BSF Constable (Tradesmen) Official Paper (Held On: 28 Aug, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 70500.

Key Points

• In March 2023, the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) of India approved defence acquisition proposals worth Rs. 70,500 crore for the Armed Forces and Indian Coast Guard.
• This approval came under the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category, which stands for "Indigenously Designed, Developed, and Manufactured."
• It reflects the government's push toward self-reliance in defence manufacturing under the "Aatmanirbhar Bharat" initiative.
• The approved proposals include advanced weapon systems, platforms, and equipment for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Coast Guard.
• These acquisitions will significantly enhance the operational capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces, ensuring they remain prepared to address modern warfare challenges.

Additional Information

• Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
• It was formed in 2001 and is chaired by the Defence Minister of India.
• The DAC is the apex body responsible for approving capital acquisition proposals for the Armed Forces.
• Its aim is to ensure a streamlined and efficient decision-making process for defence acquisitions.
• Buy (Indian-IDDM) Category:
• This category prioritizes procurement from Indian vendors, ensuring that defence equipment is designed, developed, and manufactured indigenously.
• It is a part of the Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) to promote domestic defence manufacturing.
• Aatmanirbhar Bharat in Defence:
• The Indian government launched the "Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan" to boost self-reliance in various sectors, including defence.
• In line with this vision, the Ministry of Defence has identified more than 400 defence items for which imports are to be progressively restricted.
• The focus is on enhancing local manufacturing capabilities through initiatives such as the Innovation for Defence Excellence (iDEX) program.
• Indian Defence Manufacturing:
• India has several state-owned and private defence manufacturers, including Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL).
• The government has opened up the defence sector to 100% foreign direct investment (FDI) in specific cases to attract global manufacturers.

The correct answer is 48.5 percent.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census of India, females constitute 48.5% of the total population in the country.
• The total population of India recorded during the 2011 Census was approximately 1.21 billion, out of which the female population was about 586.47 million.
• The sex ratio (number of females per 1,000 males) was recorded as 940 females per 1,000 males in the 2011 Census.
• The female literacy rate in India, as per the 2011 Census, was 65.46%, showing gradual improvement compared to previous censuses.
• Women represent a significant portion of the population and play a critical role in economic, social, and cultural development.

Additional Information

• Census Overview
• The Census of India is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census conducted since 1872.
• The census collects comprehensive data on demographics, literacy, housing, gender composition, and other socio-economic factors.
• Sex Ratio in India
• The sex ratio is an important demographic indicator showing the balance between the male and female populations.
• India’s sex ratio has historically been skewed towards males, but gradual improvements have been observed over the years.
• States like Kerala reported a better sex ratio of 1,084 females per 1,000 males in 2011.
• Female Literacy Rate
• The literacy rate is a critical metric to assess the development of women in society.
• Female literacy improved significantly in 2011 compared to the 2001 Census, which recorded a rate of 53.67%.
• Government initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aim to promote education and empowerment among women.
• Population Growth Trends
• India’s population growth has been rapid, with a decadal growth rate of 17.64% between 2001 and 2011.
• Urbanization has been a key factor in population distribution, with more people moving to cities for better opportunities.

The correct answer is Sewing.

Key Points

• Sewing is a technique used to join fabrics, leather, or other materials using a needle and thread. It is not related to separating substances.
• Methods such as threshing, handpicking, and winnowing are commonly used to separate substances, especially in agricultural processes.
• Threshing is a technique used to separate grains or seeds from their husks or stalks.
• Handpicking involves manually separating substances based on size, shape, or type—for example, picking stones from grains.
• Winnowing uses wind or air to separate heavier particles like grains from lighter ones such as husks.

Additional Information

• Threshing:
• It is a method of separating edible parts of grains from the husk and stalks.
• Commonly performed using machines in modern agriculture but can also be done manually by beating harvested plants.
• Handpicking:
• It is a simple and manual method of separating unwanted substances from useful ones.
• Best suited for substances that are large and can be easily identified, such as separating stones from rice or wheat.
• Winnowing:
• It is an agricultural process to separate lighter husks or chaff from heavier grains using wind or airflow.
• Traditionally, farmers throw the mixture into the air and let the wind blow away the lighter chaff while the heavier grains fall to the ground.
• Other methods of separation:
• Sieving: Used to separate substances based on particle size, such as separating flour from impurities.
• Filtration: Used for separating solids from liquids in mixtures, such as removing sand from water.
• Evaporation: Used to separate soluble substances from liquids, such as obtaining salt from seawater.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• The phrase "Unity and Integrity of the Nation" replaced the original "Unity of the Nation" in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1976.
• This change was made through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which is often referred to as the "Mini Constitution" due to its extensive changes.
• The 42nd Amendment was enacted during the period of the Emergency in India (1975-1977) under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The inclusion of "Integrity" emphasized the importance of national unity and territorial integrity, especially in the context of growing separatist movements during the 1970s.
• This amendment also added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble, reflecting the ideological shift and objectives of the Indian State.

Additional Information

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976:
• Known as the most comprehensive amendment to the Indian Constitution, it made significant changes to the Preamble and various parts of the Constitution.
• It was enacted to give effect to the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was formed to review the Constitution during the Emergency.
• Key Changes Introduced by the 42nd Amendment:
• Added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble.
• Shifted several items from the State List to the Concurrent List, strengthening the powers of the Central Government.
• Introduced Fundamental Duties for citizens under Part IV-A of the Constitution.
• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
• It is an introductory statement that outlines the guiding principles and philosophy of the Constitution.
• Originally, it declared India to be a "Sovereign, Democratic, Republic."
• Post the 42nd Amendment, it now describes India as a "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic."

The correct answer is Tamil.

Key Points

• Tamil was the first language to be accorded the status of a classical language in India in the year 2004.
• The designation of Tamil as a classical language recognizes its rich literary tradition and ancient history spanning over 2,000 years.
• The classical language status is provided to languages that meet certain criteria, such as having an independent tradition and a body of ancient literature.
• Tamil boasts an extensive collection of ancient literary works, including the Sangam literature, which dates back to 300 BCE to 300 CE.
• It is one of the oldest living languages in the world, and its contributions to Indian culture, philosophy, and literature are widely acknowledged.

Additional Information

• Criteria for Classical Language Status:
• The language must have a recorded history of at least 1,500-2,000 years.
• It should possess ancient literature or texts that serve as a valuable heritage for generations.
• The literary tradition should be unique and not borrowed from another language.
• The language should have a distinct identity and cultural significance.
• Other Classical Languages in India:
• After Tamil, other languages accorded classical status are Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
• These languages have contributed significantly to India's cultural and literary heritage.
• Sangam Literature:
• The Sangam literature is a collection of ancient Tamil poems written by multiple authors during the Sangam period.
• It includes works on love, war, ethics, and governance, showcasing Tamil's literary richness.
• Some notable works are "Tolkappiyam" (grammar text) and "Ettuthogai" (Eight Anthologies).
• Recognition Benefits:
• Languages with classical status receive financial assistance for research and promotion.
• Institutions and academies are established to protect and promote classical languages.

The correct answer is Loo.

Key Points

• Loo refers to the hot and dry winds that blow over the northern plains of India during the summer season, particularly in May and June.
• The temperature of Loo can rise as high as 45°C to 50°C, making it one of the harshest weather phenomena in the region.
• These winds originate due to the intense heating of the landmass in northern India during summer, leading to low-pressure zones.
• The Loo is known for its desiccating effect, causing dryness and dehydration among people, animals, and vegetation.
• Regions affected by Loo include parts of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Delhi, where it disrupts daily life.

Additional Information

• Trade Winds:
• Trade winds are steady winds that blow from east to west in the tropics and subtropics, between 30° latitude north and south.
• They are caused by the Earth's rotation and the Coriolis effect, facilitating global heat distribution.
• Trade winds play a crucial role in ocean circulation and global weather patterns.
• Kaal Baisakhi:
• Kaal Baisakhi refers to pre-monsoon thunderstorms occurring in eastern India, particularly in West Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.
• These storms bring short but intense rainfall, hail, and strong winds, often causing agricultural damage.
• They are most common during April and May.
• Foehn Winds:
• Foehn winds are warm, dry winds that occur in the lee side of mountains due to adiabatic heating.
• They are common in the Alps, Rockies, and other mountainous regions.
• These winds play a significant role in melting snow and affecting local climates.
• Impact of Loo:
• The Loo significantly increases the risk of heat-related illnesses like heatstroke and dehydration.
• People in affected regions often stay indoors during peak hours to avoid exposure.
• Traditional remedies like consuming raw mango drinks (panna) are used to mitigate the effects of Loo.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• The statement "Stocks are defined over a period of time" is incorrect because stocks are measured at a particular point in time, such as capital, assets, or liabilities on a specific date.
• The statement "Flows are defined at a particular point of time" is also incorrect because flows represent changes over a period of time, such as income, expenditure, or production over a year.
• In National Income Accounting, stocks and flows are two distinct economic concepts used for measurement purposes.
• Stocks are static in nature and represent a snapshot at a particular moment, while flows are dynamic and represent movements or changes.
• Therefore, both statements fail to accurately describe the nature of stocks and flows, making the correct option "Neither I nor II."

Additional Information

• Definition of Stocks:
• Stocks refer to quantities measured at a specific point in time.
• Examples include national wealth, population, total savings, or total capital stock.
• Definition of Flows:
• Flows refer to quantities measured over a period of time, such as days, months, or years.
• Examples include national income, investment, exports, and imports.
• Key Relationship Between Stocks and Flows:
• Flows contribute to changes in stocks over time. For example, savings (flow) add to the total wealth (stock).
• Conversely, depreciation (flow) reduces the capital stock over time.
• Examples in Real-World Context:
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is a flow as it measures economic output over a year.
• Foreign exchange reserves are a stock, representing the total reserves available at a given moment.

The correct answer is 24º – 25º.

