Official Paper

BSSC Inter Level Pre PYP (29th Jan 2017) (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 135 minutes · with answers · free

General Studies (50 questions)

1

After Wildlife Protection Act in 1972**, t**he name of India's first wildlife conservation project was

  1. ((a))

    Gir

  2. ((b))

    Tiger

  3. ((c))

    rhino

  4. ((d))

    Hangul

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tiger

The correct answer is Tiger.

Key Points

Project Tiger:

  • It was the first project for wildlife protection in India taken up after the passing of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act in 1972.
  • It was initiated on **April 1, 1973, in Jim Corbett National Park.**​
  • It was launched to promote the conservation of the tiger.
  • Project Tiger has been the largest species conservation initiative of its kind in the world.
  • This project aims to stem the dwindling population of big cats and work to increase their numbers.​
  • The first director of the project was Kailash Sankhala.
  • It was launched by the Union Government of India under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
  • Nodal Implementing Agency: National Tiger Conservation Authority.
2

When was NITI Aayog started?

  1. ((a))

    January 2015

  2. ((b))

    June 2015

  3. ((c))

    January 2016

  4. ((d))

    August 2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

January 2015

The correct answer is January 2015.

Key Points 

  • Niti Aayog
  • NITI Aayog or National Institution for Transforming India Aayog is the replacement of the Planning Commission of India.
  • National Institution for Transforming India, also known as NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015.
  • Composition of NITI Aayog
  • Chairperson: Prime Minister.
  • Vice Chairperson: Shri Suman Bery
  • Governing Council: CM’s (States) and Lieutenant Governors (Union Territories)
  • Regional Councils: Formed on a need-basis, incorporates CMs and Lieutenant Governors of the region.
  • Part-time Members: Maximum 2, Rotational, from relevant institutions.
  • CEO: BVR Subrahmanyam

Additional Information 

  • Objectives:
  • To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefitting adequately from economic progress.
  • To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy.
  • To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
  • To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognising that strong States make a strong nation.
3

Who was the founder of Paunar Ashram?

  1. ((a))

    Baba Ramdev

  2. ((b))

    Baba Amte

  3. ((c))

    Vinoba Bhave

  4. ((d))

    Anna Hazare

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vinoba Bhave

The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

Key Points

  • Paunar Ashram:
  • It was founded in 1934 by Acharya Vinoba Bhave, the founder of the Bhoodan movement.
  • This most popular attraction is Paramdham Ashram.
  • Vinoba Bhave was one of the most famous social reformers of India.
  • He was a widely respected disciple of Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

  • ​Baba Amte:
  • ​His full name is Dr. Murlidhar Devidas Amte, better known as "Baba Amte".
  • He was a prominent and respected social worker in India.
  • He was born on 26 December 1914 in the Wardha district of Maharashtra.
  • ​Anna Hazare:
  • He is an Indian social worker.
  • He started a fast unto death (16 August 2011) to get the Jan Lokpal Bill passed.
  • Baba Ramdev:
  • He is an Indian yoga guru.
  • He contributed to the field of Yogasana and Pranayama Yoga.
  • He has taught yoga directly or indirectly to crores of people in the country.
  • He co-founded Patanjali Ayurved Limited with his associate Balkrishna.​
4

Which is not a official language of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. ((a))

    Hindi

  2. ((b))

    Dogri

  3. ((c))

    Urdu

  4. ((d))

    Punjabi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Punjabi

The correct answer is Punjabi.

Key Points

  • The official language of Jammu and Kashmir is Urdu.
  • Before, the removal of Article 370 from Jammu and Kashmir Urdu is the official language of J&K.
  • The Jammu and Kashmir Official Languages Bill, 2020 declared Kashmiri, Dogri, Urdu, Hindi, and English as the official languages to be used for the official purposes of the union territory.
  • The current Lieutenant Governor of  Jammu Kashmir is Shri Manoj Sinha.
  • He is the second Lieutenant Governor of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Important Points

  • People living in Kashmir Valley speak Kashmiri.
  • However, Kashmiri is the local language of Jammu & Kashmir.
  • Kashmiri, which is an Indo-Aryan language, is also known as Koshur.
5

Japan Parliament is called

  1. ((a))

    Cortes

  2. ((b))

    Diet

  3. ((c))

    Sejim

  4. ((d))

    Dell

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Diet

The correct answer is Diet.

Key Points 

  • The Japanese legislature is known as the 'National Diet'.
  • Its members are directly elected by the people.
  • The capital of Japan is Tokyo, its official language is Japanese.

Additional Information 

CountryParliament Name
AfghanistanWolesi Jirga
AustraliaParliament
BangladeshJatiya Sansad
BhutanTshogdu
MyanmarAssembly of Union
ChinaNational People's Congress
IndiaSansad
IndonesiaPeople's Consultative Assembly
IranMajlis
IraqMajlis al-Niwab al-Iraqi
IsraelKnesset
ItalyChamber of Deputies and Senate
JapanDiet
KazakhstanParliament
North KoreaSupreme People's Assembly
South Korea & PakistanNational Assembly
MalaysiaParliament
NepalLegislature-Parliament
PakistanMajlis-e-Shora
PhilippinesKongreso
PolandSejm
RussiaFederal Assembly (Duma)
Saudi ArabiaMajlis ash-Shura
SingaporeParliament
Sri LankaSri Lankavay Parlimentuwa
SpainCortes
TajikistanMajlisi Oli
ThailandRatthasapha
USACongress
6

Riyal is the currency (of this country)

  1. ((a))

    Romania

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan

  3. ((c))

    Saudi Arabia

  4. ((d))

    Angola

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saudi Arabia

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

  • Riyal (Saudi riyal) is the currency of Saudi Arabia.
  • 1 Saudi Riyal equals to 21.21 Indian Rupee.
  • Riyad is the capital and main financial center of Saudi Arabia. It is on a desert plateau in the center of the country.
CountryCurrency
PakistanPakistani rupee
RomaniaRomanian leu
AngolaAngolan kwanza
IranIranian rial
QatarQatari riyal
United Arab EmiratesDirham
IraqIraqi dinar
KuwaitKuwaiti dinar
BahrainBahraini dinar
7

The color of the wheel in the Indian flag is

  1. ((a))

    Blue

  2. ((b))

    red

  3. ((c))

    saffron

  4. ((d))

    black

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blue

The correct answer is Blue.

Key Points

  • In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel that represents the chakra.
  • Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
  • Its diameter approximates the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
  • The ratio of Length: Breadth is 3:2
  • The top saffron colour indicates the strength and courage of the country.
  • The white middle band indicates peace and truth with Dharma Chakra.
  • The green shows the fertility, growth, and auspiciousness of the land.
  • The National Flag of India was adopted in its present form during the meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on 22 July 1947.

Additional Information

  • The ratio of the width of the flag to its length is two to three.
  • It became the official flag of the Dominion of India on 15 August 1947.
  • The Prime Minister hoists the national flag at the Red Fort on Independence Day.
  • Pingali Venkayya is the designer of the Indian National Flag.
8

Who translated Vande Mataram into English?

  1. ((a))

    vankim chandra

  2. ((b))

    Rabindranath tagore

  3. ((c))

    Aurobindo Ghosh

  4. ((d))

    Satyajit Ray

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Aurobindo Ghosh

The correct answer is Aurobindo Ghosh.

Key Points

  • Sri Aurobindo Ghosh - 
  • He translated 'Vande Mataram' into the 'English language.
  • After translation, it was first published on 20th November 1909.

Important Points 

  • ​Vande Mataram Songs -
  • This is a song composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in Sanskrit-Bangla mixed language.
  • This song was published in 1882 as an underlying song in his novel Anand Math.
  • In this novel, this song is sung by a sanyasi named Bhavananda.
  • Its tune was composed by Yadunath Bhattacharya.
  • It takes 65 seconds (1 minute and 5 seconds) to sing this song.​

Additional Information

  • Aurobindo Ghosh -
  • ​He was a yogi and philosopher.
  • He was born on 15 August 1872 in Calcutta.
  • He participated in the freedom struggle as a revolutionary in his youth.
  • He established an ashram in Pondicherry.
  • Satyajit Ray -
  • He was an Indian film director.
  • He is counted among the best film directors of the 20th century.
  • Rabindranath Tagore -
  • He is a world-renowned poet, litterateur, and philosopher.
  • He is also known as 'Gurudev'.
  • He is Asia's first Nobel Prize winner.
  • His famous book is **'Gitanjali'.**​
9

1 Chaitra usually falls (on this day)

  1. ((a))

    January 1st

  2. ((b))

    April 1st

  3. ((c))

    February 22nd

  4. ((d))

    March 22nd

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

March 22nd

The correct answer is March 22nd

Key Points

  • Dates of the national calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar, 1 Chaitra falling on 22 March normally and on 21 March in a leap year.
  • The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes:
  • ​Gazette of India.
  • News broadcast by All India Radio.
  • Calendars issued by the Government of India.
  • Government communications addressed to the members of the public.
  • Month Names: Chaitra, Vaisakha, Jyaistha, Asadha, Sravana, Bhadra, Asvina, Kartika, Agrahayana, Pausa, Magha, Phalguna.
10

Satyamev Jayate is taken from here:

  1. ((a))

    Gita

  2. ((b))

    Mundak Upanishad

  3. ((c))

    Ramayana

  4. ((d))

    Manu Smriti

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mundak Upanishad

The correct answer is Mundaka Upanishad.

Key Points

  • The Mundaka Upanishad is the source of the phrase Satyameva Jayate.
  • It is the national motto of India.
  • It appears at the bottom of our national emblem with four lions. in Devanagiri script.
  • Satyameva Jayate literally means 'Truth Alone Triumphs'.
  • From the above, it is clear that Satyameva Jayate is taken from Mundaka Upanishad.

Important Points

  • The literal meaning of Upanishad is 'Be seated at the feet of the Guru to receive the teachings'.
  • It is written by different sages between the period from 1000-1500 B.C.
  • The Upanishads impart philosophical knowledge and spiritual learning.
  • There are 108 Upanishads.

Additional Information

VedasRelated Upanishads
Rig VedaAitareya and Kausitaki
Sama VedaChandogya and Kena
Yajur VedaTaittiriya, Brihadaranyaka, Katha, Svetasvatara
Atharva VedaMundaka, Prasna and Mandukya
  • Brihadaranyaka Upanishad provides the first reference to the idea of rebirth.
  • Later, the idea appears in a slightly fuller form in the Chandogya Upanishad. It is one of the oldest Upanishad.
11

In March 2016, Gatimaan Express was trial run between Delhi and the following city:

  1. ((a))

    Gwalior

  2. ((b))

    Pune

  3. ((c))

    Chandigarh

  4. ((d))

    Agra

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Agra

The correct answer is Agra.

Key Points

  • In March 2016, Gatimaan Express was trial run between Delhi and Agra and took approx 113 minutes to cover this distance.
  • It is India's first semi-high speed train.
  • The top operating speed of the Gatimaan Express is up to 160 km/h.
  • It is the fastest and most regularly scheduled train in India.​

Additional Information

  • The Vande Bharat Express, also known as Train 18 is another semi-high-speed train, operated by Indian Railways.
  • Vande Bharat Express was designed and manufactured by Integral Coach Factory (ICF) at Perambur, Chennai under the Make in India initiative.
12

The main tribe found in Tamil Nadu is

  1. ((a))

    Irula

  2. ((b))

    Pong

  3. ((c))

    Garos

  4. ((d))

    khaud

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irula

The correct answer is Irula.

Key Points

  • The main tribe found in Tamil Nadu is Irula.
  • They live in the northern districts of Tamil Nadu.
  • Irula tribe has their origin from ethnic groups of Southeast Asia and Australia.
  • Irulas are among the Particularly vulnerable tribal group.
  • Other important tribes of Tamil Nadu are **Toda, Kota, Kurumbas, Paniyan and Kattunayakan.**​

Additional Information

TribeState
IrulaTamil Nadu
GaroMeghalaya
KhondOdisha
13

Jarawa tribe is found here

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Nagaland

  4. ((d))

    Andaman

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Andaman

The correct answer is Andaman.

Key Points

  • Jarawa tribes are found in the Andaman region.
  • They were living in Andaman Island for thousands of years.
  • They are designated as scheduled tribes.
  • Jarawas is believed to be the first successful tribe to move out of Africa.
  • Jarawa people depend on hunting for food and they maintain distance from the urban settlement.
14

The author of 'Anand Math' was

  1. ((a))

    Tilak

  2. ((b))

    Bankim chandra

  3. ((c))

    Sharat chandra

  4. ((d))

    Tagore

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bankim chandra

The correct answer is **Bankim chandra.**​

Key Points

  • The famous book ‘Anand Math' was authored by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
  • The book was originally written in 1882.
  • Anandamath takes the reader back to Bengal in the clutches of the famine, the backdrop of the pre-independence struggle and the turmoil of human lives caught in this frame of time.
  • It is considered one of the most remarkable works of the Bangla language and Indian literature.
  • Through the book, Bankim also gave us the song ‘VandeMataram’which became the rallying call for rebels.
  • The first two stanzas eventually became the National song of India.
  • One of the gems of Indian Literature, ‘Anandmath’ carries a deep sentiment of nationalism which was the essence of the freedom struggle.
15

Who wrote "The Audacity of Hope"?

  1. ((a))

    G.W. Bush

  2. ((b))

    Manmohan Singh

  3. ((c))

    Obama

  4. ((d))

    Bill Clinton

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Obama

The correct answer is Obama.

Key Points

  • Barack Obama is the author of "The Audacity of Hope: Thoughts on Reclaiming The American Dream".
  • Barack Obama was the forty-fourth president of the United States and the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize in 2009.
  • He is the author of the New York Times bestseller Dreams from My Father.

Additional Information

AuthorsBooks
Bill ClintonMy Life
Bill GatesThe Road Ahead
George BushDecision Points
Manmohan SinghChanging India
16

What is the meaning of the word abbreviation 'AD' describing time?

  1. ((a))

    (of Jesus) After Death

  2. ((b))

    Anno Domini

  3. ((c))

    Edge Dark

  4. ((d))

    After Dorians

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Anno Domini

The correct answer is Anno Domini

Key Points

  • The initials, A.D., stand for Anno Domini, which is Latin for "In the year of our Lord."
  • So 2012 can also be written as AD 2012.
  • This system was devised by a monk in the year 525.
  • B.C. refers to "Before Christ,".

Additional Information

  • A more recent system uses B.C.E. which stands for "Before the Common Era" and C.E. for "Common Era."
  • This newer system is now widely used as a way of expressing the same periods as B.C. and A.D. but without Christian reference.
  • According to this system, we count time backward Before the Common Era (B.C.E.) and forwards in the Common Era (C.E.).
17

When is Martyrs' Day celebrated?

  1. ((a))

    February 5

  2. ((b))

    14 February

  3. ((c))

    30 January

  4. ((d))

    30 June

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30 January

The correct answer is 30 January.

