Official Paper

BSSC CGL Prelims Official Paper 2 (2011) (Previous Year Paper)

150 questions · 135 minutes · with answers · free

Full Test (150 questions)

1

The youngest country of the world is

  1. ((a))

    Republic of South Sudan

  2. ((b))

    Belarus

  3. ((c))

    Azerbaijan

  4. ((d))

    Bahrain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Republic of South Sudan

The correct answer is South Sudan.

Key Points

  • South Sudan is a landlocked country in East-Central Africa.
  • South Sudan became the 193rd member of the United Nations in 2011.
  • The UN General Assembly admitted the Republic of South Sudan as the 193rd member of the United Nations on 14 July.

Additional Information

CountryCapitalCurrency
BelarusMinskBelarusian ruble
AzerbaijanBakuAzerbaijan manat
BahrainManamaBahraini Dinar
UzbekistanTashkentUzbekistani Som
2

According to the census of 2011, the State having minimum % of literacy rate is ______. 

  1. ((a))

    U.P.

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • The lowest literacy rate according to the 2011 census is Bihar(73.7%).
  • The highest literacy rate according to the 2011 census is Kerala (93.9%) and Mizoram (91.6%)
2011 censusStates Literacy Rate
The highest Male literacy rateLakshadweep (96.1%), Kerala (96.0%), Mizoram (93.7%)
The highest Female literacy rateKerala (92.0%), Mizoram (89.4%)
The minimum literacy rateBihar (61.8%), Arunachal Pradesh (67%). Rajasthan (67.1%), Jharkhand
The lowest male literacy rateBihar (73.4%), Arunachal Pradesh (73.7%), Andhra Pradesh (75.6%)

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Additional Information

  • The first census in India took place during the reign of 'Lord Mayo'.
  • The Census Commissioner of the 2011 Census was C. Chandramouli.
  • Lakshadweep is India's smallest union territory in terms of population.
  • According to the 2011 census, India's population is 1210.10 million.
3

The capital of Emperor Ashoka, the Great, who ruled India for 40 years was then known as,

  1. ((a))

    Taxila

  2. ((b))

    Bodh Gaya

  3. ((c))

    Pataliputra

  4. ((d))

    Sarnath

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pataliputra

The correct answer is ​Pataliputra.

Key Points

  • Ashoka the Great belonged to the Maurya Dynasty.
  • The great ruler Ashoka ruled between 273 – 232 BC.
  • This dynasty was formed by Chandragupta Maurya, in the present-day Bihar, after Defeating the Nanda dynasty ruler-Dhanananda.

Extra facts:

  • There are 14 Major Rock edicts scattered throughout India
  • Each of these edicts represents part of Ashoka's policy of Dhamma
  • They were meant to teach Ashoka's subjects various philosophical and administrative virtues like tolerance, non-violence, and kingship.

Additional Information

  • Taxila:
  • Taxila is an archaeological site containing the ruins of the Gandharan city of Takshashila, an important Vedic/Hindu and Buddhist center of learning from the 6th century BCE to the 5th century CE.
  • In 1980, Taxila has declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • The renowned archaeologist Sir Alexander Cunningham rediscovered the ruins of Taxila in the mid-19th century.
  • It includes a Mesolithic cave and the archaeological remains of four early settlement sites, Buddhist monasteries, and a Muslim mosque and madrassa.
  • Sarnath was the capital city under the rule of Chandragupta.
  • The Mahabodhi temple in Bodh Gaya is where Gautam Buddha attained Enlightenment.
  • The temple has a Bodhi tree, under which he attained enlightenment.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • It is situated in Bodh Gaya, Bihar.
  • It is one of the holiest places of Buddhism.
4

The first qualified graduate engineer to have ruled a State as Chief Minister twice is from

  1. ((a))

    U.P.

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Jharkhand

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

  • The first qualified graduate engineer to have ruled a State as Chief Minister twice is from Bihar.

Key Points

  • Nitish Kumar who is the current Chief Minister of Bihar is the first qualified graduate engineer from Bihar to rule a state twice.
  • He is the 22nd Chief Minister of Bihar.
  • He is the leader of the political party Janata Dal (United).
  • He holds a degree in Electrical Engineering from Bihar College of Engineering.
  • He was the Chief Minister of Bihar 6 times in the past.
  • He also served as the Union Minister of Railways from March 2001–May 2004.
  • He was also the Union Minister of Agriculture from May 2000–July 2001.
5

Which of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?

  1. ((a))

    Vietnam

  2. ((b))

    Brunei

  3. ((c))

    Bangladesh

  4. ((d))

    Myanmar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bangladesh

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations(ASEAN) is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten countries in geographical region, which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration among its members and other countries in Asia.
  • It was created on 8 August 1967,
  • Given below is the list of all countries who are part of the ASEAN:
  1. Brunei
  2. Cambodia
  3. Indonesia
  4. Laos
  5. Malaysia
  6. Myanmar
  7. Philippines
  8. Singapore
  9. Thailand
  10. Vietnam​
6

Name the State from where the first President of India was elected.

  1. ((a))

    U.P.

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • Rajendra Prasad was the longest-serving President of India (1950 to 1962).
  • Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India on 24th January 1950
  • He was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement and played a prominent role as the President of the Indian National Congress. 
  • During his tenure, H.C. Mookerjee was the Vice-President.
  • ​He was a lawyer by profession, and also an influential leader during the Indian freedom struggle.
  • He served as the president of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the first constitution of the Republic of India, which lasted from 1948 to 1950.
  • He also became the first Minister of Food and Agriculture in 1946 in the Interim National Government.

Additional Information

President of India and their tenure:

Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan1962 - 1967
Zakir Hussain1967 - 1969
Varahagiri Venkatagiri (Acting)1969
Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah (Acting)1969
Varahagiri Venkatagiri1969 - 1974
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed1974 - 1977
B.D. Jatti (Acting)1977 - 1977
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy1977 - 1982
Giani Zail Singh1982 - 1987
R. Venkataraman1987 - 1992
Shankar Dayal Sharma1992 - 1997
K.R. Narayanan1997 - 2002
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam2002 - 2007
Pratibha Patil2007 - 2012
Pranab Mukherjee2012 - 2017
Ram Nath Kovind2017 - 2022
Droupadi Murmu2022 - The incumbent
7

The 10th Guru of Sikhs, Guru Gobind Singh was born in

  1. ((a))

    Amritsar

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Patna

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Patna

The correct answer is Patna.

Key Points 

  • Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and the last Guru of Sikhism.
  • Guru Gobind Singh played an important role in molding Sikhism to its present shape.
  • He founded Khalsa, the Sikh warrior community in 1699.
  • He also wrote important texts and introduced the five Ks of Sikhism.

Additional Information

  • Guru Nanak Dev was the First of the ten human form Gurus (divine messengers) of the Sikh faith.
  • Sikh Gurus:
  • ​Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539)
  • Guru Angad Dev (1539-1552)
  • Guru Amar Das Sahib (1552 -1574)
  • Guru Ram Das Sahib (1574- 1581)
  • Guru Arjan Dev (1581- 1606)
  • Guru Har Gobind Sahib (1606- 1644)
  • Guru Har Rai Sahib (1644-1661)
  • Guru Har Krishan Sahib (1661 - 1664)
  • Guru Tegh Bahadur Sahib (1665-1675)
  • Guru Gobind Singh Sahib (1675-1708)
8

Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the interim Government formed in 1946?

  1. ((a))

    Defence

  2. ((b))

    External Affairs and Commonwealth Relation

  3. ((c))

    Food and Agriculture

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Food and Agriculture

The correct answer is ​Food and Agriculture.

Key Points

  • An interim government is also known as the provisional/temporary government. 
  • It is formed to look after the internal and external affairs of the country until a new government is elected.
  • In 1946, elections of the constituent assembly were held following the proposals of the British Cabinet Mission dispatched by the British Prime Minister Clement Atlee.
  • The Interim Government of India was formed on 2 September 1946.
  • On September 26, 1946, Nehru declared the Government's plan to engage in diplomatic relations with all countries.
  • He also expressed support for the independence of colonised nations.

Additional Information

Other Portfolios:

MinistriesNames
External Affairs and Commonwealth RelationsJawahar Lal Nehru
Home Affairs,
Information and Broadcasting
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
DefenceSardar Baldev Singh
CommerceI.I. Chundrigar
Industries and SuppliesDr John Mathai
LabourJagjivan Ram
9

Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming?

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    Germany

  3. ((c))

    Japan

  4. ((d))

    New Zealand

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

New Zealand

The correct answer is ​New Zealand.

Key Points

  • New Zealand is the first to levy a carbon tax.
  • New Zealanders will pay an extra NZ$2.90 a week for electricity, petrol and gas.

Important Points

  • Carbon tax:
  • A carbon tax is a fee that a government imposes on any company that burns fossil fuels.
  • Carbon taxes discourage the use of fossil fuels.
  • The widest fossil fuels are coal, oil, gasoline, and natural gas.
  • These carbon-rich fuels are burned and they produce greenhouse gases.
  • These gases, such as carbon dioxide and methane, create global warming by heating the atmosphere.

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Additional Information

  • Germany:
  • It is a country in Western Europe.
  • Berlin is the capital of Germany.
  • Frank-Walter Steinmeier is the current President of Germany.
  • Olaf Scholz is the Chancellor of Germany since 2021
  • Australia:
  • It is the largest country in Oceania.
  • Canberra is the capital of Australia.
  • Anthony Albanese​ is the current PM of Australia.
  • The great Victoria Desert is located in Australia.
10

In which one of the following areas did the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research make significant progress in the year 2005?

  1. ((a))

    Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor.

  2. ((b))

    New applications of radioisotopes in metallurgy.

  3. ((c))

    A new technology for production of heavy water.

  4. ((d))

    A new technology for high level nuclear waste management.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor.

The correct answer is ​Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor.

Key Points

  • Kalpakkam power station is located on the coromandel coast 70 km far from Chennai, Tamil Nadu State of India.
  • Kalpakkam power station is known as Madras Atomic Nuclear  Power plants.
  • It was commissioned on 24th January 1984 with a capacity of 470 MW.
  • Kalpakkam nuclear power station is affiliated with the Indira Gandhi Centre for atomic research (IGCAR), and the Barc( Bhabha Atomic Research Centre).
  • It is the only power station in India with a Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) and Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR).
  • Image of All the Nuclear Plant in India:

 

11

Which one among the following country was the first to legalize euthanasia?

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    Switzerland

  3. ((c))

    Netherlands

  4. ((d))

    Canada

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Netherlands

The correct answer is ​Netherlands.

Key Points

  • The Netherlands became the first country in the world formally to legalise euthanasia,
  • when the lower house of parliament approved a bill by a two-thirds majority.
  • It would now allow terminally ill patients suffering from intolerable pain to legally ask their doctor for lethal drugs to end their lives.
  • Euthanasia is the practice of intentionally ending a life to relieve pain and suffering.

Additional Information

  • Australia:​
  • Victoria has become the first state in Australia to enact euthanasia laws.
  • It would now allow terminally ill patients suffering from intolerable pain to legally ask their doctor for lethal drugs to end their lives.
  • The state's historic laws were effective from 19 June 2019.
  • Queensland and Western Australia are now considering enacting the legislation
12

Which one among the following Commission first was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    University Grants Commission

  2. ((b))

    National Human Rights Commission

  3. ((c))

    Election Commission

  4. ((d))

    Central Vigilance Commission

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Election Commission

The correct answer is Election Commission.

Key Points

  • The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
  • Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India, and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
  • Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the State governments.
  • It must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states.

Additional Information 

  • Central Vigilance Commission:
  • The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
  • It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
  • Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
  • Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
  • Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
  • National Human Rights Commission:​​
  • It was established in 1993
  • It is a statutory body.
  • Headquarter: Delhi
  • The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and five members.
  • University Grants Commission:
  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally established in the year 1956.
  • It is a statutory organization that was set up by the Union Government to maintain the standards of university education.
  • Prof. Mamidala Jagadesh Kumar is the present Chairman of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  • It provides funds for the colleges and universities which are government-recognized.
  • It is headquartered in New Delhi and has 6 regional centers.
  • Functioning of UGC:​
  • Promoting and Coordinating University Education.
  • Framing regulation on minimum standards of education.
  • Disbursing grants to the Universities and colleges.
  • Giving affiliation to the colleges**.**
13

Where is Davos - the venue of annual meeting of World Economic Forum, located?

  1. ((a))

    France

  2. ((b))

    Germany

  3. ((c))

    Switzerland

  4. ((d))

    Luxembourg

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Switzerland

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points

  • The World Economic Forum came into being in the year 1971.
  • It was initially named as the European Management Forum and was renamed as the WEF in the year 1987.
  • The organization is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
  • It is an international organization working for the achievement of public-private partnership.
14

For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games?

  1. ((a))

    Swimming

  2. ((b))

    Boxing

  3. ((c))

    Long Jump

  4. ((d))

    High Jump

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Boxing

The correct answer is Boxing.

Key Points

  • The Val Barker Trophy is presented every four years to the most "outstanding boxer" at the Olympic Games.
  • In theory, the prize goes to the top "pound for pound" boxer at the Olympics.
  • The winner is selected by a committee of officials from the International Boxing Association (Amateur) (AIBA).
15

Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?

  1. ((a))

    Indus and Jhelum

  2. ((b))

    Jhelum and Chenab

  3. ((c))

    Chenab and Ravi

  4. ((d))

    Ravi and Beas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indus and Jhelum

The correct answer is Indus and Jhelum.

Key Points

  • Takshashila was an ancient city in what is now northwestern Pakistan.
  • It is an important archaeological site.
  • In 1980, it was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Additional Information

  • Jhelum is an important tributary of the Indus and it rises from Verinag, at foothills of the Pir Panjal region in Kashmir.
  • It flows through Srinagar and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge.
  • It joins Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
  • Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus,
  • It is formed by two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga.
  • Ravi is another important tributary of the Indus and originates near Rohtang Pass while Beas originates from Beas Kund near Rohtang Pass.
  • Satluj originates in Rakas lake near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4555 m in Tibet.
  • It is known as Langchen Khambab.
16

Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand Math?

  1. ((a))

    Bhil Uprising

  2. ((b))

    Rangpur and Dinapur Uprising

  3. ((c))

    Bishnupur and Birbhum Rebellion

  4. ((d))

    Sanyasi Rebellion

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sanyasi Rebellion

The correct answer is Sanyasi Rebellion.

Key PointsThe Sanyasi Rebellion began in 1763 and lasted till 1800.

  • It was a rebellion by displaced peasants and demobilized soldiers led by religious monks.
  • Vande Mataram is a part of Anandmath,.
  • Anandmath is a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay based on the Sanyasi Revolt.
  • The famine of 1770 and the harsh economic order of the British East India Company compelled a group of sanyas in the eastern part of India to fight against the British.
  • The Sanyasi rebellion plundered company factories and treasuries and fought with their forces.
  • The Sanyasi revolt was crushed under the leadership of Warren Hastings.

Additional InformationBhils movement:

  • The Bhils, an aboriginal tribe concentrated around Khandesh, revolted against their new masters, the East India Company, fearing agrarian hardships and the worst under the new regime.
  • One of their leaders was Sewaram.
  • The Bhils revolted in 1817-19, and again in 1825, 1836, and 1846.
17

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    Mahanadi River rises in Chhattisgarh.

