BSF Constable (Tradesmen) Official Paper (Held On: 28 Aug, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• Chennai was announced as the host city for the Hero Asian Champions Trophy hockey tournament, held in 2023.
• The tournament took place at the Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium, which is one of the prominent hockey venues in India.
• This event marked the return of international hockey to Chennai after a gap of 16 years, with the last major tournament hosted there being the Asia Cup in 2007.
• The Hero Asian Champions Trophy is an annual hockey competition that features top Asian teams, showcasing their skills and fostering regional sporting camaraderie.

Additional Information

• Pune
• The city is home to notable sports venues like the Balewadi Stadium, which has hosted events like the Commonwealth Youth Games and Indian Super League matches.
• Mumbai
• Mumbai is a major hub for sports in India, especially cricket and football.
• While it has world-class stadiums like Wankhede and DY Patil.
• Gurugram
• It is recognized more for its corporate and tech hub status than its sports infrastructure.

Important Points

• Asian Champions Trophy Hockey
• The Asian Champions Trophy was established in 2011 by the Asian Hockey Federation to create competitive opportunities for top Asian hockey teams.
• Countries like India, Pakistan, South Korea, Malaysia, Japan, and China frequently compete in this annual event.
• The tournament format typically includes round-robin matches followed by semifinals and a final.

The correct answer is Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Key Points

• Article 148 of the Indian Constitution establishes the post of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
• The CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution and acts as the guardian of the public purse.
• The CAG is appointed by the President of India and holds office for a term of 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
• The reports prepared by the CAG are submitted to the President of India or the governors of the states and are then presented to the Parliament or state legislatures.

Additional Information

• Governors of States (Article 153)
• Article 153 of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of a Governor in each state.
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and represents the President at the state level.
• Governors are appointed by the President of India and hold office for a term of 5 years.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers of the state, headed by the Chief Minister.
• Attorney General of India (Article 76)
• Article 76 of the Indian Constitution provides for the post of the Attorney General of India.
• The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and its principal advocate in the Supreme Court.
• The Attorney General is appointed by the President and must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• This office is advisory in nature, and the Attorney General does not have executive authority.
• Supreme Court of India (Articles 124-147)
• The Supreme Court is the apex judicial authority in India, established under Article 124 of the Constitution.
• It consists of the Chief Justice of India and a prescribed number of other judges (currently 33).
• The Supreme Court is responsible for upholding the Constitution and acts as the guardian of fundamental rights.
• It has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction.

The correct answer is 25.51 percent.

Key Points

• As per Census 2011, the workforce participation rate (WPR) for women in India was recorded at 25.51 percent.
• In comparison, the WPR for men stood significantly higher at 53.26 percent.
• The WPR represents the proportion of a population that is actively engaged in the labor force, including both employed and unemployed individuals.
• Despite constituting nearly half of the population, women’s workforce participation remains substantially lower due to social, economic, and cultural barriers.

Additional Information

• Census 2011 key findings:
• Growth: Added 181.5 million people; decadal growth rate 17.7% (down from 21.5% in 2001-2011).
• Sex Ratio: 940 females per 1000 males (up from 927 in 2001).
• **Child Sex Ratio (**0-6 years): 914 females per 1000 males.
• Population Density: 382 persons per sq km (up from 326).
• Literacy Rate: 74.04% (9.21% growth).

The correct answer is 1936.

Key Points

• John Maynard Keynes published The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money in the year 1936.
• This book is considered one of the most influential works in economics, laying the foundation of modern macroeconomics and Keynesian economics.
• In this work, Keynes challenged classical economic theories, particularly the notion that markets are always self-correcting and capable of achieving full employment.

Additional Information

• John Maynard Keynes:
• He is known as the father of Keynesian economics, emphasizing his call for government intervention (fiscal policy) during recessions to boost aggregate demand via spending, fighting unemployment
• The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money (1936): His revolutionary book, foundation of modern macroeconomics.
• The Economic Consequences of the Peace (1919): Criticized Treaty of Versailles reparations.
• Bretton Woods: Leader of the UK delegation at Bretton Woods Conference (1944).

The correct answer is Tarabai Shinde.

Key Points

• Tarabai Shinde was a prominent feminist thinker and social reformer during the British India era.
• She authored the book "Stripurushtulana" in 1882, a critical work that challenged gender inequalities prevalent in society.
• The book primarily criticized patriarchy and addressed the unequal treatment of men and women in Indian society.
• Tarabai Shinde was associated with the Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by Jyotirao Phule, which worked towards social reform and women’s empowerment.
• "Stripurushtulana" is considered one of the earliest feminist writings in India and highlights the need for gender equality.

Additional Information

• Aruna Asaf Ali
• She was a prominent freedom fighter and member of the Indian National Congress.
• Aruna Asaf Ali is best known for hoisting the Indian National Flag during the Quit India Movement in 1942.
• She played a key role in the underground resistance against British rule and was later awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1997.
• Sarojini Naidu
• Sarojini Naidu, known as the "Nightingale of India," was a renowned poet and freedom fighter.
• She became the first Indian woman to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1925.
• She also served as the first woman Governor of Uttar Pradesh after India’s independence.
• Pandita Ramabai
• Pandita Ramabai was a social reformer, scholar, and advocate for women’s education in India.
• She founded the Mukti Mission in Pune, which provided shelter and education to widows and destitute women.
• Ramabai translated the Bible into Marathi and worked extensively to improve women’s rights in India.

The correct answer is Oath or affirmation by the President.

Key Points

• Article 60 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the oath or affirmation to be taken by the President of India before entering the office.
• The oath is administered by the Chief Justice of India or, in their absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available.
• The oath includes affirming to faithfully execute the office of President, preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution, and devote themselves to the service and well-being of the people of India.

Additional Information

• Lok Sabha Speaker
• Election: Elected by members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves after the first sitting (date fixed by President).
• Role: Presiding officer, maintains order, ensures rules are followed, decides on Money Bills (final say), casts deciding vote in ties, guardian of privileges, represents the House.
• Removal: Can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all members of the Lok Sabha (14 days' notice needed).
• Key Articles: Article 93 (Speaker & Deputy Speaker), Article 94 (Vacation/Removal).
• Vice-President
• Role: Ex-officio Chairman (presiding officer) of the Rajya Sabha, not a member of Rajya Sabha.
• Election: Elected indirectly by members of the electoral college (elected & nominated MPs).
• Powers: Presides over Rajya Sabha; acts as President if President's office falls vacant (with President's powers).
• Removal: Removal process involves Rajya Sabha passing a resolution by a majority and Lok Sabha concurring; no specific grounds mentioned in Constitution.
• Prime Minister
• Appointment: Appointed by the President, but must command the confidence (majority support) of the Lok Sabha.
• Role: Real executive head of the government, leader of the Lok Sabha (if from LS), leads council of ministers, head of government.
• Eligibility: Must be a member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha (minimum age 25 for LS).
• Key Point: Head of Government (PM) vs. Head of State (President).

The correct answer is south, northwest

Key Points

• The Vindhya Range is a prominent mountain range in India, extending across central India, and it plays an important role in dividing northern and southern India geographically.
• To the south of the Vindhya Range lies the Satpura Range, which runs parallel to the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
• The Aravalli Range is located to the southwest of the Vindhya Range, stretching across the states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat.
• The Vindhya Range and Satpura Range, together with the Narmada River running between them, form a distinct geographical boundary between northern and southern India.
• The Vindhya Range has historical, cultural, and ecological significance, influencing the settlement patterns and cultural history of the region.

