CISF Head Constable Ministerial Official Paper (Held On: 06 Aug 2023, Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is -10 degrees centigrade

Key Points

• -10 degrees centigrade is the equivalent of 14 degrees Fahrenheit.
• The formula for converting Fahrenheit to Centigrade (Celsius) is: C = (F - 32) * 5/9.
• By applying the formula: C = (14 - 32) * 5/9 = -18 * 5/9 ≈ -10.
• This conversion is important for understanding temperature scales used in different countries.

Additional Information

• The Fahrenheit scale is primarily used in the United States and its territories.
• The Celsius (or Centigrade) scale is used by most other countries around the world.
• On the Fahrenheit scale, the freezing point of water is 32 degrees, while on the Celsius scale, it is 0 degrees.
• Understanding both scales is essential for scientific research and international communication.

The correct answer is Boron

Key Points

• Boron is the element that precedes carbon in the modern periodic table.
• The periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic number, and boron has an atomic number of 5, while carbon has an atomic number of 6.
• Boron is a metalloid, and it is located in group 13 of the periodic table.
• The modern periodic table is structured so that elements with similar properties fall into the same columns or groups.

Additional Information

• The modern periodic table is based on the periodic law, which states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
• This arrangement was first proposed by Dmitri Mendeleev, who initially arranged the elements by atomic weight, which later evolved into the modern arrangement by atomic number.
• The periodic table has 18 groups and 7 periods.
• Elements in the same group typically exhibit similar chemical properties due to having the same number of valence electrons.
• Periodic trends such as electronegativity, ionization energy, and atomic radius vary predictably across the table.
• The discovery of new elements and the advancement of scientific understanding continue to refine and expand the periodic table.

The correct answer is Sedimentation

Key Points

• Sedimentation is the process where the heavier component in a mixture settles after water is added to it.
• This is a basic method used in separating mixtures, especially when the components have different densities.
• Common applications include the treatment of wastewater, where solid particles settle to the bottom and clear water can be decanted off the top.
• Sedimentation is also used in the purification of drinking water and in various industrial processes.

Additional Information

• Sieving is a method used to separate particles of different sizes by passing them through a sieve.
• Yarning is not related to the process of separation of mixtures; it refers to the process of making yarn.
• Threshing is a process used to separate grain from stalks and husks, commonly used in agriculture.
• Understanding the correct method of separation is crucial for practical applications in science and industry.

The correct answer is Nitrogen

Key Points

• Nitrogen is filled into incandescent bulbs to prolong the life of the filament.
• The presence of nitrogen helps to prevent the oxidation of the tungsten filament when it gets heated.
• By using nitrogen, the filament can operate at a higher temperature without deteriorating quickly.
• Other inert gases like argon are also commonly used for the same purpose.

Additional Information

• Incandescent bulbs work by passing an electric current through a thin filament, usually made of tungsten, which then heats up and emits light.
• The inert gas inside the bulb prevents the filament from burning out quickly by reducing the evaporation of the tungsten.
• These types of bulbs have been largely replaced by more energy-efficient lighting options like LED and CFL bulbs in recent years.
• Despite their inefficiency, incandescent bulbs are still used in some applications where their specific lighting characteristics are desired.

The correct answer is Deep veins

Key Points

• Deep veins are located within muscle tissue and typically have a corresponding artery nearby.
• They play a crucial role in returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
• Unlike superficial veins, deep veins are not visible through the skin and are protected by muscle and other tissues.
• Examples of deep veins include the femoral vein, which runs alongside the femoral artery in the thigh.

Additional Information

• Superficial veins are located closer to the surface of the skin and do not have corresponding arteries.
• Systemic veins are part of the systemic circulation, which carries oxygen-depleted blood from the body back to the heart.
• Pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
• Understanding the difference between deep and superficial veins is crucial for medical procedures such as intravenous injections and surgeries.

The correct answer is Biogas

Key Points

• Biogas is a naturally occurring gas generated by the breakdown of organic matter by anaerobic bacteria.
• This gas is primarily composed of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with small amounts of other gases.
• Biogas is produced in anaerobic digesters, landfills, and wastewater treatment plants.
• It is used as a renewable source of energy, particularly for heating, electricity generation, and as a vehicle fuel.
• Biogas production helps in managing waste and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Additional Information

• Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is a fossil fuel used as an alternative to gasoline, diesel, and propane.
• Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a mixture of propane and butane, used as fuel in heating appliances and vehicles.
• Natural Gas is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture consisting primarily of methane, used as a fuel and in the production of chemicals.
• Unlike biogas, CNG, LPG, and natural gas are not typically produced through the anaerobic breakdown of organic matter.

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

• The Maharashtra Government approved the proposal to rename the airport of Aurangabad after Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj in March 2020.
• This decision was taken to honor the legacy of Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, who was the eldest son of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and the second ruler of the Maratha Kingdom.
• Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj is remembered for his valor and efforts in defending the Maratha Empire from the Mughals and other invaders.
• Renaming the airport is seen as a tribute to his significant contribution to Indian history and culture.

Additional Information

• Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj was born on 14 May 1657 and was executed on 11 March 1689 by the Mughals.
• He was known for his resistance against the Mughal Empire, particularly during the reign of Emperor Aurangzeb.
• His rule is marked by significant military campaigns and efforts to consolidate the Maratha Empire.
• The decision to rename the airport aligns with similar efforts to honor historical figures and cultural icons across India.
• Aurangabad is a city in the Indian state of Maharashtra, known for its rich history and cultural heritage, including landmarks like the Ajanta and Ellora Caves.

The correct answer is 21 years

Key Points

• 21 years is the minimum age requirement for being a member of a Panchayat as prescribed by the Constitution of India.
• This age requirement ensures that individuals have reached a level of maturity and responsibility to participate in local self-governance.
• The Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier system comprising village, intermediate, and district levels.
• It aims to build democracy at the grassroots level and empower local communities.

Additional Information

• The Panchayati Raj system was constitutionalized through the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
• It aims to decentralize power and promote participatory democracy.
• The system is governed by Part IX of the Constitution, which includes provisions from Articles 243 to 243O.
• Each state is required to establish Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, and hold regular elections.
• This system plays a crucial role in rural development and local governance in India.

The correct answer is Sawai Pratap Singh

Key Points

• Sawai Pratap Singh was the ruler who built the Hawa Mahal in Jaipur.
• The Hawa Mahal, also known as the "Palace of Winds," was constructed in 1799.
• It is a five-story palace made of red and pink sandstone and is one of the prominent tourist attractions in Jaipur.
• The structure was designed by Lal Chand Ustad and was built to allow the royal ladies to observe street festivals while unseen from the outside.
• The palace features 953 small windows, known as jharokhas, decorated with intricate latticework.