  2. ((b))

    Godavari River rises in Maharashtra.

  3. ((c))

    Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh.

  4. ((d))

    Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh.

  • Cauvery River rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range in the Western Ghats.

Key Points

  • Cauveri River:
  • The river rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range, Kodagu, Karnataka.
  • It flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • Its tributaries are:
  • Left: Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, Arkavathy.
  • Right: Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, Amaravati, Moya.

Additional Information

  • Mahanadi River rises in Chhattisgarh.
  • Godavari River rises at Thriambak Hills, Western Ghats.
  • It is located in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
  • Tapi River rises near Multai, Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
18

Who among the following is a Hindustani Classical Singer?

  1. ((a))

    Geeta Chandran

  2. ((b))

    Leela Samson

  3. ((c))

    Gangubai Hangal

  4. ((d))

    Swapnasundari

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gangubai Hangal

The correct answer is Gangubai Hangal.

Key Points

  • Gangubai Hangal was a Hindustani classical singer of Khyal genre from Karnataka.
  • She received a number of awards which includes - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Hindustani Music -Vocal, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan,
  • Gangubai Hangal belonged to Kirana gharana.

Additional Information

  • Leela Samson is an Indian Bharat Natyam dancer, choreographer, and writer.
  • Geeta Chandran is the founder of Natya vriksha, and a Bharat Natyam dancer, and a vocalist.
19

Lectures from 'Colombo to Almorah' is based on the experiences of which one of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Veer Savarkar

  2. ((b))

    Annie Besant

  3. ((c))

    Ramkrishna Paramhansa

  4. ((d))

    Swami Vivekananda

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Swami Vivekananda

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

Key Points

  • Swami Vivekananda was born in 1863.
  • He founded the Ramakrishna Mission in May 1897.
  • He died in 1902 at Belur Math in present-day West Bengal.
  • He was influenced by Ramakrishna Paramahansa who was also his Guru.
  • Lectures from 'Colombo to Almorah' is based on the experiences of Swami Vivekananda.
  • After his memorable work in the West, Swami Vivekananda landed at Colombo on the afternoon of January 15, 1897, and was given a right royal reception by the Hindu community there.

Additional Information

  • Veer Savarkar:
  • Veer Savarkar was a Marathi author, politician, and philosopher.
  • He wrote many books like The HIndutava, Hindu Rastra Darshan.
  • The airport at Port Blair in Andaman and Nicobar's capital was renamed Veer Savarkar International Airport in 2002.
  • Savarkar was associated with the India House and founded student societies like the Abhinav Bharat Society and the Free India Society.
  • Annie Besant:​
  • She presided over the 1917 session in Calcutta and became the first woman president of INC.
  • Annie Besant was the second President of The Theosophical Society from 1907 to 1933.
  • Ramkrishna Paramhansa:
  • Ramkrishna Paramhansa was Swami Vivekananda's Guru.
  • Ramkrishna's mission was named after and inspired by the Indian saint Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded by Ramakrishna's chief disciple Swami Vivekananda on 1 May 1897.
20

Recently, the 83rd Foundation Day of CSIR was celebrated on September 26th. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research?

  1. ((a))

    President of India

  2. ((b))

    Vice President of India

  3. ((c))

    Prime Minister of India

  4. ((d))

    Union Minister of Science & Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prime Minister of India

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

In News

  • 83rd Foundation Day of CSIR celebrated on September 26th.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister of India is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
  • Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established in 1942.
  • It is an autonomous body and India’s largest research and development (R&D) organisation.
  • Director General: Dr. Nallathamby Kalaiselvi.
  • Founders: Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar, Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar.
  • It operates as an autonomous body registered under the Registration of Societies Act of 1860.

 

Additional Information

  • The Vice President of India is the ex officio President of Indian Council of World Affairs(ICWA).
  • Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA) was established in 1943 in New Delhi as work as a think tank.
  • President of India:
  • A candidate has to meet some qualifications to be elected as the president.
  • Those qualifications of the President are:
  • He should be an Indian Citizen.
  • His age should be a minimum of 35 years.
  • He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the central government, state government, or any public authority.
21

Where is the Central Water and Power Research Station located?

  1. ((a))

    Khadakwasla

  2. ((b))

    Sileru

  3. ((c))

    Jamnagar

  4. ((d))

    Srisailam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Khadakwasla

The correct answer is ​Khadakwasla.

Key Points

  • Central Water and Power Research Station is located in Khadakwasla Pune.
  • Central Water and Power Research Station is a part of Union of Water Resources,
  • It is the foremost organisation in the world in the field of hydraulics and allied research.
  • Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources.
  • It is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
22

During the revolt of 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a friend, captured and put to death by the British?

  1. ((a))

    Nana Sahib

  2. ((b))

    Kunwar Singh

  3. ((c))

    Khan Bahadur Khan

  4. ((d))

    Tantia Tope

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tantia Tope

The correct answer is Tantia Tope.

Key Points

  • Tantia Tope was betrayed by Mansingh, Raja of Narwar.
  • The Scindia of the Gwalior was not in favor of the revolt.
  • Mansingh was loyal to the Scindia at that time, and hence he betrayed Tantia Tope.
  • Tantia Tope's original name was Ramchandra Panduranga.
  • He was the leader of the revolt of 1857 from Kanpur along with Nana Sahib/Dhondu Pant and Azimullah Khan.
  • He was hanged to death on April 18, 1859.

Important Points

Leader of 1857 RevoltLocation
Mangal PandeyBarrakpore
Bahadur Shah ZafarDelhi
Zeenat MahalDelhi
Bakhtawar KhanDelhi
Tatya TopeKanpur
AzimullahKanpur
Maharaj Kunwar SinghArrah
Khan Bahadur KhanBareilly
Begum Hazrat MahalLucknow
Maulvi AhmadullahFaizabad

Additional Information

  • Kunwar Singh:​
  • Kunwar Singh is also known as Babu Veer Kunwar Singh.
  • He was a notable leader during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
  • He belonged to a Zamindar family of Jagdishpur, Bihar, India.
  • He was an expert in the art of guerilla warfare. His tactics left the British puzzled.
  • To honour his contribution to India's freedom movement, the Republic of India issued a commemorative stamp on 23 April 1966.
  • The Government of Bihar established the Veer Kunwar Singh University, Arrah in 1992.
  • Nana Sahib:
  • Nana Sahib, by name of Dhondu Pant, a prominent leader in the Indian Mutiny of 1857–58.
  • Adopted in 1827 by Baji Rao II, the last Maratha Peshwa, Nana Sahib was educated as a Hindu nobleman.
  • The refusal of his claim and threats of the sepoys led him to join the sepoy battalions at Kanpur in rebellion in June 1857.
  • Khan Bahadur Khan:
  • ​Khan Bahadur was the grandson of Hafiz Rahmat Khan.
  • He formed his own government in Bareilly in the 1857 Indian revolt against the British.
  • When the Indian Rebellion of 1857 failed, Bareilly, too, was subjugated by the British.
  • He escaped to Nepal where the Nepalese captured him and turned him over to the British
23

Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in the year 1929 wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British?

  1. ((a))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  3. ((c))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    Motilal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jawaharlal Nehru

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • The 1929 Lahore session under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru holds special significance as in this session " Poorna Swaraj" was declared as the goal of the Indian National Congress.
  • The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic ‘Purna Swaraj’ – (total independence) resolution – at its Lahore session.
  • A public declaration was made on 26 January 1930  a day which the Congress Party urged Indians to celebrate as ‘Independence Day.
  • The declaration was passed due to the breakdown of negotiations between leaders of the freedom movement and the British over the question of dominion status for India.
  • In 1929, Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India, made a vague announcement referred to as the "Irwin Declaration"  that India would be granted dominion status in the future.
  • Indian leaders welcomed this as they had been making the demand for dominion status for a long time.
  • They now wanted all further negotiations with the British to focus on the formalization of dominion status for India.

Additional Information 

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India.
  • He is the Prime Minister who has had the longest term in office.
  • He served as the prime minister of India from 15th August 1947 to 1964.
  • He is the architect of the Preamble of the Indian constitution.
  • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
  • He served as the first chairman of the planning commission of India.
  • He was honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
  • The name Panchayati raj was given by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • National herald is the newspaper started by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • He is the first prime minister to die in harness.
  • Shantivan is the cremation ground of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
  • ​Bal Gangadhar Tilak joined Indian National Congress in the year 1890.
  • He advocated for the Swaraj or self-rule.
  • He gave the slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it".
  • He launched two newspapers that are the Kesari in Marathi and the Maratha in English.
  • He also organized Ganpati Festival in 1893 AD and Shivaji Festival in 1895 AD.
  • He was a part of the trio of ‘Lal-Bal- Pal’ and the extremist group.
  • He authored books The Arctic Home of Vedas and Gita.
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Gokhale was the founder of the Servants of India Society.
  • In 1905, when Gokhale was elected president of the Indian National Congress.
  • Notable work of Gokhale: English weekly newspaper, The Hitavad.
24

Which one of the following Directive Principles of the State Policy is associated with the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. ((a))

    Equitable distribution of wealth

  2. ((b))

    Establishment of village Panchayats

  3. ((c))

    Participation of labour in management

  4. ((d))

    Peaceful settlement of international disputes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Establishment of village Panchayats

The correct answer is ​Establishment of village Panchayats.

Key Points

  • Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with the organization of village panchayat.
  • It states that
  • The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats.
  • It also endows them with such powers and authority that will enable them to function as units of self-government.
25

The Harappan Civilization belongs to

  1. ((a))

    Bronze Age

  2. ((b))

    Neolithic Age

  3. ((c))

    Paleolithic Age

  4. ((d))

    Iron Age

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bronze Age

The correct answer is ​Bronze Age.

Key Points

  • The Indus Valley Civilization (also known as the Harappan Civilization) was a Bronze Age society extending from modern northeast Afghanistan to Pakistan and northwest India.
  • The civilization developed in three phases:
  • Early Harappan Phase (3300 BCE-2600 BCE),
  • Mature Harappan Phase (2600 BCE-1900 BCE), and
  • Late Harappan Phase (1900 BCE-1300 BCE).
  • Inhabitants of the ancient Indus River valley developed new techniques in handicraft, including Carnelian products and seal carving, and metallurgy with copper, bronze, lead, and tin.
  • Sir John Hubert Marshall led an excavation campaign in 1921-1922, during which he discovered the ruins of the city of Harappa.

Additional Information

  • Neolithic Age:
  • ​The neolithic age or the new stone age began in 9000 BC.
  • The only known Neolithic settlement in the Indian subcontinent, attributed to 7000 BC, is in Mehrgarh, which is situated in Baluchistan, a province of Pakistan. The settlement lay on the edge of the Indus plains.
  • It is called one of the largest Neolithic settlements between the Indus and the Mediterranean.
  • Paleolithic Age:
  • The paleolithic people were grouped into small societies survived by hunting and gathering.
  • They practised fishing, hunting, or scavenging wild animals and gathering resources from plants.
  • The paleolithic age was characterized by the use of stone tools along with wooden or bone tools.
  • They were used as simple stone tools for chipping and chopping during hunting.
  • They were not aware of agriculture as well as home construction.
  • Iron Age​:
  • The Iron Age in North India coincides with the Painted Grey Ware culture.
  • The painted grey ware is dated from 1100 to 800 BCE.​
26

The line demarcating the boundary between China and India is

  1. ((a))

    Radcliffe Line

  2. ((b))

    McMohan Line

  3. ((c))

    Durand Line

  4. ((d))

    Stratford Line

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

McMohan Line

The correct answer is McMohan Line.

Key Points

  • The boundary line between India and China is called the McMohan Line.
  • This line was negotiated between Tibet and Great Britain at the end of the Shimla Conference (October 1913–July 1914). It was named after Sir Henry McMahon, chief British negotiator.
  • This demarcation line runs through Ladakh.

Additional Information

  • Radcliffe Line: It is the boundary line that separates India from Pakistan.
  • It was named after the chairman of the Border Commissions Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
  • Durand Line: It is the boundary line that separates Pakistan from Afghanistan.
  • It is named after Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat.
27

Which is the correct chronological sequence of the major events given below?

A. SLV-3 Launch

B. Formation of Bangladesh

C. Sikkim becomes 22nd State of the Indian Union

D. Pokhran-I Test

  1. ((a))

    B - D - C - A

  2. ((b))

    C - A - B - D

  3. ((c))

    B - A - C - D

  4. ((d))

    C - D - B - A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B - D - C - A

The correct answer is ​B - D - C - A.

Key Points

East Pakistan's independence as the state of Bangladesh on 26 March 1971.

Pokharan Test:

  • The nuclear test at Pokhran in 1974 was India's first nuclear test.
  • With the Smiling Buddha, India became the world's sixth nuclear power.
  • It was conducted under the leadership of PM Indira Gandhi.

Sikkim State Formation:

  • By Amendment Act 36, Sikkim became the 22nd State of the Indian Union.
  • Sikkim was an independent kingdom ruled by the Namgyal, a dynasty founded by Phuntsog Namgyal in 1642.
  • Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on 16 May 1975
  • Kazi Lhendup Dorji became the first Chief Minister of the state.

SLV:

  • Rohini (RS-1) was an experimental satellite launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO). 
  • It was launched by the Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 rocket (SLV-3) on July 18, 1980.
  • RS-1 was a 35 kg experimental spin-stabilized satellite.
  • Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
28

Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass?

  1. ((a))

    Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

  2. ((b))

    Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia

  3. ((c))

    Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia

  4. ((d))

    Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia

The correct answer is ​Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia.

Key Points

  • The Equator is a line that is notionally drawn on the earth which is equidistant from the poles and divides the earth into northern and southern hemispheres and constitutes the parallel of latitude 0 degrees.
  • The equator passes through 3 Continents, 3 Water bodies, and 13 Countries.
  • The three continents through which the equator passes are as follows:
  • Africa
  • South America
  • Asia.
  • The three Water bodies through which the equator passes are as follows:
  • Indian Ocean
  • Atlantic Ocean
  • The Pacific Ocean.

29

The Chinese pilgrim Huen Tsang visited India during the reign of

  1. ((a))

    Ashoka

  2. ((b))

    Chandragupta Maurya

  3. ((c))

    Harshavardhana

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta II

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harshavardhana

The correct answer is ​Harshavardhana.

Key Points

  • Harshavardhana ruled over a major part of north India from 606 to 647 AD
  • Harshavardhana was the son of Prabhakara Vardhana.​
  • Xuan Zang also lived in the court of Harshavardhana.
  • His court poet Banabhatta wrote his biography Harshacharita. This biography has given rich information about Harshavardhana.
  • His capital was at Kannauj.

Additional Information

  • Chandragupta II:​
  • Chandragupta II was also known by his title Vikramaditya was one of the most powerful emperors of the Gupta Empire in northern India.
  • Chandragupta continued the expansionist policy of his father Samudragupta.
  • Chandragupta II was the first Gupta king to issue silver coins.
  • Chinese traveler Fa Hien had visited India during the time of Chandragupta II.
  • Chandragupta II was known for his deep interest in art and culture and nine gems or Navratna adorned his court.
  • The various fields of these 9 gems prove that Chandragupta gave patronage to arts and literature.
  • Chandragupta Maurya:
  • Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire by defeating the Nandas.
  • Chandragupta Maurya ascended the throne at the age of 25.
  • Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire by defeating the Nandas.
  • He defeated the last Nanda ruler Dhanananda and occupied Pataliputra in 322 BC.
  • Ashoka:​
  • Ashoka was a Mauryan emperor.
  • Bindusara and Subhadrangi (or Dharma) were Ashoka's father and mother respectively.
  • He was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya dynasty.
30

The call for "Total Revolution" was given by

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Bhagat Singh

  3. ((c))

    Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

  4. ((d))

    Jayprakash Narayan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Jayprakash Narayan

The correct answer is Jayprakash Narayan.