Key Points

  • "Martyr's Day" is celebrated on January 30.
  • Martyrs' Day is celebrated in India to honor the victims who fought for freedom.
  • Fifteen countries in the world including India, celebrate Martyr’s Day to pay homage to their freedom fighters.
  • The date was chosen as it marks the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948, by Nathuram Godse.
18

The fear of not having access to your mobile phone (losing access) is called

  1. ((a))

    nomophobia

  2. ((b))

    monophobia

  3. ((c))

    cynophobia

  4. ((d))

    euphobia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

nomophobia

The correct answer is nomophobia.

Key Points

  • The fear of not having access to your mobile phone (losing access) is called nomophobia.
  • It is a psychological condition when people have a fear of being detached from mobile phone connectivity.
  • According to the survey, the youngest age group (18-24) tops the list with nomophobia, which is more affected than the next group of people aged 25-34.

Additional Information

MonophobiaIt is the fear of being isolated, lonely, or alone that makes you feel extremely anxious.
CynophobiaIt is the fear of dogs and canines in general.
EuphobiaIt is the fear of hearing good news.
19

The first film directed by Satyajit Ray was

  1. ((a))

    aparajito

  2. ((b))

    aqueduct

  3. ((c))

    Charulata

  4. ((d))

    Pather Panchali

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pather Panchali

The correct answer is Pather Panchali.

Key Points

  • The first film directed by Satyajit Ray was Pather Panchali in 1955.
  • This film was an adaptation of Bibhutibhushan Bandyopadhyay's 1929 Bengali novel that marked Ray's directorial debut.​
  • This film won him nearly eleven prizes at an international level.

Additional Information

  • Satyajit Ray:
  • He was an Indian director, screenwriter, documentary filmmaker, author, essayist, lyricist, magazine editor, illustrator, calligrapher, and music composer.
  • He brought Indian cinema to world recognition with Pather Panchali and its two sequels, known as the Apu Trilogy.
  • He had been honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1992 by the Government of India.
20

Where is the largest museum of India?

  1. ((a))

    Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kolkata

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

  • Indian Museum (Kolkata, West Bengal): 
  • It is the largest museum that acquires, preserves, researches, shares, and exhibits the history of humanity and its environment and is open to the public for education.
  • The Indian Museum is situated in Kolkata, West Bengal, also known as the Imperial Museum.
  • This is the oldest and largest museum in India.
  • Indian Museum was founded in 1814 by the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Kolkata.
  • It has rare collections of various antiques, armour and ornaments, fossils, skeletons, mummies, and Mughal paintings collected over a period.
  • With the foundation of the Indian Museum in 1814, the Museum movement started rolling in India and through the years from then, got a new fillip and great momentum.
  • Since then, it has so magnificently developed and culminated in the fruitful existence of more than 400 museums in the country.
21

Who wrote Panchatantra?

  1. ((a))

    Vishnu Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Ishwar Krishna

  3. ((c))

    Visakh Dutt

  4. ((d))

    Varahamihira

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vishnu Sharma

The correct answer is Vishnu Sharma.

Key Points 

  • The  Panchatantra is an ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables in Sanskrit verse and prose and is arranged within a frame story.
  • It is one of the most important widely translated non-religious books in history.
  • Panchatantra is classical literature in a Hindu text and based on older oral traditions with "animal fables".
  • There are two hundred versions of the text in more than 50 languages around the world.
  • The earliest known translation into a non-Indian language by Burzoe is in Middle Persian.​

Additional Information 

  • Varahamihira
  • Varahamihira’s Panchsiddhanta (a treatise on mathematical astronomy) is the earliest dateable text to use zero both as a symbol and a number.
  • He also wrote the Brihat Samhita (compilation of wide-ranging topics such as astrology, planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, architecture, growth of crops, manufacture of perfume, matrimony, domestic relations, gems, pearls, and rituals, which also provides interesting details of the beliefs of those times), and the Brihat Jataka (considered the standard textbook on Vedic astrology).
22

Who was famous for his knowledge of Ayurveda?

  1. ((a))

    Aryabhatta

  2. ((b))

    Brahmagupta

  3. ((c))

    Dhanvantari

  4. ((d))

    Bhaskar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dhanvantari

The correct answer is Dhanvantari.

Key Points

  • Dhanvantari was one of the Navratnas of King Vikramaditya (Chandragupta II) of Ujjayini.
  • The tradition of keeping Navaratna in court started from King Vikramaditya itself.
  • Dhanwantari was a physician of Ayurveda in King Vikramaditya's court.
  • 'Roga Nidan', and 'Vaidya Chintamani', are the famous books of Lord Dhanvantari.
  • Divodasa Dhanvantari has made enormous contributions to Ayurveda.
  • Though he has not written any Ayurvedic treatise, his teachings could be seen through Susruta-Samhita.
  • He was responsible for the division of Ayurvedic surgery into two main branches: Salyatantra and Salakyatantra.

Additional Information

  • Aryabhatta
  • He  was a well-known mathematician and astronomer.
  • He wrote a book in Sanskrit called Arabhatiyam.
  • In the book, he stated that day and night was caused by the rotation of Earth on its axis.
  • He even developed scientific explanations of eclipses.
  • He also found a way to calculate the circumference of a circle.
  • Brahmagupta belonged to the Gupta dynasty.
  • He was a renowned Astronomer and Mathematician.
  • Brahmagupta wrote Brahma-sphutic in which he hinted at the law of Gravitation.
23

When did IPL (Cricket) start?

  1. ((a))

    2000

  2. ((b))

    2005

  3. ((c))

    2008

  4. ((d))

    2010

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2008

The correct answer is 2008.

  • Indian Premier League (IPL):
  • It was started in the year 2008.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is the administrator of the league.
  • Currently, there are 10 teams participating.
  • Mumbai Indians hold the record for the most number of titles i.e. 5.
  • The ICC was founded in 1909.
  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) was formed in 1927.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Premier League (IPL) 2022, was the 15th edition of the professional Twenty20 cricket league established by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
24

Whose nickname is 'The Wall'?

  1. ((a))

    Shoaib Akhtar

  2. ((b))

    Sachin Tendulkar

  3. ((c))

    Kapil Dev

  4. ((d))

    Rahul Dravid

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rahul Dravid

The Correct answer is Rahul Dravid.

Key Points

  • The nickname "The Wall' is given to Rahul Dravid, the former captain of the Indian cricket team.
  • He is widely regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in cricket history.
  • It is a tribute to his doggedness and long periods of concentration that he displayed while batting during the peak of his career.

Additional Information

  • Kapil dev
  • His nicknamed is Haryana Hurricane.
  • He was a fast bowler and a hard-hitting middle-order batsman of his time.
  • Kapil Dev was the captain when India lift ICC one day international world cup first time in 1983.
  • The Master Blaster,The God of Cricket, are the some of the nickname of Sachin Tendulkar.
  • The nickname given to Shoaib Akhtar is Rawalpindi Express.
  • Shoaib Akhtar is a former Pakistani cricketer who played in all three formats of the game for fourteen years.
25

Where is the headquarters of Red Cross?

  1. ((a))

    Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    UK

  3. ((c))

    Austria

  4. ((d))

    Sweden

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Switzerland

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points 

  • Red Cross
  • The International Committee of the Red Cross was established on 17 February 1863.
  • It is an international organization that aims to protect people in conflict zones.
  • It was founded by Henry Durant, a Swiss social activist.
  • It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • It won the Nobel Peace Prizes three times in 1917, 1944, and 1963.

Additional Information

CityHeadquarters of
Geneva (Switzerland)- World Health Organisation (WHO) - International Labour Organisation - International Committee of the Red Cross - World Trade Organisation - World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) - World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) - International Organization for Standardization - UNAIDS
Vienna (Austria)- United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) - International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) - Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Paris (France)- United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) - Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
Tokyo (Japan)- United Nations University (UNU)
26

Who expelled Dawood from Patna and Hajipur?

  1. ((a))

    Humayun

  2. ((b))

    Babar

  3. ((c))

    Jahangir

  4. ((d))

    Akbar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Akbar

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

  • Akbar expelled Dawood from Patna and Hajipur.
  • In 1574, Akbar went to Patna to crush the Afghan Chief Daud Khan.
  • Daud Khan Karrani was the last ruler of Bengal's Karrani dynasty.
  • Daud Khan was not agreed to be under the dominion of Akbar, so he decided to fight against the army of Delhi and remain the conqueror of Bengal.
  • A decisive battle was fought at Rajmahal in 1576. Daud was ultimately defeated and executed.
  • After his death, Bengal went under the direct Mughal rule as Subah with Subahdars being installed.

Important Points

  • Akbar
  • ​Akbar born at Amarkot in 1542 CE.
  • He was the son of Humayun and Hamida Banu Begum.
  • In 1556 CE, he was crowned at Kalanaur at the young age of 13 years and ruled till 1605.
  • Bairam Khan acted as his regent during the first few years of Akbar’s reign.
  • Akbar was the third Mughal emperor.
  • Akbar was succeeded as emperor by his son, Prince Salim, later known as Jahangir.
27

How many 'Gems' were there in Akbar's court?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9

The correct answer is 9.

  • The Navratnas of Akbar were as follows: Raja Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Raja Man Singh, Raja Todar Mal, Mullah Do Piaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana.

Key Points

  • Tansen  was an Indian musician and poet who was an important figure in the North Indian tradition of Hindustani classical music.
  • His renditions of ragas, a musical form intended to invoke emotion or nature, were said to tame animals and turn day into night, while his voice could replicate the roar of a lion or the chirp of a bird.
  • His real name was Ramtanu Pandey.
  • He was greatly esteemed for his dhrupad and raga compositions and for his vocal performances.
  • Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior.
  • Akbar gave the title of Kanthabharan Vanivilas to Tansen.

Additional Information 

  • Akbar (1556 to 1605)
  • Akbar was the third Mughal emperor (1556 to 1605) and son of  Humayun.
  • Akbar succeeds in the throne at just 13 years old due to the death of Humayun.
  • The kingdom Akbar inherited was little more than a collection of frail fiefs, under the regency of  Bairam Khan.
  • Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.
  • The Navratnas of Akbar were as follows: Raja Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Raja Man Singh, Raja Todar Mal, Mullah Do Piaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana.
  • Abul Fazl started the writing of Akbarnama in 1589.
  • It is the most detailed history of the reign of Akbar.
28

Before Goa, which was the capital of the Portuguese in India?

  1. ((a))

    Cochin

  2. ((b))

    Madras

  3. ((c))

    Bombay

  4. ((d))

    Patna

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cochin

The correct answer is Cochin.

Key Points

  • Before Goa, Cochin was the capital of the Portuguese in India.
  • Cochin was the first Portuguese capital in India.
  • After 20 years, the capital Cochin was transferred to Goa in 1530 CE.
  • it was Nino sa Cunha (who became Governor of Portuguese interest in India in 1529) who shifted the headquarters of the Portuguese government in India from Cochin to Goa.

Important Points

  • In 1498, Vasco-da-Gama arrived at Calicut where he was received by the Zamorins.
  • In 1503, the First Portuguese fort was established at Cochin.
  • In 1510Goa was captured from the Bijapur Sultanate by Alfonso Albuquerque.
29

Where was Guru Nanak born?

  1. ((a))

    Amritsar

  2. ((b))

    Lahore

  3. ((c))

    Talvandi

  4. ((d))

    Dehradun

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Talvandi

The correct answer is Talvandi.

Key Points 

  • The first guru/ founder of SikhismGuru Nanak was born in Talvandi, Nankana Sahib in the Punjab district of Pakistan
  • He was born on 29 November 1469 in the place which was formerly also known as Rai Bhoi KI Talwandi
  • Guru Nanak was born there to a family of merchants and his father Kalyan Chand Das Bedi was the accountant for crop revenue in his village.
  • Guru Nanak Dev initiated inter-faith dialogue way back in the 16th century and had conversations with most of the religious denominations of his times.
  • Building an Egalitarian Society was his idea for which he started Langar, Pangat and Sangat
  • Langar - Collective cooking and sharing of food.
  • Pangat - Partaking food without distinctions of high and low caste.
  • Sangat - Collective decision-making.
  • Gender Equality was also preached by him
30

Where did the British send Bahadur Shah-II out of the country?

  1. ((a))

    Rangoon

  2. ((b))

    Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Black Water

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rangoon

The correct answer is Rangoon.

Key Points

  • British sent Bahadur Shah-II out of the country to Rangoonin British-controlled Burma in 1858
  • He was sent to Rangoon following his involvement in the Indian Mutiny of 1857.

Additional Information

  • Bahadur Shah-II
  • Also known as Bahadur Shah Zafar.
  • He ascended the throne of Delhi on 28 September 1837 at the age of 62 years.
  • Bahadur Shah-II was the heir apparent to his father, Emperor Akbar Shah II.
  • He is remembered as the last Mughal Emperor in India and for his role in the Indian Revolt of 1857.
  • He died in 1862 and the Mughal dynasty which had ruled India for about four hundred years finally ended with his death.
31

Who did the first English translation of Abhijnanam Shakuntala?

  1. ((a))

    Nehru

  2. ((b))

    Chetan Bhagat

  3. ((c))

    Warren Hasting

  4. ((d))

    John Nicholson

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

John Nicholson

The correct answer is John Nicholson.

Key Points

  • 'Abhijnana Shakuntalam' was the first Indian drama to be translated into a Western language, by William Jones Nicholson in 1789.
  • Kalidasa is one of the greatest classical Sanskrit poets and dramatists of ancient India.
  • His writings reveal that he was a pious Brahmana of Ujjain, and had acquired a knowledge of the various branches of Brahmanical learning.
  • His poetic talent is very well reflected in all his works, which are Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvasiya, Abhijñana-Sakuntala, and poems like Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambhava, and Meghaduta.
32

Who was the last  Viceroy during British rule in India?

  1. ((a))

    Mountbatten

  2. ((b))

    Wavell

  3. ((c))

    irwin

  4. ((d))

    Minto

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mountbatten

The correct answer is Mountbatten.

Key Points

  • Lord Mountbatten
  • The last Viceroy during British rule in India was Lord Mountbatten.
  • His tenure lasted between 1947 and 1948.
  • He brought forward the date of the partition from June 1948 to 15 August 1947.
  • Mountbatten remained in New Delhi for 10 months after independence and served as the first governor-general of an independent India until June 1948.​
  • In 1948, C. Rajagopalachari became the only Indian governor-general.

Additional Information

WavellHe was a senior officer of the British Army and served as the Viceroy of India from 1943 to 1947.
IrwinHe was the Viceroy of British India from 3 April 1926 – 18 April 1931.
MintoHe served as the Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910.
33

When did Champaran Satyagraha start?

  1. ((a))

    1929

  2. ((b))

    1917

  3. ((c))

    1857

  4. ((d))

    1946

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1917

The correct answer is 1917.

Key Points

  • Champaran Satyagraha (1917) :
  • It was the first Satyagraha started in Champaran, Bihar.
  • The Issue was Indigo Cultivation under the Tinkathia System ((3/20)th of total land).
  • Gandhiji convinced the authorities to end the system
  • Demand was accepted and 25% compensation was given.
34

Who started the National Herald newspaper?