Additional Information

• Jaipur is the capital city of Rajasthan and is known as the "Pink City" due to the dominant color scheme of its buildings.
• Jaipur is a major tourist destination in India, forming a part of the west Golden Triangle tourist circuit along with Delhi and Agra.
• The city was founded by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II in 1727.
• Jaipur is famous for its rich history, culture, and architectural landmarks.

The correct answer is Sutlej

Key Points

• Sutlej is the longest tributary of the Indus River.
• The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal in Tibet near Mount Kailash and flows through India and Pakistan.
• It merges with the Beas River in India and continues its journey to join the Indus River in Pakistan.
• The river plays a crucial role in the irrigation and hydroelectric power generation for the regions it flows through.
• The Sutlej River is a vital water source for the Bhakra Nangal Dam, one of the highest gravity dams in the world.

Additional Information

• The Indus River system is one of the largest river systems in the world, with a significant portion flowing through Pakistan.
• Other major tributaries of the Indus River include the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, and Beas rivers.
• The Indus Waters Treaty, signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan, governs the water distribution and management of the Indus River and its tributaries.
• The river system supports a large agricultural region and is essential for the livelihoods of millions of people in both India and Pakistan.
• The Sutlej River has historical significance, with ancient civilizations such as the Indus Valley Civilization flourishing along its banks.

The correct answer is Karnataka

Key Points

• Karnataka was the largest producer of coffee in India in 2020, according to the Coffee Board of India.
• Karnataka's favorable climatic conditions and topography make it ideal for coffee cultivation.
• The state contributes to over 70% of the country's coffee production, with major coffee-growing regions including Chikmagalur, Coorg, and Hassan.
• Both Arabica and Robusta varieties of coffee are grown extensively in Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Coffee cultivation in India started in the hills of Chikmagalur, Karnataka, in the 17th century.
• The Coffee Board of India, established in 1942, is an organization managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote coffee production in India.
• India is the seventh-largest producer of coffee globally and exports a significant portion of its coffee to international markets.
• Other major coffee-producing states in India include Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Joule

Key Points

• Joule is the unit of energy in the International System of Units (SI).
• It is named after the English physicist James Prescott Joule.
• One joule is defined as the amount of energy transferred when a force of one newton is applied over a distance of one meter.
• It is a derived unit with the dimensions of mass (kg), length (m), and time (s) in the SI system.

Additional Information

• Fahrenheit, Celsius, and Kelvin are units of temperature, not energy.
• The International System of Units (SI) was established in 1960 and is based on the metric system.
• SI units are used globally to ensure consistency and standardization in scientific and technical measurements.
• Other common SI units of energy include the kilojoule (kJ) and the megajoule (MJ).

The correct answer is Punjab

Key Points

• Baisakhi is one of the most significant festivals in the state of Punjab.
• It marks the beginning of the new harvest season and is celebrated with great enthusiasm by the farming community.
• The festival also commemorates the formation of the Khalsa in 1699 by Guru Gobind Singh, making it a religious event for Sikhs.
• People celebrate Baisakhi by performing traditional dances like Bhangra and Gidda, and participating in fairs and community gatherings.
• The Golden Temple in Amritsar, Punjab, witnesses a large number of devotees during Baisakhi.

Additional Information

• Baisakhi is also celebrated in various other parts of India, albeit with different names and traditions. For instance, it is known as Vishu in Kerala and Rongali Bihu in Assam.
• The festival usually falls on the 13th or 14th of April every year, based on the solar calendar.
• In addition to its cultural and religious significance, Baisakhi is also a time for socializing and strengthening community bonds.
• Special dishes like Kada Prasad and Langar meals are prepared and shared among people during the celebrations.

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

• Maharashtra was the highest contributor to the All India Nominal GDP in the financial year 2018-19.
• The state has a diverse economy with major industries including manufacturing, finance, and information technology.
• Mumbai, the capital city of Maharashtra, is the financial capital of India and houses the headquarters of several major corporations and financial institutions.
• Maharashtra's significant contribution to the GDP is also attributed to its well-developed infrastructure and favorable business environment.

Additional Information

• The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Maharashtra was estimated to be around ₹26.62 lakh crore in 2018-19.
• The state has consistently been a top performer in terms of economic output and industrial growth.
• Maharashtra is also known for its significant agricultural production, particularly in sugarcane, cotton, and horticulture.
• The government of Maharashtra has implemented several policies to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and boost economic activities in the state.
• Maharashtra's strategic location and extensive transportation network contribute to its economic dominance in India.

The correct answer is Panjab University

Key Points

• Panjab University secured the top place in the medal tally of the 'Khelo India University Games 2020'.
• The 'Khelo India University Games' is an initiative to promote sports culture at the university level in India.
• Panjab University achieved this feat by showcasing excellent performances across various sports disciplines.
• The event aims to identify and nurture sports talent from universities across the country, providing them with a platform to compete at a national level.

Additional Information

• The 'Khelo India Programme' was launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, in 2018 to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level.
• The programme includes various initiatives such as the 'Khelo India Youth Games' and 'Khelo India University Games' to encourage young athletes.
• It also aims to provide better infrastructure, equipment, and training facilities to budding sports talent in the country.
• The 'Khelo India University Games 2020' was the first edition of this multi-disciplinary event, held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

The correct answer is Lucknow

Key Points

• The headquarters of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) is located in Lucknow.
• SIDBI was established in April 1990 as the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector and for the coordination of the functions of the institutions engaged in similar activities.
• SIDBI's primary objective is to strengthen the MSME sector by providing financial assistance and other support services.
• The bank plays a significant role in the development of industries in rural and semi-urban areas, creating employment opportunities and promoting sustainable development.

Additional Information

• SIDBI operates under the Department of Financial Services, Government of India.
• It provides various financial products and services, including term loans, working capital loans, and microfinance, to cater to the diverse needs of MSMEs.
• SIDBI also offers promotional and developmental support to MSMEs through various initiatives, such as cluster development programs, skill development, and technology upgradation.
• The institution collaborates with various stakeholders, including government agencies, financial institutions, and industry associations, to create a conducive environment for the growth and development of MSMEs in India.
• SIDBI's efforts have contributed significantly to the growth of the MSME sector, which is a vital component of the Indian economy, generating employment and contributing to GDP growth.