Key Points

  • Jayprakash Narayan was born on 11 October 1902.
  • Jai Prakash Narayan is known as Loknayak.
  • Jai Prakash Narayan is also Known as the Hero of the Quit India Movement.
  • He is a freedom Fighter, socialist, and theorist.
  • He is the main leader of the Total Revolution Movement against Indira Gandhi.
  • On June 5, 1974, Jayprakash Narayan gave the slogan of Sampurn Kranti (total revolution) against Indira Gandhi.
  • Jai Prakash Narayan was Posthumously awarded Bharat Ratna in 1999.

Additional Information

  • Bhagat Singh:​
  • They were members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
  • In 1929, they threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly.
  • Batukeshwar Dutta along with Bhagat Singh was the main accused in Assembly Bomb Case.
  • On December 17, 1927, revolutionaries Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru shot and killed Police Assistant Superintendent John Saunders.
  • This case was called the Lahore Conspiracy Case.
  • They were supported in this act by their compatriots Sukhdev Thapar and Chandrashekhar Azad.
  • Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar:
  • Dr. Ambedkar is known as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.
  • He was bestowed with the country’s highest civilian honour, Bharat Ratna in 1990 posthumously.
  • He became the 1st Law and Justice Minister after independence.
31

Who is the writer of book "The Wings of Fire"?

  1. ((a))

    A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

  2. ((b))

    Arundhati Roy

  3. ((c))

    Jawahar Lal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    Rajiv Gandhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

The correct answer is A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

Key Points

  • Wings of Fire: An Autobiography of A P J Abdul Kalam, former President of India.
  • It was written by Dr. Abdul Kalam and Arun Tiwari.
  • Dr. Kalam examines his early life, effort, hardship, fortitude, luck, and the chance that eventually led him to lead Indian space research, nuclear and missile programs.
  • It was originally published in 1999.

Additional Information

  • The complete name of A P J Abdul Kalam is Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam.
  • He was an Indian aerospace scientist and politician.
  • He served as the 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007.
  • He was also known as the Missile Man of India for his work on the development of ballistic missile and launch vehicle technology.
  • He was widely referred to as the "People's President".
32

Bhakra Nangal Dam is situated on the banks of river

  1. ((a))

    Ravi

  2. ((b))

    Satluj

  3. ((c))

    Chenab

  4. ((d))

    Ganga

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Satluj

The correct answer is ​Satluj.

Key Points

  • The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is the second tallest dam in Asia and located on the border of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.
  • The Bhakra dam is built on the Sutlej River.
  • It is the highest straight gravity dam in India with a height of about 207.26 meters and it runs across 168.35 km.

Additional Information

  • The Ranjit Sagar Dam, which is locally known as the Thein Dam is constructed on the Ravi River.
  • The Salal dam is located on the Chenab River.
33

Rajtarangini written by Kalhan is

  1. ((a))

    an anthology of lyrics

  2. ((b))

    a history of Kashmir

  3. ((c))

    about Chandragupta's reign

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a history of Kashmir

The correct answer is a history of Kashmir.

Key Points

  • The Rajtarangani composed by Kalhana in the twelfth century is the main source of the History of Medieval Kashmir.
  • It was written in Sanskrit by Kashmiri historian Kalhana in the 12th century CE.
  • Rajtaringini comprises 7826 verses and is divided into eight books called Tarangas.
  • His father, Champaka, was a minister of King Harsha of Kashmir.
  • Rajtarangini gives Administration, Social, Political and Economic information about the kings of Kashmir.
  • Rajatarangini describes the misrule prevailing in Kashmir during the reign of King Kalash, son of King Ananta Deva of Kashmir.
34

Raja Rammohan Roy was the founder of

  1. ((a))

    Arya Samaj

  2. ((b))

    Bramho Samaj

  3. ((c))

    Ramakrishna Mission

  4. ((d))

    Prarthana Samaj

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bramho Samaj

The correct answer is Bramho Samaj.

Key Points

  • He is the founder of the Brahmo Samaj and the pioneer of the social reform movements.
  • He abolished the Sati system from India
  • Raja Rammohan Roy was the pioneer reformer and is known as the father of modern India.
  • In 1815, Raja Rammohan Roy established the Atmiya Sabha, a precursor in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Ramakrishna Mission:​
  • The society was founded near Calcutta by Vivekananda in 1897.
  • It worked to improve the social conditions of the Indian people.
  • Ramakrishna Mission and its sister organization, the Ramakrishna Math, constitute two different but related branches of the Ramakrishna Order.
  • Ramakrishna math was established at Belur, on the banks of the Ganges near Calcutta.
  • Arya Samaj:
  • Arya Samaj was founded by Dayananda Saraswati on 10th April 1875.
  • Arya Samaj is an Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas.
  • Members of the Arya Samaj believe in one God.
  • Arya Samaj rejects the worship of idols.
  • Prarthana Samaj:​
  • The Prarthana Samaj was a reform movement within Hinduism.
  • It was a religious and social reform movement in Bombay, India.
  • The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867.
  • It played a very important role in the Maharashtra renaissance.
  • The movement focused on religious and social reform in Maharashtra
35

Maginot line exists between which country?

  1. ((a))

    Namibia and Angola

  2. ((b))

    USA and Canada

  3. ((c))

    France and Germany

  4. ((d))

    Germany and Poland

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

France and Germany

The correct answer is ​France and Germany.

Key Points

  • Maginot Line is a Defensive line in France.
  • It was constructed in 1930.
  • The Maginot Line was an extremely well-developed chain of fortifications for defence against the German attack during the first world war.

Additional Information

S NoBoundary LineCountries
1Durand LinePakistan and Afghanistan
2Mac Mohan LineIndia and China
3Maginot LineFrance and Germany
438th Parallel LineNorth and South Korea
5Oder Neisse LineGermany and Poland
6Radcliffe LineIndia and Pakistan
36

Sutlej river originates from

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    China

  3. ((c))

    Pakistan

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

China

The correct answer is ​China,

Key Points

  • River Sutlej originates from Rakshastal Lake.
  • Rakshastal Lake is located near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash.
  • Sutlej River is also known as Shatadru (Ancient name).
  • River Sutlej is one of the major tributaries of Indus.
  • Only tributary of Indus which originates from Tibet.
  • Sutlej River enters India through Shipki La pass.
  • The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is constructed across the Sutlej river.
  • The Indira Gandhi canal is situated on the Sutlej river.
  • The West flowing peninsular river Narmada originates from the Amarkantak plateau.
  • The Himalayan river Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near Lake Manasarovar.
  • The river Jhelum rises from Verinag Spring at the foot of the Pir Panjal.

Additional Information

  • Source of some other important Rivers of India:​
  • Brahmaputra - Kailash Mountain
  • Indus River - Kailash Mountain
  • Jhelum - Sheshnag Lake (Jammu and Kashmir)
  • Chenab - Bara-la-cha Pass
  • Ganga - Gangotri
  • Narmada - Maikal Hills
  • Son - MaikalHills
37

Indian Constituent Assembly adopted the design of the Indian National Flag on:

  1. ((a))

    August 23, 1947

  2. ((b))

    September 13, 1947

  3. ((c))

    August 15, 1947

  4. ((d))

    July 22, 1947

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

July 22, 1947

The correct answer is ​July 22, 1947.

Key Points

  • The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on July 22, 1947.
  • The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape.
  • The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
  • As per the provisions of the Flag Code of India, 2002, there is no restriction on the display of the National Flag by members of general public, private organizations, educational institutions, etc., except to the extent provided in the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 and any other law enacted on the subject.
38

The Indian National Anthem was sung for the first time in

  1. ((a))

    1910

  2. ((b))

    1911

  3. ((c))

    1947

  4. ((d))

    1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1911

The correct answer is 1911.

Key Points

  • The approximate playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem is 52 seconds.
  • It was originally composed as Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore.
  • The first stanza of the Bharato Bhagyo Bidhata was adopted as the national anthem by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January 1950.
  • It was first publicly sung on 27 December 1911 at the Calcutta (now Kolkata) Session of the Indian National Congress.
  • Extra:-
  • Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7 May 1861
  • He was the first Indian and first non-European to win a Noble Prize in Literature in 1913 for his work “Gitanjali”.
  • Bangladesh’s National Anthem “Amar Sonal Bangla” is also taken from the works of Rabindranath Tagore.
  • He renounced his knighthood after the Jalianwala massacre.
39

The father of White Revolution in India is known as

  1. ((a))

    Dr. V. Kurien

  2. ((b))

    Mr. S.S. Rao

  3. ((c))

    Mr. S.K. Bhardwaj

  4. ((d))

    Mr. Morarji Desai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dr. V. Kurien

The correct answer is ​Dr. V. Kurien.

Key Points

  • Dr. Verghese Kurien is called the Father of White Revolution in India.
  • White Revolution was one of the biggest dairy development movements in India in 1970.
  • This program created a national milk grid, linking producers throughout India, reducing seasonal price fluctuations, and ensuring milk producers get a major share of the income generated from end consumers.
  • This program also made sure farmers get fair market prices on a regular basis. All this was achieved by the cooperative structure.
  • Milkman of India - Verghese Kurien.
  • Indian Dairy Association decided to observe the birthday of Verghese Kurien as National Milk Day.
  • National Milk Day - November 26.
  • 'Unfinished Dream' is a book written by Verghese Kurien.
  • National Dairy Development Board - Anand (Gujarat).
  • National Dairy Research Institute - Karnal (Haryana).
  • The largest producer of Milk and Milk Products in the World - India.

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40

National fruit of India is

  1. ((a))

    Apple

  2. ((b))

    Sugarcane

  3. ((c))

    Orange

  4. ((d))

    Mango

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mango

The correct answer is Mango.

Key Points

  • Mango is the National fruit of India.
  • Mangifera Indica is the scientific name of Mango.
  • It is a species of flowering plant in the sumac and poison ivy family Anacardiaceae.
  • It is a large fruit-tree, capable of growing to a height and crown width of about 30 metres (100 ft) and a trunk circumference of more than 3.7 metres (12 ft).
  • Mango is the national fruit of India, Pakistan and the Philippines and the national tree of Bangladesh.
41

Who is known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'?

  1. ((a))

    Norman Ernest Borlaug

  2. ((b))

    M.S. Swaminathan

  3. ((c))

    J.S. Thomson

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M.S. Swaminathan

The correct answer is M.S. Swaminathan.

Key Points

  • The Indian Green Revolution was the brainchild of M.S. Swaminathan.
  • The Indian Green Revolution was a part of the larger and global Green Revolution started by Norman Borlaug.
  • The green revolution is referred to as a period when Indian agriculture was converted into an industrial system due to the adoption of modern methods and technologies.

Additional Information

  • Father of Different Disciplines
Father ofName
AgronomyPeter Decrescenzi
Agricultural ChemistryJustus von Leibig
Extension educationJ.P.Leagnes
Green RevolutionDr N.E.Borlaug
Green revolution in IndiaDr.M.S.Swaminathan
Golden revolution in IndiaDr K.C.Chadha
Ornamental GardeningM.S.Randhawa
Hybrid riceYuan Long Ping
Soil ScienceDokuchalev
White revolutionDr Varghese Kurien
RevolutionPurpose
Golden RevolutionRelated with Overall Horticulture, Honey, Fruit Production
Blue RevolutionRelated with Fish Production
Grey RevolutionRelated with Fertilizers
White RevolutionRelated with Dairy, Milk Production
Yellow RevolutionRelated with Oil Seed Production
Pink RevolutionRelated with Meat and Poultry Production
Black Revolution
Related with Petroleum Production
42

Srikumar Banerjee is associated with which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Atomic Energy Commission

  2. ((b))

    Bhaba Atomic Research Centre

  3. ((c))

    Defence Research and Development Organisation

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Atomic Energy Commission

The correct answer is ​Atomic Energy Commission.

Key Points

  • Former Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission Dr. Srikumar Banerjee passed away in May 2021.
  • He had retired as the Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy in 2012.
  • Prior to the Atomic Energy Commission, he served as the Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
  • He had received the Padma Shri in 2005 and the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award in 1989.

 Important Points

  • The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was formed on 1st March 1948.
  • Homi Bhabha was the First Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission of India
  • He was known as the Father of Nuclear Physics in India.
  • Homi Bhabha was awarded the Padma Bhushan (1954), and Adams Prize (1942). He died on 24th January 1966.
  • As per the Resolution, the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Atomic Energy is ex-officio Chairman of the Commission.Under Atomic Energy Commission Five Research centers are included:​
  • The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu).
  • The Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore.
  • The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Mumbai.
  • The Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC), Kolkata.
  • The Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), Hyderabad.
43

Where is the National Institute of Smart Government located?

  1. ((a))

    Hyderabad

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Pune

  4. ((d))

    Chennai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hyderabad

The correct answer is ​Hyderabad.

Key Points

  • National Institute for Smart Government (NISG) is a not-for-profit company set up by the Government of India.
44

The Indian Tennis player who turned to Hollywood for film making is

  1. ((a))

    Leander Paes

  2. ((b))

    N. Night Shyamlan

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Amritraj

  4. ((d))

    Ashok Amritraj

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ashok Amritraj

The correct answer is ​Ashok Amritraj.

       

Key Points

  • Ashok Amritraj is an Indian-American Film producer and former professional tennis player.
  • Ashok Amritraj is the Chairman and CEO of the Hyde Park Entertainment Group and was formerly CEO of National Geographic Films.
  • An internationally renowned award-winning producer, Amritraj has made over 100 films during the span of his 35-year career.

Additional Information

  • Leander Paes:
  • Leander Paes is the professional Lawn Tennis Player.
  • He had won Arjuna Awards in 1990, Padma Shri in 2001, and Padma Bhushan in 2014.
  • He has won eight career Grand Slam doubles titles and ten career Grand Slam mixed doubles championships.
  • Vijay Amritraj:
  • ‘Vijay Amvitraj’ was a legendary Indian lawn tennis player.
  • He was honored with the Padma Shri award in 1983.
  • He founded "the Vijay Amritraj Foundation" in 2006.
  • He was appointed a United Nations ambassador for peace in 2001.
  • He reached his career-best ranking in singles (world No. 16) in 1980.
  • He was a part of the Indian Davis Cup team that reached the finals in 1974 and 1987.
  • He reached the quarterfinals at Wimbledon and US Open in 1973.
  • He played his first Grand Prix event in 1970.
45

'Love' is associated with which of the following game?

  1. ((a))

    Tennis

  2. ((b))

    Cricket

  3. ((c))

    Polo

  4. ((d))

    Billiards

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tennis

The correct answer is Tennis.

Key Points

  • The word Love (for zero score) comes from French word l'oeuf – which means egg which is in the shape of zero.
  • The word Tennis itself originated from the French word tenez - which means to receive. The word Deuce comes from French words à deux le jeu - which means both players have the game, anyone can win.
  • Unlike soccer, basketball, and baseball, which simply count points for every goal, basket, and run, tennis has a scoring system (and lexicon) all its own.
  • At the beginning of the game, when both sides have no score, the game is love-love because, in tennis, love means having a score of zero or nil.
  • Note-In badminton, 0 points are called “love”.

