BPSC Assistant 2019 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is "Ashoka-Charumati".

 Key Points

• Maharani Jaivanta was the mother of Maharana Pratap.
• Rani Anasuya was the mother of Porus.
• Jijabai was the other of Shivaji.
• Charumati was the daughter of Ashoka.​

Additional Information

• Maharana Pratap​

• Porus
• Porus was the Indian prince who ruled the region between the Hydaspes (Jhelum) and Acesines (Chenab) rivers at the time of Alexander the Great’s invasion (327–326 BCE) of Punjab.
• Shivaji
• He was the second son of Shahaji.
• He was the creator of the Maratha nation.
• He united the Maratha Chiefs from Malwa, Konkan, and Desh regions to carve out a small kingdom.
• He took control of the hereditary Jagir after the death of his guardian Konadev in 1647.
• He was born in the hill fort of Shivner in 1627. He began his military career at a young age.
• He captured the fort of Toran in 1656.
• From 1656, he started capturing many other forts from the local officers of Bijapur.
• Shivaji was formally crowned as the Chhatrapati (Monarch) of his realm at Raigad in 1674.
• Ashoka
• Ashoka the Great belonged to the Maurya Dynasty.
• The great ruler Ashoka ruled between 273 – 232 BC.
• This dynasty was formed by Chandragupta Maurya, in present-day Bihar, after Defeating the Nanda dynasty ruler-Dhanananda.

According to the English dictionary and their positional values:

Given:

R = 18 

And,

RANCHI = (18 + 1 + 14 + 3 + 8 + 9) = 53

Similarly,

BANKA = (2 + 1 + 14 + 11 + 1) = 29

Hence, the correct answer is "29".

According to the English dictionary and their positional values:

Given:

CD, HI, MN, RS, ?

Logic:

Here, "WX" is the correct answer as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "WX".

Calculation:

The first five odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9

The sum of the first five odd numbers is 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 = 25.

Checking option(1),

(3 × 4) + (4 x 2) = 12 + 8 = 20 (False)

Checking option(2),

(5 × 3) + (4 × 5) = 15 + 20 =35(False)

Checking option(3),

(3 × 4) + (4 × 2) + 5 = 12 + 8 + 5 = 25 (True)

∴ Option(3) is the correct answer.

Check all the options:

1) Orange and Apple → (Both are fruits)

2) India and Dacca → (India is a country but Dacca is the capital of Bangladesh)

3) Potato and Brinjal → (Both are vegetables)

4) Almond and Cashew nut → (Both are Dry fruits)

Here, 'Option (2)' is different from all the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

Total Students = 50

6 percent are playing football,

12 percent are playing cricket,

16 percent are playing hockey and

24 percent are playing kabaddi.

Calculation:

Total number of football players = 50 × 6% = 50 × $\frac{6}{100}$ = 3

Total number of cricket players = 50 × 12% = 50 × $\frac{12}{100}$ = 6

Total number of hockey players = 50 × 16% = 50 × $\frac{16}{100}$ = 8

Total number of kabaddi players = 50 × 24% = 50 × $\frac{24}{100}$ = 12

Total number of students who played football, cricket, hockey, and kabaddi = 3 + 6 + 8 + 12 = 29

∴ The total number of other game players = 50 - 29 = 21.

Given:

2, 8, 20, 44, 92, ?

Logic:

Here, "188" is the correct answer as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "188".

Shortcut Trick

Loss is 10%, which means the Selling Price is 90% of the Cost Price.

Cost Price = 100% = Rs. 60,000.

10% of Cost Price = Rs. 6,000.

⇒ Selling Price = 90% = 60,000 − 6,000 = Rs. 54,000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 54,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the scooter = Rs. 60,000

Loss percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100

Cost Price Rs. 60,000

− 10% Loss (− Rs. 6,000)

Selling Price Rs. 54,000

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 60000 × (100 − 10) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 60000 × 90 ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 600 × 90

⇒ SP = 54000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 54,000.

Additional Information

Selling Price with Profit

When an item is sold at a profit, the selling price is directly calculated as: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always provided on the Marked Price (MP), not the Cost Price. The effective selling price becomes SP = MP − Discount.

Successive Discounts

When two continuous discounts of x% and y% are applied, the overall equivalent discount percentage is given by (x + y − x × y ÷ 100)%.

Here we use the table given below:

Logic:

Letter = (Positional value × 2) = Coded number.

Then,

H = (8 × 2) = 16

And,

K = (11 × 2) = 22

And,

GO = {(7 × 2) + (15 × 2)} = 14 + 30 = 44

Similarly,

COME = {(3 × 2) + (15 × 2) + (13 × 2) + (5 × 2)} = 6 + 30 + 26 + 10 = 72

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

According to the English dictionary and their positional values:

Given:

V, S, O, J, ?

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

Logic:

Third number = {First number + second number + (First number - 2)}

In 3 + 4 = 8 →

⇒ {3 + 4 + (3 - 2)}

⇒ {3 + 4 + 1} = 8

In 4 + 5 = 11 →

⇒ {4 + 5 + (4 - 2)}

⇒ {4 + 5 + 2} = 11

In 5 + 6 = 14 →

⇒ {5 + 6 + (5 - 2)}

⇒ {5 + 6 + 3} = 14

Similarly,

In 6 + 7 = 17 →

⇒ {6 + 7 + (6 - 2)}

⇒ {6 + 7 + 4} = 17

Hence, the correct answer is "17".

The Correct Answer is: Length

Key Points

• A “meter” is the base unit of length or distance. It is used to measure length and distances just like feet, miles or kilometers.

Additional Information

• Mass is a fundamental characteristic property of matter. It exists independently and is autonomous of every other boundary, such as the temperature, pressure, and the area of the object in space
• Mass of an object is measured by the SI Unit of mass that is the kilogram (kg)
• While the mass is the characteristic property of the body, weight is the proportion of the power applied to the mass of the body because of gravity
• Mass of any given object is the total matter in it at that point in time whereas the weight of an object is the total force acting upon the object.
• On the other hand, weight is the force exerted on an object due to gravity and it changes from place to place if the gravitational force changes
• The gravitational force exerted on an object is directly proportional to the mass of the object which means, when the mass of the object is heavy, it exerts more gravitational force and when the mass of the object is less, it exerts comparatively lesser gravitational force
• Basically, in physics, speed is the rate of covering of distance. In other words, speed can be defined as the distance which a moving body is covering in a unit time of the motion occurring.
• Notice that speed is defined as the distance covered per unit of time and not as the displacement happened per unit of time.

The Correct Answer is:Bytes, kilobytes, megabytes, gigabytes

Key Points

• Bytes, kilobytes, megabytes, and gigabytes are units of digital information storage capacity
• A byte is the smallest unit of digital information and is equivalent to 8 bits.
• A bit is a basic unit of information in computing that represents a value of either 0 or 1.
• A kilobyte (KB) is equal to 1,024 bytes. It is often used to measure the size of small files like text documents, images, and simple programs.
• A megabyte (MB) is equal to 1,024 kilobytes, or 1,048,576 bytes. It is often used to measure the size of larger files like music files, photos, and videos.
• A gigabyte (GB) is equal to 1,024 megabytes, or 1,073,741,824 bytes. It is often used to measure the size of even larger files like high-definition videos, large software applications, and other large multimedia files.
• In summary, as you move up the hierarchy from bytes to kilobytes, megabytes, and gigabytes, the unit of measurement increases exponentially, representing an increasing amount of storage capacity.

Given:

Science Percentage for 2015 = 35%

for 2016 = 40%

Total number of candidates qualified in 2015 = 920

Total number of candidates qualified in 2016 = 980

Concept Used:

Percentage

Calculation:

Total number of candidates qualified in science in 2015 = 920 × 35%

= 920 × $\frac{35}{100}$ = 322

Total number of candidates qualified in science in 2016 = 980 × 40%

= 980 × $\frac{40}{100}$ = 392

∴ The increase in the number of candidates qualified under the Science discipline from the year 2015 to 2016 is :

= 392 - 322 = 70.

Given:

Percentage distribution for agriculture discipline in respective years,

In 2012 = 07%

In 2013 = 08%

In 2014 = 05%

In 2015 = 10%

In 2016 = 05%

Total number of candidates qualified in respective years,

In 2012 = 700

In 2013 = 750

In 2014 = 800

In 2015 = 920

In 2016 = 980

Calculation:

Total Number of candidates who qualified in agriculture discipline in 2012 = 700 × 07%

⇒ 700 × $\frac{7}{100}$ = 49

Total Number of candidates who qualified in agriculture discipline in 2013 = 750 × 08%

⇒ 750 × $\frac{8}{100}$ = 60

Total Number of candidates who qualified in agriculture discipline in 2014 = 800 × 05% 

⇒ 800 × $\frac{5}{100}$ = 40

Total Number of candidates who qualified in agriculture discipline in 2015 = 920 × 10% 

⇒ 920 × $\frac{10}{100}$ = 92

Total Number of candidates who qualified in agriculture discipline in 2016 = 980 × 05% 

⇒ 980 × $\frac{5}{100}$ = 49

∴The number of candidates qualified in the Agriculture discipline was the lowest in the year is 2014.

Given:

Percentage distribution for arts discipline in respective years,

In 2012 = 38%

In 2013 = 30%

In 2014 = 32%

In 2015 = 40%

In 2016 = 35%

Total number of candidates qualified in respective years,

In 2012 = 700

In 2013 = 750

In 2014 = 800

In 2015 = 920

In 2016 = 980

Calculation:

Total Number of candidates who qualified in arts discipline in 2012

⇒ 700 × 38% = 700 × $\frac{38}{100}$ = 266

Total Number of candidates who qualified in arts discipline in 2013 

⇒ 750 × 30% = 750 × $\frac{30}{100}$ = 225

Total Number of candidates who qualified in arts discipline in 2014 

⇒ 800 × 32% = 800 × $\frac{32}{100}$ = 256

Total Number of candidates who qualified in arts discipline in 2015 

⇒ 920 × 40% = 920 × $\frac{40}{100}$ = 368

Total Number of candidates who qualified in arts discipline in 2016 

⇒ 980 × 35% = 980 × $\frac{35}{100}$ = 343

∴The number of candidates qualified in the Arts discipline was the highest in the year is 2015.

