BSSC CGL (Mains) Exam Official Paper (Held On: 23 Mar 2016) (Previous Year Paper)

The Correct Answer is 122° F.

Key Points

• The formula to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit is given by 
• C = (F - 32) × $\frac{5}{9}$
• F = [ C × (9/5) + 32 ]
• Given that, C = 50
• Then, F = 50 × (9/5) + 32
• F = 90 + 32
• F = 122

Important Points

Concept:

• Temperature: It is the measure of the degree of hotness and coldness of a body.
• The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin (K).

Fahrenheit and Celsius are measurements of temperature and are related to each other as follows:

C = (F - 32) × $\frac{5}{9}$

Where C is the temperature in Celsius and F is the temperature in Fahrenheit.

EXPLANATION:

Since we need temperature in Fahrenheit and Celsius to be equal:

Now, let C = F = x

So,

x = (x - 32) × $\frac{5}{9}$

or, 9x = 5x – 160

or, 4x = -160

or, x = -40

Therefore, -40°C = -40°F

The Correct Answer is Germany.

In News

• Aryna Sabalenka defeated Zheng Qinwen in the final win the women's singles tennis title at the 2024 Australian Open.

Key Points

• Australian Open​
• Australian Open is a tennis tournament held annually in Melbourne, Australia.
• It features men's and women's singles; men's, women's, and mixed doubles; junior's championships; and wheelchair, legends, and exhibition events.
• The tournament was first played in November 1905.
• The new facilities at Melbourne Park (formerly Flinders Park) were envisaged to meet the demands of a tournament that had outgrown Kooyong's capacity.
• The move to Melbourne Park was an immediate success, with a 90 percent increase in attendance in 1988.
• Angelique Kerber​
• ​She is a German professional tennis player.
• She won three major titles at the 2016 Australian Open, the 2016 US Open, and the 2018 Wimbledon Championships.
• She is also an Olympic silver medalist and was the year-end world number one in 2016.

Additional Information

• The Grand Slam tournaments are the four most important annual tennis events. The tournaments are - Australian Open ( January), the French Open (May-June), Wimbledon in (June-July), and the US Open in (August-September).
• These four Grand Slam tournaments are the most important tennis events of the year in terms of world ranking points, tradition, prize-money awarded, and public attention.
• French Open
• It was started in 1891.
• It is also known as the Roland Garros tournament.
• It was held over two weeks between late May and early June in Paris.
• This tournament is played on clay courts.
• The event is widely considered to be the most physically demanding tennis tournament in the world and Roland Garros is currently the only major open (sport) held on clay.
• Wimbledon
• It was started in 1877.
• This grass court tennis grand slam is the oldest of all four of these tennis events.
• The oldest, still-active tennis tournament in the entire world, it is looked at by many in the tennis world as the most prestigious, and it is usually held from late June to early July.
• Generally, it took place over two weeks in late June and early July, starting on the third Monday in June.
• Since its year of inception, which was 1877, Wimbledon has been held at the All England Club located in Wimbledon, London.
• In 1877, the one tennis event that was held at this club was the Gentlemen’s Singles, and it was won by a fellow named Spencer Gore who competed in a field of 22 participants.
• US open
• It was started in 1881.
• It held annually, starting on the last Monday in August, and lasting for two weeks into September, with the middle weekend coinciding with the Labor Day holiday.
• This tournament is played on hard court.
• The US Open is the only Grand Slam that employs tiebreakers in every set of a match.
• For the other three Grand Slam events, if a match goes to the last possible set (the third for women, fifth for men) and there is a 6–6 tie, the match continues until one player wins by two games, but the sets played before the last set always employ tiebreakers should a set reach 6–6.

The Correct Answer is V. S. Naipaul.

Key Points

• V. S. Naipaul​
• “An Area of Darkness” is a book written by V. S. Naipaul in 1964.
• It is a travelogue detailing Naipaul's trip through India in the early sixties.
• It was the first of Naipaul's acclaimed Indian trilogy which includes India: A Wounded Civilization and India: A Million Mutinies Now.
• The narration is anecdotal and descriptive.
• Vidyadhar Suraj Prasad Naipaul was a famous English litterateur of the modern era.
• He was considered the master of the new English verses.
• In 2001, he was also awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature.
• In 1971 he became the first person of Indian origin to win a Booker Prize.
• In 2001, he was also awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature.
• VS Naipaul was born on 17 August 1932 in Trinidad.
• His name means Naipaul meaning "who hails from Nepal".​

Additional Information

• Some important books of V.S. Naipaul
• An Area of Darkness (1964)
• In a Free State (1971) - Booker Prize
• India a Wounded Civilization (1977)
• India: A Million Mutinies Now (1990)

The Correct Answer is Paris.

In News

• The 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference, COP 21 or CMP 11 was held in Paris, France, from 30 November to 12 December 2015.

Key Points

• The Paris Agreement
• ​The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
• It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
• Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
• To achieve this long-term temperature goal, countries aim to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions as soon as possible to achieve a climate-neutral world by mid-century.
• The Paris Agreement is a landmark in the multilateral climate change process because, for the first time, a binding agreement brings all nations into a common cause to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects.
• Implementation of the Paris Agreement requires economic and social transformation, based on the best available science.
• The Paris Agreement works on a 5- year cycle of increasingly ambitious climate action carried out by countries.
• By 2020, countries submit their plans for climate action known as nationally determined contributions (NDCs).​​
• The Paris Agreement is a replacement for the 2005 Kyoto Protocol.

Important Points

• India had committed to increasing the share of non-fossil fuel sources to 40% and creating a carbon sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in the 2015 Paris climate summit.

Additional Information

• COP22 took place in Marrakech, Morocco.
• COP23 took place in Bonn, Germany.
• COP24 took place in Katowice, Poland.
• COP25 took place in Madrid, Spain.
• COP 26 is decided to be held in November 2021.
• It was supposed to be held at Glasgow in 2020, but was postponed due to Covid-19 crisis.

The Correct Answer is E.M. Foster.

Key Points

• A Passage to India​
• A Passage to India (1924) is a novel by English author E. M. Forster set against the backdrop of the British Raj ;and the Indian independence movement in the 1920s.
• It was selected as one of the 100 great works of 20th century English literature by the Modern Library and won the 1924 James Tait Black Memorial Prize for fiction.
• Time magazine included the novel in its "All Time 100 Novels" list.
• The novel is based on Forster's experiences in India, deriving the title from Walt Whitman's 1870 poem "Passage to India" in Leaves of Grass.
• The story revolves around four characters: Dr. Aziz, his British friend Mr. Cyril Fielding, Mrs. Moore, and Miss Adela Quested.
• During a trip to the fictitious Marabar Caves (modelled on the Barabar Caves of Bihar), Adela thinks she finds herself alone with Dr. Aziz in one of the caves (when in fact he is in an entirely different cave) and subsequently panics and flees it is assumed that Dr. Aziz has attempted to assault her.
• Aziz's trial, and its run-up and aftermath, bring to a boil the common racial tensions and prejudices between Indians and the British who rule India.

                               

Important Points

• Edward Morgan Forster OM CH was an English fiction writer, essayist, and librettist.
• Many of his novels examined class difference and hypocrisy, including:
• A Room with a View
• Howards End
• A Passage to India

Additional Information 

The Correct Answer is 1917.

Key Points

• Patna University
• ​Patna University is a public state university in Patna, Bihar, India.
• It was established on 1 October 1917 during the British Raj.
• It is the first university in Bihar and the seventh oldest university in the Indian subcontinent in the modern era.
• It offers different undergraduate and postgraduate degree level courses.
• it was the only university in the three regions of Nepal, Bihar and Orissa.
• it was converted into a purely teaching-cum-residential university with territorial jurisdiction over only metropolitan Patna.
• Patna University is recognized under Section 12B of the UGC Act.
• In 2019, the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) awarded 'B+' grade to the Patna University in the first cycle of the university's accreditation.​

Additional Information

Other important Universities in Bihar:

The Correct Answer is Y.V. Reddy.

Key Points

• 14th Finance Commission​
• Y.V. Reddy was the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission.
• 14th Finance Commission:
• The FFC has submitted its recommendations for the period 2015-16 to 2020-21.
• Some of the major recommendations are as follows:
• The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32 per cent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution.
• The last two Finance Commissions viz. Twelfth (period 2005-10) and Thirteenth (period 2010-15) had recommended a state share of 30.5 per cent (an increase of 1 per cent) and 32 per cent (an increase of 1.5 per cent), respectively in the central divisible pool.
• The FFC has also proposed a new horizontal formula for the distribution of the states’ share in the divisible pool among the states.
• Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new variables: 2011 population and forest cover; and excluded the fiscal discipline variable.
• The FFC has not made any recommendations.

Important Points

• Finance Commission
• ​Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the intention of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
• It was installed under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the Indian President. It was constructed to define the financial relations between the Centre and the states.
• It was formed in 1951. The Finance Commission makes recommendations to the president of India on the following:
• The net tax proceeds dispensation to be divided between the Centre and the states, and the allocation of the same between states.
• The principles governing the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre out of the consolidated fund of India.
• The steps desired to extend the consolidated fund of a state to promote the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities of the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the state Finance Commission.

Additional Information

• The chairman of the 15th Finance Commission is N.K. Singh.
• Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Dr. Vijay Kelkar is one of India's pre-eminent economists.
• He is a former Finance Secretary and was Chairman of the Thirteenth Finance Commission of India.
• A. M. Khusro was the Chairman of the Eleventh Finance Commission of India.

The Correct Answer is Eminent Jurist.

Key Points

• V. R. Krishna Iyer​
• The chief instrument through which judicial activism has flourished in India is Public Interest Litigation (PIL) introduced by Supreme Court.
• PIL refers to litigation undertaken to secure public interest and demonstrates the availability of justice to socially-disadvantaged parties.
• The pioneer of public interest litigation in India was Justice Krishna Iyer, in 1976 in Mumbai Kamagar Sabha vs. Abdul Thai.
• PIL was introduced in the Indian judicial systems by relaxation of the traditional rule of 'locus standi'.
• Before the 1980s the judiciary and the Supreme Court of India entertained litigation only from parties affected directly or indirectly by the defendant.
• It heard and decided cases only under its original and appellate jurisdictions.
• However, the Supreme Court began permitting cases on the grounds of PIL, which means that even people who are not directly involved in the case may bring matters of public interest to the court.

Additional Information

• Public interest litigation can​
• • Clarify the law.
• Hold public bodies to account by ensuring that they make appropriate decisions, act fairly and transparently, and are within the remit of their powers.
• Help develop the law by giving judges the opportunity to interpret legislation.
• Give vulnerable people a voice by highlighting an important issue and providing a platform for advocating for their rights.
• Raise awareness of important issues by encouraging public debate and media coverage.
• Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has increased access to justice, hence it is known as social action litigation.
• The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated and developed in the United States of America.
• It was designed to give representation to an unprivileged and unrepresented class of people.
• Public Interest Litigation is also called Social Action Litigation (SAL), Social Interest Litigation (SIL), and Class Action Litigation (CAL).

The Correct Answer is 57ft.

Key Points

• Gomateshwara​
• An 17-meter statue of Lord Gomateshwara is located in Shravanabelagola (Hassan district - Karnataka).
• The Gommateshwara statue is dedicated to the Jain figure Bahubali which was built around 983 AD that symbolizes Peace, Nonviolence, Sacrifice of worldly affairs, and simple living as followed by Jainism.
• Bahubali was the son of Rishabhanatha who is also referred to as Adinath was the first Tirthankara of Jainism and known in the Jain philosophy as the "Ford Maker"  because he is believed to be the first of all teachers in Jainism who helped one across the sea of interminable rebirths and deaths.
• It was constructed in 981 AD by Chamundaraya, a Ganga warrior, it is carved out of a single block of granite and looms on the top of Vindhyagiri Hill.
• Shravanabelagola is an important Jain pilgrimage Centre in South Karnataka.
• It is also known as Lord Bahubali.​

​​                                  

Important Points

• Other monolith statues of bahubali in Karnataka are:
• Karkala (12.8m) in Udupi
• Dharmasthala (11.9)in Dakshin Kannada
• Venur (10.7) in Dakshin Kannada
• Gommatagiri (6m) in Mysore

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Spain.

Key Points

• Mireya Lalguna
• ​Mireia Lalaguna Royo is a Spanish actress, model and beauty queen who was crowned Miss World 2015.
• **She became the first woman from Spain to win Miss World.**​

                                      ​​

Additional Information

• The Miss World competition began in 1951, making it one of the oldest international beauty pageants.
• It was formed in the United Kingdom by Eric Morley.
• Notably, the contest aims to find the woman who possesses not only beauty but also intelligence, talent, and a passion for humanitarian causes — the essence of the motto "Beauty with a Purpose."
• Many countries have never won the Miss World title, showcasing how competitive it is.
• Contestants are typically in their early twenties and must win a national pageant in their home country to qualify.
• The scoring has evolved over the years and now includes sections for Top Model, Sports, Multimedia, and Talent plus an interview with a panel of judges.
• The longest reign of a Miss World is by Toni-Ann Singh (Miss World 2019) till date due to the Miss World pageant in 2020 being cancelled due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

The Correct Answer is 1.676 meter.