Additional Information

  • Cricket:
  • The International Cricket Council (ICC), the international governing body of Cricket founded in 1909 by representatives from England, Australia, and South Africa, was initially known as Imperial Cricket Conference.
  • It was renamed the International Cricket Council (ICC) in 1989.
  • This council organizes various world championships and tournaments.
  • ODI World Cup and T-20 World Cup are world-famous.
  • Headquarters of ICC - Dubai, UAE
  • Motto - Cricket for good
  • Chairman - Greg Barclay
46

Which country will host the Commonwealth Games 2014?

  1. ((a))

    Australia

  2. ((b))

    Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Scotland

  4. ((d))

    Canada

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Scotland

The correct answer is ​Scotland.

Key Points

  • The 2014 Commonwealth Games (officially known as the XX Commonwealth Games) will be held in Glasgow,Scotland.
  • Motto: Bring it On**.**

Additional Information

  • Australia hosted the Commonwealth Games the most (5) times.
  • The city was announced as the host by the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF).
  • India won 26 Gold medals and a total of 66 medals and finished 3rd for the tournament.
47

The Vrindavan Garden is located in

  1. ((a))

    Mathura

  2. ((b))

    Manali

  3. ((c))

    Mysore

  4. ((d))

    Mohali

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mysore

The correct answer is ​Mysore.

Key Points

  • Vrindavan Gardens is a sprawling and lovely garden.
  • The gardens are built across the Cauvery river.
  • It is laid adjacent to the famous Krishnaraja Sagar Dam.

Additional Information

PlaceFamous Historical Places
ManaliKullu Hills,Hadimba Temple
MohaliFateh Burj,Jainti Devi Temple
MathuraDwarkadhish Temple, Govardhan Hill
KanyakumariVivekananda Rock Memorial, Sarvani Shaktipeeth Shri Kanya Kumari Bhagavathy Amman Temple.
MaduraiMeenakshi Temple, Koodal Azhagar Temple.
ChennaiGovernment Museum, Valluvar Kottam, St. George Fort,  Arignar Anna Zoological Park.
MysuruMysore Palace, Vrindavan Garden, KRS Dam, Chamundeshwari temple.
48

Name the State which has the credit of sending maximum number of Union Railway Ministers.

  1. ((a))

    U.P.

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

  • Bihar has the credit of sending the maximum number of Union Railway Ministers.

Key Points

  • Railway ministers from Bihar state are Jagjivan Ram, Ram Subhag Singh, Lalit Narayan Mishra, Kedar Pandey, Nitish Kumar, and Lalu Prasad Yadav.
  • The current Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw is from the Odisha constituency.

Additional Information

  • Indian Railways:
  • Indian Railway Board was established in March 1905.
  • Railways have been divided into 18 zones.
  • Southern Coast Railway was the 18th zone.
  • The first Indian railway line in India was operated for public traffic in 1853 between Mumbai and Thane over a distance of 34 km.
  • Ashwini Vaishnaw is the current Minister of Railways.
  • The first electric train in India was ‘Deccan Queen’.
  • It was introduced in 1929 between Bombay and Poona.
49

Which of the following is a Tennis Player?

  1. ((a))

    Dan Carter

  2. ((b))

    Greg Jones

  3. ((c))

    Johnny Weissmuller

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Greg Jones

The correct answer is Greg Jones.

Key Points

  • Greg Jones is a former Australian professional tennis player.

Important Points

  • WIMBLEDON TENNIS CHAMPIONSHIP:
  • It is the oldest tennis championship that started in 1877.
  • It takes place at the All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in Wimbledon, London.
  • Out of the total four Grand Slams, it is the third Grand Slam event that is played each year on the professional tennis tour in England.
  • It is the only Grand Slam that is played on grass and also the only one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments in the world to be designed and arranged by a sports club rather than a sports federation.
  • The championship has the tradition of players playing in nearly all-white attire and the crowd eats strawberries and cream and Pimms during the match.

Additional Information

  • Dan Carter is a New Zealand rugby union player.
  • He is the highest point scorer in international test rugby,
  • Johnny Weissmuller was swimming's first superstar by winning five Olympic gold medals.
  • He won the 100m freestyle and the 4x200m relay team event at the 1924 Paris games.
  • He has also won gold in the 400m freestyle and a bronze medal in the water polo competition in Paris.
50

Mr. H. R. Bhardwaj is the Governor of

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Karnataka

The correct answer is ​Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Hansraj Bhardwaj was Governor of Karnataka from 2009 to 2014.
  • He also served as Governor of Kerala from 2012 until 2013.
  • He was a member of the Indian National Congress.

Additional Information

StateCapitalStatehood DayState Animal
KarnatakaBengaluru1 NovemberIndian Elephant
Andhra PradeshAmaravati1 NovemberBlackbuck
KeralaThiruvananthapuram1 NovemberIndian Elephant
51

Three mixtures containing milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 1, 2 : 1 and 3 : 1 are mixed in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. The ratio of milk to water in the resulting mixture is

  1. ((a))

    2 : 1

  2. ((b))

    3 : 1

  3. ((c))

    4 : 3

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of these

Given 

Three mixtures containing milk and water in the ratio =  5 : 1, 2 : 1 and 3 : 1

Calculation

                      M : W    Total 

1st container  5 : 1       6] ----(i) 

2nd container 2 : 1       3]-----(ii) 

3rd container  3 : 1       4]-----(iii) 

Eq. (i) × 2, Eq.(ii) × 4, Eq(iii) × 3

                       M : W    Total 

1st container  10 : 2     

2nd container 8 : 4      

3rd container  9 : 3

Mix with all in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3

1st container  10 : 2     

2nd container 16 : 8      

3rd container  27 : 9

Final ratio = 53 : 19

∴ The required answer is 53 : 19

52

Which of the following is the Bird Flu Virus also known as Avian Flu Virus?

  1. ((a))

    H5N1

  2. ((b))

    H1N5

  3. ((c))

    N5H1

  4. ((d))

    N1H5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H5N1

The correct answer is H5N1.

  • H5N1 is the Bird Flu Virus also known as Avian Flu Virus.

Key Points

  • Avian Flu:
  • Avian influenza is a disease caused by infection with avian/birds.
  • They are Type A viruses.
  • The first infection occurred in Hong Kong in the year 1997.
  • The symptoms of H5N1 influenza are:
  • Cough
  • Fever
  • Sore throat
  • Muscle aches
  • Headache
  • Shortness of breath
53

The SIM in the mobile SIM cards means

  1. ((a))

    Subscriber Information Marker

  2. ((b))

    Subscriber Identity Module

  3. ((c))

    Super Information Master

  4. ((d))

    Super Identity Marker

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Subscriber Identity Module

The correct answer is the Subscriber Identity Module.

  • The SIM in the mobile SIM cards means Subscriber Identity Module.

Key Points

  • SIM is an acronym for Subscriber Identity Module.
  • It is an integrated circuit that runs through a card operating system (COS).
  • It is used to identify and authenticate subscribers on mobile telephonic devices.
54

Which of the following is the brightest heavenly body in the evening/night sky?

  1. ((a))

    Jupiter

  2. ((b))

    Saturn

  3. ((c))

    Mars

  4. ((d))

    Venus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Venus

The correct answer is Venus.

  • Venus is the brightest heavenly body in the evening/night sky.

Key Points

  • Venus:
  • The planet is nearest to the Earth and is also the brightest planet.
  • Venus is known as the “Evening Star” as well as “Morning Star”
  • It is also known as the “Veiled Planet”.
  • Also known as the “Earth’s twin”.
  • It also rotates clockwise like Uranus.
  • Venus is the hottest planet (even hotter than Mercury).

Additional Information

  • Mars is known as the Red Planet.
  • Jupiter is also known as the Winter Planet.

Important Points

  • Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called terrestrial planets.
  • Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called gaseous planets.
55

The sea breeze blows during

  1. ((a))

    day from land to sea

  2. ((b))

    day from sea to land

  3. ((c))

    night from land to sea

  4. ((d))

    night from sea to land

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

day from sea to land

The correct answer is the day from sea to land.

  • During the day, the land is hotter than the sea, so the hot air from land rises up creating low pressure on the land, and to fill that gap the air from the sea moves towards the land resulting in the sea breeze.

Key Points

  • In the daytime, the land gets heated up and the ocean temperature remains relatively constant.
  • The sea breeze blows from the ocean towards the land.
  • The land breeze blows at night from the cool land toward the relatively warmer ocean.

56

A man lent ₹ 400 and ₹ 600 for 3 years at the same rate at simple interest and received only ₹ 90 as interest. What was the rate percent per annum?

  1. ((a))

    1%

  2. ((b))

    2%

  3. ((c))

    3%

  4. ((d))

    4%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3%

Given

Interest earned by man = Rs 90

Formula Used 

Simple Interest = Principal ×  Rate × Time/100 

Calculation 

Simple Interest = Principal ×  Rate × Time/100 

⇒ 90 = (400 × Rate × 3/100) + (600 × Rate × 3/100)

⇒ R = 3%

∴ The required answer is 3%

57

Oil costs ₹ 100 per litre. After adulterating it with another oil that costs ₹ 50 per litre, Ram sells the mixture at ₹ 96 per litre, making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 2

  2. ((b))

    1 : 3

  3. ((c))

    3 : 1

  4. ((d))

    3 : 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3 : 2

Given 

Oil Cost = Rs100 per litre 

After adulteration, oil cost = Rs50 per litre

Formula used 

Cost Price = Selling Price × 100/(100 + Profit%)

Calculation 

Cost Price of Mixture = 96 × 100/120 = Rs80 per liter

Required Ratio = 3 : 2 

∴ The required answer is 3 : 2

58

If a clock based on an oscillating pendulum is taken from Earth to Moon, it will

  1. ((a))

    become slow

  2. ((b))

    become fast

  3. ((c))

    give same time as on Earth

  4. ((d))

    stop working

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

become slow

The correct answer is become slow.

  • If a clock based on an oscillating pendulum is taken from Earth to Moon, it will become slow.

Key Points

  • The time period of a simple pendulum is given by:
  • T=2πlgT = {2π \sqrt{l\over g}}
  • Where, T=time period, l = length of the string.
  • When the pendulum is taken to the moon, the value of ‘g’ will decrease.
  • We can see that the time period is inversely proportional to the root of g, and hence time period will increase.
  • Hence, the pendulum takes more time to complete one vibration, it will lose time.
59

When light waves travel from air to glass, which variables are affected?

  1. ((a))

    Wavelength, frequency and velocity

  2. ((b))

    Velocity and frequency only

  3. ((c))

    Wavelength and frequency only

  4. ((d))

    Wavelength and velocity only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Wavelength and velocity only

The correct answer is Wavelength and velocity only.

  • When light waves travel from air to glass, wavelength and velocity get affected.

Key Points

  • When a light ray enters from rarer to denser (air to glass) medium wavelength and velocity will get affected.
  • As the ray bends in passing through different media which results in a decrease in wavelength.
  • The velocity also decreases.
  • But, there is no change in frequency when light enters from air to glass.

Important Points

  • When sound enters from one medium to another medium, its speed and wavelength change but frequency remains unchanged.
  • In a medium, the speed of sound is independent of frequency.
60

A body travels half the distance with velocity v1 and next half with velocity v2, then the average velocity of the body will be

  1. ((a))

    √(v1v2)

  2. ((b))

    (v1+v2) / 2

  3. ((c))

    v2 / v1

  4. ((d))

    2v1v2 / (v1+v2)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2v1v2 / (v1+v2)

Given 

A body travels half the distance = velocity v1 

Next half = velocity v2

Formula Used 

Distance = Time × Speed 

Calculation 

Average Velocity = (D1 + D2)/[D1/v1 + D2/v2]

Distance is equal D1 = D2

⇒ Average Velocity = 2D1/(D1/V1 + D1/V2)

⇒ Average Velocity = 2v1v2 / (v1+v2)

∴ The required answer is 2v1v2 / (v1+v2)

61

X-rays are used for the study of crystal structure because

  1. ((a))

    X-rays are completely absorbed by the crystal

  2. ((b))

    Wavelength of X-rays is of the same order of magnitude is the interatomic spacing in crystals.

  3. ((c))

    Wavelength of X-rays is of very small as comparison with the interatomic spacing in crystals.

  4. ((d))

    Crystals are completely transparent to X-rays.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Wavelength of X-rays is of the same order of magnitude is the interatomic spacing in crystals.

The correct answer is Wavelength of X-rays is of the same order of magnitude as the interatomic spacing in crystals.

  • X-rays are used for the study of crystal structure because the wavelength of X-rays is of the same order of magnitude as the interatomic spacing in crystals.

Key Points

  • The X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation.
  • They have energy that ranges from 200 eV to 1 MeV.
  • The wavelength of X-ray photons is the same as that of the order of the distance between atomic nuclei in solids.
  • This shows that the X-ray fits nicely between the atoms and fills the crystal and hence gives us information about where the cavities are.
  • With the help of cavities, we can determine the crystal structure and its rigidity.
62

The image formed on the retina of a human eye is

  1. ((a))

    virtual and inverted

  2. ((b))

    virtual and erect

  3. ((c))

    real and erect

  4. ((d))

    real and inverted

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

real and inverted

The correct answer is ​real and inverted.

Key Points

  • Eye helps us in visualizing objects and also helps us in light perception, color, and depth perception.
  • The human eye consists of the following parts:
  • ​Sclera, cornea, iris, pupil, lens, retina, and optic nerve.

Retina:

  • It is the light-sensitive surface of an eye on which the image is formed.
  • The image is formed on the retina by successive refractions at the cornea. the aqueous humor, the lens, and the vitreous humor.
  • The real and inverted image is formed on the retina.
  • It converts the image into electrical nerve impulses for visual perception by the brain.

EXPLANATION:

  • The image is formed on the retina by successive refractions at the cornea, the aqueous humor, the lens, and the vitreous humor.
  • The real and inverted image is formed on the retina. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

EXTRA POINTS:

Different parts of the eyes and their functions are shown in the table:

Name of the PartCharacteristicsFunction
CorneaThe transparent spherical membrane covering the front part of the eyeLight enters the eye through this membrane; Most of the refraction happens here
Eye Lenstransparent, biconvex structure in the eyeprovides finer adjustment required to focus objects on the retina
IrisThe dark muscular diaphragm between the cornea and the lenscontrols the size of the pupil
PupilAn opening between the iris through which light enters the eyeregulates the amount of light entering the eye
Ciliary MusclesAttached to the eye lens
hold the lens in position and modify the curvature of the lens.
Retinathe light-sensitive surface of an eye on which the image is formedgenerate signals which are transmitted to the brain through optical nerves
Optic NerveAttached to retinatransmits visual information from the retina to the brain
63

The purpose of adding gypsum to powdered clinker during the grinding process of cement is to

  1. ((a))

    improve the colour and texture of cement

  2. ((b))

    form a homogeneous mixture

  3. ((c))

    accelerate the rate of setting

  4. ((d))

    retard the rate of setting

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

retard the rate of setting

The correct answer is retard the rate of setting.

  • The purpose of adding gypsum to powdered clinker during the grinding process of cement is to retard the rate of setting.