Given:

Percentage distribution for MBA discipline in respective years,

In 2014 = 28%

In 2015 = 10%

Total number of candidates qualified in respective years,

In 2014 = 800

In 2015 = 920

Calculation:

The number of candidates qualified under the MBA discipline in 2014 = 800 × $\frac{28}{100}$ = 224

The number of candidates qualified under the MBA discipline in 2015 = 920 × $\frac{10}{100}$ = 92

∴ The decrease in the number of candidates qualified under the MBA discipline from the year 2014 to 2015 is:

= 224 - 92 = 132

Given:

Pancakes1 = 20

Pancakes2 = 100

eggs1 = 2

Calculation:

Let the required eggs2= x

Here pancakes and eggs ra directly proportional

⇒ $\frac{eggs1}{pancakes1} = \frac{eggs2}{pancakes2}$

⇒ $\frac{2}{20} = \frac{x}{100}$

⇒ x = 10.

Given:

The total number of vegetables is 158. 

the ratio of cucumber to carrot is 4 ∶ 7 and

the ratio of cucumber to radish is 16 ∶ 35

Calculation:

Carrot : cucumber = 7 : 4

cucumber : radish = 16 : 35

∴ carrot : cucumber : radish = 7 ×16 : 4 × 16 : 4 × 35 = 28:16:35

Carrots = 158 × $\frac{28}{79}$ = 56

Radish = 158 × $\frac{35}{79}$ = 70

∴ There are 14 more radishes are there than carrots.

Given:

Kamal beats Mohan by 20 meters in a 100-meter race and

Mohan beats Shyam by 20 meters in a 100-meter race

Calculation:

Kamal beats Mohan by 20 meters in a 100-meter race

say Kamal = 100 and Mohan = 80

$\frac{Kamal}{Mohan}$ = $\frac{100}{80}$

Mohan beats Shyam by 20 meters in a 100-meter race

say, Mohan = 100 and Shyam = 20

$\frac{Mohan}{Shyam}$ = $\frac{100}{80}$

∴ $\frac{Kamal}{Mohan}$ × $\frac{Mohan}{Shyam}$ = $\frac{100}{80}$ × $\frac{100}{80}$

⇒ $\frac{Kamal}{Shyam}$ = $\frac{100}{64}$

∴  In 100 meters race, Kamal beats Shyam by 36 meters.

Given:

$\sqrt{\frac{0.81\times0.64}{0.0324\times0.16}}$

Calculation:

⇒ $\sqrt{\frac{0.81\times0.64}{0.0324\times0.16}}$ 

⇒ $\frac{0.9 \times 0.8}{0.18 \times 0.4}$

⇒ $\frac{0.72}{0.072}$

⇒ 10

Given:

(64)1/6

Calculation:

⇒ (64)^1/6

⇒ (2⁶)^1/6

⇒ 2

∴ (64)1/6 = 2.

Given:

Total number of students = 100

Average marks = 30

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of numbers / total numbers

Calculation:

Now, the Sum = 100 × 30 = 3000

Given, Later on it was found that the marks 30 of one student were misread as 20.

Actual Sum = 3000 - 20 + 30 = 3010

Correct Average = $\frac{3010}{100}$ = 30.1

∴ The correct average is 30.1.

Shortcut Trick

Average for 6 days (Mon−Sat) = 3.5 cm

Average for 7 days (Mon−Sun) = 5 cm

Rainfall on Sunday = New Average + [Days × Increase in Average]

⇒ 5 + [6 × (5 − 3.5)] = 5 + [6 × 1.5] = 5 + 9 = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average rainfall (Mon to Sat) = 3.5 cm

Average rainfall (Mon to Sun) = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Total = Average × Number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Total rainfall from Monday to Saturday = 6 × 3.5 = 21 cm

⇒ Total rainfall from Monday to Sunday = 7 × 5 = 35 cm

⇒ Rainfall on Sunday = Total (7 days) − Total (6 days)

⇒ Rainfall on Sunday = 35 − 21 = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When two groups are combined, the new average is (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all observations from the average is always zero. This is useful for finding a missing value.

Average Change

If each observation is increased by 'k', the average also increases by 'k'.

Given:

x + 2y : 2x + 3y = 5 : 8

Calculation:

⇒ x + 2y : 2x + 3y = 5 : 8

⇒ $\frac{x+2y}{2x+3y}$ = $\frac{5}{8}$

⇒ 8x + 16y = 10x + 15y

⇒ 2x = y 

⇒ $\rm\frac{x}{y}$ = $\frac{1}{2}$

Given:

SP = Rs. 1120

Loss % = 20%

and Profit % = 40%

Calculation:

Let x be the SP at 40% profit

According to the question,

80x = 140 × 1120

x = Rs. 1960

∴ Selling Price at 40% profit = Rs. 1960.

Given:

$\frac{0.64\times 0.27\times16.9}{0.09\times 0.04\times1.3}$

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{0.64\times 0.27\times16.9}{0.09\times 0.04\times1.3}$

⇒ 16 × 3 × 13

⇒ 624

Shortcut Trick

Solve brackets and 'of' directly using mental BODMAS:

⇒ (6/10 × 5/4) = 3/4

⇒ (3/4 ÷ 4/6) = (3/4 × 6/4) = 9/8

⇒ 1/2 of 3/4 = 3/8

⇒ 1/4 + 3/4 − 9/8 + 3/8 = 1 − 6/8 = 1 − 3/4 = 1/4

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Alternate Method

Given:

1/4 + (6/10 × 5/4) − (3/4 ÷ 4/6) + 1/2 of 3/4

Method Used:

Apply BODMAS rule: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculations:

⇒ Step 1: Solve the 'Of' part

⇒ 1/2 of 3/4 = 1/2 × 3/4 = 3/8

⇒ Step 2: Solve the brackets

⇒ First bracket: 6/10 × 5/4 = 30/40 = 3/4

⇒ Second bracket: 3/4 ÷ 4/6 = 3/4 × 6/4 = 18/16 = 9/8

⇒ Step 3: Substitute the simplified values back into the expression

⇒ 1/4 + 3/4 − 9/8 + 3/8

⇒ Step 4: Take the LCM of the denominators (4 and 8), which is 8

⇒ (2/8) + (6/8) − (9/8) + (3/8)

⇒ (2 + 6 − 9 + 3) / 8

⇒ (11 − 9) / 8

⇒ 2/8 = 1/4

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It dictates the exact order of operations: Brackets first, then Of (multiplication), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and finally Subtraction.

Fraction Division

Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal. Rule: a/b ÷ c/d = a/b × d/c.

Common Denominator

To add or subtract fractions, find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators to create equivalent fractions before combining the numerators.

The Correct Answer is: Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Key Points

• pressure cookers were fitted with ebonite handles because ebonite is a type of hard rubber that can withstand high temperatures and provide a good grip even when the cooker is hot.
• Ebonite is a good insulator, which means it does not conduct heat well, and therefore, it remains cool to the touch even when the pressure cooker is on the stove for a long time.
• The use of ebonite handles on pressure cookers has now been replaced by other materials such as silicone, which is also a good insulator and can withstand high temperatures

As per the given information:

If A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's father, E is D's mother.

Thus, the family tree diagram is given below,

So, 'A' is the granddaughter of 'D'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Granddaughter".

As per the given information:

A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother.

Thus, the family tree diagram is given below,

So, The man is the "cousin" of the woman.

Hence, the correct answer is "Cousin".

Here, we use the table given below:

 

Forward Pair - ST

Backward Pair - PR, NO, EH, NT, OT

So, 'Six' such pairs each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

Given:

Seismograph : Earthquake → A seismograph is an instrument to measure the intensity of earthquakes.

Similarly,

Taseometer : ? → Taseometer is an instrument to measure strains.

Here, "Taseometer : Strains" is the correct pair as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Strains".

Check all the options:

1) Flower : Petal → Petal is part of the flower.

2) Circle : Arc → Arc is part of the Circle.

3) Cover : Page → Cover and Page are different things both are part of the book.

4) Chair : Leg → Legs are part of the Chair.

Here, 'Option (3)' is the wrong pair from all of the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Calculation:

The numbers are 3, 13, 23, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 43, 53, 63, 73, 83, 93.

∴ From 1 to 100, we have to write 3 for 20 times

Confusion PointsThe total count of 3's will be 20.

The Confusion point is you have to count two times the 3 in 33.

Given:

A + B = 2C and C + D = 2A

Calculation:

A + B = 2C → (1)

and C + D = 2A → (2)

Adding (1) and (2), we get

⇒ A + B + C + D = 2C + 2A

⇒ B + D = A + C

The logic follows here:

(first digit + second digit + third digit) × fourth digit = number

Given:

4383 = 45 →

⇒ (4 + 3 + 8) × 3

⇒ 15 × 3 = 45

and,

6472 = 34 →

⇒ (6 + 4 + 7) × 2

⇒ 17 × 2 = 34

similarly,

8573 = ? →

⇒ (8 + 5 + 7) × 3

⇒ 20 × 3 = 60

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic follows here:

1. the First digit is changed to the third digit.

2. the Second digit is changed to the first digit.

3. the Third digit is changed to the second digit.

Given:

834 → 348

And,

637 → 376

Similarly,

986 → 698

Hence, the correct answer is "869".

Vinod ranked 9th from the top and 38th from the bottom in the class.

⇒ Total Student in the class = (rank from the top + rank from the bottom) - 1

​⇒ Total person in the class = (9 + 38) - 1

​⇒ Total person in the class = 46

Hence, the correct answer is "46".

The Correct Answer is**: C is to the immediate right of B**

Key PointsIn Alphabetic sequence: A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4), E(5), F(6), G(7), H(8)

D is 4th left of H;

A is 4th left of E;

C is the immediate right of B; and 

E is 2nd right of C

Calculation:

While traveling in a train, if some college students pull the alarm chain simply to get down at their desired point, then I should stop them from doing so with the help of other passengers because deliberately pulling a chain which delays the train is a crime.