Key Points

• Chennai, located on the eastern coast of India, experiences a tropical wet and dry climate that results in relatively mild winters compared to other parts of India.
• During the winter season, the average temperature in Chennai typically ranges between 24º to 25º Celsius, ensuring a warm and pleasant climate.
• The city lies near the Bay of Bengal, which helps in moderating the temperature throughout the year, preventing extreme cold during winters.
• Unlike northern parts of India, Chennai does not experience significant temperature drops in winter due to its proximity to the sea and tropical climate.
• The mild winter temperatures make Chennai a suitable destination for tourists during this season.

Additional Information

• Geography of Chennai:
• Chennai is located on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu, India.
• The city is relatively flat and lies close to sea level, contributing to its consistent and moderate climate.
• Climate Classification:
• Chennai falls under the tropical wet and dry climate category according to the Köppen climate classification.
• The city experiences three main seasons: summer, monsoon, and winter, with minimal temperature variation.
• Köppen Climate Classification:
• Köppen Climate Classification​ uses letters (A-E) for five main groups (Tropical, Dry, Temperate, Continental, Polar) based on temperature/precipitation, with further letters denoting seasonal rainfall (f, m, s, w) and temperature variations, linking climate types to vegetation, and is the most common system for classifying Earth's diverse climates

The correct answer is Production function.

Key Points

• The production function defines the relationship between the quantities of inputs (such as labor, capital, raw materials) used and the amount of output produced by a firm.
• It is a mathematical representation that shows how efficiently a firm converts inputs into outputs under given technological conditions.
• The production function is expressed as Q = f(L, K, M), where Q is the quantity of output, L is labor, K is capital, and M is materials.
• It helps firms analyze the optimal combination of inputs to maximize output or minimize costs.
• The concept is crucial for understanding economic efficiency, marginal productivity, and the law of diminishing returns in production processes.

Additional Information

• Types of Production Functions:
• Short-Run Production Function: In the short run, at least one input is fixed while others are variable (e.g., labor is variable, but capital is fixed).
• Long-Run Production Function: All inputs are variable, allowing the firm to adjust all factors of production to achieve optimal output.
• Law of Diminishing Returns: States that as additional units of a variable input (e.g., labor) are added to fixed inputs (e.g., capital), the marginal output of the variable input will eventually diminish.
• Isoquants: These are curves that represent all possible combinations of inputs that result in the same level of output.
• Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS): Refers to the rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping the level of output constant.
• Economic Importance: The production function helps businesses and policymakers understand resource allocation, cost minimization, and efficiency improvements in production processes.

The correct answer is Hindi.

Key Points

• Tripura has three official languages: Bengali, Kokborok (also known as Tripuri), and English.
• Hindi is widely spoken across India but is not recognized as an official language of Tripura.
• Bengali is the most widely spoken language in Tripura, used by the majority of the population.
• Kokborok is the official language of the indigenous Tripuri communities in the state.
• English is used for administrative and official purposes, particularly in government communications.

Additional Information

• Bengali Language:
• Bengali is an Indo-Aryan language primarily spoken in the Indian states of West Bengal and Tripura and the country of Bangladesh.
• It is the second most spoken language in India after Hindi and is widely used for communication, education, and media in Tripura.
• Kokborok Language:
• Kokborok belongs to the Sino-Tibetan family of languages.
• It is spoken by the Tripuri people and is one of the state’s official languages.
• The Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) promotes Kokborok for cultural preservation.
• English Language:
• English serves as a link language for administration, education, and official documentation in Tripura.
• It is commonly used in government offices and for inter-state and international communication.
• Hindi in India:
• Hindi is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India and is the most widely spoken language in the country.
• Despite its prominence, Hindi is not officially recognized in Tripura, where Bengali, Kokborok, and English are prioritized.

The correct answer is 75.37 percent.

Key Points

• The literacy rate of Karnataka, as per the 2011 Census of India, is 75.37 percent, which is above the national average literacy rate of 74.04 percent.
• Karnataka ranks among the states with a relatively high literacy rate in India.
• Male literacy rate in Karnataka stands at 82.47 percent, while female literacy rate is recorded at 68.08 percent.
• The improvement in literacy rates is attributed to government initiatives, such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and mid-day meal schemes, which have encouraged higher enrollment in schools.
• Urban areas in Karnataka tend to have higher literacy rates compared to rural regions, showcasing disparity in educational access and infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Literacy Rate in India (2011 Census):
• The national literacy rate as per the 2011 Census was recorded at 74.04 percent, with male literacy at 82.14 percent and female literacy at 65.46 percent.
• Kerala reported the highest literacy rate in India at 94 percent, while Bihar recorded the lowest at 61.8 percent.
• Government Initiatives to Improve Literacy:
• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan: A nationwide program aimed at providing free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Mid-Day Meal Scheme: A program designed to improve enrollment rates and reduce dropout rates by providing free meals in schools.
• Digital Literacy Campaigns: Initiatives to enhance digital literacy, especially in rural areas.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Dola Purnima is a prominent festival celebrated in the Indian state of Odisha, especially among the Odia-speaking communities.
• The festival is observed during the Phalguna month of the Hindu calendar, which typically falls in February or March.
• The main ritual involves the worship of Lord Krishna, particularly in the form of Radha-Krishna idols placed in palanquins (locally known as "Dola").
• Villagers carry the palanquins in processions, accompanied by devotional songs, traditional music, and colorful decorations.
• Dola Purnima coincides with Holi celebrations, and the festival marks the arrival of spring, embodying joy, colors, and devotion.

Additional Information

• Regional Customs:
• In Odisha, the festival is observed with unique rituals, such as the "Dola Melana," where multiple palanquins from different villages gather for grand celebrations.
• The palanquins are decorated elaborately, and competitions are held to choose the best-decorated palanquin.
• Connection to Agriculture:
• The festival also marks the end of the harvest season, and farmers express gratitude to the deities for a fruitful harvest.
• It serves as a period of rejuvenation for agricultural communities before the onset of the new farming cycle.
• Gujarat – Famous for festivals like Navratri (Garba), Uttarayan (Kite Festival), and Rann Utsav.
• Kerala – Known for Vishu (New Year), Onam, and Thrissur Pooram festivals.
• Haryana – Celebrates Gugga Naumi, Teej, and Baisakhi as prominent festivals.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The President of India administers the oath of secrecy to the Union Ministers before they assume office, as per Article 75(4) of the Indian Constitution.
• The oath of office and secrecy is prescribed in the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• A Union Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) within six months of appointment, as per Article 75(5) of the Constitution.
• If a Union Minister is not elected or appointed as a member of Parliament within six months, they lose their ministerial position as per constitutional provisions.
• Thus, both Statement I and Statement II are correct in the context of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution:
• It deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers by the President.
• It states that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• It mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Oath of Office and Secrecy:
• The oath of office and secrecy is taken by ministers before assuming their roles, as per the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• The oath emphasizes allegiance to the Constitution, upholding its principles, and maintaining confidentiality of official matters.
• Six-Month Rule for Ministers:
• As per Article 75(5), a person can be appointed as a minister even if they are not a member of Parliament at the time of appointment.
• However, they must become a member of either House of Parliament within six months to continue holding the position.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The 5th Junior Boys National Boxing Championship 2023 was hosted by Arunachal Pradesh, showcasing the state's growing interest in sports.
• The event took place in Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, and witnessed participation from young boxing talents across the country.
• It was organized under the aegis of the Boxing Federation of India (BFI), which aims to promote boxing at the grassroots level.
• This championship serves as a platform for identifying young boxing talents and preparing them for international competitions.
• Arunachal Pradesh has been increasingly focusing on sports infrastructure and development, making it a suitable host for such events.

Additional Information

• Boxing Federation of India (BFI):
• The BFI is the national governing body for boxing in India, recognized by the Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs.
• Its primary objective is to nurture talent and ensure that Indian boxers compete at the highest levels globally.
• The BFI organizes various national championships, including junior, youth, and senior categories.
• Arunachal Pradesh and Sports Development:
• The state government has been actively promoting sports to engage youth and develop infrastructure for various games.
• Arunachal Pradesh has hosted several national and regional sporting events in recent years.
• Initiatives like the ‘Khelo India’ program have significantly contributed to the development of sports in this region.
• Boxing in India:
• Boxing is one of the most popular sports in India, with athletes like Mary Kom and Vijender Singh bringing international fame to the country.
• India has won several medals in boxing at the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
• Grassroots initiatives and championships are vital for maintaining the country’s competitive edge in the sport.

The correct answer is Attorney-General for India.

Key Points

• Article 76 of the Indian Constitution provides for the position of the Attorney-General for India, who is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
• The Attorney-General is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) and must be a person qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President and performs legal duties assigned by the President.
• The Attorney-General has the right of audience in all courts in India and can participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but does not have the right to vote.
• The Attorney-General is responsible for giving legal advice to the Government of India, representing the Union in legal matters, and performing other legal duties as assigned by the President.

Additional Information

• Qualifications of the Attorney-General:
• The person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• This requires the individual to be a citizen of India and have at least five years of experience as a judge of a High Court, ten years as an advocate of a High Court, or be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President.
• Functions and Responsibilities:
• The Attorney-General advises the Government of India on legal matters referred to them by the President.
• They also perform duties of a legal character that are assigned by the President, including appearing on behalf of the government in important cases.
• The Attorney-General represents the Union Government in the Supreme Court and any other court when required.
• Distinction from Advocate General:
• While the Attorney-General represents the Union Government, the Advocate General represents the State Government and is appointed under Article 165 of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Herbs are small plants with tender, green, and soft stems. They do not have woody stems as seen in shrubs or trees.
• They are generally short in height, typically growing up to a few feet.
• Herbs complete their life cycle (from germination to seed production) in one or two growing seasons, making them either annuals or biennials.
• Herbs are not usually large in size, as stated in the question. They are small-sized plants compared to shrubs or trees.
• Examples of herbs include coriander, mint, spinach, basil, and wheat.

