Delhi Police Constable (Executive) 2023 Official Paper (Held On 01 Dec, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14 deals with The Right to Equality.
• Article 14:
• ​Articles 14-18 deal with the Right to Equality.
• Equality before the law.
• The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the law within the territory of India.

Additional Information

• Article 23 prohibits human beings and other similar forms of forced labour.
• Nothing in article 23 shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for a public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
• Article 21:
• Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike.
• Supreme Court has described this right as the "heart of fundamental rights".
• According to Justice Bhagwati, Article 21 "embodies a constitutional value of supreme importance in a democratic society."
• Article 21 secures two rights: The right to life and the Right to personal liberty.
• ​Article 17
• Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
• Indian Parliament passed an Untouchability (offenses) Act in 1955.
• Article 17 was adopted by the constituent assembly with slogans of “Mahatma Gandhi ki Jai”
• The term ‘untouchability’ is not defined in the Constitution or in the Act.

The correct answer is Uday Shankar.

Key Points

• Uday Shankar is regarded as the Father of Modern Dance in India.
• Uday Shankar was an Indian dancer and choreographer
• He fused European theatrical techniques with Indian classical dance to create a unique style.
• His dance innovation influenced India, Europe, and the US in the 1920s and 1930s.
• In 1938, Uday Shankar founded the Uday Shankar India Culture Centre in Almora, Uttaranchal (now Uttarakhand).
• Together with his brother, the sitarist Ravi Shankar, he explored classical and folk dance
• In 1962, he was awarded by Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy for Music, Dance and Drama.
• In 1971, the Govt. of India, awarded him its second highest civilian award the Padma Vibhushan.

Additional Information

• Vempati Chinna Satyam
• The legend Vempati Chinna Satyam(15 October 1929 – 29 July 2012) was associated with the dance form Kuchipudi.
• He is known to popularize the dance form worldwide.
• He is a recipient of several awards including Sangeet Peeth of Bombay and Raja Lakshmi Award of Madras.
• Bipin Singh
• Guru Bipin Singh is associated with Manipuri dance form.
• Manipuri is a classical dance form originated in the north-eastern state of Manipur.
• This dance form is known for its graceful movements, unique costumes, and use of props like cymbals, bamboo flutes, and drums.
• Guru Bipin Singh is considered as one of the pioneers of Manipuri dance and has contributed significantly to its growth and popularity.
• Kelucharan Mahapatra​
• Kelucharan Mahapatra, Sonal Mansingh and Geeta Mahalik famous dancers of Odissi.
• Odissi, also referred to as Orissa in old literature, is a major ancient Indian classical dance that origin in the Hindu temples of Odisha – an eastern coastal state of India.
• Odissi Dance originates from the Indian state of Odisha.
• According to Natya Shastra, ‘Odhra Magadha’ is the earliest form of present-day Odissi Dance.
• Odissi is one of the eight Indian Classical Dances.

The correct answer is Ginkgo.

Key Points

• **Blood disorders **​
• Blood disorders encompass a wide range of conditions affecting blood cells, platelets, or plasma proteins. Common examples include:
• Anemia: Characterized by a deficiency in red blood cells or hemoglobin, leading to fatigue and weakness.
• Hemophilia: A genetic disorder causing impaired blood clotting, resulting in excessive bleeding.
• Sickle Cell Disease: An inherited condition where red blood cells are abnormally shaped, causing pain and organ damage.
• Leukemia: A type of cancer affecting white blood cells, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.
• Thrombocytopenia: A condition characterized by a low platelet count, increasing the risk of bleeding.
• Polycythemia Vera: A disorder involving the overproduction of red blood cells, increasing blood viscosity.

The correct answer is Appellate jurisdiction in regard to criminal matters (Art. 134).

Key Points

• Article 124 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court. The Chief Justice of India shall be appointed by the President.
• The retirement age of Supreme Court Judge is 65 years and for High Court Judge is 62 years. The judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by the President on the ground of misbehaviour and incapacity.
• Article 141 provides that law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. Doctrine of Precedent is also recognised under this Article.

Additional Information

• The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can broadly be categorised into original jurisdiction, appellate jurisdiction and advisory jurisdiction. However, there are other multiple powers of the Supreme Court.
• At present there are 34 Judges in the Supreme Court.
• The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. The CJI is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary.

The correct answer is Rangarajan Committee.

Key Points

• Rangarajan Committee
• The government formed the Rangarajan Committee to review the standards and methods of the Tendulkar Committee.
• The Rangarajan Committee has rejected the Tendulkar Committee's assessment, saying that three out of every ten people in the country are poor.
• However, the number of poor has decreased in two years.
• The Rangarajan committee has submitted the report to Planning Minister Rao Inderjit Singh.
• No action was taken by the Central Government on the Rangarajan Committee report, due to which the people living in poverty in the country are calculated on the basis of the poverty line set by the Tendulkar Committee.
• According to the Tendulkar Committee, 21.9% of the total population of India lives below the poverty line.
• The Tendulkar Committee in its report had fixed the poverty line at Rs 1000 (per person per month) for households living in urban areas and Rs 816 for rural households.
• According to the Tendulkar committee the person who spent Rs 33 per day was considered poor.
• In September 2009-10, this assessment of the Tendulkar Committee was criticized by the Rangarajan Committee.

Additional Information

• Lakdawala Committee
• Lakdawala Committee was constituted in the year 1989 for poverty estimation in the country and the committee submitted its report in 1993.
• This committee defined the poverty line on the basis of household per capita consumption expenditure. The committee used CPI-IL (Consumer Price Index for Industrial Laborers) and CPI- AL (Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Laborers) for estimation of the poverty line.
• Calorie consumption was fixed at 2400 calories and 2100 calories in rural and urban areas respectively. It was fixed by Y K Alagh Committee before which was later on followed in this committee.
• There was also a proposal to discontinue the scaling of poverty estimates based on National Accounts Statistics.
• State-specific poverty lines should be formed as well and regular up gradation of statistics should be done for rural and urban areas

Kirith Parekh Committee:

• The committee has been tasked with suggesting a "fair price to the end-consumer" while ensuring a "market-oriented, and reliable pricing regime for India's long-term vision for ensuring domestically produced natural gas". Hence option 4 is correct.
• Recommendations of Kirit Parekh Panel:
• It recommended a floor and ceiling price for legacy fields and complete pricing freedom starting January 1, 2026.
• A fixed band of pricing for gas from legacy fields, which makes up for two-thirds of all-natural gas produced in the country, would ensure a predictable pricing regime for producers. At the same time, it will moderate prices of CNG and piped cooking gas which has shot up by 70% since last year on the back of a surge in input cost.
• The panel has suggested linking the price of gas produced by state-owned firms from fields given to them on a nomination basis to imported crude oil prices rather than benchmarking them to gas rates in international markets. The rates thus arrived would be subject to a floor and ceiling.
• State producers Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Oil India Ltd (OIL) will be paid a price linked to imported oil but it will have a minimum or floor price of $4 per million British thermal unit and a cap or ceiling price of$6.5.
• This compares to the current rate of $8.57 derived from a formula linked to the price prevailing in gas-surplus nations.
• The ceiling rate for this gas from legacy or old fields, called APM gas, will be increased by $0.5 per mmBtu annually.
• From January 1, 2027, the panel has suggested market-determined pricing of APM gas. The panel was in favor of not tinkering with the existing pricing formula for fields in difficult geology such as KG-D6 of Reliance Industries and bp plc.
• Dandekar Committee
• VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971), made the first systematic assessment of poverty in India, based on National Sample Survey (NSS) data.
• Unlike previous scholars who had considered subsistence living or basic minimum needs criteria as the measure of the poverty line, VM Dandekar and N Rath were of the view that the poverty line must be derived from the expenditure that was adequate to provide 2250 calories per day in both rural and urban areas.
• Expenditure-based Poverty line estimation generated a debate on minimum calorie consumption norms.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.
• ​NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• While designing strategic and long term policies and programs for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
• The Prime Minister as its Chairman comprises Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories (UTs).
• The Government of India, in keeping with its reform agenda, constituted the NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission instituted in 1950.
• This was done in order to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people of India.
• NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential platform of the Government of India to bring States to act together in the national interest, and thereby fosters Cooperative Federalism.
• Composition: (as of Feb 2021)

1. ​Chairperson: Shri Narendra Modi, Hon'ble Prime Minister
2. Vice-Chairperson: Dr. Rajiv Kumar
3. Full-Time Members: Shri V.K. Saraswat, Prof. Ramesh Chand, Dr. V. K. Paul
4. CEO: Shri Amitabh Kant
5. Ex-officio Members: Shri Raj Nath Singh (Minister of Defence) Shri Amit Shah (Minister of Home Affairs) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (Minister of Finance and Minister of Corporate Affairs) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar (Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Minister of Rural Development; Minister of Panchayati Raj

The correct answer is new economic reforms.

Key Points

• New economic policy-
• ​New economic policy was adopted in 1991 in India during a typical economic crisis.
• India was facing macroeconomic problems such as inflation, the inverse balance of payment, higher fiscal deficits, the oil crisis, inverse foreign exchange reverse etc during the 90s.
• To combat these macroeconomic problems India chose to reform the economy following the IMF and World Bank.
• Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation were three broad policies in the New economic policy.

Additional Information

• Liberalisation-Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is what is known as liberalisation.
• Privatisation-Process of Handovering the public sector economy to the private sector.
• Globalisation-Globalisation is this process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.

The correct answer is Godavari and Krishna.

Key Points

The correct answer is Sitar.