Additional Information

• Satpura Range
• The Satpura Range is a series of hills in central India that runs parallel to the Vindhya Range.
• It is home to several important wildlife reserves, including the Satpura National Park and Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
• The range is known for its rich biodiversity and forested landscape, contributing to the ecological balance of the region.
• Aravalli Range
• The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, dating back to the Precambrian era.
• It extends approximately 700 km from Delhi to Gujarat, passing through Rajasthan and Haryana.
• The Aravalli Range plays a crucial role in the climate and ecology of northwestern India by preventing desert expansion from the Thar Desert.
• Important cities like Udaipur and Jaipur are located in the vicinity of this range.
• Vindhya Range
• Historically, the Vindhya Range was considered the dividing line between the Aryavarta (north India) and Dakshinapatha (south India).
• The range comprises sandstone, quartzite, and shale and is rich in mineral resources.
• It has a cultural and historical significance, being mentioned in ancient Indian texts like the Puranas and Mahabharata.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The Gauhati High Court is located in Guwahati, the largest city in Assam.
• It is the principal seat of the Gauhati High Court, which was established on 5th April 1948 after the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
• The High Court has jurisdiction over the seven northeastern states, namely Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura.
• While the principal seat is in Guwahati, there are benches in other states such as Agartala (Tripura), Aizawl (Mizoram), and Kohima (Nagaland).
• Agartala is a bench of the Gauhati High Court but not the principal seat.

Additional Information

• Agartala:
• Agartala, the capital of Tripura, hosts a bench of the Gauhati High Court.
• This bench was established to cater to the legal needs of the state of Tripura, ensuring efficient judicial services.
• Guwahati:
• Guwahati serves as the principal seat of the Gauhati High Court and is the judicial hub for the northeast region.
• Being the largest city in Assam, it is the administrative and legal center of the region.
• Other Benches of the Gauhati High Court:
• The High Court also has benches in Aizawl (Mizoram), Kohima (Nagaland), and Shillong (Meghalaya).
• These benches were established to decentralize judicial services and make legal remedies accessible to the people of the northeastern states.
• Historical Significance:
• The Gauhati High Court was originally known as the High Court of Assam and Nagaland.
• It was later renamed to reflect its expanded jurisdiction over other northeastern states.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• A candle flame is divided into three distinct regions based on the temperature, chemical reactions, and availability of oxygen.
• The innermost region is dark or black, consisting of unburnt wax vapors that are cooler compared to other regions.
• The middle region, which is yellow and bright, is the luminous zone. This is where incomplete combustion occurs due to limited oxygen, producing visible light.
• The outermost region is the blue non-luminous zone, where complete combustion occurs. This region has the highest temperature and burns with a bluish flame.
• The three zones represent the different stages of combustion: the dark zone (partial vaporization), luminous zone (incomplete combustion), and non-luminous zone (complete combustion).

Additional Information

• Candle Flame:
• The study of a candle flame provides insight into combustion, heat transfer, and light production.
• The flame’s color and temperature vary depending on the oxygen supply and chemical reactions occurring within each region.
• The hottest part of the flame is the blue non-luminous region, whereas the innermost black region is the coolest.

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• There are six major factors that control the climate of any region: latitude, altitude, pressure and winds, distance from the sea, ocean currents, and relief features.
• Latitude determines the temperature of a region. Areas near the equator are warmer, while areas closer to the poles are colder.
• Altitude plays a crucial role as temperatures decrease with an increase in height due to the thinning of the atmosphere.
• Pressure and winds influence the movement of air masses, which affect precipitation and temperature.
• Distance from the sea impacts the climate of coastal and inland regions. Coastal areas generally have moderate climates, while inland areas experience extreme temperatures.
• Ocean currents affect the temperature of coastal areas by bringing warm or cold water from different regions.
• Relief features like mountains act as barriers to the movement of winds, causing variations in rainfall and temperature on the windward and leeward sides.

Additional Information

• Indian Climate:
• Tropical Monsoon: India's climate is tropical monsoon due to its location near the equator (Tropic of Cancer) and strong influence of seasonal winds.
• Wind Reversal: Complete reversal with seasons: SW winds bring summer rain (moist, low pressure); NE winds bring dry winter conditions (high pressure).
• Himalayas: Protect from cold Central Asian winds and guide monsoon.
  

Ocean Influence: Southern India benefits from the moderating sea.

• Location: South of Tropic of Cancer is tropical; north has warm temperate aspects.

The correct answer is Submarine.

Key Points

• The "cone" in the context of Indian defence in June 2023 refers to the indigenous development of submarines under India's defence modernization program.
• India is actively building advanced diesel-electric submarines under the Project-75 and Project-75I initiatives to enhance its naval strength.
• The Indian Navy has commissioned several Scorpène-class submarines (Kalvari class), which are built in collaboration with France's Naval Group and manufactured at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).
• The submarine-cone is a critical part of the submarine structure, enhancing its stealth, hydrodynamics, and navigational efficiency.
• This development is part of India's strategic efforts to counter threats in the Indian Ocean region and achieve self-reliance in defence manufacturing under the "Aatmanirbhar Bharat" initiative.

Additional Information

• Bulletproof Vest
• Bulletproof vests are protective gear designed to stop or reduce the impact of bullets and shrapnel from explosions.
• India has made significant progress in manufacturing indigenous bulletproof vests, especially under the "Make in India" initiative.
• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed lightweight bulletproof jackets using advanced materials.
• These vests are extensively used by the Indian Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, and state police units.
• Indigenously Built Drones
• India is focusing on the development of indigenously built drones for surveillance, reconnaissance, and combat operations.
• Notable projects include the DRDO-developed Rustom UAV and the Bharat drone, which are designed for high-altitude surveillance.
• India has also been promoting the private sector to manufacture drones under the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for drones.
• These drones are critical for border surveillance and modern warfare.
• Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)
• Anti-Tank Guided Missiles are precision-guided weapons designed to destroy heavily armored vehicles such as tanks.
• India has developed the Nag ATGM under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
• The Nag missile is a fire-and-forget missile with an advanced imaging infrared seeker for target acquisition.
• The DRDO has also developed variants like the Helina (helicopter-launched) and MPATGM (Man-Portable ATGM).

The correct answer is M1 and M2.

Key Points

• Contracted currency refers to money supply measures that are used for economic analysis and include highly liquid forms of money.
• M1 and M2 are considered contracted currency as they comprise the most liquid forms of money in the economy.
• M1 includes currency notes and coins with the public, demand deposits with banks, and other liquid assets that are easily accessible for transactions.
• M2 includes everything in M1 along with savings deposits and post office savings, thus slightly less liquid but still a part of contracted currency.
• These measures are crucial in determining the immediate purchasing power and liquidity available in the economy.

Additional Information

• M3
• M3 is referred to as the broad money supply and includes everything in M1 and M2, along with time deposits held at banks.
• It represents a less liquid form of money but is important for understanding long-term monetary trends in the economy.
• M3 is not categorized as contracted currency due to the inclusion of less liquid forms like fixed deposits.
• M4
• M4 is the broadest measure of money supply, comprising M3 along with all deposits with post office savings banks (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• This measure is used for long-term monetary analysis rather than immediate liquidity evaluation.
• Due to its inclusiveness of less liquid forms of money, M4 is not considered contracted currency.
• Main Theme: Money Supply Measures
• Money supply measures are categorized into different types (M1, M2, M3, M4) based on liquidity and accessibility.
• These measures help economists and policymakers analyze monetary conditions and formulate monetary policies.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monitors these measures to regulate inflation, liquidity, and overall economic stability.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• The Election Commission of India launched the "Mission 300" and "My Vote, My Valentine" campaigns in February 2023 in Meghalaya.
• "Mission 300" aimed to achieve a voter turnout of 300% in Meghalaya's remote polling stations by ensuring maximum participation.
• "My Vote, My Valentine" was designed to encourage young voters and emphasize the importance of voting as an act of love for democracy.
• The campaigns targeted first-time voters, women, and marginalized communities in Meghalaya to promote electoral participation.

Additional Information

• Karnataka:
• The state has been proactive in adopting technology to streamline the election process, like using Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines.
• Tripura:
• Tripura, a northeastern state, is known for its tribal-dominated electoral constituencies.
• Nagaland:
• Nagaland has a unique electoral system influenced by its tribal culture and customary practices.
• The state often sees high voter turnout due to the active participation of local communities.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The 1981 Census of India could not be conducted in Assam due to the ongoing political unrest and the Assam Agitation.
• The Assam Agitation (1979–1985) was a mass movement against illegal immigration and the demand for identification and deportation of illegal immigrants in the state.
• Consequently, the population of Assam in the 1981 Census was estimated based on interpolation rather than actual enumeration.
• The unrest in Assam led to the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985, which addressed issues related to illegal immigration and voter registration.