Key Points

• The distance between the inner sides of two tracks on any railway line is called Railway Guage.
• There are 4 types of railway gauge used in India**: Broad gauge, Metre Gauge, Narrow gauge and Standard gauge.**
• Broad gauge:
• It is often called as a wide gauge.
• The distance between the two tracks in these railway gauges or the width of the broad gauge used in Indian railway track is 1.676 m.
• Standard gauge:
• The width of the standard gauge used in the Indian railway track is 1.435 m.
• Metre Gauge:
• The width of the Metre gauge used in the ;Indian railway track is 1 m.
• Narrow Gauge:
• It is often called a small gauge.
• The width of the narrow gauge used in the ;Indian railway track is 0.762 mm and 0.610 m.

The Correct Answer is 82°30 'E.

Key Points

• The longitude of India passes through the Mirzapur district in Uttar Pradesh.
• It is taken on the Eastern side of the Prime Meridian. The standard Meridian of India is less than 90.
• The time of neighborhood countries that lie on the various meridians are contrasting.
• It is, in this manner, important to embrace the neighborhood time of some prime meridian of a nation as the standard time for the nation for consistency.
• In India, the longitude of 82° E (82° 30' E) is treated as the standard meridian and the nearby time at this meridian is considered as the standard time for the entire nation.
• It is considered as the Indian Standard Time (IST).
• The Standard Meridian of India having the longitude 82°30'E, which goes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is considered as the standard time for the entire nation.

Additional Information

• Essentially a few nations have embraced more than one standard time because of their extraordinary longitudinal degree. For instance, in Russia, there are upwards of eleven standard occasions.
• The earth has been isolated into 24-time regions of one hour each. Each zone consequently covers 15° of longitude.
• The distance between latitudes is constant all through however the distance between the two longitudes diminishes as moved towards the poles.
• The distance between two latitudes is steady that is 111 km however the distance between two longitudes is 111 km at the equator and decreases to 0 at the poles.
• The IST is taken as +5:30 GMT concerning the Prime Meridian (0).

The Correct Answer is France.

Key Points

• Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) was also signed between the Indian company L&T and M/s AREVA of France on April 10, 2015 for cooperation to maximise localisation for the French-designed nuclear reactors in India.
• The collaboration, through transfer of technology, is expected to facilitate manufacturing in India of many critical components for the proposed Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project, and is in accord with the “Make in India” campaign of the Government aimed at enhancing indigenous technological and manufacturing capabilities of Indian industries.

Additional Information

• During Prime Minister’s visit to France (April 10-11, 2015), Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd. (NPCIL), a PSU under the Department of Atomic Energy, and M/s AREVA of France entered into a Pre-Engineering Agreement (PEA) in connection with the proposed Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project to be constructed with French collaboration.
• The PEA will facilitate NPCIL to obtain details of the French technology, make a detailed safety assessment of the plant and take up the licensing process with India’s Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), as soon as the Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project is taken up for implementation.

The Correct Answer is Gunter Grass.

Key Points 

• Gunter Wilhelm Grass was a German novelist, poet, playwright, illustrator, graphic artist, sculptor, and recipient of the 1999 Nobel Prize in Literature.
• He is known for his work 'The Tin Drum'.
• The Tin Drum, picaresque novel by Günter Grass, a purported autobiography of a dwarf who lives through the birth and death of Nazi Germany, published in 1959 as Die Blechtrommel.

Additional Information

• Doris Lessing - 
• Doris Lessing was born in Kermanshah, Persia (now Iran).
• Her father was a bank clerk and her mother a nurse.
• Her family later moved to Southern Rhodesia in 1925.
• Doris Lessing attended a convent school and a girls' school, but ended her studies at age 14 and moved from home.
• Octavio Paz - 
• Octavio Paz was born in 1914 in Mexico City.
• On his father's side, his grandfather was a prominent liberal intellectual and one of the first authors to write a novel with an expressly Indian theme.
• Thanks to his grandfather's extensive library, Paz came into early contact with literature.

The Correct Answer is Alexander Fleming.

Key Points

• Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
• Penicillin was the first antibiotic which was discovered.
• It was discovered from a mold called Penicillium notatum.
• It was discovered in 1929.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Panna.

Key Points 

• The Diamond Mining Project at Majhgawan - Panna commenced production of diamond in 1971-72.
• The Majhgawan Diamond Pipe is located at about 15 km from the Panna town in the south-west direction.
• This project happens to be the only mechanized diamond mine in the country.
• The Project is equipped with the facilities of Ore Processing Plant including heavy media separation unit, X-ray sorter for diamond separation and disposal system for tailings generated.
• NMDC has developed a small Township at Majhgawan.
• This Township is equipped with all necessary facilities like School, Hospital, Guest House and playing ground.

The Correct Answer is Satyajit Ray.

Key Points

• ​Satyajit Ray:
• An Indian director, screenwriter, documentary filmmaker, author, essayist, lyricist, magazine editor, illustrator, calligrapher, and music composer.
• Satyajit Ray also worked as a magazine illustrator.
• The Indian director Satyajit Ray, who is regarded as one of the dozen or so greatest artists of world cinema, is well renowned for his humanistic approach to the medium.
• He produced his movies in Bengali, a language used in West Bengal, a state in eastern India.
• Yet everyone finds interest in his movies.
• They focus on the elements that make up the human species, such as connections, feelings, conflict, joy, and grief.

Additional Information

• Pather Panchali (1955):
• First movie of Apu Trilogy.
• Movie is about a Poor priest Harihar Ray leaves his rural Bengal village in quest of employment because he wants to provide a better life for his family and himself.

The Correct Answer is 21 June.

Key Points

• Since 2015, The International Day of Yoga has been celebrated on 21 June annually.
• Yoga is a mental, physical, and spiritual practice that originated in India.
• The Indian PM, Narendra Modi, in his UN address suggested the date of 21 June.
• 21 June is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere and shares a special significance in many parts of the world.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Trade Policy.

Key Points

• Fiscal policy refers to the steps that governments take in order to influence the direction of the economy.
• But rather than encouraging or restricting spending by businesses and consumers, fiscal policy aims to target the total level of spending, the total composition of spending, or both in an economy.
• Economic policies, specifically fiscal policy, have played a key role in shaping the post-pandemic growth recovery.
• The fiscal policy transitioned from a focus on welfare during the pandemic towards a public investment-driven growth strategy to accelerate a buildup in infrastructure.
• This was achieved while staying on the glide path of a reducing fiscal deficit/gross domestic product (GDP) ratio.

The Correct Answer is Son.

Key Points

• The Ganges flows throughout the country from the North to the south,
• the different tributaries of the ganges in the north are

1. Gomti,
2. Ghaghara,
3. Gandak,
4. Kosi
5. Mahananda

• And the tributaries of Ganga in the south are

1. Chambal,
2. son,
3. betwa.

Additional Information

Ganga River System

• The Ganges River originates in the Himalayan Mountains at Gomukh, the terminus of the Gangotri. When the ice of this glacier melts, it forms the clear waters of the Bhagirathi River.
• As the Bhagirathi River flows down the Himalayas, it joins the Alaknanda River, officially forming the Ganges River.
• The Ganges flows south and east from the Himalayas, forming a canyon as it leaves the mountain. It winds its way through northern India, eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• As the river empties into the Bay of Bengal, the mouth forms the Ganges River Delta, the largest river delta in the world.
• Haridwar, Kanpur, Soron, Kannauj, Allahabad, Varanasi, Patna, Ghazipur, Bhagalpur, Mirzapur, Ballia, Buxar, Saidpur, and Chunar are the important towns.
• Left Tributaries of Ganga
• Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghra, Gandak, Koshi, and Mahananda
• Right Tributaries of Ganga
• Yamuna, Tons, Karmnasa, Punpun, Damodar, and Rupnarayan

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kerala hosted the National Games for the second time, the first being in 1987.
• The 35th National Games were held from 31st January to 14th February 2015.
• Kerala hosted this Game the second time.
• The opening ceremony was held at Greenfield Stadium on 31 January 2015.
• The opening ceremony was opened by the former Union Minister for Urban Development, Shri Venkaiah Naidu.
• Former cricketer Sachin Tendulkar was chosen as the Goodwill Ambassador for the Games.
• Over 12,000 athletes from 36 states and union territories participated in 33 sports disciplines.
• Kerala emerged as the overall champions with a total of 162 medals, including 54 gold, 48 silver, and 60 bronze medals.

Additional Information

• The 36th National Games were held in 2022 in the state of Gujarat.
• Goa hosted the 37th National Games in the year 2023.​

Important Points

• The National Games of India include a number of disciplines in which sportsmen from various states of India compete against each other.
• The first Modern National Olympic Games were held in New Delhi in 1985.
• The Games were hosted by Kerala (1987), Pune (1994), Bangalore (1997), Manipur (1999), Ludhiana (2001), Hyderabad (2002), Guwahati (2007), Ranchi (2011), and Kerala (2015).
• The 2020 Indian National Games(36th edition) were to be held in Goa, India, from 20 October to 4 November 2020.
• It was revealed in May 2020 that the games would be postponed due to the global pandemic of COVID-19 and that new dates have yet to be set.

The correct answer is Madam Curie - Dynamite.

Key Points

• Alfred Nobel
• He was a Swedish chemist, engineer, inventor, businessman, and philanthropist.
• He held 355 different patents, dynamite being the most famous.
• He set aside a bulk of his estate to establish the Nobel Prizes to honor men and women for outstanding achievements in physics, chemistry, medicine, literature, and for working toward peace.
• Marie Curie
• She was first awarded the prize in Physics in 1903 along with her husband Pierre and Henri Becquerel for the discovery of radioactivity.
• In 1911, the Curies were again nominated for the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for discovering the elements radium and polonium and investing in their properties.

Additional Information

• Telephone:-
• It is invented by Alexander Graham Bell.
• He also created methods for teaching speech to the deaf and participated in medical research.
• Bell was a brilliant inventor who received patents for the telephone, the telegraph, photophones, aerial vehicles, and hydroplanes.

The correct answer is Tokyo.

Key Points

• The earliest first sunrise of the year on the new Gregorian calendar in the easternmost Ogasawara Islands of the Japanese archipelago.
• Tokyo is the capital of Japan, its location is 35°41′23″N-139°41′32″E.
• Nippon or Nihon is another name of Japan that means "the sun's origin".
• A small town of Dong in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh first witnesses the sunrise in India.
• At 1,240 meters above sea-level, Dong is located at the confluence of the rivers Lohit, a tributary of the Brahmaputra, and Sati, and is strategically sandwiched between China and Myanmar.

Additional Information

• Latitude and Longitude:
• The mainland of India extends between 8°4'N and 37°6'N latitudes.
• From West to East, India extends between 68°7'E and 97°25'E longitudes.
• Due to the great longitudinal extent of about 29°, there could be wide differences in the local time of places located at two extreme points of India. As such, the difference between these two points would be of about Two Hours.
• The local time changes by four minutes for every one degree of longitude.
• The sun rises about two hours earlier in the east (Arunachal Pradesh) than in the west (Gujarat).
• As Earth rotates from west to east, Kohima is the easternmost city in India out of the given options, witness the earliest sunrise in the country. Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.
• The longitude of 82°30'E has been taken as the Indian Standard Time.

​

The correct answer is Raja Ravi Verma.

Key Points

• The famous painting named "Damayanti" is the creation of the famous painter Raja Ravi Varma.
• Damayanti's beauty, her rich clothing and jewelry, her regal stature, all are captured in a style that combines European techniques with a purely Indian sensibility.
• Raja Ravi Varma (1848 – 1906) was a celebrated Indian painter and artist, considered to be among the greatest painters in the history of Indian art.
• His works are held as national treasures in India.
• His paintings are considered to be among the best examples of the fusion of Indian and European traditions in the domain of modern Indian art.
• Raja Ravi Varma's depiction of "Damayanti" (a character from the Indian epic, Mahabharata) is one of his most recognized paintings.
• In the Mahabharata, Damayanti is a princess whose beauty is so surpassing that she is pursued by gods and humans alike.
• She is famously married to Nala, the king of Nishadha, after a complicated series of events, including a swayamvara (an event where a bride selects her groom from a group of suitors).
• In Raja Ravi Varma's depiction of Damayanti, he portrays her in all her ethereal beauty, proving his extraordinary abilities to represent Indian mythological and legendary characters with a realism and vitality that brings them alive for the viewer.

The correct answer is 

In News  Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of Bihar said that a monkey park would be built at Hingla Orahi in Araria district.

Key Points

• Phanishwar Nath Renu was one of the most triumphant, fortunate, and influential writers of modern Hindi literature in the post-Premchand era.
• He is the draftsman of Maila Anchal, which after Premchand's Godaan, is regarded as the most significant Hindi novel.
• Phanishwar Nath (Mandal) Renu was born on 4 March 1921 in the small village Aurahi Hingna close to Simraha railway station in Bihar.
• The Mandal community to which Renu belonged comprised a pauperized social group in India.
• Renu's family enjoyed the benefits of land, education, and social prestige.
• Renu's father, Shilanath Mandal, had been highly participating in the Indian National Movement and was an extremely enlightened individual, taking a keen interest in modern ideas, culture, and art.

