, and protecting the natural environment.
  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • This amendment is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to its wide-ranging impact.
  • It was enacted during the Emergency period by the Indira Gandhi government.
  • In addition to the introduction of Fundamental Duties, it also brought significant changes to the Preamble, the Seventh Schedule, and the Union-State relations.
  • This amendment aimed to give more power to the central government and reduce the autonomy of the states.
  • Part IV-A of the Constitution
  • This part was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • It contains Article 51A, which enumerates the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
  • Part IV-A serves as a reminder that the citizens also have certain duties towards the nation, in addition to enjoying their rights.
  • Article 51A
  • This article lists the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India.
  • It includes duties such as abiding by the Constitution, promoting harmony, and safeguarding public property.
  • Although these duties are not enforceable by law, they are considered essential for the promotion of a sense of discipline and commitment among citizens.
36

Family planning was introduced in the __________ five - year plan. 

  1. ((a))

    third 

  2. ((b))

    second 

  3. ((c))

    sixth 

  4. ((d))

    first

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

first

The correct answer is first.

Key Points

  • Family planning in India was first introduced during the First Five-Year Plan period (1951-1956).
  • The program aimed to control the population growth rate and improve the health and well-being of families.
  • It was the first organized and systematic approach towards population control in India.
  • The initiative included measures such as promoting contraceptives, sterilization, and educating the public about family planning.

Additional Information

  • First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956)
  • India's First Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951, focusing on the agriculture sector, including irrigation and energy production.
  • It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and aimed to address the immediate challenges of food shortage and inflation.
  • The plan aimed to increase the national income by 11% over the five years and to achieve full employment.
  • The government allocated significant resources to health and family planning to improve the overall well-being of the population.
  • Family Planning
  • Family planning is the practice of controlling the number of children in a family and the intervals between their births.
  • It is achieved through the use of contraceptive methods and the treatment of involuntary infertility.
  • Family planning is a key component of reproductive health and aims to ensure that individuals have the knowledge and means to decide freely and responsibly the number and spacing of their children.
  • Effective family planning can help reduce maternal and infant mortality, improve women's health, and contribute to economic development.
  • Five-Year Plans in India
  • Five-Year Plans are centralized and integrated national economic programs developed by the Planning Commission of India.
  • The plans were designed to achieve specific economic goals over five years, focusing on different sectors such as agriculture, industry, and infrastructure.
  • The First Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951, and subsequent plans were developed to address emerging economic challenges and priorities.
  • Although the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015, the legacy of the Five-Year Plans continues to influence India's economic planning and policy-making.
37

Which of the following rights fall under Article 21 ? 

  1. ((a))

    Protection of language, culture of minorities

  2. ((b))

    Prohibition of discrimination on caste

  3. ((c))

    Protection of life and personal liberty

  4. ((d))

    Freedom to manage religious affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Protection of life and personal liberty

The correct answer is Protection of life and personal liberty.

Key Points

  • Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every individual.
  • This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens of India.
  • It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  • The scope of Article 21 has been expanded by the judiciary to include various derivative rights such as the right to privacy, the right to a healthy environment, the right to education, and the right to livelihood.

Additional Information

  • Protection of language, culture of minorities (Article 29)
  • Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of the interests of minorities by ensuring their right to conserve their language, script, or culture.
  • It grants the right to any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own to conserve the same.
  • Prohibition of discrimination on caste (Article 15)
  • Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • It ensures that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on these grounds in matters of access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and places of public entertainment.
  • Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26)
  • Article 26 provides every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
  • They have the freedom to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, own and acquire movable and immovable property, and administer such property according to law.
38

In which year did the members of the Indian Constituent Assembly first meet to draft a constitution for the country ? 

  1. ((a))

    1946 

  2. ((b))

    1948

  3. ((c))

    1947 

  4. ((d))

    1949

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1946 

The correct answer is 1946.

Key Points

  • The Constituent Assembly of India first met on 9 December 1946.
  • The Assembly was tasked with drafting the Constitution of India, which would lay the foundation for the country's governance and legal framework.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly on 11 December 1946.
  • The Assembly included prominent leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, among others.

Additional Information

  • Constituent Assembly:
  • The Constituent Assembly was formed to draft the Constitution of India after independence from British rule.
  • It consisted of 389 members, which included representatives from various provinces and princely states of India.
  • The Assembly held numerous sessions over a period of nearly three years, from 1946 to 1949.
  • The final draft of the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950, celebrated as Republic Day in India.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
  • He played a crucial role in shaping the Indian Constitution and is often referred to as the principal architect of the Constitution.
  • Ambedkar was a social reformer and a key advocate for the rights of Dalits and other marginalized communities in India.
  • Key Features of the Indian Constitution:
  • The Constitution of India establishes India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
  • It provides for a parliamentary system of government with a clear separation of powers between the executive, legislature, and judiciary.
  • The Constitution includes a comprehensive set of fundamental rights and duties for Indian citizens.
  • It also sets out the federal structure of government, with a division of powers between the central government and state governments.
39

For which of the following folk music is Lalon Fakir famous ? 

  1. ((a))

    Baul 

  2. ((b))

    Pandavani 

  3. ((c))

    Alha 

  4. ((d))

    Wanawan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Baul 

The correct answer is Baul.

Key Points

  • Lalon Fakir was a prominent figure in the Baul tradition, a unique folk music genre of Bengal.
  • The Baul tradition emphasizes simplicity, spirituality, and a quest for the divine through music and dance.
  • Lalon's songs and philosophy have a significant influence on Bengali culture and literature.
  • The Baul music tradition is characterized by its spontaneous, free-flowing, and often improvisational nature.

Additional Information

  • Baul
  • Baul music is a form of folk music from Bengal, which includes both Bangladesh and the Indian state of West Bengal.
  • It is known for its eclectic and syncretic mix of spiritual philosophies, drawing from Sufism, Hinduism, and Buddhism.
  • Baul singers, often referred to as Bauls, are mystic minstrels who express their spiritual beliefs through their music, which is often accompanied by instruments like the ektara (a one-stringed instrument).
  • The music is usually performed solo or in small groups and often involves a dance component.
  • Pandavani
  • Pandavani is a folk singing style from the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
  • It narrates tales from the Mahabharata, focusing on the stories of the Pandavas.
  • It is often performed by a single narrator with minimal musical accompaniment, usually a tambura or harmonium.
  • Alha
  • Alha is a form of ballad singing from the Bundelkhand region of India.
  • It narrates the heroic deeds of Alha and Udal, two legendary warriors of that region.
  • The ballads are sung in a high-pitched voice, often accompanied by traditional instruments.
  • Wanawan
  • Wanawan is a traditional Kashmiri folk music genre.
  • It is typically performed during wedding ceremonies and other festive occasions.
  • The music is characterized by its melodic and rhythmic patterns, often involving a chorus of singers.
40

Which of the following food is NOT iron rich?

  1. ((a))

    Spinach 

  2. ((b))

    Red meat

  3. ((c))

    Lemon 

  4. ((d))

    Peas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lemon 

The correct answer is Lemon.

Key Points

  • Lemon is not considered an iron-rich food. It is mainly known for its high vitamin C content.
  • Vitamin C in lemon helps in the absorption of iron from other foods, particularly plant-based sources.
  • Unlike spinach, red meat, and peas, lemon does not contribute significantly to dietary iron intake.
  • The primary nutrient in lemon is vitamin C, which supports the immune system and acts as an antioxidant.