Key Points

• Pandit Ravi Shankar was a virtuoso sitar player and a composer who played a pivotal role in popularizing Indian classical music around the world.
• He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in recognition of his exceptional contribution to music.
• Ravi Shankar collaborated with several international musicians, notably George Harrison of The Beatles, which helped introduce sitar to western audiences in the 1960s.
• He was influential in the development of the fusion music genre, combining elements of Eastern and Western music to create unique sounds.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Habeas Corpus.

Key Points

• To enforce the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court is empowered under Article 32, to issue writs of various forms.
• Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.

Additional Information

• A writ consists of a formal written order that is issued by the judiciary.
• There are a total of five types of writs namely -
• Habeas corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Certiorari
• Quo-warranto
• Only the supreme court of India can issue writs in case of enforcement of fundamental rights.
• The supreme court can issue writs for the enforcement of rights other than fundamental rights under article 139.

The correct answer is Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq​
• Jauna Khan succeeded his father in AD 1325 under the title of Muhammad- bin-Tughlaq.
• He was the most learned scholar of his time and knew both Arabic and Persian and had a comprehensive knowledge of philosophy, astronomy, logic, mathematics, and physical science.
• The Sultan maintained good relationships with foreigners and received an envoy from the Chinese ruler.
• Toghan Timur (AD 1341), who came to seek permission to rebuild Buddhist Monasteries, in the Himalayan region which was destroyed during the crucial expedition.
• The sultan gave permission and sent Ibn Battuta to the court of the Chinese emperor in 1347.
• Ibn Battuta was a traveller from Morocco. He came to India in 1333 and was appointed as the chief Qazi of Delhi by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.

Additional Information

• Shamsud-Din Iltutmish
• He was a slave of Qutubuddin Aibak and occupied the throne of Delhi in 1211 AD after deposing Aram Bakhsh.
• He regarded as the ‘real founder of the Slave Dynasty and the Delhi Sultanate’ because he freed the Delhi Sultanate from the claim of suzerainty by the rulers of Ghazni.
• He made Delhi the capital in place of Lahore.
• He saved Delhi Sultanate from the wrath of Changez Khan by refusing shelter to Khwarizm Shah, whom Changez Khan was chasing.
• He got his authority (Sultanate of Delhi) recognised by the Caliph of Baghdad (Khalifa) as a member of the world fraternity of Islamic states.
• He completed the construction of Qutub Minar.
• He constituted a group of 40 nobles known as Turkan-i-Chahalgani or Chalisa.
• He started the Iqta-dar system in Delhi Sultanate. This is an assignment of land in lieu of salary, which he distributed to his officers.
• He introduced the silver coin (tanka) and the copper coin (jital).
• He patronised Minhaj-al-Siraj, author of Tabaqat-i-Nasiri.
• ​Ibrahim Lodi
• Ibrahim Lodi, the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty, ascended the throne in 1517 after the death of his father, Sikandar Lodi. His reign, however, was marked by a series of challenges and internal conflicts.
• Lodi's impulsive and tyrannical nature alienated many of his nobles, leading to widespread discontent and rebellion. His harsh policies and disregard for the concerns of his subjects further eroded his support base.
• The internal turmoil within the Lodi Sultanate provided an opportunity for external forces to exploit the situation. Babur, the ruler of Kabul, saw this as an opportune moment to invade India.
• In 1526, the decisive Battle of Panipat took place, where Babur's small but well-disciplined army, equipped with superior artillery, defeated Ibrahim Lodi's larger but disorganized forces.
• Ibrahim Lodi's defeat and death marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India. His reign serves as a cautionary tale about the importance of effective leadership and the consequences of internal divisions.
• Alauddin Khalji​
• Alauddin Khalji was an emperor of the Khalji dynasty.
• Alauddin was a nephew and son-in-law of the Jalaluddin Khalji, founder of the Khalji dynasty.
• He ruled the Delhi Sultanate in 1296–1316.
• He adopted the title "Sikander-i-Sani.".
• He adopted the Blood and Iron policy of Balban in tackling the Mongols.
• Introduced Chehra and Dagh system.
• Alauddin built the Siri Fort, The Hauz-i-Khas, Alai Darwaza.
• The Jamat Khana Masjid is the mosque in Delhi built by Khizr Khan.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Shyamamani Devi is a renowned Odissi classical music vocalist and composer. Born in 1938 in Odisha, India, she began her musical journey at a young age, overcoming societal obstacles to pursue her passion.
• She received formal training under renowned gurus like Singhari Shyamsundar Kar and Balakrushna Dash.
• Devi is celebrated for her soulful renditions of classical Odissi music, particularly compositions by medieval Odia musician-poets like Upendra Bhanja and Baladeba Ratha.
• Her performances are characterized by her melodious voice, intricate rhythmic patterns, and deep emotional expression.
• Beyond classical music, Devi has also excelled in light music, traditional Odia folk music, and Odia film music. Her contributions to the preservation and promotion of Odissi music have earned her widespread recognition and numerous accolades, including the Padma Shri in 2022.
• Shyamamani Devi's legacy lies in her ability to captivate audiences with her mesmerizing voice and her unwavering dedication to the rich musical heritage of Odisha.

The correct answer is B only.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51), are non-justiciable in nature.
• This means that they are not enforceable by any court.
• However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
• The DPSP, though not enforceable, serve as a guide to the legislative and executive branches of the government when they create policies and laws.
• They aim to establish a welfare state where justice and equality are prevalent.
• Despite their non-justiciable nature, the principles hold significant influence on the interpretation of the Constitution and the legislation.
• This is because they reflect the ambitions and values that the Constitution strives to uphold.
• Please note that while these principles are not enforceable by courts, they significantly shape India's governance and legal discourse.
• The Constitution itself declares that it is the responsibility of the State to apply these principles in law-making and policy design.
• This provides them with a considerable indirect impact on legislation and governance.

The correct answer is Milkha Singh.

Key Points

• Milkha Singh authored the autobiography titled 'The Race of My Life'.
• Milkha Singh, also known as the 'Flying Sikh', was an Indian track and field sprinter who was introduced to the sport while serving in the Indian Army.
• His autobiography provides insights into his life, his struggles, and his achievements in the field of athletics.
• The book also sheds light on his journey from being a victim of the Partition of India to becoming one of the country's most celebrated athletes.

Additional Information

• Milkha Singh was born on 20th November 1929 in Gobindpura, Punjab, British India.
• He represented India in the 1956 Melbourne Olympics, the 1960 Rome Olympics, and the 1964 Tokyo Olympics.
• Milkha Singh won gold medals in the 1958 Commonwealth Games and the Asian Games in 1958 and 1962.
• His autobiography 'The Race of My Life' was co-authored by his daughter, Sonia Sanwalka.
• In 2013, a Bollywood film titled 'Bhaag Milkha Bhaag' was released, which was based on his life and autobiography, with actor Farhan Akhtar portraying Milkha Singh.

The correct answer is At the opening ceremony of the Banaras Hindu University, Banaras, in 1916.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi returned back to India in January 1915.
• He returned back from South Africa.
• In South Africa he led a racist regime with the method of mass agitation.
• He called this mass agitation as satyagraha.
• After arriving in India, he led various styagrahas in different parts of the country.

Thus, we can say that Mahatma Gandhi returned back to india in January 1915.

The correct answer is PMMY.

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana:

• The full form of MUDRA is Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ltd. [MUDRA].
• Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a scheme launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8 April 2015, for providing loans up to 10 lahks to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises. These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY (Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana).
• There are three products under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA loan:
• Covering loan of up to Rs. 50,000 under Shishu.
• Covering loans from above Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 500,000 under Kishore.
• Covering loans from above 500,000 to Rs.10,00,000 under Tarun.
• Sectors Covered under MUDRA yojana:-
• Land Transport Sector
• Community, Social & Personal Service Activity
• Food Products Sector
• Textile Products Sector

The correct answer is the extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under the Earth's surface.

Key Points

Igneous Rocks are formed by crystallization from a liquid or magma. Magma is a mixture of liquid rock, crystals, and gas with a wide range of chemical compositions, temperatures, and properties of a liquid.

There are two types of Igneous rocks based on their mode of occurrence:

• Volcanic or extrusive igneous rocks that form when the magma cools and crystallizes on the surface of the Earth
• Intrusive or plutonic igneous rocks wherein the magma crystallizes at depth in the Earth.

Extrusive igneous rocks

• As lava cools very rapidly on coming out of the hot interior of the earth, the mineral crystals forming these rocks are very fine.
• These rocks are also called volcanic rocks. Basalt is a very common example of such rocks.
• These rocks are found in volcanic areas.
• Deccan plateau’s regur soil in India is a formation of lava.

Intrusive igneous rocks

• The rate of cooling below the earth’s surface is very slow, which gives rise to the formation of large crystals in the rocks.
• Deep-seated intrusive rocks are termed as plutonic rocks and shallow depth intrusive rocks are termed as hypabyssal. Granite is a common example of intrusive rocks.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• Pushkar Fair:
• Pushkar fair is one of Indi a's biggest cattle (camel) fair.
• Pushkar fair is also known as Pushkar Camel Fair or locally Kartik Fair.
• It is an annual fair that is also known as Kartik Mela or Pushkar ka Mela.
• It is held in the Pushkar city of Ajmer district of Rajasthan.
• The Pushkar fair is one of the largest camel, horse, and cattle fairs in India.
• Apart from the cattle trade, it is an important pilgrimage for Hindus to Pushkar Lake.
• Cultural events and competitions at this fair include Matka bust, longest moustache, contest, bridal contest, camel race, and others.

​Thus, the Pushkar Fair is held a t Ajmer.

Additional Information

Other important fairs of India:

The correct answer is Composite volcanoes.