The correct answer is 60 minutes

Key Points

• The total duration of a hockey match as per the International Hockey Federation rules is 60 minutes.
• This duration is divided into four quarters of 15 minutes each.
• There are intervals of 2 minutes between the first and second quarters and between the third and fourth quarters.
• A longer interval of 10 minutes is given at half-time, which is between the second and third quarters.
• These rules were implemented to make the game more fast-paced and to increase viewer engagement.

Additional Information

• The International Hockey Federation (FIH) is the governing body for the sport of field hockey and indoor field hockey.
• The FIH was founded in 1924 and is responsible for setting the rules and regulations of the game.
• Hockey is played on grass, watered turf, artificial turf, or synthetic field, as well as an indoor boarded surface.
• The game is played globally with major competitions such as the Hockey World Cup, the Hockey Champions Trophy, and the Hockey Junior World Cup.
• Field hockey has been a part of the Summer Olympic Games since 1908 for men and since 1980 for women.

The correct answer is Socialist

Key Points

• The word Socialist was inserted into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976.
• The 42nd Amendment is one of the most significant amendments to the Indian Constitution.
• This amendment aimed to explicitly express the socialistic nature of the Indian state.
• Along with 'Socialist', the words 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were also added to the Preamble by this amendment.
• The Preamble now reads: ""We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens...""

Additional Information

• The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
• It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
• The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
• It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
• The 42nd Amendment is also known as the ""Mini-Constitution"" due to its wide-ranging impact on the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is 0.15

Key Points

• The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state cannot exceed 15% (0.15) of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state.
• This provision is stipulated under Article 164(1A) of the Constitution of India.
• The aim is to ensure a streamlined and efficient government by limiting the size of the Council of Ministers.
• This limit is applicable to all Indian states to maintain uniformity across the nation.

Additional Information

• Article 164(1A) was introduced by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, and came into effect on 1st January 2004.
• This amendment was made to curb the issue of oversized cabinets and to promote the principle of a smaller and more efficient government.
• The amendment also includes provisions to prevent the defection of legislators by disqualifying them from holding ministerial positions if they switch parties.
• The 91st Amendment Act also ensures that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The Constitution of India is a dynamic document that has been amended multiple times to address the changing needs and challenges of the nation.

The correct answer is Article 21

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Constitution of India declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This article is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution, which guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty.
• Article 21 is one of the most important articles as it encompasses a wide range of judicial interpretations and has been expanded to include various derivative rights.
• The scope of Article 21 has been widened by the Supreme Court of India through various landmark judgments, ensuring the right to live with dignity and the right to privacy among others.

Additional Information

• Article 19 provides for the protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
• Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses.
• Article 18 abolishes titles except for military and academic distinctions.
• Part III of the Constitution of India is dedicated to Fundamental Rights, which are considered vital for the development of individuals and the country.
• The right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 is not absolute and can be restricted by the procedure established by law, provided such a procedure is just, fair, and reasonable.

The correct answer is 2) The Urban Learning Internship Programme

Key Points

• The acronym TULIP stands for The Urban Learning Internship Programme.
• TULIP is an internship program designed for fresh graduates and engineers in India.
• This program is part of the 'Smart City' projects initiated by the Government of India.
• The aim of TULIP is to provide practical experience and learning opportunities in urban development and management.
• Through this program, participants get to work on various projects under the 'Smart City' initiative, gaining valuable insights and contributing to urban growth.

Additional Information

• The 'Smart City' initiative aims to enhance the quality of life in urban areas by leveraging technology and smart solutions.
• TULIP is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
• The program not only benefits the participants but also helps in the development of smart, sustainable, and resilient urban infrastructure.
• Participants in TULIP have the opportunity to work on real-world challenges and propose innovative solutions to urban issues.

The correct answer is 1206

Key Points

• The Delhi Sultanate was established in the year 1206.
• This marked the beginning of Muslim rule in India with the establishment of the Mamluk Dynasty (also known as the Slave Dynasty).
• Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave and general of Muhammad Ghori, became the first Sultan of Delhi.
• The Delhi Sultanate saw the rise and fall of five dynasties: Mamluk, Khilji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, and Lodi.
• It played a significant role in the cultural and political landscape of medieval India.

Additional Information

• The Delhi Sultanate lasted until 1526, when it was overthrown by the Mughal Empire.
• The period of the Delhi Sultanate was marked by significant developments in art, architecture, and culture, including the construction of the Qutub Minar and the introduction of Persian culture.
• The Sultanate also saw the introduction of new administrative practices and the establishment of a centralized form of governance.
• The influence of the Delhi Sultanate extended beyond the Indian subcontinent, impacting trade and cultural exchanges with other regions.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

• Veera Natyam is a traditional ritual dance form.
• It is primarily performed in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• The dance is often associated with the worship of Veerabhadra, a fierce form of Lord Shiva.
• Veera Natyam is characterized by vigorous movements and is performed during various religious and cultural festivals.
• It reflects the rich cultural heritage and religious fervor of Andhra Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh is known for its diverse and vibrant cultural traditions.
• Other notable dance forms from Andhra Pradesh include Kuchipudi and Perini Sivatandavam.
• The state has a rich history of performing arts, with dance and music playing a significant role in its cultural identity.
• Veera Natyam is often performed in temples and during festivals such as Mahashivaratri.

The correct answer is Chamera Dam

Key Points

• Chamera Dam is built on the Ravi River.
• The dam is located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It is primarily used for hydroelectric power generation, contributing significantly to the power supply in the region.
• The Chamera Hydroelectric Project is executed in three stages: Chamera-I, Chamera-II, and Chamera-III.

Additional Information

• The Ravi River is one of the five rivers that give Punjab its name (Punjab means ""Land of Five Rivers"").
• The river originates from the Himalayas in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It flows through the northwestern part of India and eastern Pakistan, ultimately joining the Chenab River.
• The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on the Sutlej River, not the Ravi River.
• The Pandoh Dam is also on the Beas River, and the Nathpa Jhakri Dam is on the Sutlej River.

Given:

Sami's current age = 12 years

Sami is thrice as old as his brother.

Formula Used:

Brother's current age = Sami's current age / 3

Sami's age when it will be double of Vinay's age = 2 × Brother's age at that time

Calculation:

Brother's current age = 12 / 3

Brother's current age = 4 years

Let Sami's future age be x years. At that time, Vinay's age will be (x - 8) years because the age difference remains constant.

According to the problem, Sami's future age will be double of Vinay's age.

⇒ x = 2 × (x - 8)

⇒ x = 2x - 16

⇒ x - 2x = -16

⇒ -x = -16

⇒ x = 16

Sami's age when his age will become double of Vinay's age is 16 years.

Given:

The length of the diagonal of a square = 6 cm.