Additional Information

  • Iron-Rich Foods
  • Spinach: A leafy green vegetable that is a good source of non-heme iron, especially important for vegetarians.
  • Red Meat: Contains heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant sources.
  • Peas: A legume that provides a moderate amount of non-heme iron, along with protein and fiber.
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is essential for the growth, development, and repair of body tissues.
  • It helps in the absorption of non-heme iron from plant-based foods, which can help prevent iron deficiency anemia.
  • Foods rich in vitamin C include citrus fruits like lemons, oranges, and grapefruits, as well as strawberries, bell peppers, and broccoli.
  • Regular consumption of vitamin C-rich foods can enhance the body's ability to absorb iron from plant sources, making them crucial for individuals on a vegetarian or vegan diet.
  • Iron Absorption
  • Iron absorption can be affected by several factors including the form of iron (heme vs non-heme), the presence of enhancers (like vitamin C), and inhibitors (like calcium and certain polyphenols).
  • Heme iron, found in animal products like red meat, is generally absorbed more efficiently by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods.
  • Consuming vitamin C-rich foods along with iron-rich plant foods can significantly improve the absorption of non-heme iron.
41

In which state is Mukhyamantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana launched ? 

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand 

  2. ((b))

    Odisha 

  3. ((c))

    Bihar 

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jharkhand 

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • The Mukhyamantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana is an initiative launched by the Government of Jharkhand.
  • This scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers in the state to promote agricultural development and increase productivity.
  • Under this scheme, farmers are provided with financial aid of up to INR 5,000 per acre for their Kharif crops.
  • The primary objective of the scheme is to enhance the income of farmers and ensure their economic stability.

Additional Information

  • Krishi Ashirwad Yojana:
  • It is a financial support scheme launched by the Jharkhand government to aid farmers in the state.
  • The scheme focuses on providing monetary assistance to farmers for their Kharif crops, aiming to increase agricultural productivity and farmer income.
  • The assistance provided under this scheme is expected to cover the cost of seeds, fertilizers, and other inputs required for farming.
  • By supporting farmers financially, the government aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of the agricultural community in Jharkhand.
  • Kharif Crops:
  • Kharif crops are typically sown with the onset of the monsoon in June and harvested in October during the rainy season.
  • Common Kharif crops include rice, maize, millet, and pulses.
  • These crops require ample water supply for their growth, making the monsoon season ideal for their cultivation.
  • The productivity of Kharif crops is highly dependent on the timing and amount of rainfall received during the monsoon.
  • Agricultural Development:
  • Agricultural development refers to the process of improving the efficiency and productivity of farming practices.
  • It involves the adoption of modern techniques, improved seed varieties, and better irrigation methods to enhance crop yield.
  • Government schemes like the Mukhyamantri Krishi Ashirwad Yojana play a crucial role in promoting agricultural development by providing necessary financial support to farmers.
  • Such initiatives aim to ensure food security, increase farmer income, and contribute to the overall economic growth of the region.
42

In the context of introducing the green revolution to Eastern India, a scheme called BGREI was launched. When was this scheme launched? 

  1. ((a))

    2005 - 06 

  2. ((b))

    2009 - 10 

  3. ((c))

    2010 - 11 

  4. ((d))

    2008 - 09

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2010 - 11 

The correct answer is 2010 - 11.

Key Points

  • The BGREI (Bringing Green Revolution to Eastern India) scheme was launched during the year 2010 - 11.
  • This scheme aims to improve the agricultural productivity in the Eastern Indian states.
  • BGREI focuses on addressing the constraints and harnessing the potential of Eastern India in rice-based cropping systems.
  • The scheme is a sub-scheme of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) and is implemented in seven states: Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution
  • The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in the developing world, starting in the 1950s and continuing through the 1960s.
  • The initiatives involved the development of high-yielding varieties of cereals, expansion of irrigation infrastructure, modernization of management techniques, distribution of hybridized seeds, synthetic fertilizers, and pesticides to farmers.
  • The Green Revolution led to a significant increase in food production, which helped to alleviate hunger and famine in many parts of the world.
  • However, it also brought about environmental and social issues, including soil degradation, water scarcity, and increased inequality among farmers.
  • Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
  • RKVY is a state plan scheme aimed at achieving 4% annual growth in agriculture through the development of agriculture and its allied sectors.
  • The scheme incentivizes states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors.
  • RKVY focuses on integrated development of agriculture and allied sectors, including crop husbandry, horticulture, animal husbandry, dairy development, fisheries, and rural infrastructure.
  • Agricultural Productivity
  • Agricultural productivity is a measure of the output of agricultural products compared to the inputs used, such as land, labor, and capital.Increasing agricultural productivity is crucial for ensuring food security, reducing poverty, and promoting sustainable development.
  • Factors affecting agricultural productivity include soil fertility, water availability, climate, technology, and farming practices.
  • Improving agricultural productivity can be achieved through various means, including the adoption of modern technologies, improved crop varieties, efficient irrigation systems, and better management practices.
43

What percentage of the total catchment area of the Krishna basin flows through Karnataka?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    62%

  3. ((c))

    31%

  4. ((d))

    44%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

44%

The correct answer is 0.44.

Key Points

  • The Krishna River basin is one of the major river basins in India and spans over multiple states including Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Karnataka holds a significant portion of the Krishna River basin’s catchment area.
  • Approximately 44% of the Krishna basin’s total catchment area flows through the state of Karnataka.
  • This percentage signifies the importance of Karnataka in terms of the Krishna River’s water resources and its utilization.

Additional Information

  • Krishna River:
  • The Krishna River is one of the longest rivers in India, originating in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
  • It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river is approximately 1,400 kilometers long and plays a crucial role in the irrigation and water supply for these states.
  • Catchment Area:
  • The catchment area of a river is the region from which all the precipitation flows to the river.
  • It is also known as a drainage basin or watershed.
  • The size and characteristics of the catchment area influence the volume and flow rate of the river.
  • Importance of Krishna River Basin:
  • The basin supports a large population with its water resources being used for drinking, irrigation, and industrial purposes.
  • Agriculture in the Krishna basin is heavily dependent on the river, making it a lifeline for millions of farmers.
  • It also has several important dams and reservoirs like the Almatti Dam, Srisailam Dam, and Nagarjuna Sagar Dam.
  • Water Sharing Disputes:
  • Due to its extensive use and importance, the Krishna River has been a subject of water sharing disputes among the states it flows through.
  • The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal has been constituted multiple times to adjudicate and allocate water sharing among the states.
44

The Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme is implemented by which Union Ministry? 

  1. ((a))

    Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

  2. ((b))

    Ministry of Parliament Affairs

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Social Justice and empowerment

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Home Affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

The correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Key Points

  • The Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation in India.
  • It was introduced in December 1993, with the aim to enable MPs to recommend developmental work in their constituencies with emphasis on creating durable community assets based on locally felt needs.
  • Under this scheme, each MP is allocated a specific amount of funds annually to carry out development activities in their respective constituencies.
  • The MPLAD scheme ensures that the funds are utilized for the developmental projects which primarily focus on the creation of durable assets for community use.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • This ministry is responsible for the development of the statistical system and coordination of statistical activities in India.
  • It oversees the implementation of the MPLAD scheme and ensures proper utilization of funds.
  • The ministry also monitors and evaluates various other government programs and initiatives to ensure their effective implementation.
  • Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme
  • It empowers MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets in their constituencies.
  • The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to respond to the local needs of their constituencies.
  • Funds under the MPLAD scheme are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities.
  • The district authorities are responsible for the overall implementation of the projects under the MPLAD scheme.
  • Other similar government schemes
  • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY): A nationwide plan in India to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages.
  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): A social security measure that aims to guarantee the 'right to work' and ensure livelihood security in rural areas.
  • Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana: A scheme aimed at alleviating urban and rural poverty through skill development and enhancing livelihood opportunities.
45

Who among the following recipients of Kalidas Samman is associated with Classical Dance? 

  1. ((a))

    Jagdish Swaminathan

  2. ((b))

    Sonal Mansingh

  3. ((c))

    Manna Dey

  4. ((d))

    Vilayat Khan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sonal Mansingh

The correct answer is Sonal Mansingh.