Key Points

• A volcano is a rupture in the crust of a planetary-mass object, such as Earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash, and gases to escape from a magma chamber below the surface.
• The process that forms volcanoes is called volcanism.
• Volcanic eruptions can be explosive or effusive, depending on the magma's viscosity and gas content.
• Explosive eruptions eject ash and rock fragments into the atmosphere, while effusive eruptions produce lava flows.
• Volcanoes are classified into different types based on their shape and eruptive style, including shield volcanoes, stratovolcanoes, cinder cones, and lava domes.
• Volcanic eruptions can have significant impacts on the environment and human society.
• They can release harmful gases, cause air pollution, and disrupt air travel.
• Volcanic ash can also damage crops and infrastructure. However, volcanic eruptions also play a crucial role in shaping the Earth's surface and creating fertile soils.
• Volcanoes are closely monitored by scientists to predict eruptions and mitigate their potential hazards.
• By studying volcanic activity, scientists can gain insights into the Earth's interior and the processes that shape our planet.

The correct answer is Salt Lake City Stadium.

Key Points

• Salt Lake City Stadium
• Salt Lake City Stadium, also known as the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan, is a multi-purpose stadium located in Kolkata, India.
• It's one of the largest football stadiums in India, with a capacity of 120,000.
• The stadium has hosted numerous significant football matches, including international friendlies and Indian Super League matches.

 Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium
• Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium is a multi-purpose sports complex located in New Delhi, India.
• It's the largest cricket ground in India by seating capacity, accommodating over 66,000 spectators.
• The stadium has hosted numerous cricket matches, including several Cricket World Cups. It's also used for football, hockey, and other sporting events.
• Chandrasekharan Nair Stadium
• Chandrasekharan Nair Stadium, also known as CSN Police Stadium, is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, India.
• It's primarily used for football matches and has a capacity of 25,000 spectators.
• The stadium has hosted various football tournaments and matches, including the Santosh Trophy and Federation Cup.
• Indira Gandhi Stadium
• Indira Gandhi Stadium is a multi-purpose stadium located in New Delhi, India.
• It's primarily used for cricket matches and has a capacity of 66,666 spectators.
• The stadium has hosted numerous cricket matches, including international matches and Indian Premier League matches. It's also used for football, hockey, and other sporting events.

The correct answer is Bhagirathi.

Key Points

• The early Vedic Aryans lived in the area known as Sapta-Sindhu meaning an area of seven rivers.
• Sapta-Sindhu meaning 7 rivers are the term that gave birth to the word “Hindu”.
• It was referred to as Hapta-Hindu by Persians etc.
• This area largely covers the northwestern part of South Asia up to river Yamuna.
• The seven rivers included Sindhu (Indus), Vitasta (Jhelum), Asikni (Chenab), Parushni (Ravi), Vipash (Beas), Shutudri (Sutlej), and the Sarasvati. Hence option 3 is correct.
• In this area, the Rigvedic people lived, fought battles, grazed their herds of cattle and other domesticated animals.
• Gradually moving eastward, they came to occupy eastern U.P. (Kosala) and north Bihar (Videha) during the Later Vedic period.
• The Sapta Saindhavas country of the Rig Vedic period was bounded by the Himalayas and modern Tibet in the east, Turkistan in the north, Afghanistan, in the west, and the Aravallis in the south.

The correct answer is Islamic Architecture.

Key Points

• Siri Fort, in the city of New Delhi, was built during the rule of Alauddin Khalji, the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, to defend the city from the onslaught of the Mongols.
• It was the second of the seven cities of medieval Delhi built around 1303 (stated to be the first entirely constructed by Turks), which at present is seen only in ruins with a few remnants.
• Alauddin is the best known of the Khalji dynasty because he extended his dominion to Southern India and established the second city of Delhi, Siri.
• He created Siri between 1297 and 1307 to defend against Mongol invasions of India and Delhi. In response, he built Siri Fort, mimicking massive Turkish ones.

The correct answer is Kabul.

Key Points

• Akbar, in full Abū al-Fatḥ Jalāl al-Dīn Muḥammad Akbar.
• He extended Mughal power over most of the Indian subcontinent and he reigned from 1556 to 1605.
• At 13 years of age, Akbar was made the governor of the Punjab region.
• Akbar married Jodha Bai, the daughter of the Rajput ruler of Ajmer, Raja Bharmal. She is also known as Mariam-uz-Zamani
• Akbar succeeded Humayun on February 14, 1556 in Kalanaur (Punjab) and was proclaimed ‘Shahanshah’. Bairam Khan ruled on behalf of the young Emperor till he came of age.
• Akbar brought in Gujarat (1584), Kabul (1585), Kashmir (1586-87), Sindh (1591), Bengal (1592) and Kandahar (1595) within the Mughal territory.

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• The Bardoli satyagrahaa of 1928 was led by Sardar vallabhai Patel.
• The Bardoli Taluk was hit by floods and famines in 1925, which adversely affected crop yield. This affected the farmers financially.
• Because of a flood, Ignoring the plight of the farmers, the Bombay Presidency increased the tax rates by 22% this result in the Bardoli Satyagraha.
• In January 1928, farmers in Bardoli invited Vallabhai Patel to launch the protest movement wherein all of them resolved not to pay taxes.
• A large number of women took an active part in the movement. It was these women who gave Patel the moniker Sardar.
• The movement was focused on the conditions of the rich and middle-class farmers and largely neglected the poor farmers.

Additional Information

• Effects of Bardoli Satyagraha are:
• The revenue was reduced to 6.03%.
• The peasants were returned their confiscated land.
• Patel emerged as a national leader after the success of the Bardoli Satyagraha. He showed his remarkable organizing skills.

The correct answer is Central Highlands.

Key Points

• Central Highlands
• The Central Highlands are a vast plateau region in peninsular India.
• They are bounded by the Vindhya Range to the north, the Satpura Range to the north-west, and the Eastern Ghats to the east.
• The region is known for its diverse landscapes, including rolling hills, valleys, and river basins.
• It is home to several important rivers like the Narmada and Tapti.

Additional Information

• Western Ghats
• The Western Ghats are a mountain range along the western coast of India, running parallel to the Arabian Sea.
• They are  known for their lush green forests, diverse wildlife, and numerous waterfalls.
• The Western Ghats are a biodiversity hotspot and play a crucial role in India's monsoon system. They are also a source of several important rivers like the Kaveri and Krishna.
• Eastern Ghats
• The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of hills and mountains along the eastern coast of India.
• They are not as high or continuous as the Western Ghats.
• The Eastern Ghats are known for their scenic beauty, temples, and archaeological sites.
• They are also home to several rivers like the Godavari and Mahanadi.
• Deccan Plateau
• The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in southern India, covering most of the southern peninsula.
• It is bounded by the Western Ghats on the west and the Eastern Ghats on the east.
• The Deccan Plateau is known for its black soil, which is ideal for cotton cultivation.
• It is also home to several important cities like Hyderabad, Bengaluru, and Pune.

The correct answer is From the point of view of employment generation at home, GNP is more relevant than GDP.

Key Points

• Net National Product (NNP):
• NNP is obtained by subtracting depreciation value (i.e. capital stock consumption) from GNP.
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• It is the total money value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of the country during a given period of time.
• GDP = C + G + I
• C = Consumption expenditure
• G = Government expenditure
• I = Investment expenditure
• Gross National Product (GNP):
• It refers to the money value of the total output of production of final goods and services produced by the nationals of a country during a given period of time, generally a year.
• National Income (NI):
• When NNP is calculated at factor cost (FC) it is called National Income.
• The measure is calculated by deducting indirect taxes and adding subsidies in NNP at Market Price (MP).
• In India, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is the weighted average price of 676 items with the base year 2017-18.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Census of India 2011:
• The 2011 census is the country's 15th national census and the 7th census after independence.
• The Census of the year 2011 was released on March 31, 2011, by the Union Home Secretary and R.G.I. of India.
• The slogan of Census 2011 was 'Our Census, Our Future'.
• Registrar General and Census Commissioner under whom Census 2011 was conducted - C. Chandra Mouli.
• It was conducted in two phases, house listing, and population enumeration.
• The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) was conducted in 2011 for the first time since 1931.

The correct answer is Shravana Poornima (Shukla).

Key Points

• ​Raksha Bandhan or Rakhi Purnima is celebrated on the full moon day, or Purnima tithi, according to the Hindu calendar.
• It is observed during the Shravana month.
• Hindus celebrate Raksha Bandhan every year as a well-known and customary ritual or celebration.
• On this day, sisters of all ages wrap their brothers' wrists with a charm or amulet known as the Rakhi.
• They give them a present in exchange for protecting them figuratively, share some of the burdens of their potential care with the brothers, and symbolically protect them.

Additional Information

• Shravana Poornima: Celebrated in the month of Shravan, it's dedicated to Lord Shiva. Devotees perform special prayers and rituals in Shiva temples. Raksha Bandhan, the festival of sibling bonds, is also observed on this day.
• Kartika Poornima: Coincides with Diwali, the festival of lights. It's also known as Deva-Diwali, the festival of lights for the gods. People worship deities and light lamps on this day.
• Phalguna Poornima: Occurs in the month of Phalguna, preceding the Holi festival. It's a day of prayer and preparation before the Holi celebrations.
• Bhadrapada Poornima: Falls in the month of Bhadrapada, after Ganesh Chaturthi. In some regions, it's celebrated as Narali Purnima, marking the end of the monsoon season.

The correct answer is law of conservation of mass.

Key Points

• According to the law of conservation of mass, The matter can be neither created nor destroyed.
• In other words, the mass of an object or collection of objects never changes, no matter how the parts are rearranged.
• In an ordinary chemical reaction, the sum of the masses of the reactants (the substances undergoing the change) equals the sum of the masses of the products (the substances formed during the process).