Additional Information

• Census of India:
• Early British Efforts: Town censuses by James Prinsep (Allahabad, 1824) & Henry Walter (Dacca, 1830).
• 1872: First non-synchronous census under Lord Mayo.
• 1881: First synchronous (all-India) census, marking regular decennial counts, under W.C. Plowden.
• 1921: The only decade with a population decline (due to the 1918 flu pandemic).
• 1951: First census after independence, under the Registrar General & Census Commissioner.

The correct answer is Tulu.

Key Points

• Tulu is a Dravidian language spoken primarily in the coastal regions of Karnataka and northern Kerala in India.
• It is classified as a non-tribal language and is widely used in urban and rural areas for daily communication, literature, and cultural activities.
• Tulu has a rich literary tradition, with texts dating back to the 15th century, and it continues to thrive in modern media, including films and theatre..
• The Tulu-speaking population is estimated to be over 2 million, and efforts are ongoing to include Tulu in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to recognize it as an official language.

Additional Information

• Toda:
• The Toda language is spoken by the Toda tribe, primarily in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, India.
• It belongs to the Dravidian language family and is considered a tribal language.
• Toda is predominantly oral, with limited written literature, and it is used for communication within the community.
• Kota:
• The Kota language is also a tribal language spoken by the Kota tribe, another indigenous group in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, India.
• It is part of the Dravidian language family and is closely related to Toda.
• Kota speakers primarily use the language for community interactions and cultural preservation.
• Urali:
• Urali is a tribal language spoken by the Urali tribe, found in parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• It is a lesser-known language and is used within the tribal community for oral communication..

The correct answer is AIRAWAT.

Key Points

• AIRAWAT is a high-performance AI supercomputer developed under the National AI program by India.
• It ranked 75th in the world in the Top 500 global supercomputing list released during the International Supercomputing Conference (ISC 2023).
• AIRAWAT is a part of India’s efforts to boost Artificial Intelligence (AI) research and development, enabling advanced computing capabilities for AI applications.
• It has been installed at the C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing), Pune, and operates under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM).
• The system is designed to cater to the needs of AI research, development, and deployment across various sectors, including healthcare, education, and governance.

Additional Information

• Pratyush
• Pratyush is one of India’s fastest supercomputers, primarily used for weather forecasting and climate modeling.
• It was established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
• It is among the top supercomputers used globally for meteorological applications and helps improve the accuracy of weather predictions in India.
• PARAM Siddhi
• PARAM Siddhi is a high-performance computing (HPC) AI supercomputer developed by C-DAC under the National Supercomputing Mission.
• It was ranked 63rd in the Top 500 supercomputers globally in 2020.
• PARAM Siddhi supports research in AI, machine learning, data analysis, and other advanced computing applications in India.
• Mihir
• Mihir is another supercomputer established by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, complementing Pratyush for weather and climate research.
• It is located at the National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), Noida.
• Mihir is specifically used to enhance monsoon forecasts, cyclonic predictions, and other meteorological studies essential for disaster management and agriculture.

The correct answer is Konkani.

Key Points

• Konkani is the official language of Goa as per the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• It was given the status of an official language under the Goa, Daman and Diu Official Language Act, 1987.
• The Konkani language is written in the Devanagari script in Goa and is widely spoken by the majority of the population in the state.
• Konkani is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India and is recognized for its rich cultural and literary heritage.
• The language has influences from Portuguese, Marathi, and Kannada, reflecting Goa's diverse cultural history.

Additional Information

• Marathi
• Marathi is widely spoken in Goa but is not the official language of the state. It is the official language of the neighboring state of Maharashtra.
• Goa has a significant Marathi-speaking population, and Marathi literature and culture also have historical importance in the state.
• Hindi
• Hindi is one of the official languages of India and is spoken widely across the country.
• Although Hindi is used in Goa for communication and administrative purposes, it is not the official language of the state.
• English
• English is an associate official language of India and is extensively used for education, administration, and commerce in Goa.
• While English is widely spoken and understood in Goa, especially among the urban population, it is not recognized as the state’s official language.

The correct answer is Fundamental Rights.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Rights are included in Part III of the Indian Constitution, spanning Articles 12 to 35.
• These rights are guaranteed to all citizens to ensure equality, freedom, and protection against arbitrary actions by the state.
• Fundamental Rights are classified into six categories: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• They are enforceable by the judiciary, which means citizens can approach the courts if these rights are violated.
• These rights are essential for safeguarding individual liberty and promoting social justice in India.

Additional Information

• Preamble
• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution serves as an introductory statement and outlines the guiding principles and philosophy of the Constitution.
• It is not considered a part of Part III, but it reflects the core values such as justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, and the sovereignty of India.
• Though not legally enforceable, it holds great significance in interpreting constitutional provisions.
• Fundamental Duties
• Fundamental Duties are listed in Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A.
• They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Currently, there are 11 Fundamental Duties, which are moral obligations for citizens to promote patriotism and uphold the unity of the nation.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• DPSPs are included in Part IV of the Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.
• They are non-justiciable principles that guide the government in formulating policies aimed at achieving socio-economic justice.
• These principles are inspired by the Irish Constitution and focus on promoting welfare, reducing inequality, and ensuring dignity for citizens.

The correct answer is Faridabad.

Key Points

• The Surajkund International Crafts Mela is organized annually in the Faridabad district of Haryana.
• This mela is held at Surajkund, a historical site known for its ancient reservoir built in the 10th century by King Suraj Pal of the Tomar dynasty.
• The event is celebrated in the first fortnight of February every year and is one of the largest craft fairs in the world.
• It showcases the rich cultural heritage, crafts, and arts of various states in India as well as international participants, attracting artisans and performers globally.
• The Surajkund Mela is organized jointly by the Haryana Tourism Department and the Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture, and External Affairs.

Additional Information

• Gurugram:
• Gurugram, formerly known as Gurgaon, is a major financial and technological hub in Haryana.
• It is home to numerous multinational companies and is often referred to as the "Millennium City."
• Rohtak:
• Rohtak is a city in Haryana known for its educational institutions, including Maharshi Dayanand University.
• Sirsa:
• Sirsa is a city in Haryana known for its religious and historical sites.
• It is famous for its connection to the Sarasvati River and has archaeological importance.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• Majuli is the world’s largest inhabited riverine island and is located on the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam, India.
• The island covers an area of approximately 880 square kilometers (as of 2023, it is shrinking due to erosion).
• Majuli is a hub for Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture, with numerous monasteries called Satras established by the saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
• It was declared a District of Assam in 2016, making it India’s first river island district.
• The island is known for its rich biodiversity, including unique flora and fauna, and is also a key bird-watching destination.

Additional Information

• Ganges:
• The Ganges is a transboundary river of Asia, flowing through India and Bangladesh, with a total length of about 2,525 km.
• It is considered sacred in Hinduism and is the lifeline for millions of Indians living along its course.
• Famous riverine islands on the Ganges include Sagar Island in West Bengal, but it does not house Majuli.
• Godavari:
• The Godavari is the second-longest river in India, flowing primarily through central and southern parts of the country.
• It is known as the ‘Dakshina Ganga’ or Ganga of the South, with a length of about 1,465 km.
• There are no prominent inhabited riverine islands on the Godavari comparable to Majuli.
• Yamuna:
• The Yamuna is the largest tributary of the Ganges and flows through several important cities, including Delhi and Agra.
• It is around 1,376 km long and is considered sacred in Hinduism.
• The Yamuna does not have any significant inhabited riverine islands like Majuli.

Important Points

• About the Brahmaputra River:
• The Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, where it is called the Tsangpo River, and flows through India and Bangladesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• It is one of the few rivers in the world that exhibits a tidal bore.
• The Brahmaputra is crucial for the ecosystem and economy of Assam, with fertile plains that support agriculture and unique geographical features such as Majuli.

The correct answer is Vishnu Sharma.