Key Points

  • Sonal Mansingh is a renowned Indian classical dancer and choreographer of Odissi dance style, and she is also proficient in Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi.
  • She has been honored with several prestigious awards including the Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2003 for her contributions to Indian classical dance.
  • Sonal Mansingh has played a pivotal role in popularizing Indian classical dance forms both in India and internationally.
  • She has been actively involved in various cultural and artistic initiatives and has also served as a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of India's Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Kalidas Samman
  • The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious arts award presented annually by the government of Madhya Pradesh in India.
  • It is named after the classical Sanskrit poet Kalidasa and is awarded for outstanding achievement in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual arts.
  • The award includes a cash prize, a citation, and a plaque.
  • Recipients of the Kalidas Samman are selected for their exceptional contribution to the preservation and promotion of Indian art and culture.
  • Jagdish Swaminathan
  • Jagdish Swaminathan was an influential Indian artist and writer known for his contributions to Indian modern art.
  • He was one of the founding members of the Group 1890, an avant-garde group of artists in India.
  • Manna Dey
  • Manna Dey was a legendary Indian playback singer known for his work in Hindi, Bengali, and other Indian languages.
  • He received numerous awards including the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award.
  • Vilayat Khan
  • Vilayat Khan was a renowned Indian sitar maestro and is considered one of the greatest sitar players of all time.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan but famously refused both honors.
46

The archaeological site of Inamgaon is situated at the bank of river Ghod which is a tributary of __________.

  1. ((a))

    Bhima 

  2. ((b))

    Mahanadi 

  3. ((c))

    Periyar 

  4. ((d))

    Ganga

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhima 

The correct answer is Bhima.

Key Points

  • The river Ghod is a tributary of the Bhima River which is a major river in Maharashtra, India.
  • Inamgaon, an archaeological site located on the banks of the river Ghod, has been studied extensively for its ancient human settlements.
  • The Bhima River itself is a major tributary of the Krishna River, which is one of the longest rivers in India.
  • The Bhima River basin is important for its agricultural and cultural significance in the region.

Additional Information

  • Inamgaon Archaeological Site
  • Inamgaon is an archaeological site located in the Pune district of Maharashtra.
  • The site has revealed substantial evidence of Chalcolithic (Copper Age) human settlements.
  • Excavations at Inamgaon have uncovered artifacts like pottery, tools, and remnants of ancient dwellings.
  • The site provides valuable insights into the lifestyle, culture, and agricultural practices of ancient communities.
  • Bhima River
  • The Bhima River originates from Bhimashankar hills in the Western Ghats, Maharashtra.
  • It flows southeast for about 861 kilometers before merging with the Krishna River.
  • The river passes through several important towns and cities, including Pune and Solapur.
  • The Bhima River basin is a crucial area for agriculture, supporting crops like sugarcane, millet, and rice.
  • Krishna River
  • The Krishna River is one of the major rivers in India, originating from Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats.
  • It flows across the Indian states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river spans a length of about 1,400 kilometers, making it one of the longest rivers in India.
  • The Krishna River basin is known for its fertile lands and diverse ecosystems, supporting a wide range of agricultural activities.
47

The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, which was one of the strongest political organisations of 19th century India in Maharashtra, was launched in the year: 

  1. ((a))

    1865 

  2. ((b))

    1870 

  3. ((c))

    1872 

  4. ((d))

    1868

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1870 

The correct answer is 1870.

Key Points

  • The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was one of the earliest political organizations in India and was founded in 1870.
  • It played a significant role in the political awakening and social reforms in Maharashtra during the 19th century.
  • Many prominent leaders of Indian National Congress like Bal Gangadhar Tilak were associated with this Sabha.
  • The organization was instrumental in laying the groundwork for the Indian freedom struggle.

Additional Information

  • Poona Sarvajanik Sabha:
  • Founded in 1870, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was one of the early political organizations in British India.
  • The Sabha aimed at addressing public grievances and representing Indian interests to the British authorities.
  • It was established by Mahadev Govind Ranade, S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and other social reformers.
  • The Sabha played a crucial role in mobilizing public opinion against the British rule and was a precursor to the Indian National Congress.
  • 19th Century Political Organizations in India:
  • Several political organizations were formed in the 19th century which laid the foundation for the Indian independence movement.
  • The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in 1885 and became a major force in the fight against British colonial rule.
  • Other significant organizations included the Indian Association (1876) and the Bombay Presidency Association (1885).
  • These organizations were instrumental in raising political consciousness and advocating for reforms and self-governance.
  • Maharashtra's Role in Indian Freedom Struggle:
  • Maharashtra was a key region in the Indian freedom struggle with several prominent leaders emerging from this state.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Vinayak Damodar Savarkar were among the notable freedom fighters from Maharashtra.
  • The region saw significant activities related to the Swadeshi movement, non-cooperation movement, and civil disobedience movement.
  • The contributions of Maharashtra to the Indian independence movement were profound and enduring.
48

Which of the following can be considered a DEMERIT of the parliamentary form of government ? 

  1. ((a))

    Wide representation

  2. ((b))

    Unstable government 

  3. ((c))

    Prevents despotism

  4. ((d))

    Responsible government

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Unstable government 

The correct answer is Unstable government.

Key Points

  • In a parliamentary system, the government is directly dependent on the support of the parliament, especially the lower house, which often leads to instability.
  • Frequent elections and changes in government can occur if the ruling party loses the confidence of the parliament.
  • Coalition governments are common in parliamentary systems, which can result in compromises and unstable governance.
  • Political instability can lead to challenges in long-term policy planning and implementation.

Additional Information

  • Wide representation:
  • This is an advantage of the parliamentary system where different sections of society are represented through elected members.
  • It ensures a diverse and inclusive government.
  • Prevents despotism:
  • In a parliamentary system, the executive is accountable to the legislature, which helps in preventing authoritarian rule.
  • Regular elections and parliamentary oversight ensure checks and balances.
  • Responsible government:
  • The executive is accountable to the parliament and, through it, to the electorate.
  • This accountability ensures that the government remains responsible and responsive to the needs of the people.
  • Unstable government:
  • This is a demerit as frequent changes in government can lead to inconsistency in policies and governance.
  • It can hinder long-term planning and development due to a lack of continuity.
49

Which of the following awards in the field of dance, art and music is given by the Government of Madhya Pradesh ? 

  1. ((a))

    Sanatan Sangeet Sankriti Samman

  2. ((b))

    Kalidas Samman 

  3. ((c))

    Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

  4. ((d))

    Tagore Ratna

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kalidas Samman 

The correct answer is Kalidas Samman.

Key Points

  • The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious award given by the Government of Madhya Pradesh in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and plastic arts.
  • It was instituted in 1980 and is named after the classical Sanskrit writer Kalidasa.
  • The award is presented annually and includes a cash prize, a plaque, and a citation.
  • The Kalidas Samman recognizes and honors the exceptional contribution of artists in their respective fields and promotes the cultural heritage of India.

Additional Information

  • Sanatan Sangeet Sanskriti Samman
  • It is an award that honors the contribution of artists in the field of Indian classical music and dance.
  • It is not specifically associated with the Government of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
  • It is the highest recognition given to practicing artists by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India’s National Academy of Music, Dance & Drama.
  • These awards are given by the Government of India and not specifically by the Government of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Tagore Ratna
  • It is an award instituted by the Indian government to honor the contributions of artists in the fields of music, dance, and theater.
  • The award is named after Rabindranath Tagore and is not specifically associated with the Government of Madhya Pradesh.
50

The Dehing Patkai festival is named after which of the following ? 

  1. ((a))

    River - Mountain

  2. ((b))

    Butterfly - Flower 

  3. ((c))

    Forest - Animal 

  4. ((d))

    Bird - Tree

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

River - Mountain

The correct answer is River - Mountain.

Key Points

  • Dehing is a river that flows through the Indian states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Patkai refers to the Patkai range, a group of hills on the India-Myanmar border, which is also known as the Patkai Bum.
  • The Dehing Patkai festival is celebrated to emphasize the rich natural heritage of the region, highlighting its significant river and mountainous features.
  • This festival helps in promoting tourism and awareness about the ecological importance of the Dehing river and Patkai hills.