Key Points

  • The chemical formula of gypsum is CaSO4. 2H2O.
  • It is added to powdered clinker during the grinding process of cement is to retard the rate of setting.
  • Cement is manufactured using calcium, silicon, aluminium, iron, and ingredients like limestone, shells, and chalk or marl combined with shale, clay, slate, blast furnace slag, silica sand, and iron ore.

Additional Information

  • Accelerators are used to accelerate the rate of setting.
64

The main constituent of natural gas is

  1. ((a))

    Methane

  2. ((b))

    Ethane

  3. ((c))

    Butane

  4. ((d))

    Hydrogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Methane

The correct answer is Methane.

  • The main constituent of natural gas is Methane.

Key Points

  • Natural Gas: It is a mixture of methane (80-90%), ethane, and propane.
  • Its calorific value is 50 kJ/g.
  • Methane (CH4):
  • It is also called marsh gas.
  • It is used in the preparation of carbon black, organic compounds, and as a gaseous fuel.
  • Its mixture with air is explosive.
  • It is also the reason for the explosion in coal mines.

Additional Information

  • Ethane:
  • Its formula is C2H6.
  • It is used in the preparation of ethanol, acetaldehyde and acetic acid.
  • Butane:
  • Its formula is C4H10.
  • It is used in LPG cylinders.

Important Points

  • Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG):
  • It is a mixture of butane (C4H10) iso-butane (C4H10) and propane (C3H8).
  • A strong foul-smelling substance ethyl mercaptan is also added to LPG to detect its leakage because LPG is a colourless and odourless gas.
65

Find the value of : 1121+111+14\frac{{1\frac{1}{2}}}{{\frac{{1 + \frac{1}{1}}}{{1 + \frac{1}{4}}}}}

  1. ((a))

    15/16

  2. ((b))

    2/3

  3. ((c))

    4/3

  4. ((d))

    3/4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15/16

Given 

1121+111+14\frac{{1\frac{1}{2}}}{{\frac{{1 + \frac{1}{1}}}{{1 + \frac{1}{4}}}}}

Calculation 

1121+111+14\frac{{1\frac{1}{2}}}{{\frac{{1 + \frac{1}{1}}}{{1 + \frac{1}{4}}}}}

lets solve each fraction one by one

1121\frac{1}{2} = 3/2, 1 + 1/1 = 2 and 1 + 1/4 = 5/4

Now see that the first 2nd and 3rd fractions will be evaluated together

So 2/(5/4) = 8/5

now, we can write 3/2 ÷ 8/5

⇒ (3/2)/(8/5) = 15/16

∴ The required answer is 15/16

66

The geometric mean of two numbers is 8 and their harmonic mean is 6.4, the numbers are

  1. ((a))

    2, 8

  2. ((b))

    4, 16

  3. ((c))

    6, 16

  4. ((d))

    8, 16

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4, 16

Given 

Geometric mean = 8 

Harmonic mean = 6.4 

Formula used 

Geometric mean = √ab 

Harmonic mean = 2ab/(a + b) 

Calculation 

Let the two number be x and y 

√xy = 8 

⇒ xy = 64      ---(i)

We also know, 2xy/(x + y) = 6.4 

⇒ x + y = 20        ---(ii) 

From (i) and (ii)

⇒ 64/y + y = 20 

⇒ y2 - 20y + 64 = 0 

⇒ y = 4, 16 

So, x = 16 and y = 4 

∴ The required answer is 4, 16

67

The marks obtained out of 50 by 100 students in a class test are given below:

MarksNo. of Students
155
208
2211
2420
2523
3018
3313
382
<br>

The average marks awarded to the students are-

  1. ((a))

    26.5

  2. ((b))

    25.77

  3. ((c))

    24.5

  4. ((d))

    20.7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25.77

Given:

MarksNo. of Students
155
208
2211
2420
2523
3018
3313
382
<br>

Formula used:

Average = sum of observation/number of observation

Calculation:

Total Marks obtained by all students 

⇒ 15 × 5 + 20 × 8 + 22 × 11 + 24 × 20 + 25 × 23 + 30 × 18 + 33 × 13 + 38 × 2 

⇒ 2577 

Average = Sum of Data/No. of Data 

Average marks of all student = 2577/100 = 25.77

∴ Average marks of all student = 25.77

68

What is the value of : 3+3+87+43\sqrt { - \sqrt 3 + \sqrt {3 + 8\sqrt {7 + 4\sqrt 3 } } }

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    2√3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

Given 

3+3+87+43\sqrt { - \sqrt 3 + \sqrt {3 + 8\sqrt {7 + 4\sqrt 3 } } }

Formula used 

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

Calculation 

3+3+87+43\sqrt { - \sqrt 3 + \sqrt {3 + 8\sqrt {7 + 4\sqrt 3 } } }

⇒ √[-√3 + (√[3 + 8√(2 + √3)2]

⇒ √[-√3 + (√[3 + 8(2 + √3)]

⇒ √[-√3 + √(8√3 + 19)]

⇒ √[-√3 + √(√3 + 4)2]

⇒ √4 = 2  

∴ The required answer is 2

69

Which formation of the following is essential for the plants to help them in the formation of chlorophyll?

  1. ((a))

    Calcium

  2. ((b))

    Magnesium

  3. ((c))

    Potassium

  4. ((d))

    Phosphorus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Magnesium

The correct answer is Magnesium.

Key Points

  • Magnesium is essential for the formation of chlorophyll. Without Magnesium, plants are not able to capture sunlight that is essential for photosynthesis.
  • Chlorophyll is any of several closely related green pigments found in cyanobacteria and the chloroplasts of algae and plants.

Magnesium is a part or structure of the chlorophyll molecule.

MagnesiumMicronutrient- The structural component of chlorophyll. - Required for the functioning of enzymes to produce carbohydrates, sugar, and fats. - Essential for germination of seeds and used for the formation of fruit and nut.
PotassiumMacronutrient- For the formation of sugar, carbohydrates, protein synthesis and division of the cell in roots. - Maintains cation-anion balance.
BoronMicronutrient- Essential for Cell wall synthesis and cell division. - For flowering, fruiting, cell division and the movement of hormones.
SulfurMicronutrient- It is a structural component of amino acids, enzymes, and vitamins. - It gives flavor to vegetables.
70

The temperature at which the readings of a Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometer are the same is

  1. ((a))

    212

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    -40

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

-40

The correct answer is -40.

  • The temperature at which the readings of a Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometer are the same is -40.

Key Points

  • Temperature:
  • Temperature is that physical cause that decides the direction of flow of heat from one body to another body.
  • Heat always flows from the body at a higher temperature to the body at a lower temperature.
  • The normal temperature of a human body is 37°C or 98.4 °F
  • The device which measures the temperature of a body is called a thermometer.
  • The inter-conversion relation for Celsius, Fahrenheit and Reumer scale is :
  • C5=F329=R4{C \over 5}= {F-32 \over 9}={R\over 4}
  • From the above equation, it can be derived that the readings of a Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometer are the same is -40.

Important Points

  • The triple point is the state at which all three states of matter co-exist.
  • The triple point of water is 273.16 K.
71

Determine the number of triangles in the figure shown:

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24

The given figure:

Triangles = 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, 12, (2,3), (5,6), (8,9), (11,12), (1,2,3), (4,5,6), (7,8,9), (10,11,12), (2,3,5,6), (5,6,8,9), (9,8,11,12), (2,3,11,12), (1,4,2,3,6,5), (4,7,5,6,8,9), (7,10, 8,9,11,12), (1,10,2,3,11,12)

Thus, the number of triangles in the above figure is 24.

Hence, there are "24" triangles in the given figure.

72

Which one of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?

  1. ((a))

    Ozone

  2. ((b))

    Heavy hydrogen

  3. ((c))

    Heavy water

  4. ((d))

    Hydrogen peroxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Heavy water

The correct answer is Heavy water.

Key Points

  • Heavy water is also known as deuterium oxide (D2O).
  • It is a form of water that contains a large amount of hydrogen isotope deuterium (heavy hydrogen).
  • Deuterium differs from hydrogen which is usually found in water.
  • Heavy water may be deuterium protium oxide (DHO) or deuterium oxide (D2O).
  • The presence of deuterium increase mass of water and gives different chemical and physical property compared to normal water.
  • Heavy water is used in certain types of nuclear reactors, where it acts as a neutron moderator to slow down neutrons.
  • It is also used in nuclear magnetic resonance, organic chemistry, Fourier transform spectroscopy, neutron moderator, neutrino detector, tritium production, and metabolic rate testing in physiology and biology.​

Important Points

  • Nuclear reactor:
  • A nuclear reactor is a device used to initiate and control a fission nuclear chain reaction or nuclear fusion reaction.
  • A nuclear reactor produces and controls the release of energy from splitting the atoms of certain elements.
  • Moderator is a medium that reduces the speed of fast neutrons in the nuclear reactor.
  • Light water is the most commonly used moderator in nuclear reactors to slow down the neutrons.
  • Solid graphite and heavy water are also used as moderators in some nuclear reactors.
73

The product of three integers l, m, n is -175. Which of the following must be negative?

  1. ((a))

    l - m - n

  2. ((b))

    l + m + n

  3. ((c))

    (l + m) / n

  4. ((d))

    (lm) / n

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(lm) / n

Given 

lmn = -175 

Calculation 

If lmn = -175  

then , lm = -175/n

So, lm/n = -175/n2

We seen clearly lm/n is always negative 

∴  The required answer is lm/n

Alternate Method Let's check each option:

  1. l - m - n = This could be negative or positive depending on the

values of l, m, and n.

  1. l + m + n = This will be positive as the sum of two positive

numbers

and one negative number will be positive.

  1. (l + m)/n = This could be negative or positive depending on the

values of l, m, and n.

  1. (lm)/n = This will be negative because the product of two positives

(lm) divided by a negative (n) is negative, or the product of two

negatives (lm) divided by a positive (n) is also negative.

Therefore, the answer is (lm)/n.

74

Pipe A usually fills a tank in 2 hours. On account of a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes pipe A 30 more minutes to fill the tank. How long will the leak take to empty a full tank if pipe A is shut?

  1. ((a))

    4 hours

  2. ((b))

    6 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 hours

Given 

Pipe A usually fills a tank = 2 hours.

Due to leakage tank fill in = 2.5 hours

Formula used 

Work = Time × Efficiency 

Calculation 

LCM of (2, 2.5) = 10 

Let the total work be 10 

A's efficiency = 10/2 = 5/hrs

(A + leakage)'s efficiency = 10/2.5 = 4/hrs

Leakage's efficiency = 1/hrs 

Leakage empty the tank in = 10/1 = 10 hours 

∴ The required answer is 10 hours

75

If nth term of the two series 3 + 10 + 17 + .... and 63 + 65 + 67 + .... are equal, then value of n is

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    13

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

13

Given 

First series = 3 + 10 + 17 + ....

Second series = 63 + 65 + 67 + .... 

Formula used 

an = a + (n - 1)d 

a = first term, an = last term and n = number of term

d = common difference

Calculation 

From 1st series, 3 + 10 + 17 + ....

Common difference(d) = 10 - 3 = 7 

From 2nd series, 63 + 65 + 67 + .... 

Common Difference(d) = 65 - 63 = 2 

According to the question 

3 + (n - 1)(7) = 63 + (n - 1)2 

⇒ 3 + 7n - 7 = 63 + 2n - 2

⇒ n = 13 

∴ The required answer is 13

76

What is the final product of photosynthesis?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrocarbon

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Water

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Oxygen

The correct answer is Oxygen.

Concept:

Photosynthesis: 

  • The leaves have a green pigment called chlorophyll.
  • It helps leaves to capture the energy of the sunlight.
  • This energy is used to synthesise (prepare) food from carbon dioxide and water. Since the synthesis of food occurs in the presence of sunlight, it is called photosynthesis.

In the presence of sunlight Carbon dioxide + water → Glucose + oxygen.

  • Some plants, green algae, and cyanobacteria can perform photosynthesis.
  • The process of photosynthesis is commonly written as

                   6CO2 + 6H2O + Sun-Light → C6H12O6 + 6O2

Key Points

  • Plants prepare their food by the process called photosynthesis.
  • During photosynthesis, plants trap solar energy or light energy with the help of chloroplast present in the green leaves and convert it into chemical energy
  • A pigment called chlorophyll is present in the chloroplasts which are required in trapping sunlight
  • Plants utilize carbon dioxide and water for the synthesis of carbohydrates during photosynthesis, oxygen is liberated as a side product
  • This gaseous exchange occurs through the stomata present on the leaf surface

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Important Points

  • The following events occur in plant cells during photosynthesis.
  • Absorption of light energy.
  • Conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
  • Storage of chemical energy in sugars.
77

The average temperature for Thursday, Friday, and Saturday in a given week was 38°C, whereas this average for Friday, Saturday, and Sunday for the same week was 39°C. If the temperature for Sunday was 40°C, what was the temperature in °C on Thursday?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    38

  4. ((d))

    39

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

37

Given 

The average temperature for Thursday, Friday and Saturday in a given week = 38°C,

The average for Friday, Saturday and Sunday for the same week = 39°C

Sunday was 40°C

Formula used 

Average = Sum of Data/No. of Data 

Calculation 

Sum of temperature Thursday , Friday and Saturday = 3 × 38 = 114° ---(i)

Sum of temperature Sunday , Friday and Saturday = 3 × 39 = 117° ---(ii)

From (i) and (ii) 

Sunday - Thursday = 3 

Sunday was 40°C

Thursday = 40° - 3

Thursday = 37o 

∴ The temperature on Thursday is 37°

78

Consider the following three pieces of information:

(i) Geeta and Sita are of same age.

(ii) Total age of Geeta, Reena and Sita is 88 years.

(iii) Reena' age is same as the sum of Geeta and Sita's age.

What is the age of Reena?

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

44

Given 

Age of Geeta = Age of Sita 

Total age of Geeta, Sita and Reena = 88 years 

Age of Reena = Age of Geeta + Age of Sita

Calculation 

Let the age Geeta and Sita be x

According to the question 

x + x + 2x = 88 

⇒ x = 22 

So Reena's age = 2 × 22 = 44 years 

∴ The age of Reena is 44 years

79

In a bag there are coins of 25 paisa, 10 paisa and 5 paisa in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If there are in all Rs. 30, then number of 5 paisa coins are

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

150

Calculation:

First, it's important to understand that 1 Rupee is equivalent to 100

paisa. So Rs. 30 is equivalent to 3000 paisa.

Let's denote the number of 25 paisa coins as x, 10 paisa coins as

2x, and 5 paisa coins as 3x. 

According to the question:

25x (for the 25 paisa coins) + 10(2x) (for the 10 paisa coins) + 5(3x

(for the 5 paisa coins) = 3000

⇒ 25x + 20x + 15x = 3000

⇒ 60x = 3000

So, x = 3000 / 60 = 50

Since x represents the number of 25 paisa coin = 3x = 3 × 50 = 150

So, the number of 5 paisa coins is 150. 