Key Points

• Vishnu Sharma is the author of the famous collection of ancient Indian fables known as the Panchtantra.
• The Panchtantra is a compilation of moral stories, primarily aimed at teaching ethics, wisdom, and leadership skills to young princes.
• It was originally written in Sanskrit and is believed to have been composed around the 3rd century BCE.
• The Panchtantra is divided into five sections, each focusing on a particular aspect of life, such as friendship, conflict resolution, and governance.
• The stories in the Panchtantra use anthropomorphic animals and birds to convey moral lessons, making them easy to understand and memorable for learners.

Additional Information

• Kalidasa
• Kalidasa is one of the greatest classical Sanskrit poets and dramatists in Indian history.
• He is renowned for his works such as Shakuntala (Abhijnanashakuntalam), Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, and Kumarasambhava.
• Kalidasa's writings are marked by their poetic excellence, vivid imagery, and profound understanding of human emotions.
• Unlike Vishnu Sharma, Kalidasa primarily focused on themes of love, nature, and mythology.
• Tulsidas
• Tulsidas was a 16th-century Indian poet and philosopher best known for writing the Ramcharitmanas, an epic retelling of the Ramayana in the Awadhi language.
• His works primarily revolve around devotion to Lord Rama and are considered a cornerstone of the Bhakti movement in India.
• Tulsidas is also credited with popularizing the worship of Lord Rama and spreading spiritual teachings among the masses.
• Charaka
• Charaka was an ancient Indian physician and one of the key contributors to Ayurveda, the traditional Indian system of medicine.
• He is known for his work, the Charaka Samhita, which is a foundational text on medicine and healthcare.
• The Charaka Samhita focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of various diseases as well as the philosophy of life and health.
• Unlike Vishnu Sharma, Charaka's contributions lie in the field of medicine and not literature or moral teachings.

The correct answer is 1829.

Key Points

• The practice of Sati was formally abolished in British India in 1829 by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck.
• The regulation was passed under Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829, which declared Sati as illegal and punishable by criminal courts.
• The abolition was primarily driven by the efforts of social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, who strongly opposed this inhuman practice.
• Lord William Bentinck sought to end the practice of widow burning due to its cruelty, and the regulation applied initially to Bengal Presidency.

Additional Information

• Widow Remarriage (1856):
• The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act was passed, legalizing the remarriage of Hindu widows. This was a result of efforts by reformers like Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
• Abolition of Slavery (1843):
• Although the British Parliament had abolished slavery in its territories in 1833, the practice was declared illegal in India through the Indian Slavery Act of 1843.
• Suppression of Thuggee and Female Infanticide:
• Measures were taken to suppress the criminal gangs known as Thugs, and laws were passed in 1795, 1802, 1804, and 1870 to prohibit female infanticide and human sacrifices.
• Child Marriage Restraint (1929):
• The Sharda Act established the minimum age for marriage at 14 for girls and 18 for boys, a significant step in addressing child marriage.

The correct answer is Option 3: Only I.

Key Points

• Combustible substances are materials that can burn in the presence of air, particularly oxygen. For example, wood, paper, and coal are combustible substances.
• Oxygen is essential for combustion: The process of combustion involves the reaction of a substance with oxygen, releasing heat and light. Without oxygen, combustion cannot occur.
• The statement "Substances that burn in air are called combustible" is correct because it defines the fundamental property of combustible materials.
• The second statement, "Oxygen in the air is not necessary for combustion," is incorrect because oxygen is a critical component for any combustion process to occur.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: Only I.

Additional Information

• Understanding Combustion:
• Combustion is a chemical process in which a substance reacts rapidly with oxygen and releases heat and light.
• There are three necessary components for combustion: fuel, oxygen, and heat (collectively called the fire triangle).
• Examples of combustion include the burning of wood, coal, petrol, or natural gas.
• Incomplete combustion occurs when there is insufficient oxygen, leading to the production of carbon monoxide and soot.

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

• SALVEX is a bilateral defense exercise conducted between India and the United States of America.
• It focuses on enhancing interoperability and strengthening maritime security cooperation between the two nations.
• The exercise is a part of the larger framework of defense cooperation agreements between India and the USA.
• It involves training and operations in areas such as disaster response, humanitarian assistance, and joint security operations.
• The 2023 edition of SALVEX, conducted on 1 June 2023, showcased joint drills aimed at improving coordination and combat readiness in maritime operations.

Additional Information

• France
• India and France conduct a bilateral naval exercise named VARUNA.
• This exercise aims to enhance maritime cooperation and interoperability between the two countries.
• It focuses on operations such as anti-submarine warfare, air defense, and surface engagement drills.
• Italy
• India-Italy defence exercises being primarily Naval (PASSEX, INS Tabar, INS Surat), highlighting enhanced interoperability, specific drills (air defence, replenishment at sea, helicopter ops), and the broader strategic partnership (2025-29 plan, technology, maritime security)
• Japan
• India and Japan conduct the bilateral naval exercise named JIMEX (Japan-India Maritime Exercise).
• This exercise aims to enhance defense cooperation and promote regional security in the Indo-Pacific region.
• It includes activities such as anti-submarine warfare, surface warfare, and air defense drills.

Important Points

• Defense Exercises:  MALABAR (India, USA, Japan, and Australia), Yudh Abhyas (India-USA), and INDRA (India-Russia).

The correct answer is Option 3 (25).

Key Points

• The Arjuna Award is one of the most prestigious sports honors in India, instituted in 1961 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• In 2022, a total of 25 players were conferred with the Arjuna Award for their exceptional performance in sports and games.
• This award encourages athletes to maintain high standards in their respective sports and motivates upcoming talent.

Additional Information

• Arjuna Awards:
• Purpose: Awarded for consistent, outstanding performance in sports over the last four years at the international level.
• Instituted: 1961.
• Awarded By: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Components: Bronze statuette of Arjuna, a certificate, and a cash prize (₹15 Lakh).
• Criteria: Consistent performance (4 yrs), leadership, sportsmanship, discipline, international representation.

Given:

G : H = 11 : 6

Formula used:

(G+H) : (GH) = (G+H) / (G-H)

Calculation:

Let G = 11k and H = 6k

⇒ G+H = 11k + 6k = 17k

⇒ G-H = 11k - 6k = 5k

⇒ (G+H) : (G-H) = 17 : 5

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Deepak's salary = 20% more than Raju's

Deepak saves = ₹18,000 = 48% of Deepak's salary

Formula used:

Deepak's salary (D) = 1.2 × Raju's salary (R)

48% of D = 18,000 ⇒ D = 18,000 ÷ 48%

Calculations:

⇒ D = 18,000 ÷ 0.48 = 37,500

⇒ 1.2 × R = 37,500

⇒ R = 37,500 ÷ 1.2 = 31,250

∴ Raju's salary = ₹31,250.

Given:

Side of square = 10 m

Width of path = 4 m

Formula used:

Area of square = side × side

Area of path = Area outer − Area inner

Calculations:

⇒ Inner side = 10 − 2 × 4 = 10 − 8 = 2 m

⇒ Area outer = 10 × 10 = 100 m²

⇒ Area inner = 2 × 2 = 4 m²

⇒ Area path = 100 − 4 = 96 m²

∴ Area of the path = 96 m²

Given:

The first boy weighs three times the second boy and twice the third boy.

Average weight of three boys = 88 kg

Formula used:

Average weight = Total weight / Number of boys

Total weight = Average weight × Number of boys

Calculation:

Total weight = 88 × 3 = 264 kg

Let the weight of the second boy be x kg.