Additional Information

  • Dehing River
  • The Dehing River, also known as the Burhi Dihing, is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
  • It originates in the eastern Himalayas and flows through the districts of Tinsukia and Dibrugarh in Assam.
  • The river is crucial for the agriculture and ecology of the region, supporting diverse flora and fauna.
  • It also plays a significant role in the cultural and economic activities of the local communities.
  • Patkai Range
  • The Patkai range, also known as the Patkai Bum, is a mountain range that forms a natural barrier between India and Myanmar.
  • The range includes several peaks, with the highest being Saramati, which stands at an elevation of 3,826 meters.
  • The Patkai hills are covered with dense forests, home to various wildlife species, including elephants, tigers, and several bird species.
  • The area is also known for its rich biodiversity and is part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot.
  • Dehing Patkai Festival
  • The Dehing Patkai Festival is an annual event organized by the Government of Assam.
  • The festival aims to promote the culture, traditions, and natural beauty of the region.
  • It includes various activities such as traditional dance performances, music, adventure sports, and eco-tourism events.
  • The festival attracts tourists from all over the country and helps boost the local economy.

Reasoning (25 questions)

51

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / deleting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.

(291, 138, 353)

(178, 154, 256)

  1. ((a))

    (410, 104, 428) 

  2. ((b))

    (331, 197, 452) 

  3. ((c))

    (125, 136, 191)

  4. ((d))

    (206, 148, 280)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(331, 197, 452) 

The logic followed here is:

(291, 138, 353)

(291 + 138) - 76 = 353

429 - 76 = 353

353 = 353 (LHS = RHS)

And,

(178, 154, 256) 

(291 + 138) - 76 = 353

429 - 76 = 353

353 = 353 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (410, 104, 428) 

(410 + 104) - 76 = 428

514 - 76 = 428

438 ≠ 428 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) (331, 197, 452)

(331 + 197) - 76 = 452

528 - 76 = 353

452 = 452 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) (125, 136, 191)

(125 + 136) - 76 = 191

261 - 76 = 191

185 ≠ 191 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) (206, 148, 280)

(206 + 148) - 76 = 280

354 - 76 = 280

278 ≠ 280 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options, '(331, 197, 452)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

52

In a code language, if BOWLER is coded as 25 - 12 - 4 - 15 - 22 - 9 and BATSMAN is coded as 25 - 26 - 7 - 8 - 14 - 26 - 13, then how will UMPIRE be coded? 

  1. ((a))

    7 - 15 - 12 - 19 - 10 - 23

  2. ((b))

    5 - 13 - 10 - 17 - 8 - 21

  3. ((c))

    6 - 15 - 11 - 19 - 9 - 23 

  4. ((d))

    6 - 14 - 11 - 18 - 9 - 22

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 - 14 - 11 - 18 - 9 - 22

The logic followed here is:

​BOWLER is coded as 25 - 12 - 4 - 15 - 22 - 9

And,

BATSMAN is coded as 25 - 26 - 7 - 8 - 14 - 26 - 13

Similarly,

UMPIRE is coded as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

53

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

54

Select a figure from amongst the four given options which, when placed in the blank space of figure (X), would complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

55

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements :

All keys are locks.

All locks are handles.

Conclusions :

I. Some locks are keys.

II. All keys are handles.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows 

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions I and II follow 

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusion I follows

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both conclusions I and II follow 

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some locks are keys → Follow (As all keys are locks. As whole keys comes in locks, therefore it is true.)

II. All keys are handles → Follow (As all keys are locks and all locks are handles. As whole keys comes in locks which whole comes in handles, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

56

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

Rocks : Mountain :: Grass : ?

  1. ((a))

    Garden 

  2. ((b))

    Sweets 

  3. ((c))

    Pen 

  4. ((d))

    Shop

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Garden 

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Environment and its components.

Here,

Rocks : Mountain → Rocks are components of a Mountain.

Similarly,

Grass : Garden → Grass is a component of a Garden.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

57

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

All symbols rotates in anticlockwise direction by 45°.

And a symbol is replaced by a new letter in front and back position alternatively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

58

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

59

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

60

Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a straight row facing north. Only two people sit to the left of D. Only two people sit between D and E. F sits to the immediate right of C. A sits to the immediate left of B. B is not a neighbour of D. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

Given: Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a straight row facing north.

1) Only two people sit to the left of D.

  1. Only two people sit between D and E.

3) B is not a neighbour of D.

  1. A sits to the immediate left of B.

  1. F sits to the immediate right of C.

Thus, C sits at the extreme left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

61

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

PDRY, QFQW, RHPU, ?, TLNQ

  1. ((a))

    JOSS 

  2. ((b))

    SOJS 

  3. ((c))

    SJOS 

  4. ((d))

    JSOS

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SJOS 

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "SJOS".

62

The given figure is followed by four option figures. Select the option figure in which this figure is embedded (i.e., contains this figure in the same form; rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

63

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded ?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

64

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12

Counting the triangles:

So, triangles are there in the given figure = 12

Hence, the correct answer is "12".

65

Select the figure from the given options that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern so that the final image is symmetrical.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

66

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term and the fifth term is related to the sixth term.

21 ∶ 35 ∶∶ ? ∶ 31 ∶∶ 23 ∶ 37

  1. ((a))

    19 

  2. ((b))

    18 

  3. ((c))

    20 

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

17

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 14 = 2nd number

Now,

For, 21 : 35

⇒ 21 + 14 = 35.

For, 23 : 37

⇒ 23 + 14 = 37.

Similarly, for ? ∶ 31

⇒ ? + 14 = 31.

⇒ ? = 31 - 14 = 17.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

67

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

84 ÷ 6 + 9 - 12 ×  3 = 41

  1. ((a))

    − and ×

  2. ((b))

    ÷ and ×

  3. ((c))
    • and ×
  4. ((d))

    − and +

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

− and +

Given equation: 84 ÷ 6 + 9 - 12 ×  3 = 41

Option 1) − and ×

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 84 ÷ 6 + 9 × 12 -  3 = 41

⇒ 14 + 9 × 12 -  3 = 41

⇒ 14 + 108 -  3 = 41

⇒ 122 -  3 = 41

⇒ 119 = 41

Option 2) ÷ and ×

After interchanging the signs:

84 × 6 + 9 - 12 ÷ 3 = 41

⇒ 84 × 6 + 9 - 4 = 41

⇒ 504 + 9 - 4 = 41

⇒ 514 - 4 = 41

⇒ 510 = 41

Option 3) + and ×

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 84 ÷ 6 × 9 - 12 +  3 = 41

⇒ 14 × 9 - 12 +  3 = 41

⇒ 126 - 12 +  3 = 41

⇒ 129 - 12 = 41

⇒ 117 = 41

Option 4) − and +

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 84 ÷ 6 - 9 + 12 ×  3 = 41

⇒ 14 - 9 + 12 ×  3 = 41

14 - 9 + 36 = 41

⇒ 50 - 9 = 41

⇒ 41 = 41

Hence, the correct answer is "− and +".

68

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure in which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

69

Select the number from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

9.9, 9, 8.2, 7.5, 6.9, ?

  1. ((a))

    6.1 

  2. ((b))

    6.2

  3. ((c))

    6.4

  4. ((d))

    6.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6.4

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "6.4".

70

If @ denotes ÷, # denotes ×, $ denotes + and % denotes −, then what will be the value of the following equation?

9 # 2 @ 2 $ 9 % 9 = ?

  1. ((a))

    36 

  2. ((b))

    27 

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

9

Given Equation: 9 # 2 @ 2 $ 9 % 9 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Symbol@#$%
Meaning÷×+-

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 9 × 2 ÷ 2 + 9 - 9 = ?

⇒ 9 × 1 + 9 - 9 = ?

⇒ 9 + 9 - 9 = ?

⇒ 18 - 9 = 9.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

71

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'MN' as shown below.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

72

Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is not allowed)

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The figure which is embedded in the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

73

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The best completes the pattern given:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

74

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Circle are divided in 7 sections and section is getting dark shaded by 1 with white dot.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

75

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) in the following series to continue the pattern?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Symbols are shifting their position from bottom-left to top-right position.