  1. ((a))

    Motilal Nehru

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Indira Gandhi

  4. ((d))

    Rahul Gandhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jawaharlal Nehru

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • National Herald:
  • The National Herald was a newspaper founded by Jawaharlal Nehru along with other freedom fighters in 1938.
  • It was meant to voice the concerns of the liberal brigade in the Indian National Congress.
  • Published by Associated Journals Limited (AJL), this newspaper became a mouthpiece of the Congress party after Independence.
  • The AJL was incorporated as a public limited company on 20 November 1937 under the Indian Companies Act, 1913, for the purpose of publication of newspapers in different languages.
  • It started publishing newspapers such as “National Herald” in English, “Navjivan” in Hindi and “Quami Awaz” in Urdu.
  • It was banned by the British government in 1942 during the Quit India movement.
  • In 2008, the paper closed down with a debt of over Rs 90 crore.
35

Who was Megasthenes during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya?

  1. ((a))

    Invader

  2. ((b))

    Ambassador

  3. ((c))

    Priest

  4. ((d))

    Minister

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ambassador

The correct answer is Ambassador.

Key Points

  • Megasthenes  
  • Greek historian, diplomat, and explorer Megasthenes lived in the Hellenistic era (350–290 B.C.).
  • Megasthenes has been sent as an ambassador to Chandragupta Maurya's court by Seleucus I Nicator, the Greek conqueror of West Asia.
  • India is described in the book "Indica" by Megasthenes.
  • The term "father of Indian history" refers to Megasthenes because he was the first to depict ancient India.
  • The two main rivers Sindhu and Ganga are also described by him.
  • The Mauryan capital Pataliputra was visited by Megasthenes.
  • He gives a thorough description of the rivers of the Punjab region in northwest India.

Additional Information 

  • Chandragupta Maurya
  • Chandragupta Maurya became king when he was 25 years old.
  • He defeated the Nandas and established the Mauryan Empire.
  • In 322 BC, he defeated the final Nanda emperor Dhanananda and took control of Pataliputra.
  • A wise man by the name of Chanakya/Kautilya supported Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Seleucus Nicator was defeated by Chandragupta Maurya in 305 BC.
  • During Chandragupta Maurya's rule, all of northern India was united.
36

Among the symbols associated with occasions related to Buddha, the 'Stupa' symbolizes:

  1. ((a))

    Death

  2. ((b))

    First Sermon

  3. ((c))

    Birth

  4. ((d))

    Home Abandonment

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Death

The correct answer is Death.

Key Points

  • Kushinagar(Uttar Pradesh) is the place where Buddhists believe Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana after his death.
  • Mahaparinirvana is a Sanskrit word meaning 'Final Death.
  • After the death of Buddha, his followers built a stupa where the relics of Buddha were kept.

Additional Information

  • Events related to Buddha and representing Symbol:
EventSymbol
BirthLotus and Bull
The Great Departure (Mahabhinishkramana)Horse
First Sermon (Dhammachakraparivartan)Wheel
EnlightenmentBodhi Tree
Death (Parinirvana)Stupa
37

The last ruler of the Gupta dynasty was

  1. ((a))

    Purugupta

  2. ((b))

    Vishnugupta

  3. ((c))

    Skandagupta

  4. ((d))

    Kumaragupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vishnugupta

The correct answer is Vishnugupta.

Key Points

  • ​Vishnugupta was the last known ruler of the Gupta Dynasty.
  • After the reign of Skandgupta, the Gupta dynasty started to decline.
  • Successors of Skandgupta were unable to consolidate the position of the empire.
  • Successors of Skandgupta were very less known rulers and Vishnugupta was one among them, and he was also the last ruler of the Gupta Dynasty.
  • Skandagupta
  • Skanda Gupta also took the title Vikramaditya.
  • Chandragupta was the first Gupta ruler of the Gupta Dynasty.
  • He took the title of Maharajadhiraja.

Additional Information

Name of the Gupta KingsTitles assumed
Sri Gupta (Founder of the empire)Adiraja, Maharaja
GhatotkachaMaharaja
Chandragupta IMaharajadhiraja
Samudragupta- Parakramank(marked with powers), - Apratiratha(Unrivalled chariot warrior), - Aprativaryavirya(Irresistible valor), - Vyaghraparakramanka (Processor of a tiger), - Sarvo raj ochchhetta(Uprooter of all kings)
Chandragupta IIVikramaditya, Vikramanak Devagupta, Devaraja, Devashri
KumaragupaMahendraditya, Vyaghrabala, Parakramam
SkandaguptaVikramaditya, Shakropana
38

Abacus was discovered during

  1. ((a))

    Shang Civilization

  2. ((b))

    Iranian Civilization

  3. ((c))

    Greek Civilization

  4. ((d))

    Roman Civilization

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shang Civilization

The correct answer is Shang Civilization.

Key Points

  • Abacus
  • ABACUS stands for Abundant Beads, Addition and Calculation Utility System.
  • It was the oldest counting machine in the world.
  • It was invented during the late shang Dynasty of China.

Additional Information

  • Shang Civilization
  • Shang Dynasty was the earliest ruling dynasty of China.
  • The Shang heralded the Bronze Age in China.
  • They were known for their advances in math, astronomy, artwork and military technology.
39

Which country ruled Germany in the 18th century?

  1. ((a))

    England

  2. ((b))

    Austria

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    China

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

France

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

  • France ruled Germany in the 18th century.
  • Germany was not a fully unified country at that time, but rather a loose confederation of independent states and principalities.
  • French Emperor Napoleon’s forces were strong enough to conquer and control the whole of mainland Europe, including the numerous German states.
  • Napoleon reorganised Germany into 39 larger states.
  • He also established the Confederation of the Rhine, a league of 16 German states.
  • This brought further unification to Germany.
  • Napoleon was defeated firstly at Leipzig in 1813 and then at Waterloo in 1815, bringing an end to the Confederation of Rhine.
  • Germany was finally unified in 1871 by the great effort of Bismarck.
40

What fraction of the total members is required for a quorum in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in India?

  1. ((a))

    120\frac{1}{20}

  2. ((b))

    110\frac{1}{10}

  3. ((c))

    15\frac{1}{5}

  4. ((d))

    133\frac{1}{33}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

110\frac{1}{10}

The correct answer is 1/10

Key Points

  • Quorum
  • A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present before a meeting is allowed to begin.
  • The quorum of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is One-tenth of the total membership of each house.
  • If there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the chairman or speaker to adjourn the house or suspend the meeting.

Additional Information

  • Loksabha:
  • The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of people chosen by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage.
  • The maximum strength of the House is 552 members -
  • 530 members to represent the States
  • 20 members to represent the Union Territories
  • 2 members to be nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian Community.
  • But, In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
  • At present, the strength of the House is 543.
  • The term of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved, is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting.
  • Rajyasabha
  • The maximum strength of the House is 250 members.
  • Out of 250, 238 are representatives of the states and of the two UTs, and 12 are nominated by the president.
  • The present strength of Rajyasabha, however, is 245, out of which 233 are representatives of the states and UTs of Delhi and Puducherry, and 12 are nominated by the president.
  • The current Chairman of Rajya Sabha is Jagdeep Dhankhar since 11 August 2022.
41

Where is the weekly Charlie Hewdo published?

  1. ((a))

    London

  2. ((b))

    Paris

  3. ((c))

    New York

  4. ((d))

    Berlin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Paris

The correct answer is Paris.

Key Points

  • Charlie Hewdo
  • It is a French weekly magazine.
  • It was published for the first time in 1970.
  • It is published in **Paris, France.**​

Additional Information

  • France:
  • Capital: Paris.
  • President: Emmanuel Macron.
  • Prime Minister: Gabriel Attal.
42

H1N1 is caused by:

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Fungus

  4. ((d))

    Reason unknown

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virus

The correct answer is virus.

Key Points

  • H1N1
  • It is caused by a virus.
  • It is a subtype of influenza virus.
  • It causes swine flu.
  • It affects humans, cattle and birds.
  • It affects the respiratory system.
  • It results in fever, chills, headache and runny nose.
  • Viruses
  • They are tiny non-living organisms.
  • It requires the host for its survival.
  • Its genetic material is dsDNA or ssDNA or ssRNA or dsRNA.
  • It has an outer protein coat term capsid for its protection.
  • It infects plants, bacteria and animals.

Additional Information

  • Bacteria:
  • Bacteria are single-celled microbes that lack a nucleus
  • It is found in air, water, and land.
  • It is rod, comma or spiral-shaped.
  • In plants, it causes canker, blight, mildew and black spot.
  • In animals, it causes botulism, gonorrhea and syphilis.
  • Fungus:
  • It is unicellular or multicellular.
  • It has septa.
  • It has filamentous hyphae.
  • In plants, it causes rust and rot.
  • In animals, it causes ringworm disease.
43

Where does the famous literature festival take place?

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur

  2. ((b))

    Varanasi

  3. ((c))

    Udaipur

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jaipur

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

  • The Literature Festival is an annual festival in the Indian city of Jaipur each January.
  • It was founded in 2006.
  • It is the world's largest free literary festival.

Additional Information

  • The 15th edition of the iconic Jaipur Literature Festival was a grand success.
  • It took place in a hybrid mode over ten days in March, from 5th to 15th March 2022, bringing together book-lovers from across the world, to listen to acclaimed writers & thinkers.
  • The Next edition f this festival will be from 19th to 23rd January 2023.
44

What is the state flower of UP?

  1. ((a))

    Lotus

  2. ((b))

    Palaash

  3. ((c))

    Marigold

  4. ((d))

    Rose

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Palaash

The correct answer is Palash.

Key Points 

  • Palash
  • The scientific name of Palash is Butea monosperma.
  • ​It is the state flower of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is also the state flower of Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.
  • It is commonly known as “bastard teak”.
  • It is also known as the “Flame of the Forest”.
  • It is a deciduous tree species native to the Indian sub-continent.
  • It can be used to manage diarrhea as it has antimicrobial and astringent properties.
  • It also helps to manage liver disorders due to its antioxidant properties.​

Additional Information 

  • Brahmakamal​
  • The scientific name of Brahmakamal is Saussurea obvallata.
  • It is the state flower of Uttarakhand.
  • Blooming at a height of more than 14,000 feet only once a year.
  • It is part of the flora of the Himalayan region.
  • Foxtail Orchid
  • ​It is the state flower of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Its Scientific name is Rhynchostylis.
45

Where is Valmiki National Park located?

  1. ((a))

    UP

  2. ((b))

    MP

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar

Key Points

  • The only National Park located in Bihar is the Valmiki National Park.
  • It is located at the India-Nepal border in the West Champaran district of Bihar, India on the bank of river Gandak.
  • Its previous rights were with the Bettiah Raj and Ramanagar Raj until the early 1950s.
  • It is  17.4% of the total geographical area of the district West Champaran.
  • As of now, there were 40 tigers in the Reserve.
46

Where was the first woolen textile mill opened in India?

  1. ((a))

    Panipat

  2. ((b))

    Ludhiana

  3. ((c))

    Kanpur

  4. ((d))

    Agra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kanpur

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

  • The first woolen textile mill was established in 1876 at Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh.
  • It was established in Kanpur because at that time Kanpur was the principal depot for the British army.

Additional Information

  • Kanpur is the largest industrial town in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Punjab is the largest producer of woolen goods in the world.
  • Maharashtra is India's second-largest producer of woolen textiles.
47

How many main varieties of natural silk are there?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

  • There are four types of natural silk produced in India for commercial purposes.
  • These are known as Mulberry silk, Tasar silk, Muga silk, and Eri silk.
  • Mulberry silk:
  • It comes from the silkworm, Bombyx mori L which solely feeds on the leaves of the mulberry plant.
  • It contributes to around 90 percent of the world's silk production.
  • It is produced in the five Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Gujarat.
  • Eri silk:
  • It comes from the caterpillar of Samia cynthia ricini, found in northeast India.
  • It is mostly found in the tribal areas of Assam.
  • Tasar silk:-
  • It is produced from larvae of several species of silkworms belonging to the moth genus Antheraea.
  • It is produced mainly in six cities across India, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
  • Muga silk:
  • It is known for its extreme durability and has a natural yellowish-golden tint with a shimmering, glossy texture.
  • It is widely found in Assam.

Additional Information

  • India is the second largest producer of silk in the world after China.
  • About 97% of the raw silk comes from five Indian states, namely, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal with Karnataka as the major producer.
48

Where is Jallianwala Bagh located?

  1. ((a))

    Ludhiana

  2. ((b))

    Rohtak

  3. ((c))

    Amritsar

  4. ((d))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amritsar

The correct answer is Amritsar.

Key Points 

  • The Jallianwala Bagh massacre:
  • It is also known as the Amritsar massacre.
  • It happened on April 13, 1919, when Acting Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered British Indian Army troops to fire their rifles at a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab.
  • The Asian Awards honoured the Jalianwala Bagh Martyrs with the prestigious Founders Award in April 2019.
  • Colonel Reginald Edward Harry Dyer was a Bengal Army general.
  • His military career started to serve briefly in the regular British Army before being transferred to serve with India's presidential armies.
  • He was responsible as a temporary brigadier-general for the Amritsar massacre at Jallianwala Bagh.

 Additional Information

  • After Rowlatt satyagraha got huge support in Punjab.
  • The Government handed over the administration to the military authorities under General Dyer to suppress this violent situation ongoing.
  • Political leaders were detained and all public meetings were banned by General Dyer.
  • Being unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, a large crowd had gathered on a Baisakhi Day in this small park to protest against the arrest of their leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal.
  • Under orders from General Dyer, the gathering was surrounded by the army, they blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the unarmed crowd.
  • A large number of people lost their lives.
49

Where did Guru Gobind Singh get his education and where did he learn Persian?

  1. ((a))

    Lahore

  2. ((b))

    Amritsar

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Anandpur Sahib

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Anandpur Sahib

The correct answer is Anandpur Sahib.

Key Points

  • Guru Gobind Singh got his education and learned Persian at Anandpur Sahib.
  • He learned Persian from Bhai Sati Das and a Muslim cleric Qazi Pir Mohammad.​

Additional Informatio

  • Guru Gobind Singh:
  • ​​Guru Gobind Singh was born on 22nd December, 1666 in Patna, Bihar.
  • He was the last of the ten Sikh Gurus, after the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru.
  • He founded the principles of Khalsa or the Five ‘K’s which include kesh (The practice of letting one's hair grow naturally without cutting it), kanga (wooden comb), kara (iron or steel bracelet), kirpan (dagger) and kachera (short breeches).
  • He was assassinated in 1708.
50

Amjad Ali Khan is known for playing:

  1. ((a))

    Sarod

  2. ((b))

    Sarangi

  3. ((c))

    Sitar

  4. ((d))

    Tabla

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sarod

The correct answer is sarod.

Key Points

  • Amjad Ali Khan Bangash (born 9 October 1945) is an Indian classical sarod player, best known for his clear and fast ekhara taans.
  • He was awarded India's second-highest civilian honor Padma Vibhushan in 2001.
  • He learned from his father Haafiz Ali Khan, who was a court musician in Gwalior up until Independence in 1947.
  • The name sarod comes from the Persian ‘sarod’ meaning ‘melody’, alluding to its more melodic tone.

Additional Information 

InstrumentFamous instrumentalist of India
TablaZakir Hussain, Pandit Anindo Chatterjee, Pandit Anokhelal Mishra, Ahmad Jan Thirakwa, etc.
ViolinL. Subramaniam, N. Rajam, Ragini Shankar, L. Athira Krishna, etc.
VeenaMuthuswami Dikshitar, Veenai Dhanammal, Veena Sheshanna, etc.