Additional Information

• Herbs vs. Shrubs and Trees:
• Shrubs are medium-sized plants with woody stems and branches that grow close to the ground (e.g., rose, hibiscus).
• Trees are large plants with a single, thick woody stem or trunk and a large canopy (e.g., mango, neem).
• Types of Herbs:
• Culinary herbs: Used in cooking to enhance flavor (e.g., basil, oregano).
• Medicinal herbs: Used in traditional medicine for their healing properties (e.g., turmeric, ashwagandha).
• Aromatic herbs: Used for their pleasant fragrance (e.g., lavender, mint).

The correct answer is Pune.

Key Points

• The India-Africa joint military exercise 'AFINDEX 2023' was conducted in Pune, Maharashtra in May 2023.
• The exercise aimed at strengthening military cooperation and interoperability between Indian and African nations.
• A total of 23 African nations participated in the military exercise along with the Indian Army.
• The focus of the exercise was on humanitarian mine assistance and peacekeeping operations under the United Nations mandate.
• The event showcased India's commitment to partnering with African nations for enhanced regional security and stability.

Additional Information

• India-Africa Defence Relations
• India has been actively engaging with African nations through defense cooperation, training programs, and joint exercises.
• Such initiatives are aimed at building mutual trust and addressing shared security concerns.
• India provides training to African defense personnel through its various military institutions under the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) program.
• India conducts various military exercises with African nations, notably the recent Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME) 2025, a naval exercise focused on maritime security.

The correct answer is Konkan.

Key Points

• The northern part of the western coastal plain of India is known as Konkan, which stretches from Maharashtra to Goa.
• It lies between the Western Ghats on the east and the Arabian Sea on the west.
• Konkan is characterized by narrow coastal plains, sandy beaches, estuaries, and lush greenery.
• The region is known for its agricultural significance, producing rice, mangoes, and cashew nuts.
• Major cities along the Konkan coast include Mumbai, Ratnagiri, and Goa, contributing to its cultural and economic importance.

Additional Information

• Western Coastal Plains:
• India's western coastal plains are divided into three parts: the Konkan (northern part), Kannad (middle part), and Malabar (southern part).
• The plains are narrow and run parallel to the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
• They are known for their rich biodiversity and fertile soil, supporting agriculture and horticulture.
• Significance of Konkan:
• The Konkan region is an important tourism hub, known for its serene beaches and cultural heritage sites like forts and temples.
• It is home to the famous Alphonso mango, a prized variety of mangoes from the Ratnagiri district.
• It also hosts several ports, such as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) in Mumbai, which plays a crucial role in India's trade and commerce.
• Kannad and Malabar Regions:
• The Kannad plains cover the central region of the western coast, primarily comprising Karnataka.
• The Malabar coast lies in the southern part, covering Kerala and parts of Tamil Nadu.
• Both regions are crucial for spice cultivation, fisheries, and tourism.
• Kutch – A region in Gujarat, famous for the Rann of Kutch, a vast seasonal salt marsh; not part of the Western Coastal Plains classification.

The correct answer is 29th August.

Key Points

• The National Sports Day in India is celebrated annually on 29th August to honor the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• Major Dhyan Chand, known as the "Wizard of Hockey," was born on 29th August 1905.
• The day is marked to raise awareness about the importance of sports and physical activities in maintaining a healthy lifestyle.
• The Government of India celebrates this day by organizing various sports-related events, including award ceremonies like the National Sports Awards, which include the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, and Dhyan Chand Award.
• Several schools, colleges, and organizations across the country host sports events and programs to commemorate the day.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand:
• Major Dhyan Chand is regarded as one of the greatest hockey players in history, having won three Olympic gold medals for India in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
• He was known for his extraordinary ball control and goal-scoring abilities, earning him global recognition.
• The Government of India awarded him the Padma Bhushan in 1956, the third-highest civilian award.
• National Sports Awards:
• The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, now renamed the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, is the highest sporting honor in India.
• The Arjuna Award is given for outstanding performance in sports, while the Dronacharya Award recognizes excellent coaching in sports.
• The Dhyan Chand Award honors lifetime achievements in sports and contribution to promoting sports in India.
• 29th July – Celebrated globally as International Tiger Day.
• 7th August – Observed as National Handloom Day in India.

The correct answer is 13 April.

Key Points

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919, during the celebration of the Punjabi festival of Baisakhi.
• It occurred in Amritsar, Punjab, when British troops under the command of General Reginald Dyer opened fire on a gathering of unarmed civilians.
• Approximately 1,000 people were killed, and over 1,200 were injured, making it one of the deadliest massacres in Indian history.
• The incident was a response to protests against the Rowlatt Act, which allowed the British colonial government to imprison individuals without trial.
• The massacre significantly fueled the Indian independence movement, leading to widespread condemnation of British rule.

Additional Information

• Rowlatt Act (1919):
• Officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, it allowed detention without trial and curtailed civil liberties.
• It sparked widespread protests across India, including in Amritsar.
• General Reginald Dyer:
• He was the British officer responsible for ordering the firing on the unarmed civilians at Jallianwala Bagh.
• His actions were widely criticized, but he was supported by some British officials at the time.
• Impact on Indian Independence Movement:
• The massacre marked a turning point in India's struggle for independence.
• It led to increased support for leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and motivated the launch of movements such as the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• Jallianwala Bagh Memorial:
• Located in Amritsar, Punjab, it was established to commemorate the victims of the massacre.
• The memorial includes a museum, inscriptions, and the preserved bullet marks on the walls.
• International Reaction:
• The massacre was condemned globally, with leaders such as Rabindranath Tagore renouncing their British honors in protest.
• It remains a symbol of colonial oppression and resistance against injustice.

The correct answer is Inland Emigration Act.

Key Points

• The Inland Emigration Act of 1859 was enacted during British rule in India to regulate the movement of plantation laborers, particularly in Assam.
• Under this act, plantation workers were restricted from leaving the tea estates without prior permission from the estate owners or managers.
• The act was designed to ensure a continuous and captive labor supply for the tea plantations, which were a significant source of revenue for the British Empire.
• This legislation imposed severe restrictions on the freedom of movement of workers, essentially binding them to the tea estates where they were employed.
• The conditions of workers under this act were often exploitative, with poor wages, harsh working conditions, and limited rights for the laborers.

Additional Information

• Background of Tea Plantations in Assam:
• Tea cultivation in Assam began in the early 19th century and became a major industry under British rule.
• Plantation laborers were primarily recruited from tribal and marginalized communities across India.
• Impact of the Inland Emigration Act:
• The act created a system of indentured labor, where workers were bound to their employers through contracts.
• It led to widespread exploitation of workers, including long working hours, poor living conditions, and lack of basic rights.
• Reforms and Workers' Struggles:
• Over time, labor movements and social reforms brought attention to the plight of plantation workers.
• The post-independence period saw significant efforts to improve labor rights and working conditions in plantations.
• Repeal of the Act:
• The Inland Emigration Act was eventually repealed in independent India, and new labor laws were introduced to protect workers' rights.
• These changes reflected the growing recognition of the need for fair labor practices and social justice.

The correct answer is Ayurveda.

Key Points

• Charaka Samhita is one of the oldest and most authoritative texts in Ayurveda, believed to be composed around 300 BCE by Acharya Charaka.
• The book primarily focuses on internal medicine (Kayachikitsa) and is regarded as a foundational text for Ayurvedic practitioners.
• The Charaka Samhita consists of 8 sections (Sthanas) covering various aspects of health, disease, diagnosis, treatment, and preventive healthcare.
• It emphasizes the importance of diet, lifestyle, and balance of the three doshas (Vata, Pitta, Kapha) in maintaining health and preventing diseases.
• The text provides detailed descriptions of medicinal herbs, their properties, and their usage in treating ailments, making it a cornerstone of Ayurvedic pharmacology.

Additional Information

• Ayurveda:
• Ayurveda is an ancient Indian system of medicine that focuses on holistic healing and is derived from two Sanskrit words: "Ayur" (life) and "Veda" (knowledge).
• It emphasizes the balance of the three doshas (Vata, Pitta, Kapha) and their role in maintaining health.
• The principles of Ayurveda include preventive care, detoxification, and rejuvenation therapies.
• Ayurvedic practices also integrate yoga, meditation, and herbal remedies for overall wellness.
• Other Classical Texts of Ayurveda:
• Sushruta Samhita: Focuses on surgery and is considered the first text to describe surgical procedures.
• Ashtanga Hridaya: A condensed version of Charaka and Sushruta Samhitas, covering internal medicine and surgical practices.
• Doshas and Their Importance:
• Vata: Governs movement and is associated with air and space.
• Pitta: Regulates metabolism and digestion and is linked to fire and water.
• Kapha: Represents structure and lubrication and is related to earth and water.
• Imbalance of doshas can lead to various diseases, and Ayurveda provides remedies to restore balance.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-3 is India's third lunar exploration mission developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• One of the primary objectives of Chandrayaan-3 is to demonstrate safe and soft landing capabilities on the lunar surface.
• The mission also aims to conduct in-situ scientific experiments on the lunar surface to study its composition and characteristics.
• Chandrayaan-3 consists of a lander and a rover configuration, designed to achieve these specific objectives.
• The successful accomplishment of these goals is intended to advance India's space exploration capabilities and contribute to global lunar research.

Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-3 Mission Overview:
• Launched by ISRO, Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-up mission to Chandrayaan-2, with a focus on achieving a successful soft landing on the Moon.
• Unlike Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-3 does not include an orbiter; it consists solely of a lander and rover module.
• Key Achievements & Missions of ISRO:
• Aryabhata (1975): India's first satellite.
• MOM (2014): First nation to reach Mars orbit on its first attempt.
• Record Launches: Launched 104 satellites in one go (2017).
• Satellite Systems: Operates major constellations like INSAT (communications) and IRS (remote sensing).