Top-right symbol is removed and new symbol is added in bottom-left position in each figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Numerical Ability (15 questions)

76

The LCM of two numbers is 1728 and their HCF is 4. If one of the numbers is 64, then the other number is:

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    216

  3. ((c))

    108

  4. ((d))

    144

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

108

Given:

LCM of two numbers = 1728

HCF of two numbers = 4

One of the numbers = 64

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

Calculation:

Let the other number be x.

Product of the two numbers = 64 × x

According to the formula,

64 × x = 1728 × 4

⇒ 64 × x = 6912

⇒ x = 6912 / 64

⇒ x = 108

The other number is 108.

77

A trader sells his goods at a loss of 12.5% ​​on the selling price. Find his loss percentage.

  1. ((a))

    1113\frac{1}{3} %

  2. ((b))

    1019\frac{1}{9} %

  3. ((c))

    1013\frac{1}{3} %

  4. ((d))

    1119\frac{1}{9} %

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1119\frac{1}{9} %

Given:

The trader sells goods at a loss of 12.5% on the selling price.

Formula used:

Loss percentage on cost price (CP):

\(\text{Loss %} = \frac{\text{Loss}}{\text{Cost Price}} \times 100\)

Relation between SP and CP under loss:

Selling Price (SP)=Cost Price (CP)Loss\text{Selling Price (SP)} = \text{Cost Price (CP)} - \text{Loss}

Calculations:

Let the selling price (SP) = ₹100.

Loss = 12.5% of SP = 12.512.5% \times 100 = ₹12.5.

Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss = ₹100 + ₹12.5 = ₹112.5.

Loss percentage on CP:

\(\text{Loss %} = \frac{12.5}{112.5} \times 100\)

\(\text{Loss %} = 11 %\)(\frac{1}{9}\)%

∴ The trader's loss percentage on cost price is 1119\frac{1}{9}%.

78

If A's income is 70% more than B's income, then what percentage less does B earn than A?

  1. ((a))

    351735\frac{1}{7}%

  2. ((b))

    4131741\frac{3}{17} %

  3. ((c))

    4111741\frac{1}{17} %

  4. ((d))

    3931739\frac{3}{17} %

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4131741\frac{3}{17} %

Given:

A's income is 70% more than B's income.

Formula Used:

Percentage less = (AB)A×100\frac{(A - B)}{A} \times 100

Calculation:

Let B's income = 100.

A's income = 100 + 70% of 100

A's income = 100 + 70

A's income = 170

Percentage less B earns than A = (170100)170×100\frac{(170 - 100)}{170} \times 100

⇒ Percentage less B earns than A = 70170×100\frac{70}{170} \times 100

⇒ Percentage less B earns than A = 717×100\frac{7}{17} \times 100

⇒ Percentage less B earns than A = 4131741\frac{3}{17}%

The correct answer is option 2.

79

A sum, when invested at 12121\over2% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹8,250 after 2 years. The simple interest is:

  1. ((a))

    ₹1,910

  2. ((b))

    ₹1,700

  3. ((c))

    ₹1,650

  4. ((d))

    ₹1,820

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

₹1,650

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 12.5% = 1/8 per year.

For 2 years, Total Interest = 2 × (1/8) = 1/4 of Principal.

Amount = Principal + Interest = 1 + 1/4 = 5/4 units.

5 units = ₹8,250 ⇒ 1 unit (Interest) = 8,250 ÷ 5 = ₹1,650.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,650.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 12.5% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Amount (A) = ₹8,250

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = P + SI = P × [1 + (R × T) ÷ 100]

Calculations:

⇒ 8,250 = P × [1 + (12.5 × 2) ÷ 100]

⇒ 8,250 = P × [1 + 25 ÷ 100]

⇒ 8,250 = P × [1 + 0.25]

⇒ 8,250 = 1.25P

⇒ P = 8,250 ÷ 1.25 = ₹6,600

⇒ SI = Amount − Principal

⇒ SI = 8,250 − 6,600 = ₹1,650

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,650.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest is calculated only on the Principal amount, whereas in Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the Principal plus accumulated interest.

Effective Rate of Interest

For Simple Interest, the effective rate for 'n' years is simply (R × n)%. For 12.5% over 2 years, the effective rate is 25%.

Fractional Conversion

Converting percentages to fractions (e.g., 12.5% = 1/8) often simplifies calculations in Aptitude exams.

80

What is the number of wax balls, each of radius 2 cm, that can be moulded out of a sphere of radius 6 cm? (Use π = (22)/(7))

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    27

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

27

Given:

Radius of the larger sphere (R) = 6 cm

Radius of each smaller wax ball (r) = 2 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = 43πr3\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3

Calculation:

Volume of the larger sphere:

43πR3\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3

43×227×63\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} × 6^3

43×227×216\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} × 216

4×22×2163×7\frac{4 × 22 × 216}{3 × 7}

1900821\frac{19008}{21}

⇒ 904 cm3

Volume of one smaller wax ball:

43πr3\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3

43×227×23\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} × 2^3

43×227×8\frac{4}{3} × \frac{22}{7} × 8

4×22×83×7\frac{4 × 22 × 8}{3 × 7}

70421\frac{704}{21}

⇒ 33.52 cm3

Number of smaller wax balls:

Volume of the larger sphereVolume of one smaller wax ball\frac{\text{Volume of the larger sphere}}{\text{Volume of one smaller wax ball}}

90433.52\frac{904}{33.52}

⇒ 26.97

≈ 27

The number of wax balls that can be moulded out of a sphere of radius 6 cm is 27.

81

If the price of sugar falls by 30%, by how much per cent must a householder increase its consumption, so as NOT to decrease its expenditure on sugar?

  1. ((a))

    38(6)/(7) %

  2. ((b))

    42(6)/(7) %

  3. ((c))

    35(6)/(7) %

  4. ((d))

    41(6)/(7) %

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

42(6)/(7) %

Given:

The price of sugar falls by 30%.

Formula Used:

Percentage increase in consumption = (Percentage decrease in price) / (1 - Fractional decrease in price)

Calculation:

Percentage decrease in price = 30%

Fractional decrease in price = 30 / 100 = 0.3

Percentage increase in consumption = (30 / (1 - 0.3))

Percentage increase in consumption = 30 / 0.7

Percentage increase in consumption = 4267%

The householder must increase its consumption by 4267% to not decrease its expenditure on sugar.

82

The ratio of the ages of two friends Ram and Shyam is 5 ∶ 3. If Ram is 12 years older than Shyam, then what is Shyam's age?

  1. ((a))

    20 years

  2. ((b))

    22 years

  3. ((c))

    24 years

  4. ((d))

    18 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18 years

Given:

The ratio of the ages of Ram and Shyam is 5 ∶ 3.

Ram is 12 years older than Shyam.

Formula used:

If the ratio of ages is aba ∶ b and the difference is given, then:

Difference=(Difference in ratio)×Age multiplier\text{Difference} = \text{(Difference in ratio)} \times \text{Age multiplier}.

Find the multiplier to calculate actual ages.

Calculations:

Let the common multiplier of the ratio be x.

Ram's age = 5x, Shyam's age = 3x.

Ram is 12 years older than Shyam:

5x3x=125x - 3x = 12

2x=122x = 12

x=6x = 6

Shyam's age = 3x=3×6=183x = 3 \times 6 = 18.

∴ Shyam's age is 18 years.

83

A thief escaped with a bike, riding at the speed of 70 km/h. A policeman arrived at the spot of the theft an hour after the bike was stolen and started chasing the thief. If the policeman drove his vehicle at the speed of 84 km/h, for how many hours did the policeman have to drive before catching the thief?

  1. ((a))

    4(1)/(2)

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    5(2)/(5)

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

Given:

Speed of the thief = 70 km/h.

Speed of the policeman = 84 km/h.

The policeman started chasing after 1 hour.