Weight of the first boy = 3x

Weight of the third boy = (3x / 2)

Total weight = Weight of the first boy + Weight of the second boy + Weight of the third boy

⇒ 3x + x + (3x / 2) = 264

⇒ (3x + x + 1.5x) = 264

⇒ x = 264 / 5.5

⇒ x = 48

Weight of the second boy = 48 kg

Weight of the first boy = 3 × 48 = 144 kg

Difference between the weights of the first and second boys = 144 - 48 = 96 kg

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Half the perimeter of a rectangle = 45 cm

Length (L) = Width (W) + 5 cm

Formula used:

Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Width)

Area = Length × Width

Calculations:

Half the perimeter = 45 cm

⇒ Full perimeter = 45 × 2 = 90 cm

⇒ 90 = 2 × (L + W)

⇒ L + W = 45

Given L = W + 5

⇒ (W + 5) + W = 45

⇒ 2W = 45 - 5

⇒ W = 20 cm

⇒ L = W + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25 cm

Area = L × W

⇒ Area = 25 × 20 = 500 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Ratio of Marked Price (M) to Selling Price (S) = 6:5

Formula used:

Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{M - S}{M} \times 100$

Calculation:

Let Marked Price (M) = 6x and Selling Price (S) = 5x

Discount = M - S = 6x - 5x = x

Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{x}{6x} \times 100$

⇒ Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{1}{6} \times 100$ = 16.66%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

2ⁿ = √(1024)

Formula used:

√x = x^1/2

Calculation:

⇒ 2ⁿ = 1024^1/2

⇒ 2ⁿ = 2^{10 × 1/2}

⇒ 2ⁿ = 2⁵

⇒ n = 5

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Selling price of each watch = ₹1300

Profit percentage on one watch = 15%

Loss percentage on the other watch = 15%

Formula used:

For overall profit/loss percentage in such cases:

Overall Profit/Loss Percentage = $-\frac{(Loss\% \times Profit\%)}{100}$

Calculation:

Profit% = 15, Loss% = 15

⇒ Overall Profit/Loss Percentage = $-\frac{(15 \times 15)}{100}$

⇒ Loss Percentage = $-\frac{225}{100}$ = -2.25%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Rate of interest (r) = 12% per annum

Time (t) = 7 years

Interest (I) = ₹320 less than Principal (P)

Formula used:

Simple Interest (I) = $P × \dfrac{r × t}{100}$

Calculations:

Let the Principal (P) be ₹x. Interest (I) = ₹x - ₹320

$I = P × \dfrac{r × t}{100}$

⇒ $x - 320 = x × \dfrac{12 × 7}{100}$

⇒ $x - 320 = x × \dfrac{84}{100}$

⇒ $x - 320 = 0.84x$

⇒ $x - 0.84x = 320$

⇒ $0.16x = 320$

⇒ $x = \dfrac{320}{0.16} = 2000$

The amount lent is ₹2000.

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

$\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{72}{51} \text{ of } \left(\dfrac{1}{9} + \dfrac{1}{8}\right) + \left(\dfrac{63}{56} \times \dfrac{48}{72}\right)$

Calculation:

$\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{72}{51} \text{ of } \left(\dfrac{1}{9} + \dfrac{1}{8}\right) + \left(\dfrac{63}{56} \times \dfrac{48}{72}\right)$

⇒ $\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{72}{51} \text{ of } \left(\dfrac{17}{72}\right) + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒ $\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{72}{51} \text{ of } \left(\dfrac{17}{72}\right) + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒$\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{72}{51} \times \left(\dfrac{17}{72}\right) + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒$\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{1}{8} \div \dfrac{1}{3} + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒$\dfrac{1}{7} \times \dfrac{3}{8} + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒$\dfrac{3}{56} + \left(\dfrac{3}{4}\right)$

⇒ $\dfrac{45}{56}$

∴ The correct answer is option (3).​

Given:

Speed = 45 km/h

Distance = 1/4 km = 0.25 km

Formula used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Time (hours) = 0.25 ÷ 45 = 1/180 hours

⇒ Time (minutes) = 1/180 × 60 = 1/3 minutes

⇒ Time (seconds) = 1/3 × 60 = 20 seconds

∴ Time to travel 1/4 km = 20 seconds

Given:

Side of the cube (a) = 8 cm

Formula used:

Total surface area of a cube = 6a²

Calculation:

Total surface area = 6 × (8 × 8)

⇒ Total surface area = 6 × 64

⇒ Total surface area = 384 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Average runs in 6 matches = 36

Average runs in 5 matches = 20.5

Total matches = 11

Formula used:

Overall average = $\dfrac{\text{Total runs in all matches}}{\text{Total number of matches}}$

Calculations:

Total runs in 6 matches = 6 × 36 = 216

Total runs in 5 matches = 5 × 20.5 = 102.5

Total runs in 11 matches = 216 + 102.5 = 318.5

Total matches = 11

⇒ Overall average = $\dfrac{318.5}{11}$ = 28.95

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Raman makes 4 trips of equal distance.

Speed on the 1st trip = 500 km/h

Speed on the 2nd trip = 500 ÷ 2 = 250 km/h

Speed on the 3rd trip = 250 ÷ 2 = 125 km/h

Speed on the 4th trip = 125 ÷ 2 = 62.5 km/h

Formula used:

Average speed = $\dfrac{2xy}{x + y}$ (for two speeds)

For multiple trips with equal distances:

Average speed = $\dfrac{4}{\dfrac{1}{S_1} + \dfrac{1}{S_2} + \dfrac{1}{S_3} + \dfrac{1}{S_4}}$

Calculation:

Average speed = $\dfrac{4}{\dfrac{1}{500} + \dfrac{1}{250} + \dfrac{1}{125} + \dfrac{1}{62.5}}$

⇒ Average speed = $\dfrac{4}{\dfrac{15}{500}}$

⇒ Average speed = $\dfrac{4 \times 500}{15}$

⇒ Average speed = $\dfrac{400}{3}$ km/h

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The length and breadth of a cuboid are increased by 15%. Let the original dimensions of the cuboid be:

Length = l, Breadth = b, Height = h

Volume of the cuboid = l × b × h

After the increase in length and breadth:

New Length = l × 1.15

New Breadth = b × 1.15

New Height = h_new

New Volume = Old Volume

Formula used:

l × b × h = (l × 1.15) × (b × 1.15) × h_new

Calculations:

l × b × h = l × b × (1.15 × 1.15) × h_new

⇒ h = (1.15 × 1.15) × h_new

⇒ h_new = h ÷ (1.15 × 1.15)

⇒ h_new = h ÷ 1.3225

Percentage decrease in height = [(h - h_new) ÷ h] × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = [(h - (h ÷ 1.3225)) ÷ h] × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = [1 - (1 ÷ 1.3225)] × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = [1 - 0.7561] × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = 0.2439 × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease = 24.39%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹9746.8

Rate of Interest (r) = 18% per annum

Time (t) = 2 years

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)^t

Where, P = Principal

Calculation:

9746.8 = P(1 + 18/100)²

⇒ 9746.8 = P(1.18)²

⇒ 9746.8 = P × 1.3924

⇒ P = 9746.8 / 1.3924

⇒ P = ₹7000

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

50% of a number exceeds 37.5% of the same number by 392.

Formula used:

Difference = (50% of number - 37.5% of number)

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

⇒ 50% of x - 37.5% of x = 392

⇒ $\frac{50}{100}x - \frac{37.5}{100}x = 392$

⇒ $\frac{12.5}{100}x = 392$

⇒ $\frac{x}{8} = 392$

⇒ x = 392 × 8 = 3136

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹1687.5

Discount = 25%

Profit = 12.5%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 - Discount/100)

Cost Price (CP) = SP / (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

SP = ₹1687.5 × (1 - 25/100)

⇒ SP = ₹1687.5 × 0.75 = ₹1265.625

CP = SP / (1 + 12.5/100)

⇒ CP = ₹1265.625 / 1.125 = ₹1125

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Cost price per pen = ₹(1 ÷ 24)

Selling price per pen = ₹(1 ÷ 20)

Formula used:

Profit percentage = $\dfrac{\text{Profit}}{\text{Cost Price}} \times 100$

Calculation:

Profit per pen = Selling price per pen - Cost price per pen

⇒ Profit per pen = $\dfrac{1}{20} - \dfrac{1}{24}$ = $\dfrac{1}{120}$

Cost price per pen = $\dfrac{1}{24}$

Profit percentage = $\dfrac{\dfrac{1}{120}}{\dfrac{1}{24}} \times 100$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\dfrac{1}{120} \times 24 \times 100$ = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Punit alone = 30 days

Sumit alone = 1/2 of Punit's time = 15 days

Formula used:

Rate = 1 / time

Combined rate = rate(Punit) + rate(Sumit)

Time = Work / Rate

Calculations:

$\text{Punit rate} = \dfrac{1}{30}$

$\text{Sumit rate} = \dfrac{1}{15}$

$\text{Combined rate} = \dfrac{1}{30} + \dfrac{1}{15} = \dfrac{1+2}{30} = \dfrac{1}{10}$

⇒ $\text{Time for } \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ work} = \dfrac{\tfrac{1}{2}}{\tfrac{1}{10}} = \dfrac{1}{2} \times 10 = 5$ days

∴ The correct answer is 5 days.