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The Odisha High Court is located in Cuttack, which is the principal seat of the High Court in the state of Odisha.
• Cuttack is the only city with a bench of the Odisha High Court, serving as the judicial capital of the state.
• Bhubaneswar, despite being the administrative capital of Odisha, does not have a bench of the High Court.
• As per the Indian judicial system, a High Court can have multiple benches in different parts of the state, but Odisha High Court currently has only one bench in Cuttack.
• Proposals to establish additional benches in other cities like Bhubaneswar or Western Odisha are under consideration but have not been implemented.

Additional Information

• Odisha High Court
• It was established on 26th July 1948, following the creation of the new state of Odisha in 1936.
• The High Court has jurisdiction over the entire state of Odisha.
• It is one of the oldest High Courts in India and plays a vital role in upholding the rule of law in the state.
• Key Functions & Powers of High Courts:
• Appellate Jurisdiction: Hear appeals from District Courts in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases.
• Writ Jurisdiction (Art. 226): Issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.) to enforce fundamental rights and for other purposes.
• Original Jurisdiction: Hear certain cases directly (e.g., election petitions, admiralty, company matters).
• Supervisory Powers: Control and supervise all lower courts and tribunals within their state.
• Court of Record: Records of judgments are preserved and used by lower courts; can punish for contempt.
• Judicial Review: Power to declare laws or executive actions unconstitutional.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Kui language is primarily spoken by the Kondh tribal community, one of the largest tribal groups in Odisha.
• Kui is an Austroasiatic language belonging to the Dravidian language family.
• The language is predominantly used in the Kandhamal and Rayagada districts of Odisha.
• Kui holds cultural significance, as it serves as the mother tongue of the Kondh tribe, helping preserve their traditions and heritage.
• In 2012, the Odisha government recognized Kui as the second official language of the state to promote its usage and safeguard its cultural importance.

Additional Information

• Tribal Population in Odisha:
• Odisha is home to 62 tribal communities, constituting approximately 23% of its population.
• The Kondh tribe is the largest tribal group in Odisha, primarily residing in hilly and forested regions.
• UNESCO’s Classification:
• Kui is classified as a vulnerable language by UNESCO, indicating a need for active preservation efforts.
• The recognition of Kui as an official language aims to address this vulnerability.
• Assam:
• Official: Assamese, Bodo.
• Major/Widely Spoken: Bengali, Hindi, Mishing, Nepali, Karbi.
• Manipur:
• Official: Manipuri (Meitei).
• Other Languages: Thadou, Kuki, Tangkhul, Mao, Hmar, Kom.
• Goa:
• Official: Konkani.
• Widely Spoken: Marathi, Hindi, English, Kannada, Urdu.

Given:

Equal marks obtained in English & History.

Ratio of marks in history & maths = 6 : 7

Maximum marks for each subjects is 100

Calculation:

English               History              Maths

 1                          1           →            1

 6          ←              6                          7

---

6                             6                           7

English : History :  Maths = 6x : 6x : 7x 

Maximum marks of all 3 subjects = 100 × 3 = 300 then,

Total marks scored by the student in all 3 subjects

⇒ 300 × 76% 

⇒ 300 × 76/100 = 228 marks.

⇒ 6x + 6x + 7x = 228

⇒ 19x = 228

⇒ x = 228/19 = 12

Score in History = 6x = 6 × 12 = 72 marks.

∴ The student scored 72 marks in history.

Shortcut Trick

Given: 60% of CP = 40% of SP.

Ratio of CP : SP = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3.

Profit in units = 3 − 2 = 1 unit.

Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (1 ÷ 2) × 100 = 50%.

∴ The correct answer is 50 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: 60% of Cost Price (CP) = 40% of Selling Price (SP).

Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ 0.60 × CP = 0.40 × SP

⇒ CP ÷ SP = 0.40 ÷ 0.60 = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ Let CP = 2 and SP = 3

⇒ Profit = 3 − 2 = 1

⇒ Profit% = (1 ÷ 2) × 100 = 50%

∴ The correct answer is 50 percent.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Ratios

When a percentage of CP equals a percentage of SP, the values are inversely proportional to their coefficients: x% of CP = y% of SP ⇒ CP/SP = y/x.

Percentage Calculation

Profit or Loss percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise in the problem.

Given:

Height of a cone = 12 cm

Radius of the cone = 3.5 cm

Formula used:

Volume of the cone = $1\over3$πr²h  where,

Height = h

Radius = r

Calculation:

According to the question,

Volume of the cone = $1\over3$ × $22\over7$ × (3.5)² × 12

⇒ $1\over3$ × $22\over 7$ × 3.5 × 3.5 × 12

⇒ 154 cm³ 

∴ The volume of the cone is 154 cm³.

Given:

$\left(1+\frac{1}{19}\right)+\left(1+\frac{2}{19}\right)+\left(1+\frac{3}{19}\right)........+\left(1+\frac{18}{19}\right)$

Formula used:

In AP, sum of 'n' numbers 

S_n = $n\over2$[2a + (n - 1) d]  where, 

a = first term, n = total number of terms and d = common difference.

Calculation:

S = $\left(1+\frac{1}{19}\right)+\left(1+\frac{2}{19}\right)+\left(1+\frac{3}{19}\right)........+\left(1+\frac{18}{19}\right)$

⇒ S = ($20\over 19$) + ($21\over 19$) +( $22\over19$) +....... +$37\over19$

⇒ S = $1\over 19$(20 + 21 + 22 + ....+ 37)

⇒ 19S = 20 + 21 + 22 + .....+ 37

Here, a = 20. n = 18, d = 1

19S = $18\over2$[(2 x 20) + (18 - 1) 1]

⇒ 19S =  9 [40 +17]

⇒ 19S = 9 [57]

⇒ S  = 9 x (57/19)

⇒ S = 9 x 3 = 27

∴ The value is 27.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers = 2 : 6 : 3

Product of ratios = 2 × 6 × 3 = 36

Let the common multiplier be x. Then 36x³ = 12348

⇒ x³ = 12348 ÷ 36 = 343 ⇒ x = 7

Sum of ratios = 2 + 6 + 3 = 11

Sum of numbers = 11 × 7 = 77

∴ The correct answer is 77.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio = 2 : 6 : 3 and Product = 12348

Let the three numbers be 2x, 6x, and 3x.

⇒ Product = 2x × 6x × 3x = 12348

⇒ 36x³ = 12348

⇒ x³ = 12348 ÷ 36

⇒ x³ = 343

⇒ x = ³√343 = 7

⇒ Sum of numbers = 2x + 6x + 3x = 11x

⇒ Sum = 11 × 7 = 77

∴ The correct answer is 77.

Additional Information

Ratio and Product Property

When numbers are in ratio a:b:c and their product is P, the constant x is found by x = ³√(P ÷ (a×b×c)).

Sum of Ratios

The sum of the actual numbers is always equal to the (Sum of Ratio Parts) × (Common Constant x).

Given:

two successive discounts = 25%, 4%

Formula:

After successive discounts,

Net discount = a + b - ab/100

Calculation:

Net discount = 25 + 4 - (25 × 4)/100

⇒ 29 - 1 = 28%

∴ The net discount is 28%.

Given:

Radius of the cone = 10 cm

Height of the cone = 24 cm

Formula:

Total surface of area of a cone = πR(L + R)

L = $\sqrt {{R^2} + {H^2}}$

Where, R = Radius of the base, H = Height of the cone,

L = Slant height of the cone

Calculation:

L = $\sqrt {{10^2} + {24^2}}$ = $\sqrt {{100} + {576}}$

⇒ L = $\sqrt {{676}}$ = 26 cm

Total surface area of the cone

⇒ π × 10 × (26 + 10)

⇒ 22/7 × 10 × 36

⇒ 7920/7 = 1131.428 ≈ 1131.43 cm²

∴ The total surface area of the cone is 1131.43 cm2.

Shortcut Trick 

MP = Rs. 2200

Discount % = 14%

⇒ 100 unit = Rs. 2200

⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 22

Now, Real SP = 86 × 22 = Rs. 1892

∴ The selling price of the machine is Rs. 1892.

Alternate Method

Given:

MP = Rs. 2200

Discount % = 14%

Formula:

SP = MP - Discount

Discount % = Discount/MP × 100

Calculation:

Let, Discount = D

According to the question,

⇒ 14 = D/2200 × 100

⇒ 14/100 = D/2200

⇒ D = 14/100 × 2200

⇒ D = 14 × 22 = Rs. 308

Now, SP = 2200 - 308 = Rs.1892

∴ The selling price of the machine is Rs. 1892.

Formula:

Sum of n natural numbers = $\dfrac {n(n + 1)} {2}$

Sum of n multiples of m = $m \dfrac {n(n + 1)} {2}$

Calculation:

Sum of 23 multiples of 17

⇒ $17 × \dfrac {23(23 + 1)} {2}$

⇒ $17 × \dfrac {23 × 24} {2}$

⇒ 17 × 23 × 12 = 4692

Now,

Average of 23 multiples of 17

⇒ 4692/23 = 204

∴ The average is 204.

Given:

Average age of 12 students = 23 years

Average age of students including two teachers = 35 years

Age of science teacher = (Age of mathematics teacher + 15) years

Formula:

Sum of total observation = Total number of observations × Average

Calculation:

Let, Age of mathematics teacher = X years

Age of science teacher = (X + 15) years

Total age of 12 students

⇒ 23 × 12 = 276 years

Total age of students including two teachers

⇒ 35 × 14 = 490 years

According to the question,

⇒ 276 + X + (X + 15) = 490

⇒ 276 + 2X + 15 = 490

⇒ 2X + 291 = 490

⇒ 2x = 490 - 291

⇒ X = 199/2 = 99.5 years

∴ The age of mathematics teacher is 99.5 years.

Given:

The value of z% of z = 1849

Calculation:

z % of z can be written as = z × z/100

⇒ z × z/100 = 1849

⇒ z²/100 = 1849

⇒ z² = 184900

⇒ z² = 430 × 430 = 430²

⇒ z = 430.

Hence, the value of z is 430.