Formula Used:

Diagonal of square = √2 × side

Calculation:

Diagonal of square = √2 × side

⇒ 6 = √2 × side

⇒ Side = 6/√2 =  6/√2 × √2 /√2 =  6√2/2 = 3√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

The length of the rectangle = 90 m.

The breadth of the rectangle = 80 m.

The area of the rectangle = The area of the square.

Formula Used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Area of square = Side²

Side of the square = √(Area of the rectangle)

Calculation:

Area of the rectangle = 90 × 80

⇒ Area of the rectangle = 7200 m²

Side of the square = √7200

⇒ Side of the square = √(3600 × 2)

⇒ Side of the square = 60√2 m

The side of the square is 60√2 m.

Given:

Cost price (CP) of mangoes = 3 kg for Rs. 21

Selling price (SP) of mangoes = 5 kg for Rs. 50

Profit required = Rs. 102

Formula Used:

Profit = (SP - CP) × Quantity

Calculation:

CP per kg = 21 / 3

⇒ CP per kg = 7 Rs/kg

SP per kg = 50 / 5

⇒ SP per kg = 10 Rs/kg

Profit per kg = SP per kg - CP per kg

Profit per kg = 10 - 7 = 3 Rs/kg

Now,

Quantity to be sold for Rs. 102 profit:

⇒ 102 = 3 × Quantity

⇒ Quantity = 102 / 3 = 34 kg

Rahim must sell 34 kg of mangoes.

Given:

Radius of the circular wire = 56 m

Formula Used:

1. Circumference of the circle = 2πr
2. Perimeter of the square = 4 × side

Calculation:

According to the question,

2πr = 4 × side

⇒ 2 × 22/7 × 56 = 4 × side

⇒ Side = 88 cm

The side of the square is 88 cm.

Given:

Number to be formed: 86335 *6

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits in the odd positions and the sum of the digits in the even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculation:

Consider the number 86335*6:

Odd positions: 8, 3, 5, 6

Even positions: 6, 3, *

Sum of odd positions: 8 + 3 + 5 + 6 = 22

Sum of even positions: 6 + 3 + * = 9 + *

For the number to be divisible by 11, 

⇒ 22 - (9 + *) = 11k, where k is an integer

⇒ 22 - 9 - * = 11k

⇒ 13 - * = 11k

To find the value of *, let’s test for k = 1:

⇒ 13 - * = 11

⇒ * = 2

Thus, the value of * is 2.

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

We need to find the sum of the first 80 natural numbers.

Formula Used:

Sum of the first n natural numbers = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}

Calculation:

Here, n = 80

Sum = $\frac{80(80+1)}{2}$

⇒ Sum = $\frac{80 × 81}{2}$

⇒ Sum = $\frac{6480}{2}$

⇒ Sum = 3240

The sum of the first 80 natural numbers is 3240.

Given:

The fractions are: $\frac{1}{2}$, $\frac{1}{3}$, $\frac{1}{4}$, $\frac{2}{5}$, $\frac{7}{6}$, $\frac{9}{7}$.

Formula Used:

To compare fractions, convert them to a common denominator or convert them to decimal form.

Calculation:

Convert each fraction to decimal form:

$\frac{1}{2} = 0.5$

$\frac{1}{3} \approx 0.333$

$\frac{1}{4} = 0.25$

$\frac{2}{5} = 0.4$

$\frac{7}{6} \approx 1.167$

$\frac{9}{7} \approx 1.286$

Comparing these values:

The greatest fraction is $\frac{9}{7} \approx 1.286$.

The least fraction is $\frac{1}{4} = 0.25$.

The greatest and the least fractions respectively are $\frac{9}{7}$ and $\frac{1}{4}$.

Concept Used:

A number is divisible by 15 if it is divisible by both 3 and 5.

1. Divisibility by 3: The sum of the digits is divisible by 3.
2. Divisibility by 5: The last digit is 0 or 5.

Calculation:

Option (1)

Sum of digits = 1 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 8 + 5 = 29

19 is not divisible by 3

Not divisible by 3 and 5, thus not divisible by 15.

Option (2)

Sum of digits = 3 + 0 + 6 + 0 + 4 + 5 = 18

18 is divisible by 3

Last digit = 5

Divisible by 3 and 5, thus also divisible by 15.

∴ The correct option is 3,06,045.

Given:

We need to find the remainder when 8127 is divided by 8.

Formula Used:

Remainder = Dividend - (Divisor × Quotient)

Calculation:

First, find the quotient when 8127 is divided by 8:

Quotient = 8127 / 8

⇒ Quotient = 1015 (considering only the integer part)

Next, use the formula to find the remainder:

Remainder = 8127 - (8 × 1015)

⇒ Remainder = 8127 - 8120

⇒ Remainder = 7

The remainder when 8127 is divided by 8 is 7.

Given:

√{156.25} + √{0.0081} - √{0.0361}

Formula Used:

√x = square root of x

Calculation:

First, we find each square root:

√{156.25} = 12.5

√{0.0081} = 0.09

√{0.0361} = 0.19

Now, we substitute these values into the original equation:

√{156.25} + √{0.0081} - √{0.0361}

12.5 + 0.09 - 0.19

12.5 + 0.09 - 0.19 = 12.4

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Option 1: 0.62

Option 2: $\frac{2}{3}$

Option 3: 0.57

Option 4: $\frac{4}{5}$

Formula Used:

To compare decimal numbers and fractions, convert all to decimal form.

Calculation:

Option 1: 0.62

Option 2: $\frac{2}{3}$

⇒ $\frac{2}{3} \approx 0.6667$

Option 3: 0.57

Option 4: $\frac{4}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{4}{5} = 0.8$

Comparing the values:

0.62, 0.6667, 0.57, 0.8

The greatest value among the given options is 0.8.

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

A can do the work in 10 days.

B can do the work in 12 days.

C can do the work in 15 days.

Formula Used:

Work Rate = Work / Time

Total Work Rate = Sum of Individual Work Rates

Time = Work / Total Work Rate

Calculation:

Work Rate of A = 1/10

Work Rate of B = 1/12

Work Rate of C = 1/15

Total Work Rate = 1/10 + 1/12 + 1/15

To add these fractions, find a common denominator:

Common denominator = LCM(10, 12, 15) = 60

$\frac{1}{10} = \frac{6}{60}$

$\frac{1}{12} = \frac{5}{60}$

$\frac{1}{15} = \frac{4}{60}$

⇒ Total Work Rate = $\frac{6}{60} + \frac{5}{60} + \frac{4}{60}$

⇒ Total Work Rate = $\frac{15}{60}$

⇒ Total Work Rate = $\frac{1}{4}$

Time required to finish the work = Work / Total Work Rate

⇒ Time = 1 / (1/4)

⇒ Time = 4 days

The number of days required to finish the work is 4 days.