∴ "With the help of some passengers, check them from doing so" is the correct answer.

The shaded part represents the number of graduates are engineers and IAS.

 

The number of graduates are engineers and IAS = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "2".

The shaded part represents the number of graduates are IAS.

 

The number of graduates are IAS = 5

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

The Venn diagram which best represents the relationship between Football fans, Cricket players, Boys is shown below:

 

Some football fans are boys.

Some Cricket players are boys.

Some football fans are cricket players.

Some football fans and cricket players are boys.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here we use the table given below:

Given:

FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK

Similarly,

CANDLE written as

Here, "EDRIRL" is the correct answer as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "EDRIRL".

The logic follow here:

(3rd number × 2nd number) ÷ 2 = 3rd number.

Here, "12" is the correct answer as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "12".

Let the age of Varun = x years

Varun's age after 1 year = (x + 1) years

Varun's age 12 years ago = (x - 12) years

Now, according to the question,

⇒ (x  + 1) = 2(x - 12)

⇒ (x  + 1) = 2x - 24

⇒ x = 25 years

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

The logic follow here:

Hence, the correct answer is "48".

The logic follow here:

Hence, the correct answer is "91".

Given:

30 × 15 + 3 - 2 ÷ 8 = ?

Put all values in the given equation,

= 30 + 15 ÷ 3 × 2 - 8 

= 30 + 5 × 2 - 8

= 30 + 10 - 8

= 40 - 8

= 32

Hence, the correct answer is "32".

The correct answer is West Bengal

Key Points

• West Bengal shares its boundary with three neighbouring countries-Bangladesh in the east, Nepal in the north and Bhutan in the northeast.
• Sikkim shares his boundaries with  Bhutan in the east, China in the north and Nepal in the west.
• Arunachal Pradesh  shares his boundaries  with Myanmar in the east, China in the north and Bhutan in the west.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand shares his boundaries with Himachal Pradesh in north-west, the Autonomous region of Tibet (China) in north-east, Nepal in south-east, and by Uttar Pradesh (India) in south-west.
• Mizoram shares his boundaries with  Myanmar (Burma) to the east and south and Bangladesh to the west and by the states of Tripura to the northwest, Assam to the north, and Manipur to the northeast.
• Assam shares Inter-State boundaries with Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya and West Bengal.

The correct answer is Kandla.

Key Points

• One of the 12 major port in the country, Deendayal port in name of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya is Kandla Port.
• Kandla port was renamed as Deendayal port in 2017 under the Indian Ports Act,1908 and it is natural type of port.
• It is seaport which is situated at Kutch district of Gujarat.
• It is one of the busiest ports of India which takes one-fifth of the foreign trade of India i.e. mineral oil and dry cargo.
• Deendayal Upadhyaya is Indian Politician, proponent of Integral humanism ideology.

Additional Information

• Ennore
• ​Ennor port as Kamarajar Port LTD. is the 12th Major Port which is situated on the East Coast of India (Tamilnadu State).
• It is developed for the purpose of receiving Coal for thermal power station in Tamilnadu.
• Nhava Sheva
• Nhava Sheva Port is established in 26th May 1989.
• It is also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust(JNPT) and largest container port in India.
• It is located in Raigad district of Navi Mumbai.
• Tuticorin
• Tuticorin Port is called as The V.O. Chidambarnar port. It was declared to be major port in july 1974.
• It  is second-largest port in Tamilnadu and fourth-largest container terminal in India.

The correct answer is "Highest density of population-West Bengal".

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, Bihar has the highest population density of 1106 persons per sq. km. followed by West Bengal with a population density of 1028 persons per sq. km. Uttar Pradesh’s is 829 persons per sq. km, Kerala’s is 860 persons per sq. km.
• According to the 2011 census, 382 is the population density of India.

Additional Information

• Census 2011 is the 15th census of India and the 7th after the independence.
• The motto of the 2011 Census is " Our Census, Our future".
• The Census of India is conducted after every 10 years.
• The first Census began in the year 1872 under the Viceroy Lord Mayo.
• The first complete census was taken in 1881.

• As per the 2011 Census
• Total Population of India- 1,210,854,977
• Males- 623,724,568
• Females- 586,469,294
• Population Density- 382 per sq Km Sex Ratio- 1000:940
• Literacy- 74%
• Males- 82.10%
• Females- 65.46%

The correct answer is Achanakmar.

Key Points

• The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is the most dramatic and ecologically diverse landscape in the Chhattisgarh
  

and Madhya Pradesh states of India.

• It is one of the less developed and least disturbed areas in both states.
• It encompasses most of the original natural and cultural features.
• The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is located at the junction of hill ranges, with topography ranging from high mountains, shallow valleys and plains.
• It had been established in 1975, under the provisions of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
• It was declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger, in 2009

 Additional Information

• Agasthyamalai biosphere reserve is in Kerala.
• Pachmarhi biosphere reserve is in Madhya Pradesh.
• Simlipal biosphere reserve is in the Indian state of Odisha.
• Biosphere reserve
• Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the conservation of
• biodiversity with its sustainable use.
• They are internationally recognized, nominated by national governments, and remain under the sovereign jurisdiction of the
• states where they are located.
• They often include one or more National Parks and/or preserves, along with buffer zones that are open to some economic uses.
• Protection is granted not only to the flora and fauna of the protected region, but also to the human communities who inhabit
• these regions, and their ways of life.
• There are 18 Biosphere reserves in India.
• First Biosphere Reserve: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (Est. 1986)
• Largest Biosphere Reserve: Gulf of Mannar
• Smallest Biosphere Reserve: Panna

The correct answer is Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor - Asian Development Bank.

Key Points

• The Delhi–Mumbai Industrial Corridor Project (DMIC) is a planned industrial development project between India's capital, Delhi, and its financial hub, Mumbai.
• An MOU was signed in December 2006 between the Vice Minister, of the Ministry of Economy, Trade, and Industry (METI) of the Government of Japan and the Secretary, of the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP).
• DMIC passing through the SIX States -
• NCR of Delhi,
• Haryana
• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra
• Madhya Pradesh
• DMIC end terminals at Dadri in the National Capital Region of Delhi and Jawaharlal Nehru Port near Mumbai.

Additional Information

• There are five industrial corridors:-
• Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC) covers Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and
• Maharashtra.
• Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (CBIC) covers Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
• Bengaluru-Mumbai Economic Corridor (BMEC) covers Maharashtra and Karnataka.
• Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC) covers Punjab, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West
• Bengal.
• East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) covers West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Godavari.

Key Points

• The longest river in Peninsular India(Southern India) is the Godavari.
• In terms of length, catchment area, and discharge, it is one of the longest rivers in India and its total length is about 1,465 km(910 miles).
• It is the second-longest river in India after Ganga in terms of distance covered by the river in India.
• The longest river in India is Ganga and its length is 2525km.
• The length of the Brahmaputra is 2900 km, but in India, Brahmputra's length is only 916 km.

Important Points

• Godavari
• It is also known as Dakshin Ganga (the Ganges of the South) and Vridha Ganga.​
• It rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal i.e It flows from west to east direction.
• It flows through Maharashtra(49%), Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and (Yannam Puducherry)
• Its tributaries rivers are Purna, Wardha, Pranhita, Manjra,  Wainganga and  Penganga.
• Famous cities on the banks of river Godavari are Nashik, Trimbakeshwar, Nanded, Chennur etc.

Additional Information

• Cauvery(Kaveri)
• The kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills of Karnatka.
• Its length is 800km.
• Yamuna​
• The longest tributary of the Ganges and it joins the Ganges at Prayag (Allahabad).
• It originated from the Yamununotri glacier(Banderpunch range).
• Krishna
• It is the third-longest river in India and the second largest east-flowing Penisular river.
• Its total length is 1401km.
• Top 5 longest rivers in India:-

The correct answer is Anai Mudi, Doda Betta, Guru Shikhar, Mahendra Giri.

Key Points

• Anamudi Peak
• Anamudi is a mountain located in the Indian state of Kerala.
• It is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and in South India, at an elevation of 2,695 meters and a topographic prominence of 2,479 meters.
• It lies on the border of Idukki district and Ernakulam district.
• The name Anamudi literally translates to "elephant's head" a reference to the resemblance of the mountain to an elephant's
• head.
• Anamudi is the highest mountain in peninsular India as well as the largest mountain in Kerala.
• Meanwhile, the highest independent mountain ( free-standing mountain ) in Kerala is the Cheriyam mountain in the
• Malappuram district.
• Cheriyam mountain is located at an elevation of 613 m (2,011 ft) above sea level.
• Doddabetta Peak
• Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Mountains at 2,637 meters (8,652 feet).
• There is a reserved forest area around the peak.
• It is 9 km from Ooty, on the Ooty-Kotagiri Road in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, India.
• It is a popular tourist attraction with road access to the summit.
• It is the fourth-highest peak in South India next to Anamudi, Mannamalai, and Meesapulimala.
• The peaks Hecuba (2375 m), Kattadadu (2418 m), and Kulkudi (2439 m) are the three closely linked summits in the
• west of the Doddabetta range near Udagamandalam.
• Guru Shikhar
• Guru Shikhar is the highest peal of the Aravali mountains with a height of 1722 mt.
• It is located in the Arbuda Mountains of Rajasthan.
• Aravalli range is an example of an old fold mountain that runs through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi.
• Mahendragiri
• Mahendragiri is a mountain in the Rayagada subdivision of the district of Gajapati, Odisha, India.
• It is situated amongst the Eastern Ghats at an elevation of 1,501 meters.
• Mahendragiri is associated with the Ramayana as Mahendra Parvata (mountain).
• It is a 'Kula Parvata' along with Malaya, Sahyadri, Parijatra, Shuktiman, Vindhya and Malyavaan.
• In the Puranas and Ramayana, It is said that Parashurama was meditating on Mahendragiri when Lord Rama broke the
• sacred bow of Shiva.