Literary Works-

• Novels- 
• Maila Anchal
• Parti Parikatha
• Juloos
• Story collection-
• Thumri, 1959
• Ek Aadim Ratri ki Mahak, 1967
• Agnikhor, 1973

Additional Information

• Birthplace of different eminent personalities
• Zeradai (Siwan) - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
• Sitabedeyara (Chhapra) - Jai Prakash Narayan
• Jagdishpur (Bhojpur) - Jagdishpur
• Mahishi (Saharasa) - Mandan Mishra
• Bisfi (Madhubani) - Vidyapati

The correct answer is Gregor Mendel.

Key Points

• Gregor Mendel is known as the Father of Genetics..
• He discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance (1865), from his work on pea plants for seven years.
• He deduced that genes come in pairs and are inherited as distinct units one from each parent.
• The Mendel's laws of inheritance include the law of dominance, the law of segregation, and the law of independent assortment.
• Danish botanist Wilhelm Johannsen coined the word gene to describe the Mendelian units of heredity.

Additional Information

• Charles darwin
• ​Species are groups of interbreeding populations.
• It lives in a particular habitat.
• Charles darwin has written the book origin of species.
• He gave the concept of natural selection and branching descent.
• He worked on Galapagos island finches.
• Species arise from a single common ancestor and diversify to form new species.
• Robert Hooke:
• He formulated hook's law.
• He gave the concept of elasticity.
• He also discovers cells under a microscope.
• Hugo De Vries
• The Mutation theory was proposed by Dutch botanist and geneticist ;Hugo de Vries in his Die Mutations theories (1901–03; The Mutation Theory).

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Narora Atomic Power Station
• It is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India.
• It has two units with a total capacity of 440 MW, and is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India.
• The plant uses pressurized heavy water reactors to generate electricity and has been in operation since 1991.
• Kakrapara Atomic Power Station
• It is a nuclear power plant located in Surat district of Gujarat, India.
• It has two pressurized heavy water reactors, each with a capacity of 220 MW, giving a total capacity of 440 MW.
• The plant is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India and provides electricity to the western grid.
• It is known for its high capacity factor and has been a reliable source of electricity for over two decades.
• Kaiga Atomic Power Station
• It is located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka.
• The plant services India's southern grid and provides power to five states (Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Pondicherry).
• Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
• It is situated in Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu.
• It is being developed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).
• It comprises six units of Light Water Reactors (VVERs), each of 1000 MW capacity.

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha was formed in 1958.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha, constitutionally known as the Council of States, serves as the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
• Its establishment to 3rd April 1952, when the first Council of States was constituted, Hence Option 3rd is wrong
• The Rajya Sabha held its inaugural session on 13th May 1952
• It is a permanent body,
• One third of the members retire every second year.
• The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
• The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
• The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Widal test
• This test is used for detecting serum agglutinins in patients with typhoid and paratyphoid fever
• It was developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal in 1896
• The Widal test detects the presence of serum agglutinins (H and O) in a patient's serum
• Tourniquet Test
• It is also known as the Rumpel-Leede or Hess test
• It is a simple diagnostic tool used to assess capillary fragility
• The tourniquet test helps identify thrombocytopenia, which is a reduced platelet count
• It was used in dengue fever, but now this test is no longer part of the World Health Organization (WHO) algorithm for diagnosing dengue fever
• R. A. factor
• It is an essential component in diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
• ​Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an antibody produced by our immune system.
• Sometimes, RF tests are also used to diagnose chronic infections like hepatitis C and tuberculosis.
• Elisa test 
• ELISA stands for enzyme-linked immunoassay.
• It is a commonly used laboratory test to detect antibodies in the blood.
• An antibody is a protein produced by the body's immune system when it detects harmful substances, called antigens.
• ELISA Test is used to detect HIV infection.

The correct answer is Zika virus.

Key Points

• Zika virus outbreak occurred in 2015. The outbreak began in April 2015 in Brazil, and has spread to other parts of South and North America; it is also affecting several islands in the Pacific.
• In January 2016, the World Health Organization (WHO) said the virus was likely to spread throughout most of the Americas by the end of the year.
• Microcephaly is a birth defect where a baby’s head is smaller than expected when compared to babies of the same sex and age.
• Babies with microcephaly often have smaller brains that might not have developed properly.

Important Points

• The Zika virus is predominantly transmitted by infected mosquitoes from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti.
• The Aedes mosquitoes also spread dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever.
• The virus was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys.
• Transmission:
• Apart from the mosquitoes, an infected person can also spread the virus.
• Symptoms:
• Generally, the symptoms include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, or headache. It lasts for about two to seven days. Most infected people do not develop any symptoms.
• Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly (smaHence statement 3 is correct.
• It has no treatment or vaccine. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain.

The correct answer is Mexican drug smuggler

Key Points

• Joaquín “El Chapo” Guzmán is a former Mexican drug lord
• He is a prominent figure within the Sinaloa Cartel, an international crime syndicate.
• Guzmán was born in Sinaloa and raised in a poor farming family.
• Because of his father’s involvement in the drug trade that entered this dangerous world, helping cultivate marijuana for local dealers during his early adulthood.
• By the late 1970s, Guzmán began working with Héctor Luis Palma Salazar, one of the nation’s rising drug lords.
• He went on to become one of the most powerful drug traffickers in the world.

The correct answer is Sulphuric Acid

Key Points

• Lead-acid battery:
• Lead-acid type is the most widely used type of car batteries and it uses sulphuric acid for its reaction

• Primarily, these are regarded as the high-performance car batteries because of their affordability and ability to provide a large volume of current that is needed to start the car
• These are a low-cost reliable power workhorse used in heavy-duty applications
• They are usually very large and because of their weight, they’re always used in non-portable applications such as solar-panel energy storage, vehicle ignition and lights, backup power and load levelling in power

Additional Information

• Nitric acid (HNO3):
• As nitric acid is a strong acid.
• It is corrosive in nature. It has a poisonous effect.
• It is explosive in nature.
• When we intake it, our skin can burn It can also damage our mouth, throat, and stomach other causes are abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
• Hydrochloric Acid (HCl):
• Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.
• It has strong corrosive properties.
• It is a dangerous and destructive compound as it releases a large amount of chlorine gas which can affect our skin.
• Citric acid
• produced by the fungus is extensively used in the food and pharmaceutical industries

The correct answer is Arvind Panagaria

Key Points

• Dr Panagariya served as the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog and is currently a Professor at Columbia University.
• As the Chairman, his responsibilities will include making recommendations on important matters such as the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and actions needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of its Panchayats and Municipalities.
• He will also possibly review the existing arrangements for financing Disaster Management initiatives.
• The Finance Commission, under Dr Panagariya's leadership, is expected to present its report by October 31, 2025, which will cover five years starting from April 1, 2026.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog was formed on January 1, 2015.
• The National Institution for Transforming India is also called NITI Aayog.
• The Government of India constituted the NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission instituted in 1950.
• The NITI AYOG will work as a “Think Tank” of government directional and policy dynamo.
• Shri Suman Bery is currently Vice Chairperson, NITI Aayog, in the rank and status of a Cabinet Minister. An experienced policy economist and research administrator, Mr Bery took over as NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson from 1 May 2022.

The correct answer is Yemen

Key Points

• Operation Rahat:
• During the 2015 military intervention by Saudi Arabia and its allies in Yemen during the Yemeni Crisis, the Indian Armed Forces conducted Operation Rahat to evacuate Indian citizens and international nationals from Yemen.
• From the port of Aden, the marine evacuation started on April 1st, 2015.
• Its primary objective was to evacuate stranded pilgrims during the Uttarakhand floods
• In June 2013, the state of Uttarakhand in India faced devastating floods and landslides
• Thousands of pilgrims, tourists, and locals were trapped in the affected areas due to washed-out roads, damaged infrastructure, and inclement weather.
• The operation faced immense challenges:
• Inaccessible Terrain: The affected areas were remote, with difficult terrain and limited access.
• Weather Conditions: Heavy rainfall and low visibility posed risks to rescue operations.
• Large-Scale Evacuation: The IAF had to coordinate the evacuation of thousands of people.

Additional Information

• Yemen Capital-Sana'a
• Currency: Yemeni Rial
• Official language: Arabic
• Continent: Asia

The correct answer is A Nigerian terrorist organization

Key Points

• Boko Haram
• It is the militant group in northern Nigeria that has killed tens of thousands of people and displaced more than 3 million people.
• Boko Haram militants mainly inhabit areas in the northern states of Nigeria, specifically Yobe, Kano, Bauchi, Borno and Kaduna.
• Boko Haram means "Western education is forbidden." The group was founded in 2002.
• Founded by Mohammed Yusuf in 2002.
• Led by Abubakar Shekau from 2009 until his death in 2021.
• The group splintered into other factions after Yusuf’s death and again in 2015.
• Initially aimed to “purify” Sunni Islam in northern Nigeria.
• Opposed Shia Islam and believed that jihad should be delayed until the group was strong enough to overthrow the Nigerian government.

The correct answer is Lal Bahadur Shastri

Key Points

• The first recipient of the Bharat Ratna award posthumously was former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri served as the second Prime Minister of India.
• He was born on 2 October 1904 in Mughalsarai.
• He shares his birthday with Mahatma Gandhi, who was born on 2 October 1869.
• His father’s name was Sharada Prasad Srivastava and his mother’s name was Ramdulari Devi.
• He was a freedom fighter and was deeply influenced by Mahatma Gandhi.
• He aided the White Revolution.
• The White Revolution was dedicated to increasing the production of milk as well as its supply.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri also promoted the Green Revolution in India in 1965
• The Green Revolution aimed at increasing food grain production.
• During the Indo-Pak War of 1965, he gave the slogan “Jai Jawaan, Jai Kisaan” to highlight the importance of soldiers and farmers.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri died on 11 January 1966 while he was in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.

The correct answer is 274-280 days

Key Points

• The gestation period for a cow, which is the time from conception to the birth of the calf, typically lasts around 274-280 days.
• Different cow breeds may have slight variations in their gestation periods.
• A female that has not yet given birth is called a heifer
• They usually start showing signs of heat at around 9 months old, but they are not ready for breeding at this stage
• It is recommended to wait until a heifer reaches 13 to 15 months of age before breeding.
• By this time, their pelvic area will have fully developed to support their bodies throughout gestation.
• If a cow is carrying a heifer calf, the gestation period tends to be shorter compared to a cow expecting to deliver a bull.
• Additionally, mature cows generally have a longer gestation duration compared to first-calf females.

The correct answer is Sutlej

Key Points

• Sutlej River
• The river that does not originate in India is the Sutlej.
• It originates from the Manasarovar-Rakas Lakes in western Tibet.
• Sutlej River is also known as Shatadru (Ancient name).
• River Sutlej is one of the major tributaries of Indus.
• Only tributary of Indus which originates from Tibet.
• Sutlej River enters India through Shipki La pass.
• The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is constructed across the Sutlej river.
• The Indira Gandhi canal is situated on the Sutlej river.
• The West flowing peninsular river Narmada originates from the  Amarkantak plateau.

Additional Information

• Ravi River
• ​Originates in Multhan tehsil in Kangra district, Himachal Pradesh.
• Ravi is a Transboundary river flowing through northwestern India and Northeastern Pakistan.
• After the partition of India in 1947, the waters of River Ravi along with five other rivers of the Indus system (Beas, Sutlej, Chenab, Jhelum, and Indus) keep India and Pakistan under the Indus Water Treaty and form the headquarters of the Indus Basin.
• The river drains a total catchment area of 14442 square km in India after flowing for a length of 720 km.
• Chenab River
• Chenab River originates from Baralacha Pass in Himachal Pradesh.
• It’s the largest tributary of the Indus river (In terms of Drain).
• It is also known as the Chandrabhaga River.
• It is a major river that flows in India and Pakistan.
• It is one of the 5 major rivers of the Punjab region.
• Beas River​
• Beas river rises from Rohtang La in the Himalayas.
• It merges with the Sutlej river which flows into the Arabian Sea.
• Its Vedic name is Vipasa.
• It flows in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
• Additionally, it’s worth noting that the Brahmaputra River is another river that does not originate in Indian territory.