Shortcut Trick

 

Combined efficiency = 6 + 5 + outlet = 3

Efficiency of outlet pipe = 3 - 11 = -8 units

Here minus sign indicates it will work against the inlet pipe

Efficiency of outlet pipe = 44 gallons/hour

⇒ 8 units → 44

⇒ 1 unit → 44/8 = 5.5

Capacity of tank = 120 units = 120 × 5.5 = 660 gallons.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by pipe-1 to fill the tank = 20 hours

Time taken by pipe-2 to fill the tank = 24 hours

Efficiency of outlet pipe = 44 gallons/hour

Time taken to fill tank while working together = 40 hours

Formula used:

Total work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let the capacity of the tank be x gallons

Pipe-1's one hour work = x/20

Pipe-2's one hour work = x/24

And one hour work of all together = x/40

⇒ x/20 + x/24 - 44 = x/40

⇒ x/20 + x/24 - x/40 = 44

⇒ (6x + 5x - 3x)/120 = 44

⇒ 8x/120 = 44

⇒ 8x = 44 × 120 = 5280

⇒ x = 5280/8 = 660

Hence, the capacity of the tank is 660 gallons.

Shortcut Trick

Let Initial CP = 100.

Profit = 220% of 100 = 220 ⇒ SP = 100 + 220 = 320.

New CP = 100 + 40% of 100 = 140.

New Profit = 320 − 140 = 180.

New Profit % = (180 ÷ 140) × 100 = 128.57%.

∴ The correct answer is 128.57 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Profit = 220% of CP, CP increases by 40%, SP remains constant.

Formulas: SP = CP + Profit | Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Assume Initial Cost Price (CP₁) = 100 units.

⇒ Profit = 220% of 100 = 220 units.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP₁ + Profit = 100 + 220 = 320 units.

⇒ New Cost Price (CP₂) = 100 + 40% of 100 = 140 units.

⇒ New Profit = SP − CP₂ = 320 − 140 = 180 units.

⇒ New Profit % = (180 ÷ 140) × 100 = (9 ÷ 7) × 100 ≈ 128.57%.

∴ The correct answer is 128.57 percent.

Additional Information

Profit on Cost Price vs Selling Price

Profit percentage is usually calculated on Cost Price unless specified otherwise. If CP increases while SP is constant, the Profit Margin decreases.

Percentage Change

When a value increases by x%, the new value is Original × (100 + x) ÷ 100.

Given:

37.5% of S + 12.5% of T = 62.5% of T

Concept used:

Fraction of 37.5% = 3/8

Fraction of 12.5% = 1/8

Fraction of 62.5% = 5/8

Calculation:

⇒ 37.5% of S + 12.5% of T = 62.5% of T

We can write the expression as

⇒ 3/8 × S + 1/8 × T = 5/8 × T

⇒ 3/8 × S = 5/8 × T - 1/8 × T

⇒ 3/8 × S = 4/8 × T

⇒ S = 4/3 × T

⇒ S = 1.333 × T = T + 0.333T

⇒ S = 100% of T + 33.3% of T

⇒ S = 133.3% of T

Hence, S is 133.33 of T.

Given:

Rate of interest = 32%

Time =  2 years

Compound interest = 6681.6

Formula used:

CI = P[1 + (R/100)]^T - P

Where, CI = Compound interest

R = Rate of interest

P = Principle and T = Time

Calculation:

⇒ 6681.6 = P[1 + (32/100)]² - P

⇒ 6681.6 = P × (132/100)² - P

⇒ 6681.6 = P × (1.32 × 1.32) - P

⇒ 6681.6 = 1.7424 × P - P

⇒ 6681.6 = 0.7424P

⇒ P = 6681.6/0.7424 = 9000

Hence, the value of the principle is Rs. 9000.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Distance as a multiple of denominators (3, 4) and speed factors, let it be 108 km.

Time for first 1/3 part (36 km) at 18 km/hr = 36 ÷ 18 = 2 hours.

Time for second 1/4 part (27 km) at 27 km/hr = 27 ÷ 27 = 1 hour.

Time for rest part (108 − 36 − 27 = 45 km) at 45 km/hr = 45 ÷ 45 = 1 hour.

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 108 ÷ (2 + 1 + 1) = 108 ÷ 4 = 27 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 27 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed₁ (v₁) = 18 km/hr for 1/3 part

Speed₂ (v₂) = 27 km/hr for 1/4 part

Speed₃ (v₃) = 45 km/hr for the rest part

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Total Distance be D km.

⇒ Rest part = 1 − (1/3 + 1/4) = 1 − (4+3)/12 = 1 − 7/12 = 5/12 part.

⇒ Time taken for 1/3 part (t₁) = (D/3) ÷ 18 = D/54 hours.

⇒ Time taken for 1/4 part (t₂) = (D/4) ÷ 27 = D/108 hours.

⇒ Time taken for rest part (t₃) = (5D/12) ÷ 45 = 5D/(12 × 45) = D/(12 × 9) = D/108 hours.

⇒ Total Time (T) = D/54 + D/108 + D/108

⇒ T = (2D + D + D) / 108 = 4D / 108 = D / 27 hours.

⇒ Average Speed = D ÷ (D/27) = 27 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 27 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Equal Distances

If two equal distances are covered at speeds u and v, then Average Speed = 2uv / (u + v).

Average Speed for Equal Time Intervals

If a person travels at speed u for time t and then at speed v for the same time t, then Average Speed = (u + v) / 2.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Given:

The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 8 ∶ 7 ∶ 3.

Concept Used:

The measure of angles of a triangle is 180° 

Calculation:

Let the three angles of triangle be 8X, 7X & 3X.

⇒ 8X + 7X + 3X = 180°

⇒ 18X = 180°

⇒ X = 10°

⇒ Largest angle = 8X = 8 × 10° = 80°

∴ The largest angle of the triangle is 80°

Shortcut Trick

Total reduction in the sum of weights of 43 students = 43 × 0.5 = 21.5 kg.

This reduction occurs because the new student weight is added to the total.

New Average = Weight of joining student + Reduction in total weight of original students

New Average = 49 + 21.5 = 70.5 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 70.5 kg.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial students = 43, Weight of new student = 49 kg, Average reduction = 0.5 kg.

Let the new average weight of the class be 'x' kg.

⇒ Total number of students after joining = 43 + 1 = 44

⇒ Old average weight = (x + 0.5) kg

⇒ Total weight of 44 students = 44 × x

⇒ Total weight of 43 students = 43 × (x + 0.5)

According to the question:

⇒ Total weight of 44 students = (Total weight of 43 students) + (Weight of new student)

⇒ 44x = 43(x + 0.5) + 49

⇒ 44x = 43x + 21.5 + 49

⇒ 44x − 43x = 70.5

⇒ x = 70.5 kg

∴ The correct answer is 70.5 kg.

Additional Information

Average Basic Formula

Average = Total Sum of Observations ÷ Number of Observations.

Inclusion of a New Member

If a new member joins and average decreases by 'd', then New Average = New Member Weight + (Old Number × d).

Weighted Average

When two groups are combined, Combined Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

The length of the longest rod in a room is equal to the diagonal of the cuboid.

Diagonal = √(L² + B² + H²)

Diagonal = √(5² + 12² + 13²) = √(25 + 144 + 169) = √338

Diagonal = √(169 × 2) = 13√2 m

∴ The correct answer is 13√2 metres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) = 5 m

Breadth (B) = 12 m

Height (H) = 13 m

Formula Used:

Length of longest rod = √(L² + B² + H²)

Calculations:

⇒ Square of Length = 5² = 25

⇒ Square of Breadth = 12² = 144

⇒ Square of Height = 13² = 169

⇒ Sum of squares = 25 + 144 + 169

⇒ Sum of squares = 169 + 169 = 338

⇒ Length of rod = √338

⇒ Length of rod = √(169 × 2)

⇒ Length of rod = 13√2 m

∴ The correct answer is 13√2 metres.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Cuboid

The total surface area of a room (cuboid) is given by 2(LB + BH + HL).

Volume of Cuboid

The space occupied by the room is calculated as Volume = Length × Breadth × Height.

Diagonal of a Cube

If all sides of the room are equal (a), then the longest rod length = a√3.

Lateral Surface Area

The area of the four walls of a room is given by 2H(L + B).

Given:

The length of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 10 metre & 20 metre.

Its height is 8 metre.

Concept used:

Area of the trapezium = 1/2 (sum of the parallel sides) × height

Calculation:

Area of the trapezium is,

⇒ 1/2 ( 10 + 20)  × 8 = 120 metre2

∴ The area of the trapezium is 120 metre2.

Shortcut Trick

The remainder when any number is divided by 10 is equal to the units digit of that number.

For a base ending in 4, the units digit follows a cycle of 2: 4¹ = 4 (odd) and 4² = 6 (even).

Since the exponent 24 is an even number, the units digit of 4²⁴ must be 6.

Therefore, the remainder when 24²⁴ is divided by 10 is 6.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression = 24²⁴, Divisor = 10

To find the remainder of 24²⁴ ÷ 10, we use the property of congruence:

⇒ 24 ≡ 4 (mod 10)

⇒ 24²⁴ ≡ 4²⁴ (mod 10)

Now, let us examine the cyclicity of the units digit for base 4:

⇒ 4¹ = 4

⇒ 4² = 16

⇒ 4³ = 64

⇒ 4⁴ = 256

The units digit is 4 for odd powers and 6 for even powers.

⇒ Exponent = 24 (which is an even number)

⇒ Units digit of 4²⁴ = 6

⇒ 24²⁴ ≡ 6 (mod 10)

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Remainder by 10

The remainder of any positive integer n divided by 10 is simply the last digit (units place) of that integer.

Cyclicity of 4 and 9

Numbers ending in 4 and 9 have a cyclicity of 2. For 4: 4^odd ends in 4, 4^even ends in 6. For 9: 9^odd ends in 9, 9^even ends in 1.