Additional Information

• List of Mountain Peaks in India- Statewise

The correct answer is "Todas-Odisha ".

Key Points

• "Todas"
• It is a tribe of Tamil Nadu.
• "Todas" is a tribal group in the higher altitudes of the Nilgiris.
• They are belonging to the Dravidian ethnic group.
• Their lives revolve around the local grasslands called 'sholas' and the herds of buffalo which they tend there.
• They traditionally live in small hamlets called mund (village) composed of about ten half-barrel-shaped huts.

Additional Information

• Important tribes Statewise:

The correct answer is Pavagada-Gujarat.

Key Points

• ​Pavagada Solar Park
• It is a solar park in Pavagada Taluk, Tumkur district of Karnataka.
• It was completed in 2019, the park has a capacity of 2,050 MW. As of April 2021.
• Owners: Karnataka Solar Power Development Corporation Ltd.
• It is the World's third largest photovoltaic solar park after the 2,245 MW Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan and 2,200 MW Huanghe Hydropower Hainan Solar Park in China.
• This solar park is also known as Shakti Sthala.
• Shakti Sthala was planned as part of Karnataka’s Solar Policy 2014-2021.
• This aims at reducing the dependence on traditional power sources by moving to more environment-friendly energy sources.

Additional Information 

• Kamuthi
• It is one of the largest solar power projects located in Tamil Nadu.
• It was commissioned by Adani Power.
• This power plant provides 648MW of energy to the national grid.
• This plant provides electricity to 1.5 lakh homes.
• Bhadla Solar Park
• It is the largest solar park in the world as of 2021.
• The total area of 5,700 hectares (14,000 acres).
• Located in Bhadla, Jodhpur district, Rajasthan, India.
• The park has a total capacity of 2245 MW with over 10 million solar panels at the park.
• According to Institute for Energy Economics and Financial Analysis, IIWFA, out of the 10 largest parks being constructed in the world, 5 are in India.
• The Welspun Solar Project
• This project is a 151 megawatt (MW) photovoltaic power station built in Bhagwanpura village, just south of Diken, Jawad tehsil of Neemuch district, Madhya Pradesh state, in central India.
• It is Operational since February 2014.
• It is one of the largest solar power projects in India.
• Some important Solar plants Statewise:

The correct answer is Carbon monoxide.

Key Points

• Carbon monoxide (CO)
• It has the highest concentration (ppv) in photochemical smog.
• It is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas produced by burning gasoline, wood, propane, charcoal or other fuel.
• Carbon monoxide consists of one carbon atom and one oxygen atom connected by a triple bond.
• It does not smell.

Additional Information

• ​Sulfur dioxide
• Sulphur dioxide is the chemical compound with the formula SO₂.
• It is a toxic gas responsible for the odor of burnt matches.
• It is released naturally by volcanic activity and is produced as a by-product of copper extraction and the burning of sulfur-bearing fossil fuels.
• Nitrogen Oxides
• Nitrogen oxides are a mixture of gases that are composed of nitrogen and oxygen.
• Two of the most toxicologically significant nitrogen oxides are nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide.
• both are nonflammable and colorless to brown at room temperature.
• Ozone
• Ozone or trioxygen, is an inorganic molecule with the chemical formula O₃.
• It is a pale blue gas with a distinctively pungent smell.
• It occurs both in the Earth's upper atmosphere, or stratosphere, and at ground level in the lower atmosphere, or troposphere.

The correct answer is the Tughluq dynasty.

Key Points

• The Tugluq dynasty emerged in 1320 and ended in 1414.
• Tughluq dynasty emerged during the period of medieval India and was of Turk-Indian Origin.
• The dynasty majorly ruled over the Sultanate of Delhi.

Important Points

Tughluq Dynasty (1320 to 1414):

• Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq or Ghazi Malik was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty.
• Ghiyas-ud-din reinstated order in his empire.
• He brought Bengal, Utkala or Orissa, and Warangal under his control
• The Mongol leaders who invaded North India were seized and confined by him.
• In 1325 A.D. Ghiyas-ud-din was crushed to death while attending an event for his victories in Bengal.
• Junakhan, the crown prince succeeded him.

Lodi Dynasty (1451 to 1526):

• Bahlul Lodi was the founder of the Lodi Dynasty.
• Sultanate Period ended with Lodi Dynasty.
• He took various measures to gratify his nobles.
• Gwalior, Samthal, Sakit, Mewat was conquered by Bahlul Lodi.
• He died in 1489 A.D.

Slave Dynasty (1206 to 1290):

• The first ruler of the Mamluk Dynasty.
• Mamluk Dynasty is also called the Slave Dynasty.
• Sold as a slave to Muhammad Ghori, the ruler of Ghor in Afghanistan.
• Aibak became Ghori’s trusted general and commander.
• He was given charge of Ghori’s Indian possessions after 1192.
• When Ghori was assassinated, Aibak declared himself Sultan of Delhi in 1206.
• Started construction of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi. This is one of the first Islamic monuments in northern India.
• He began the construction of Qutb Minar in Delhi.
• He reigned till his death in 1210. He was said to have been trampled to death by a horse.
• He was succeeded by Aram Shah.

 Khilji Dynasty (1290 to 1320):

• Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji was the founder of the Khilji Dynasty.
• He was also called “Clemency Jalal-uddin” as he followed peace and wanted to rule without violence.
• He suppressed Malik Chhajju’s revolt at Kara
• He appointed Ala-ud-din Khilji as the Governor of Kara. Alauddin was his son-in-law and also nephew.
• In 1292 A.D. Jalal-ud-din defeated the Mongols who had come up to Sunam.
• Jalal-ud-din was treacherously murdered by Ala-ud-din Khilji his son-in-law.

The correct answer is Alfonso de Albuquerque becomes first Governor of Goa.

Key Points

• Alfonso de Albuquerque
• He arrived in India in 1503 AD and became the governor of the Portuguese in India in 1509 AD.
• He captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 AD.
• He is considered the real founder of the Portuguese power in India.
• He introduced the policy of Imperialism.

Additional Information

• Duplex becomes the French Governor of Pondicherry in 1720.
• He was Governor-General of French India and a rival of Robert Clive (the British).​
• In 1595, the first fleet of Dutch reached India under the leadership of Cornelis De Hastman.
• The first Dutch factory was set up in Masulipatam (Present Andhra Pradesh).
• They never wanted to build empire in India.
• The British East India Company was established as a trading company in 1600 and transformed into a ruling body
  

in 1765.

The correct answer is First Panipat, Haldighati, Plassey, Buxar.

Key Points

• The Battle of Panipat
• • The First Battle of Panipat
• The first battle of Panipat was fought in 1526 between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
• In 1526, the Mughal forces of Babur, the Timurid ruler of Kabulistan, defeated the much larger ruling army of Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of Delhi.
• Panipat was a legendary location where after 1526, multiple battles were fought between the Mughals and varying other forces.
• He was invited by Daulat Khan, the governor of Punjab, to invade the region and unsettle Ibrahim Lodi.
• Lodi’s army relied heavily on cavalry and especially on elephants, which in earlier times, could shock the enemy and rout them.
• This battle made the foundation of the Mughal dynasty in India.
• Second Battle of Panipat (1556)
• It was fought between Hemu Vikramaditya and Akbar.
• Date: November 5, 1556.
• Third Battle of Panipat (1761)
• It was fought between Marathas and Ahmad Shah Durrani.
• Date: 14 January 1761.
• The Battle of Haldighati
• It was fought on 18 June 1576 between Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap, and the Mughal emperor Akbar.​
• The Battle of Plassey
• On 23 June 1757, the Battle of Plassey was taken place, it was fought between the forces of Siraj Ud Daulah, and his French troops and the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive.
• British marched out to the grove of Plassey, to the north of Calcutta.
• This event was also a part of the Seven Years' War.
• In this battle, the forces of Nawab were defeated.
• Nawab first went to Murshidabad and then to Patna, but was eventually pursued by Mir Jafar’s soldiers.
• Siraj-Ud-Daulah was executed on 2 July 1757, under orders from Mir Miran, son of Mir Jafar.
• The battle of Buxar
• It was fought on 22nd October 1764.
• This battle was crucial for the Britishers since it provided them with full control of Bengal and Bihar.
• It was fought between Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim which included Shuja-ud-daula, Shah Alam II, etc.
• In this battle, the combined force of Mir Qasim was defeated.
• The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765 between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II (Mughal emperor).
• Shah Alam II was forced to pay a fine of five million rupees.

Hence, the correct chronological orders of Battles is First Panipat, Haldighati, Plassey, Buxar.

The correct answer is Indigo Revolt.

Key Points

• The Indigo revolt was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters, that arose in Bengal in 1859.
• It was  was a revolt by the farmers against British planters who had forced them to grow indigo under terms that were greatly unfabourable to the farmers.
• The indigo farmers revolted in the Nadia district of Bengal by refusing to grow indigo.
• The revolt was suppressed and many farmers were slaughtered by the government and some of the zamindars.
• The revolt was backed by the Bengali intelligentsia, Muslims and the missionaries. The whole of the rural population supported the revolt.

Additional Information

• Bengal** Partition**
• The first Partition of Bengal (1905) was a territorial reorganization of the Bengal Presidency implemented by the authorities of the British Raj.
• The partition of Bengal became effective from 16 October 1905. In history it is also known as Bangabhang.
• The partition divides the province between West Bengal, whose majority was Hindu, and East Bengal, whose majority was Muslim.
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919.
• A large peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, Punjab, British India.
• It was to protest against the Rowlatt Act and arrest of pro-independence activists Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal.
• Unarmed citizens were shot at by General Dyer. Ten minutes of the shooting were put in. The government estimated 379 deaths, while some estimates were much higher.
• Jallianwala Bagh is a public garden which houses a memorial to commemorate the massacre of peaceful celebrators by the British forces.
• Home Rule League 
• Lok Manya Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum.
• Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
• Tilak’s league had its headquarters in Delhi.
• The aim of the home rule movement was the attainment of home rule or a dominion status for India.

The correct answer is "a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1".