General Science and Maths (50 questions)

51

What is the size of particles to which the laws of classical physics apply?

  1. ((a))

    10-6 m

  2. ((b))

    10-7 m

  3. ((c))

    108 m

  4. ((d))

    10-4 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10-7 m

The correct option is > 10-7 m.

Key Points

Classical Physics:

  • It includes Maxwell's electromagnetic theory, thermodynamics, and Newtonian mechanics.
  • When applied to tiny things, such as atoms, or to objects traveling at speeds close to the speed of light, many ideas in classical physics fail.
  • The size of the Particle is more than 10-7 m.
  • The speed of the particle is less than 3 × 108 m/sec.

Additional Information

Quantum Physics:

  • The science that studies how matter and light behave on an atomic and subatomic scale is known as quantum mechanics or physics.
  • It attempts to explain and characterize the characteristics of molecules, atoms, and their building blocks, including electrons, protons, neutrons, and other less familiar particles like quarks and gluons.
  • The size of the Particle is less than 10-7 m.
52

Which option is correct about the wheel of a car moving on the road?

  1. ((a))

    Rolling friction > Static friction > Kinetic friction

  2. ((b))

    Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

  3. ((c))

    Static Friction > Rolling Friction > Kinetic Friction

  4. ((d))

    Rolling friction > Kinetic friction > Static friction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

The correct option is Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction.

Key Points

  • Friction: The motion of any object is resisted by an opposing force known as the force of friction.
  • The rolling friction is very low as compared to the other two frictions.
  • If we compare kinetic and static friction then the value of static friction is more because it is present when the motion is not started after overcoming this friction object is able to move.
  • Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling friction

Additional Information

Friction is of three types:

  • Static Friction: The friction force encountered when the object is in the rest position that's static friction.
  • Kinetic Friction: If the object is sliding against each other then the friction present at that time is kinetic friction.
  • Rolling Friction: If the object is rolling on the surface the friction which is present at that time between the surfaces is known as Rolling friction.
53

What is the relationship between the speed of sound and the density of the medium?

  1. ((a))

    ν21ρ\nu^2\propto \frac{1}{\rho}

  2. ((b))

    ν2 ∝ ρ

  3. ((c))

    ​​​ν21ρ2\nu^2\propto \frac{1}{\rho^2}

  4. ((d))

    ν2 ∝ ρ2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ν21ρ\nu^2\propto \frac{1}{\rho}

The correct option is ν21ρ\nu^2\propto \frac{1}{\rho}

Key Points

  • The ability of the medium to transmit vibrational energy fast determines the speed of sound in that medium.
  • The medium and its condition both affect the medium's ability to transmit sound.
  • For Solids and liquids, the relation between the speed of sound and density is:
  • ν21ρ\nu^2\propto \frac{1}{\rho}

Additional Information

Density:

  • It is mass per unit volume of a substance.
  • ρ=massvolumeρ = {mass \over volume}
  • Denoted by letter ρ(rho).

Speed of sound:

Speed(v)=frequency(f)×wavelength(λ)Speed (v) = frequency (f) × wavelength (λ)

Wavelength:

  • The distance between consecutive, identical wave components, such as between adjacent compressions, is known as the wavelength of a sound.

Frequency:

  • The frequency is the number of waves passing a location in a unit of time.
54

What is the range (in nm) of λ of violet light?

  1. ((a))

    450-500

  2. ((b))

    380-450

  3. ((c))

    500-570

  4. ((d))

    620-780

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

380-450

The correct option is 380-450.

Key Points

Violet light has a wavelength of around 400 nm. Because it is visible light comes in the range of 380nm to 700 nm.

Additional Information

Electromagnetic spectrum:

  • The collection of different types of radiation from gamma rays to radio waves with their frequency and wavelength range is in a particular order.
RadiationWavelength (nm)
Gamma -Rays< 10-12 m
X-Rays1 nm - 1 pm
Ultraviolet400 nm- 1 nm
Visible750 nm - 380 nm
near-infrared2.5 μm - 750 nm
infrared25 μm - 2.5 μm
microwaves1 mm - 25 μm
radiowave> 1 mm

Wavelength: 

  • It is the separation between the corresponding points of two successive waves. Two points or particles in the same phase are referred to as "corresponding points."

Radiation:

  • In physics, it is the flow of atomic and subatomic particles, along with waves.

Examples: Heat rays, light rays, and X-rays.

Waves:

  • The regular, systematic spread of disturbances from one location to another.
  • The waves that travel on the water's surface are the most well-known, but waves also exist in sound, light, and the movement of subatomic particles.
  • The disturbance oscillates regularly (see the periodic motion) with a set frequency and wavelength in the simplest waves.
55

What is useful for looking inside a patient's body?

  1. ((a))

    Concave lens

  2. ((b))

    Convex lens

  3. ((c))

    Optical tissue

  4. ((d))

    Prism

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Convex lens

The correct option is the Convex lens.

Key Points

  • To get magnified images doctors use a convex lens for looking inside a patient's body.
  • It is also used in magnifying glasses.
  • A convex lens has narrower lower and upper borders and a thicker center.
  • Because of the form of the convex lens and the difference in refractive indices of the air and the lens, light rays that strike its surface parallel to its primary axis converge at a single point, known as the principal focus or focal point.
  • Due to converging properties, it is known as a Convergent lens.

Additional InformationConcave lens:

  • A concave lens' center is significantly narrower than its corners.
  • Light beams bend outward and diverge away from one another as they strike a concave lens.
  • The picture, which was smaller than the actual thing, was generated upright.
  • Used in flashlights, telescopes, peep-holes, and eyeglasses.
56

When is the longest night in the Northern Hemisphere?

  1. ((a))

    June 21

  2. ((b))

    December 22

  3. ((c))

    December 25

  4. ((d))

    January 01

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

December 22

The correct answer is December 22.

Key Points

  • The longest night in the Northern Hemisphere is in December 22. It is called ​Winter solstice.
  • Winter Solstice:-
  • ​Winter solstice occurs when the North Pole is tilted farthest from the sun.
  • It occurs on 22nd December.
  • Winter solstice brings the longest night and the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere as it is tilted away from the sun.
  • Southern Hemisphere has the longest days.
  • Sun rays directly fall over the Tropic of Capricorn.

Additional Information

  • The Summer and Winter Solstice occur when Earth’s axis is either closest or farthest from the Sun.
  • Summer Solstice:-
  • ​The summer solstice occurs when the North Pole is tilted closest to the Sun.
  • It occurs on 21st June.
  • The summer solstice brings the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere, as it is tilted towards the sun.
  • Southern Hemisphere has the shortest night.
  • Sun rays directly fall over the Tropic of Cancer.
57

Where is the city of Graz?

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    Austria

  3. ((c))

    Australia

  4. ((d))

    Angola

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Austria

The correct answer is Austria.

Key Points

  • The city of Graz is in Austria.
  • It is the capital city of the Austrian state of Styria.
  • Graz is the second-largest city in Austria after Vienna.
  • Mur river flows through this city.
  • The city of Graz is located in the Graz Basin and surrounded by mountains and hills.​

Additional Information

CountryCapitalContinent
AustriaViennaEurope
AustraliaCanberraAustralia
AngolaLuandaAfrica
58

What is the amplitude of the quantity ut + 12\frac{1}{2} at2 (the sign means normal)?

  1. ((a))

    1T\frac{1}{T}

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    LT

  4. ((d))

    LT2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

L

The correct answer is L.

Key Points

  • L is the amplitude of the quantity ut + 12\frac{1}{2} at2 (the sign means normal).
  • Let's see what these letters mean-
  • ​s: displacement
  • ut: velocity x time
  • at2 = acceleration x time
  • s is the displacement which is the shorted distance between the initial and final position of the object being considered.
  • u is the initial velocity of the object and t is the time taken by the object to reach the final position.
  • a is the acceleration with which the object has moved.
  • Let's break down the letters in terms of dimension-
  • ut: velocity x time = LT-1 x T = L
  • 1/2at2 = acceleration x time = LT-2 x T2 = L
  • Since s= displacement= L,
  • Hence, the answer is L.
59

What happens when light enters another medium?

  1. ((a))

    Its frequency changes.

  2. ((b))

    Its frequency does not change.

  3. ((c))

    Its speed does not change.

  4. ((d))

    Its wavelength does not change.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Its frequency does not change.

The correct option is ​Its frequency does not change.

  • The connection between the wavelength, frequency, and speed of sound is the same for all waves:
  • Speed(v)=frequency(f)×wavelength(λ)Speed (v) = frequency (f) × wavelength (λ)
  • ​​The velocity or speed of light changes as it moves from one medium to another.
  • The wavelength also changes to make up for this difference, or vice versa.
  • Frequency stays constant as a result of these compensating adjustments.
  • As a result, while traveling through different media, light varies in wavelength and speed but not in frequency.

Additional Information

Wavelength: The distance between consecutive, identical wave components, such as between adjacent compressions, is known as the wavelength of a sound.

Frequency: The frequency is the number of waves passing a location in a unit of time.

Speed: It is the rate of movement of an item along a path in time.​​

60

The HCF and LCM of two digits x and y are 4 and 48 respectively. What will be the value of xy?

  1. ((a))

    192

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    86

  4. ((d))

    1920

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

192

Given:

HCF = 4

LCM = 48

Two numbers = x and y

Formula:

Product of the numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculation:

⇒ x × y = 4 × 48

⇒ xy = 192

So, 192 is the value of xy.

Hence, the correct answer is "192".

61

What is true about the HCF and LCM of two fractions?

  1. ((a))

    HCF = HCF of the numerator / LCM of the Denominator

  2. ((b))

    HCF = HCF of the numerator/ HCF of denominator

  3. ((c))

    LCM = HCF of the numerator / denominator of LCM

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HCF = HCF of the numerator / LCM of the Denominator

Let, the two fractions be 1/x and 1/y.

HCF of the fractions = HCF of the numeratorLCM of the Denominator\frac {HCF\ of\ the\ numerator} { LCM\ of\ the\ Denominator}

So, HCF of the numerators (1, 1) = 1

LCM of the denominator (x, y) = xy 

Then, HCF of the fraction = 1/xy

So, 1/xy is the common factor i.e. divisible by both the fractions.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)"

62

What is the greatest common factor of 48, 108, and 140?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4

Given:

Numbers = 48, 108 and 140

Concept used:

HCF: Product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.

LCM: Product of the greatest power of each prime factor, involved in the numbers

Calculation:

⇒ 48 → 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

⇒ 108 → 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3

⇒ 140 → 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 

So, Greatest Common factor(HCF) = 2 × 2 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

63

What is 5° F in Celsius?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

    258°

  3. ((c))

    +15°

  4. ((d))

    -15° 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

-15° 

The correct option is -15°.

CONCEPT:

  • Temperature: It is the measure of the degree of hotness and coldness of a body.
  • The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin (K).
  • The various temperature scales commonly used are Celsius (C), Kelvin (K), Fahrenheit (F), and Rankine (Ra).
  • Celsius: It has 100 degrees between the freezing and boiling points of water.
  • Here 0° represents the freezing point and 100° represents the boiling point. In many countries, celsius is used to communicate day-to-day temperatures.
  • Fahrenheit: The Fahrenheit scale was proposed by physicist Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit in 1724.
  • This scale is primarily used in the United States and some Caribbean countries to communicate day-to-day temperatures.
  • The following mathematical equation is used to convert the Fahrenheit scale(F) to Celsius scale(C): F329=C5=K2735\Rightarrow \frac{{F - 32}}{9} = \frac{C}{5} = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

Calculation:

Given:

F329=C5\Rightarrow \frac{{F - 32}}{9} = \frac{C}{5}

5329×5=C\Rightarrow \frac{{5 - 32}}{9} \times 5 =C

C=279×5\Rightarrow C= \frac{{-27}}{9} \times 5

C =-15°C

64

What is the relationship between the force F between two point charges and the distance (r) between them?

  1. ((a))

    F1r\rm F\propto \frac{1}{r}

  2. ((b))

    F ∝ r

  3. ((c))

    F ∝ r2

  4. ((d))

    F1r2\rm F\propto \frac{1}{r^2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

F1r2\rm F\propto \frac{1}{r^2}

The correct option is F1r2\rm F\propto \frac{1}{r^2}.

Key Points

Coulomb's law:

  • It states that the force of attraction or repulsion between two charged things is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them and directly proportional to the product of their charges.
  • It operates on the segment connecting the two charges regarded as point charges.

  • F=Kq1q2r2F= K{q_1q_2 \over r^2}
  • K - 9 × 109 Nm2/C2
  • r - the distance between two charges
  • q1 and q2 - Two-point charge.
  • If we see in the formula the relation between Force and distance r is inversely proportional to re square of it.
  • F1r2\rm F\propto \frac{1}{r^2}

Additional Information

Charge:

  • When held in an electric or magnetic field, matter experiences a force due to its fundamental physical feature known as electric charge.
65

What is true about the magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material?

  1. ((a))

    Low

  2. ((b))

    More

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

More

The correct option is More.

Key Points

Ferromagnetic material:

  • In a magnetic field, magnetic materials that are strongly magnetized are referred to as ferromagnetic materials.
  • These travel from lesser fields to stronger fields due to the magnets' tremendous attraction to them.
  • The relative permeability of ferromagnetic materials varies from 1000 to 100000 and is not constant.
  • Positive and extremely high magnetic susceptibility that is dependent on the applied field.
  • Examples: iron, cobalt, nickel, and their alloys.

Additional Information

Magnetic Susceptibility:

  • The degree to which a material becomes magnetized in response to an applied magnetic field is indicated by the dimensionless proportionality constant known as magnetic susceptibility.

Paramagnetic material:

  • Magnetic substances that line up with the magnetic field are referred to as paramagnetic substances.
  • For paramagnetic materials, magnetic susceptibility is greater than zero.

Diamagnetic material:

  • Magnetic materials that line up against the magnetic field are referred to as diamagnetic materials.
  • In the case of diamagnetic materials, magnetic susceptibility is always less than zero.
66

What is the simple form of 121/2?

  1. ((a))

    232\sqrt3

  2. ((b))

    323\sqrt2

  3. ((c))

    2×3\sqrt{2\times 3}

  4. ((d))

    32\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

232\sqrt3

Calculation:

Let's factor 12.

⇒ 12 → 2 × 2 × 3

⇒ 121/2 → 2×2×3√ {2 \times 2 \times 3} = 232√3

So, the simple form of 121/2 is "2√3.".

67

A digit which, when subtracted 15 from 7 times that digit, gives 10 more than twice that digit. What is that number?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    7.5

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

Given: A digit which, when subtracted 15 from 7 times that digit, gives 10 more than twice that digit.

Let the number be x. Then,

⇒ 7x - 15 = 2x + 10

⇒ 7x - 2x = 10 + 15

⇒ 5x = 25

⇒ x = 5

So, The number is 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

68

There is a difference of 16 years between the ages of elder Ram and younger Shyam. 6 years ago, Ram was 3 times as old as Shyam. What is the present age of Ram?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

30

Shortcut Trick

The age difference between two persons is always constant, so the difference 6 years ago was also 16 years.