Given:

Cost price of the table = Rs. 450

Transportation cost = Rs. 30

Selling price of the table = Rs. 600

Formula Used:

Gain% = (Gain / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Total Cost Price = Cost price of the table + Transportation cost

Total Cost Price = 450 + 30

Total Cost Price = 480

Gain = Selling price - Total Cost Price

Gain = 600 - 480

Gain = 120

Gain% = (120 / 480) × 100

Gain% = (1 / 4) × 100

Gain% = 25%

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Invalid votes = 68

Winning candidate's percentage = 52%

Winning margin = 98 votes

Formula Used:

Total votes = Valid votes + Invalid votes

Difference in votes = (Winning candidate's votes - Other candidate's votes)

Winning candidate's votes = 52% of valid votes

Other candidate's votes = 48% of valid votes

Calculation:

Let the total number of valid votes be V.

Winning candidate's votes = 0.52V

Other candidate's votes = 0.48V

Difference in votes = 0.52V - 0.48V

⇒ 0.04V = 98

⇒ V = 98 / 0.04

⇒ V = 2450

Total votes polled = Valid votes + Invalid votes

Total votes polled = 2450 + 68

Total votes polled = 2518

The total number of votes polled are 2518.

Given:

12 men can complete a work in 18 days.

After 6 days, 4 more men joined them.

Formula Used:

Work done = Number of men × Number of days

Calculation:

Work done by 12 men in 18 days = 12 × 18 = 216 man-days

Work done by 12 men in 6 days = 12 × 6 = 72 man-days

Remaining work = 216 - 72 = 144 man-days

Number of men after 4 more joined = 12 + 4 = 16 men

Days required by 16 men to complete the remaining work

Let the required number of days be dd

.

⇒ 16 × d = 144

⇒ d = 144 / 16

⇒ d = 9

The number of days they will now take to complete the remaining work is 9 days.

Given:

The circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 16.8 cm.

Formula Used:

Circumference of a circle = 2πr

where, r = radius

Calculation:

According to the question,

Circumference of a circle = 16.8 + 2r

⇒ 2× 22/7 × r = 16.8 + 2r

⇒ 44/7 r = 16.8 + 2r

⇒ 6.28 r - 2r = 16.8

⇒ 4.28 r = 16.8

⇒ r = 16.8/4.28 = 3.92 cm

Now,

Circumference of a circle

⇒ 2× 22/7 × 3.92 = 24.64 cm

The circumference of the circle is approximately 24.64 cm.

Given:

Length and breadth ratio = 5:4

Perimeter = 144 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Area of a rectangle = Length × Breadth

Calculation:

Let the length be 5x and the breadth be 4x.

Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

⇒ 144 = 2 × (5x + 4x)

⇒ 144 = 2 × 9x

⇒ 144 = 18x

⇒ x = 144 / 18

⇒ x = 8

Length = 5x = 5 × 8 = 40 m

Breadth = 4x = 4 × 8 = 32 m

Area = Length × Breadth

⇒ Area = 40 × 32

⇒ Area = 1280 m²

The area of the rectangle is 1280 m².

Given:

The task is to find the total number of prime numbers up to 100.

Formula Used:

Definition of a prime number: A number greater than 1 with no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

Calculation:

List of prime numbers up to 100:

2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97

Count of prime numbers up to 100:

Total = 25

The total number of prime numbers up to 100 is 25.

Given:

Pair of numbers: (14, 35), (24, 32), (20, 25)

Formula Used:

Two numbers are co-primes if their greatest common divisor (GCD) is 1.

Calculation:

1. For the pair (14, 35):

Prime factors of 14 = 2 × 7

Prime factors of 35 = 5 × 7

Common factor = 7

⇒ GCD(14, 35) = 7

⇒ 14 and 35 are not co-primes.

2. For the pair (24, 32):

Prime factors of 24 = 2³ × 3

Prime factors of 32 = 2⁵

Common factor = 2

⇒ GCD(24, 32) = 2

⇒ 24 and 32 are not co-primes.

3. For the pair (20, 25):

Prime factors of 20 = 2² × 5

Prime factors of 25 = 5²

Common factor = 5

⇒ GCD(20, 25) = 5

⇒ 20 and 25 are not co-primes.

4. For the pair (10, 21):

Prime factors of 10 = 2 × 5

Prime factors of 21 = 3 × 7

Common factor = 1

⇒ GCD(20, 25) = 1

Thus, 10 and 21 are co-primes.

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Numbers: 1134, 1344, 1512

Formula Used:

Greatest common divisor (GCD)

Calculation:

1134 = 2 × 3⁴ × 7

1344 = 2⁶ × 3 × 7

1512 = 2³ × 3³ × 7

Common factors: 2, 3, 7

⇒ GCD = 2 × 3 × 7

⇒ GCD = 42

The greatest integer which divides 1134, 1344, and 1512 is 42.

Given:

Fractions: 676767

, 565656

, 787878

, 454545

Formula Used:

To compare fractions, convert them to a common denominator or compare their decimal values.

Calculation:

Convert each fraction to decimal form:

67=0.857167=0.857167=0.8571

56=0.833356=0.833356=0.8333

78=0.87578=0.87578=0.875

45=0.845=0.845=0.8

Compare the decimal values:

0.8571, 0.8333, 0.875, 0.8

Since 0.875 is the greatest value, 787878

is the greatest fraction.

The greatest fraction is 787878

.

Given:

Marked price (MP) = Rs. 180

Price after discount (SP) = Rs. 153

Formula Used:

Rate of discount (R) = MP−SPMP×100MP−SPMP×100

Calculation:

Marked price (MP) = 180

Price after discount (SP) = 153

Discount = MP - SP = 180 - 153 = 27

Rate of discount (R) = 27180×10027180×100

⇒ R = 27×10018027×100180

⇒ R = 27001802700180

⇒ R = 15%

The rate of discount is 15%.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 43.2 minutes.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 108 minutes.

Pipe C can empty the tank at 3 litres per minute.

All three pipes together fill the tank in 54 minutes.

Formula Used:

Rate of filling = Volume / Time

Calculation:

 

Efficiency of A + B + C = 4

⇒ Efficiency of C (drain pipe) = 4 - (A + B)

⇒ 4 - (5 + 2) = 4 - 7 = -3

Time required to drain the tank by C = 216/3 = 72 min.