Key Points

• Rashtrakutas
• Rashtrakutas meaning ‘the chief of a Rashtra’, are considered the feudatory of the Chalukyas.
• Their capital city was  Manyakheta or Malkhed near Solapur, present-day Maharashtra.
• Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• Rashtrakuta constantly fought against the eastern Chalukyas of Vengi, Pallavas of Kanchi, and Pandya of Madurai.
• They were tolerant in their religious views and patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism, and Jainism.
• Krishna III was the last great ruler of Rashtrakutas. In 972 CE, the Capital city was burnt to ashes. This marks the end of Rashtrakutas.
• The system of administration in these empires was based upon the ideas and practices of the Gupta empire.
• Pandyas
• Pandyas occupied the districts of Madurai and Tinnevelly with portions of South Travancore after the decline of the Maurya Empire.
• It had its capital at Madurai which is situated on the banks of the Vaigai river.
• During their history Pandyas were repeatedly in conflict with the Pallavas, Cholas, Hoysalas, and finally the Muslim invaders from the Delhi Sultanate.
• The Pandyan Kingdom finally became extinct after the establishment of the Madurai Sultanate in the 14th century CE and absorbed into the Sultan of Delhi Kingdom.
• The Flag of Pandya consisted of a single fish or twin fish.
• The Pandya Kingdom was first mentioned by Megasthenese who said that their kingdom was famous for pearls.
• The earliest known Pandyan ruler was Mudukudumi.
• The greatest Pandya king was Nendujelian.
• Chola
• ​The Chola Empire of the South emerged in the 9 century AD (850-1279 AD).
• The founder of Chola Dynasty - Vijayalaya
• Vijayalaya captured Tanjore in 850 AD.
• The greatest Chola ruler was Rajaraja (985-1014 AD) and Rajendra I (1014-1044 AD).
• Rajaraja built the Brihadeshwara temple / Rajarajeshwara temple (attributed to Shiva) at Tanjore.
• Rajendra I conquered Orissa, Bengal, Burma, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Chola dynasty was as its zenith during his reign.
• Rajendra I defeated the Pala king Mahipala and took the title of Gangaikondachola and built a city called Gangaikondacholapuram.
• King Rajasimha built the Kailashnath temple at Kancheepuram.
• Parantak I built the Koranganatha temple at Srini wasanllur.
• Rajaraja II built the Airawteshwar temple at Darasuram.
• Kullotung III built the Kampahreshwar temple at Tribhuvan.
• The last ruler of the Chola dynasty was Rajendra III.
• Land revenue and trade tax were the main sources of income.
• The Chola empire was divided into Mandalams (Province) and these were divided into Valanadu (Comissionary), Nadu (District),
• and Kurram ( a group of villages).
• Hoysala Dynasty :
• Hoysala literature in the Kannada language began to proliferate under the patronage of Vishnuvardhana.
• Vishnuvardhana took the first steps in creating an independent Hoysala Empire in South India through a series of battles against his overlord, the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI, and the Chola Empire to the south.
• He recovered parts of Gangavadi province from the hegemony of the Cholas in the battle of Talakad, and parts of Nolambavdi.

Additional Information

• The Kailash temple at Ellora caves was built by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in AD 760.
• It is one of the largest monolithic structures in the world.
• Rashtrakuta rulers were tolerant of their religious views.
• They patronised Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Jainism as well.​

The correct answer is Gandhar.

Key Points

• Mahajanpadas**:**
• The Mahajanapadas from Maha: Great, and Janapada: foothold of a people were sixteen kingdoms or group of states.
• They existed in Northern ancient India from the sixth to fourth centuries BCE during the second urbanization period.
• Ancient Buddhist texts like the Anguttara Nikaya make frequent reference to sixteen great kingdoms and republics which had developed and flourished in a belt stretching from Gandhara in the northwest to Anga in the eastern part of the Indian subcontinent.
• They are - **Kashi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, **Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.
• These Mahajanpadas are either Monarchies or Republics (Ganasanghas).
• The important Republics of this period were the Sakyas of Kapilavastu and the Licchavis of Vaishali.
• The important Monarchical Mahajanpadas of this period were Kaushambi (Vatsa), Magadha, Kosala and Avanti.
• They included parts of the trans-Vindhyan region and all had developed prior to the rise of Buddhism in India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Brahmo Samaj.

Key Points

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which was later renamed Brahmo Samaj.
• Its chief aim was the worship of the eternal God.
• It was against priesthood, rituals, and sacrifices.
• It focused on prayers, meditation, and reading the scriptures.
• It believed in the unity of all religions.
• It was the first intellectual reform movement in modern India.
• It led to the emergence of rationalism and enlightenment in India which indirectly contributed to the nationalist movement.
• It was the forerunner of all social, religious, and political movements of modern India.
• It split into two in 1866, namely Brahmo Samaj of India led by Keshub Chandra Sen, and Adi Brahmo Samaj led by Debendranath Tagore.
• Prominent Leaders: Debendranath Tagore, Keshub Chandra Sen, Pt. Sivnath Shastri, and Rabindranath Tagore.

Additional Information

• Arya Samaj ​
• The Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati at Bombay in 1875.
• Arya Samaj is a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas.
• Members of the Arya Samaj believe in one God and reject the worship of idols.
• Arya Samaj was the first Hindu organization to introduce proselytization in Hinduism.
• SatyaShodhak Samaj
• SatyaShodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873 in Maharashtra.
• The Satyashodhak Samaj aimed to spread education among the lower caste people to make them aware of their rights.
• Satyashodhak Samaj rejected all kinds of Brahman domination on the basis of religion and all religious sources of inequality.
• Membership in Satyashodhak Samaj was open to all castes, sects, and religions.
• Anyone who accepted its ideology and acted accordingly by taking oath could be a member of Satyashodhak Samaj.
• ‘Prarthana Samaj’
• ​It was established on 31 March 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Panduranga.
• This Samaj was greatly influenced by the Brahmo Samaj.
• The main aim of the society - is the promulgation of theistic worship and social reform.
• Opposition to the caste system, the introduction of widow remarriage, the encouragement of female education, and the abolition
• of child marriage were their goals.
• Important members of the Samaj -  Mahadev Govind Ranade, Sanskrit scholar Sir Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar, and political
• leader Sir Narayan Chandavarkar, etc.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1824-83) was a scholar, a patriot, a social reformer, and a revivalist. 
• He believed the Vedas were the source of true knowledge.
• His motto was “Back to the Vedas”.
• He started the Suddhi movement to bring back those Hindus who had converted to other religions to its fold.
• He wrote the book Satyartha Prakash which contains his ideas.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Akbar
• He was born on 15 October 1542, in Amarkot.
• He ruled from 1556 to 1605 and extended Mughal power over most of the Indian subcontinent.
• In order to maintain his empire, Akbar adopted programming that countered the loyalty of the non-Muslim population of his realm.
• He reformed and strengthened his central administration and also centralized his financial system and home tax collection procedures.
• Though he never renounced Islam, he took an active interest in other religions, motivating Hindus,
• Zoroastrians and Christians as well as Muslims engaged in religious discussions before him.
• Illiterate himself, he encouraged scholars, poets, painters, and musicians, making his court the centre of culture.

Additional Information

• Humayun (1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to 1556)
• Babur's son Humayun ascended the throne of India three days after Babur's death in 1530.
• Six months after his accession, Humayun besieged the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand.
• He gained a decisive victory over Afghans at Douhrua and drove out Mahmood Lodi and even defeated Bahadur Shah of Gujarat.
• Humayun forces were defeated by Afghan ruler Sher Shah Suri at Chausa near Buxar in June 1539.
• On May 17, 1540, the Mughals and the Afghans met again opposite Kannauj.
• His hopelessly demoralized army was defeated at the battle commonly known as the Battle of Kannauj.
• In February 1555, he captured Lahore, and after a few months captured also.
• Humayun’s Tomb is the tomb of the Mughal Emperor Humayun situated in Delhi, which was commissioned by his first wife Bega Begum in the year 1569-1570.
• The architect of the tomb was Mirak Mirza Ghiyath. He along with his son, Sayyid Muhammad designed it
• Jahangir
• was born to Maryam-uz-Zamani and Akbar on August 30, 1569.
• He was named Sultan Muhammad Salim after Shaikh Salim Chishti of Fatehpur Sikri.
• Akbar called him Sheik Babu.
• After his coronation, he assumed the title of Nur-ud-din Muhammad Jahangir Badshah Ghazi.
• Jahangir was the only surviving son of Akbar who after his father’s death ascended the throne in 1604, at the age of 34 years
• Shah Jahan
• Shah Jahan's full name is Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram.
• Shah Jahan was the 5th Mughal Emperor of the Mughal dynasty.
• In 1632, he defeated the Portuguese.
• He was succeeded by Aurangzeb.
• The Mahi Maratib was the highest honour in the Mughal Empire.
• It symbolized honour, bravery, and strength and the Mughal emperors only conferred it upon their highest dignitaries.
• This honour of the Mahi Maratib was instituted by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan sometime around 1632.
• It was conferred to Sultans of Delhi Indian rulers.

The correct answer is Home Rule League.

Key Points

• Lok Manya Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum.
• Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
• Tilak’s league had its headquarters in Delhi.
• The aim of the home rule movement was the attainment of home rule or a dominion status for India.

Additional Information

• Khilafat Movement
• The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924), was a pan-Islamic, political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India.
• Its purpose was to pressure the British government to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Sultan as Caliph of Islam following the breakup of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the war.
• The Ali brothers Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali started the Khilafat movement.
• Gandhi-Irwin Pact
• It was 5 March 1931 before the Second Round Table Conference in London.
• The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin**.**
• This pact was signed by Gandhi to release the prisoners who weren't violent during the Civil Disobedience Movement that was very brutally stopped by the British.
• Cripps Mission comes to India
• The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in late March 1942 by the British government.
• It is to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
• The mission was headed by a senior minister Stafford Cripps.
• The British government refused to accept the demand for immediate transfer of effective power to Indians so Mission had failed.

The correct answer is "Saguna-Despised idol worship in any of its form".