Ratio of ages 6 years ago = Ram : Shyam = 3 : 1.

Difference in ratio units = 3 − 1 = 2 units.

2 units = 16 years ⇒ 1 unit = 8 years.

Ram's age 6 years ago = 3 units = 24 years.

Present age of Ram = 24 + 6 = 30 years.

∴ The correct answer is 30 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Present age difference between Ram and Shyam = 16 years

⇒ 6 years ago, Ram was 3 times as old as Shyam

Ratio of Ages 6 Years Ago Ram 1 unit 1 unit 1 unit Shyam 1 unit 2 units = 16 years 1 unit = 8 years → Ram 6 yrs ago = 24 years

Calculations:

⇒ Let Shyam's age 6 years ago be x.

⇒ Then, Ram's age 6 years ago = 3x.

⇒ The difference between their ages is always constant regardless of the time period.

⇒ Therefore, (Ram's age 6 years ago) − (Shyam's age 6 years ago) = 16

⇒ 3x − x = 16

⇒ 2x = 16

⇒ x = 8

⇒ Ram's age 6 years ago = 3 × 8 = 24 years.

⇒ Ram's present age = 24 + 6 = 30 years.

∴ The correct answer is 30 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains exactly the same at any point in time — past, present, or future.

Ratio Method for Ages

When the ratio of ages at a specific time is a : b, their ages can be assumed as ax and bx for that time. Avoid assuming variables for present ages to prevent complex fractions.

Handling Past and Future Ages

If present age is P, age 'n' years ago = P − n, and age 'n' years later = P + n.

69

A and B take 4 days to finish work. A alone can complete the job in 12 days. In how many days will B alone finish the work?

  1. ((a))

    4 days

  2. ((b))

    5 days

  3. ((c))

    6 days

  4. ((d))

    7 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6 days

Given:

A + B = 4 days

A = 12 days

Calculation:

LCM of 4 and 12 is 12. Then, Efficiencies are,

⇒ A + B = 12/4 = 3

⇒ A = 12/12 = 1

So, Efficiency of B = 3 - 1 = 2 units

Then, B alone will finish the work = 12/2 = 6 days

Hence, the correct answer is "6 days"

70

What is the lowest digit among 56,78,1112\frac{5}{6}, \frac{7}{8},\frac{11}{12} And 310\frac{3}{10}?

  1. ((a))

    56\frac{5}{6}

  2. ((b))

    78\frac{7}{8}

  3. ((c))

    1112\frac{11}{12}

  4. ((d))

    310\frac{3}{10}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

310\frac{3}{10}

Given Fractions:

56\frac{5}{6}78\frac{7}{8}1112\frac{11}{12}, and 310\frac{3}{10}

Calculation:

The fractions are,

⇒ 56\frac{5}{6} = 0.834

⇒ 78\frac{7}{8} = 0.875

⇒ 1112\frac{11}{12} = 0.916

⇒ 310\frac{3}{10} = 0.3

So, the lowest fraction is 310\frac{3}{10}.

Hence, the correct answer is "310\frac{3}{10}".

71

The cost price of 20 books is equal to the selling price of x books. What is the value of x if the profit is 25%?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

Given:

CP of 20 books = SP of x books

Concept used :

Profit = (SP  CPCP)×100(\frac{SP\ - \ CP }{CP})\times 100

Calculation:

Let CP of each article be Rs. 1.

So, CP of x articles = Rs. x

SP of x articles = Rs. 20

Profit = Rs. (20 - x)

According to Question,

⇒ (20 - x)/x × 100 = 25

⇒ 2000 - 100x = 25x

⇒ 125x = 2000

x = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "16".

72

7500+(125050)7500+\left(\frac{1250}{50}\right) is equal to what?

  1. ((a))

    7500

  2. ((b))

    7525

  3. ((c))

    7550

  4. ((d))

    8000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7525

Given:

7500+(125050)7500+\left(\frac{1250}{50}\right)

Concept used:

BODMAS Rule:

Calculation:

According to BODMAS rule, we first solve the bracket.

⇒ 7500 + 25

⇒ 7525

Hence, the correct answer is "7525".

73

Which has sp hybridized carbon?

  1. ((a))

    CH4

  2. ((b))

    CH3 = CH2

  3. ((c))

    CH ≡ CH

  4. ((d))

    CH3CH3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CH ≡ CH

The correct answer is CH ≡ CH.

Key Points

  • sp Hybridization:
  • Carbon can have an sp hybridization when it is bonded to two other atoms with the help of two double bonds or one single and one triple bond.
  • When hybridization occurs, the molecules have a linear arrangement of atoms with a bond angle of 180°.
  • Example: Hybridization of CO2.

Additional Information

  • Hybridization of graphite - sp2 Hybridization
  • Hybridization of CH4 (Methane) - sp3 Hybridization
74

What is the H-bomb based on?

  1. ((a))

    Nuclear fission

  2. ((b))

    Nuclear fusion

  3. ((c))

    Accession reactions

  4. ((d))

    Artificial transmutation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nuclear fusion

The correct answer is Nuclear fusion.

Key Points

  • The principle behind the hydrogen bomb is based on uncontrollable nuclear fusion.
  • A nuclear bomb based on the fission of uranium is placed at the core of the hydrogen bomb.
  • So hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of Nuclear Fusion Reaction.

Important Points

  • Nuclear fusion
  • ​It is the nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei are combined to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles.
  • Sun and other stars generate light and heat by nuclear fusion.
  • A hydrogen bomb is an immensely powerful bomb whose destructive power comes from the rapid release of energy during the nuclear fusion of isotopes of hydrogen (deuterium and tritium), using an atom bomb as a trigger.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear fission
  • It is a nuclear reaction process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two nuclei of nearly equal mass.
  • Nuclear fission of heavy elements was discovered by German Otto Hahn with the help of Fritz Strassman.
  • Nuclear fission is the opposite of the nuclear fusion reaction.
  • Splitting apart uranium, into smaller atoms such as iodine, strontium, xenon, and barium is an example of a nuclear fission reaction

 

75

Whose oxidation number is always -1?

  1. ((a))

    F

  2. ((b))

    Cl

  3. ((c))

    Br

  4. ((d))

    l

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F

The correct answer is F.

Key Points

  • Fluorine always shows a -1 oxidation state as it is the most electronegative element.
  • It has seven valence electrons and gains one valence electron to complete its octet.
  • This gives a −1 oxidation state to fluorine.

Additional Information

  • The oxidation number of all alkali metal ions is always = +1
  • The oxidation number of all alkaline earth metal ions is always = +2
  • The oxidation number of all boron family metal ions is always = +3
  • The oxidation number of chlorine are +1,+3,+5,+7, and -1.
76

1 mole of CO2 contains _________.

  1. ((a))

    6 × 1023 O atoms

  2. ((b))

    18 × 1023 CO2 molecules

  3. ((c))

    3 g of CO2 atoms

  4. ((d))

    6 × 1023 C atoms

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 × 1023 C atoms

The correct answer is 6 × 1023 C atoms.

Key Points

  • One mole of CO2 contains one mole of carbon and 2 moles of oxygen, i.e. 6.023 x 1023 atoms of C and 12.04 x 1023 atoms of oxygen.
  • 6.023 x 1023 is Avogadro's number and refers to the number of atoms or molecules present in one mole of a substance.
  • So, there are 6.023 x 1023 (6 × 1023 C atoms approx.) molecules of CO2 in one mole of CO2.

Additional Information

  • The Avogadro constant is a proportionality factor that relates the number of constituent particles in a sample to the amount of substance in that sample.
  • Its SI unit is the inverse mol and is defined as exactly NA = 6.02214076×1023 mol-1.
  • It is named after Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
77

For N2 + O2 ⇋ 2 NO

  1. ((a))

    Kc = Kp

  2. ((b))

    Kp=1Kc\rm K_p=\frac{1}{K_c}

  3. ((c))

    Kp = Kc (RT)

  4. ((d))

    Kp=KcRT\rm K_p=\frac{K_c}{RT}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kc = Kp

The correct answer is Kc = Kp.

The given reaction is:

⇒ N2 + O2 \rightleftharpoons  2NO;

⇒ Kc = 1.6 × 10-3

Kc=[NO]2[N2][O2]=1.6×103⇒ K_c=\frac{[NO]^2}{[N_2][O_2]}=1.6 × 10^{-3} , → (I)

Now, NO 12N2+12O2\rightleftharpoons\frac{1}{2}N_2+\frac{1}{2}O_2

Kc=[N2]1/2[O2]1/2[NO]⇒ K_c=\frac{[N_2]^{1/2}[O_2]^{1/2}}{[NO]}

=(1Kc)1/2=(11.6×103)1/2={\left(\frac{1}{K_c}\right)^{1/2}}={\left(\frac{1}{1.6\times10^{-3}}\right)^{1/2}}

Kc=1024=25⇒ K_c=\frac{10^2}{4}=25

Now, Kp = Kc (RT)Δn ; Δn=12+121=0\Delta n=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-1=0

⇒ Kp = Kc = 25, 

Hence, Kp = Kc.

where, Kp And Kc are the equilibrium constant of an ideal gaseous mixture.

Kp is equilibrium constant used when equilibrium concentrations are expressed in atmospheric pressure and Kc is equilibrium constant used when equilibrium concentrations are expressed in molarity.

78

The principle (Δp) (Δx) ≥ h4π\rm \frac{h}{4\pi} is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    Pauli's principle

  2. ((b))

    Heisenberg uncertainty principle

  3. ((c))

    Aufbau principle

  4. ((d))

    Arrhenius theory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

The correct answer is Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.

Key Points

  • The principle (Δp) (Δx) ≥ h4π\rm \frac{h}{4\pi} is called Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle
  • Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to precisely measure or calculate both the position and momentum of an object.
  • This theory is based on the wave-particle duality of matter.

Additional Information

  • Pauli's exclusion principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same value for all four of their quantum numbers.
  • In other words,
  • (1) there cannot be more than two electrons in the same orbital and
  • (2) two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins.
  • According to the Aufbau principle, the available atomic orbitals with the lowest energy levels are occupied earlier than the orbitals with higher energy levels.
  • According to Arrhenius, acids are hydrogen-containing compounds that give H+ ions or protons on dissociation in water and bases are hydroxide compounds that give OH- ions on dissociation in water.
79

How many values of Spin Quantum Number are possible?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

The correct answer is 2.

  • The possible values of the spin quantum number are two, i.e. +1/2 and -1/2.

Key Points

  • Spin quantum number: The spin quantum number describes the angular momentum and direction of the spin of an electron in the orbital.
  • ​Each orbital can will hold two electrons. The two electrons will have +1/2 and -1/2 spin.
  • The electrons tend to fill the orbitals before they pair up.
  • Hence, the first electron filled in the orbital will have a spin of +1/2. The electrons start pairing up once all the orbitals are half-filled by one electron each.
  • The second electron to fill the orbital will have a spin of -1/2.

Additional Information

  • The fourth quantum number that is introduced to describe the orientation of the electron spin (rotation) in space is called the spin quantum number.
  • It can be clockwise or counterclockwise.
80

The formula for the phosphate of metal is MHPO4. The formula for its chloride will be:

  1. ((a))

    MCl

  2. ((b))

    M2Cl2

  3. ((c))

    MCl2

  4. ((d))

    MCl3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MCl2

The correct answer is MCl2.

Key Points

  • The phosphate of metal is MHPO4, therefore, metal M must be divalent i.e. M2+.
  • As a result, the formula of its chloride is MCl2.

Important Points

  • In MCI2, M is the symbol for the metal that combines with Chlorine (Cl).
  • The 2 after Cl means the valency of the metal has to be 2.
  • Replace it with any metal from Group 2 like Calcium (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), Barium (Ba), etc., or with any element from the transition group which shows variable valency like Iron (Fe) in +2 valency (ferrous state), Lead (Pb), etc.
81

When a person is hungry, the first thing a person uses is his

  1. ((a))

    glycogen

  2. ((b))

    fat

  3. ((c))

    blood protein

  4. ((d))

    muscle protein

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

glycogen

The correct answer is glycogen.

Key Points

  • Humans need food for their survival and growth.
  • The human body gets energy from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
  • Glucose is the most preferred food source by the body cell.
  • It results in larger ATP production and is easily digested and absorbed.
  • Glucose is stored in the form of glycogen.
  • When a person is hungry, the first thing a person uses is glycogen.
  • The stored glycogen is broken down and used by the body cells.

Additional Information

Fats:

  • It is used as fuel by the body.
  • Its digestion is complex and results in less energy production than glucose.

Blood protein:

  • It helps in blood clotting.
  • It transports the nutrients to the various body organs.

Muscle proteins:

  • These are actin and myosin which help in the contraction and relaxation of muscles.
  • It helps in body locomotion and is not an energy source.
82

Which one is not a protein?

  1. ((a))

    Collagen

  2. ((b))

    Elastin

  3. ((c))

    Silk

  4. ((d))

    Lymphocyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lymphocyte

The correct answer is a lymphocyte.

Key Points

  • Immunity is the protection of oneself from the invading pathogen.
  • Our body has innate and specific immunity.
  • Lymphocytes are the type of leucocytes that helps in killing the pathogen.
  • It is B -lymphocyte and a T -lymphocyte.
  • It produces the antibody, that binds with the antigen.
  • B-cell or lymphocyte develops in the bone marrow and is present in the blood plasma.
  • The T-lymphocytes form in bone marrow but mature in the thymus,  thus the term T-lymphocyte.
  • A lymphocyte is a cell formed by haematopoiesis in the bone marrow.
  • A lymphocyte is not a protein.

Additional Information

  • Protein forms by the polymerisation of amino acids.
  • It consists of primary, secondary, and tertiary or quaternary structures.

Collagen:

  • It is a protein that forms an internetwork connection.
  • It consists of alpha-helical structures.
  • It is present in the extracellular matrix and thus supports the tissues.

Elastin:

  • It is a protein present in the extracellular matrix.
  • It stretches up to 5 times its length.
  • It provides elasticity to the body.

Silk:

  • It is a protein secreted by silkworms.
  • It consists of fibroin and sericin proteins.
  • It is used in the making of clothes and bedsheets.
83

Which of the following ion is not present in blood plasma?

  1. ((a))

    Na+

  2. ((b))

    Ca++

  3. ((c))

    Mg++

  4. ((d))

    Cu

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cu

The correct answer is Cu.

Key Points

  • Blood plasma is a vicious fluid.
  • It has 90-92 percent water, and the rest is proteins.
  • It consists of essential biomolecules and ions.
  • The ion is essential for body functioning as these act as cofactors.
  • Ions play a vital role in a variety of reactions.
  • Plasma is rich in Na+, Ca++, Mg++, HCO3, and Cl– ions.
  • It also has glucose, amino acids, and proteins.
  • It carries all the essential nutrients to the cells via the blood.
  • Cu ion is not present in blood plasma.

Additional Information

  • Sodium (Na)ions help in maintaining the salt balance inside the body.
  • Sodium ions help in the conduction of nerve impulses.
  • Calcium (Ca) ions help in muscle contraction.
  • It also acts as a secondary messenger during signaling events.
  • Magnesium (Mg) ions help in maintaining our immune system.
  • It helps in muscle relaxation.
84

Which of the following has a holophytic mode of nutrition?