Now,

Volume of tank

⇒ 3 × 72 = 216 ltr

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

An amount becomes 7 times in 20 years.

Formula Used:

SI = PRT/100

Amount = P + SI

P = Principle, R = Rate, T = time

Calculation:

Let P be the principle.

First condition,

A = 7P

So, SI = 7P - P = 6P

Now,

6P = P × R × 20/100

R = 30 %

Second condition,

A = 13P

SI = 13P -  P = 12P

Now,

12P = P × 30 × T/100

T = 40 years.

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

The pattern followed here is;

Method 1:

12 + 1 = 2

32 + 1 = 10

52 + 1 = 26

72 + 1 = 50

92 + 1 = 82

Hence, the correct answer is "50".

Alternate MethodMethod 2:

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "50"

The pattern followed here is;

The series is obtained by adding prime numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "128".

Important PointsPrime Numbers:- Number that is divisible by 1 and itself only is known as Prime Number.

2 is a Prime number.

1 is not a Prime number.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Hence, the correct answer is "AIW".

Potato, Ginger, and Radish are all root vegetables, which grow underground.

While;

A Pumpkin is not a root vegetable but a fruit (technically a type of berry known as a pepo) that grows above ground on a vine.

This fundamental difference sets "Pumpkin" apart from the other three words.

Hence, the correct answer is "Pumpkin".

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Similarly;

Hence, the correct answer is "MV".

"Diabetes," "Ulcer," and "Anaemia" are all types of diseases or medical conditions.

• Diabetes is a chronic condition that affects the way the body processes blood sugar (glucose).
• An ulcer is a sore that develops on the skin or mucous membranes.
• Anaemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body's tissues.

While;

"Hormone" is not a disease or a medical condition.

• It is a type of chemical substance produced in the body that controls and regulates the activity of certain cells or organs.

This fundamental difference sets "Hormone" apart from the other three words.

Hence, the correct answer is "Hormone".

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Hence, the correct answer is "I".

Given Series:

2 9 4 2 8 4 4 1 2 4 8 2 2 9 1 4 4 8 2 

According to Question:

2, 4 and 8 have appeared together, 8 being in the middle and 2 and 4 on either side of 8

2 9 4 2 8 4 4 1 2 4 8 2 2 9 1 4 4 8 2 

There are three pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Three".

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Similarly;

Hence, the correct answer is "TYKB".

First humans are born then they grow and get the education and once they are matured they get married and after a certain years they die and a funeral is held. Thus, the logical order is:

1. Birth
2. Education
3. Marriage
4. Death

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The pattern followed here is:

4 → 64 (opposite phase of 4 is (43) i.e. 64)

7 → 343 (opposite phase of 7 is (73) i.e. 343)

Similarly,

11 → 1331 (opposite phase of 11 is (113) i.e. 1331)

Hence, the correct answer is "1331".

1. Anita is taller than Surjit but shorter than Kusum.

Kusum > Anita > Surjit

2. Surjit is just as tall as Kalpana but taller than Vanita.

Surjit = Kalpana > Vanita

This means Kalpana is shorter than Anita.

Combine the statements;

Kusum > Anita > Surjit = Kalpana > Vanita.

So, Kalpana is shorter than Anita.

Hence, the correct answer is "shorter than Anita".

The pattern follows here is;

In 9 × 5 × 2 = 529

And;

In 4 × 7 × 2 = 724

Similarly;

In 3 × 9 × 8 = ? 

Hence, the correct answer is "983".

As per the given information; 

Pratap is facing in South Direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "South".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

A possible tree diagram will be:

⇒ Monika is the only daughter of her father.

⇒ And Reena is the only daughter of Monika. 

So, Monika is the mother of Reena. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Mother".

Formula used:

(x1 × y1) / z1 = (x2 × y2) / z2

Here, x = cats

y = minutes

z = rats

Calculations:

Put all values in the formula,

⇒ (4 × 4) / 4 = (8 × y2) / 8

⇒ y2 = 4

Thus, '4' minutes will take 8 cats to kill 8 rats.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

Venn diagram according to the given information is:

Liquids, Milk and River water.

Milk and River Water both are Liquid.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Taking Dice position (1) and (2), as 3 and 6 are common;

The remaining number in Dice position (1) is 2.

The remaining number in Dice position (2) is 5.

So, 2 and 5 are opposite number pairs.

Hence, "5" is the correct answer.

Logic: Leaf is completed

In Figure 1 and Figure 2 →

Similarly;

In Figure 3 and Figure 4 →

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Figure 1:

Two Half arrows in opposite direction and upper is inside the Parallel Arrows.

Figure 2:

Two Half arrows in opposite direction and side one is inside the Parallel Arrows.

Figure 3:

Two Half arrows in opposite direction and Side one is inside the Parallel Arrows.

Figure 4:

Two Half arrows in opposite direction and lower is outside the Parallel Arrows.

Figure (4) is different from all other figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The given figure when unfolded is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

The mirror image of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

"Cardiology" is the branch of medicine that deals with diseases and abnormalities of the 'heart'.

Similarly;

"Nephrology" is the study of 'kidney'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Nephrology".

Important Points

Nephology:

The branch of meteorology deals with clouds.

Nephrology:

The branch of medicine deals with the physiology and diseases of the kidneys.

Neurology:

Neurology is the branch of medicine concerned with the study and treatment of disorders of the nervous system. 

Rheumatology:

The branch of medicine that deals with painful, typically inflammatory or infectious conditions of the joints and other parts of the musculoskeletal system.

Nuclear Medicine:

A medical specialty that uses radioactive tracers (radiopharmaceuticals) to assess bodily functions and to diagnose and treat disease.

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

 

Given the equation: 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 = ?

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 20 + 16 × 5 ÷ 10 - 8

= 20 + 16 × 1/2 - 8

= 20 + 8 - 8

= 28 - 8

= 20

Hence, the correct answer is "20".

The words given are related to the cycle of making a table from the very beginning.

They must be arranged in which they occur in this cycle. 

We know that, first seed come then plant then tree then wood then we make table.

4. Seed
5. Tree
6. Wood
7. Table

The order is 4, 2, 3, 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "​4, 2, 3, 1".

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• As per the given passage, it is mentioned, "I wanted to chase them, but she stopped me saying that such rogues could be armed and dangerous".
• Option 1 is not the primary reason for stopping the narrator.
• Option 2 is incorrect as nothing is mentioned about her will to retrieve the bag herself.
• Option 4 is incorrect as nothing is mentioned about the difficulty of following the thieves in the dark.

Therefore, the correct answer is "She feared they could harm the narrator."

The correct answer is Two days.