Key Points

• Sufism-Centrality of divine love
• ​Sufism, greatly emphasizes the reality of Divine love, forgiveness, and mercy, so much so that this path is commonly referred to as the religion of love.
• Sufis(who are the followers of this path) consider love as the key concept in their faith and the main purpose of their existence.
• Sikh Panth-Oneness of God and equality of ​ Mankind
• ​One of Guru Nanak’s fundamental messages is the oneness of all humanity.
• He spoke emphatically against the notion of inequality and the resulting mistreatment of one segment of society by another.
• He emphasized that there is only One God who has created the entire universe, including human beings.
• Satpanth-Bhakti Cult without social discrimination
• It brought profound changes in the religious and social outlook of people.
• Bhakti saints preached universal brotherhood and emphasized equality.
• Saguna-
• ​Saguna is worship of God with form.
• In its worship of and devotion to a manifested deity who takes the form of an idol, an image or an incarnation.
• Tulsidas, Chaitanya, Surdas and Meera were the main proponents of Saguna.
• Nirguna is worship of God without form, **Hence, Nirguana **Despised idol worship in any of its form. 
• ​Nanak and Kabir were the main proponents of Nirguna.

The correct answer is 12th Schedule.

Key Points

• 12th Schedule of the Constitution covers the powers of municipalities.
• The 12th schedule came under the 74th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution.
• It is consist of 18 functions, which are related to the power, authority, and responsibilities of the municipalities all over the country.

Additional Information

The Constitution of India contains 12 Schedules which are as follows:-

The correct answer is APJ Abdul Kalam.

Key Points

• A.P.J Abdul Kalam proposed the concept of Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA).
• Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA) was a policy measure to create a common development platform for rural and urban areas.
• It is the former President APJ Abdul Kalam, who proposed the concept of PURA in the VISION 2020 project initiated by him.
• Its objective is to make rural areas as attractive as cities are.
• This concept was presented by Dr. Kalam at Indian National Science Congress’s 90th conference in Chandigarh in January 2004.
• Its potential goes beyond the mere creation of economic infrastructure and involves social infrastructure too, in which housing is a significant component.

The correct answer is Rajendra Prasad.

Key Points

• Dr Rajendra Prasad was the president of India, who held office for two consecutive terms from 1950 to 1962.
• He was the first president of the Republic of India.
• The longest-serving President of India with a tenure of around 12 years in office was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
• He played a major role as the President of the Indian National Congress.
• Apart from being the President, he also served as the Minister of Agriculture and Food in the first cabinet of India in 1946 and 1947.

Additional Information

• ​Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan 
• He was the 1st Vice President of India from 1952 to 1962.
• He served also as the 2nd President of India from 1962 to 1967.
• Radhakrishnan birthday is celebrated as Teachers Day because after he took charge as the President of India in 1962, some students sought permission from him to celebrate his birthday.
• Varahgiri Venkat Giri
• He served as the fourth president of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974.
• Third vice president of India from 13 May 1967 to 3 May 1969 was V.V.Giri.
• Shankar Dayal Sharma
• Shankar Dayal Sharma was an Indian lawyer and politician from the state of Madhya Pradesh.
• He served as the ninth President of India, from 1992 to 1997.

The correct answer is Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries .

Key Points 

• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization.
• It is created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
• Its headquarter is in Vienna Austria.
• OPEC members are Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela.
• Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar are former OPEC members.

Additional Information 

• European Union 
• The European Union (EU) is a supranational political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe.
• It headquarter is in Brussels.
• It is founded on 1 November 1993, Maastricht, Netherlands.
• The EU countries are: Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain and Sweden.
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation 
• It is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia.
• SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
• Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• Association of South-East Asian Nations
• ASEAN, Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a political and economic union of 10 member states in Southeast Asia.
• Its Objective is to to accelerate economic growth and through that social progress and cultural development.
• organisation is formed on 8th August 1967 and headquarter is in Jakarta Indonesia.
• ASEAN Member States · Brunei Darussalam · Cambodia · Indonesia · Lao PDR · Malaysia · Myanmar · Philippines · Singapore.

Hence, Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Headquarters is located outside its region.

The correct answer is Suman Berry

Key Points

• Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is Indian economist, scholar, and author Suman Bery.Bery held the position of Chief Economist of Oil and Gas supermajor Royal Dutch Shell, located in The Hague, Netherlands, following his 28-year tenure at the World Bank.
• He is a Non-resident Fellow of the Brussels-based think tank Bruegel and a Global Fellow of the Woodrow Wilson International Center for Scholars in Washington, DC.
• He had held the positions of Indian country director for International Growth Center and director general of the National Council of Applied Economic Research.
• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is formed in 1 January 2015 and headquarter is in New Delhi.
• It is apex public policy think tank of Government of India in place of Planning Commission.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog

Additional Information

• Arvind Panagariya served as first Vice-chairman of the India think  tank NITI Aayog during 2015 to 2017.
• He is a former Chief Economist of the Asian Development Bank.
• Amitabh Kant was the second CEO of a public policy think tank of India during 2016 to 2022.
• Sindushree Khullar was the first CEO of a public policy think tank of India.

The correct answer is Australia. 

Key Points

• The idea of the Concurrent List is adopted from the Australian Constitution.
• The Concurrent List, enlisted in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is a list of 52 items.

The correct answer is the 73rd constitutional amendment.

Key Points

• The main objective of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• To provide constitutional status to the panchayats.
• It aimed at democratic decentralization of power and resources among the central government and local bodies.
• Article 40 of the Indian Constitution obligated the state governments to constitute panchayats and provide them such powers and functions so that they can work as a unit of self-government.​

Additional Information

• Important committees that were constituted for the establishment of the Panchayati raj system:
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957: 
• Constituted to monitor the functioning of the Community Development Program, 1952.
• The committee suggested democratic decentralization that came to be known as the “Panchayati Raj System."
• The committee also suggested a three-tier system at the village, block, and district levels.
• Sadiq Ali Committee, 1964:
• Constituted to report on the working of gram sabha in Rajasthan.
• The Committee reported the following weaknesses: 
• The main problem was the illiteracy of villagers.
• Poor representation of women.
• Avoidance of meetings by the Sarpanch to escape questions.
• Meetings are not being properly publicized.
• G.L. Vyas Committee, 1973:
• Constituted in order to rectify the dysfunction in the system recommended compulsory attendance of Sarpanch in every meeting.
• Statutory recognition of gram sabha.
• Meetings should be in May-June and January-December, with compulsory attendance of patwari.
• Ashok Mehta Committee, 1977: 
• The Committee recommended a two-tier system in panchayats.
• Regular social audits.
• Regular elections.
• Reservation of SCs and STs.
• G.V.K. Rao Committee, 1985: 
• ​This Committee was the first committee to recommend providing constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• L. M. Singhvi Committee, 1986: 
• This Committee recommended the establishment of Nyaya panchayats, enhancing the financial resources of panchayats.
• The Committee also recommended the establishment of a separate judicial tribunal to deal with the cases regarding elections or any other matters of panchayats.

The correct answer is Venkaiah Naidu.

Key Points

• The Vice President of India, who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha, is Unchallenged guardian of the eminence of the House.
• The tenure of Venkaiah Naidu is 5 years.
• He is the principal spokesperson of the Rajyasabha and represent the collective voice to outside world.
• Members to different Standing Committees and the deparment-related to parlimentary committees is nominated by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• Since 11 August 2022, Jagdeep Dhankar, who is Vice president of India 2022, is Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• The first chairman of the Rajya Sabha was Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.

Additional Information

• Harivansh Narayan singh is the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, upper house of the Indian Parliament.
• He is also a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha representing Bihar State.
• Hariprasad is a member of Rajya Sabha and General Secretary of the All India Congress Committe.
• Ram Nath Kovind served as the 14th President of India from 2017 to 2022.
• He is second person after K.R. Narayanan(10th president of India) , from the Dalit community to occupy this post.

The correct answer is No right to review its own judgement and revise.

Key Points

• Judicial Review types**:**
• Reviews of Legislative Actions:
• This review implies the power to ensure that laws passed by the legislature are in compliance with the provisions of the Constitution.
• Review of Administrative Actions:
• This is a tool for enforcing constitutional discipline over administrative agencies while exercising their powers.
• Review of Judicial Decisions:
• This review is used to correct or make any change in previous decisions by the judiciary itself.
• Hence option 4 is not correct.
• Importance of Judicial Review:
• It is important for maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution.
• It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the legislature and executive.
• It gives protection to the rights of the people.
• It maintains the federal balance.
• It is essential for securing the independence of the judiciary.
• It prevents the tyranny of executives.
• Problems with Judicial Review:
• Constitutional Provisions for Judicial Review
• It limits the functioning of the government.
• It violates the limit of power set to be exercised by the constitution when it overrides any existing law.
• In India, a separation of functions rather than of powers is followed.
• The concept of separation of powers is not adhered to strictly. However, a system of checks and balances has been put in place in such a manner that the judiciary has the power to strike down any unconstitutional laws passed by the legislature.
• The judicial opinions of the judges once taken for any case become the standard for ruling other cases.
• Judicial review can harm the public at large as the judgment may be influenced by personal or selfish motives.
• Repeated interventions of courts can diminish the faith of the people in the integrity, quality, and efficiency of the government.
• There is no direct and express provision in the constitution empowering the courts to invalidate laws,
• but the constitution has imposed definite limitations upon each of the organs, the transgression of which would make the law void.
• The court is entrusted with the task of deciding whether any of the constitutional limitations has been transgressed or not.​

Additional Information

• The term 'Judicial Review' is nowhere found written in the Constitution, but the provisions of several Articles (eg. Articles 13, 32, 131, 132, 133, etc.) explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• The former Supreme Court judge Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri classified the judicial review into the following three categories 
• Judicial review of constitutional amendments.
• Judicial review of legislation of the Parliament and State Legislatures and subordinate legislations.
• Judicial review of administrative action of the Union and State and authorities under the state

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

Key Points

• The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre.
• It is a recommendatory body to investigate and also discuss subjects, in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest.
• It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by the Presidential Order, 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commissions.