The correct answer is It has original appellate and consultative jurisdiction

Key Points

• The Supreme Court has original, appellate and consultative jurisdiction.
• Original Jurisdiction:
• ​Article 32 of the Constitution grants extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• It can issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari to enforce these rights.
• Appellate Jurisdiction:​
• The Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction can be invoked by a certificate granted by the High Court concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1), or 134 of the Constitution.
• It covers both civil and criminal cases involving substantial questions of law related to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Advisory Jurisdiction:
• The Supreme Court can provide advisory opinions to the President of India on questions of law or fact that arise in the discharge of his functions.
• However, this jurisdiction is rarely exercised.​

Additional Information

Supreme Court of India came into existence on 26th January 1950 and is located on Tilak Marg, New Delhi

• The Supreme Court of India functioned from the Parliament House till it moved to the present building.
• It has a 27.6-metre high dome and a spacious collonaded verandah.
• On the 28th of January, 1950, two days after India became the Sovereign Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court came into being.
• The inauguration took place in the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament building which also housed India's Parliament, consisting of the Council of States and the House of the People.
• It was here, in this Chamber of Princes, that the Federal Court of India had sat for 12 years between 1937 and 1950.
• This was to be the home of the Supreme Court for years that were to follow until the Supreme Court acquired its own present premises.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu:
• Jallikattu is the sport of bull control.
• Which is played during the Pongal festival in Tamil Nadu.
• In Jallikattu, the bull is controlled.
• The person controlling it has to remain on its back for a certain distance or until the bull jumps three times.

Additional Information

• Kerala:
• Kalaripayattu is the traditional martial art of Kerala.
• This game is also known as "Kalari".
• Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest fighting styles in the world.
• Karnataka:
• Kambala Race or Buffalo Race is a traditional sport of Karnataka.
• This game is played in mud.
• This game is quite popular in Mangaluru and Udupi coastal areas of Karnataka.
• Andhra Pradesh:
• Kabaddi and Kho-Kho are mostly played in Andhra Pradesh.

The Correct answer is Narmada, Son

Key Points

• The historical importance of Amarkantak has emerged as the place of origin of two rivers the Narmada River and Son River.
• Johila River (Tributary of Son)) also emerges from Amarkantak.
• The Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum.
• Narmada River - 
• It is the longest river of Madhya Pradesh, followed by the Tapti.
• The Source of the Narmada is Narmada Kund which is located at Amarkantak in Anuppur District, Madhya Pradesh.
• The Narmada is also known as the Rewa.
• People from Madhya Pradesh depend fully on the Narmada River, they consider Narmada as the lifeline of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is one of the major rivers in India that run from east to west along with Tapti and the Mahi.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh (1,077 km ), Maharashtra (74 km), and in Gujarat (161 km).
• Son River - 
• The Son River rises in the Amarkantak Plateau.
• It passes along the Kaimur Range.
• It joins the Ganga near Danapur in Patna district of Bihar.
• It flows for a distance of 784 km from its source.
• The important tributaries of the Son are the Johilla, the Gopat, the Rihand, the Kanhar, and the North Koel.

Additional Information 

• Betwa River - 
• ​Betwa River is a tributary of the Yamuna river which flows into the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• The Betwa River originates from Jhiri village which is 50 km from Bhopal in the Vindhya mountain range from where the river starts its journey.
• After flowing 216 km in Madhya Pradesh, the river enters in Uttar Pradesh and meets the Yamuna river at Ghatampur near Hamirpur district in Uttar Pradesh.
• In Sanskrit, Betwa River is known as “Vetrawati” and the river is also mentioned in the epic Mahabharata along with Charmanvati or Chambal river.
• Chambal River​
• The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It originates from Janapav near Indore on the south slope of Vindhya arrange that is situated in Madhya Pradesh.
• Chambal river is also a part of the great Gangetic plains.
• The river is 1024 km long.
• The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and finally joins the Yamuna river in Uttar Pradesh.
• Tapi River​
• Tapi river originates from Satpura mountain.
• The Satpura range is a range of hills that runs between the Narmada and Tapti rivers.
• The Tapti River originates in the eastern-central part of Satpura.
• It is known as the twin of the Narmada river.
• The total length of this river is 724 km.
• Its tributaries are Betul, Purna, and Arunvati.

The Correct answer is Pushkar

Key Points

• Pushkar fair is also known as Pushkar Camel Fair or locally Kartik Fair.
• It is held in the Pushkar city of Ajmer district of Rajasthan.
• The Pushkar fair is one of the largest camel, horse, and cattle fairs in India.
• Apart from the cattle trade, it is an important pilgrimage for Hindus to Bramha Temple.
• Cultural events and competitions at this fair include dancing, the tussle between female teams as well as male teams, "Matka bust", "longest mustache" contest, "bridal contest", camel race, and others.

 Additional Information

• Sonpur Mela​
• Sonepur Mela is one of the largest cattle fairs in India held every year on Kartik Poornima (Full moon day) in the month of November- December in Sonpur, Bihar.
• Sonpur is located on the confluence of the rivers Ganga and Gandak in Bihar.
• Originally, the cattle fair was held in the Hajipur district of Bihar but later during the reign of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, it was shifted to Sonpur.
• Surajkund Mela​
• Surajkund Crafts Mela is one of the largest crafts​  fairs in India that is held every year in the Faridabad district of Haryana.
• The fair is actually the most popular among all fairs and festivals in Haryana and attracts visitors in large numbers from all parts of the country.
• Even several tourists from the planet , arrive at the Surajkund Crafts Mela every year to witness the glorious culture and heritage of India.
• Ujjain 
• ​Kumbh Mela at Ujjain is performed after every 12 years.
• Simhastha is a Hindu religious Mela held in Ujjain after every 12 years.

The Correct answer is Sikkim

Key Points

• Sikkim made the official decision to switch to organic farming in 2003.
• Sikkim saw a radical metamorphosis in the years that followed, moving from utilising chemicals and pesticides to outrightly  banning them.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi designated Sikkim as India's first entirely organic state in January 2016.

Additional Information

• The "Sikkim Organic Mission" was established by the State Government in 2010.
• Sikkim's pursuit of the 100% organic label is being accelerated by the Sikkim Organic Mission.
• The Mission assisted by giving out seeds and fertilizer and teaching farmers how to use organic practices.
• Over 66,000 farming households in the state have benefited from the switch to an organic state, which has also promoted sustainable living and rural development.

The Correct answer is Maneka Gandhi Case

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India confirmed the principle that “unruly law is no law” in the landmark case of Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India in 1978.
• "Unruly law is no law" means that An unjust law is no law at all.
• The petitioner, Maneka Gandhi, had her passport impounded by authorities under the provisions of the Passport Act. She was not given any reason for this arbitrary decision, which she contended violated her Right of Personal Liberty guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution.
• A seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court, including Chief Justice M.H. Beg, held that the State’s act of impounding her passport directly assaulted her fundamental rights.
• The court unanimously ruled that the right to travel abroad is well within the ambit of Article 21.
• This case expanded the scope of Article 21, emphasizing that personal liberty includes the right to travel internationally.

Additional Information

• Union Carbide Case:
• This case pertains to the Bhopal gas tragedy that occurred in 1984.
• The Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) , a pesticide plant in Bhopal leaked methyl isocyanate gas, resulting in thousands of deaths and injuries.
• The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case addressed issues related to compensation, liability, and environmental damage. Indra Sahni Case:
• The Indra Sahni case
• It was also known as the Mandal Commission case), it dealt with the implementation of reservations in public employment based on caste.
• The court upheld the government’s decision to provide 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in civil services.
• Shah Bano Case:
• The Shah Bano case involved a Muslim woman seeking maintenance from her husband after their divorce.
• The Supreme Court held that Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code applies to all citizens, regardless of religion.
• It confirmed the principle that personal laws cannot override fundamental rights.

The Correct answer is All of the above

Key Points

• Regardless of the specific label, these diamonds share the common thread of being mined in war-torn regions and used to finance violence and human rights violations. Hence all of the above is the correct answer
• Conflict or “blood” diamonds are illegally traded to fund conflict in war-torn areas, particularly in central and western Africa, according to the World Diamond council, which represents the commercial diamond trade.

Additional Information

• The United Nations defines conflict diamonds as “diamonds that originate from areas controlled by forces or factions opposed to legitimate and internationally recognized governments, and are used to fund military action in opposition to those governments, or in contravention of the decisions of the Security Council.”
• They are generally in “rough” form, meaning they have recently been extracted and not yet cut.
• At the height of the civil war in Sierra Leone, it is estimated that conflict diamonds represented approximately four percent of the world’s diamond production.

The Correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir

Key Points

• N.N.Vohra was appointed Governor of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) by President of India in 2008 .
• Vohra was reappointed as the governor of Jammu and Kashmir by the president of India in 2013.
• Vohra retired from the position of governor in August 2018

 Additional Information Vohra Committee

• The Vohra Committee was constituted in 1993 by the Indian government to investigate and analyze the growing criminalization of politics in the country.
• The committee was named after its chairman, Shri N.N. Vohra, who was a retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer and had previously served as the Home Secretary of India.
• The primary objective of the committee was to examine the links between criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats.
• It aimed to understand how criminal elements were infiltrating the political system and influencing decision-making processes.
• Suggestions​
• Strengthening Law Enforcement: The committee stressed the importance of strengthening law enforcement agencies to tackle criminal elements effectively.
• Electoral Reforms: The report called for electoral reforms to ensure fair and clean elections.
• Transparency: The need for greater transparency in political funding and expenditure was emphasized.
• Legal Reforms: It suggested legal reforms to disqualify candidates with criminal backgrounds from contesting elections.

 Important Points

• This a PYQ question asked in BSSC CGL 2nd Mains Paper 23 March 2016. So the answer is provided according to that. Currently, J & K is a UT, which is under Lieutenant Governor- Manoj Sinha (Since 7th Aug 2020)

The Correct answer is Article 47

Key Points

• Prohibition of liquor finds it's mention in the constitution under the Article 47.
• Article 47:-
• Article 47 under directive principles of states policy directs the states to take measures to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
• This article directs that the state shall endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.
• Most liquor ban policies are justified on the basis of this Article.
• Seventh schedule (Article 246):-
• Entry 51 in the State List makes “Alcohol for human consumption” a subject matter of states.
• This provides states the power to make laws and charge duties on alcoholic liquors for human consumption.
• Thus, each state has its own laws, bylaws, and rules towards alcohol.
• Due to this, the legal age of drinking, taxes on liquor, and the procedure of doing liquor business differ from state to state

Important Points

• Liquor Ban in Bihar:- 
• New prohibition law enforced on April 1, 2016, put a total ban on liquor.
• A violator has been given a jail term of 7 years and a fine ranging from Rs 1 lakh to 10 lakh for alcohol consumption within state boundaries.
• It provides a death sentence, for manufacturers and distributors of illicit liquor in the event of a hooch tragedy.

The Correct answer is Russia

Key Points

• The 21st edition of FIFA World Cup 2018 was held in Russia from 14 June to 15 July 2018.
• There were 32 teams divided into eight groups of four each for this edition of the World Cup.
• This was the first time since 2006 that the World Cup was held in Europe.
• There were a total of 64 matches played across 12 venues located in 11 cities.
• In the final, France played Croatia at the Luzhniki Stadium in Moscow.
• France won the match 4–2 to claim their second World Cup.

 Additional Information

• FIFA stands for Federation of International Football Association.
• It is the highest governing body of Football.
• It was founded in 1904.
• Its headquarter is in Zurich, Switzerland.

Important Points

• FIFA World Cup 2022
• ​It was hosted by Qatar (the first arab country to host FIFA)
• Argentina won by defeating France in the Finals.
• FIFA World Cup 2026 will be hosted by Canada, Mexico and USA

The Correct answer is Milk Fever

Key Points

• Parturient paresis, also called milk fever, in cattle, a disorder characterized by abnormally low levels of Calcium in the blood.
• It occurs in cows most commonly within 3 days after they have calved, at a time when the cow’s production of milk has put a severe strain on its calcium stores.
• The early signs include loss of appetite and depression or restlessness, followed by muscle weakness and spasms of the hindlegs.
• In acute cases generalized paresis and apparent coma occur, followed by circulatory collapse and death.

Additional Information

• Hoof
• A hoof is a body part affected by various conditions, like laminitis or foot rot.
• Anthrax​
• ​Anthrax is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis.
• It can be contracted through contact with infected animals, contaminated animal products, or spores in the environment.
• Symptom onset varies from one day to more than two months after infection.
• Different forms of anthrax include:
• Cutaneous anthrax: Presents as a painless ulcer with a black center.
• Inhalational anthrax: Causes fever, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
• Intestinal anthrax: Leads to diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting.​
• Bovine Flu
• Bovine flu, also known as Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV), is a respiratory illness.

The Correct answer is Ernest Hemingway

Key Points

• The author of the short novel “The Old Man and the Sea” is Ernest Hemingway
• This novel, written between December 1950 and February 1951, tells the story of Santiago, an aging fisherman, and his arduous struggle to catch a giant marlin.
• Hemingway’s portrayal of Santiago’s resilience and the challenges of the sea earned him critical acclaim and prestigious awards, including the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953 and the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1954.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Article - 356.

Key Points

• Article 356 allows the central government to impose direct rule over a state, known as President's Rule.
• Extension beyond six months requires a national emergency nationwide or in every region of the state, or if elections are impossible in the state.
• Also referred to as a 'State Emergency'.
• If a state government fails to function according to constitutional provisions, the Union government can take control.
• Initially imposed for six months, it can be extended up to three years with parliamentary approval every six months.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 extended the initial duration of President's Rule from six months to one year.