The correct answer is Entry gates.

Key Points

• Toranas are ornate gateways found in Indian architecture, particularly in Buddhist and Hindu structures.
• They are typically composed of two upright pillars supporting one or more horizontal crossbars, often elaborately carved with religious motifs.
• In Stupa architecture, toranas serve as monumental entrances, symbolizing the gateway to enlightenment.
• They are often positioned at the cardinal directions surrounding the stupa.
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi is a prime example, featuring four magnificent toranas adorned with intricate bas-reliefs depicting scenes from the Buddha's life, teachings, and Jataka tales.
• Toranas not only enhance the aesthetic appeal of a stupa but also convey profound religious and cultural significance.
• They are a testament to the artistic and architectural brilliance of ancient India, providing valuable insights into the beliefs and practices of the time.

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

The Squash Rackets Federation of India (SRFI) is the governing body for the sport of squash in India. Its primary functions include:

• Organizing National Championships: SRFI conducts the prestigious National Squash Championship to identify and nurture talented players.
• Promoting the Sport: SRFI works to promote squash at the grassroots level through state associations and organizes various tournaments and coaching camps.
• Selecting National Teams: SRFI selects the Indian national squash teams for international competitions like the World Team Championships.
• Providing Training Facilities: SRFI operates the Indian Squash Academy to provide world-class training facilities to aspiring players.
• International Representation: SRFI represents India at the World Squash Federation (WSF) and other international squash bodies.

The correct answer is one-fourth.

Key Points

President

• The President is the head of the Indian State. He is India's first citizen and serves as a symbol of the country's unity, integrity, and solidarity.
• He is a part of the Union Executive, the provisions of which are addressed in Articles 52-78, including articles concerning the President (Articles 52-62).
• Election of President
• There is no direct election for the Indian President. An electoral college elects him. The electoral college responsible for President’s elections comprises elected members of:
• Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
• Legislative Assemblies of the states (Legislative Councils have no role)
• Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi, Puducherry, Kashmir, Ladakh.
• The following group of people is not involved in electing the President of India.
• Nominated Members of State Legislative Assemblies
• Members of Legislative Councils (Both elected and nominated) in bicameral legislatures
• Nominated Members of union territories of Delhi and Puducherry, Kashmir, and Ladakh.
• Impeachment
• The President can be removed from office by impeachment for "constitutional violations." However, the word "violation of the Constitution" is not defined in the Constitution.
• Article 61 of the Constitution of India prescribes the procedure for the impeachment of the President.
• The impeachment process can be started from any house of the parliament by leveling charges against him.
• The notice bearing the charges against the president must be signed by at least a quarter of the members of the house.
  

The resolution to impeach the president must be passed by a special majority (two-thirds) in the originating house.

• Next, it is sent to the other house for consideration. The other house acts as the investigating horse. A select committee is formed to investigate the charges labeled against the president.
• There is no provision for the suspension of the President during the period of Impeachment.
• During the process, the President of India has the right to defend himself through authorized counsel. He can choose to defend himself or appoint any person/lawyer or attorney general of India to do so.

The correct answer is Article 44.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Constitution of India is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which aims to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout the territory of India.
• The purpose of a Uniform Civil Code is to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India with a common set governing every citizen.
• It seeks to provide equal status to all citizens, irrespective of their religion, and aims at national integration.
• The implementation of a Uniform Civil Code is considered essential for the protection of vulnerable sections of society including women and religious minorities.
• Despite being a part of the Directive Principles, it is not enforceable by any court, but it is fundamental in the governance of the country.

Additional Information

• Article 51: Promotion of International Peace and Security
• Part of the Directive Principles of State Policy
• Outlines India's commitment to global peace and harmony
• Mandates the state to:
• Promote international peace and security
• Maintain just and honorable relations with other nations
• Foster respect for international law and treaties
• Encourage peaceful resolution of international disputes
• Article 40: Organization of Village Panchayats
• Also a Directive Principle of State Policy
• Encourages the state to organize village panchayats to act as units of self-government
• Aims to empower rural communities and promote decentralized governance
• Seeks to involve people in decision-making processes at the local level
• Article 42: Provision for Just and Humane Conditions of Work and Maternity Relief
• Another Directive Principle of State Policy
• Directs the state to ensure just and humane working conditions
• Focuses on:
• Fair wages
• Healthy work environments
• Adequate rest periods
• Maternity benefits for working women

The correct answer is Pteridophytes.

Key Points

• Pteridophytes
• Pteridophytes are a group of vascular plants that reproduce via spores.
• They lack seeds and flowers.
• Examples include ferns and horsetails.
• Vascular tissue: They possess xylem and phloem for efficient transport of water and nutrients.
• Alternation of generations: Their life cycle involves both a diploid sporophyte and a haploid gametophyte stage.
• Spore dispersal: They reproduce through spores, which are dispersed by wind or water.

Additional Information

• Fungi 
• Fungi are a diverse group of organisms that lack chlorophyll and cannot photosynthesize.
• They obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their environment.
• Examples include mushrooms, yeasts, and molds.
• Heterotrophic nutrition: They rely on external sources of food.
• Cell wall: Their cell walls are composed of chitin.
• Reproduction: They reproduce through spores, either sexually or asexually.
• Algae
• Algae are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms that lack true roots, stems, and leaves.
• They live in water or moist environments. Examples include seaweed, diatoms, and green algae. Key characteristics include:
• Photosynthetic:
• They produce their own food through photosynthesis.
• Aquatic habitat: Most algae live in water, although some can survive in moist terrestrial environments.

The correct answer is The plan is considered a big success. 

Key Points

• Family planning programs are initiatives aimed at empowering individuals and couples to make informed choices about family size and spacing.
• Reducing unwanted pregnancies: By providing access to contraceptives, these programs help prevent unintended pregnancies, especially among adolescents and young adults.
• Improving maternal and child health: Family planning enables women to space their pregnancies, reducing the risks associated with closely spaced or frequent births.
• Empowering individuals and couples: By providing information and choices, these programs empower people to make decisions about their reproductive health.
• Contributing to sustainable development: Family planning can help address population growth and its impact on resources and environmental sustainability.

The correct answer is RK Narayan.

Key Points

• R.K. Narayan is the author of the autobiography "My Days."
• This insightful memoir delves into the life and experiences of this renowned Indian writer, offering readers a glimpse into his childhood, his journey as a writer, and his reflections on the world around him.
• Narayan is well-known for his works set in the fictional South Indian town of Malgudi. "My Days" provides a personal account of the influences and inspirations that shaped his literary career.
• It offers valuable insights into the evolution of Indian English literature and the socio-cultural context of the time.

The correct answer is Kacchi Ghodi.

Key Points

• Kacchi Ghodi
• ​Kachhi Ghodi dance is a folk dance that originated from the Shekhawati region of Rajasthan state.
• It is a dance performed on the wooden dummy horses.
• It is performed by Potters, Kamdholi, Sarghara, Bhambi, and Bavi communities.​

Additional Information

• Pavri Naach
• Pavri Nach is a dance performed by the Kokna tribe in the hilly regions of northwest Maharashtra and the adjoining region of Gujarat in India. The dance is also known as Tarpha Nach because the music is played using wind instruments made of dried gourd.
• Belonging to the “Kokna” tribe in the western coast of India is a dance style known as Pavri Naach. This “folk dance” having originated from the state of Maharashtra, is also said to be performed in the neighboring state of Gujarat. Apparently, this dance style has been named after a local musical (wind) instrument known as “Tarpha or Pavri”. In addition, this folk dance is performed by both males and females. Furthermore, this dance style involves the use of complicated formations.
• Dindi
• This dance is a religious dance performed on Ekadashi in the month of Kartik, so sentence 1 is correct
• This dance is a symbol of devotion and love for Lord Krishna.
• It depicts Lord Krishna's mischievous acts and playful nature in dance, so sentence 2 is incorrect
• Dancers known as Dindis
• They dance in unison with the movements of the drum.
• The dance is full of energy and creates excitement in the dancers who dance to the music.
• Dancers mainly form geometric patterns and carry a flag symbolizing the sun or the monkey god- Lord Hanuman.
• Ghode Modni
• Ghode Modni dance is performed in Goa during the festival of Shigmo.
• Shigmo is celebrated in Goa as one of the prominent festivals of the Konkani Hindu community.
• It is also celebrated by the Konkani diaspora and the Indian festival of Holi is part of it.
• Shigmo festivals also continue in various rural parts of Goa, spanning over a fortnight, with different days earmarked for celebrations in different areas.

The correct answer is ICC.

Key Points

• The International Cricket Council (ICC), the international governing body of Cricket founded in 1909 by representatives from England, Australia, and South Africa, was initially known as Imperial Cricket Conference.
• In 1965, it was renamed as International Cricket Conference and in 1965, it was renamed the International Cricket Council (ICC) in 1989.
• This council organizes various world championships and tournaments.
• ODI World Cup and T-20 World Cup are world-famous.
• Headquarters of ICC - Dubai, UAE
• Motto - Cricket for good
• Chairman - Jay Shah

The correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

Indian Classical Dances:

The correct answer is Lakshmi Swaminathan.

Key Points

Janaky Athi Nahappan and Lakshmi Swaminathan were commanders of the Rani of Jhansi Regiment.