Given:

Y can complete work in 20 days, Z can complete work in 10 days.

Both work together for 3 days.

Formula used:

Work done per day = 1 / Time taken.

Total work done by Y and Z in n days = (Work done per day by Y + Work done per day by Z) × n

Percentage of work = (Work done / Total work) × 100

Calculation:

Work done per day by Y = 1/20

Work done per day by Z = 1/10

Work done per day by both = (1/20 + 1/10) = 3/20

Work done in 3 days = 3 × (3/20) = 9/20

Percentage of work completed = (9/20) × 100 = 45%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

P : Q = 9 : 1

Q : R = 1 : 8

R : S = 1 : 10

Formula used:

To find P : R : S, multiply ratios such that intermediate terms cancel out.

Calculation:

P : Q : R : S

P : Q = 9 : 1, Q : R = 1 : 8, R : S = 1 : 10

⇒ Multiply ratios:

9 × 1 : 1 × 8 : 8 × 10

⇒ P : Q : R : S = 9 : 1 : 8 : 80

⇒ P : R : S = 9 : 8 : 80

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

B1 : B2 = 8 : 3

11 litres removed and replaced with B2

New ratio B1 : B2 = 4 : 7

Formula used:

Let total = 11k (since 8 + 3 = 11)

After removing 11 L (fraction = 11 / 11k = 1 / k):

B1 remaining = 8k × (k - 1) / k = 8(k - 1)

B2 remaining = 3k × (k - 1) / k = 3(k - 1)

After adding 11 L of B2: B2 final = 3(k - 1) + 11

Calculations:

⇒ 8(k - 1) : [3(k - 1) + 11] = 4 : 7

⇒ 7 × 8(k - 1) = 4 × [3(k - 1) + 11]

⇒ 56(k - 1) = 12(k - 1) + 44

⇒ 56(k - 1) - 12(k - 1) = 44

⇒ 44(k - 1) = 44

⇒ k - 1 = 1

⇒ k = 2

Total initially = 11k = 22 L

B1 initially = 8k = 16 L

∴ The container had 16 litres of B1 initially.

Given:

Length (l) = 7 cm

Width (w) = 11 cm

Height (h) = 13 cm

Formula used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a cuboid = 2 × (l × w + w × h + h × l)

Calculation:

TSA = 2 × (7 × 11 + 11 × 13 + 13 × 7)

⇒ TSA = 2 × (77 + 143 + 91)

⇒ TSA = 2 × 311

⇒ TSA = 622 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

The average of 12 consecutive even numbers = 83

Total numbers = 12

If the next even number is included, total numbers = 13

Formula used:

New Average = $\dfrac{\text{Sum of all numbers}}{\text{Total numbers}}$

Calculation:

Sum of 12 numbers = Average × Number of numbers

⇒ Sum = 83 × 12 = 996

If we include the next even number, it will be 2 more than the last number.

Since 83 is the average, the 7th number = 83 + 1 = 84 (because numbers are even).

So the last (12th) number = 84 + 10 = 94

Next even number = 96

Total sum of new numbers: 996 + 96 = 1092

New Average = (1092/13) = 84.

The correct answer is Option (2).

<br>

$\sqrt[3]{730.2}-16.918+55.10× 2.01$

= 9 - 16.918 + 55.10 × 2.01

= 9 - 16.918 + 110.75

= 119.57 - 16.918

= 102.83 ≈ 102

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Six workers, A, B, C, D, E, and F, are sitting in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order). 

1. F is at the right end of the row. 2. B is fourth to the left of D. 3. D is third to the right of A. 4. E is third to the right of B. 

A is second to the left of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Least Possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some I are not J → Does not follow (Some J are I is given. but we can say definite that some I are not J).

II. Some H are not A → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between H and A. so, it is not definite).

III. No A is J → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between J and A. so, it is not definite).

None of conclusions I, II, III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

 'INTENT' is written as 'KPVGPV'

<br> <br>

Similarly,

 'LEGEND' is written as 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word: "PROMINENT"

First, third, fifth and ninth letters : P, O, I and T

Meaningful word: TOPI (A topi is a type of small, typically brimless hat or cap, or a species of antelope).

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Statement:

B ≥ D > K ≤ F = C > G < H

Conclusions:

I. G ≤ D → False (D > K ≤ C > G, There is no definite relation given ween G and D).

II. G > D → False (D > K ≤ C > G, There is no definite relation given ween G and D).

If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Six boys P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre (not necessarily in the same order). 

1. P is second to the right of U. 2. Q is an immediate neighbour of both R and S. 3. T is second to the right of S. 

T is second to the left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Statements:

I > F ≥ N = J ≤ K < O ≤ S

Conclusions:

I. N < S → True (N  = J and N ≤ K < O ≤ S) 

II. F ≥ O → False ( F ≥ N = J ≤ K < O, There is no definite relation given between F and O).

If only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given equation: 7 – 3 + 24 ÷ 2 × 5 = 28

(1)  + and ÷

After interchanging the signs, equation is

7 – 3 ÷ 24 + 2 × 5 = 28 

7 - 0.125 + 2 × 5 = 28 

7 - 0.125 + 10 = 28

17 - 0.125 = 28

16.875 ≠ 28

(2) × and ÷

After interchanging the signs, equation is

7 – 3 + 24 × 2 ÷ 5 = 28

7 – 3 + 24 × 0.4 = 0.28

7 - 3 + 9.6 = 28

16.6 - 3 = 28

13.6 ≠ 28

(3) × and –

After interchanging the signs, equation is

7 × 3 + 24 ÷ 2 - 5 = 28

7 × 3 + 12 - 5 = 28

21 + 12 - 5 = 28

33 - 3 = 28

28 = 28

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given string: D C J A L D R W I Y Z L L R T L T Y Q N N Q M L 

Condition required : L → Letter

D C J A L D R W I Y Z L L R T L T Y Q N N Q M L 

There are 4 letters each immediately preceded by L.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Least Possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I.No pen is an eraser → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between pen and eraser. it is possible not definite).

II. No paper is a pen → Follow (No pen is paper. so, No paper is pen is definitely follow).

Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given string : T U T U T U U 3 7 3 T U T T T 7 3 U 3 U T T U 3 7

New string after Letter U replace by 3,

T 3 T 3 T 3 3 3 7 3 T 3 T T T 7 3 3 3 3 T T 3 3 7

Number of 3's in new string  = 13

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

(LP NR, PT) →

Similarly,

Option (1): (MR, OT, QV)

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

450 + 9 = 459

459 - 18 = 441

441 + 27 = 468

468 - 36 = 432

432 + 45 = 477

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

7 * 2 @ 4 = 18

4 * 7 @ 3 = 31

Here,

• denotes × 

@ denotes +

Now,

7 * 2 @ 4 = 18

7 × 2 + 4 = 14 + 4 = 18

4 * 7 @ 3 = 31

4 × 7 + 3 = 28 + 3 = 31

Similarly,

3 * 4 @ 5 = ?

3 × 4 + 5 = 12 + 5 = 17

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

(1): SBHK – UDKN

(2): CLRU – ENUX

(3): JSYB – LUBE

(4): QCPT – SESX

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

Logic: Sum of place values of letters in the word × 2

TAKES' is written as '112'

20 + 1 + 11 + 5 + 19 = 56 × 2 = 112

'HIRED' is written as '88'

8 + 9 + 18 + 5 + 4 = 44 × 2 = 88

Similarly,

'READY'  is written as

18 + 5 + 1 + 4 + 25 = 53 × 2 = 106

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Man is brother of Simran.

So, man's mother is also Mother of Simran.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given word: "CONSISTENT"

Second, third, fourth, seventh and eighth letters : O, N, S, T and E

Meaning full word : STONE 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word : SHORTAGE'

If all the vowels are changed to their next letter as per the English alphabetical order,

New word : SHPRTBGF

Third letter from right end = B

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

MN : OQ :: ?