Formula Used:

Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = Distance / Relative Speed

Calculation:

Distance covered by the thief in 1 hour = 70 km

Relative Speed = Speed of the policeman - Speed of the thief

Relative Speed = 84 km/h - 70 km/h = 14 km/h

Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = Distance / Relative Speed

⇒ Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = 70 km / 14 km/h

⇒ Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = 5 hours

The policeman had to drive for 5 hours before catching the thief.

84

A tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The diameter of the cylinder is 32 m, and the height of the cylinder is 14 m, while the vertex of the cone is 26 m above the ground. What is the area of the canvas required for this tent? (Where π = 3.14)

  1. ((a))

    2047.94 m2

  2. ((b))

    3411.50 m2

  3. ((c))

    3011.42 m2

  4. ((d))

    2411.52 m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2411.52 m2

Given:

Diameter of the cylinder = 32 m

Radius of the cylinder (r) = 32 / 2 = 16 m

Height of the cylinder (hcyl) = 14 m

Height of the cone from the ground (htotal) = 26 m

Height of the cone (hcone) = htotal - hcyl = 26 - 14 = 12 m

Formula Used:

Surface area of the cylinder = 2πr hcyl

Surface area of the cone = πr√(r2 + hcone2)

Total area of the canvas = Surface area of the cylinder + Surface area of the cone

Calculation:

Surface area of the cylinder:

⇒ 2πr hcyl

⇒ 2 × 3.14 × 16 × 14

⇒ 1406.72 m2

Surface area of the cone:

⇒ πr√(r2 + hcone2)

⇒ 3.14 × 16 × √(162 + 122)

⇒ 3.14 × 16 × √(256 + 144)

⇒ 3.14 × 16 × √400

⇒ 3.14 × 16 × 20

⇒ 1004.80 m2

Total area of the canvas:

⇒ Surface area of the cylinder + Surface area of the cone

⇒ 1406.72 + 1004.80

⇒ 2411.52 m2

The area of the canvas required for the tent is 2411.52 m2.

85

What is the average of 1.7, 2.4, 35\frac{3}{5}, 4.34, 2.6 and 5 (rounded off to 3 decimal places)?

  1. ((a))

    1.973

  2. ((b))

    1.873

  3. ((c))

    1.937

  4. ((d))

    2.773

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2.773

Given:

The numbers are 1.7, 2.4, 35\frac{3}{5} , 4.34, 2.6, and 5.

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all numbersTotal count of numbers\frac{\text{Sum of all numbers}}{\text{Total count of numbers}}

Calculation:

Sum of all numbers = 1.7 + 2.4 + 35\frac{3}{5} + 4.34 + 2.6 + 5

First, calculate 35\frac{3}{5} :

35\frac{3}{5} = 0.6

Now, Sum of all numbers = 1.7 + 2.4 + 0.6 + 4.34 + 2.6 + 5

Sum of all numbers = 16.64

Total count of numbers = 6

Average = 16.646\frac{16.64}{6}

⇒ Average = 2.773

Rounded off to 3 decimal places, the average is 2.773.

The average of the given numbers, rounded off to 3 decimal places, is 2.773.

86

If 56 workers earn ₹4,080 in 5 days, how much will 48 workers earn in 14 days?

  1. ((a))

    ₹5,698

  2. ((b))

    ₹9,792

  3. ((c))

    ₹9,122

  4. ((d))

    ₹5,968

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹9,792

Given:

Number of workers = 56

Number of days = 5

Wages = Rs. 4080

Formula used:

M1D1/Wages1 = M2D2/Wages2  

M1, M2, D1, D2 are number of men and number of days  

Calculation:

M1 = 56; Wages1 = Rs. 4080, D1 = 5; M2 = 48; and D2 = 14

⇒ (56 × 5)/4080 = (48 × 14)/wages2

⇒ Wages = (48 × 14 × 4080)/(56 × 5)

⇒ Wages = Rs. 9792

∴ 48 workers earn Rs. 9792 in 14 days

87

The number of prime numbers between 301 and 320 is:

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

Concept used:

A prime number is a whole number greater than 1, whose only factor is 1 and the number itself.

Calculation:

The number between 301 and 320 are:

302, 303, 304, 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 310, 311, 312, 313, 314, 315, 316, 317, 318, 319

Prime numbers between 301 and 320 are:

307, 311, 313,  and 317.

So there are total 4 prime numbers between 301 and 320.

88

The marked price of an article is ₹420. It is sold for ₹368. If there is a loss of 8%, then by what percentage above the cost price is the article marked?

  1. ((a))

    6%

  2. ((b))

    8%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5%

Given:

Marked price of the article = ₹420

Selling price of the article = ₹368

Loss = 8%

Formula Used:

Loss % = (Cost Price - Selling Price)/(Cost Price) × 100

Marked Price % above Cost Price = (Marked Price - Cost Price)/(Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let Cost Price be CP.

Loss % = 8%

Loss = CP - Selling Price

⇒ 8% of CP = CP - ₹368

⇒ (8)/(100) × CP = CP - 368

⇒ 0.08CP = CP - 368

⇒ CP - 0.08CP = 368

⇒ 0.92CP = 368

⇒ CP = (368)/(0.92)

⇒ CP = 400

Marked Price % above Cost Price = (Marked Price - Cost Price)/(Cost Price) × 100

⇒ (420 - 400)/(400) × 100

⇒ (20)/(400) × 100

⇒ (1)/(20) × 100

⇒ 5%

The marked price of the article is 5% above the cost price.

89

What is the sum of all the prime numbers between 57 and 75 ?

  1. ((a))

    431

  2. ((b))

    331

  3. ((c))

    221

  4. ((d))

    421

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

331

Given:

We need to find the sum of all the prime numbers between 57 and 75.

Formula Used:

Sum of prime numbers = Sum of all prime numbers in the given range

Calculation:

Prime numbers between 57 and 75 are: 59, 61, 67, 71, 73

Sum of prime numbers = 59 + 61 + 67 + 71 + 73

⇒ Sum of prime numbers = 59 + 61 = 120

⇒ Sum of prime numbers = 120 + 67 = 187

⇒ Sum of prime numbers = 187 + 71 = 258

⇒ Sum of prime numbers = 258 + 73 = 331

The sum of all the prime numbers between 57 and 75 is 331.

90

A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at compound interest. In how many years will it become sixteen times?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

40

Given:

A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at compound interest.

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: A = P(1 + r/n)nt

Where A = amount, P = principal, r = rate of interest, n = number of times interest applied per time period, t = time.

To find the number of years to become sixteen times, we use the formula A = P(1 + r)t because interest is compounded annually.

Calculation:

Given: A = 2P, t = 10 years

⇒ 2P = P(1 + r)10

⇒ 2 = (1 + r)10

We need to find the time when the amount becomes 16 times the principal.

⇒ 16P = P(1 + r)t

⇒ 16 = (1 + r)t

Since 2 = (1 + r)10, we can write:

⇒ 16 = 24 = ((1 + r)10)4/10

⇒ 16 = (1 + r)4

So, t = 4 × 10 = 40 years.

In 40 years, the sum of money will become sixteen times.

Computer Awareness (10 questions)

91

Which of the following features in MS Excel 365 involves setting the system to adjust cells to fit their contents automatically so that all the information is visible? 

  1. ((a))

    Fit sheet on one page

  2. ((b))

    Cellwidth 

  3. ((c))

    AutoFit 

  4. ((d))

    FittoCell

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

AutoFit 

The correct answer is AutoFit.

Key Points

  • AutoFit in MS Excel automatically adjusts the width of a column or the height of a row to fit the contents of the cells.
  • This feature helps in making sure that all the data within a cell is visible without needing to manually adjust the size of the cell.
  • It can be applied to a single column/row or multiple columns/rows at once.
  • Using AutoFit is particularly useful when dealing with large datasets where manually adjusting cell size would be time-consuming.