Alternate Method 

Given 

In a bag there are coins of 25 paisa, 10 paisa and 5 paisa in the ratio = 1 : 2 : 3

Total Rupees = Rs 30 

Formula used 

Total value = value per coin × no. of coins

Calculation 

                          25 p      10p      5p

Value per coin     25      :    10      :   5

No. of coin             1     :         2    :   3

Total value =       25     :     20        :  15

Let the ratio be x 

60x = 30 × 100 

⇒ x = 50

No. of coins of 5 paisa = 3 × 50 = 150

∴ The required answer is 150 coins

80

A clock gains 15 minutes per day. It is set right at 12 noon. At 4.00 A.M. it will show

  1. ((a))

    4.30 A.M.

  2. ((b))

    4.25 A.M.

  3. ((c))

    4.10 A.M.

  4. ((d))

    4.02 A.M.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4.10 A.M.

According to the question, the clock gains 15 minutes in 24 hours.

Calculation:

The time period from 12 noon to 4:00 A.M. is 16 hours.

The time the clock will gain in 16 hours = 15×1624{15 × 16 \over 24} minutes

Thus, the clock will gain 10 minutes in 16 hours.

Hence, the clock will show "4:10 A.M."

81

Four bells ring at intervals of 3, 8, 12, 15 minutes. They start ringing together. They will ring together again after

  1. ((a))

    1 hr.

  2. ((b))

    2 hrs.

  3. ((c))

    3 hrs.

  4. ((d))

    4 hrs.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2 hrs.

Given 

4 bells ring at intervals = 3, 8, 12, and 15 minutes respectively 

Concept Used 

In this type question, we need to find LCM of intervals 

Calculation 

LCM of 3, 8, 12 and 15 = 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 

⇒ 120 

They will ring together again after = 120 minutes = 2 hours 

∴ The required answer is 2 hours

82

The disease caused by Asbestos is

  1. ((a))

    Emphysema

  2. ((b))

    Paralysis

  3. ((c))

    Diarrhoea

  4. ((d))

    Dysentery

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Emphysema

The correct answer is Emphysema.

  • The disease caused by Asbestos is Emphysema.

Key Points

  • Emphysema is a disease that damages the walls of the alveoli of the lung.
  • Alveoli are small, thin-walled air sacs located in clusters at the end of the bronchial tubes deep inside the lungs.
  • Prolonged exposure to asbestos causes emphysema.
  • Asbestosis is the preliminary stage of emphysema.

Additional Information

  • Paralysis is caused due to reasons like strokes, blocked arteries in the neck or brain.
  • Diarrhoea is caused due to a virus.
  • Dysentery is most often caused by shigella bacteria (shigellosis) or an amoeba. Dysentery is often spread through contaminated food or water.
83

Insulin is produced by

  1. ((a))

    Pituitary Gland

  2. ((b))

    Gall bladder

  3. ((c))

    Intestines

  4. ((d))

    Pancreas

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pancreas

The correct answer is ​Pancreas.

Key Points

  • Insulin is an essential hormone produced by the Pancreas.
  • Its main role is to control glucose levels in our bodies.
  • The function of Insulin:
  • When the body digests food rich in carbohydrates, glucose is released into the bloodstream. This leads to an increase in blood glucose levels in the body.
  • Consequently, the pancreas sends signals that direct all the cells in the body to take in the glucose.
  • Most of this glucose is used up to provide energy to the cells.
  • The excess glucose in the bloodstream is converted into glycogen and absorbed by the liver and muscle cells to be used later.

Additional Information 

What are endocrine glands? Indicate their location in the outline diagram  of human body. from Science Control and Coordination Class 10 Haryana Board  - English Medium

 

GlandsHormonesFunctions
PituitaryGrowth hormone & 9 different hormonesRegulates growth and other glands
ThyroidThyroxinePlays an important role in regulating weight, body.
AdrenalAdrenalinePrepares the body for an emergency.
  • Gall bladder:
  • The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile from the liver.
  • The bile is then released into the first section of the small intestine.
  • Where it helps your body to break down and absorb fats from food.
  • Gallstones are supersaturated, pebble-like deposits of bile inside the gallbladder.
  • There are two types of gallstones -
  • cholesterol stones - which account for 80 percent of gallstones.
  • pigment stones - which are composed of bilirubin, a chemical found in bile, according to the National Institutes of Health
84

In the human body, the leg bones are

  1. ((a))

    Humerus and Femur

  2. ((b))

    Fibula and Tibia

  3. ((c))

    Fibula and Ulna

  4. ((d))

    Tibia and Radius

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fibula and Tibia

The correct answer is Fibula and Tibia.

  • In the human body, the leg bones are the fibula and tibia.

Key Points

  • Bones in Human Leg:
  • The femur is the bone in the thigh.
  • Patella is the knee cap.
  • The tibia is the shin bone i.e. the larger of the two-leg bones located below the knee cap.
  • The fibula is the smaller of the two-leg bones located below the knee cap.
  • Tarsals.
  • Metatarsals.
  • Phalanges.

Additional Information

  • The humerus bone is located in the upper arm, between the shoulder joint and elbow joint.
  • The ulna is one of two bones that make up the forearm.
  • The radius bone is found in the forearm.
85

The deficiency of Vitamin A causes

  1. ((a))

    falling of hair

  2. ((b))

    dysentery

  3. ((c))

    night blindness

  4. ((d))

    weakness

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

night blindness

The correct answer is ​night blindness.

Key Points

  • Night blindness is a type of vision impairment also known as nyctalopia.
  • People with night blindness experience poor vision at night or in dimly lit environments.
  • Although the term “night blindness” implies that you can't see at night, this isn't the case.

Additional Information

  • Deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) causes Scurvy.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin D (calciferol) causes Rickets.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin B7 (Biotin) causes hair fall.
86

There are 5 red shoes and 4 white shoes. If one draws, randomly, one shoe then what is the probability of getting white shoe?

  1. ((a))

    4/9

  2. ((b))

    5/9

  3. ((c))

    1/4

  4. ((d))

    1/5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4/9

Given 

Red shoes = 5 

White Shoes = 4 

Formula used 

Probability = Possible Outcomes/Total Outcomes 

Combination = nCr = n!/(n - r)!

Calculation 

Total Shoes  = 5 + 4 = 9 

According to the shoe

Probability of getting white shoe = 4C1/9C1

Possible Outcomes 4C1 = 4!/(4 - 1)!

⇒ 4 × 3!/3! = 4

Possible Outcomes 9C1 = 9!/(9 - 1)!

⇒ 9 × 8!/8! = 9

Probability of getting white shoe = 4/9

∴ Probability of getting white shoe is 4/9

87

If two typists can type two pages in five minutes, how many typists will it take to type twenty pages in ten minutes?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10

Given 

Two typists can type two pages = 5 minutes

Formula used 

Men1 × Time1/Work1 = Men2 × Time2/Work2

Calculation 

2 × 5/2 = Men2 × 10/20

⇒ Men2 = 10 

∴ 10 typists will it take to type twenty pages in ten minutes

88

The velocity of wind is related to

  1. ((a))

    revolution of the Earth

  2. ((b))

    rotation of the Earth

  3. ((c))

    pressure gradient

  4. ((d))

    temperature

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

pressure gradient

The correct answer is pressure gradient.

Key Points

  • The differences in atmospheric pressure generate a force.
  • The pressure gradient is a term to describe the difference in air pressure between two points in the atmosphere or on the surface of the Earth.
  • The pressure gradient is weak where the isobars are distant and strong where the isobars are close by to each other.
  • The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure.
  • It is vital to wind speed, because the greater the difference in pressure, the faster the wind flows (from the high to low pressure) to balance out the variation.
  • The pressure gradient, when combined with the Coriolis effect and friction, also influences wind direction.
89

Blood pressure in human body is controlled by

  1. ((a))

    Adrenal gland

  2. ((b))

    Thyroid gland

  3. ((c))

    Thymus gland

  4. ((d))

    Corpus luteum

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Adrenal gland

The correct answer is ​Adrenal gland

Key Points

  • The adrenal glands are small glands located on top of each kidney.
  • The adrenal cortex produces several hormones.
  • The most important are aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid), cortisol (a glucocorticoid), and androgens and estrogen (sex hormones).
  • These hormones help regulate metabolism, immune system, blood pressure, response to stress, and other essential functions.

Additional Information

  • Thyroid gland:​
  • It produces hormones that regulate the body's metabolic rate-controlling like heart, muscle, and digestive function, brain development and bone maintenance.
  • Its good functioning depends on a good supply of iodine from the diet.
  • Thymus gland:​
  • The thymus is a lobed organ situated near the heart and, beneath the breastbone.
  • It is quite large at the time of birth but it gradually gets reduced with age.
  • The thymus provides the micro-environment needed for the maturation & development of T-lymphocytes.
  • The T-lymphocyte cells originate in the bone marrow but migrate or move to the thymus for maturation & development, hence if the thymus gland is removed from the newborn baby T-lymphocyte cells will not form.
  • Corpus luteum:
  • ​The follicular cell is known as the corpus luteum.
  • The Corpus luteum is a follicular cell and gets filled with a yellow pigment called lutein.
90

Virus in computers relates to

  1. ((a))

    dust particles

  2. ((b))

    hardware

  3. ((c))

    programme

  4. ((d))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

programme

The correct answer is the programme.

  • Virus in computers relates to the programme.

Key Points

  • A computer virus is a malicious computer code designed to spread from device to device.
  • Viruses are self-copying threats and are usually designed to damage a device or steal data.
  • Computers can get infected by viruses in various ways like sharing music, files, or photos, visiting an infected website, opening spam email or an email attachment, etc.
  • Types of viruses are worms, trojans and ransomware.
  • Viruses can be removed by using antivirus software.
91

Non-metals are generally bad conductors of electricity. However, graphite is a good conductor of electricity because it

  1. ((a))

    has free electrons

  2. ((b))

    is an allotrope of carbon

  3. ((c))

    is brittle

  4. ((d))

    forms basic oxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

has free electrons

The correct answer has free electrons.

Key Points

  • Graphite:
  • Graphite is a form of carbon that has a hexagonal lattice structure.
  • It is made up of layers of carbon atoms that are bonded together in an sp2 hybridization.
  • The layers are held together by weak Van der Waals forces, which allow them to slide over each other easily.
  • Graphite is a good conductor of electricity and has a high melting point.
  • It is used in applications such as electrodes, lubricants, and pencils.
  • Graphite can conduct electricity because of the delocalized (free) electrons in its structure.
  • These arise because each carbon atom is only bonded to 3 other carbon atoms.

Additional Information

  • The property of an element that exists in more than one physical form is called allotropy and the forms are termed allotropes
  • Carbon shows allotropy due to catenation, which is the linking of atoms of the same element with one another to form long chains.
  • There are various allotropes of carbon that exist in nature including diamond, graphene, and fullerenes.
92

Ram is 8; his performance on a series of tasks is equivalent to that of the average 10-year-old. His intelligence quotient is

  1. ((a))

    120

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    110

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

125

The physical age of the child = 8 years

The mental age of the child = 10 years

Intelligence quotient = Mentalage×100Physicalage{Mental age × 100 \over Physical age}

⇒  10×1008{10 × 100 \over 8}

⇒ 125

Hence, the intelligence quotient of Ram is "125"

93

LCM of 27, 63, 72 is

  1. ((a))

    1542

  2. ((b))

    1532

  3. ((c))

    1522

  4. ((d))

    1512

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1512

Given 

Numbers = 27, 63 and 72 

Concept Used 

LCM = Least Common Multiple 

Calculation 

Prime Factorization

27 = 3 × 3 × 3 

63 = 3 × 3 × 7

72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3

LCM of 27, 63 and 72 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 7 = 1512

∴ The required answer is 1512

94

₹ 5,000 earned a simple interest of ₹ 300 in 2 years. The rate of interest is

  1. ((a))

    1%

  2. ((b))

    3%

  3. ((c))

    5%

  4. ((d))

    7%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3%

Given 

Principal = Rs 5000 

Interest earn = Rs 300 

Formula used 

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time/100 

Calculation 

300 = 5000 × Rate × 2/100 

⇒ Rate = 3%

∴ The rate of interest is 3%

95

Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam weight?

  1. ((a))

    150 kg

  2. ((b))

    175 kg

  3. ((c))

    200 kg

  4. ((d))

    125 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150 kg

Given 

Total weight of Ram and Shyam = 325 kg 

Ram's weight more than Shyam = 25 kg 

Calculation

Let the weight of  Ram and Shyam be x and y respectively 

According to the question 

x = 25 + y 

x + y = 325 

⇒ 25 + 2y = 325 

⇒  y = 150 kg

∴ The weight of Shyam is 150 kg

96

In 1997 a new oven cost ₹ 2,500. In 2000 the cost of that type of oven is ₹ 4,800. What is the percentage increase between 1997 and 2000?

  1. ((a))

    92

  2. ((b))

    152

  3. ((c))

    192

  4. ((d))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

92

Given

In 1997 a new oven cost = ₹ 2,500

In 2000 the cost of that type of oven is ₹ 4,800

Calculation 

Required Percentage = (2300/2500) × 100 = 92%

∴ The percentage increase between 1997 and 2000 is 92

97

The ages of Manu and Bharat are in the ratio of 6 : 5 and the sum of ages in 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 2

  2. ((b))

    9 : 7

  3. ((c))

    8 : 7

  4. ((d))

    11 : 10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 : 7

Given 

The ages of Manu and Bharat are in the ratio = 6 : 5 

Total age = 44  years 

Calculation 

Let the ratio be x 

6x + 5x = 44

⇒ x = 4 

Manu's age after 8 years = 6x + 8 =  32 

Bharat's age after 8 years = 5x + 8 = 28 

Required ratio = 8 : 7

∴ The required answer is 8 : 7

98

The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is

  1. ((a))

    Nitrogen

  2. ((b))

    Oxygen

  3. ((c))

    Carbon dioxide

  4. ((d))

    Hydrogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nitrogen

The correct answer is Nitrogen.

Key Points

  • Nitrogen  is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere.
  • It is an important component of amino acids, proteins, DNA, and RNA.
  • All living organisms depend on nitrogen for growth, metabolic processes, and reproduction. Animals then acquire nitrogen by eating plants and other animals.
  • Other bacteria in the soil will convert the ammonium and nitrate into di-nitrogen.
  • The composition of gases in Earth's atmosphere:
ConstituentPercentage by volume
Nitrogen78.08
Oxygen20.95
Argon0.93
Carbon dioxide0.036
Neon0.02
Helium0.005
Krypto0.001
Xenon0.00009
Hydrogen0.00005

 

  • Code to remember the composition of gases in Earth's atmosphere is NO AC(Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Carbon dioxide).

 

  • Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe.
99

40% of the people of a certain area suffer from Diabetes, 25% suffer from Epilepsy and 10% suffer from both. What % of the people do not suffer from either of the mentioned diseases?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    35%

  3. ((c))

    40%

  4. ((d))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45%

Given: 

Total people = 100%

People having Diabetes = 40%

People having Epilepsy = 25%

People having both = 10%

Formula used:

n(A or B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A & B)

Calculation: 

n(D or E) = n(D) + n(E) - n(D & E)

n(D or E) = 40% + 25% - 10%

⇒ 55%

Now the percentage of  people having either Diabetes or Epilepsy = 55%

People having neither Diabetes nor Epilepsy = Total - n(D or E) 

⇒ 100% - 55% = 45%

∴ The required % = 45%

100

The cost of an electronic organizer at 20% discount is ₹ 100. Find its actual price.