Important Points

• The ISC is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the states and the Central government. Rather, the President can establish it at any time if it appears to him that the public interests would be served by the establishment of such a council.
• ISC is headed by Prime Minister (Chairman).

The correct answer is a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1.

Key Points

• Primary Sector
• When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector.
• It is known as the agricultural and allied sector services.
• Secondary Sector
• The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity.
• It is known as the manufacturing sector.
• Tertiary Sector
• After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two.
• These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
• These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process.​
• It is known as the service sector.

​

Additional Information

• Examples of Primary Sector of Economy.
• Farming
• Fishing
• Coal mining
• Forestry and logging
• Hunting
• Oil extraction
• Diamond mining
• Other activities linked with extracting and producing natural resources.
• Examples of the Secondary Sector of the Economy
• Automobile production
• Textile
• Construction
• Heavy Industry
• Chemical engineering
• Food Industry
• Technology Industry
• Aerospace space
• Shipbuilding
• Energy utility
• Examples of the Tertiary Sector of the Economy
• Retail sales
• Transportation and distribution
• Restaurants
• TourismRetail sales
• Transportation and distribution
• Restaurants
• Tourism
• Hotels
• Teaching
• Insurance and banking
• Healthcare services
• Advertising
• Administration
• Legal services

The correct answer is "Narasimha Rao".

Key Points

• Prime Minister P.V. Narsimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh began the economic reform process in July 1991.
• It was termed as 'liberalization' by the media.
• The goal of the reforms was to make the economy more market and service-oriented and expand the role of private and foreign investment.
• There was significant opposition to the reforms, but both Rao and Singh continued the reforms.
• Following the reforms, India's GDP rose from $266 billion to$3 trillion and its purchasing power parity rose from $1 trillion in 1991 to$1.2 trillion in 2019 respectively.
• Liberalization: The aim of liberalization was to end the 'license raj' and end the restrictions which were a hindrance in the development and growth of the nation. It also allowed private players to expand their business.
• Privatization: Privatization was to reduce the monopoly of public sector companies and increase the role of private sector companies.
• Globalization: The aim of globalization was to integrate the Indian economy with the global one.

Important Points

• Positive Impacts of Economic Reform
• The growth of GDP increased from 5.6% during 1980-91 to 6.4% during 1992-2001.
• Foreign investment increased. Foreign exchange reserves increased.
• The growth of the service sector has increased.

Additional Information

• Indira Gandhi
• She was the first and only female Prime Minister of India.
• She was the second longest-serving Indian prime minister after her father Jawahar Lal Nehru.
• She was also awarded "Bangladesh Freedom Honour" in 2011.
• She was also the President of INC in 1959.
• Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was assassinated on 31 October 1984.
• Indira Gandhi was killed by her Sikh bodyguards Beant Singh and Satwant Singh in the aftermath of Operation Blue Star.
• She was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1971.
• Manmohan Singh
• Former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Union Finance Minister of India during the New Economic Policy 1991.
• The main objective of the policy was to plunge the Indian economy into the area of Globalization, to achieve economic stabilization, and also to move towards a higher economic growth rate.​
• Rajiv Gandhi 
• Rajiv Gandhi was the 6th Prime Minister of India.
• He was assassinated on 21st May 1991 by a suicide bomber from LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam).
• He served as the Prime Minister from 1984 to 1989 after his mother's assassination in 1984.
• He was posthumously awarded the **Bharat Ratna in 1991.**​

The correct answer is ShaktiKanta Das.

Key Points

• ShaktiKanta Das is 25th governor of the Reserve Bank of India effective December 2018 to till date.
• He was former a member of 15th finance commission of India.
• RBI is the regulatory body responsible for regulation of the Indian banking system.
• It is formed on 1 April 1935 in Kolkata, India.
• It is responsible for the control, issue and maintaining supply of the Indian rupee.

Additional Information

• Urjit Patel served as 24th Governor of Reserve Bank of India during 2016 to 2018 and also Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India from 2013 to 2016.
• Raghuram Rajan was former 23rd governor of Reserve Bank of India during 2013 to 2016.
• He was Chief Economist and Director of research at the International Monetary Fund.
• Arvind Subramanian was former Chief Economic advisor to the Government of India, having served from 16 October 2014 to 20 June 2018.

The correct answer is HRIDAY.

Key Points

• HRIDAY
• National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana was launched on 21 January 2015.
• Its aim is to bringing together urban planning, economic growth and heritage conservation in an inclusive manner to preserve the heritage character of each Heritage City.
• It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• It was implemented in 12 cities of Ajmer (Rajasthan), Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh), Amritsar (Punjab), Badami (Karnataka), Dwarka (Gujarat), Gaya (Bihar), Kancheepuram and Velankanni (Tamil Nadu), Mathura and Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), Puri (Odisha), and Warangal (Telangana).

Additional Information

• SAGY
• Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) is a rural development programme.
• It was launched on 11th October 2014.
• Its aim is to  translate the comprehensive vision of Mahatma Gandhi about an ideal Indian village into reality, keeping in view the present context
• It fouces broadly focusing upon the development in the villages which includes social development, cultural development and spread motivation among the people on social mobilization of the village community.
• DDU-GKY
• Grameen Kaushalya Yojana or DDU-GKY is a Government of India youth employment scheme.
• It was launched on 25 September 2014 by Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Venkaiah Naidu on the occasion of 98th birth anniversary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya.
• The Vision of DDU-GKY is to "Transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce".
• MGNREA
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 or MNREGA is known as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act or NREGA,
• It Enacted by legislation on 7 September 2005.
• It is is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the 'right to work'.
• It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

The correct answer is "".

Key Points

• The SDG India Index 2019-20, developed by NITI Aayog, was launched on December 30th, 2019.
• The Index has been constructed spanning 16 out of 17 SDGs with a qualitative assessment of SDG 17.
• It tracks the progress of all the States and Union Territories (UTs) on a set of 100 National Indicators derived from the National Indicator Framework, measuring their progress on the outcomes of interventions and schemes of the Government of India.
• The SDG India Index 2019-20 is intended to provide a holistic view of the social, economic, and environmental status of the country and its States and UTs.
• It has been designed to provide an aggregate assessment of the performance of all Indian States and UTs and to help leaders and change-makers evaluate their performance on social, economic, and environmental parameters.

Additional Information

• 17 Sustainable Development goals are:
• Take urgent action to combat climate change & its impact.
• End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
• Reduce inequalities within & among countries.
• Achieve gender equality & empower all women & girls.
• Zero hunger.
• Good health & well-being.
• Quality Education.
• Affordable & clean energy.
• Decent work & economic growth.
• Industry, Innovation & Infrastructure.
• Sustainable Cities & Communities.
• Responsible Consumption & Production.
• Life below water.
• Life on Land.
• Peace, Justice & Strong Institutions.
• Partnership for the goals.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The SDG India index is developed by NITI Aayog.
• SDG Index Score for Goal 1 range between 28 and 72 for States and between 33 and 58 for UTs.
• Tamil Nadu and Jammu & Kashmir are the top performers among State and UT respectively. Six States bagged a position in the category of Front Runners (with an Index score greater than/equal to 65). However, fourteen States and three UTs fell behind in the Aspirants category (with an Index score of less than 50).
• The NITI Aayog has released the Baseline Report of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index.
• It comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories so far toward implementing the 2030 SDG targets.
• There are 62 National Indicators that measure  the  progress on the outcomes of the interventions and schemes of the
• Government of India.
• The indexes are intended to provide a holistic view of the social, economic, and environmental status of the country and its States and UTs.
• Sustainable Development Goals Index and dashboard reflect the progress of the States and Union Territories.
• Kerala tops the list followed by Himachal, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Goa.

Additional Information

• 17 Sustainable Development goals are:
• Goal 1. Take urgent action to combat climate change & its impact.
• Goal 2. End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
• Goal 3. Reduce inequalities within & among countries.
• Goal 4. Achieve gender equality & empower all women & girls.
• Goal 5. Zero hunger.
• Goal 6. Good health & well-being.
• Goal 7. Quality Education.
• Goal 8. Clean water & sanitation.
• Goal 9. Affordable & clean energy.
• Goal 10. Decent work & economic growth.
• Goal11. Industry, Innovation & Infrastructure.
• Goal 12. Sustainable Cities & Communities.
• Goal 13. Responsible Consumption & Production.
• Goal 14. Life below water.
• Goal 15. Life on Land.
• Goal 16. Peace, Justice & Strong Institutions.
• Goal 17. Partnership for the goals.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Arunachal Pradesh shows the worst condition (NITI Aayog) as regards 'reduced Inequality.
• Telangana and Andaman & Nicobar Islands are the top performers among States and UTs, respectively.
• Sixteen States and five UTs bagged a position in the category of Front Runners (with an Index score higher than/equal to 65). However, four States and three UTs fell behind in the Aspirants category (with an Index score of less than 50).

Additional Information

• 17 Sustainable Development goals are:
• Take urgent action to combat climate change & its impact.
• End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
• Reduce inequalities within & among countries.
• Achieve gender equality & empower all women & girls.
• Zero hunger.
• Good health & well-being.
• Quality Education.
• Affordable & clean energy.
• Decent work & economic growth.
• Industry, Innovation & Infrastructure.
• Sustainable Cities & Communities.
• Responsible Consumption & Production.
• Life below water.
• Life on Land.
• Peace, Justice & Strong Institutions.
• Partnership for the goals.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar has retained the Bottom rank in NITI Aayog's SDG India Index 2020-21 and Kerala got top rank in NITI Aayog's SDG India index.
• NITI Aayog has constructed the SDG India Index (Sustainable Development Goals).
• The progress of all the States and Union Territories (UTs) on a set of 62 National Indicators are tracked by SDG Index.
• It measures their progress on the outcomes of the interventions and schemes of the Government of India.
• It aims to measure India and its States’ progress towards the SDGs for 2030.
• Gujarat got top rank in SDG health Index in 2022.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog is apex public policy think tank of Government of India in place of Planning Commission.
• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is formed in 1 January 2015 and headquarter is in New Delhi.
• Rajiv kumar is the second vice-chairman of the NITI Aayog during 2017 to 2022.
• Suman Bery is currently vice-chairman of NITI Aayog replacing Rajiv kumar in 2022.