General Cyclicity Rule

The units digit of any number repeats after every 4 powers. To find the unit digit of xⁿ, find the remainder of n ÷ 4 and apply it as the new power to the last digit of x.

Given:

Total Amount = Rs 34400

Time = 6 years

R = 12%

Formula Used:

1. SI = PRT/100

2. SI = Total Amount - P

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time(in years)

Calculation:

According to the question,

34400 = P + $\frac{P× 12× 6}{100}$

⇒ 34400 = P(1 + $\frac{72}{100}$)

⇒ 34400 = P($\frac{172}{100}$)

⇒ P = (34400 × 100)/172

⇒ P = Rs 20000

SI = 34400 - 20000 = Rs 14400

∴ The total interest for the 6 years is Rs 14400.

Given:

Speed of a train is 46 km/hr

Length of the train is 805 metre

Concept Used:

1 km/hr = (5/18) m/s

1 sec = 1/60 minutes

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let T be the time required by the train to cross a man

Speed of a train = 46 × (5/18) = 115/9 m/s

⇒ T = $\frac{805}{\frac{115}{9}}$ = $\frac{805\times9}{115}$ = 63 seconds

⇒ T = 63 sec = 63/60 = 21/20 minutes

∴ The train will take 21/20 minutes to cross a man standing on the platform.

Shortcut Trick

If the area of a square and a rectangle are equal, with rectangle dimensions being (x + a) and (x − b), the side of the square x is given by x = (a × b) ÷ (a − b).

Here, a = 6 cm and b = 4 cm, so the side of the square x = (6 × 4) ÷ (6 − 4) = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm.

Length = 12 + 6 = 18 cm, and Breadth = 12 − 4 = 8 cm.

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth) = 2 × (18 + 8) = 52 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 52 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of square = Area of rectangle

Let the side of the square be x cm.

Length of rectangle (L) = (x + 6) cm

Breadth of rectangle (B) = (x − 4) cm

Formula Used:

Area of square = Side²

Area of rectangle = L × B

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (L + B)

Calculations:

⇒ Area of square = Area of rectangle

⇒ x² = (x + 6) × (x − 4)

⇒ x² = x² + 2x − 24

⇒ 2x = 24

⇒ x = 12 cm

⇒ L = 12 + 6 = 18 cm

⇒ B = 12 − 4 = 8 cm

⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (18 + 8)

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × 26 = 52 cm

∴ The correct answer is 52 cm.

Additional Information

Rectangle Properties

Opposite sides are equal and all internal angles are exactly 90°. Area = L × B, and Perimeter = 2 × (L + B).

Square Properties

A specific type of rectangle where all four sides are equal. Area = Side², Perimeter = 4 × Side, and Diagonal = Side × √2.

Perimeter vs Area

Perimeter represents the total continuous boundary length of a 2D shape (measured in linear units like cm). Area indicates the 2D space enclosed inside the boundary (measured in square units like cm²).

Given:

X, Y, and Z together can complete a work in 15 days

X and Y together can complete the same work in 30 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let the total work be 30 units (LCM of 15 and 30)

⇒ Efficiency (X+Y+Z) = 30/15 = 2 units

⇒ Efficiency (X+Y) = 30/30 = 1 unit

Efficiency of Z = [Efficiency (X+Y+Z)] - [Efficiency (X+Y)]

⇒ Efficiency of Z = 2 - 1 = 1 units

Time taken by Z = 30/1 = 30 days

∴ Z alone can finish the same work in 30 days.

Given statement: 

T < I = Z ≤ H

G < I

Conclusions:

I. H > T → True (As T < I = Z ≤ H. So, we get H > T, therefore is true.)

II. H > G → True (As G < I = Z ≤ H. So, we get H > G, therefore is true.)

Thus, both conclusions I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: $\sqrt[3]{1330.628}+\sqrt574.97{}-\sqrt{145} = ?$

New Equation: $\sqrt[3]{1331}+\sqrt576{}-\sqrt{144} = ?$

Calculation :

⇒ $\sqrt[3]{1331}+\sqrt576{}-\sqrt{144} = ?$

⇒ 11 + 23 - 12 = ?

⇒ 34 – 12 = ?

⇒ 22 = ?

22 ≅ 23

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(HK, FI, DG)

Similarly,

(TW, RU, PS) 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘PSUET’ is written as ‘27’

And,

‘SDONT’ is written as ‘24’

Similarly,

‘LAWES’ is written as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

RT : PQ

Similarly,

NP : LM

​

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

‘BETTER’ is written as ‘ZCRQBO’

Similarly,

‘DRIVEN’ is written as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given:

I. 7 p 18 r 3 q 11 = 31 ⇒ 7 × 18 ÷ 3 - 11 = 31

⇒ 7 × 18 ÷ 3 - 11 = 31

⇒ 7 × 6 - 11 = 31

⇒ 42 - 11 = 31

⇒ 31 = 31 (LHS = RHS)

II. 8 r 10 p 20 q 14 = 3 ⇒ 8 ÷ 10 × 20 - 14 = 3

⇒ 8 ÷ 10 × 20 - 14 = 3

⇒ 0.8 × 20 - 14 = 3

⇒ 16 - 14 = 3

⇒ 2 ≠ 3 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, Only I is correct.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given statement: B < A ≥ Z > Y ≤ X

Conclusions:

I. A > Y → True (As B < A ≥ Z > Y ≤ X. So, we get A > Y, therefore is true.)

II. X ≥ Z → False (As B < A ≥ Z > Y ≤ X. So, no relation can be determined between X and Z, therefore is false.)

Thus, If only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) OFX – QIC

Option 2) YPH – ASS

Option 3) DOV – FQF

​Option 4) EVN – GYM​

Thus, out of all 'DOV – FQF' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given word: NUISANCE

According to the question:

Forward pairs: None

∴ The total number of pairs in forward directions is 'one'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given Expression: P @ Q # R $ S * T

P @ Q → P is the mother of Q. 

Q # R → Q is the daughter of R.

R $ S → R is the son of S. 

S * T → S is the father of T. 

Thus, S is Q's grandfather.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some B are G → Follow (As all H are B and some G are H. As some part of G is common with H which whole comes in B, therefore it is true.)

II. No M is H → Does not follow (As some M are G and some G are H. So it is possible but not definite)

III. Some G are not B → Does not follow (As all H are B and some G are H. As no direct relation is given between B and G, therefore it is false.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion I follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given: Six person A, B, C, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing opposite to the centre

1) A is second to the right of X.

2. C is the immediate neighbour of both A and Y.

3) W is fourth to the right of B.

Thus, W is to the immediate left of X.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Five students P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing towards the north.

1) P is on the left end of the row.

2. Q is third to the right of P.

3. Only T is sitting between Q and R.

After remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. S.

Thus, S is sitting to immediate right of Q.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: 5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 3 + 4 = 5

According to the question, after interchanging the numbers:

Option 1) 8 and 4

5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 3 + 4 = 5 ⇒ 5 – 6 × 4 ÷ 3 + 8 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 4 ÷ 3 + 8 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 0.75 + 8 = 5

⇒ 5 + 8 – 8 = 5

⇒ 13 – 8 = 5

⇒ 5 = 5 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) 6 and 4

5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 3 + 4 = 5 ⇒ 5 – 4 × 8 ÷ 3 + 6 = 5

⇒ 5 – 4 × 8 ÷ 3 + 6 = 5

⇒ 5 – 4 × 2.67 + 6 = 5

⇒ 5 + 6 – 10.67 = 5

⇒ 11 – 10.67 = 5

⇒ 0.33 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 8 and 3

5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 3 + 4 = 5 ⇒ 5 – 6 × 3 ÷ 8 + 4 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 3 ÷ 8 + 4 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 0.375 + 4 = 5

⇒ 5 + 4 – 2.25 = 5

⇒ 5 – 2.25 = 5

⇒ 2.75 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) 4 and 3

5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 3 + 4 = 5 ⇒ 5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 8 ÷ 4 + 3 = 5

⇒ 5 – 6 × 2 + 3 = 5

⇒ 5 + 3 – 12 = 5

⇒ 8 – 12 = 5

⇒ -4 ≠ 5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Here,

M denotes '×' 

N denotes '-'

4 M 10 N 9 = 31 

⇒ 4 × 10 - 9 = 31

⇒ 40 - 9 = 31

⇒ 31 = 31 (LHS = RHS)

And,

6 M 12 N 20 = 52 

⇒ 6 × 12 - 20 = 52

⇒ 72 - 20 = 52

⇒ 52 = 52 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

8 M 3 N 1 = ? 

⇒ 8 × 3 - 1 = ?

⇒ 24 - 1 = ?

⇒ 23 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given word: REMARKABLE

According to the question, the given word is written in the reverse order to form a new word:

REMARKABLE → ELBAKRAMER

Forward pairs: None

Backward pairs: EL, AB

∴ The total number of pairs in both forward and backward directions is 'two'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All G are Z → Does not follow (As some Z are K and all K are G. So it is possible but not definite)

II. No K is Z → Does not follow (As some Z are K. As some part of Z is common with K, therefore it is false)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given series: 5 9 8 8 7 8 9 7 8 8 8 3 3 9 3 5 9 5 3 5 5 3 7 3 3 

According to the question:

Required condition: 5 - 3 - Not 3 or 5

5 9 8 8 7 8 9 7 8 8 8 3 3 9 3 5 9 5 3 5 5 3 7 3 3 

Thus, there is one such 3’s which are immediately preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3 or 5.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given series: G @ W @ G W G G $@ @ @ @ G @ G W$ @ $G$ $$ $

According to the question:

Required condition: Symbol - Letter - Symbol

G @ W @ G W G G $ @ @ @ @ G @ G W $ @ $G$ $$ $

Thus, there are three such letters which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by symbols.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

UTV : QPR

Similarly,

FCQ : ?

​

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Contingent.