• The Rani of Jhansi Regiment was the women's regiment of the Indian National Army. It was formed on 12 July, 1943 by Subhash Chandra Bose.
• It was formed by Indian nationalists with the intention of overthrowing the British rule in India with the help of Japan.
• Most of the ladies were teenage volunteers of Indian descent from Malayan rubber estates; only a few had ever been to India.
• Its training camp was set up in Singapore with 170 cadets.
• By November 1943, camps were established in Burma(Myanmar) and Bangkok, Thailand, and volunteers had increased to 300.
• The cadets underwent military and combat training with drills, route marches in addition to weapons training in rifles, hand grenades, and bayonet charges.
• Its first passing out parade was held in Singapore on 30 March 1944.
• It participated in the Imphal Campaign of 1944.
• Following the death of Subhash Chandra Bose in 1945, the unit was disbanded.

The correct answer is Barrackpore.

Key Points

The Revolt of 1857

• The 19th Infantry at Berhampur (Barrackpore), refused to use the newly introduced Enfield rifle.
• The infantry was disbanded.
• Mangal Pandey, a sepoy of the 34th Native Infantry at Barrackpore attacked and fired at his British Officers.
• Mangal Pandey was born on 19 July 1827.
• Mangal Pandey was an Indian soldier who took part in the revolt of 1857.
• He belongs to the 34th Bengal Native Infantry regiment.
• One of the major incidents that took place in this revolt was that he killed two British officers Hugeson and Baugh at Barrackpore.
• He died on April 8 and his regiment was banned on the 6th of May.
• A postage stamp was issued on behalf of his name in 1984.
• "Shaheed Mangal Pandey Maha Udyan" is a park in Barrackpore.

The correct answer is 382 person/km2.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census, India has a population density of 382 persons per square kilometer.
• The population density is calculated as the number of people living per unit area of land.
• India saw a growth in population density from 324 persons per sq km in 2001 to 382 persons per sq km in 2011.
• Higher population density indicates a higher concentration of people in a specific area, which can impact resources and infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Population Density
• Population density is a measurement of the number of people per unit area, usually per square kilometer or square mile.
• It is used to measure how crowded or sparsely populated an area is.
• High population density can lead to challenges such as congestion, pressure on resources, and environmental degradation.
• Conversely, low population density may indicate underutilization of resources and potentially lesser economic development.
• Census
• A census is an official count or survey of a population, typically recording various details of individuals.
• In India, the census is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The data collected includes demographic, economic, and social information.
• The census provides vital statistics that aid in policy making and planning for the country's development.
• 2011 Census of India
• The 2011 Census of India was the 15th National Census since 1871.
• It was conducted in two phases: the house listing phase and the population enumeration phase.
• The data collected includes population size, density, sex ratio, literacy rate, and employment statistics.
• It provides a comprehensive picture of India's demographic and socio-economic status, which is crucial for governance and development planning.

The correct answer is 30%.

Key Points

• Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
• It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
• It was launched in India on 1 July 2017 as a comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country.
• It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax comprehensive because it has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes.
• It is paid by the consumers and is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.

Additional Information

• It is of three types i.e.
• CGST to be levied by the Centre,
• SGST to be levied by the States and
• IGST is a tax levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services.
• All these taxes are levied at rates mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States.
• The GST Council headed by the Union Finance Minister is the governing and key decision-making body for GST.

The correct answer is Proven misbehaviour and Incapacity.

Key Points

• Supreme Court of India :
• Supreme Court of India was established on 26 January 1950.
• At present, there are 33+CJI judges in the Supreme Court.
• The first woman judge of SC of India and also in Asia was Fathima Beevi.
• The Chief justice of India and the other Judges of the SC hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
• High court judges hold office until they attain the age of 62.
• Article 124 to 147 and Part V of the Indian Constitution informs the composition and powers of the Supreme Court.
• Indian High Courts Act of 1861
• The Indian High Courts Act of 1861 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom to establish High Courts in India.
• The Act authorized the British Crown to establish High Courts in the presidencies of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.
• The Act abolished the Supreme Courts at Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay and the Sadar Adalats in Presidency towns, merging their jurisdictions to form the High Courts.
• The High Courts were given the power to exercise original and appellate jurisdiction in civil and criminal cases.

The correct answer is Kanaka Raju 

Key Points

• Kanaka Raju was a prominent Gussadi dance maestro, known for his exceptional contributions to promoting this unique tribal folk dance of the Raj Gond community passed away in October 2024.
• He was the chief dance master of the Kanaka Raju School of Gussadi dance.
• His efforts in showcasing the Gussadi dance on global platforms earned him the prestigious Padma Shri award in 2021.
• The Gussadi dance is a traditional courtship ritual performed by men in the matriarchal society of the Raj Gond tribes to impress prospective brides and their families.

The correct answer is 22 yards (20.12 m) by 10 feet (3.04 m).

Key Points

• The length of the pitch between the two wickets in cricket is 22 yards, there is a stump on both sides of it.
• The length and breadth of the cricket field are 20.12 meters and 3.05 meters.
• Cricket is a sport played on a wide field.
• A 22-yard long and 10-feet-wide pitch is made in the middle of the cricket ground.
• Three stumps are there on either side of the pitch, which is 28 inches in length.
• A 4.5 inch long and 0.5-inch thick bail is placed above the wickets.

 Additional Information

• The first domestic first-class tournament in India was started as the Ranji Trophy in 1934–35.
• The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket championship to be held in India.
• The first international cricket match was played in 1844 between the United States and Canada.
• For the first time in international cricket, the Duckworth Lewis rule was used in the match between Zimbabwe-England in 1996–97.

The correct answer is Rice, Maize, Bajra.

Key Points

• The Kharif season in India typically starts with the onset of the monsoon.
• It varies by crop and region, beginning as early as May and ending as late as January.
• It is considered to start in June and end in October.
• During this season, Kharif crops are sown at the beginning of the first rains brought by the southwest monsoon.
• The harvest occurs at the end of the monsoon season, usually in October to November.
• Crops grown in this season include cotton, groundnut, ragi, bajra, maize, rice, and soybean, etc.

 Additional Information

• The Rabi cropping season is from November to March. These are sown in November and harvested around April-May.
• Crops grown in this season include green peas, mustard, barley, and wheat etc.

The correct answer is Nuclear membrane.

Key Points

• Prokaryotic cells are the cells that lack a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
• These cells have a single, circular chromosome that floats freely in the cytoplasm.
• Prokaryotic cells are usually smaller in size than eukaryotic cells and are found in bacteria and archaea.
• The absence of a nuclear membrane in prokaryotic cells enables them to replicate faster than eukaryotic cells.

Additional Information

• Cheek cells are eukaryotic cells that contain a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
• These cells are obtained from the inner lining of the cheek and are commonly used for DNA analysis.
• Eukaryotic cells are cells that contain a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
• These cells are found in plants, animals, fungi, and protists.
• Onion cells are eukaryotic cells that are commonly used in biology labs for studying cell division and cell structure.
• These cells contain a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

The correct answer is Only (ii).

Key Points

• National income accounting
• It is a bookkeeping method used by governments to track the level of economic activity in their country through time.
• Total revenues made by domestic firms, wages given to foreign and domestic workers, and the amount spent on sales and income taxes by corporations and individuals resident in the nation are all examples of accounting records of this type.
• National Income
• After depreciation, the total worth of final products and services generated by normal residents throughout an accounting year is called the national income.
• It is Net National Product (NNP) At Factor Cost (FC).
• Taxes, depreciation, and non-factor inputs are not included (raw materials).
• Domestic Income 
• After depreciation, the total worth of final products and services generated inside a domestic area within an accounting year is called domestic income.
• It is NDP (National Domestic Product) at Factor Cost.
• NNP and NDP may be calculated using either constant prices (real income) or market prices (nominal income).
• Domestic income plus net factor income from abroad (NFIA) equals national income.
• Although national income accounting is not an exact science, it does give important information about how well an economy is performing and where money is created and spent.
• Data on per capita income and growth may be evaluated across time when paired with statistics on the corresponding population.
• The gross domestic product (GDP), gross national product (GNP), and gross national income (GNI) are some of the indicators computed using national income accounting.
• The GDP is a frequently used metric for domestic economic research, and it reflects the total market value of goods and services produced in a certain country during a given period of time.

The correct answer is Chalukya.

Key Points

• Pulakesi II reigned over the Chalukyas of Badami, an Indian royal dynasty that ruled large parts of southern and central India between the sixth and the twelfth centuries.
• Pulakeshin II reigned from 610 to 642 CE.
• His court poet, Ravikirti, left accounts of his campaigns, his wins and wrote a eulogy at Aihole called the Aihole Inscription.
• The Aihole inscription is the most famous account written by Ravikirti.
• The inscription describes how the mighty Harsha was defeated by Pulakeshin and lost his Harsha (joy) when he suffered the ignominy of defeat.
• There is also a mention of the victory of Chalukyas over the Pallavas and of the shifting the capital from Aihole to Badami by Pulikeshi-II in the Aihole inscriptions.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some guavas are grapes → Follow (As all grapes are guava. As whole grapes comes in guava, therefore it is true.)