Additional Information

  • Fit Sheet on One Page
  • This option is used in the printing settings of Excel to fit an entire sheet onto a single page for printing.
  • It scales the content of the sheet so that all columns and rows fit on one page, which may make the content smaller and harder to read.
  • Cell Width
  • Cell width refers to the width of a single cell or a range of cells in an Excel sheet.
  • It can be adjusted manually by dragging the border of the column header or by specifying the width in the column width dialog box.
  • Fit to Cell
  • This is not a standard term or feature in MS Excel. It might be confused with the AutoFit feature.
92

What is the main objective of the Inbox within an email mailbox ? 

  1. ((a))

    To store received emails 

  2. ((b))

    To schedule email reminders

  3. ((c))

    To use as trash can

  4. ((d))

    To manage contacts and address book

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To store received emails 

The correct answer is To store received emails.

Key Points

  • The Inbox is the primary folder in an email mailbox where all incoming emails are stored.
  • It allows users to read, manage, and organize their received messages.
  • Emails in the Inbox can be moved to other folders, archived, or deleted as needed.
  • The Inbox is typically the first place users check when they open their email application to see if they have any new messages.

Additional Information

  • Email Mailbox:
  • An email mailbox is a digital storage location where email messages are received, stored, and managed.
  • It typically consists of several folders such as Inbox, Sent, Drafts, Spam, and Trash.
  • The primary purpose of an email mailbox is to provide users with a centralized place to access and organize their email communications.
  • Inbox:
  • The Inbox is a folder in the email mailbox where incoming messages are stored until they are read or moved by the user.
  • It is the default location for new messages and often includes features for marking emails as read/unread, flagging important messages, and sorting by date, sender, or subject.
  • Email Reminders:
  • Email reminders are notifications sent to remind users of important tasks or upcoming events.
  • They can be scheduled within some email applications to help manage tasks and deadlines.
  • Trash Can:
  • The Trash Can, or Trash folder, is where deleted emails are temporarily stored before they are permanently removed.
  • Users can recover emails from the Trash folder if they delete them accidentally, but these emails are usually purged after a certain period.
  • Contacts and Address Book:
  • The Contacts or Address Book is a feature within email applications that allows users to store and manage contact information.
  • It includes details like email addresses, phone numbers, and other personal information for easy access and communication.
93

Which action should be taken to copy and paste text within a MS word 365 document? 

  1. ((a))

    Use the ‘Find and Replace’ function to copy and move text to the desired location. 

  2. ((b))

    Drag and drop the text to the desired location within the document. 

  3. ((c))

    Delete the text and retype it in the desired location to move it.

  4. ((d))

    Select the text, press ‘Ctrl + C’ to copy, and ‘Ctrl + V’ to paste it to the desired location.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Select the text, press ‘Ctrl + C’ to copy, and ‘Ctrl + V’ to paste it to the desired location.

The correct answer is Select the text, press 'Ctrl + C' to copy, and 'Ctrl + V' to paste it to the desired location..

Key Points

  • In MS Word 365, the 'Ctrl + C' command is used to copy the selected text to the clipboard.
  • The 'Ctrl + V' command is used to paste the copied text from the clipboard to the desired location.
  • This method is quick and efficient for moving or duplicating text within a document.
  • It preserves the original formatting of the copied text, ensuring consistency within the document.

Additional Information

  • Find and Replace:
  • The 'Find and Replace' function is used to locate specific text within a document and replace it with different text.
  • It is not used for copying and pasting text.
  • Drag and Drop:
  • This method involves selecting text and dragging it to a new location within the document.
  • While it can be used to move text, it is not as precise or efficient as using 'Ctrl + C' and 'Ctrl + V'.
  • Deleting and Retyping:
  • This method involves deleting the text from its original location and retyping it at the new location.
  • It is time-consuming and prone to errors, making it an inefficient way to move text.
  • Clipboard:
  • The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
  • When text is copied using 'Ctrl + C', it is stored in the clipboard until it is pasted using 'Ctrl + V'.
94

In Microsoft Word 365, what is the purpose of text formatting ? 

  1. ((a))

    Adding decorative images 

  2. ((b))

    Modifying the appearance of text 

  3. ((c))

    Changing the document's font 

  4. ((d))

    Enhancing page layout

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Modifying the appearance of text 

The correct answer is Modifying the appearance of text.

Key Points

  • Text formatting in Microsoft Word 365 allows users to alter the visual presentation of the text to enhance readability and emphasize important sections.
  • It includes changing font type, size, color, and style (e.g., bold, italic, underline).
  • Other formatting options include alignment (left, right, center, justify) and line spacing adjustments.
  • Text formatting also encompasses applying themes and styles to ensure a consistent and professional look throughout the document.

Additional Information

  • Font Type
  • The font type determines the overall design of the text characters. Common font types include Arial, Times New Roman, and Calibri.
  • Choosing the right font type can significantly impact the document's readability and professional appearance.
  • Font Size
  • Font size specifies the height of the characters in the text. It is typically measured in points (pt).
  • Standard font sizes for body text usually range from 10pt to 12pt, while headings may be larger.
  • Font Color
  • Font color changes the color of the text to make it more visually appealing or to highlight important sections.
  • Users can choose from a wide range of colors to suit their document's theme or purpose.
  • Text Styles
  • Text styles include bold, italic, and underline, which are used to emphasize specific parts of the text.
  • Combining different styles can help to create a hierarchy of information and improve document clarity.
  • Alignment
  • Text alignment refers to the positioning of text within the document margins (left, right, center, or justify).
  • Proper alignment ensures a neat and organized appearance, making the document easier to read.
  • Line Spacing
  • Line spacing controls the amount of space between lines of text. It can be adjusted to improve readability or to fit more text on a page.
  • Common line spacing options include single, 1.5 lines, and double spacing.
  • Themes and Styles
  • Themes are pre-designed sets of formatting choices that can be applied to an entire document to ensure a consistent look.
  • Styles are predefined combinations of text formatting attributes (such as font, size, and color) that can be applied to text segments to maintain consistency.
95

In MS Excel 365, the COUNT function is used to _______. 

  1. ((a))

    count the numbers in the dataset 

  2. ((b))

    count the objects in the dataset 

  3. ((c))

    count the rows in the dataset

  4. ((d))

    count the columns in the dataset

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

count the numbers in the dataset 

The correct answer is count the numbers in the dataset.

Key Points

  • The COUNT function in Excel is specifically designed to count the number of cells that contain numbers within a range.
  • This function ignores empty cells, text, and logical values within the specified range.
  • It is a very useful function for quickly determining the number of numeric entries in a dataset.
  • The COUNT function only considers cells with numeric data, making it different from COUNTA, which counts all cells that are not empty.

Additional Information

  • COUNT Function:
  • The COUNT function is one of Excel's statistical functions and is used to count the number of numerical entries in a dataset.
  • Syntax: COUNT(value1, [value2], ...), where value1, value2, ... are the values or ranges to be counted.
  • Example: =COUNT(A1:A10) will count all numeric values in the range A1 to A10.
  • It is important to note that COUNT only counts cells with numbers and does not count text, logical values, or errors.
  • COUNTA Function:
  • COUNTA is another Excel function that counts the number of non-empty cells in a range.
  • Syntax: COUNTA(value1, [value2], ...)
  • It counts cells containing numbers, text, logical values, and errors.
  • Example: =COUNTA(A1:A10) will count all non-empty cells in the range A1 to A10.
  • COUNTIF Function:
  • COUNTIF is used to count the number of cells that meet a specific criterion.
  • Syntax: COUNTIF(range, criteria)
  • Example: =COUNTIF(A1:A10, ">5") will count the number of cells in the range A1 to A10 that have values greater than 5.
  • COUNTBLANK Function:
  • COUNTBLANK counts the number of empty cells in a specified range.
  • Syntax: COUNTBLANK(range)
  • Example: =COUNTBLANK(A1:A10) will count the number of empty cells in the range A1 to A10.
96

In MS - Word 365, which option allows you to apply a specific style to a selected portion of text, such as changing the font, font size, color and other formatting attributes, while keeping the rest of the text unaffected ?

  1. ((a))

    Character Style

  2. ((b))

    Format Painter

  3. ((c))

    Quick Style

  4. ((d))

    Clear Formatting

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Format Painter

The correct answer is Format Painter.