Key Points

• The word "Corp" is derived from "corps", which refers to a group of people or a body of individuals working together, typically in a military or organizational context. (समूह/संघ)
• Example: The medical corps worked tirelessly to provide aid during the disaster.
• "Contingent" refers to a group of people united by a common purpose or forming part of a larger body, such as a military contingent. (दल/समूह)
• Example: A contingent of volunteers arrived to help with the rescue operations.
• Hence, "Corp" is synonymous with "Contingent" in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Contingent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Whole (पूरा): Refers to something complete or entire, without missing parts.
• Example: The whole team celebrated their victory together.
• Individual (व्यक्ति): Refers to a single person or entity, as opposed to a group.
• Example: Each individual has the right to express their opinion freely.
• Connection (संबंध): Refers to a link or association between two or more things.
• Example: There is a deep connection between their success and hard work.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The proverb "Once bitten, twice shy" means that if someone has had a bad experience, they will be cautious or fearful in similar situations in the future. (एक बार चोट खाने के बाद आदमी अगली बार सतर्क रहता है।)
• Example: After being cheated in business once, he was hesitant to trust anyone again.
• This proverb reflects the tendency of people to learn from their painful experiences and avoid repeating the same mistakes. (लोग अपनी तकलीफ भरी अनुभवों से सीखते हैं और वही गलती दोहराने से बचते हैं।)
• Example: She was reluctant to lend money to her friends after being betrayed once.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: If you take up a task without much thought you may have great difficulty in completing it (यदि आप बिना सोचे-समझे कोई काम करते हैं तो उसे पूरा करने में कठिनाई हो सकती है।)
• Example: Starting a project without proper planning often leads to complications.
• Option 3: Those who learn from mistakes become doubly confident of handling such situations in future (जो अपनी गलतियों से सीखते हैं, वे भविष्य में ऐसी परिस्थितियों को संभालने में अधिक आत्मविश्वास से भर जाते हैं।)
• Example: After failing once, he became adept at solving similar problems.
• Option 4: An introverted person will always feel awkward in a gathering (एक अंतर्मुखी व्यक्ति हमेशा किसी सभा में असहज महसूस करेगा।)
• Example: He rarely attended parties because he felt uncomfortable in large groups.

The correct answer is: Acrimony.

Key Points

• The word "Rancor" refers to a deep-seated bitterness, resentment, or ill will, especially when long-standing. (कटुता/द्वेष)
• Example: The rancor between the two neighbors grew after years of disputes over property boundaries.
• "Acrimony" refers to harshness, sharpness, or bitterness in speech, behavior, or manner. It is closely related to "Rancor" in meaning. (कटुता)
• Example: The debate ended with a lot of acrimony between the participants.
• Hence, the most appropriate synonym of "Rancor" is "Acrimony."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Acrimony.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stale (बासी): No longer fresh or new; dull or uninteresting.
• Example: The bread had gone stale after being left out for days.
• Reverence (श्रद्धा): Deep respect for someone or something.
• Example: The monk was greeted with reverence by his followers.
• Comradery (सौहार्द): A feeling of friendship and mutual trust among people who spend a lot of time together.
• Example: The comradery among the teammates was evident as they celebrated their victory.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (extraordinary).

Key Points

• The word "mediocre" means something that is of only average quality, not very good or excellent. (सामान्य, औसत)
• Example: The movie received mediocre reviews from the critics because it lacked originality.
• "Extraordinary" refers to something that is very unusual, remarkable, or exceptional; it is the opposite of something mediocre. (असाधारण)
• Example: Her extraordinary talent in singing made her a star at such a young age.
• Hence, the most appropriate antonym of 'mediocre' is 'extraordinary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (extraordinary).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Occasional (कभी-कभी): Happening or done sometimes, but not regularly or frequently.
• Example: She made occasional visits to the countryside to relax.
• Decent (सभ्य, ठीक-ठाक): Something that is good enough, though not extraordinary.
• Example: He has a decent job that pays well and provides stability.
• Niche (विशिष्ट स्थान): A specialized segment or position in a market or field.
• Example: She has carved a niche for herself in the fashion industry.

The correct answer is 'inside'.

 

Key Points

• The word "inside" is the most appropriate option to complete the sentence as it aligns with the context and is grammatically correct.
• The sentence indicates that Taman is suggesting a location where the Lord should wait, and "inside" fits naturally in this context.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are not suitable as they do not fit grammatically or contextually in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "My Lord, you should wait inside," said Taman."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "otherside" is incorrect because it is not a proper word in English and does not fit the context.
• Option 2: "backside" is incorrect because it refers to a rear position and does not fit the sentence logically.
• Option 3: "in" is grammatically incomplete in this context and does not convey a clear idea.

The correct answer is: Affluence.

Key Points

• The word "Destitution" refers to extreme poverty or the lack of basic necessities such as food, shelter, and clothing. (दरिद्रता, गरीबी)
• Example: The organization aims to help families living in destitution by providing them with food and shelter.
• "Affluence" means wealth, abundance, or having a great deal of money and resources. It is the opposite of destitution. (समृद्धि, संपन्नता)
• Example: Despite his humble beginnings, he worked hard and achieved affluence in his later years.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'destitution' is 'affluence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Affluence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Adulation (प्रशंसा): Excessive admiration or praise.
• Example: The actor received adulation from fans worldwide for his performance.
• Felicitation (बधाई ): Congratulatory remarks or celebrations.
• Example: The winners were honored with felicitations during the award ceremony.
• Thievery (चोरी): The act of stealing or theft.
• Example: The police are investigating thievery in the local neighborhood.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "Something that takes a long time to finish begins with one step."

Key Points

• The proverb "A journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step" means that any large or difficult task must start with a small, initial action. (एक लंबी यात्रा की शुरुआत एक छोटे कदम से होती है।)
• Example: Writing a novel may seem overwhelming, but starting with one page a day makes it manageable.
• The proverb encourages people to take the first step toward their goals, no matter how daunting the task may seem. (यह कहावत लोगों को प्रेरित करती है कि वे चाहे कार्य कितना भी कठिन क्यों न हो, अपने लक्ष्य की ओर पहला कदम उठाएं।)
• Hence, the proverb signifies that progress and success require beginning with a single, actionable step.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "What is 'beautiful' is different for each person." (जो सुंदर है, वह प्रत्येक व्यक्ति के लिए अलग हो सकता है।)
• This statement refers to the subjective nature of beauty, meaning everyone has their own perception of what is beautiful.
• Example: For some, a sunset is the most beautiful thing, while others may find beauty in art or music.
• Option 2: "If something takes time to do, it doesn’t help to constantly check on it." (यदि कुछ समय लेने वाला कार्य है, तो उस पर बार-बार ध्यान देना मददगार नहीं है।)
• This relates to the proverb "A watched pot never boils," which means patience is key when waiting for results.
• Example: Constantly checking your plant will not make it grow faster; you must let it grow over time.
• Option 3: "Don’t put all of your hopes and resources into one goal or dream." (अपने सभी प्रयास और संसाधन केवल एक लक्ष्य या सपने में मत लगाएं।)
• This refers to diversifying efforts, often compared to the phrase "Don't put all your eggs in one basket."
• Example: It's wise to invest in different areas rather than putting all your money in one stock.

The correct answer is: Option 4 – School of fishes.

Key Points

• The word "School" in this context refers to a large group of fish swimming together in a coordinated manner. (मछलियों का झुंड)
• Example: A school of fishes was seen swimming near the coral reefs.
• A school allows fish to move collectively, offering protection from predators and aiding in finding food more efficiently.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 – School of fishes.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Bunch of fishes (मछलियों का गुच्छा): "Bunch" typically refers to a group of things like flowers or keys, but it is not used for fishes.
• Example: A bunch of keys was lying on the table.
• Camp of fishes (मछलियों का शिविर): "Camp" is used to describe a temporary settlement of people or animals, not a group of fishes.
• Example: The soldiers set up a camp near the river.
• Cluster of fishes (मछलियों का समूह): "Cluster" refers to a group of similar items close together but is not specifically used for fishes swimming together.
• Example: There was a cluster of stars visible in the night sky.

The correct answer is 'ate'.

 

Key Points

• The word "ate" is the past tense of "eat," meaning to consume food.
• In the context of the sentence, it appropriately describes the action of consuming the portion given by the old man.
• The other options: "dye," "eight," and "die" do not fit the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: As his heart sank deeper and his tears rose, he ate the portion the old man gave him quickly.

Additional Information

• Dye (रंगना): means to add or apply color to something.
• Eight (आठ): refers to the number 8.
• Die (मरना): means to stop living or cease to exist.

The correct answer is 'immediately'.

 

Key Points

• The word "immediately" means without delay or instantly. (तुरंत)
• In the given sentence, the word "immediately" fits correctly as it describes the quick action of Vraka.
• The other options: "fast," "moreover," and "rapidly" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Vraka immediately rose and saluted his commander.

Additional Information

• Fast (तेजी से): means moving quickly but does not convey the sense of immediate action.
• Moreover (इसके अलावा): is a conjunction used to add information, hence it is contextually incorrect.
• Rapidly (तेजी से): means happening quickly but lacks the instant sense conveyed by "immediately".

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'LEISURE'.

• LEISURE means 'free time or spare time for relaxation or enjoyment'. (फुर्सत, आराम का समय)
• For Example -
• She enjoys reading books in her leisure time.

Additional Information

Let's understand the misspelled words - 

• RELEVENT - Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is RELEVANT, which means 'closely connected or appropriate to the matter at hand' (प्रासंगिक).
• TWELTH - Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is TWELFTH, which refers to the ordinal number after eleventh (बारहवां).
• NOTICIBLE - Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is NOTICEABLE, which means 'easily seen or worthy of attention' (ध्यान देने योग्य).