II. Some grapes are mangoes → Follow (As all mangoes are grapes. As whole mangoes comes in grapes, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The number of triangles in the given figure are shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 9 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘SOLSTICE’ is written as ‘CEGVUNMU’

And,

'MAJESTY' is written as ‘AVUCLYO’

Similarly,

‘INFLUENCE’ is written as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 6 is common on both the dice in figure 1 and figure 2, it is clear that 1, 4, 3, and 2 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 5 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 3

4 → 2

6 → 5

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 999 * 111 * 67 * 87 * 2 * 116

According to the question, after replacing the signs:

Option 1): ÷ −× + =

999 * 111 * 67 * 87 * 2 * 116 ⇒ 999 ÷ 111 - 67 × 87 + 2 = 116

⇒ 999 ÷ 111 - 67 × 87 + 2 = 116

⇒ 9 - 67 × 87 + 2 = 116

⇒ 9 + 2 - 5829 = 116

⇒ 11 - 5829 = 116

⇒ -5818 ≠ 116 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): ÷ + −× =

999 * 111 * 67 * 87 * 2 * 116 ⇒ 999 ÷ 111 + 67 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 999 ÷ 111 + 67 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 9 + 67 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 9 + 67 - 174 = 116

⇒ 76 - 174 = 116

⇒ -98 ≠ 116 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3): + ÷ −× =

999 * 111 * 67 * 87 * 2 * 116 ⇒ 999 + 111 ÷ 67 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 999 + 111 ÷ 67 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 999 + 1.65 - 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 999 + 1.65 - 174 = 116

⇒ 1000.65 - 174 = 116

⇒ 826.65 ≠ 116 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): ÷ − + × =

999 * 111 * 67 * 87 * 2 * 116 ⇒ 999 ÷ 111 - 67 + 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 999 ÷ 111 - 67 + 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 9 - 67 + 87 × 2 = 116

⇒ 9 + 174 - 67 = 116

⇒ 183 - 67 = 116

⇒ 116 = 116 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the option figure 4 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The bottom row elements shift clockwise subsequently.

The first two elements of first column shift interchange positions.

The rest of the positions shift clockwise subsequently.

2) Second box series →

The left diagonal corner elements interchange positions.

The right diagonal corner elements interchange positions.

The center elements of 1st column and 3rd row interchange positions.

The center elements of 1st row and 3rd column interchange positions.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option Figure 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were sitting in a straight row, facing north.

1) Only R was to the right of U.

2) T was to the immediate left of U.

3) P was exactly between Q and S.

4) V was second to the left of P.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, P is at the third position from the left.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

First row - 3, 16, 13

3² + √16 = 13

9 + 4 = 13

13 = 13 (LHS = RHS)

And,

Second row - 25, 625, 650

252 + √625 = 650

625 + 25 = 650

650 = 650 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

Third row - 11, 64, ?

112 + √64 = ?

121 + 8 = ?

129 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Water : Hydrology → Hydrology is the scientific study of water, particularly its properties, distribution, and effects on the Earth.

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) Book : Reading → Incorrect

This is not a subject-field relationship. Reading is an activity, not a field of study related to books.

Option 2) Chemistry : Chemist → Incorrect

This represents a subject and a professional who works in that field, not the field of study itself.

Option 3) Space : Astronomy → Correct

Astronomy is the scientific study of space and celestial bodies.

Option 4) Monuments : Archaeologist  → Incorrect

 Archaeology involves the study of human history through physical remains, including monuments, but it does not directly fit the subject : field of study relationship.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option Figure 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given : 263 * 225 * 5 * 76 * 98 * 3

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

Option 1):  ÷ − + × =

263 * 225 * 5 * 76 * 98 * 3 ⇒ 263 ÷ 225 - 5 + 76 × 98 = 3

⇒ 263 ÷ 225 - 5 + 76 × 98 = 3

⇒ 1.16 - 5 + 76 × 98 = 3

⇒ 1.16 + 7448 - 5 = 3

⇒ 7449.16 - 5 = 3

⇒ 7444.16 ≠ 3 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2): = − + × ÷

263 * 225 * 5 * 76 * 98 * 3 ⇒ 263 = 225 - 5 + 76 × 98 ÷ 3

⇒ 263 = 225 - 5 + 76 × 98 ÷ 3

⇒ 263 = 225 - 5 + 76 × 32.67

⇒ 263 = 225 + 2482.92 - 5

⇒ 263 = 2707.92 - 5

⇒ 263 ≠ 2702.92 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3): = − ÷ + ×

263 * 225 * 5 * 76 * 98 * 3 ⇒ 263 = 225 - 5 ÷ 76 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 225 - 5 ÷ 76 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 225 - 0.06 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 225 + 294 - 0.06

⇒ 263 = 519 - 0.06

⇒ 263 ≠ 518.94 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4): = ÷ − + × 

263 * 225 * 5 * 76 * 98 * 3 ⇒ 263 = 225 ÷ 5 - 76 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 225 ÷ 5 - 76 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 45 - 76 + 98 × 3

⇒ 263 = 45 + 294 - 76

⇒ 263 = 339 - 76

⇒ 263 = 263 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number power 3 + 1 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 2 : 9

⇒ (2³) + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9.

For, 4 : 65

⇒ (4³) + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65.

Similarly, for 8 ∶ ?

⇒ (8³) + 1 = 512 + 1 = 513.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

All the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The first element from the left is replaced by the new element.

2) Second box series →

The first three elements from the left shift anticlockwise subsequently.

The last two elements from the left shift anticlockwise subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

​

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the option Figure 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1) All the elements shift anticlockwise subsequently.

2. The top right corner is flipped vertically.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

Marks in the first semester: 45, 78, 36, 65, 56

Marks in the second semester: 48, 72, 55, 46, 79

Formula Used:

Average Marks = Total Marks / Number of Subjects

Calculation:

First Semester:

Total Marks = 45 + 78 + 36 + 65 + 56

Total Marks = 280

Second Semester:

Total Marks = 48 + 72 + 55 + 46 + 79

Total Marks = 300

Total Marks in the First Year = 280 + 300

Total Marks in the First Year = 580

Number of Subjects = 5 + 5

Number of Subjects = 10

Average Marks = Total Marks / Number of Subjects

Average Marks = 580 / 10

⇒ Average Marks = 58

The average marks in the first year are 58.

Given:

A garrison of 1500 men has provisions for 11 days.

The garrison is increased by 1800 men.

Formula Used:

Provisions Days = (Initial Provisions Days × Initial Men) / Total Men

Calculation:

Initial Provisions Days = 11

Initial Men = 1500

Total Men = 1500 + 1800 = 3300

Provisions Days = (11 × 1500) / 3300

⇒ Provisions Days = 16500 / 3300

⇒ Provisions Days = 5

The provisions will last for 5 days if the garrison is increased by 1800 men.

Given:

Speed of Shanti's car = 68 km/h.

Initial distance between Shanti's car and the bus = 40 m.

After 10 seconds, Shanti's car is 60 m ahead of the bus.

Formula Used:

Relative Speed = (Distance covered by Shanti's car relative to the bus) / Time

Speed of the bus = Speed of Shanti's car - Relative Speed

Calculation:

Distance covered by Shanti's car relative to the bus = 40 m + 60 m = 100 m.

Time = 10 seconds = 10/3600 hours = 1/360 hours.

Relative Speed (in km/h) = Distance / Time

Relative Speed = 100 m / (1/360 hours)

Relative Speed = 100 m × 360 hours

Relative Speed = 36000 m/h = 36 km/h.

Speed of the bus = Speed of Shanti's car - Relative Speed

Speed of the bus = 68 km/h - 36 km/h

Speed of the bus = 32 km/h.

Shortcut Trick

 Annual Instalment = $\frac {Due Debt \times 100}{100 \times t + r \times t \frac{(t - 1)}{2}}$

Annual instalment = $\frac {9048 \times 100}{100 \times 5 + 8 \times 5 \frac{(5 - 1)}{2}}$ = 1,560

∴ Annual instalment is Rs. 1,560.

Shortcut Trick - 2100P + 108P + 116P + 124P + 132P = 9048 × 100

⇒ 580P = 904800

P = 1560

∴ Annual instalment is Rs. 1,560. 

Alternate MethodGiven:

Amount = Rs. 9,048

Rate per annum = 8%

Time - 5 year

Concept used:

Increase instalment = P × (100 + r)/100 + P × (100 + 2r)/100 + ..................+ P × (100 + tr)/100

Calculation:

Let yearly instalment = a

then 1st instalment = 100a unit

2nd instalment = 100a × (100 + 8)/100

⇒ 108a

3rd instalment = 100a × [100 + (2 × 8)]/100

⇒ 116a

4th instalment = 100a × [100 + (3 × 8)]/100

⇒ 124a

5th instalment = 100a × [100 + (4 × 8)]/100

⇒ 132a

Hence total amount = Sum of all instalment/100

⇒ 9048 = (100a + 108a + 116a + 124a + 132a)/100

⇒ 580a = 9048 × 100

⇒ a =1560

∴ Annual instalment is Rs. 1,560.

Given:

The average age of three persons = 54 years

The proportion of their ages = 2 : 3 : 4

Formula Used:

Average Age = (Sum of Ages) / (Number of Persons)

Calculation:

Let the ages of the three persons be 2x, 3x, and 4x respectively.

The sum of their ages = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x

Average Age = (Sum of Ages) / 3

⇒ 54 = 9x / 3

⇒ 54 = 3x

⇒ x = 54 / 3

⇒ x = 18

The age of the youngest person = 2x = 2 × 18 = 36 years

The age of the youngest person is 36 years.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹12,500

Rate of interest (R) = 15%

Time (T) = 1.5 years

Interest is compounded half-yearly.

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P (1 + (R)/(100n))^nT

where,

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest

n = number of times interest is compounded per year

T = Time period in years

Calculation:

Given, n = 2 (since interest is compounded half-yearly)

R = 15%

T = 1.5 years

Substitute the values into the formula:

⇒ A = 12500 (1 + (15)/(100 × 2))^{2 × 1.5}

⇒ A = 12500 (1 + (15)/(200))³

⇒ A = 12500 (1 + 0.075)³

⇒ A = 12500 (1.075)³

⇒ A = 12500 (1.242)

⇒ A = 15528.71

The amount Asha earns in 1.5 years is ₹15528.71.

Given:

Numbers: 126, 198, 162

Formula Used:

To find the greatest number that e×actly divides the given numbers, we use the concept of the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD).