Similarly,

Option (2) AC : CF

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

BHL : YEI 

Similarly,

OUY : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is: Option 4) individual.

Key Points

• Array means a large group, variety, or an ordered arrangement of items. (विविधता / समूह / सजावट)
• Example: The shop displayed an impressive array of colorful fabrics.
• Individual refers to a single person or thing, separate from a group. (व्यक्ति / व्यक्तिगत)
• Example: Each individual in the team has a unique strength.
• Thus, the opposite of a group or collection (array) is a single unit (individual).

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4) individual.

Additional Information

• Parade (परेड / जुलूस): A public procession, especially ceremonial.
• Example: The Independence Day parade attracted a huge crowd.
• Batch (झुंड / समूह): A quantity or group of items processed or produced together.
• Example: The bakery prepared a fresh batch of cookies.
• Clutter (अव्यवस्था / बिखराव): A messy collection of things.
• Example: The room was full of clutter after the event.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence starts with "But either in his dreams or out of them," and ends with "until at last it was rolled back."
• Sentence C follows the opening part as it introduces the main idea: "he could not tell which, Frodo heard a sweet."
• Sentence B connects next, describing the song: "singing running in his mind: a song that seemed."
• Sentence D follows as it elaborates on the song: "to come like a pale light behind a grey rain-curtain."
• Sentence A is the concluding part as it adds the final imagery: "and growing stronger to turn the veil all to glass and silver."
• The correct sequence is CBDA.

 

Coherent sentence after rearrangement:

"But either in his dreams or out of them, he could not tell which, Frodo heard a sweet singing running in his mind: a song that seemed to come like a pale light behind a grey rain-curtain, and growing stronger to turn the veil all to glass and silver, until at last it was rolled back."

The correct answer is: Option 2) Communion.

Key Points

• The word "Rapture" means a feeling of intense joy, bliss, or delight. (अत्यंत आनंद / परमानंद)
• Example: She listened to the music in complete rapture, forgetting everything else around her.
• "Communion" refers to a deep sense of emotional or spiritual connection, often involving shared feelings of joy or harmony. (संपर्क / आत्मीयता)
• Example: The poet felt a profound communion with nature during his morning walks.
• Both words convey a deep emotional experience, which makes Communion a suitable synonym for Rapture.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2) Communion.

Additional Information

• Need (ज़रूरत): A requirement or necessity.
• Example: Food and water are basic human needs.
• Dislike (नापसंद): A feeling of not liking something or someone.
• Example: She has a strong dislike for loud noises.
• Despair (निराशा): The complete loss of hope.
• Example: He was filled with despair after losing his job.

The correct answer is 'toe'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence talks about something being 'frostbitten' and later 'repaired', which clearly indicates a body part.
• The word that correctly fits this context is toe (पैर की उंगली).
• “Frostbitten toe” is a natural and meaningful phrase, as toes commonly get frostbite in extreme cold.
• The other options—too, to, two—are not nouns and cannot fit grammatically or logically.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: What you don’t know is that the Somras repaired a frostbitten toe that I had lived with all my life.

Additional Information

• Too (भी/अत्यधिक): Used for emphasis or meaning "also" → does not fit here.
• To (को/की ओर): A preposition → cannot fit the blank.
• Two (दो): A number → makes no sense with “frostbitten”.

The correct answer is 'board'.

 

Key Points

• The word "board" is commonly used to refer to a flat, thin, rectangular surface or as a term for beginning a process or project.
• In this context, "set on the board" indicates that the project is ready to begin or is about to start officially.
• The other options: "brood," "broad," and "bored" do not fit the sentence meaningfully.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Your project is about to be set on the board.

Additional Information

• Brood: refers to a group of offspring or to think deeply about something unpleasant.
• Broad: means wide or expansive.
• Bored: means feeling weary or uninterested.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Everything you can possibly want, have, or do in a particular situation".

Key Points

• The idiom "The whole nine yards" means everything you can possibly want, have, or do in a particular situation. (किसी स्थिति में आप जो कुछ भी संभवतः चाहते हैं, प्राप्त कर सकते हैं या कर सकते हैं।)
• Example: When we decided to organize the party, we went the whole nine yards and hired a live band and a professional caterer.
• This idiom is often used to emphasize going all out or doing something to the fullest extent possible.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Going to great length to avoid to face someone you hate or do not want to meet (किसी से बचने के लिए बहुत कोशिश करना जिसे आप पसंद नहीं करते या मिलना नहीं चाहते।)
• Example: He went to great lengths to avoid seeing his ex-girlfriend at the party.
• Option 2: Exaggerating so much that it almost falsifies the facts (इतना बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना कि यह लगभग तथ्यों को गलत बना देता है।)
• Example: His story was so exaggerated that it was hard to believe any of it.
• Option 4: The most beautiful, expensive, long, flowing wedding dress one can afford (सबसे सुंदर, महंगा, लंबा, और बहता हुआ शादी का गाउन जिसे कोई खरीद सकता है।)
• Example: She walked down the aisle in the whole nine yards of a designer wedding dress.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The proverb "Cleanliness is next to godliness" means that maintaining cleanliness and hygiene is a very important part of being good, virtuous, and close to divinity. (सफाई ईश्वर के निकटता के समान है।)
• Example: Maintaining cleanliness in our surroundings is essential as cleanliness is next to godliness.
• It emphasizes that keeping oneself, one’s surroundings, and one’s environment clean is not only a sign of good manners but also reflects moral and spiritual purity. (यह कहावत इस बात पर जोर देती है कि स्वच्छता व्यक्तित्व का एक महत्वपूर्ण हिस्सा है।)
• Example: A clean mind and a clean environment are necessary for a healthy and peaceful life.
• Hence, the correct interpretation of this proverb is Option 2: It is very important to keep yourself clean.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: When you make money quickly, it’s very easy to lose it quickly as well. (अगर आप जल्दी पैसे कमाते हैं, तो इसे जल्दी खोना आसान है।)
• Example: Quick riches are often fleeting, as they come and go easily.
• Option 3: It’s better to finish something late than to never do it at all. (देरी से काम खत्म करना कभी न करने से बेहतर है।)
• Example: Although it took me weeks, I finally completed the project—better late than never!
• Option 4: What you do is more important than what you say. (आप जो करते हैं वह आपके कहने से ज्यादा महत्वपूर्ण है।)
• Example: Actions speak louder than words when it comes to showing your commitment.

The correct answer is: Geography.

Key Points

• The word "Geography" refers to the study of the physical features of the earth and its atmosphere, along with human activity and how it affects and is affected by these features. (भूगोल)
• Example: The geography of India includes diverse landscapes ranging from mountains to deserts and plains.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Geography.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Theology (धर्मशास्त्र): The study of the nature of God and religious beliefs.
• Example: She decided to pursue theology to better understand the origins of her faith.
• Philanthropy (परोपकार): The desire to promote the welfare of others, often expressed by generous donations to good causes.
• Example: His philanthropy has helped build schools and hospitals in rural areas.
• Palaeography (प्राचीन लेखन का अध्ययन): The study of ancient handwriting and scripts.
• Example: The professor specialized in palaeography to decipher medieval manuscripts.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The proverb "The proof is in the pudding" means that the real value or quality of something can only be judged when it is put to practical use and not just based on its appearance. (असली मूल्य या गुणवत्ता केवल व्यावहारिक अनुभव से जानी जा सकती है।)
• Example: You can't judge the success of a new project by its proposal alone; the proof is in the pudding when it is implemented effectively.
• Option 3 Explanation: The proverb emphasizes practical experience over theoretical or superficial judgment. (यह कहावत व्यावहारिक अनुभव को सतही मूल्यांकन से अधिक महत्व देती है।)
• Example: A car may look amazing, but the proof is in the pudding when you actually drive it and test its performance.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: No convincing is necessary if there is solid evidence available. (यदि ठोस साक्ष्य उपलब्ध है तो किसी को समझाने की आवश्यकता नहीं है।)
• Example: The data already proves the theory, so further convincing is not required.
• Option 2: It is difficult to resist a tasty temptation. (स्वादिष्ट प्रलोभन का विरोध करना कठिन है।)
• Example: The smell of freshly baked cake makes it hard to resist eating it immediately.
• Option 4: It takes time, effort, and a lot of patience to create even little things as there is no magical way to create anything. (कोई भी चीज बनाने में समय, प्रयास और धैर्य लगता है, क्योंकि इसे जादुई रूप से नहीं बनाया जा सकता।)
• Example: Crafting a handmade piece of art requires days of hard work and dedication.