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "Astute" means having or showing an ability to accurately assess situations or people and turn this to one's advantage; shrewd or clever. (चतुर, चालाक)
• Example: The astute businessman managed to outsmart his competitors and secure the best deal.
• "Foolish" refers to lacking good sense or judgment; unwise or imprudent. (मूर्ख)
• Example: It would be foolish to invest all your savings in a single risky venture.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Astute' is 'Foolish'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Canny (चतुर): Having or showing shrewdness and good judgment, especially in money or business matters.
• Example: His canny negotiations saved the company millions of dollars.
• Clever (चतुर, होशियार): Quick to understand, learn, and devise ideas; intelligent.
• Example: She devised a clever solution to the complex problem.
• Keen (उत्सुक, तीव्र): Having or showing eagerness or enthusiasm; sharp or penetrating.
• Example: He has a keen interest in photography and spends hours capturing moments.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'peice'.

• The correct spelling would be 'piece'.
• The word 'piece' is a noun which means 'a portion of an object or material.' (टुकड़ा)
• For Example -
• She ate a piece of cake after dinner.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'peice'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Contrived - deliberately created rather than arising naturally or spontaneously (कृत्रिम)
• Chilled - feeling cold (ठंडा)
• Crowded - full of people leaving little or no room for movement (भीड़भाड़)

The correct answer is 'isn't'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is a tag question which requires the opposite polarity in the question tag.
• Since the sentence is affirmative ("She is the class teacher"), the tag should be negative ("isn't she?").
• Option 2 is correct because it matches the grammatical structure of a negative question tag.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She is the class teacher, isn't she?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "can't" is incorrect as it doesn't fit the grammar of a tag question in this context.
• Option 3: "is" is incorrect because the tag question cannot repeat the affirmative form here.
• Option 4: "can" is incorrect as it doesn't align with the main verb "is" in the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Not always pleasant.

Key Points

• The idiom "Not all moonlight and roses" means that something is not always pleasant or perfect; it has its challenges or difficulties. (हमेशा सुखद या आदर्श नहीं)
• Example: Marriage is wonderful, but it’s not all moonlight and roses; it takes work and commitment.
• "Not always pleasant" indicates situations or experiences that may involve difficulties or challenges, emphasizing that they are not perfect or ideal. (हमेशा सुखद नहीं)
• Example: Life as an entrepreneur may seem glamorous, but it’s not always pleasant due to the constant stress and uncertainty.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: An urgent situation (एक अत्यावश्यक स्थिति): Refers to a scenario that demands immediate action or attention.
• Example: The fire in the building created an urgent situation requiring evacuation.
• Option 3: To make a bad situation worse (एक खराब स्थिति को और खराब करना): Refers to actions or decisions that aggravate an already difficult situation.
• Example: Telling a lie to cover up another lie only makes a bad situation worse.
• Option 4: To make someone angry (किसी को क्रोधित करना): Refers to actions or words that provoke anger in someone.
• Example: His careless comment about her work made her angry.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence begins with "It was late in the morning the next day" and logically follows with segments that describe subsequent events.
• Sentence B comes next as it introduces the setting:
• "when Shiva and Nandi entered the private"
• Sentence D follows as it completes the description of the royal office and the people present:
• "royal office to find Daksha, Parvateshwar"
• Sentence A comes next as it introduces Kanakhala and mentions the surprise:
• "and Kanakhala waiting for him. A surprise"
• Sentence C concludes as Shiva apologizes, tying the events together:
• "Shiva said, 'I am sorry your Highness, I hope I haven’t kept you waiting.'
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"It was late in the morning the next day when Shiva and Nandi entered the private royal office to find Daksha, Parvateshwar and Kanakhala waiting for him. A surprise Shiva said, 'I am sorry your Highness, I hope I haven’t kept you waiting.'"

The correct answer is 'feet'.

 

Key Points

• The word "feet" refers to the lower extremities of the legs, which is a gesture of respect or reverence in many cultures.
• Touching an elder's feet is considered a respectful act in various traditions.
• Other options: "heir," "air," and "feat" do not fit the context here.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: He extended his arms and touched the feet of the old man.

Additional Information

• Heir (उत्तराधिकारी): means a person legally entitled to inherit property or title.
• Air (हवा): refers to the invisible gaseous substance surrounding the Earth.
• Feat (कारनामा): refers to an achievement that requires great skill or courage.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Claustrophobia.

Key Points

• The word "Claustrophobia" refers to the fear of being in closed or confined spaces. (संकीर्ण स्थान का डर)
• Example: She avoids elevators due to her claustrophobia.
• Explanation of Claustrophobia: It is a type of anxiety disorder where the person experiences intense fear or panic in enclosed spaces such as elevators, small rooms, or crowded areas. (संकीर्ण स्थान में होने पर डर की भावना)
• Example: His claustrophobia made it difficult for him to travel in the subway.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Claustrophobia).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hydrophobia (जल का डर): Fear of water, often associated with the later stages of rabies in humans.
• Example: After being bitten by a dog, he developed hydrophobia and could not drink water.
• Zoophobia (जानवरों का डर): Fear of animals.
• Example: Her zoophobia prevented her from visiting the zoo with her family.
• Aerophobia (हवा या उड़ान का डर): Fear of flying or being in the air.
• Example: He couldn't board the plane due to his aerophobia.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence provided describes a vivid scene that transitions from vision to reality, focusing on the surroundings.
• Sentence B comes first as it introduces Tom whistling:
• "and there was Tom whistling like a tree-full of birds;"
• Sentence D follows as it describes the sunny environment:
• "and the sun was already slanting down the hill;"
• Sentence C comes next as it continues with the description of the surroundings:
• "everything was green and pale gold."
• Sentence A concludes the paragraph by describing the open window and outside view:
• "and through the open window. Outside"
• The correct sequence is BDCA.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The vision melted into waking; and there was Tom whistling like a tree-full of birds; and the sun was already slanting down the hill. Everything was green and pale gold, and through the open window. Outside."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. To refuse an offer or invitation politely.

Key Points

• The idiom "Take a rain check" is used to politely decline an offer or invitation but with the intention of accepting it at a later date. (भविष्य में स्वीकार करने के इरादे से विनम्रता से इनकार करना)
• Example: I can’t join you for dinner tonight, but I’ll take a rain check and join you next time.
• The correct interpretation of the idiom is to postpone or defer something politely for later. (इसका सही अर्थ है किसी चीज़ को विनम्रता से बाद में टालना)
• Example: She took a rain check on the movie night because she had an early meeting the next day.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Be extra wary of unexpected natural events (अप्रत्याशित प्राकृतिक घटनाओं के प्रति अतिरिक्त सतर्क रहना): This interpretation is incorrect as the idiom has no connection with natural events.
• Example: It’s always wise to stay prepared for unexpected weather changes, but this does not relate to the idiom "take a rain check".
• Option 3: To save money for an emergency (आपातकाल के लिए पैसा बचाना): This option is also incorrect as saving money is unrelated to the idiom’s meaning.
• Example: It's good to save money for a rainy day, but this is not the meaning of "take a rain check".
• Option 4: To check if you have the requisite resources (यह जांचने के लिए कि आपके पास आवश्यक संसाधन हैं): This option is incorrect because the idiom refers to postponing an invitation, not checking resources.
• Example: Before starting the project, the team ensured that they had all the resources ready, but this is unrelated to "take a rain check".

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "couldn’t make off the" used in the sentence is incorrect.
• The correct phrase is "couldn’t make out the," which means to be unable to discern or understand something clearly.
• "Make off" is a phrasal verb meaning to escape or leave hurriedly, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Therefore, replacing "couldn’t make off the" with "couldn’t make out the" ensures grammatical correctness and preserves the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "After that the talk got further and further away, and I couldn’t make out the words any more."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "could made off the" – This is grammatically incorrect as "could" must be followed by the base verb "make," not "made."
• Option 2: "couldn’t cut out the" – While grammatically correct, "cut out" does not fit the context of the sentence. "Cut out" means to omit or remove something.
• Option 4: "No correction required" – This option is incorrect as the phrase "couldn’t make off the" is not appropriate in the given context.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• In the phrase "bound volumes of magazines and newspapers", the word bound refers to items that have been tied or fastened together into a single book.
• In publishing, bound volumes means individual issues collected and fixed with a cover or spine.
• Therefore, the closest meaning of bound here is tied.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4 (tied).

 

Additional Information

• Huge – means very large in size, not suitable for physical book binding.
• Irresolute – means indecisive, unrelated to the context.
• Free – means not restricted, opposite of bound.
• Tied – correctly reflects the meaning of "bound" in book and publishing terminology.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that the magazines and newspapers were "not of very recent date".
• This implies that although the library had a vast and rich collection, it was not updated with current or recent publications.
• Therefore, the most logical inference is that the library was old and not updated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the narrator describes the library as having a vast number of books which delighted him.
• Option 3 is incorrect as several reference books like Whitaker's Almanac, Law List, and Army and Navy Lists are clearly mentioned.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage relates to literature and reference materials, not scientific or astronomical equipment.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage mainly describes the narrator's experience inside a library, focusing on the wide variety of English books, magazines, and reference materials found there.
• Most of the details highlight the setting, atmosphere, and contents of the library rather than the character of the Count.
• Although the Count appears at the end, he is not the central focus of the passage.
• Hence, "A Day at the Library" best captures the overall theme and context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4 – A Day at the Library.

 

Additional Information

• The Happy Day – Too vague and emotional; does not reflect the descriptive focus on books and the library setting.
• The Count – Misleading since the Count appears only briefly and is not the main subject.
• London Directory – Refers to one specific item mentioned, not the overall theme of the passage.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Option 2 states that the protagonist was alone in the library throughout, which is incorrect.
• The passage clearly mentions that the Count entered the library while the protagonist was looking at the books.
• Therefore, the protagonist was not alone for the entire time.
• The other statements are supported by the passage:
• The table was littered with magazines and newspapers.
• The protagonist felt glad to see the Law List.
• He was delighted by the wide variety of English books.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is true because the passage states that a table in the centre was littered with English magazines and newspapers.
• Option 3 is true as the narrator explicitly says it “gladdened my heart” to see the Law List.
• Option 4 is true because the narrator expresses delight at the vast and varied collection of books.