  1. ((a))

    Amoeba

  2. ((b))

    Lion

  3. ((c))

    Euglena

  4. ((d))

    Earthworm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Euglena

The correct answer is Euglena.

Key Points

  • Nutrition is the intake of food to obtain energy.
  • It is holozoic,holophytic ,saprophytic modes.
  • The holophytic mode of nutrition occurs mainly in plants.
  • It is also term autotrophs.
  • Plants make their food using sunlight, and this process is photosynthesis.
  • Euglena is the connecting link between plants and animals.
  • It can make its food by using chloroplast and thus shows the autotrophic mode of nutrition.
  • Euglena has a holophytic mode of nutrition.

Additional Information

Holozoic:

  • In this mode of nutrition, the organism ingests food.
  • It is broken down into simple absorbable forms.
  • Amoeba is an example.
  • Here, amoeba performs phagocytosis to ingest the food particles.

Heterotrophic:

  • In this mode of nutrition, the organism depends on others for food.
  • Lion is its example.
  • Lion depends on other animals such as deer and zebra for its food and nutrition.

Detrivore:

  • The organism that feeds on the dead and decaying matter is the detrivore.
  • An earthworm is an example.
  • It feeds on the soil rich in organic matter and thus obtains nutrition.
85

Which of the following secretes steroid?

  1. ((a))

    Oral cavity

  2. ((b))

    Stomach

  3. ((c))

    Pancreas

  4. ((d))

    Adrenal gland

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Adrenal gland

The correct answer is the adrenal gland.

Key Points

  • Steroids are organic molecules.
  • It consists of heterocyclic rings.
  • It is naturally present inside the human body.
  • The steroids are secreted by the adrenal gland..
  • Adrenal glands play a significant role in the endocrine system -they produce and secrete a variety of hormones, including steroids.
  • The adrenal glands are located on the top of each kidney and are split into two distinct structures: the adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla, each of which produces its own set of hormones.

 Additional InformationStomach:

  • It is a j-shaped structure.
  • It is the site where the digestion of protein occurs.
  • gastric glands secrete gastric juice inside the stomach.

Pancreas:

  • It is the second largest gland of the body.
  • It secretes hormones as well as enzymes.
  • Pancreatic juice is secreted in the small intestine.

Oral cavity

  • It is the site where salivary glands secrete their secretion.
  • It contains salivary amylase.
  • It helps in the digestion of carbohydrates.
  • It also helps in the mastication of food.
86

_________ produces energy in plant cells using the respiratory system. 

  1. ((a))

    Nucleus

  2. ((b))

    Mitochondria

  3. ((c))

    Ribosome

  4. ((d))

    Chloroplast 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mitochondria

The correct answer is Mitochondria.

Explanation:

  • Mitochondria is a double membrane organelle.
  • It is semi-autonomous and can control some of its functioning.
  • Its number varies in plant and animal cells.
  • Plants have chloroplast, nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes.
  • Mitochondria in the energy production unit in the plant cell.
  • Here, the ATP synthesis takes place.
  • The glucose produced by photosynthesis is broken down to produce energy in the form of ATP in the mitochondria.
  • The proton gradient that is generated during the electron transport results in the formation of ATP.
  • This process is equivalent to the respiratory system and is called as cellular respiration.

​Hence, mitochondria produce energy in plant cells using the respiratory system.

Confusion Points

  • Chloroplast helps in Photosynthesis and the formation of Glucose, with the help of Light Energy.
  • Mitochondria on the other hand help in cellular respiration which breaks down sugar into ATP inside plant cells.

Additional Information

Nucleus- It is a double membrane structure. - It contains genetic material. - It acts as the control unit and controls the cell's functioning.
Chloroplast- It is a double membrane organelle. - It is semi-autonomous and can control some of its own functioning. - It has chlorophyll pigments that use light energy and converts it to chemical energy. - It is the organelle in plant cells where photosynthesis takes place.
Ribosomes- It is a single membrane structure. - It consists of large and small subunits. - The chloroplast and mitochondria have their own ribosome. - It is the site of protein synthesis.
87

Viruses have _________.

  1. ((a))

    Only DNA

  2. ((b))

    Only RNA

  3. ((c))

    Both RNA and DNA

  4. ((d))

    either RNA or DNA

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

either RNA or DNA

The correct answer is either RNA or DNA.

Key Points

  • A virus is a small non-living organism.
  • It is enclosed by protein coat term capsid.
  • The capsid is made of capsomeres.
  • It hijacks the machinery of its host and thus forms its copy.
  • It has reverse transcriptase enzymes that aid in replicating.
  • Viruses have either RNA or DNA as their genetic material.
  • It has ss RNA or ds RNA or ss DNA or ds DNA as its genetic material.
  • The virus affects bacteria, plants, and animals.
  • The virus that infects bacteria is a bacteriophage.

Additional Information

Bacteriophage- CTX phage - lambda phage - T12 phage - T4 phage
Plant virus- Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) - Potato Virus X (PVX) - Potato Virus Y (PVY) - Potato Leaf Roll Virus (PLRV)
Animal virus- Papovaviruses - Simian Virus-40 - Adenoviruses - Herpesviruses
88

The size of the particles dispersed in an emulsion range between _________. 

  1. ((a))

    100 Å - 1000 Å

  2. ((b))

    10 Å - 100 Å

  3. ((c))

    1000 Å - 10,000 Å

  4. ((d))

    10,000 Å

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 Å - 100 Å

The correct answer is 10 Å - 100 Å.

Key Points

  • The size of the particles dispersed in an emulsion range between 10 Å - 100 Å.
  • An emulsion is a fine dispersion of minute droplets of one liquid in another in which it is not soluble or not mixable.
  • In other words, it can be defined as a colloid consisting of two or more non-homogenous type of liquids wherein one of the liquid contains the dispersion of the different form of liquids.
  • Typical example is mixture of oil and water.
  • The emulsion is primarily classified into two types:
  • Oil in water (O/W type) emulsions
  • In this type of emulsion, oil acts as a dispersed phase, and water acts as the dispersion medium.
  • Example: Milk, Vanishing cream, etc.
  • Water in oil (W/O type) emulsions
  • In this type of emulsions, water acts as a dispersed phase, and oil acts as the dispersion medium.
  • Example: Cold cream, butter, cod liver oil, etc.
  • The size of the particles dispersed in an emulsion range between 1 nm and 10 nm, i.e. 10 Å - 100 Å.
89

How many acyclic chain isomers of C6H14 are possible?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

  • C6H14 is hexane.
  • It has 5 structural isomers:
  • The five isomers possible for hexane are n- hexane, 2- methyl pentane, 3- methyl pentane, 2, 3-dimethylbutane and 2, 2- dimethylbutane.
  • 2- methyl pentane is also called Isohexane.
  • 2, 2- dimethyl butane also called Neohexane.​

90

If the blood group of both the parents is AB, then the possible blood group of their children will be:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, AB and O

  2. ((b))

    A, B and AB

  3. ((c))

    A and B

  4. ((d))

    A, B and O

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, B and AB

The correct answer is A, B, and AB.

Key Points

  • Blood is a body fluid.
  • ABO blood grouping was given by Karl Landsteiner.
  • The parent's blood group is AB.
  • The blood group proteins are present in the 'I ' gene.
  • The genotype of a parent is IA IB.
GametesIAIB
IAIAIAIAIB
IBIAIBIBIB
  • From the punnet square, we can see that,
  • The Blood group can be A, AB, and B.
  • The blood group shows codominance interaction.
  • A and B are codominant over the O blood group.
  • IAIA = A blood group as here only A  allele is present on the I gene.
  • IAIB= AB blood group as here A and B allele is present on the I gene.
  • IBIB=B blood group as here B allele is present on the I gene.
  • If the blood group of both parents is AB, then the possible blood group of their children will be A, B, and AB.

Additional Information

Blood GroupAntigens on RBCAntibody in plasmaDonor Blood  Group
AAanti-BA, O
BBanti-AB, O
ABA ,  BNo abAB, A, B, O
ONo aganti-A, BO
91

Where is the wettest place in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Asia

  2. ((b))

    Oceania

  3. ((c))

    Africa

  4. ((d))

    Australia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Asia

The correct answer is Asia.

Key Points

  • The wettest place in the world is located in Asia.
  • Mawsynram, a town of Meghalaya in northeastern India, situated high up in India's Khasi Hills is the wettest place in the world.
  • The place receives the highest amount of average annual rainfall in the world.
  • This place receives an average annual rainfall of 11,871 mm.
  • Mawsynram is directly in the path of warm, moist air swept in from the Bay of Bengal.
  • Most of the rain falls here during the monsoon season.
92

Lines connecting equal depths of the sea on a map are called ________. 

  1. ((a))

    isonormal

  2. ((b))

    isonomal

  3. ((c))

    isobath

  4. ((d))

    isohypse

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

isobath

The correct answer is isobath.

Key Points

  • Isobath​
  • Isobath is an imaginary line or a line on a map or chart that connects all points having the same depth below a water surface (as of an ocean, sea, or lake).

Additional Information

IsoplethsDescription
Isotherm- Isotherm is a line drawn on a map or chart joining points with the same temperature. - Isotherms are commonly used in meteorology to show the distribution of temperature at the Earth's surface. - Isotherms are commonly used in meteorology to view temperature distribution on the surface of the Earth or a chart showing steady or constant pressure
Isobar- Isobar, line on a weather map of constant line of barometric pressure drawn on a given reference surface. - The isobaric pattern on a constant-height surface is extremely useful in weather forecasting because of the close association between pressure and weather.
Isohyet- An isohyet is a line on a map that connects points that have the same amounts of precipitation in a given period or for a particular storm. a line on a map that connects places that have the same amount of rain.
Isonomal- A line on a chart connecting points of equal abundance values of a plant species sampled in different sections of an area. - Isonomes of different species from the same area are compared in studies of plant distribution.
Isohypse- A line on a map connecting points of equal height.
Isohel- a line is drawn on a map or chart connecting places of equal duration of sunshine
Isochron- An imaginary line or a line on a chart connecting points at which an event occurs simultaneously or which represents the same time or time difference.
93

_________ is a cold and dry wind.

  1. ((a))

    Hurricane

  2. ((b))

    Tornado

  3. ((c))

    Bora

  4. ((d))

    Cyclone

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bora

The correct answer is Bora.

Key Points

  • Bora is a cold and dry wind.
  • It blows from Hungary to North Italy.
  • It comes from the northeast across the Adriatic Sea, affecting Italy, Slovenia, and Croatia.

Additional Information

  • Tropical cyclone:
  • It is a rapidly rotating storm system over tropical oceans, characterized by a low-pressure centre.
  • They are among the most destructive weather phenomena.
  • They have different names depending on their location:
  • ​In the North Atlantic Ocean and eastern North Pacific region, they are called Hurricanes.
  • In the western North Pacific region, they are called typhoons.
  • While in the Southern Pacific and the Indian Ocean, they are simply known as cyclones.
  • ​Tornado:
  • It ​is a narrow column of violently rotating air extending from the base of a thunderstorm down to the ground.
94

Which of the following river is in Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    Sutlej

  2. ((b))

    Sarayu

  3. ((c))

    Ganga

  4. ((d))

    Yamuna

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Yamuna

The correct answer is the Yamuna.

Key Points 

  • The national capital, New Delhi is situated on the banks of the river Yamuna.
  • ​Yamuna River System
  • ​The Yamuna River is the largest tributary of the Ganga River.
  • It originates from the Yamunotri glacier, at the Bandarpoonch peak in Uttarakhand.
  • The main tributaries joining the river include the Hindon, Betwa Ken, and Chambal.
  • The Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna
  • The catchment of the river extends to the states of Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Length: 1376 km.​

Additional Information 

  • New Delhi:
  • The foundation of New Delhi, the capital of India, was laid by the then Emperor George V.
  • During the Delhi Durbar on 12 December 1911, it was announced to shift the capital of India from Kolkata to Delhi.
  • On 13 February 1931, Lord Irwin, the Viceroy of India, inaugurated Delhi as the new capital of the country.
  • Kolkata was the capital of the country until 1911 before the capital of India became New Delhi.
  • New Delhi is the seat of the Indian Parliament, Central Secretariat, Supreme Court, Rashtrapathi Bhavan.

All major rivers of India:

95

Irrawaddy River meets ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Bay of Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Pacific ocean

  3. ((c))

    Atlantic ocean

  4. ((d))

    Amazon River

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bay of Bengal

The Correct Answer is Bay of Bengal

Key Points 

  • Irrawaddy is the longest river in Myanmar.
  • Irrawaddy is a drainage basin of about 404,200 square kilometers.
  • Irrawaddy River flows into the Andaman Sea, Bay of Bengal.

Important Points 

  • Irrawaddy name is believed to derive from the Sanskrit term airāvatī, meaning “elephant river."
  • Chindwin River, is the main tributary of the Irrawaddy River, northern Myanmar (Burma).
  • Sittang River, in east-central Myanmar, rising northeast of Yamethin on the edge of the Shan Plateau and flowing south for 260 miles (420 km) to empty into the Gulf of Martaban of the Andaman Sea.
  • The Thanlwin River (formerly named as Salween or Salwin) rises in Tibet. after which it flows through Yunnan. Is known as the Nujiang river.

Additional Information 

  • Thanlwin River is long 2815 km. It then leaves China and meanders through Myanmar and Thailand on its way to emptying in the Andaman Sea by Mawlamyaing.
  • Myanmar also called Burma, country located in the western portion of mainland Southeast Asia.
96

A shallow stretch of river that can be crossed by foot or by car is called:

  1. ((a))

    Ford

  2. ((b))

    Atoll

  3. ((c))

    Reef

  4. ((d))

    Lagoon

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ford

The correct answer is Ford.

Key Points

  • A shallow stretch of river that can be crossed by foot or by car is called Ford.
  • The Ford can be manmade or natural.
  • Fords may be impassable during high water.​

Additional Information​

  • Atoll:
  • It ​is a ring-shaped coral reef, island, or series of islets, including a coral rim that encircles a lagoon partially or completely.
  • Most of the world's great atolls are located in the Pacific Ocean.
  • Reef:
  • A reef is a ridge or shoal of rock or coral, lying beneath the surface of a natural body of water.
  • Reefs can occur naturally or can also be artificial—created by human beings.
  • ​Lagoon:
  • It is a ​shallow body of water separated from a larger body of water by sandbars, barrier islands, or coral reefs.
  • Lagoons are commonly divided into coastal lagoons and atoll lagoons.
97

Which is the largest island in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Borneo

  2. ((b))

    Honshu

  3. ((c))

    Greenland

  4. ((d))

    Cuba

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Greenland

The correct answer is Greenland.

Key Points

  • Greenland, the world’s largest island, lying in the North Atlantic Ocean.
  • It covers an area of 2,130,800 km2 (970 sq mi)
  • Greenland is noted for its vast tundra and immense glaciers.
  • Although Greenland remains a part of the Kingdom of Denmark, the island’s home-rule government is responsible for most domestic affairs.
  • The Greenlandic people are primarily Inuit (Eskimo).
  • The capital of Greenland is Nuuk (Godthåb).