Key Points

  • Format Painter is a feature in MS Word that allows you to copy formatting from one part of the text and apply it to another.
  • It helps in quickly applying a specific style to a selected portion of text while keeping the rest of the text unaffected.
  • You can use Format Painter by selecting the text with the desired formatting, clicking the Format Painter icon, and then selecting the text you want to format.
  • Format Painter can be used multiple times by double-clicking the icon, allowing for consistent formatting across multiple sections of a document.

Additional Information

  • Character Style:
  • Character styles are a collection of character formatting attributes that can be applied to text in MS Word.
  • They include font type, size, color, and other text properties.
  • However, character styles are applied to entire sections or selected text, not just a portion within a selected text.
  • Quick Style:
  • Quick Styles are predefined styles in MS Word that you can use to quickly format text.
  • They include a combination of font, color, and size settings designed to create a cohesive look for your document.
  • Quick Styles are typically used for larger sections such as headings, paragraphs, and lists.
  • Clear Formatting:
  • The Clear Formatting option removes all formatting from the selected text, reverting it to the default style of the document.
  • It is useful when you need to start fresh with the formatting of a particular section of text.
97

Which of the following shortcut keys is used in MS Excel 365 to enter data on a new line within a cell, enter a line break ? 

  1. ((a))

    Shift + Enter 

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Enter 

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl + Shift + Enter 

  4. ((d))

    Alt + Enter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alt + Enter

The correct answer is Alt + Enter.

Key Points

  • Alt + Enter is used to create a new line within the same cell in MS Excel 365.
  • This shortcut is particularly useful for entering multi-line text within a single cell.
  • It allows for better organization of data and enhances readability without needing to merge cells.
  • Pressing Alt + Enter will insert a line break at the cursor's position within the cell.

Additional Information

  • Shift + Enter
  • Shift + Enter is used to move up one cell in a worksheet.
  • It is not used for entering data on a new line within a cell.
  • Ctrl + Enter
  • Ctrl + Enter is used to fill the selected cell range with the current entry.
  • It can also be used to stay in the same cell after entering data instead of moving to the next cell.
  • Ctrl + Shift + Enter
  • Ctrl + Shift + Enter is used to enter an array formula in Excel.
  • Array formulas allow multiple calculations to be performed on one or more items in an array.
  • Alt + Enter
  • Alt + Enter is specifically used to insert a line break within a cell in MS Excel.
  • This helps in structuring data more effectively within a single cell.
98

In MS word 365 Which statement accurately describes the difference between bullets and numbering in document formatting ?

  1. ((a))

    Bullets are used for unordered lists, while numbering is used for ordered lists.

  2. ((b))

    Bullets can be applied to individual paragraphs, while numbering applies only to entire sections.

  3. ((c))

    Bullets and numbering both serve the same purpose and can be used interchangeably. 

  4. ((d))

    Bullets and numbering are not applicable in document formatting and are used for graphic design purposes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bullets are used for unordered lists, while numbering is used for ordered lists.

The correct answer is Bullets are used for unordered lists, while numbering is used for ordered lists..

Key Points

  • Bullets are used to create lists where the order of the items does not matter.
  • Numbering is used to create lists where the sequence of items is important.
  • Bullets are often used for highlighting key points in a document.
  • Numbered lists help in organizing steps or instructions that need to be followed in a specific order.

Additional Information

  • Bullets:
  • Bullets are represented by symbols such as dots, circles, or other graphical icons.
  • They are used to emphasize individual points in a list where the order is not important.
  • Commonly used in presentations, documents, and web content to improve readability.
  • Example:
  • Item 1
  • Item 2
  • Item 3
  • Numbering:
  • Numbering sequences items with numbers or letters, indicating a specific order.
  • Used for lists where the sequence is crucial, such as instructions or steps in a process.
  • Helps in organizing content that needs to be followed in a particular order.
  • Example:
  1. Step 1
  2. Step 2
  3. Step 3
  • Document Formatting:
  • Document formatting refers to the way text and images are arranged on a page.
  • Includes aspects like font size, style, margins, bullet points, numbering, and alignment.
  • Proper formatting enhances the readability and aesthetic appeal of a document.
  • Tools like MS Word provide various formatting options to customize documents as per requirements.
99

What is the role of routers in Internet architecture ? 

  1. ((a))

    To provide security for Internet connections 

  2. ((b))

    To receive and send data on computer networks.

  3. ((c))

    To translate IP addresses into domain names

  4. ((d))

    To connect devices to the Internet

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To receive and send data on computer networks.

The correct answer is To receive and send data on computer networks.

Key Points

  • Routers are networking devices that forward data packets between computer networks.
  • They perform traffic directing functions on the Internet and ensure that data sent from one network gets to the right destination.
  • Routers operate at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model, making decisions based on IP addresses.
  • They connect different networks together, enabling communication between devices on different networks and managing traffic efficiently.

Additional Information

  • IP Address:
  • An Internet Protocol (IP) address is a unique identifier assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the IP for communication.
  • IP addresses are used by routers to determine the destination of data packets.
  • Domain Name System (DNS):
  • The DNS translates domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that routers and switches can use to route packets.
  • While crucial for user-friendly web navigation, translating IP addresses into domain names is not the primary function of routers.
  • Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI Model:
  • The network layer is responsible for the delivery of packets from the source host to the destination host based on their IP addresses.
  • Routers are critical components at this layer, managing the path that data takes to reach its destination.
  • Switches vs. Routers:
  • While both switches and routers are used in network environments, they serve different purposes.
  • Switches operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) and are used to connect devices within the same network, while routers operate at the network layer and are used to connect different networks.
100

How do we combine regions from multiple authors into a single Microsoft Word 365 document ? 

  1. ((a))

    By Combine

  2. ((b))

    By Block Authors

  3. ((c))

    By Restrict Editing

  4. ((d))

    By Compare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

By Combine

The correct answer is By Combine.

Key Points

  • The "Combine" feature in Microsoft Word 365 allows users to merge changes from multiple authors into a single document, making it easier to review and incorporate edits.
  • This feature is particularly useful for collaborative projects where multiple contributors are working on different parts of a document.
  • Using "Combine," users can track changes from different authors, ensuring that no contributions are lost or overlooked during the editing process.
  • The process involves selecting the documents to be combined and then reviewing the changes in the merged document, where each author's edits are highlighted distinctly.

Additional Information

  • Combine:
  • The "Combine" feature is designed for merging multiple versions of a document that have been edited by different authors. It helps in consolidating all changes and comments into one document for easier review and editing.
  • To use the "Combine" feature, navigate to the "Review" tab in Microsoft Word 365, select "Compare," and then choose "Combine." You can then select the documents you want to merge.
  • The combined document will show the changes from each author in different colors, making it easy to identify who made which changes.
  • This feature is essential for maintaining the integrity of collaborative work and ensuring that all contributions are acknowledged and considered.
  • Block Authors:
  • This feature allows you to restrict certain parts of a document so that only specific authors can edit them. It's useful for protecting sensitive sections of a document from unwanted changes.
  • To block authors, select the content you want to protect, go to the "Review" tab, and choose "Block Authors."
  • Blocked sections will have a lock icon, indicating that they are protected from edits by unauthorized users.
  • Restrict Editing:
  • Restrict Editing is a feature that allows you to control what types of changes can be made to a document. This can include restricting formatting, editing, or allowing only certain types of changes.
  • To restrict editing, go to the "Review" tab, select "Restrict Editing," and choose the restrictions you want to apply.
  • This feature is useful for maintaining the structure and formatting of a document while allowing limited editing.
  • Compare:
  • The "Compare" feature in Microsoft Word 365 allows you to compare two versions of a document and see the differences between them.
  • To use this feature, go to the "Review" tab, select "Compare," and choose the documents you want to compare.
  • The comparison will highlight changes, deletions, and additions, making it easy to review the differences between the documents.
  • This feature is useful for tracking changes over time or comparing contributions from different authors.

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