Calculation:

Prime factorization of 126: 126 = 2 × 3² × 7

Prime factorization of 198: 198 = 2 × 3² × 11

Prime factorization of 162: 162 = 2 × 3⁴

GCD is the product of the smallest power of all common prime factors.

Common prime factors: 2 and 3

Smallest power of 2: 2¹

Smallest power of 3: 3²

Therefore, GCD = 2¹ × 3²

⇒ GCD = 2 × 9

⇒ GCD = 18

The greatest number that e×actly divides 126, 198, and 162 is 18.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹225

Selling Price (SP) = ₹300

Formula Used:

Gain Percentage = (SP - CP)/(CP) × 100

Calculation:

Gain = SP - CP

⇒ Gain = ₹300 - ₹225

⇒ Gain = ₹75

Gain Percentage = (75)/(225) × 100

⇒ Gain Percentage = (1)/(3) × 100

⇒ Gain Percentage = 33.33%

The gain percentage is 33.33%.

Given:

Area of smaller triangle = 48 cm²

Area of bigger triangle = 156 cm²

Height of smaller triangle = 6 cm

Formula Used:

$\frac{\text{Area of smaller triangle}}{\text{Area of bigger triangle}} = (\frac{\text{Height of smaller triangle}}{\text{Height of bigger triangle}})^2$

Calculation:

Let the height of the bigger triangle be h cm.

$\frac{48}{156} = (\frac{6}{h})^2$

⇒ $\frac{48}{156} = \frac{36}{h^2}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{3.25} = \frac{36}{h^2}$

⇒ 1 × h² = 36 × 3.25

⇒ h² = 117

⇒ h = √117

Therefore, the height of the bigger triangle is √117 cm.

Given:

Q is 12% more than 156.

P is 15% less than Q.

Formula Used:

Q = 156 + 12% of 156

P = Q - 15% of Q

Calculation:

Q = 156 + (12/100) × 156

Q = 156 + 0.12 × 156

Q = 156 + 18.72

Q = 174.72

P = 174.72 - (15/100) × 174.72

P = 174.72 - 0.15 × 174.72

P = 174.72 - 26.208

⇒ P = 148.512

The value of P is 148.51 (approx).

Given:

The sum of three distinct prime numbers is 44.

Formula Used:

Sum of prime numbers = Prime₁ + Prime₂ + Prime₃

Calculation:

Let the prime numbers be p₁, p₂, and p₃.

Given that p₁ + p₂ + p₃ = 44

To find the largest possible prime number, we need to maximize one of the prime numbers while ensuring the sum remains 44 and all numbers are prime.

Consider the largest prime number, let p₃ be the largest prime:

If p₃ = 37, then:

p₁ + p₂ + 37 = 44

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 44 - 37

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 7

The possible prime pairs (p₁, p₂) that sum to 7 are (2, 5) and (5, 2).

So, the prime numbers are 2, 5, and 37.

Verify if there is a larger prime number:

If p₃ = 41, then:

p₁ + p₂ + 41 = 44

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 44 - 41

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 3

The possible prime pairs (p₁, p₂) that sum to 3 are (2, 1) and (1, 2), but 1 is not a prime number.

If p₃ = 43, then:

p₁ + p₂ + 43 = 44

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 44 - 43

⇒ p₁ + p₂ = 1

The possible prime pairs (p₁, p₂) that sum to 1 are (0, 1) and (1, 0), but neither 0 nor 1 are prime numbers.

The largest possible prime number is 37.

Given:

A person got a new chair at 35% discount.

Had he got no discount, he would have had to pay ₹224 more.

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price × Discount Percentage

Discount Amount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Calculation:

Let the marked price of the chair be ₹x.

Discount percentage = 35%

Discount amount = ₹224

Discount = Marked Price × 35%

⇒ 224 = x × 0.35

⇒ × = 224 / 0.35

⇒ × = 640

The marked price (in ₹) of the chair is ₹640.

Given:

The price of sugar goes up by 25%.

Formula Used:

Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{\text{Increase in price}}{(100 + \text{Increase in price})} × 100$

Calculation:

Increase in price = 25%

Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{25}{100 + 25} × 100$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = $\frac{25}{125} × 100$

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = 0.2 × 100

⇒ Percentage reduction in consumption = 20%

The family must reduce their consumption of sugar by 20% to keep the expenditure the same.

Shortcut Trick

For a set of numbers where the smallest number is a factor of all other numbers, the HCF is simply the smallest number itself.

Here, all numbers (0.006, 0.06, 0.6, and 6) are multiples of 0.0006:

0.006 = 0.0006 × 10 | 0.06 = 0.0006 × 100 | 0.6 = 0.0006 × 1000 | 6 = 0.0006 × 10000

Since 0.0006 divides every other number in the set, it is the Highest Common Factor.

∴ The correct answer is 0.0006.

Alternate Method

Given numbers: 0.0006, 0.006, 0.06, 0.6, 6

Step 1: Convert all decimals to like decimals by making the number of decimal places equal (4 decimal places).

⇒ 0.0006, 0.0060, 0.0600, 0.6000, 6.0000

Step 2: Consider these as integers by removing the decimal points.

⇒ 6, 60, 600, 6000, 60000

Step 3: Find the HCF of these integers.

⇒ HCF (6, 60, 600, 6000, 60000) = 6

Step 4: Place the decimal point back at the original position (4 places from the right).

⇒ HCF = 0.0006

∴ The correct answer is 0.0006.

Additional Information

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions is calculated as (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

LCM of Decimals

To find the LCM, convert decimals to like decimals, find the LCM of the resulting integers, and then place the decimal point back.

HCF Property

The HCF of two or more numbers is always less than or equal to the smallest number in the set.

Given:

Radius of the base of the conical tent, r = 20 feet.

Slant height of the cone, l = 35 feet.

Formula Used:

Area of the canvas required (lateral surface area of the cone) = πrl

Calculation:

Using π = $\frac{22}{7}$

Area of the canvas required = π × r × l

⇒ Area = $\frac{22}{7}$ × 20 × 35

⇒ Area = $\frac{22}{7}$ × 700

⇒ Area = 22 × 100

⇒ Area = 2200 square feet

The area of the canvas required for making the tent is 2200 square feet.

The correct answer is check for synonyms and antonyms.

Key Points

• The thesaurus tool in MS Word 365 helps users find synonyms (words with similar meanings) and antonyms (words with opposite meanings).
• It aids in enhancing the vocabulary used in the document by suggesting alternative words.
• The tool can be accessed by right-clicking on a word and selecting "Synonyms" or by using the Review tab.
• It is particularly useful for avoiding repetitive words and making the text more engaging and varied.

Additional Information

• Microsoft Word 365
• Part of the Microsoft Office 365 suite, Word is a word processing application that allows users to create, edit, and format text documents.
• It offers various tools such as spell check, grammar check, and a thesaurus to assist in writing and editing documents.
• MS Word 365 is cloud-based, enabling users to access and collaborate on documents from any device with internet connectivity.
• It includes advanced features like real-time collaboration, which allows multiple users to work on a document simultaneously.
• Thesaurus Tool
• A thesaurus is a reference tool that provides a list of words grouped together according to similarity of meaning (synonyms) and sometimes opposite meanings (antonyms).
• In MS Word, the thesaurus helps improve the quality of writing by offering alternative words to enhance the text.
• It is useful for expanding vocabulary, avoiding word repetition, and making the document more dynamic and interesting.
• Using the thesaurus can also aid in better articulation of ideas and more effective communication.
• Other Tools in MS Word 365
• Spell Check: Identifies and corrects spelling errors in the document.
• Grammar Check: Provides suggestions for correcting grammatical errors, improving sentence structure, and ensuring proper punctuation.
• Formatting Tools: Allows users to change the appearance of the text, such as font type, size, color, and paragraph alignment.
• Track Changes: A feature that records all changes made to a document, useful for editing and collaboration.

The correct answer is Multilevel numbering.

Key Points

• Multilevel numbering allows you to create a hierarchy in your numbered lists, making it easier to organize sections, subsections, and points within documents.
• It helps in providing structure and clarity, especially in lengthy documents such as reports, manuals, and complex proposals.
• This feature is highly customizable, allowing users to modify the numbering style, indentation, and format according to their specific needs.
• Multilevel numbering can be applied to both numbered and bulleted lists, making it versatile for various types of content organization.

Additional Information

• Numbered List:
• A numbered list is a sequence of items each preceded by a number. It is used to present information in a specific order or sequence.
• In Microsoft Word, you can create numbered lists by selecting the list option from the toolbar and choosing the desired numbering style.
• Bulleted List:
• A bulleted list is a sequence of items each preceded by a bullet point (•). It is used to present information where the order is not important.
• Bulleted lists can be created in Microsoft Word by selecting the bullet list option from the toolbar and choosing the preferred bullet style.
• Indentation:
• Indentation refers to the space between the margin of the page and the text. Indentation is used to show the hierarchical relationship between different levels of text.
• In multilevel numbering, indentation is used to visually distinguish between different levels of the list.
• Customization:
• Microsoft Word allows extensive customization of multilevel lists. Users can choose different numbering formats, change indentation levels, and apply different styles to different levels of the list.
• Customization options can be accessed through the Multilevel List menu in the Paragraph group on the Home tab.

The correct answer is Using the DATE function.

Key Points

• The DATE function in Excel is used to create a date from individual year, month, and day components.
• To add a specific number of days to a date, you can use the formula: =DATE(YEAR(start_date), MONTH(start_date), DAY(start_date) + number_of_days).
• This function is versatile as it automatically adjusts the month and year values if the day value exceeds the number of days in a month.
• Using the DATE function ensures that the resulting date is valid and correctly formatted.