Important Points 

  • An island or isle is any piece of subcontinental land that is surrounded by water. Very small islands such as emergent land features on atolls can be called islets, skerries, cays, or keys and very large islands are like Greenland, Madagaskar, etc.

Additional Information

IslandArea (km2)Location
Greenland2,130,800Atlantic ocean
Madagaskar587,041Madagaskar
Borneo748,168Indonesia
Honshu-Japan
98

Which of the following is a composite fruit?

  1. ((a))

    Mulberry

  2. ((b))

    Strawberry

  3. ((c))

    Custard apple

  4. ((d))

    Litchi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mulberry

The correct answer is mulberry.

Key Points

  • Fruit is ripened ovary.
  • It is the form after double fertilization.
  • The fruit is the edible part of a plant.
  • Fruit is a simple, aggregate, and composite type.
  • Composite fruit is formed from the complete inflorescence.
  • Mulberry is composite fruit.
  • Jackfruit and peepal are also examples.

Additional InformationAggregate fruit:

  • It develops from the apocarpous ovary.
  • It forms the bunch of fruitless term etaerio.
  • Strawberry, raspberry, rose, and custard apples are examples.

Simple fruit:

  • It is formed from the monocarpellary ovary.
  • It forms only a single fruit.
  • Cashew, litchi, citrus, and mango are examples.
True fruitFalse fruit
It is formed from the ovary.It is formed from the perianth and thalamus.
Tomato is an example.Walnut is an example.
99

Which of the following is obtained by the aqueous decomposition of fat by lipase?

  1. ((a))

    fatty acid and amino acid

  2. ((b))

    fatty acid and glycerol

  3. ((c))

    glycerol and amino acid

  4. ((d))

    glycerol and alcohol

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

fatty acid and glycerol

The correct answer is fatty acid and glycerol.

Key Points

  • Enzymes are proteinaceous.
  • It breaks down the biomolecules into a simple absorbable form.
  • The pancreatic gland releases lipase.
  • Fatty acid and glycerol are obtained by the aqueous decomposition of fat by lipase.
  • In the small intestinal, it helps break the bonds and release fatty acid and glycerol.
  • Fat molecules consist of 3 fatty acid and glycerol molecules.
  • Fat is stored in adipocytes.
  • Adipocytes are cells found in adipose tissue.
  • The fat is used as body fuel and provides energy for the body's metabolic reactions.

Additional Information

  • Glycerol is a 3-carbon alcohol.
  • Alcohol is an OH-containing hydrocarbon compound.
  • Amino acids consist of carboxyl groups and amino groups.
  • It is the building block of proteins or polypeptides.
  • Proteins are digested to form amino acids.
EnzymesDecomposition products
NucleosidasesSugars Bases
LactaseGlucose+ galactose
SucraseGlucose + Fructose
MaltaseGlucose + Glucose
100

Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by ________. 

  1. ((a))

    5125\frac{1}{2} hour

  2. ((b))

    2122\frac{1}{2} hour

  3. ((c))

    101210\frac{1}{2} hour

  4. ((d))

    1 hour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5125\frac{1}{2} hour

The correct answer is 5125\frac{1}{2} hour.

  • Indian Standard Time (IST) is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).

Key Points 

  • In India, the longitude of 82.5° E is treated as the Standard Meridian. The local time at the meridian is taken as the Standard Time for the whole country. It is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).
  • The Prime Meridian is a 0° and is known as the Greenwich line as it passes through Greenwich near London, where the British Royal Observatory is located.
  • Longitudes have one very important function i.e. they determine Local Time in relation to Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
  • Local Time is the time reckoned by the noon-sun at a given place and Standard Time is the Local Time of the Standard Meridian of a country.

Additional Information 

Comparison between Latitude and Longitude
LatitudeLongitude
Latitude is the angular distance of a point north or south of the equator as measured in degree.Longitude is the angular distance along the equator measured in degree.
All latitudes are parallel to the equator.All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.
The distance between the two latitudes is approximately 111 km.The distance between two longitudes is maximum at the equator (111.3 km) and minimum at the poles (0 km).
The 0° latitudes are referred to as the equator and the 90° is the poles.There are 360° of longitude, 180° each in the east and west of the Prime Meridian.

Mental Ability (50 questions)

101

How many days will be there between 26th January, 2008 and 15th May, 2008? (includes both days)

  1. ((a))

    111

  2. ((b))

    110

  3. ((c))

    112

  4. ((d))

    113

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

111

Total number of days in January = 31.

Number of days in January after 26th January (including 26th January) = 31 - 25 = 6.

Total number of days in February, 2008 (leap year) = 29.

Total number of days in March = 31.

Total number of days in April = 30.

Number of days in May till 15th May (including 15th May) = 15.

Hence, total days = 6 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 15 = 111

Hence, the correct answer is "111".

102

A and B are either of the same age or A is older than B. C and D are of the same age or D is older than C. B is greater than C. Which statement is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    A is greater than B.

  2. ((b))

    B and D are of same age

  3. ((c))

    D is older than C.

  4. ((d))

    A is greater than C.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A is greater than C.

Given here,

⇒ A and B are either of the same age or A is older than B i.e. A >= B.

⇒ C and D are of the same age or D is older than C i.e. C <= D.

⇒ B is greater than C i.e. B > C.

On combining,

A >= B > C <= D

Option 1: A > B → Not true

Option 2: B = D → Not true

Option 3: D > C → Not true

Option 4: A > C → True

So, Statement A > C is true. 

Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

103

In two standard cubes, 4 and 3 are written on the front faces. What will be the sum of the numbers written on the opposite faces?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

Given: 

Two standard cubes, 4 and 3 are written on the front faces.

Concept:

In a standard cube, the sum of the number on the opposite faces is equal to 7.

Calculation:

The number on the opposite face of 4 = 7 - 4 = 3

Similarly,

The number on the opposite face of 3 = 7 - 3 = 4

So, the sum of the numbers written on the opposite faces = 3 + 4 = 7

Hence, Option 1 is the correct answer.

104

In a row of crows, A is 10th from the left and B is 9th from the right. A is 15th from the left when they interchange their positions. How many crows are there in the row?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    28

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

23

Given:

A from the left = 10th

B from the right = 9th

After interchange the positions,

A from the left = 15th from left = B's position from left.

Total crows = ?

Formula:

Total = L + R - 1

Calculation:

Total Crows = (B's position from left + B's position  from the right) = 15 + 9 - 1 

⇒ Total Crows = 23

Hence, the correct answer is "23".

105

In a row of boys, a boy ranks 19th on either side. How many boys are there in the row?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    38

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

37

Given:

A boy ranks 19th on either side.

Calculation:

Number of boys on the left side = 18

Similarly,

Number of boys on the right side = 18

So, Total Boys = 18 + 1 + 18 (1 is boy's position)

⇒ Total Boys = 37

Hence, Option 2 is the correct answer.

Directions: 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different types of vehicles. P and Q by boat and rail, S and R by bus and boat, Q and T by airplane. P and R are connected by boat. T and R are connected by rail and bus.

106

Which vehicle can be used to travel from R to Q?

  1. ((a))

    boat

  2. ((b))

    rail

  3. ((c))

    bus

  4. ((d))

    airplane

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

boat

According to the given conditions,

It is clear from the above figure, Boat is common from R to P to Q.

So, Boat can be used to travel from R to Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Boat".

107

Which pair of cities are connected in any way without going to the third city?

  1. ((a))

    P and T

  2. ((b))

    T and S

  3. ((c))

    Q and R

  4. ((d))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

none of these

According to the given conditions,

From above figure, it is clear that only P and Q's and R and S's pair is possible without going to third city. But these pair are not given in the options.

Hence, the correct answer is "None of these".

108

Which of the following square is missing?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Here, First Square having 1 big and 1 small circles and a dot.

Other square having big circle with a dot which is a part of first square.

Another square having small circle with a dot which is also a part of first square.

Hence, the remaining square having a dot which is also a part of first square.

Which means square given in option (1) is the missing square of given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

109

In the following group of letters, which one is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    CZHK

  2. ((b))

    MLAG

  3. ((c))

    XUBU

  4. ((d))

    SENO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CZHK

The logic followed here is,

Option 1:

CZHK → Having 4 consonants and 0 Vowel

Option 2:

MLAG → Having 3 consonants and 1 Vowel

Option 3:

XUBU → Having 2 consonants and 2 Vowel

Option 4:

SENO →Having 2 consonants and 2 Vowel

Here, Option 2, 3 and 4 have vowels but Option 1 does not. So, Option (1) is the odd one

Hence, the correct answer is "CZHK"

Additional InformationVowel are: A, E, I, O, and U

Consonants are: Except the 5 vowels all the alphabets are consonants.

110

In the following set of numbers, which one is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    0.50, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.0, 0.25

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{1}{2}, 0.75, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 1.0

  3. ((c))

    0.5, 0.75, 1.5, 1

  4. ((d))

    1.00, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.00, 2.00

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1.00, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.00, 2.00

The logic followed here is,

Option 1: 0.50, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.0, 0.25

⇒ 12×32×3×14\frac 1 2 \times \frac 3 2 \times 3 \times \frac 1 4

⇒ 9/16

Option 2: 12\frac 1 2, 0.75, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 1.0

⇒ 12×34×32×1\frac 1 2 \times \frac 3 4 \times \frac 3 2 \times 1

⇒ 9/16

Option 3: 0.5, 0.75, 1.5, 1

⇒ 12×34×32×1\frac 1 2 \times \frac 3 4 \times \frac 3 2 \times 1

⇒ 9/16

Option 4: 1.00, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.00, 2.00

⇒ 1×32×3×2 1 \times \frac 3 2 \times 3 \times 2

⇒ 9

Hence, the correct answer is "1.00, 1121\frac{1}{2}, 3.00, 2.00".

111

Which of the following symbol is missing?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is;

So, the correct answer is "option 1".

112

The value of x in sequence 312,213....x413\frac{1}{2}, 2\frac{1}{3}....\frac{x}{41} is:

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

312,213....x413\frac{1}{2}, 2\frac{1}{3}....\frac{x}{41}

⇒ 72,73,,x41\frac 7 2, \frac 7 3,\ldots,\frac x {41}

Here, the numerator is same for all the fractions i.e. 7.

So, the value of x is 7.

113

The fourth number in sequence 2,212,318......2,2\frac{1}{2},3\frac{1}{8}...... will be:

  1. ((a))

    4194\frac{1}{9}

  2. ((b))

    49104\frac{9}{10}

  3. ((c))

    39103\frac{9}{10}

  4. ((d))

    329323\frac{29}{32}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

329323\frac{29}{32}

The logic followed here is,

Series:

2,212,318......2,2\frac{1}{2},3\frac{1}{8}......

⇒ 2, 5/2, 25/8, . . .

In the given series, number is multiplied by 5/4 to get the next number.

So, The fourth number is = 258×54\frac {25} 8 \times \frac 5 4 = 125/32

⇒ The fourth number is = 329323 \frac {29}{32}

Hence, the correct answer is "329323 \frac {29}{32}".

114

The next number in sequence 100, 99.5, 98.5, 97, 95, 92.5, 89.5, ? will be:

  1. ((a))

    86

  2. ((b))

    68

  3. ((c))

    79

  4. ((d))

    85.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

86

The logic followed here is,

So, the next number = 86

Hence, the correct answer is "86".

115

If 7964325 means 6975234 and 5822139 means 2859312, then what is the meaning of 7469851?

  1. ((a))

    476985

  2. ((b))

    6471589

  3. ((c))

    9647158

  4. ((d))

    9647851

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6471589

The logic followed here is,

Similarly,

So, 7469851 is codded as 6471589.

Hence, the correct answer is "6471589"

116

Which of the following can be rearranged to form a meaningful English word?

  1. ((a))

    HURLPO

  2. ((b))

    KCIENA

  3. ((c))

    EJBATC

  4. ((d))

    XELPOD

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

EJBATC

According to the given options,

HURLPO → No meaningful word

KCIENA → No meaningful word

EJBATC → ABJECT (means extreme and without hope)

XELPOD → No meaningful word

So, EJBATC is the meaningful word.

Hence, the correct answer is "EJBATC".

117

583 is related to 293 as 488 is related to:

  1. ((a))

    291

  2. ((b))

    378

  3. ((c))

    487

  4. ((d))

    581

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

378

The logic followed here is,

583 → 5 + 8 + 3 = 16

293 → 2 + 9 + 3 = 14

⇒ 16 - 14 = 2

Similarly,

488 → 4 + 8 + 8 = 20

⇒ 20 - 2 = 18

i.e. the sum of the digits should be 18.

Option 1:

291 → 2 + 9 + 1 = 12

Option 2:

378 → 3 + 7 + 8 = 18

Option 3:

487 → 4 + 8 + 7 = 19

Option 4:

581 → 5 + 8 + 1 = 14

So, the sum of the digits of 378 is 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "378".

118

"BF" is related to "HL" as "EI" is related to:

  1. ((a))

    KN

  2. ((b))

    KO

  3. ((c))

    JN

  4. ((d))

    JO

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

KO

The logic followed here is,

Similarly,

EI (+6) → KO

Hence, the correct answer is "KO".

119

"Rubber" is related to "Tree" and "Silk" is related to:

  1. ((a))

    Cloth

  2. ((b))

    Worm

  3. ((c))

    Fabric

  4. ((d))

    knitting

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Worm

The logic followed here is,

Rubber : Tree → Rubber get from trees.

Similarly,

Silk : Worm → Silk get from Worm.

Hence, the correct answer is "worm".

120

Hodor stands at sunrise in such a way that his shadow is falling on his right. Where is Hodor's face?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    East

  3. ((c))

    West

  4. ((d))

    South

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

South

Sun rises in the East direction, if his shadow is falling on his right means Sun is in the left side of the Hodor.

Which means Hodor, face is in the South direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "South".

121

A boy walks 20m in north direction, turns right and walks 30m, turns right and walks 35m, turns left and walks 15m, turns left and walks 15m. Where is his last place from his starting place?

  1. ((a))

    15 meter west

  2. ((b))

    30 meter east

  3. ((c))

    30 meter west

  4. ((d))

    45 meter east

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45 meter east

The diagram is as follows:

So, his last place from his starting place = 30 + 15 = 45 meter in East direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "45 meter East"

122

If A × B means that A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B, A % B means A is to the east of B, A - B means A is to the west of B, then P % Q + R - S Means in which direction S is with respect to Q:

  1. ((a))

    South-west

  2. ((b))

    South-east

  3. ((c))

    North-east

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

South-east

According to the given information, we make a table for the given relations:

A is
Symbol+-×%
MeaningNorthWestSouthEast
Of B

 

 

 

 

 

So, P % Q + R - S

P % Q → P is to the east of Q

Q + R → Q is to the north of R

R - S  → R is to the west of S

So, direction of S with respect to Q is South-east.

Hence, the correct answer is "South - East"

123

Raja walks 90 m towards East, turns right and walks 20 m, turns right and walks 30 m, turns north and walks 100 m. How far is he from his starting point?

  1. ((a))

    80 meter

  2. ((b))

    140 meter

  3. ((c))

    100 meter

  4. ((d))

    260 meter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

100 meter

The diagram is as follows,

The distance between starting point to last point = 802+602\sqrt{80^2+60^2}

⇒ 6400+3600\sqrt{6400+3600}

⇒ 10000\sqrt{10000}

⇒ 100 m

Hence, the correct answer is "100 m"

124

Which of the following words share similar characteristics with shop, goods, demand?