Additional Information 

• Article 365:
• Mandates states to adhere to directions from the Union Government under the Constitution.
• Non-compliance may prompt the President to issue a proclamation governing the state according to Union directives.
• Article 359:
• Permits the suspension of certain fundamental rights during a national emergency.
• Suspends court access for enforcing rights under Articles 14, 21, and 22, not 20 and 21.
• Article 360:
• Authorizes the President to declare a financial emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
• After proclamation, the President can reduce salaries and allowances of Union Government personnel, including judges.

The correct answer is B.T. Cotton.

Key Points

• B.T. Cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation in India.
• It was first approved in 2002 for cultivation in six Indian states.
• B.T. Cotton has been genetically modified to produce a toxin that kills bollworm, a major pest that affects cotton crops.
• The adoption of B.T. Cotton in India has been controversial, with some arguing that it has led to increased farmer debt and decreased yields.

Additional Information

• A crop used in agriculture that has had its DNA altered through genetic engineering is known as a genetically modified crop (GM crop).
• In GM crop, Agrobacterium can be used to transfer sequences hosted in T-DNA binary vectors, or one can physically modify plant genomes.
• The goal is to give the plant a new characteristic that is not found in the species naturally.
• Mustard is currently awaiting approval for commercial cultivation in India.
• It has been genetically modified to improve yields and reduce the country's dependence on imported edible oil.
• B.T. Brinjal was approved for commercial cultivation in India in 2009, but the approval was later revoked in 2010 due to concerns about its safety and impact on human health and the environment.

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

• Nobel Prizes are awarded by Swedish institutions.
• These include the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, the Nobel Assembly at the Karolinska Institute, the Swedish Academy, and the Nobel Peace Prize Committee.
• Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, established the Nobel Prizes in his will in 1895.
• Nobel Prizes are awarded in Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences.
• The awards are presented annually in Stockholm, Sweden, except for the Nobel Peace Prize, which is awarded in Oslo, Norway.

Additional Information

• Nobel Prize Winners 2023: Here's a list of the winners in each category: 
• Physiology or Medicine: Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman "for their discoveries about nucleoside base changes, which allowed for the creation of mRNA vaccines, including the COVID-19 vaccines."
• Physics: Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, and Anne L'Huillier "for experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light for the study of electron dynamics in matter."
• Chemistry: Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Aleksey Yekimov "for the discovery and synthesis of quantum dots."
• Literature: Jon Fosse "for his profound literary vision, imbued with humanism and profound insights into existence."
• Peace: Narges Mohammadi "for her brave and tireless efforts for freedom and women's rights in Iran."
• Economic Sciences: Claudia Goldin "for her research on the economic history of labour, particularly gender inequality and economic mobility."

The correct answer is Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya.

Key Points

• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya:
• Renowned Indian educationist and politician.
• Instrumental in the establishment of Banaras Hindu University (BHU).
• Founded BHU in 1916 under the Banaras Hindu University Act of 1915.
• BHU is one of the largest residential universities in Asia.
• Malaviya's vision for BHU was to blend traditional Indian education with modern Western education.
• BHU has since become a prestigious institution known for its academic excellence and research contributions.

Additional Information

• Pandit Motilal Nehru:
• Indian independence activist and prominent leader of the Indian National Congress.
• Father of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
• Played a significant role in the Indian freedom movement.
• Rabindranath Tagore:
• Eminent Indian poet, writer, composer, philosopher, and artist.
• First non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
• Founded Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, West Bengal.
• Shyama Charan Day:
• Indian politician and social reformer.
• Advocated for the rights of backward classes and minorities.
• Played a role in social and political movements.

The correct answer is  (a) - 4, (b) - 3, (c) - 1, (d) - 2.

Key Points

• Bandipur National Park:
• Located in Karnataka.
• Established in 1974 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger.
• Known for its diverse wildlife including tigers, elephants, and various bird species.
• Part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• Buxa Tiger Reserve:
• Situated in West Bengal.
• The reserve is situated near the international border with Bhutan.
• Home to the Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, and other wildlife.
• Located in the Buxa Hills of the Eastern Himalayas.
• Mount Abu Wildlife Sanctuary:
• Found in Rajasthan.
• Located in the Aravalli Range, it is the oldest mountain range in India.
• Famous for its rich biodiversity and scenic beauty.
• Provides habitat to various species including leopards, sloth bears, and Indian wild boars.
• Pench National Park:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh.
• Named after the Pench River that flows through the park.
• Inspired Rudyard Kipling's "The Jungle Book".
• Houses diverse flora and fauna, including tigers, leopards, and deer.

Additional Information

• National Park:
• A protected area of significant natural beauty, ecological value, or unique biodiversity.
• Usually designated and managed by a government to preserve the area's flora, fauna, and cultural heritage.
• Often open to the public for recreation, education, and research.
• Activities such as hunting, logging, and farming are generally prohibited to maintain the park's natural integrity.
• Bird Sanctuary:
• A designated area that provides protection and conservation for birds and their habitats.
• Usually established to safeguard migratory birds, endangered species, or specific bird populations.
• Managed to provide suitable conditions for breeding, feeding, and nesting of various bird species.
• Often offers opportunities for birdwatching and eco-tourism.
• Wildlife Reserve:
• An area of land set aside for the protection and conservation of wildlife and their habitats.
• Typically managed to conserve biodiversity, including both flora and fauna.
• May have varying levels of protection and restrictions on human activities, depending on the reserve's objectives.
• Often used for scientific research, ecological studies, and sustainable tourism.

The correct answer is Gange's Dolphin.

Key Points

• The Gangetic Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India.
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010.
• Scientific name: Platanista gangetica
• They are locally known as Susu, because of the noise they make while breathing.
• Gangetic dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• They are listed as Endangered on IUCN red list. The species is listed under Appendix I of CITES.
• Species Conservation Project to conserve these endangered dolphins by Wildlife Institute of India(“Development of conservation action plan for Dolphins” in 2016).

Additional Information

• The dolphin of the Ganges River was formally discovered in 1801.
• Ganges river dolphins once existed in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems in Nepal, India and Bangladesh.
• The dolphin of the Ganges River can only exist in freshwater and is practically blind.
• They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds that bounce off fish and other prey, allowing them to "see" a picture in their heads.
• The Ganges River dolphin is significant because it is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire ecosystem of the river.
• The Ganges shark is a critically endangered species of requiem shark found in the Ganges River (Padma River) and the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh and India.
• Indian star tortoise is an endangered species of tortoise found in dry areas and scrub forests in India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• Golden Mahseer is an endangered species of cyprinid fish found in rapid streams, river basins and lakes in the Himalayan region.

The correct answer is (a) - 1, (b) - 3, (c) - 2, (d) - 4.

Key Points

• Green Revolution:
• Boosted food production with high-yield crop varieties.
• Primarily focused on grains like wheat and rice.
• Implemented in the 1960s and 1970s to combat food shortages.
• White Revolution:
• Aims to increase milk production and dairy farming.
• Led to the establishment of dairy cooperatives.
• Initiated in the 1970s by the National Dairy Development Board.
• Blue Revolution:
• Targets the enhancement of fish production.
• Involves aquaculture and fisheries development.
• Focuses on sustainable fishing practices.
• Brown Revolution:
• Focuses on modernizing non-conventional crops.
• Includes crops like cocoa, coffee, and plantation crops.
• Aims to improve productivity and quality through advanced techniques.

Additional Information

• Yellow Revolution:
• Focuses on increasing oilseed production.
• Aims for self-sufficiency in edible oils.
• Promotes modern farming techniques.
• Silver Revolution:
• Targets growth in egg and poultry production.
• Emphasizes modern poultry farming.
• Addresses protein deficiency and creates jobs.
• Pink Revolution:
• Focuses on modernizing the meat and livestock industry.
• Aims for increased meat production and export.
• Improves animal husbandry practices.
• Golden Revolution:
• Aims to boost horticultural production.
• Focuses on fruits and vegetables.
• Enhances post-harvest infrastructure and promotes exports.

The correct answer is United Nations Environment Program.

Key Points

• Green Index: 
• The Green Index is a practical instrument to assess the environmental performance of MFIs.
• Aims to offer a comprehensive assessment of the environmental involvement of microfinance institutions (MFIs).
• Examines various strategies employed within the microfinance sector.
• Beneficial for MFIs, investors, microfinance rating agencies, and professional associations/networks of MFIs and technical assistance providers.
• Developed around three key dimensions: formal environmental strategy, environmental risk management, and green opportunities.
• The tool aims to:-
• Foster reflection on environmental responsibility and the triple bottom-line approach in microfinance.
• Promote the integration of green indicators in microfinance performance assessment tools.
• Have a pedagogical approach by disclosing the main environmental strategies that can be adopted and implemented by an MFI.

Additional Information

• United Nations Environment Programme: 
• International environmental authority.
• Establishes global environmental agenda.
• Promotes efficient implementation of UN Sustainable Development Programme's environmental dimension.
• Addressed rising pollution levels of the 1960s and 1970s.
• Aims for laws and regulations for environmental concerns, akin to other international bodies like ILO and WHO.
• These concerns were addressed at the 1972 United Nations Conference on Human Environment (also known as the Stockholm Conference).
• The Conference led to the adoption of the Stockholm Declaration (Declaration on the Human Environment).
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is comprised of 189 member countries.
• Each member nation holds representation on the IMF's executive board.
• Representation is proportionate to a country's financial significance.
• This allocation ensures that the most powerful economies possess the highest voting power.
• Thus, the most influential countries in the global economy hold more sway within the IMF.
• Objective:-
• Foster global monetary cooperation
• Secure financial stability
• Facilitate international trade
• Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth
• Reduce poverty around the world
• World Bank:
• International organization affiliated with the United Nations (UN).
• Headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• Largest source of financial assistance to developing countries.
• Finances projects for economic development.
• Provides technical assistance and policy advice.
• Supervises implementation of free-market reforms.
• Plays a central role in overseeing economic policy.
• Founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
• Officially began operations in June 1946.
• First loans focused on postwar reconstruction of western Europe.

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

• The basic structure of the Indian Constitution: 
• There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Indian Constitution.
• The idea that the Parliament cannot introduce laws that would amend the basic structure of the constitution evolved gradually over time and in many cases.
• The idea is to preserve the nature of Indian democracy and protect the rights and liberties of people.
• This doctrine helps to protect and preserve the spirit of the constitution document.
• It was the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case that brought this very idea of  “Basic Structure”.
• It held that the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”.
• The judgment listed some basic structures of the constitution as:-
• Supremacy of the Constitution
• Unity and sovereignty of India
• A democratic and republican form of government
• Federal character of the Constitution
• Secular character of the Constitution
• Separation of power
• Individual freedom

Additional Information

• Indra Sawhney's case:
• Also known as the Mandal Commission case.
• Deals with the implementation of reservations in public employment based on caste.
• Supreme Court upheld the reservation policy but capped it at 50%.
• S.R. Bommai's case:
• Pertains to the dismissal of the state government of Karnataka in 1989.
• Supreme Court asserted the principle of the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Held that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Established the basic structure doctrine as a guiding principle for constitutional interpretation.
• Rudal Shah's case:
• A case related to the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
• Rudal Shah, a death row convict, challenged the delay in the execution of his death sentence.
• Supreme Court held that prolonged delay in execution amounts to torture and violates the right to life.

The correct answer is Benegal Narasinga Rao.

Key Points

• BN Rao was also known as an advisor to the Indian Constitution.
• He and Sri Sachchidananda Sinha created the first draft of the Indian Constitution.
• He actively participated in drafting the Constitution of India.
• He has the distinction of being a permanent judge of the International Court of Justice.
• The Constituent Assembly framed India's constitution and its members later formed India's first parliament.
• The president of the constituent assembly was Rajendra Prasad and the chairman of the drafting committee was B.R. Ambedkar.

Additional Information

• Sarat Chandra Bose:
• Indian freedom fighter and politician.
• Brother of Subhas Chandra Bose.
• Played a prominent role in the Indian National Congress.
• ​Rafi Ahmed Kidwai:
• Indian independence activist and politician.
• Known for his contributions to the Indian National Congress and the freedom movement.
• Served as a Union Minister in independent India.
• ​K. M. Munshi
• Indian independence activist, politician, writer, and educationist.
• Founder of the Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan educational trust.
• Served as Minister for Food and Agriculture in the Government of India.
• Played a significant role in the freedom movement.

The correct answer is Swarn Singh Committee

Key Points

• Swaran Singh Committee
• In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
• The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution.
• The Congress Government at Center accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
• This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
• Though the Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties.

Additional Information

• The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Article 51A and in Part IV A of the Constitution of India.
• The original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties.
• They incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.
• In 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th amendment.
• So, at present there are a total of 11 Fundamental Duties are included in the Indian Constitution​
• The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
• Fundamental duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners
• Fundamental duties are non-justiciable

The correct answer is the President.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India also provides a set of regulations for the removal of the Supreme Court judge.
• Article 124(4) mentions those Removal regulations of the Supreme court judge as follows:
• A judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the president in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• Parliament may by law regulate the procedure for the presentation of an address and for the investigation and proof of the misbehavior or incapacity of a Judge under the previous Clause.

 Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria for Supreme Court Judge:
• The Indian Constitution says in Article 124 [3] that in order to be appointed as a judge in the Supreme Court of India, the person has to fit in the following criteria:
• He/She is a citizen of India
• He/She has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or
• He/She has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or
• He/She is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• Appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court:
• Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his/her hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Court in the States as President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of 65 years.
• Supreme Court held that the consultation with Chief Justice is not binding on the President.
• But the Court held that consultation should be effective.
• In Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association vs Union of India 1993, the Court stated that the view of the CJI is binding on the President, the Court also held that while advising the President CJI is expected to consult two of the senior-most Judges.

The correct answer is By the Chief Election Commissioner.

Key Points

• The Election Commissioner may be removed by the President on the advice of the Chief Election Commissioner.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a self-governing constitutional body that oversees the election process in India as per the Constitution of India.
• The ECI was set up on January 25, 1950, with the aim of defining and controlling the multi-tiered election process in our country.
• As per Article 324 of the Indian ConstItution, ECI has the supervisory and directional control of the complete process of election to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the office of the President and the Vice-President of India.
• The grounds for removal can be Incapacity or proven misbehavior.
• Article 324 (5) deals with:
• The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine.
• The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
• Article 324 (6) deals with:
• The President, or the Governor of a State, shall, when so requested by the Election Commission, make available to the Election Commission or to a Regional Commissioner such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the Election Commission by clause.

Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• The first election commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen.
• Articles 324 to 329 are related to the Election commission of India. Hence, it is a constitutional body.
• ECI comprises the chief election commissioner and two election commissioners appointed by the President.
• All Election Commissioners have equal say in the decision-making of the Commission.
• They have a tenure of 6 years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.

The correct answer is Golf.

Key Points

• The real name of “Tiger Woods” is Eldrick Tont Woods.
• He is a professional golfer.
• He is from America.
• He has won numerous awards in the field of golf and has won the Presidential Medal of freedom in 2019.

Additional Information

• Golf
• It is a precision club-and-ball sport in which players use various clubs to hit balls into a series of holes on a course in as few strokes as possible.
• It is a physically and mentally demanding sport that requires skill, concentration, and patience.
• The origins of golf are unclear, but it is believed to have originated in Scotland in the 15th century.
• The game gained popularity in the 18th and 19th centuries, and It is now played all over the world.
• Some famous personalities related to Golf
• Severiano, Nick Faldo, Miguel Tabuena, Seve Ballesteros, Tiger Woods, Babe Didrikson Zaharias.

The correct answer is In a vacuum.

Key Points

• There are two types of waves Transverse and Longitudinal waves.
• Transverse waves:
• ​ The waves that produce vibrations in the medium in a direction perpendicular to their propagation (eg. Light).
• Longitudinal waves:
• ​In these waves, the vibrations produced in a medium and their direction of propagation is the same.
• The transverse waves can travel in a vacuum but the longitudinal waves require a medium to travel through.
• Sound waves are longitudinal in nature and hence cannot travel in a vacuum.

Additional Information

• The speed of sound in dry air is 343 km/s.
• Speed of sound depends on the density of the material.
• It passes through and hence it is maximum in solids followed by liquids and then gases.
• Therefore its speed is maximum in steel, then in water and then air.

The correct answer is Option 1.

• Estrogen:
• Estrogen is the female sex hormone produced in the adrenal glands, ovaries, and fatty tissue, which is mainly responsible for the development of breasts in puberty and the growth of the uterus lining during the menstrual cycle.
• In females, the estrogen hormone prepares the uterus and other reproductive organs for pregnancy.
• It also regulates the menstrual cycle, growth of pubic and underarm hair and also maintains bone strength by collaborating with calcium, vitamin D, and other essential vitamin and minerals.
• Adrenaline:
• Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland.
• Adrenaline hormones are rapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind and during emergency situations and are called emergency hormones or hormones of Fight or Flight.
• When we get angry or in any stressful situation, our heartbeats fasts, blood pressure increases this is due to the adrenaline rush into the bloodstream.
• Adrenaline prepares our body to face such a type of crisis.
• Insulin:
• It is a Protein hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets.
• It is considered to be the main anabolic hormone of the body.
• It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein by promoting the absorption of glucose from the blood into liver, fat and skeletal muscle cells.
• The absorbed glucose is converted into either glycogen via glycogenesis or fats via lipogenesis.
• Beta cells are sensitive to blood sugar levels so they secrete insulin into the blood in response to high level of glucose.
• Insulin helps to keep the blood sugar level from getting too high (Hyperglycemia) or too low (Hypoglycemia).
• Pheromones:
• These are the chemical signals secreted by one organism into the environment, and detected by another organism of the same species.
• This triggers a social response between the two organisms.
• There are different types of pheromones like
• alarm pheromones,
• food trail pheromones,
• sex pheromones, and
• many others that affect behaviour or physiology.
• For example, sex pheromones are pheromones released by an organism to attract an individual of the opposite or same sex, encourage them to mate with them or perform some other function closely related to sexual reproduction.
• Pheromones are also used to communicate with animals of the same species.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is 1,000 kg CO₂

Key Points

• One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to 1000 kg of carbon dioxide.
• It is the difference between the carbon emissions allowed and actually emitted carbon.
• A carbon credit is a permit that allows the company that holds it to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases.
• One credit permits the emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide.

Additional Information

• The United Nations' Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) developed a carbon credit proposal to reduce worldwide carbon emissions in a 1997 agreement known as the Kyoto Protocol.
• The agreement set binding emission reduction targets for the countries that signed it.
• Another agreement, known as the Marrakesh Accords, spelled out the rules for how the system would work..

The correct answer is Silicon.

Key Points

• Solar Cells are devices that convert solar energy into electric energy, they are also known as Photovoltaic cells.
• Solar cells are made from silicon boules. These are polycrystalline structures that have the atomic structure of a single crystal.
• Solar efficiency is defined as the percentage of total sunlight coming on the cell converted to electricity.
• Note that the Czochralski method is the common method used to form solar cells.
• Thin-film solar cells are manufactured by placing several thin layers of photovoltaic on top of each other to create the module.

Additional Information

• India's largest solar power plants are as below-
• Bhadla Solar Park - Rajasthan - 2245 MW capacity
• Pavagada Solar Park - Karnataka - 2050 MW
• Kurnool Solar Park - Andra Pradesh - 1000 MW
• Rewa Solar Park - MP - 750 MW

The correct answer is Tungsten

Key Points

• The metal tungsten is used for the filaments in incandescent bulbs.
• It has a high melting point and retains its strength when heated.
• Filaments of the light bulbs are made up of the Tungsten element.
• Its symbol is ‘W’ because of its scientific name ‘Wolfram’ and
• It's atomic number 74.

Additional Information

• As the resistance is less, heat energy is produced is very low which is not sufficient for an electric bulb to glow so the resistance is kept high.
• Tungsten is very resistant to corrosion and has the highest melting point (melting point = 3695 K) and the highest tensile strength of any element.
• Tungsten is used for making bulb filaments of incandescent lamps because it has the highest melting point and does not melt even while it is glowing for long hours.
• Light bulb filaments aren't resistive because of the tungsten.
• They're resistive because of their **very long length, and very thin wire.**​

The current answer is Mercury poisoning.

Key Points

• Minamata disease is a central nervous disorder in which 
  

the victims of the disease suffered from

• mental retardation, severe birth defects, sight and hearing loss, paralysis, and in the worst case it led to death.
• It is the first epidemic caused by industrial water pollution.
• Its first case was reported in 1956.

 Additional Information

• **The first incident of Minamata Mercury poisoning occurred in Minamata Gulf Japan.**​
• The main cause of the pollution of Minamata Gulf was the discharge of Mercury into the water body.
• The company responsible for the disaster was the chemical company Chisso.
• The Minamata Gulf  is located in southeastern Kyushu, Japan.
• Consumption of that water and its seafood caused mercury poisoning.
• The contamination of the water body led to an epidemic called Minamata disease, which was caused by continuous consumption of seafood especially shellfish which contained mercury content in water.
• Minamata Gulf was determined to be mercury-free as of July 1997.

The Correct Answer is Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

Key Points

• According to article 65 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President is to act as President or to discharge his functions during casual vacancies in the office by reason of his death, resignation, or removal of President.
• So, in India, the Vice President takes charge as acting president in the incident of resignation impeachment, or removal of the President.
• The Vice-President shall, during the period while he is discharging the functions of, the President, have all the powers and immunities of the President.
• He is also entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law and as specified in the Second Schedule.
• When the office of the President and Vice-President fall vacant simultaneously, the Chief Justice acts as President.​

Additional Information

• Mohammad Hidayatullah OBE was the 11th Chief Justice of India serving from 25 February 1968 to 16 December 1970, and the sixth vice president of India, serving from 31 August 1979 to 30 August 1984.
• Basappa Danappa Jatti was the fifth vice president of India, serving from 1974 to 1979.
• He was acting president of India from 11 February to 25 July 1977.
• The soft-spoken Jatti rose from a humble beginning as a Municipality member to India's second-highest office during a five-decade-long chequered political career.
• Varahagiri Venkata Giri was an Indian politician and activist who served as the 4th president of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974 and 3rd vice president of India from 13 May 1967 to 3 May 1969
• He was the only president to be elected as an independent candidate.

The Correct Answer is Pokhran.

Key Points

• Nuclear Explosion​
• The Code name for this test was  'Smiling Buddha'.
• Mrs. Indira Gandhi was the Prime minister of India at that time
• India became the 6th country in the world to conduct a successful nuclear test.
• After the 1974 tests, India conducted five tests, three on May 11 and two on May 13, 1998.
• 11 May is celebrated as National Technology day in India.
• The test was conducted in Pokharan, Rajasthan.
• The nuclear program in India was initiated in the late 1940s under the supervision of Homi J. Bhabha.
• India had adopted a policy of the No-First Use of nuclear weapons.
• Raja Ramanna was the scientist who was associated with the first nuclear explosion in Pokharan.

Important Points

• ​Pokhran 2​
• It was a series of 5 nuclear bombs tested on 11 May 1998.
• The code name was Operation Shakti
• In 3 day operation, 1 fusion bomb and 4 fission bombs were tested.

The Correct Answer is Nitrous Oxide and Sulfur Dioxide.

Key Points

• Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air.
• These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.
• Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides dissolve very easily in water and can be carried very far by the wind.
• As a result, the two compounds can travel long distances where they become part of the rain, sleet, snow, and fog that we experience on certain days.
• Human activities are the main cause of acid rain.
• Over the past few decades, humans have released so many different chemicals into the air that they have changed the mix of gases in the atmosphere.
• Power plants release the majority of sulfur dioxide and much of the nitrogen oxides when they burn fossil fuels, such as coal, to produce electricity.
• In addition, the exhaust from cars, trucks, and buses releases nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide into the air. These pollutants cause acid rain.

Additional Information

• Acid Rain is Caused by Reactions in the Environment
• Nature depends on balance, and although some rain is naturally acidic, with a pH level of around 5.0, human activities have made it worse.
• Normal precipitation - such as rain, sleet, or snow—reacts with alkaline chemicals, or non-acidic materials, that can be found in air, soils, bedrock, lakes, and streams.
• These reactions usually neutralize natural acids. However, if precipitation becomes too acidic, these materials may not be able to neutralize all of the acids.
• Over time, these neutralizing materials can be washed away by acid rain.
• Damage to crops, trees, lakes, rivers, and animals can result.

The correct answer is Azola.

Key Points

• Azolla is a water fern known to form a symbiotic relationship with a nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium (Anabaena azollae), allowing it to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that is usable by plants.
• This feature makes Azolla useful as a green manure for improving soil fertility organically.
• It is often incorporated into the soil to increase the nitrogen content, making it beneficial for crops.

Additional Information

• Neem:
• While neem has applications in organic agriculture, it is predominantly used for pest control rather than as a direct fertilizer.
• Neem oil and neem cake, a by-product of oil extraction, can enhance soil health and reduce nematode populations but are not primarily nutrients sources.
• Urea:
• Urea is a synthetic nitrogen fertilizer and is not considered organic.
• It is highly soluble in water and is the most commonly used nitrogen fertilizer in the world, designed to provide nitrogen to plants in a directly usable form.
• However, since it's chemically synthesized, it does not qualify as an organic fertilizer.
• Potassium:
• Potassium is a nutrient needed by plants, but in the context of fertilizers, it is often supplied in the form of synthetic compounds like potassium chloride (KCl) or potassium sulfate (K2SO4), which are not organic.
• Organic sources of potassium include certain types of compost, kelp meal, or wood ash, but simply stating "potassium" does not specify an organic source.

The Correct Answer is Charcoal, Sulfur and Potassium Nitrate.

Key Points

• Gun powder is a mixture of sulfur(10%), charcoal(15%) and potassium nitrate(75%).
• Potassium nitrate is also known as Saltpetre.
• The sulfur and charcoal (form of carbon) acts as feuls and potassium nitrate is used as oxidizer.
• Since, Saltpetre acts as oxidizer, gunpowder does not require external oxygen to explode. That is why it is used in mining.
• It is used in firearms, artillery, mining and road building.
• Gunpowder does not burn in a single reaction, hence the byproducts cannot be predicted easily.