 

Key Points

• The narrator mentions being in Calcutta for the weekend.
• A "weekend" typically refers to the period of Saturday and Sunday, which constitutes two days.
• The events described in the passage occur over the course of these two days.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• One day – This would refer to staying just for Saturday or Sunday.
• Two weeks – This would be a much longer duration and is not mentioned in the passage.
• One week – This is also longer than what is indicated in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• In the given passage it is mentioned that " My cousin's wife said, "Let me show you where we spend some of our evenings."
• Hence it can be concluded that option 1 is correct.
• Option 2 is incorrect because nothing is mentioned about the picnic.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the narrator's cousin's wife did not mention about enjoying the cool breeze in the evening.
• Option 4 is incorrect because she did not say about having an evening walk on the bridge.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'show him the place where she and her husband spent their evenings.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• As per the given passage, it says ' his wife drove him to the airport and accompanied them'.
• Option 2 is incorrect because it is true that 'The narrator's cousin lived in Calcutta.
• Option 3 is incorrect because it is true that there was no real loss in the incident.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the handbag contained apples and biscuits.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• It can be concluded from the given passage that the 3 men were thieves.
• They asked for the match from the narrator to divert his mind
• After that, they snatched the bag from the lady
• Option 1 is incorrect as they did not want to burn the handbag.
• Option 2 is incorrect as they did not want to smoke a cigarette.
• Option 4 is incorrect as they did not ask for the match to pass the bag to his accomplice.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Stop and divert the narrator's attention'.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. bothered; attention.

Key Points

• The sentence indicates that Shalini was not affected by the criticism and did not pay any heed to it, even when it came from her best friend.
• The word "bothered" fits well as it conveys that the criticism did not trouble her.
• The phrase "paid no attention" means she did not concern herself with the criticism.
• Other options like "troubled; mind," "threatened; warning," and "deterred; heed" do not fit as well in the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is- bothered; attention.

Additional Information

• Troubled means disturbed or agitated.
• Threatened means to be in danger or at risk.
• Deterred means discouraged or restrained from acting.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. solve; mystery.

Key Points

• The sentence refers to the police uncovering the details behind a disappearance.
• The word "solve" fits appropriately as it means to find an answer or explanation.
• The word "mystery" refers to something that is difficult or impossible to understand or explain, which fits the context of a disappearance.
• Other options like "reveal; secret," "confirm; doubt," and "expose; mystery" do not fit as cohesively in the stated context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- solve; mystery.

Additional Information

• Reveal means to make previously unknown or secret information known to others.
• Confirm means to establish the truth or correctness of something.
• Expose means to uncover or lay bare something hidden.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. grumbled; when.

Key Points

• The sentence suggests that Ravi was complaining because he was not invited to the party.
• The word "grumbled" fits well as it means to complain about something in a bad-tempered way.
• The conjunction "when" indicates the time or occasion of him being unhappy about not being invited.
• Other options like "took; before," "angered; since," and "expressed; than" do not fit the context as logically.

Therefore, the correct answer is- grumbled; when.

Additional Information

• Took refers to the act of seizing or capturing something.
• Angered describes the state of being filled with anger.
• Expressed means to convey a thought or feeling in words or gestures.

The correct answer is 'B' i.e. to.

Key Points

• The phrase "offensive to good taste" is a common English expression.
• Prepositions are used to show the relationships between words in a sentence.
• 'To' is often used to indicate a relationship of opposition or impact, which fits the context of the given sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The way she uses cosmetics is offensive to good taste.

Additional Information

• 'To' is used to indicate relationships such as direction, destination, or comparison, making it suitable here.

The correct answer is 'B' i.e. with.

Key Points

• In the sentence, the phrase "coincide with" is commonly used in English.
• The preposition "with" indicates that two events are happening at the same time or alongside each other.
• This context aligns with the idea of competitive exams not being allowed to happen simultaneously with university examinations.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: The competitive exams should never be allowed to coincide with university examinations.

Additional Information

• The preposition "with" is often used to indicate events occurring simultaneously, which is essential in this context.

The correct answer is 'A' i.e. for.

Key Points

• In the sentence, the phrase "sue for" is commonly used in the context of legal actions.
• The preposition "for" is used to indicate the reason or cause for which someone is suing another party.
• This context matches with the Minister suing the newspaper due to libellous writing.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: The Minister has decided to sue the newspaper for libellous writing.

Additional Information

• The preposition "for" is often used to indicate reasons or causes in legal contexts.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. "The teacher congratulated Mahesh and wished him success in life."

Key Points

• The given sentence needs to be transformed from direct speech to indirect speech, eliminating the quotation marks and adapting the structure accordingly.
• "The teacher congratulated" is the appropriate reporting verb, followed by "wished," making it clear that two separate actions are being conveyed.
• In indirect speech, pronouns are adjusted correctly. Here, "you" changes to "him," making the sentence grammatically correct.
• The phrase "Congratulations! Wish you success in life." has been effectively paraphrased to maintain the same intent and meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is, "The teacher congratulated Mahesh and wished him success in life."

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. "The poor examinee prayed God to take pity on him."

Key Points

• The sentence needs to be transformed from direct speech to indirect speech, maintaining the meaning while adjusting structure and pronouns.
• The word "pray" is more suitable for addressing a plea to God in indirect speech.
• The phrase "O God take pity on me." indicates a prayer; hence "prayed" is the most appropriate verb.
• The pronoun "me" changes to "him" to correctly fit the indirect speech format.

Therefore, the correct answer is, "The poor examinee prayed God to take pity on him."

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. "The sky has been overcast by thick clouds."

Key Points

• Transform the sentence from active to passive voice, where the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• Maintain the present perfect tense from the active voice ("have overcast") to the passive voice ("has been overcast").
• Ensure the sentence structure of passive voice is grammatically correct by using the form "has been."

Therefore, the correct answer is, "The sky has been overcast by thick clouds."

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. "Unsolicited advice should not be given."

Key Points

• Transform the sentence from active to passive voice, where the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The modal verb "should" should remain consistent when converting to the passive voice.
• Ensure the construction is grammatically correct by using the modal verb "should" correctly in the passive form.

Therefore, the correct answer is, "Unsolicited advice should not be given."

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. "Let the door be shut."

Key Points

• Converting the imperative sentence ("Shut the door") from active to passive voice requires a construction using "let" to convey the command in the passive form.
• Ensure the passive voice maintains the original imperative mood, typically phrased as "Let the [object] be [past participle]."

Therefore, the correct answer is, "Let the door be shut."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. decomposition.