  1. ((a))

    ₹ 125

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 130

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 225

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 330

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹ 125

Given:

Discount% = 20%

Selling price = ₹ 100

Formula used:

Discount percent = [(Actual price - Selling price)/ Actual Price] × 100

Calculation:

20 = [(Actual Price - 100)/ Actual Price] × 100 

⇒ AP = 5 AP - 500 

∴ The Actual Price of the organizer = ₹ 125

Shortcut Trick

Discount percent is calculated on the Actual price. 

80% of Actual Price (AP) = 100% of Selling Price 

80% AP = 100 

100% AP = 100/80 × 100

∴ Actual price is ₹ 125

Direction: Five houses lettered A, B, C, D & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A, B, C, D & E. Each of the five houses has a coloured chimney. The roof and chimney of each house must be painted as follows :

(i) The roof must be painted green, red or yellow.

(ii) The chimney must be painted white, black or red.

(iii) No house may have the same colour chimney as the colour of the roof.

(iv) No house may use any of the same colours that every next house uses.

(v) House E has a green roof.

(vi) House B has a red roof and a black chimney.

101

If house C has a yellow roof, which one of the following must be true?

  1. ((a))

    House E has a white chimney.

  2. ((b))

    House E has a black chimney.

  3. ((c))

    House E has a red chimney.

  4. ((d))

    House D has a red chimney.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

House E has a white chimney.

The given information:

(i) The roof must be painted green, red or yellow.

(ii) The chimney must be painted white, black or red.

(iii) No house may have the same colour chimney as the colour of the roof.

(iv) No house may use any of the same colours that every next house uses.

(v) House E has a green roof.

(vi) House B has a red roof and a black chimney.

  1. House C has a yellow roof.
HouseRoofChimney
A
BRedBlack
CYellow
D
EGreen

 

Now, house C cannot have either a red or black chimney as these colours have been used in house B. Thus, house C has a white chimney.

Also, house C has a yellow roof and house E has a green roof which implies the roof of house D can neither be green nor yellow. Thus, the roof of house D is red.

Now, as house D has a red roof it cannot have a red chimney. It cannot have a white chimney either because house C has a white chimney which implies house D has a black chimney.

HouseRoofChimney
A
BRedBlack
CYellowWhite
DRedBlack
EGreen
<br>

Now, house E can neither have a red or black chimney as these colours have been used by house D. Implies, house E has a white chimney.

HouseRoofChimney
A
BRedBlack
CYellowWhite
DRedBlack
EGreenWhite
<br>

Hence, "house E has a white chimney".

102

If house C has a yellow roof which of the following is true?

  1. ((a))

    More two houses have black chimney.

  2. ((b))

    More than two houses have red roofs.

  3. ((c))

    At least two houses have white chimneys.

  4. ((d))

    At least two houses have green roofs.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

At least two houses have white chimneys.

The given information:

(i) The roof must be painted green, red or yellow.

(ii) The chimney must be painted white, black or red.

(iii) No house may have the same colour chimney as the colour of the roof.

(iv) No house may use any of the same colours that every next house uses.

(v) House E has a green roof.

(vi) House B has a red roof and a black chimney.

  1. House C has a yellow roof.
HouseRoofChimney
A
BRedBlack
CYellow
D
EGreen

 

Now, house C cannot have either a red or black chimney as these colours have been used in house B. Thus, house C has a white chimney.

Also, house C has a yellow roof and house E has a green roof which implies the roof of house D can neither be green nor yellow. Thus, the roof of house D is red.

Now, as house D has a red roof it cannot have a red chimney. It cannot have a white chimney either because house C has a white chimney which implies house D has a black chimney.

HouseRoofChimney
A
BRedBlack
CYellowWhite
DRedBlack
EGreen

 

Now, house E can neither have a red or black chimney as these colours have been used by house D. Implies, house E has a white chimney.

Also, as house B have used red and black colour, thus, house A has a white chimney.

HouseRoofChimney
AWhite
BRedBlack
CYellowWhite
DRedBlack
EGreenWhite
<br>

Thus, houses A, C, and E have white chimneys.

Let's check each option:

  1. More than two houses have black chimney. → False, as exactly two houses have black chimney.

2) More than two houses have red roofs. → False, as exactly two houses have a red chimney.

3) At least two houses have white chimneys. → True, as there are three houses that have a white chimney.

4) At least two houses have green roofs. → False, as we can not determine the number of green roofs chimney.

Hence, at least two houses have white chimneys is the correct answer.

Note: One option has been edited as in the original question three options were correct.

103

What is the next number in the series?

78  70  72  61  66  ____

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    52

  3. ((c))

    61

  4. ((d))

    62

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

52

The given number series:

78  70  72  61  66  ____

It is a combination of two separate series as shown below:

Series 1 = 78, 72, 66

Series 2 = 70, 61, ____

In the first series, the numbers are decreasing by 6. In the second series, the numbers are decreasing by 9.

Hence, "52" is the next number in the series.

Direction: The diagram shown below represents 3 segments of society overlapping each other viz :

Circle - Educated youth

Triangle - Unemployed youth

Square - Employed youth

Based on the above answer the following :

104

The number of educated employed youth is?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The given figure:

Circle - Educated youth

Triangle - Unemployed youth

Square - Employed youth

The educated youth is represented by the 'circle' and the employed youth is represented by the 'square'. Thus, the educated employed youth will be represented by the number that is common in the circle and the square i.e. '2'.

Hence, "2" represents the educated employed youth.

105

The number of youths who are neither educated nor employed is ?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5

The given figure:

Circle - Educated youth

Triangle - Unemployed youth

Square - Employed youth

The educated youth is represented by the 'circle' and the employed youth is represented by the 'square'. Thus, the number of youth who are neither educated nor employed is represented by the number that lies neither in the circle nor in the square i.e. '5'. '5' lies only in the triangle.

Hence, "5" represents the youth that is neither educated nor employed.

106

A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals, he found it to be 250. The zoo had pigeons, horses and donkeys and the ratio of donkey to horse is 1 ∶ 2. How many horses were there in the zoo?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    50

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

30

Given:

No of heads = 80 

No of legs = 250 

Ratio of the number of donkeys and horses = 1x ∶ 2x

Calculation: 

Let the number of horses & donkeys = a

According to the question: 

a × 4 + (80 - a) × 2 = 250 

4a + 160 - 2a = 250 

2a = 90 

a = 45

Now, number of donkeys and horses = 45 = x + 2x 

⇒ 3x = 45

⇒ x = 15

Number of horses = 15 × 2 

∴ Number of horses is 30

107

A train passes over a 400 metre long bridge. If the speed of the train is 30 m/s and the train takes 20 seconds to cross the bridge, the length of the train in metres is

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    600

  4. ((d))

    800

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

200

Given: 

Length of the bridge = 400 m 

Speed of the train = 30 m/s

Concept:

When a train passes over a bridge, it covers a distance equal to the length of itself and the bridge. 

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let the length of the train = y 

(y + 400) = 30 m/s × 20 sec

y = 600 - 400 = 200 m 

∴ The length of the train = 200 m

108

Find two words, one from each group, that are closest in meaning :

Group AGroup B
raisetop
floorelevate
stairsbasement
  1. ((a))

    raise and elevate

  2. ((b))

    raise and top

  3. ((c))

    floor and basement

  4. ((d))

    stairs and top

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

raise and elevate

Meaning of the words in group A:

S.No.WordsMeaning
1)RaiseTo lift something up or increase its level
2)FloorA flat surface on which we walk or the level of a building
3)StairsA series of steps that takes you from one level of a building to another.

 

Meanings of the words in group B:

S.No.WordsMeaning
1)TopThe highest part or point of something.
2)ElevateTo move something to a higher place.
3)BasementThe floor below the ground level of the building

 

Hence, "raise and elevate" are synonymous.

Direction: Five friends are sitting on a bench in the following order :

(a) P is sitting next to Q.

(b) S is sitting with T; T is on the extreme left-hand side of the bench. 

(c) P is on the right-hand side of Q and to the right side of T.

(d) Q and R are sitting together.

109

Who is sitting exactly in the middle?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R

1) S is sitting with T; T is on the extreme left-hand side of the bench.

As T is sitting on the extreme left of the bench, implies, S would be sitting to the immediate right of T. Also, it is not given in the question that which direction these people are facing, we can safely assume they are facing north. (One can imagine south as well if one likes.)

2) P is sitting next to Q.

3) P is on the right-hand side of Q and to the right side of T.

4) Q and R are sitting together.

P is sitting to the immediate right of Q and Q is sitting to the immediate right of R. This implies that R is sitting to the immediate right of S.

Hence, "R" is sitting exactly in the middle.

Note: Some changes have been made in the question as the given data was not correct.

110

Who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

R

1) S is sitting with T; T is on the extreme left-hand side of the bench.

As T is sitting on the extreme left of the bench, implies, S would be sitting to the immediate right of T. Also, it is not given in the question that which direction these people are facing, we can safely assume they are facing north. (One can imagine south as well if one likes.)

2) P is sitting next to Q.

3) P is on the right-hand side of Q and to the right side of T.

4) Q and R are sitting together.

P is sitting to the immediate right of Q and Q is sitting to the immediate right of R. This implies that R is sitting to the immediate right of S.

Hence, "R" is sitting to the immediate left of Q.

Note: Some changes have been made in the question as the given data was not correct.

111

Who is on the extreme right side of the bench?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

1) S is sitting with T; T is on the extreme left-hand side of the bench.

As T is sitting on the extreme left of the bench, implies, S would be sitting to the immediate right of T. Also, it is not given in the question that which direction these people are facing, we can safely assume they are facing north. (One can imagine south as well if one likes.)

2) P is sitting next to Q.

3) P is on the right-hand side of Q and to the right side of T.

4) Q and R are sitting together.

P is sitting to the immediate right of Q and Q is sitting to the immediate right of R. This implies that R is sitting to the immediate right of S.

Hence, "P" is sitting on the extreme right of the bench.

Note: Some changes have been made in the question as the given data was not correct.

112

Which number should replace the question mark?

17855
13754
61263
1064?
  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

The logic is:

(Column 1 + Column 2) = (Column 3 × Column 4)

Row 1: 17 + 8 = 25 and 5 × 5 = 25

Row 2: 13 + 7 = 20 and 5 × 4 = 20

Row 3: 6 + 12 = 18 and 6 × 3 = 18

Similarly,

10 + 6 = 16

Let the missing number be x

As per logic, 4 × x = 16

⇒ x = 16 ÷ 4

⇒ x = 4

Hence, ‘4’ is the correct answer.

113

At the end of a banquet 10 people shake hands with each other. How many handshakes will there be in total?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    90

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45

Formula used:

Number of handshakes at a banquet with n people = n × (n - 1)/2

Calculation: 

No of handshakes by 10 people = 10 × (10 - 1)/2 = 45

∴ Total handshakes = 45

114

The day before the day before yesterday is three days after Saturday. What day is it today?

  1. ((a))

    Monday

  2. ((b))

    Friday

  3. ((c))

    Wednesday

  4. ((d))

    Thursday

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Friday

Three days after Saturday = Saturday + 3 = Tuesday

Day before the day before yesterdayDay before yesterdayYesterdayToday
TuesdayWednesdayThursdayFriday
<br>

Clearly, Today is Friday.

Hence, 'Friday' is the correct answer.

115

When the shape below is folded at the dotted lines, which shape does it produce?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

When the shape below is folded at the dotted lines, the shape produced is shown below:

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

116

A man walks a certain distance at a certain speed. Had he walked 1/2 km/hr. faster, he would have taken one hour less. But if he had walked 1 km/hr. slower, he would have taken 3 hours longer. The distance travelled by the man is

  1. ((a))

    36 km

  2. ((b))

    30 km

  3. ((c))

    10 km

  4. ((d))

    6 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36 km

Formula used: 

Distance = Speed × Time 

Calculation: 

Let the time be = T hours

Let the speed be = S km/h

According to the question: 

S × T =  (S + 1/2) × (T - 1)      ----(1)

⇒ 2 ST = (2S + 1)(T - 1)

⇒ 2ST = 2ST - 2S + T - 1

⇒ 2S - T = - 1

⇒ T - 2S = 1      ----(2)

According to the question: 

S × T = (S - 1) × (T + 3)      ----(3)

By solving the equation, we'll get

  • T + 3S = 3      ----(4)

By solving equation (2) and (3) we'll get

S = 4 km/h, T = 9 hours

The required distance = 4 km/h × 9 hours = 36 km

∴ Distance is 36 km

117

There are two candles of equal length and of different thickness. The thicker one when lasts in 6 hours whereas the thinner one lasts 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed, he saw that the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles?

  1. ((a))

    1 hour

  2. ((b))

    2 hours

  3. ((c))

    3 hours

  4. ((d))

    4 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3 hours

Given: 

Lasting time of thicker candle = 6 hours 

Lasting time of thinner candle = 4 hours 

Formula used 

Distance = Speed × Time 

According to the question: 

Let the length of the candles be 1 unit

Let the required time = t 

[1 - (t × 1/6)]/[1 - (t × 1/4)] = 2/1

⇒ 1 - t/6 = 2 - t/2

⇒ t/2 - t/6 = 1

⇒ (3t - t)/6 = 1

⇒ t = 3 

∴ Ramesh lit the candles 3 hours ago.

118

Hari was both 5th highest and 5th lowest in a race. How many people participated?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9

Hari was both 5th highest and 5th lowest in a race. 

It means Hari came 5th from both top and bottom, which simply means Hari is exactly in the middle position.

Therefore, number of people = 5 + 5 - 1

= 10 - 1

= 9

Hence, ‘9’ is the correct answer.

119

In a code language CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPVVLEZ. How can AMERICA be written in that code?

  1. ((a))

    POGYLFX

  2. ((b))

    OPGYLPX

  3. ((c))

    POGLXPY

  4. ((d))

    POGYLXP

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

POGYLXP

The logic is:

CAMEL
XPOGT

 

RABBITS
YPVVLEZ
<br>

Similarly,

AMERICA
POGYLXP
<br>

Hence, ‘POGYLXP’ is the correct answer.

120

A & B are two players. They select one number from 1 to 25. If both of them select the same number they will win. What is the probability of not winning in a single trial?

  1. ((a))

    1/25

  2. ((b))

    11/2

  3. ((c))

    1/2

  4. ((d))

    24/25

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24/25

Given: 

Total number of cases when both players select a number each = 25 × 25 = 625

Total number of favorable cases = 25

Formula used: 

Probability = No of favorable cases/ Total no of possible cases 

Calculation:

Probability of winning = 25/ 625 = 1/25

Probability of not winning = 1 - 1/25 = 24/25

∴ The required answer = 24/25

121

Which of the picture follows logically the following three pictures?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Given figure:

The three pictures given above have one thing in common, T and the black shaded portion in all the three pictures are in the same column. 

Also, T is rotating clockwise diagonally.

The same pattern is followed in option 2.

Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.

122

How many triangles are in this diagram?

  1. ((a))

    5 - 7

  2. ((b))

    8 - 10

  3. ((c))

    11 - 14

  4. ((d))

    15 - 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

15 - 17

The number of triangles in the figure is shown below: 

There are 16 triangles in the figure. The number 16 lies between 15 - 17.

Hence, ‘15 - 17’ is the correct answer.

123

A train travels at an average speed of 50 kms per hour for two and half hours and then travels at a speed of 70 kms per hour for one and half hours. How far did the train travel in the entire 4 hours?