The Correct Answer is Cancer.

Key Points

• Arsenic is and has been used medicinally.
• Arsenic is currently used for induction and consolidation chemotherapy for acute promyelocytic leukemia and other cancers.
• Arsenic may be found in some traditional remedies from a number of Asian countries.
• Arsenic may also be found in some naturopathic or homeopathic remedies
• “Fowlers solution,” which is 1% arsenic trioxide, was used historically to treat skin conditions such as psoriasis and eczema.
• It was also used to treat leukemia and stomatitis.
• When skin cancer resulted from the use of Fowler’s solution, there was a marked decrease in medicinal use of arsenic
• Arsphenamin (Salvarsan) was the first effective cure for syphilis until replaced by antibiotics after World War II.

Additional Information

• AIDS -
• AIDS stands for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. AIDS is the most advanced stage of HIV infection.
• HIV attacks and destroys the infection-fighting CD4 cells (CD4 T lymphocyte) of the immune system.
• The loss of CD4 cells makes it difficult for the body to fight off infections, illnesses, and certain cancers.
• Typhoid - 
• Persons with typhoid fever carry the bacteria in their bloodstream and intestinal tract.
• Symptoms include prolonged high fever, fatigue, headache, nausea, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhoea.
• Some patients may have a rash. Severe cases may lead to serious complications or even death.
• Cholera - 
• Cholera is an acute diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with Vibrio cholerae bacteria.
• People can get sick when they swallow food or water contaminated with cholera bacteria.
• The infection is often mild or without symptoms, but can sometimes be severe and life-threatening.

The Correct Answer is Wrought Iron.

Key Points

• Iron​
• Iron is generally of the following types:-
• Pure iron has a Fe content of 99.85% with a very small amount of impurities.
• It is silvery-colored metal and is soft in nature.
• Wrought iron is a commercial carbon and has a very low carbon content of 0.10%.
• It is a very pure iron where the iron content is of the order of 99.5%.
• It is also called commercially pure Iron.
• Wrought iron is a pure form of Fe with a small amount of slag (CaSiO3) that gives resistance to progressive corrosion.
• Cast iron has major elements that contain iron, carbon, and silicon.
• It has higher carbon and silicon content than steel.
• Pig iron is an iron-carbon alloy in which contains carbon and other elements such as silicon, manganese, sulphur, phosphorous etc.
• Stainless steel is a group of iron-based alloy that contains 11% chromium.
• It is resistant to rust due to the presence of chromium.​

Important Points

• Iron is an element with Atomic no. 26 and is Transition metal.
• Its atomic mass is 56 and is denoted by the symbol Fe.
• Iron ores are most abundant in the earth’s crust.
• The pure form of elements is those which has maximum percentage of element and has very low impurities.​

Additional Information

• Wrought Iron is produced by re-melting pig iron and some small amount of silicon, sulphur, or phosphorus may be present. It is tough, malleable and ductile and can easily be forged or welded.
• It cannot however take the sudden shock.
• Chains, crane hooks, railway couplings and such other components may be made of this iron.
• Wrought iron can never be cast.

The Correct Answer is Stearic Acid.

Key Points

• Sodium stearate is the most common fatty acid salt in today's soaps.
• Common sources of the starting material, stearic acid, are vegetable triglycerides obtained from coconut and palm oils and animal triglycerides from tallow.
• The names stearic and stearate are derived from stéar, the Greek word for tallow.

Additional Information

• Amyl Alcohol - 
• The name amyl alcohol without further specification applies to the normal (straight-chain) form, 1-pentanol. Three of these alcohols, 2-methyl-1-butanol, 2-pentanol, and 3-methyl-2-butanol (methyl isopropyl carbinol), contain stereocenters, and are therefore chiral and optically active.
• Picric Acid - 
• Picric acid (CAS No. 88‐89‐1; 2,4,6‐trinitrophenol, picronitric acid) is a pale yellow, odorless crystal that is slightly soluble in water.
• It is primarily used as a staining reagent and in synthesis reactions.
• Carbolic Acid - 
• Carbolic acid (commonly known as phenol) is an aromatic chemical molecule with the molecular formula C₆H₅OH and the molecular formula C6H5OH.
• It is a flammable white crystalline substance.
• Carbolic acid is the simplest member of the phenol family of organic compounds.

The Correct Answer is Sewage.

Key Points

• Biodegradable
• ​Waste Materials​
• Waste materials are either liquid or solid in form, and their components may be either hazardous or inert in their effects on health and the environment.
• The term waste is typically applied to solid waste, sewage (wastewater), hazardous waste, and electronic waste.
• Biodegradable waste​
• Those substances that can be decomposed by the action of decomposers like bacteria and fungi are called biodegradable wastes.
• For example organic matter like human excreta, animal waste, dead bodies of plants and animals, leftover food items, etc.
• Non-biodegradable waste​
• Those substances that can not be decomposed by the action of decomposers like bacteria and fungi are called non-biodegradable wastes.
• For example plastic, rubber, glass, artificial clothes like nylon, rayon, electronic waste like batteries, etc.

The Correct Answer is Copper and Zinc.

Key Points

• Brass​
• Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.
• In proportions, it can be varied to achieve varying mechanical and electrical properties.
• An alloy is a metallic intimately mixed solid mixture of two or more different elements.
• An alloy in which one of the components is mercury is known as amalgam.

Additional Information

• Other Important Alloy

The Correct Answer is Freon.

Key Points

• Freon​
• In a refrigerator, the refrigerant is freon.
• Freons are chemically known as fluorinated hydrocarbons.
• Certain appliances, such as refrigerators, air conditioners, and freezers, contain chemicals called fluorinated hydrocarbons.
• Freon compound is used for heat transfer to keep the internal compartment of your refrigerator cool and ensure that your food is kept at the proper temperature.
• Freon exists in gaseos state. The chemical formula of freon is CCl2F2.​​

Additional Information

• Inert Gas​
• An inert gas is a gas that does not form chemical reactions with other chemical substances and therefore does not form chemical compounds.
• Traditionally, the term has been used to describe the seven elements in group 18 of the periodic table:
• Helium (He)
• Neon (Ne)
• Argon (Ar)
• Krypton (Kr)
• Xenon (Xe)
• Radon (Rn)
• Oganesson (Og).
• Two other inert gases exist as a compound, and they include nitrogen gas and carbon dioxide.
• These are located on the far right-hand side of the periodic table.​
• These gases are generally referred to as noble gases. 
• The noble gases are colorless, odorless, tasteless, and nonflammable gases.
• Their electronic structures and the finding that some of them do indeed form compounds have led to the more appropriate designation, Group 18.

The Correct Answer is Mg and Fe.

Key Points

• Chlorophyll is a green plant pigment that plays an important role in photosynthesis.
• Haemoglobin is present in red blood cells.
• Chlorophyll - 
• A green pigment present in plants, algae and cyanobacteria is known as chlorophyll.
• The green colour of plants is due to the presence of chlorophyll pigment.
• Chlorophyll pigment plays a very important role in photosynthesis.
• Photosynthesis is a process where plants, algae and cyanobacteria produced food using light energy.
• In this process, there is a conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
• Each chlorophyll molecule contains a central magnesium atom (Mg) surrounded by a porphyrin ring.
• Magnesium, a metal present in chlorophyll, absorbs light energy during the photosynthesis process.
• Thus, chlorophyll contains Mg.
• Haemoglobin  - 
• Haemoglobin is a protein present in red blood cells.
• An essential metal, iron (Fe), is present in haemoglobin.
• Haemoglobin is made of heme and globin groups.
• Each haemoglobin molecule contains four heme groups that are surrounded by globin groups.
• The red colour of the blood is due to the presence of iron in the heme group.
• Haemoglobin present in red blood cells helps them to bind with oxygen in the lungs.
• Thus haemoglobin helps to transport the oxygen from lungs to tissues and also helps to carry the carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs.
• Thus, haemoglobin contains Fe.

The Correct Answer is Baquerel.

Key Points

• The SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel (Bq) and this term is named after Henri Becquerel.
• A unit of radioactivity is defined as the activity of a quantity of radioactive material where one decay takes place per second.
• 1 becquerel = 1 radioactive decay per second = 2.703×10^-11 Ci

Additional Information

• Other Radioactivity Units:
• There are usually three radioactivity units.
• An older radioactivity unit is the curie (Ci) and the name has been taken from Pierre and Marie Curie.
• It is defined as that quantity of any radioactive substance which gives 3.7 X 10¹⁰s^-1 disintegration per second (dps).
• Sometimes millicurie (mc) and microcurie (mc) are also used.
• Another unit is Rutherford (rd) and it is defined as the amount of radioactive substance which gives 10⁶ disintegrations per second (dps).
• 1 curie = 3.7×10¹⁰ radioactive decays per second.
• 1 becquerel = 1 radioactive decay per second = 2.703×10^-11 Ci.
• 1 rutherford = 1.106 radionuclide decays per second

The Correct answer is Potassium Permanganate.

Key Points

• Potassium Permanganate​
• Potassium Permanganate is an inorganic chemical compound which has KMnO₄ as its chemical formula.
• It is a salt consisting of K⁺ and MnO− 4 ions.
• It is a strong oxidizing agent.
• It is used as a medication for cleaning wounds and dermatitis.
• These impurities are then filtered out of the water.
• It is a salt consisting of K⁺ and MnO− 4 ions. It is a strong oxidizing agent.
• It is used as a medication for cleaning wounds and dermatitis.

Additional Information

• Potassium Nitrate
• One naturally occurring mineral source of nitrogen is the chemical compound potassium nitrate.
• It has the chemical formula KNO3 and is a nitrate.
• By adding strong sulfuric acid to an aqueous solution of potassium nitrate, nitric acid and potassium sulfate are produced, which are then separated using fractional distillation, making this one of the most practical uses of potassium nitrate.
• It is used as a form of fertiliser as it contains all the macronutrients needed for plants to grow.
• Other applications for potassium nitrate include model rocket propellant, and a variety of fireworks, including smoke bombs.
• Potassium Nitrate is also the main component in stump remover; it accelerates the natural decomposition of the stump.
• Some toothpaste for sensitive teeth contain it, and it has also been used in the production of ice cream.
• ​Sodium Thiosulfate​
• Sodium thiosulfate (sodium hyposulfite), Na₂S₂O₃, is used by photographers to fix developed negatives and prints.
• It acts by dissolving the part of the silver salts coated onto film which remains unchanged by exposure to light.
• Calcium Phosphate​
• Calcium Phosphate refers to a group of compounds that contain Calcium ions (Ca⁺²) and inorganic phosphorous anions and is found in milk, bones and teeth.
• It is also called Tricalcium phosphate and appears as a white odourless amorphous or crystalline powder and is tasteless.
• It is insoluble in ethanol and acetic acid but soluble in dilute nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (HCl).
• It can be produced by reacting Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) and solid Calcium Hydroxide (Ca(OH)2).
• The chemical formula of Calcium Phosphate is Ca3(PO4)2.
• Calcium phosphate is used as an antacid and dietary supplement in medicine, as calcium replenishment, as a stabilizer in plastics, manufacturing of milk glass etc.

The correct answer is hydrogen.

Key Points

• The gas used in the manufacture of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is hydrogen.
• At high pressure, in the presence of a nickel catalyst, hydrogen is mixed with vegetable oils, ;which turns them into vegetable ghee.
• This process is called the hydrogenation of oils.
• Hydrogen:
• Hydrogen is the chemical element having the symbol H and atomic number 1.
• With a normal atomic weight of 1.008, hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table.
• Hydrogen is the most copious chemical substance in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all baryonic mass.
• Hydrogen gas ;is used by industry for refining petroleum, treating metals, producing fertiliser, and processing foods.

Additional Information

• Nitrogen:
• Nitrogen (N), a nonmetallic element of Group 15 [Va] of the periodic table.
• It is a colourless, odourless, tasteless gas that is the most plentiful element in Earth’s atmosphere and is a constituent of all living matter.
• Elemental nitrogen can be used as an inert atmosphere for reactions requiring the exclusion of oxygen and moisture.
• In the liquid state, nitrogen has valuable cryogenic applications; except for the gases hydrogen, methane, carbon monoxide, fluorine, and oxygen, practically all chemical substances have negligible vapour pressures at the boiling point of nitrogen and exist, therefore, as crystalline solids at that temperature.
• Carbon dioxide:
• Carbon dioxide, (CO2), a colourless gas with a faint, sharp odour and a sour taste.
• It is one of the most important greenhouse gases linked to global warming, but it is a minor component of Earth’s atmosphere (about 3 volumes in 10,000), formed in the combustion of carbon-containing materials, in fermentation, and in the respiration of animals, and employed by plants in the photosynthesis of carbohydrates.
• The presence of the gas in the atmosphere keeps some of the radiant energy received by Earth from being returned to space, thus producing the so-called greenhouse effect.
• Industrially, it is recovered for numerous diverse applications from flue gases, as a by-product of the preparation of hydrogen for the synthesis of ammonia, from limekilns, and from other sources.
• Carbon dioxide is used as a refrigerant, in fire extinguishers, for inflating life rafts and life jackets, blasting coal, foaming rubber and plastics, promoting the growth of plants in greenhouses, immobilising animals before slaughter, and in carbonated beverages.