Key Points

• The word "decay" means the process of rotting or decomposition. (सड़न)
• Example: The decay of the old house was evident from the crumbling walls and broken windows.
• "Decomposition" refers to the process of breaking down organic matter into simpler forms of matter. (विघटन)
• Example: The decomposition of the fallen leaves added nutrients to the soil.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'decay' is 'decomposition'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: decomposition.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Indicate (संकेत करना): To point out or show.
• Example: The signpost indicates the direction to the nearest town.
• Artifice (कला): Clever or cunning devices or expedients, especially as used to trick or deceive others.
• Example: He used artifice to get what he wanted.

The correct answer is: elegant.

Key Points

• The word "dainty" means something that is delicately small and pretty; it can also refer to something that is elegant and refined. (नाज़ुक और सुंदर)
• Example: She picked up the dainty teacup with her little finger extended.
• "Elegant" refers to something that is graceful and stylish in appearance or manner. (सजीला)
• Example: The ballroom was decorated in an elegant style with crystal chandeliers and silk drapes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: elegant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Delicious (स्वादिष्ट): Highly pleasant to the taste.
• Example: The chocolate cake she baked was absolutely delicious.
• Loud (जोरदार): Producing or capable of producing much noise.
• Example: The music at the party was so loud that we couldn't hear each other speak.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. excuse.

Key Points

• The word "exempt" means free from an obligation or liability imposed on others. (मुक्त)
• Example: Students who score above 90% are exempt from the final exam.
• "Excuse" refers to a reason or explanation put forward to defend or justify a fault or offense. (बहाना)
• Example: He gave an excuse for not attending the meeting.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. excuse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hide (छिपाना): To put or keep out of sight.
• Example: She tried to hide her disappointment.
• Definite (निश्चित): Clearly stated or decided; not vague or doubtful.
• Example: We need a definite answer by tomorrow.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. common.

Key Points

• The word "exotic" means something that is unusual, striking, or from a foreign land. (अनोखा, विदेशी)
• Example: They serve exotic dishes from all over the world at that restaurant.
• "Common" refers to something that is usual, ordinary, or frequently encountered. (सामान्य)
• Example: It is common to see people walking their dogs in this park.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'exotic' is 'common'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. common.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cosmopolitan (विश्वव्यापी): Familiar with and at ease in many different countries and cultures.
• Example: New York is a very cosmopolitan city with a diverse population.
• Irrelevant (असंगत): Not connected with or relevant to something.
• Example: His comments were irrelevant to the discussion at hand.
• Wonderful (शानदार): Inspiring delight, pleasure, or admiration.
• Example: We had a wonderful time on our vacation.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. falling.

Key Points

• The word "escalating" means increasing rapidly. (बढ़ती हुई)
• Example: The escalating tensions between the two countries are a cause for concern.
• "Falling" refers to decreasing or going down in value or quantity. (गिरती हुई)
• Example: The falling prices of vegetables are a relief to consumers.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'escalating' is 'falling'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. falling.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fixed (निश्चित): Something that is securely placed or fastened.
• Example: The fixed prices of essential goods ensure affordability for everyone.
• Fluctuating (उतार-चढ़ाव): Something that varies irregularly.
• Example: The fluctuating stock market makes it difficult to predict investments.
• Reasonable (उचित): Something that is fair and sensible.
• Example: The shop offers reasonable prices on all its products.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. suffer silently.

Key Points

• The expression "eat his heart out" means to suffer silently or feel deep sorrow. (चुपचाप दुखी होना)
• Example: Despite his brave face, he was eating his heart out over the loss of his job.
• "Suffer silently" refers to experiencing pain or sorrow without outwardly expressing it. (चुपचाप दुख झेलना)
• Example: She suffered silently, never letting anyone know about her struggles.

Therefore, the correct answer is: suffer silently.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Eat too much (बहुत ज्यादा खाना): To consume an excessive amount of food.
• Example: He tends to eat too much when he is stressed.
• Keep brooding (मनोमंथन करना): To be preoccupied with depressing or painful thoughts.
• Example: She kept brooding over her past mistakes.
• Invite trouble (मुसीबत को आमंत्रित करना): To engage in actions that are likely to cause problems.
• Example: His reckless driving is sure to invite trouble.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. 'quite worthless'.

Key Points

• The expression "worth his salt" means someone who is competent and deserving of their position or pay. (योग्य और अपने स्थान या वेतन के योग्य)
• Example: Any teacher worth his salt would know how to handle this situation.
• "Quite worthless" refers to someone or something that has little or no value or importance. (बिल्कुल बेकार)
• Example: The broken chair is quite worthless now.
• Hence, we can infer that if someone is "not worth his salt," they are quite worthless.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. 'quite worthless'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Quite depressed (काफी उदास): Feeling very sad or hopeless.
• Example: He felt quite depressed after losing his job.
• Very proud of himself (अपने आप पर बहुत गर्व है): Feeling a great sense of pride in oneself.
• Example: He was very proud of himself for winning the competition.
• Very strange (बहुत अजीब): Something that is unusual or not normal.
• Example: The new neighbor's behavior is very strange.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Acrobat.

Key Points

• The word "Acrobat" refers to someone who performs daring gymnastic feats. (कलाबाज)
• Example: The acrobat amazed the audience with his incredible flips and somersaults.
• "Athlete" refers to a person who is proficient in sports and other forms of physical exercise. (खिलाड़ी)
• Example: The athlete trained rigorously for the upcoming marathon.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Acrobat.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Athlete (खिलाड़ी): A person who is proficient in sports and other forms of physical exercise.
• Example: The athlete trained rigorously for the upcoming marathon.
• Juggler (जादूगर): A person who continuously tosses and catches several objects in the air.
• Example: The juggler's performance at the circus was fascinating to watch.
• Conjuror (जादूगर): A person who performs magic tricks to entertain people.
• Example: The conjuror pulled a rabbit out of the hat, much to the delight of the children.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Extempore.

Key Points

• The word "Extempore" means spoken or done without preparation. (बिना तैयारी के कहा या किया गया)
• Example: He gave an extempore speech that impressed everyone.
• "Extempore" refers to something performed or spoken without any preparation or practice. (बिना तैयारी के किया गया)
• Example: The actor's extempore performance left the audience in awe.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Extempore.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Verbose (शब्दाडम्बरपूर्ण): Using more words than are needed.
• Example: His verbose explanation confused everyone.
• Amateur (शौकिया): A person who engages in a pursuit, especially a sport, on an unpaid basis.
• Example: She is an amateur photographer.
• Verbatim (शब्दशः): In exactly the same words as were used originally.
• Example: He repeated the speech verbatim.