Coir Board - Thiruvananthapuram is not correctly matched**.**

Key Points

• Coir board
• It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Coir Industry Act 1953.
• Its aim is to the promotion and development of the coir (coconut fibre) industry in India.
• its Headquarter is in Coir House, Kochi in Kerala.

Additional Information

• Spices Board
• The Spices Board is the Indian government regulatory and export promotion agency for Indian spices
• The Spice Board of India is in Kochi.
• Spices Board was constituted in 1987 under Spices Board Act 1986.
• Shri A G Thankappan is the Chairman of Spices Board
• Tea  board
• • Tea Board was set up as a statutory body on 1st April, 1954 as per Section (4) of the Tea Act, 1953.
• It is  established to promote the cultivation, processing, and domestic trade as well as export of tea from India.
• it is founded on 1 April 1954 and headquarter is in Kolkata.
• Coffee Board 
• The Coffee Board of India is an organisation managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry of the government of India to promote coffee production in India.
• The head office of the Coffee Board is situated in Bangalore.

The correct answer is Tamilnadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu has the highest number of operational SEZs (40), followed by Karnataka (31) and Maharashtra (30).
• Special Economic Zone  (SEZ)
• A Special Economic Zone or SEZ is a specially marked territory or enclave within the national borders of a country that has more liberal economic laws than the rest of the country.
• Its objective is to create additional economic activity, to boost the export of goods and services and to generate employment.
• Till 31st January 2021;
• 265 SEZs are operational in the country.
• About 64% of the SEZs are located in five states – Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The Haryana government has launched the Mahila Police Volunteer (MPV) initiative in Karnal and Mahendragarh districts of Haryana.
• Haryana was the first state to adopt initiative this Scheme on pilot basis Under Nirbhaya fund during the financial year 2016-17.
• Mahila Police Volunteer
• It is a joint initiative with the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Their primary job will be to keep an eye on situations where women in the village are harassed or their rights and entitlements are denied or their development is prevented.
• one Mahila Police Volunteer (MPV) is envisaged per Gram Panchayat across the country*.*
• The MPV initiative will make link between the police authorities and the local communities in villages through police volunteers who will be women specially trained for this purpose.
• Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattishgarh, Karnataka and Mizoram states have also approved for implementation MPV’s

The correct answer is Vir sanghvi.

Key Points

• Vir Sanghvi
• ​He writes the regular column Rude Food in Hindustan Times newspaper magazine.
• He is an Indian print and television journalist, author, columnis.
• He host of the television shows “A Matter of Taste” and "Vir Sanghvi's Asian Diary" on the Discovery Travel Living channel.
• The Indian Culinary Foundation has given the “Best Food Critic” award to Vir Sanghvi.

Additional Information

• Sanjeev Kapoor is the most famous and commended chef in India. He hosted the TV show Khana Khazana, the longest running show of its kind in Asia.
• Rajiv Makhni is recognized as the Tech Guru of India, he is a technology journalist.
• Imitiaz Qureshi is an Indian chef and known for creating the culinary brand of Bukhara and reviving the Dum Pukht tradition of cuisine.

The correct answer is Antigua.

Key Points

• Mehul Choksi took the citizenship of Antigua and Barbuda January 2019 after he was accused of involvement in Rs 2 billion PNB Scam.
• India continues to pursue Choksi’s return with the government of Antigua through diplomatic and legal channels.
• Antigua and Barbuda is a sovereign island country in the West Indies.
• Antigua’island is most known for its beautiful white sand beaches.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Abdullah of Pahang.

Key Points

• Abdullah of Pahang
• ​He elected as the 16^th King (Monarch) of Malaysia.
• He replaced Muhammad V of Kelantan, who relinquished on 6 January 2019.
• Abdullah was elected on 24 January 2019, at a special meeting of the Conference of Rulers.
• Monarchical Government is type of government in which a king or queen is head of state and who ruled in entire state.

Additional Information

• Tunku Abdul Rahman is the first supreme chief of state of the Federation of Malayasia.
• Sultan Azlan Shah is the ninth Yang di-Pertuan Agong (King) of Malaysia, who is a supporter of field hockey.So the hockey tournament is named after Azlan Shah Cup.

The correct answer is Stefanos Tsitsipas.

Key Points

• Stefanos Tsitsipas defeated Roger Federer in the Australian Open, 2019.
• Tsitsipas became the first Greek player to reach the semifinals after becoming the first man representing Greece to win a main-draw singles match at the Australian Open.
• Novak Djokovic defeated Rafael Nadal and win the men's singles tennis title at the 2019 Australian Open.
• Rafael Nadal defeated Daniil Medvedev in the final and win the men's singles tennis title at the 2022 Australian Open.

Important Points

• Australian Open
• It is a tennis tournament held annually at Melbourne Park in Melbourne, Australia.
• The tournament is the first of the four Grand Slam tennis events held each year, preceding the French Open, Wimbledon, and the US Open.
• It was played on grass courts, but since then two types of hardcourt surfaces have been used:-green-coloured Rebound Ace and blue Plexicushion since.

Additional Information

• Jo-Wilfried Tsonga is a French former professional tennis player.
• He was ranked as high as world No. 5 by ATP.
• Novak Djokovic is a Serbian professional tennis player.
• He is ranked world No. 1 in singles by the Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP) in 2023.
• Alexander Zverev is a German professional tennis player.
• He has been ranked no. 17 by the Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP) in 2023.

The correct answer is Rakesh Mohan.

Key Points

• Report of  Bimal Jalan Committee
• The Committee reviewed the status, need and justification of the various reserves, risk provisions and risk buffers maintained by the RBI and recommended their continuance.
• The Committee recommended that the RBI should explicitly recognize the ADF not only as a provision for capital expenditure, but also as a risk provision in case of need.
• The Committee recommends Inclusion of the revaluation balances as a part of RBI’s overall risk buffers with the recognition of its special character.

​

Additional Information 

• RBI is the regulatory body responsible for regulation of the Indian banking system.
• It is formed on 1 April 1935 in Kolkata, India.
• It is responsible for the control, issue and maintaining supply of the Indian rupee.
• ShaktiKanta Das is 25th governor of the Reserve Bank of India effective December 2018 to till date.

The correct answer is January 27.

Key Points

• International Holocaust Remembrance Day
• ​It is observed every year on 27 January in memory of the victims of the Holocaust.
• This is based on true event when After World War II, the Nazis, along with their allies, massacred around two-thirds of the Jews in Europe.
• The United Nations General Assembly in its 42nd Plenary Session declared 27 January as International Holocaust Remembrance Day on 1 November 2005.
• In 2022, the theme guiding the United Nations Holocaust remembrance and education is “Memory, Dignity and Justice”.
• Theme of International Holocaust Remembrance Day in 2023 is 'Home and Belonging'

Additional Information

• 15 March is celebrated as World Consumer Rights day on every year with an aim to encourage awareness about consumer rights and needs across the world.
• November 12 is celebrated as World Pneumonia Day to raise awareness of pneumonia, promote prevention and treatment, and generate action to fight the illness.

The correct answer is Rio de Jenerio.

Key Points

• Rio de Jenerio was recognised as the 'World Capital of Architecture' for 2020 by UNESCO.
• Rio de Janerio
• It is the  the capital of the Brazilian state of Rio de Janeiro and the country's second largest city.
• Rio is important for its art and culture scene.
• Summer Olympic was an international multi-sport event held from 5 to 21 August 2016 in Rio de Janerio. Brazil.
• It is most known for Carnival, Samba, Bossa nova and balneario beaches.
• In 2023, the title as the 'World Capital of Architecture'  will be passed on from Rio de Janerio to Copenhagen.
• World Capital of Architecture initiative to highlight the key role of architecture, city planning, and culture in shaping urban identity and sustainable urban development.
• Every three years, the city designated as World Capital of Architecture becomes a global forum.

Additional Information

• UNESCO
• UNESCO is united nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization which is founded on 16 November 1945.
• Its aims to promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, arts, sciences and culture.
• Headquarter of UNESCO is in Paris, France.
• Rab Butler, the minister of Education for the United kingdom is the founder of UNESCO.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Jharsuguda ariport is domestic airport which is known as Veer Surendra Sai Airport.
• It was inaugurated in september 2018 by State government of Odisha.
• The Airport is situated at Jharsuguda district, Odisha, India.
• This airport is selected by government of India for RCS Operation (Regional Connectivity Scheme - UDAN) which is a scheme of central government India.

Additional Information

• Sikkim has Pakyong Airport which is seasonal domestic airport, situated at Gangtok, capital of Sikkim.
• Deogarh airport is a Domestic Airport, inaugurated by PM Modi on 12 July 2022 in Deogarh, Jharkhand.
• The new Greenfield Dholera Airport at Dholera, Ahmedabad which will open in March 2025.
• Mopa International Airport in Goa, named after former chief minister and  defence minister Manohar Parrikar is inaugurated on December 11, 2022.

The correct answer is Andrew Sean Greer.

Key Points

• "Less" is a 2017 satirical comedy novel by American author Andrew Sean Greer.
• The novel won the 2018 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction.
• Andrew Sean Greer is an American novelist and short story writer.
• His the Confessions of Max Tivoli, which was named one of the best books of 2004 by the San Francisco Chronicle and received a California Book Award.

The correct answer is Rusting of Iron.

Key Points

• The rusting of iron -
• It is a chemical change because it is two substances reacting together to make a new substance.

Additional Information

• ​Conversion of ice into water -
• It is a physical change because water can be turned back into ice.
• Mixing of iron filings and sand -
• This is a physical change as the iron filings and sand are separated again.
• Melting of wax -
• This is a physical change because the wax can be brought back to the solid state and no new substance is formed.
• Under Physical change, there is no change in the chemical nature or chemical identity of the substance.
• Under chemical changes, the structure of matter changes.