The Correct Answer is Caffeine.

Key Points

• Some soft drinks do contain caffeine which is a drug, of sorts.
• Other soft drinks, like ginger ale, Sprite, 7-up, most root beers, and the caffeine-free versions of colas are just fizzy drinks.
• Read the label because some sodas have caffeine when you wouldn't expect it—like Sunkist.

Additional Information

• Valium - 
• Diazepam is a medication that treats anxiety, seizures, muscle spasms or twitches.
• It can also reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
• It works by helping your nervous system calm down.
• The brand name of this medication is Valium
• Cocaine - 
• Cocaine is an ester local anesthetic used during diagnostic procedures and surgeries in or through the nasal cavities.
• An alkaloid ester extracted from the leaves of plants including coca.
• It is a local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor and is clinically used for that purpose, particularly in the eye, ear, nose, and throat.
• It also has powerful central nervous system effects similar to the amphetamines and is a drug of abuse.
• Cocaine, like amphetamines, acts by multiple mechanisms on brain catecholaminergic neurons; the mechanism of its reinforcing effects is thought to involve inhibition of dopamine uptake.
• Opium - 
• Opium is a depressant drug, which means it slows down the messages travelling between your brain and body.
• It is derived from the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum L.) and is one of the earliest plants recorded for medicinal use.

The Correct is (a) - 2, (b) - 1, (c) - 4, (d) - 3.

Key Points

• Kiwi​
• The scientific name of Kiwi is Apteryx Mantelli.
• They are mostly found in New Zealand.
• Its egg is one of the largest in proportion to the body size up to 20 percent of the female's weight of any species of bird in the world.
• They eat small stones as they don't have teeth when food reaches the gizzard (second stomach) the stones present in the gizzard helps in grinding fibrous food.
• They eat plant material, seeds, berries, and insects

​​                  

• Silver Fish
• ​Given that Silverfish live where conditions are wet and humid.
• their presence could be a sign that there is a water issue in your house.
• it could be a leaky pipe, or water coming from outside of your home.
• You might also discover damp or rotting wood in areas where you find Silverfish

                    

• Limbless animal​
• Class Amphibia has a sub-class Apoda.
• The members of this class are without limbs.
• They are commonly called caecilians.
• Limbless animal
• ​Snakes are limbless animals that belong to the suborder Serpentes under the class Reptilia.
• They feed on earthworms and other soft-bodied animals.
• They feed on invertebrates, other reptiles, mammals, birds and insects.
• They are mostly burrowers, living under moist soils near streams, lakes and ponds.

The Correct Answer is West to East.

Key Points

• Geostationary Satellite
• The satellite which appears stationary relative to the earth is called a geostationary or geosynchronous satellite.
• ​The satellite having a time period equal to 24 hours is called a geostationary satellite.
• Such a satellite appears stationary due to its zero relative velocity w.r.t. that place on earth.
• The orbit of a geostationary satellite is known as the parking orbit.
• A geostationary orbit has an orbital period equal to the Earth’s rotational period i.e. 23 hours, 56 minutes, 4 seconds, which is rounded off to 24 hours.
• The geostationary satellite revolves in an orbit such that it completes one revolution with the earth.
• So time period is equal to the time period of the earth.
• They rotate in the same direction as the earth.
• A geostationary satellite is quite expensive and television DTH uses this satellite.

                ​​​​

Important Points

• The time period of the satellite: It is the time taken by the satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth.
• Consider a satellite orbiting the earth at a height h from the surface of the earth of radius R.
• The circumference of orbit of satellite = 2π(R+h)
• The orbital velocity of the satellite at a height h is given by,

The Correct Answer is From Ultraviolet Rays.

Key Points

• The ozone layer is mainly found in the stratosphere.
• Ozone layer acts as a shield that absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
• UV rays are highly injurious to living organisms since DNA and proteins of living organisms preferentially absorb UV rays, and its high energy breaks the chemical bonds within these molecules.
• UV-B damages DNA and mutation may occur.
• It causes aging of the skin, damage to skin cells and various types of skin cancers.

Additional Information

• Infra-Red Rays - 
• Infrared waves have longer wavelengths than visible light and can pass through dense regions of gas and dust in space with less scattering and absorption.
• Thus, infrared energy can also reveal objects in the universe that cannot be seen in visible light using optical telescopes.
• X-Rays -
• X-rays use invisible electromagnetic energy beams to produce images of internal tissues, bones, and organs on film or digital media.
• Standard X-rays are performed for many reasons, including diagnosing tumors or bone injuries.
• Gamma rays - 
• Gamma rays have the smallest wavelengths and the most energy of any wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.
• They are produced by the hottest and most energetic objects in the universe, such as neutron stars and pulsars, supernova explosions, and regions around black holes.

The Correct Answer is (a) - 2, (b) - 1, (c) - 4, (d) - 3.

Key Points

• Great Indian Bustard -
• The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps), is a bustard native to the Indian subcontinent.
• Bustards are large terrestrial birds found in dry grasslands and steppe regions. Also known as the Indian Bustard, it is among the heaviest of flying birds in existence.
• Indian Rock Python - 
• The Indian rock pythons (Python molurus) are classified as a near-threatened snake species by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN); they are native to the Indian subcontinent and have experienced population declines caused primarily by poaching and habitat loss.​
• Asiatic Elephant - 
• Large herds of elephants once roamed freely throughout Asia’s forests and grasslands.
• Today, the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus) is classified as endangered according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List.
• Estimates range from 30,000 to 50,000 in the wild, with continued declines mainly caused by habitat loss, human-elephant conflict and poaching.
• Slotha Bear - 
• Sloth bear, (Melursus ursinus), forest-dwelling bear (family Ursidae) that inhabits tropical or subtropical regions of India and Sri Lanka.
• Named for its slow-moving habits, the sloth bear has poor senses of sight and hearing but a good sense of smell.
• Various adaptations equip this nocturnal animal for raiding insect colonies. With long curved front claws extending from large paws, it can dig toward and rip open a nest of bees or termites.
• Inserting its long snout into the nest and closing its nostrils (thereby preventing entry of insects into its respiratory passages), the sloth bear opens its protrusible lips and sucks in the insects through the gap in its teeth caused by the lack of central upper incisors.
• Supplements to this diet include fruit, honey, grains, and small vertebrates.

Shortcut Trick

R = (7000/50000)×100 = 14%

Rate for 5 years = 14×5 = 70%

A = (70000/100)×170 = 119000

Alternate MethodGiven:

Principal amount (P) = Rs 50,000

Final amount (A) = Rs 57,000

Time (T) = 1 year

Concept:

We need to find the rate of interest (R) first. Once we have the rate, we can use it to calculate the amount after 5 years when the principal is Rs 70,000.

Formula Used:

SI = A − P

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:

SI = A − P

= 57000 − 50000 = 7,000

Solve for R,

SI = (P × R × T)/100

7000 = (50000 × R × 1)/100

R = 70/5 = 14%

Now, we have found the rate of interest (R) to be 14%.

Calculate the amount after 5 years when the principal is Rs 70000:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

SI = (70000 × 14 × 5)/100 = 49000

Amount = Principal + Interest

A = 70000 + 49000 = 119000

∴  Rs 70,000 will become Rs 119,000 after 5 years at the same rate of simple interest.

Given:

Tap A can fill a tank in 8 hours

Tap B can fill a tank in 6 hours

Concept used:

LCM Method used

Calculation:

Let the total capacity of the tank be 24 units (LCM of 8 and 6)

⇒ A fills = 24/8 = 3 units

⇒ B fills = 24/6 = 4 units

Let the time for which A is closed in 2 hours

According to the question:

⇒ 4 × x + 3 × 2 + 4 × 2 = 24

⇒ 4x + 14 = 24

⇒ 4x = 24 - 14 = 10

⇒ x = 10/4 = 5/2 = $2\frac{1}{2}$ hr

∴ In $2\frac{1}{2}$ hours will the second tap B fill the tank completely.

Given:

When 75 is added to 75% of a number, the result is that number itself.

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

x = 75 + 75% of x

⇒ x = 75 + 0.75 × x

⇒ x - 0.75x = 75

⇒ 0.25x = 75

⇒ x = 75 / 0.25

⇒ x = 300

Now, finding 40% of x:

40% of 300 = 0.40 × 300 = 120

∴ 40% of the number is 120.

Given:

Average age of 4 boys (5 years ago) = 9

Average of 5 boys at present = 15 years

Formula used:

Average = Sum of Observations/Number of Observations

Calculation:

Average = 9 = Total age of 4 boys / 4

Total age of 4 boys (5 years ago) = 9 × 4 = 36

Total age of 4 boys at present = 36 + (5 × 4) = 56 years

Total age of all 5 boys at present = 15 × 5 = 75

Age of 5th boy at present = Age of all 5 boys - Age of 4 boys (At present)

Age of 5th boy = 75 - 56 = 19 years

∴ The correct answer is 19 years.

Given:

Select a number that is divisible by both 2 and 4 from the list.

Concept used:

​To check for divisibility by 2: A number must be even (i.e., its last digit is 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8).

To check for divisibility by 4: The last two digits of the number form a number that is divisible by 4.

Calculation:

6879376:

Divisible by 2 (last digit is 6)

Divisible by 4 (last two digits "76" form a number that is divisible by 4)

496138:

Divisible by 2 (last digit is 8)

Not divisible by 4 (last two digits "38" do not form a number that is divisible by 4)

687022:

Divisible by 2 (last digit is 2)

Divisible by 4 (last two digits "22" do not form a number that is divisible by 4)

798126:

Divisible by 2 (last digit is 6)

Not divisible by 4 (last two digits "26" do not form a number that is divisible by 4)

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

Given:

Length of the train = 50 meters

Length of the platform = 100 meters

Time taken to cross the platform = 10 seconds

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Total distance covered by the train = Length of the train + Length of the platform

⇒ 50 meters + 100 meters = 150 meters

Time taken = 10 seconds

Therefore, speed of the train = Total distance covered / Time taken

⇒ 150 meters / 10 seconds = 15 meters/second

∴ The speed of the train is 15 meters per second.

Given:

The ratio of ages of two persons = 4 : 7

One of them is older than the other = 30 years

Calculation:

Let, the ratio of ages of two persons = 4x : 7x

Difference between two persons = 30

According to the question,

⇒ 7x - 4x = 30

⇒ 3x = 30

⇒ x = 10

The sum of their ages = 7x + 4x = 11x

The sum of of their ages = 11 × 10 = 110

∵ The sum of their ages is 110.

Shortcut TrickThe ratio of ages of two persons = 4 : 7

⇒ 3 unit = 30

⇒ 1 unit = 10

⇒ The sum of ages = 11 × 10 = 110

Given:

Marked Price = 12000 and Selling Price = 11000

Formula used:

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Discount % = (Discount/Marked Price)  × 100)

Calculation:

Discount = 12000 - 11000 = 1000

Discount % =  (1000/12000) × 100=​ 8.33% = $8\frac{1}{3} \%$

∴ The Discount rate is $8\frac{1}{3} \%$.

Given:

Runs scored in 17th innings = 87

Average increased by 3 runs

Formula used:

Average score = Sum of runs scored/total innings

Calculations:

Let 'x' be the average before 17th innings

Total runs scored before 17th innings = 16x

According to the question,

(16x + 87)/17 = x + 3

⇒ 16x + 87 = 17x + 51

⇒ 17x - 16x = 87 - 51

⇒ x = 36

Thus, average score after 17th innings = 36 + 3 = 39

∴ His running average after seventeen innings is 39.

Shortcut TrickNet increased in runs at 17th innings = 3 × 17 = 51 runs

Average score before 17th innings = 87 - 51 = 36 runs

Thus, average score after 17th innings = 36 + 3 = 39

∴ His running average after seventeen innings is 39.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) of the article = Rs 5,000

Discount given = 5%

Profit earned = 25%

Formula used:

SP = MP - Discount

Profit % = [(SP - CP)/CP] × 100

CP = SP × 100/(100 + P %)

Calculation:

Discount Amount = (5 / 100) × 5,000 = Rs 250 

Sale Price = Marked Price - Discount = 5,000 - 250 = Rs 4,750

Now, Profit % = 25,

CP = SP × 100/(100 + P %)

CP = 4750 × 100/(100 + 25)

4750 × 100/125 = Rs. 3800

∴ The purchase price of the item is Rs 3,800.

Given:

A person Walks 1 km towards the east,

then turns south and walks 5 km,

Again he turned towards the east and walked 2 km,

Then he turned north and walked 9 km.

For the distance between the final and the initial point; we have to apply the Pythagorean theorem,

⇒ $\sqrt{3^2+4^2} = \sqrt{9+16} = \sqrt 25 = 5$

So, the distance between the initial point and the final point is 5 km,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

A person is standing facing south,

He turns 135° in an anti-clockwise direction,

Then 180° in a clockwise direction.

The below given diagram shows the direction of a man.

So, he is facing south-west now.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".