  1. ((a))

    part

  2. ((b))

    price

  3. ((c))

    near

  4. ((d))

    open

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

price

All the words given in the question are related to market.

Price is related in the same way as shop, goods and demand are related.

Hence, The correct answer is "Price".

125

The value of x in

 is:

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13

The logic followed here is,

Sum of all three number in the figure = 100

From First Figure,

⇒ 52 + 27 + 21 = 100

From Second figure,

⇒ 34 + 44 + 22 = 100

Similarly,

In the third figure,

⇒ x = 100 - (16 + 71)

⇒ x = 100 - 87

⇒ x = 13

Hence, the correct answer is "13".

126

If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West, then West will become:

  1. ((a))

    north-east

  2. ((b))

    north-west

  3. ((c))

    south-east

  4. ((d))

    south-west

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

south-east

The figure is,

We can see from the above diagram that we get the new direction by rotating original direction 135° Anti-clockwise.

So, when We rotate the West 135° Anti-clockwise we get the new direction as South - East.

Hence, the correct answer is "South - East".

127

In a code language, Air is called Green, Green is called Blue, Blue is called Sky, Sky is called Yellow and Yellow is called Water. What would be the color of "Clear Sky" in the code language?

  1. ((a))

    Blue

  2. ((b))

    Sky

  3. ((c))

    Yellow

  4. ((d))

    Water

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sky

Given:

Air → Green

Green → Blue

Blue → Sky

Sky → Yellow

Yellow → Water

Then, The color of "Clear sky" is blue which is called "Sky".

Hence, the correct answer is "Sky".

128

If in the code Z = 2197 and R = 729, then J is

  1. ((a))

    216

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    512

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

125

The positional value of alphabets is,

The logic followed here is,

⇒ Z = 26/2 = 133 = 2197

⇒ R = 18/2 = 93 = 729

Similarly,

⇒ J = 10/2 = 53 = 125

Hence, the correct answer is "125".

129

10 taxis ply between Chennai and Puducherry. In how many ways can X go from Chennai to Puducherry and return by different taxi?

  1. ((a))

    90

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

90

Given here,

Total taxis between Chennai and Puducherry = 10

Taxis for return between Chennai and Puducherry = 9

So, Total ways = 10P2 = 10 × 9 

⇒ Total ways = 90

Hence, the correct answer is "90".

130

How many numbers can be formed from the nine digits 1, 2, ........ 9 by using the six digits?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    64840

  3. ((c))

    60480

  4. ((d))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

60480

Total digits = 1 to 9

Number from from digits = 6

Total 6-digit numbers = 9P6

⇒ 9!/3!

⇒ 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4

⇒ 60480

So, Total 60480 6-digit numbers can be formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "60480".

131

If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    39

  2. ((b))

    41

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    46

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

46

The positional value of alphabets is,

The logic followed here is,

⇒ Z → 26 × 2 = 52

⇒ ACT → (1 + 3 + 20) × 2 = 24 × 2 = 48

Similarly,

⇒ BAT → (2 + 1 + 20) × 2 = 23 × 2 = 46

So, BAT is equal to 46.

Hence, the correct answer is "46".

132

If in a code 134 stands for "good and tasteful", 478 means "looks good picture", 729 means "picture is blurry", then which digit means "looks"?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

Given here,

After decoding the code,

Code for 'good' → 4

Code for 'picture' → 7

So, the code for 'looks' → 8

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

133

If ROSE is coded as 6821 and CHAIR is coded as 73456, then SEARCH will be coded as

  1. ((a))

    246176

  2. ((b))

    214673

  3. ((c))

    214763

  4. ((d))

    216473

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

214673

The logic followed here is,

ROSE
6821

And,

CHAIR
73456

Similarly,

SEARCH
214673

So, SEARCH be coded as 214673.

Hence, the correct answer "214673".

134

Select the figure that continues the given series:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is,

  • The arrow moves 90° anti-clockwise direction.
  • The dot moves 135° in a clockwise direction. So, the next figure is Option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

135

Select the figure that continues the given series:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is,

  • Square moves 1 position in clockwise direction
  • Triangle moves 1, 2, 3, 4 position in anti-clockwise direction.

So, the next figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

136

In how many ways can 5 toys be selected out of 12 toys if a particular toy is always included?

  1. ((a))

    990

  2. ((b))

    330

  3. ((c))

    792

  4. ((d))

    7920

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

330

Given:

Total Toys = 12

Toys to be selected = 5

⇒ A particular toy is always included.

Calculation:

So, Remaining toys = 11

Toys to be selected = 4

So, Total ways = 11C4

⇒ 11!/(4! × 7!)

⇒ (11 × 10 × 9 × 8)/(4 × 3 × 2 × 1)

⇒ 330

Total ways = 330

Hence, the correct answer is "330".

137

If X and Y rolls two dice and X starts the game, then the ratio of their chances of getting 9 first will be:

  1. ((a))

    9 ∶ 8

  2. ((b))

    8 ∶ 9

  3. ((c))

    5 ∶ 4

  4. ((d))

    6 ∶ 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9 ∶ 8

If X and Y rolls two dice and X starts the game,

The possible outcomes of getting sum as 9 for X = (4, 5) (5, 4) (3, 6) (6, 3)

So, the total outcomes are 4.

Similarly,

The possible outcomes of getting sum as 9 for Y = (4, 5) (5, 4) (3, 6) (6, 3)

So, total outcomes are 4. 

Now,

the probability of either X or Y rolling the sum as 9 = 4/36 = 1/9

The probability of X rolls 9 in first turn P(1)  = 1/9

The probability of X fails to rolls on first turn P and Y rolls 9 on first turn

= (1 - 1/9) × 1/9

= 8/9 × 1/9

= 8/ 81

If neither of X nor Y rolls 9 on their first roll, we will start this process again.

The ratio between these two probabilities shows the ongoing advantage that X has started the game in each turn.

Then, X has a probability of winning = 9/(8+9) = 9/17 

And Y has probability of winning = 8/(8+9) = 8/17

So, the required ratio will be,

X : Y = 9 : 8

Hence, the correct answer is "9 : 8"

138

There are 9 balls in a box; 2 is red, 3 is blue, and 4 is black. What is the probability that all the balls will be of different colours, if 3 balls are drawn at random?

  1. ((a))

    29\frac{2}{9}

  2. ((b))

    27\frac{2}{7}

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

27\frac{2}{7}

Shortcut Trick

Total balls = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 balls.

Ways to select one ball of each colour = 2C1 × 3C1 × 4C1 = 2 × 3 × 4 = 24.

Total ways to draw 3 balls from 9 = 9C3 = (9 × 8 × 7) ÷ (3 × 2 × 1) = 84.

Required Probability = 24 ÷ 84 = 2/7.

∴ The correct answer is 2/7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of Red balls = 2

Number of Blue balls = 3

Number of Black balls = 4

Total number of balls (n) = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9

Number of balls to be drawn (r) = 3

Formula Used:

Probability P(E) = n(E) ÷ n(S)

Combination Formula: nCr = n! ÷ [r! × (n − r)!]

Box with 9 Balls

2 Red

3 Blue

4 Black

Draw 3 balls (all different)

Calculations:

⇒ Total number of ways to sample 3 balls out of 9, n(S) = 9C3

⇒ n(S) = (9 × 8 × 7) ÷ (3 × 2 × 1) = 3 × 4 × 7 = 84

⇒ Favorable ways to pick 1 Red, 1 Blue, and 1 Black ball, n(E) = 2C1 × 3C1 × 4C1

⇒ n(E) = 2 × 3 × 4 = 24

⇒ Probability = n(E) ÷ n(S) = 24 ÷ 84

⇒ Dividing both numerator and denominator by 12, Probability = 2/7

∴ The correct answer is 2/7.

Additional Information

Classical Definition of Probability

The probability of an event E is the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in the sample space: P(E) = n(E)/n(S).

Combinations (Selection)

When the order of selection does not matter, the number of ways to choose r items from n is given by nCr = n! ÷ [r!(n−r)!].

Multiplication Principle

If one operation can be performed in m ways and a second operation in n ways, then both can be performed together in m × n ways.

Complementary Events

The probability of an event not occurring is P(E') = 1 − P(E). The sum of all probabilities in a sample space is always 1.

139

How many letters will not change their positions in the word FAINTS if the letters are arranged in alphabetical order?

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The positional value of alphabets is,

Now, the required arrangement will be as,

FAINTS
AFINST

So, It is clear that I and N will not change their positions.

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

140

A man puts 9 peanuts in each saucer but 2 saucers are left empty. He tries again and this time puts 6 peanuts in each saucer. Now he is left with 3 peanuts. How many saucers did he have?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    13

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

Let, Total saucers = x

According to question,

⇒ A man puts 9 peanuts in each saucer but 2 saucers are left empty.

So, Total Peanuts = 9(x - 2) → (1)

⇒ He tries again and this time puts 6 peanuts in each saucer. Now he is left with 3 peanuts.

So, Total peanuts = 6x + 3 → (2)

From (1) and (2),

⇒ 9(x - 2) = 6x + 3

⇒ 9x - 18 = 6x + 3

⇒ 9x - 6x = 3 + 18

⇒ 3x = 21

⇒ x = 7

So, Total saucers = 7

Hence, the correct answer is "7".

141

Which figure correctly completes the given series?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is,

The inside figure is the outer shape of the next figure. So, it is clear that that the outer shape is triangle and inside shape is pentagon.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

142

Which pair of figures have the same relationship as in the following figures?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is,

The second shape is double and inverted image of the first one.

Similarly,

So, Figure given in Option (3), follow same pattern. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

143

If the face of a clock is divided into 3 equal parts such that the sum of the digits of each part is equal, then that sum will be

  1. ((a))

    62

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

26

Given:

The numbers in the clock is = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

⇒ If the face of a clock is divided into 3 equal parts such that the sum of the digits of each part is equal, then the sum.

Calculation:

The sum of the series = n(n + 1)/2

⇒ {12 × (12 + 1)}/2

⇒ (12 × 13)/2

⇒ 6 × 13

⇒ 78

Divided into 3 equal parts = 78/3 

⇒ Divided into 3 equal parts = 26

So, The sum is 26.

Hence, the correct answer is "26".

144

In how many different ways the letters of the word "BANK" can be arranged?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24

Given:

The word "BANK" is given.

⇒ In how many different ways the letters of the word "BANK" can be arranged.

Calculation:

Number of letters in the word = 4

Total ways = 4!

Total ways = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1

Total ways = 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

145

If 'WORK' is coded as 4 - 12 - 9 - 16, then "WOMAN" will be coded as

  1. ((a))

    4 - 12 - 14 - 26 - 13

  2. ((b))

    4 - 26 - 14 - 13 - 12

  3. ((c))

    23 - 12 - 26 - 14 - 13

  4. ((d))

    23 - 15 - 13 - 1 - 14

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4 - 12 - 14 - 26 - 13

The positional value of alphabets is,

The logic followed here is,

⇒ Opposite positional value of the letters,

WORK
412916

Similarly,

WOMAN
412142613

So, the code of WOMAN is 4 - 12 - 14 - 26 - 13.

Hence, the correct answer is "4 - 12 - 14 - 26 - 13".

146

If DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 20, ACCIDENT = 16, then CAR will be-

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

6

The logic followed here is,

DRIVER = 6 × 2 = 12

⇒ Number of letters × 2

PEDESTRIAN = 10 × 2 = 20

ACCIDENT = 8 × 2 = 16

Similarly, 

CAR = 3 × 2 = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

147

Tickets for a museum for 2 adults and 2 children cost Rs. is 24. If the cost of ticket for a child is half of the cost of ticket for an adult, then the cost of ticket for an adult is

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 8

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 10

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 12

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 8

Given:

⇒ Tickets for a museum for 2 adults and 2 children cost Rs. is 24 i.e.

2 Adults + 2 Children = 24 ...(1)

⇒ If the cost of ticket for a child is half of the cost of ticket for an adult i.e,

cost of ticket for an adult = 2 × cost of ticket for a child

The cost of ticket for an adult is = ?

Calculation:

Let the cost of ticket for a child = x

So, the cost of ticket for an adult = 2x

From equation (1),

⇒ 2 × 2x + 2 × x = 24

⇒ 4x + 2x = 24

⇒ 6x = 24

⇒ x = 4

The cost of ticket for an adult is = 2x = 2 × 4

⇒ The cost of ticket for an adult is = Rs. 8

Hence, the correct answer is "Rs. 8".

148

The ascending order of 2\sqrt243\sqrt[3]4 and 64\sqrt[4]6 is:

  1. ((a))

    2\sqrt264\sqrt[4]643\sqrt[3]4

  2. ((b))

    64\sqrt[4]62\sqrt243\sqrt[3]4

  3. ((c))

    64\sqrt[4]643\sqrt[3]42\sqrt2

  4. ((d))

    2\sqrt243\sqrt[3]464\sqrt[4]6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2\sqrt264\sqrt[4]643\sqrt[3]4

The digits are 2\sqrt243\sqrt[3]4 and 64\sqrt[4]6 .

The LCM of 2, 3 and 4 is 12. Then,

2\sqrt2 = 2612\sqrt[12] {2^6} = 6412\sqrt[12] {64}

43\sqrt[3]4 = 4412\sqrt[12] {4^4} = 25612\sqrt[12] {256}

64\sqrt[4]6 = 6312\sqrt[12] {6^3} = 21612\sqrt[12] {216}

⇒ Ascending order = 2\sqrt264\sqrt[4]643\sqrt[3]4 .

Hence, the correct answer is "2\sqrt2 64\sqrt[4]643\sqrt[3]4".

149

If b=502\rm b=\frac{-50}{-2} and a = (-5)2, then which of the following is true

  1. ((a))

    a = b

  2. ((b))

    a = -b

  3. ((c))

    a=1b\rm a=\frac{1}{b}

  4. ((d))

    a=b\rm a = \sqrt b

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a = b

b=502\rm b=\frac{-50}{-2}

⇒ b = 25

a = (-5)2

⇒ a = 25

So, a = b is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "a = b".

150

Minimum multiple of 7 that leaves a remainder of 4 when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18:

  1. ((a))

    74

  2. ((b))

    94

  3. ((c))

    364

  4. ((d))

    184

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

364

Given:

Minimum multiple of 7 that leaves a remainder of 4 when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18.

Calculation:

LCM of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is = 90.

So, (90k + 4) will be divisible by 7.

Now, check by putting values in the place of K.

Put k = 1,

Number = 90 × 1 + 4 

⇒ Number = 94 

But 94 is not a multiple of 7.

Now, Put k = 2,

⇒ Number = 90 × 2 + 4 

⇒ Number = 184

But 184 is not a multiple of 7. 

Now, Put k = 3,

⇒ Number = 90 × 3 + 4 

⇒ Number = 274

But 274 is not a multiple of 7. 

Now, Put k = 4

⇒ Number = 90 × 4 + 4 

⇒ Number = 364

So, 364 is the multiple of 7. 

Hence, the correct answer is "364".

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