Additional Information

• EDATE function
• The EDATE function is used to add or subtract months from a given date.
• It is not suitable for adding a specific number of days.
• Syntax: =EDATE(start_date, months)
• Example: =EDATE("01-Jan-2023", 1) will return 01-Feb-2023.
• WORKDAY function
• The WORKDAY function is used to return a date that is a specified number of working days before or after a given date.
• It excludes weekends and optionally holidays.
• Syntax: =WORKDAY(start_date, days, [holidays])
• Example: =WORKDAY("01-Jan-2023", 5) will exclude weekends and return a date 5 working days after 01-Jan-2023.
• DAY function
• The DAY function returns the day of the month as a number from 1 to 31.
• It is used to extract the day part of a date.
• Syntax: =DAY(date)
• Example: =DAY("15-Jan-2023") will return 15.

The correct answer is Area chart.

Key Points

• An Area chart is used to represent quantitative data graphically.
• It displays the magnitude of change over time using filled areas below the line segments.
• This type of chart is useful for showing the trend of data over intervals of time or categories.
• Area charts emphasize the magnitude of values and help in understanding the overall volume of the dataset.

Additional Information

• Line Chart
• A line chart is a type of chart which displays information as a series of data points called 'markers' connected by straight line segments.
• It is one of the most common types of charts and is useful for showing trends over time.
• Line charts are typically used to track changes over short and long periods of time.
• They are particularly useful for visualizing data trends and comparing different sets of data.
• Bar Chart
• A bar chart is a chart or graph that presents categorical data with rectangular bars with heights or lengths proportional to the values that they represent.
• Bar charts are used to compare different categories of data.
• They are ideal for showing the relative sizes of different categories.
• Bar charts can be plotted vertically or horizontally.
• Pie Chart
• A pie chart is a circular statistical graphic, which is divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportion.
• Each slice of the pie chart represents a category and the size of each slice is proportional to the quantity it represents.
• Pie charts are best used when you are trying to compare parts of a whole.
• They are not suitable for showing changes over time.

The correct answer is Page layout.

Key Points

• The Page Layout tab in MS Word 365 is specifically designed to handle the layout and formatting of the document.
• Under the Page Layout tab, you will find options to change the page orientation between Portrait and Landscape.
• This tab also allows you to adjust margins, page size, and other layout settings, ensuring your document looks exactly as you want it to.
• Changing the page orientation can be crucial for documents that contain wide tables, images, or need a different layout for presentation purposes.

Additional Information

• Paragraph Alignment:
• Paragraph alignment refers to the positioning of text within a paragraph, such as left, right, center, or justified.
• This option is found under the Home tab and affects the alignment of text within the paragraph, but does not change the page orientation.
• Margins:
• Margins are the blank spaces around the edges of the page where text and other content do not appear.
• You can adjust margins under the Page Layout tab, but this does not change the page orientation.
• Page Break:
• A page break is a marker in a document that tells the printer or display device where to start a new page.
• Inserting a page break is useful for controlling the flow of content, but it does not affect page orientation.

The correct answer is Ctrl + C.

Key Points

• The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + C is used to copy the selected text or item in MS Word 365.
• When you press Ctrl + C, the selected text or item is copied to the clipboard.
• The copied text or item can then be pasted elsewhere using the Ctrl + V shortcut.
• This shortcut is universally used across most applications including MS Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and many others for copying content.

Additional Information

• Clipboard:
• The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
• When you copy or cut text or an item, it is stored on the clipboard until you paste it somewhere.
• The clipboard usually can hold only one item at a time, but more advanced clipboard managers can store multiple items.
• Ctrl + X:
• This shortcut is used to cut the selected text or item.
• When you cut a text or item, it is removed from its original location and stored on the clipboard.
• You can then paste the cut item somewhere else using Ctrl + V.
• Ctrl + V:
• This shortcut is used to paste the text or item that is currently stored on the clipboard.
• It can be used to paste content that was copied or cut previously.
• It is one of the most commonly used shortcuts in text editing and data manipulation.
• Ctrl + P:
• This shortcut is used to open the print dialog in most applications.
• It allows the user to print the current document, image, or file.
• In MS Word, it opens the print settings where you can choose the printer, number of copies, and other printing options.

The correct answer is searching for a value in a table and returning a corresponding value.

Key Points

• The VLOOKUP function stands for Vertical Lookup and is used to search for a value in the first column of a table or range and return a value in the same row from a specified column.
• This function is useful when you need to find specific information in large spreadsheets, such as retrieving employee names based on their ID numbers.
• VLOOKUP requires four arguments: the value to search for, the range to search within, the column number of the value to return, and a logical value to indicate exact or approximate match.
• VLOOKUP is especially useful in database-like scenarios where data is organized in columns and you need to retrieve related information.

Additional Information

• Range: A range in Excel is a collection of two or more cells. This can be a single row, a single column, or multiple rows and columns.
• Column Index Number: The column index number is the number of the column in the range from which to retrieve the value. For example, if you want to retrieve the value from the third column of the range, you would use 3 as the column index number.
• Exact vs. Approximate Match: The fourth argument in VLOOKUP is a logical value indicating whether to find an exact match or an approximate match. If TRUE or omitted, an approximate match is returned. If FALSE, VLOOKUP will find an exact match.
• Error Handling: If VLOOKUP cannot find the value you are looking for, it returns the #N/A error. This can be handled using the IFERROR function to provide a default value or message.

The correct answer is The size of the attachment is unlimited..

Key Points

• Most email providers impose a limit on the size of attachments that can be sent. This limit is usually around 25MB for services like Gmail.
• If your attachment exceeds the size limit, you may need to use a file-sharing service or cloud storage like Google Drive or Dropbox.
• Email attachments can be previewed within the email composition window before sending.
• Users have the ability to remove or change attachments before sending an email.
• Multiple files can be attached in a single email message, provided the total size does not exceed the provider's limit.

Additional Information

• Email Attachment
• An email attachment is a computer file sent along with an email message. One or more files can be attached to any email message, and be sent along with it to the recipient.
• Attachments can include documents, images, videos, and other types of files.
• Attachment Size Limitations
• Most email services have a maximum size limit for attachments. For example, Gmail allows attachments up to 25MB per email. If the size exceeds this limit, users are advised to use cloud storage services.
• Outlook limits attachments to 20MB, while Yahoo Mail has a limit of 25MB.
• Previewing Attachments
• Many email services allow users to preview attachments within the email composition window. This helps in ensuring that the correct files are attached before sending.
• Removing or Changing Attachments
• Users can remove or change attachments before sending an email. This is typically done by clicking on the attachment and selecting the option to remove it or by adding a new file.
• Multiple Attachments
• Users can attach multiple files to a single email message. However, the combined size of all attachments must not exceed the maximum size limit set by the email provider.

The correct answer is Airtel.

Key Points

• Airtel is a leading global telecommunications company with operations in 18 countries across South Asia and Africa.
• It is known for providing various services such as mobile services, fixed line services, broadband, and digital TV services.
• Airtel is one of the largest mobile operators in the world with over 400 million subscribers.
• It offers a wide range of internet services, including high-speed broadband and 4G/5G connectivity, making it a prominent internet service provider.

Additional Information

• Internet Service Provider (ISP)
• An Internet Service Provider (ISP) is a company that provides individuals and organizations access to the internet and other related services such as website building and virtual hosting.
• ISPs use a range of technologies to provide internet access to users, including dial-up, DSL, cable modem, fiber-optics, wireless, and dedicated high-speed interconnects.
• Some well-known ISPs include companies like AT&T, Comcast, Verizon, and in India, Airtel, Jio, and BSNL.
• ISPs may also provide additional services such as email services, domain registration, and web hosting.
• Email Providers
• Email providers are services that offer users the ability to send and receive electronic mail (email) through the internet.
• Popular email providers include Outlook (by Microsoft), Gmail (by Google), Yahoo Mail, and many others.
• Web Browsers
• Web browsers are software applications used to access and view websites and other content on the internet.
• Common web browsers include Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, Microsoft Edge, and Safari.
• Search Engines
• Search engines are tools that allow users to search for information on the internet by entering keywords or phrases.
• Google is one of the most widely used search engines globally, alongside others like Bing, Yahoo, and Baidu.

The correct answer is to adjust the visual appearance of our document to suit our reading or editing needs.

Key Points

• The Zoom icon in Microsoft Word 365 is used to control the magnification level of our document, making it larger or smaller on the screen.
• It helps in adjusting the document view to make reading or editing more comfortable depending on our preference.
• We can zoom in to get a closer view of the text or zoom out to see more of the page layout at once.
• This feature is particularly useful when working with detailed documents or when we have vision difficulties.

Additional Information

• Zoom Slider: Located at the bottom right corner of the Word window, this slider allows us to quickly adjust the zoom level by dragging the slider or clicking the plus (+) or minus (-) buttons.
• Zoom Dialog Box: We can access more zoom options by clicking on the percentage value next to the zoom slider or by selecting "Zoom" from the "View" tab. This dialog box provides predefined zoom levels, a custom zoom option, and settings to fit the document to the window width, page width, or select multiple pages view.
• Reading Mode: This feature optimizes the document layout for easier reading, removing unnecessary visual elements and adjusting the zoom level to fit the screen. We can activate it from the "View" tab or the status bar.
• Print Layout vs. Web Layout: The Zoom feature works in conjunction with different layout views. In Print Layout, we see the document as it would appear when printed, while in Web Layout, the document adapts to fit the screen width, useful for documents intended for online viewing.
• Page Width and Text Width: Options in the Zoom dialog allow us to fit the document to the width of the page or the width of the text, providing flexibility in how we view our content.