  1. ((a))

    200 kms

  2. ((b))

    120 kms

  3. ((c))

    230 kms

  4. ((d))

    150 kms

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

230 kms

Given: 

No of hours traveled by train = 4 

Formula used: 

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Total distance = 50 km/h × 2.5 hours + 70 km/h × 1.5 hours

⇒ 230 km

124

If 2x + y = 5, then 4x + 2y is equal to

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10

Given: 

2x + y = 5

Calculation: 

By multiplying the given equation by 2. 

We get, 2(2x + y) = 10

⇒ 4x + 2y = 10

∴ The correct answer = 10

125

If the average of 6 numbers is 4.5, the sum of the numbers divided by 32 is

  1. ((a))

    4.5

  2. ((b))

    3.5

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

Formula used: 

Average = Sum of all numbers/ Total count of numbers

Calculation: 

4.5 = Sum of all numbers/6 

Sum of all numbers = 27

Sum of the numbers divided by 32 = 27/9 

⇒ 3

126

A man starts walking in the morning facing the Sun. After sometime, he turned to his left. Later he again turned to his left. The direction in which the man is moving now is

  1. ((a))

    West

  2. ((b))

    South

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

West

According to given conditions,

Clearly, the man is now facing West.

Hence, ‘West’ is the correct answer.

127

Find the number that comes next in the following sequence of numbers :

3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ____

  1. ((a))

    720

  2. ((b))

    1080

  3. ((c))

    1600

  4. ((d))

    2160

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2160

The logic is:

3 × 2 = 6

6 × 3 = 18

18 × 4 = 72

72 × 5 = 360

360 × 6 = 2160

Hence, ‘2160’ is the correct answer.

128

Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

  1. ((a))

    9.00 A.M.

  2. ((b))

    10.00 A.M.

  3. ((c))

    10.30 A.M.

  4. ((d))

    11.00 A.M.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10.00 A.M.

Given: 

Distance between two stations = 110 km 

Speed of the first train = 20 km/h

Speed of the second train = 25 km/h

Formulas used: 

Relative Speed (opposite direction) = Speed1 + Speed2

Time = Distance/Speed 

Calculation: 

Relative speed = (20 + 25) km/h = 45 km/h

Distance travelled by first train in 1 hour ( 7 a.m. - 8 a.m.) = 20 km 

Remaining distance = (110 - 20) = 90 km

Meeting time = 90km/45 km/h 

⇒ 2 hours 

∴ Both trains will meet 2 hours after 8 a.m. that is 10 a.m.

129

What number should come next in the sequence?

3  6  12  24  48

  1. ((a))

    66

  2. ((b))

    76

  3. ((c))

    86

  4. ((d))

    96

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

96

The logic is:

3 × 2 = 6

6 × 2 = 12

12 × 2 = 24

24 × 2 = 48

48 × 2 = 96

Hence, ‘96’ is the correct answer.

130

A tree increases annually by one eighth of its height. What will be its height after 2 years, if it stands today 64 cm high?

  1. ((a))

    72 cm

  2. ((b))

    74 cm

  3. ((c))

    75 cm

  4. ((d))

    81 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

81 cm

Given: 

Height of the tree = 64 cm

Annual growth = 1/8 or 12.5%

Calculation: 

Height of the tree after 2 years = 64 × 9/8 × 9/8 

⇒ 81 cm

∴ Height after 2 years is 81 cm

131

A and B can do a job in 12 days and B and C can do it in 16 days. A and B started working, without C. A worked for 5 days and quit. B worked for 7 days and quit. C worked for a total of 13 days and finished the work. In how many days can C do the work alone?

  1. ((a))

    16 days

  2. ((b))

    24 days

  3. ((c))

    30 days

  4. ((d))

    36 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24 days

Given: 

The number of days taken by A, B & C is as follows.

(A + B) = 12 days 

(B + C) = 16 days 

Calculation: 

Let the total work be the LCM of the number of days taken by three of them i.e. 48 units

According to the question: 

A and B worked together for 5 days and did (4 × 5) 20 units of work. 

B and C worked together for 2 days and did (2 × 3) 6 units of work 

C finished the remaining work of (48 - 20 - 6) 22 units in days (13 - 2) 11 days. 

Hence, Efficiency of C = 22 units / 11 days = 2 units 

So, No of days taken by C to do the whole job alone = 48/ 2 

∴ 24 days

132

Two trains travel in opposite directions one at 36 km/hr and the other at 45 km/hr. A man sitting in the slower train passes the faster train in 8 seconds. The length of the faster train is

  1. ((a))

    80 m

  2. ((b))

    120 m

  3. ((c))

    150 m

  4. ((d))

    180 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

180 m

Formulas used: 

Relative speed (opposite direction) = Speed1 + Speed2

Distance = Time × Speed 

Calculation: 

Distance (length of the faster train) = (36 km/h + 45 km/h) × 5/18 × 8 seconds 

⇒ Length of the faster train = 180 m

133

The difference between two numbers is 1365. When larger number is divided by the smaller one, the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller number is

  1. ((a))

    240

  2. ((b))

    270

  3. ((c))

    295

  4. ((d))

    360

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

270

Concept:

Divisor × Quotient + Remainder = Dividend

Calculation: 

Let the smaller number = a 

Let the bigger number = 1365 + a 

Accordingly 

a × 6 + 15 = 1365 + a 

5a = 1350 

a = 270

∴ The smaller number is 270

134

Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 and 18 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how may times do they toll together?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11

Concept: 

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

Calculation:

LCM (3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18) = 180 

So, the bells will toll together after every 180 seconds (3 minutes)

In 30 minutes, number of tolling together = 30/3 + 1 = 11

∴ In 30 minutes, bells toll together 11 times.

Team P, Q, R, S and T are contesting for a cricket trophy. Every team plays one match with every other team. The following table gives the number of matches won, lost and drawn at a particular moment during the midst of the tournament.

TeamWonLostDrawn
P211
Q011
R201
S012
T011
<br>

Following information is provided :

I. Q is yet to play R.

II. R has won against T.

135

P has drawn the match against

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

T

The given information:

TeamWonLostDrawn
P211
Q011
R201
S012
T011
<br>

I. Q is yet to play R.

II. R has won against T.

Now, P played four matches against each i.e. Q, R, S, and T. The possible outcome of the matches played by P:

PQ = Either P won or draw

PR = Either R won or draw because R hasn't lost a match yet.

PS = Either P won or draw

PT = Either P won or draw

Also, T has played only two matches so far in which it lost one and the other ended in a draw. It is given that T lost the match against R.

Implies, the T's match that ended in a draw was played against P.

Hence, P has drawn the match against "T".

136

Q has lost its match to

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    T

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P

The given information:

TeamWonLostDrawn
P211
Q011
R201
S012
T011
<br>

I. Q is yet to play R.

II. R has won against T.

Now, P played four matches against each i.e. Q, R, S, and T. The possible outcome of the matches played by P:

PQ = Either P won or draw

PR = Either R won or draw because R hasn't lost a match yet.

PS = Either P won or draw

PT = Either P won or draw

Also, T has played only two matches so far in which it lost one and the other ended in a draw. It is given that T lost the match against R.

Implies, the T's match that ended in a draw was played against P.

Also, now we know that the only match that P has drawn was against T, implies, the only match that P lost was against R as the possible outcome of that match was either R winning or a draw.

Thus, P must have won the two matches against Q and S as it has 2 wins.

Now, Q has lost only one match. Implies, Q has lost its only match against P.

Hence, Q has lost its match to "P".

137

T's remaining matches are with

  1. ((a))

    R and S

  2. ((b))

    Q and R

  3. ((c))

    Q and S

  4. ((d))

    P and S

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Q and S

The given information:

TeamWonLostDrawn
P211
Q011
R201
S012
T011
<br>

I. Q is yet to play R.

II. R has won against T.

Now, P played four matches against each i.e. Q, R, S, and T. The possible outcome of the matches played by P:

PQ = Either P won or draw

PR = Either R won or draw because R hasn't lost a match yet.

PS = Either P won or draw

PT = Either P won or draw

Also, T has played only two matches so far in which it lost one and the other ended in a draw. It is given that T lost the match against R.

Implies, the T's match that ended in a draw was played against P.

Thus, T has played against R and P. Implies, T is yet to play against Q and S

Hence, T's remaining matches are against "Q and S".

Answer the questions based on the information given below :

138

What is opposite to 4?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

As 5 is the common face on both the dice, keeping it constant and rotating in clockwise direction, we get faces opposite to each other:

536
541

3 is opposite to 4.

Hence, ‘3’ is the correct answer.

139

What is opposite to 2?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5

<br>

From both the dice, it is clear that 5 is adjacent to 6, 3, 1 and 4.

Now, the remaining face is '2', which will be opposite to 5.

Thus, 5 is opposite to 2.

Hence, ‘5’ is the correct answer.

140

What is opposite to 6?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

As 5 is the common face on both the dice, keeping it constant and rotating in clockwise direction, we get faces opposite to each other:

536
541

1 is opposite to 6.

Hence, ‘1’ is the correct answer.

141

All practicing lawyers have LLB degree. All MBBS degree holders are doctors. No doctors have LLB degree.

From the above statement, which one of the options can be logically deduced?

  1. ((a))

    Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree.

  2. ((b))

    Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree.

  3. ((c))

    Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree.

  4. ((d))

    Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or have a MBBS degree.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree.

Given:

All practicing lawyers have LLB degree. All MBBS degree holders are doctors. No doctors have LLB degree.

1) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree. → True, as it is given that All practicing lawyers have LLB degree. All MBBS degree holders are doctors. No doctors have LLB degree. This implies that the person practicing lawyer does not have MBBS degree as given in the statement.

2) Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree. → False, as it is not given in the statement.

  1. Every individual is either not a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree. → False, As it is not given not a practicing lawyer has a MBBS degree.

4) Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or has a MBBS degree. → False, It is necessary that every individual has MBBS degree or practicing lawyer.

Hence, Every individual is either a practicing lawyer or does not have a MBBS degree is the correct answer.

142

A family comprises seven members namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S. Among them four are adults and three are children. Of the three children, only R and S are girls. M and P are brothers  and M is a pilot. Q is an airhostess married to one of the brothers and has two children. N is married to P and S is their child. Who is O?

  1. ((a))

    M's son

  2. ((b))

    R's father

  3. ((c))

    Q's daughter

  4. ((d))

    P's son

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M's son

The symbol table is as:

Seven members - M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

  1. Among them four are adults and three are children.
  2. Of the three children, only R and S are girls.
  3. M and P are brothers  and M is a pilot.
  4. Q is an airhostess married to one of the brothers and has two children.
  5. N is married to P and S is their child. 

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, O is son of M and Q.

Hence, 'M's son' is the correct answer.

143

Select the numbered figure that will replace the question mark (?) in figure below :

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic is:

From figure A to C:

Similarly,

From figure B to D:

The next figure in the series is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

144

If the code for the word 'QUESTION' is SWGUVKQP, identify the option which gives the correct code for the word 'RECEPTIONIST'.

  1. ((a))

    TGEGRKVQPKUV

  2. ((b))

    TGEGRVQKPKUV

  3. ((c))

    TGEGRVKQPKUV

  4. ((d))

    TGEGRVKQKPUV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

TGEGRVKQPKUV

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘TGEGRVKQPKUV’ is the correct answer.

145

5/9 part of the population in a village are males. If 30% of the males are married, the percentage of unmarried females in the total population is

  1. ((a))

    13.66

  2. ((b))

    27.77

  3. ((c))

    37.77

  4. ((d))

    46.66

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

27.77

Given: 

Part of the male population = 5/9 or 500/900

Part of the females population = 4/9 or 400/900

Calculation: 

No of married males = 500 × 30/100 = 150

No of married females = 150 

∴ No of unmarried female population = 400 - 150 = 250 

The required percentage of unmarried female population = 250/900 × 100

⇒ 27.77%

146

Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into how many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

11

Concept: 

By drawing 0 line, it will give whole 1 part of the disk. 

By drawing 1 line, disk will be divided into 2 parts. 

Similarly, by drawing 2 lines, disk will have 4 parts

Similarly, by drawing 3 lines, disk will have 7 parts 

And by drawing 4 lines, the disk can have maximum of 11 parts. 

Alternatively

0 lines = 1 part 

1 line = 1 + 1 = 2 parts

2 lines = 2 + 2 = 4 parts 

3 lines = 4 + 3 = 7 parts 

4 lines = 7 + 4 = 11 parts

The above explanation is shown in the given figure.

Alternate Method

Formula Used:

For the number of cuts greater than 2, the number of maximum parts can be cut is given by = (1/2) × (n2 + n + 2); where n = number of cuts

Calculation:

So maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk = (1/2) × (42 + 4 + 2)

⇒ maximum parts can be four straight lines divide a circular disk = 11

∴ The required value is 11

147

If the price of sugar is raised by 25%,by how much should a household reduce its consumption of sugar so as not to increase expenditure on sugar?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    30%

  4. ((d))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20%

Given: 

Increase percent in the price = 25%

Calculation: 

Let the initial Price be 100x 

Similarly, let the initial consumption be 10 kg 

Total expenditure = 100x × 10 kg = Rs.1000x

∴ Increased price = 100x × 125/100 = 125x

The final quantity of the sugar so that expenditure is constant = 1000x/125x

⇒ 8 kg 

Percentage reduction = (10 kg - 8 kg)/ 10 kg × 100 

⇒ 20%

∴ The required reduction is 20%

 

25% = 1/ 4 

Price     Quantity      Expenditure 

4              5                    20 

5              4                    20 

Decrease of quantity = 5 - 4 = 1

% decrease = 1/5 × 100 = 20%

148

From the answer figures, select one image to continue the series of problem figures :

Problem Figures :

Answer Figures :

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

The shaded portion in the figure is changing its position in the clockwise direction and after every second figure, the shaded portion occupies one more block of the figure.

Following the pattern, figure 3 will come next in the series.

Hence, 'figure 3' is the correct answer.

149

The letters A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10. D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term, F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F. The fifth integer is

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C

1)  D is 3 less than A,

2) B is the middle term.

3) F is as much less than B as C is greater than D.

Clearly, D cannot be more than B because A is three more than D.

Case I: D is one less than B.

Case II D is two less than B. 

(D cannot be three less than B as it is three less than A.)

If we assume case II to be true, then we cannot place F so that it satisfies the given condition. F cannot be three less than B because A is three more than D. Also, F cannot be one less than B otherwise F will be one more than D. Thus, case II is false.

In case I, F is two less than B and C is two more than D as it is the only possibility.

4) G is greater than F.

Implies, G is the largest number as it is the only possibility. Also, now as only E is left, we can safely say that E is the least number.

Hence, "C" is the fifth integer.

150

The diameter of the driving wheel of a bus is 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make in order to keep a speed of 66 kmph?

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    250

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    450

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

250

Given: 

Diameter of the wheel = 140 cm

∴ Radius = 70 cm

Required speed = 66 km/h 

Concept: 

A revolution made by the wheel is the length of its circumference. 

Formula used: 

Circumference of a wheel = 2πr

Calculation:

Distance covered by wheel in 1 minute = 66 km × 1000 m × 100 cm/60 minutes 

⇒ 110000 cm 

Circumference of the wheel = 2 × 22/7 × 70 cm 

So, the distance covered by the wheel in one revolution = 440 cm

∴ No of revolution per minute = 110000 cm / 440 cm 

⇒ 250

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