The correct answer is 'let go'.

 

Key Points

• The verb phrase "let go" means to release or free something or someone.
• In the context of the sentence, "let go" appropriately describes Vraka releasing the headman due to anger.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Vraka let go off the headman as anger got the better of him."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "tied" is incorrect as it does not match the context of releasing someone.
• Option 2: "back" is incorrect as it does not form a meaningful phrase with "off the headman."
• Option 4: "let in" is incorrect because it implies allowing entry, which does not fit the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence as given in the question is grammatically correct and meaningful.
• The phrase "except where the doors are" correctly conveys that the restriction applies to doors that are locked in the present tense.
• The other options either introduce grammatical errors or change the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4 (No correction required).

 

Correct Sentence: "You may go anywhere you wish in the castle, except where the doors are locked."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "except where the doors were" – This changes the tense to the past, which is not suitable in the context of the current scenario.
• Option 2: "expect where the doors are" – The word "expect" is incorrect here and creates a grammatical error in the sentence.
• Option 3: "accept where the doors are" – The word "accept" is incorrect and changes the meaning of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the given segment: "After breakfast, which they again" and ends with "a washed autumn sky of thin blue." The task is to arrange the remaining segments logically.
• The correct sequence is D-A-C-B.
• Let’s analyze each segment:
• Segment D: "ate alone, they made ready to" logically follows the starting phrase "After breakfast, which they again."
• Segment A: "say farewell, as nearly heavy of" comes next as it aligns with the narrative of preparing to leave.
• Segment C: "heart as was possible on such a morning:" logically continues the idea introduced in Segment A, describing their emotional state.
• Segment B: "cool, bright, and clean under" connects the description to the final given part, "a washed autumn sky of thin blue."
• Thus, the correct order is: D → A → C → B.

 

Complete sentence after rearrangement:

"After breakfast, which they again ate alone, they made ready to say farewell, as nearly heavy of heart as was possible on such a morning: cool, bright, and clean under a washed autumn sky of thin blue."

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Limitless" means without any limit or end; infinite, boundless, or immeasurable. (असीमित, अनंत)
• Example: The possibilities for growth in technology are limitless.
• The word "Fathomable" refers to something that can be measured or understood; something that is finite or limited. (समझ में आने योग्य, सीमित)
• Example: The depths of this lake are fathomable with modern equipment.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Limitless' is 'Fathomable', as it conveys the opposite meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Great (महान): Exceptionally large, important, or distinguished.
• Example: He achieved great success in his career.
• Untold (अकथनीय): Too large, vast, or extreme to be counted or described.
• Example: The forest holds untold mysteries waiting to be uncovered.
• Immense (विशाल): Extremely large or great.
• Example: The immense beauty of the Himalayas attracts many tourists.

The correct answer is: Range.

Key Points

• The word "Group" refers to a collection of items or entities that are gathered together or considered as a unit. (समूह)
• Example: A group of friends went hiking in the forest.
• "Range" is used to describe a series of mountains connected together. It represents a continuous sequence or line of mountains. (पर्वत श्रृंखला)
• Example: The Himalayas are a mountain range that stretches across five countries in Asia.
• Hence, the most appropriate word for "A group of mountains" is "Range".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Range.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pack (झुंड): A collection or group of animals or things.
• Example: A pack of wolves was seen roaming in the forest.
• Line (रेखा): A straight or curved continuous mark or a series of people or objects arranged in a row.
• Example: The students stood in a line to enter the classroom.
• Arch (मेहराब): A curved structure that spans an open space, often used in architecture.
• Example: The ancient temple had a beautifully designed arch at its entrance.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'priviledge'.

• The correct spelling would be 'privilege'.
• The word 'privilege' is a noun which means 'a special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group'. (विशेष अधिकार)
• For Example -
• It is a privilege to be part of such a prestigious institution.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'priviledge'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Plenty - a large or sufficient amount or quantity (पर्याप्त मात्रा)
• Bravery - courageous behavior or character (बहादुरी)
• Disquieting - causing anxiety or uneasiness (चिंताजनक)

The correct answer is: 2) Greed.

Key Points

• The word "Rapacity" means extreme greed for wealth or material possessions; an aggressive desire to obtain more (लालच).
• Example: The rapacity of the corrupt officials caused widespread poverty in the region.
• "Greed" refers to an intense and selfish desire for something, especially wealth, power, or food (लालच).
• Example: His greed for money led him to make unethical decisions.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Rapacity' is 'Greed'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 2) Greed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Benevolence (परोपकारिता): The quality of being well-meaning or kind.
• Example: The charity is known for its benevolence toward the underprivileged.
• Audacity (साहस): A willingness to take bold risks or rude or disrespectful behavior.
• Example: She had the audacity to question his authority in front of everyone.
• Sycophancy (चापलूसी): Obsequious behavior toward someone important in order to gain advantage.
• Example: His sycophancy was evident as he constantly flattered his boss to get a promotion.

The correct answer is 'unselfishly'.

 

Key Points

• The word "unselfishly" means acting in a way that shows no concern for one's own advantage or welfare but focuses on helping others. (निस्वार्थ रूप से)
• The sentence indicates that she gave her all to others, which implies selflessness or lack of selfishness.
• The other options: "speedily," "neatly," and "loudly" do not fit the context as appropriately as "unselfishly" does.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Instead, she unselfishly gave her all to those who came to seek her treasures.

Additional Information

• Speedily (शीघ्रता से): means quickly or in a prompt manner.
• Neatly (साफ-सुथरे ढंग से): means in a tidy or orderly manner.
• Loudly (जोर से): means producing or capable of producing much noise.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Wisdom).

Key Points

• The word "Folly" refers to lack of good sense, foolishness, or a thoughtless or reckless action. (मूर्खता)
• Example: It would be folly to invest all your savings in one risky venture.
• "Wisdom" refers to the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgment; the opposite of folly. (बुद्धिमत्ता)
• Example: His wisdom and calm demeanor helped the team overcome the crisis smoothly.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Folly' is 'Wisdom'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Wisdom).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Infamous (कुख्यात): Well-known for some bad quality or deed.
• Example: The dictator was infamous for his oppressive regime.
• Favour (पक्ष): An act of kindness beyond what is due or usual.
• Example: She asked him for a favour to help her carry the heavy box.
• Favourite (पसंदीदा): Preferred before all others of the same kind.
• Example: Chocolate ice cream is my favourite dessert.

The correct answer is 'beneath'.

 

Key Points

• The word "beneath" is used to indicate that something is directly under or lower in position relative to something else.
• In the given sentence, the large signboard is hanging below the lamp, making "beneath" the most appropriate option.
• The other options: "among," "lower," and "abroad" do not fit the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Above the arch there was a lamp, and beneath it swung a large signboard.

Additional Information

• Among (के बीच): refers to being surrounded by or in the company of others.
• Lower (निम्न): refers to a position or level that is below another.
• Abroad (विदेश में): refers to a place outside one's own country.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The correctly spelled word is 'ORIGINAL'.

• Explanation:
• Option 1: OCCURED is incorrect. The correct spelling is OCCURRED.
• Option 2: ORIGINAL is correct and properly spelled.
• Option 3: IMMITATE is incorrect. The correct spelling is IMITATE.
• Option 4: MISCHEVIOUS is incorrect. The correct spelling is MISCHIEVOUS.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2: ORIGINAL.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Occurred - happened or took place (घटित)
• Imitate - copy or simulate someone or something (नकल करना)
• Mischievous - playfully causing trouble or annoyance (शरारती)

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The idiom "rack your brains" means to make a great effort to think of or remember something. (दिमाग पर ज़ोर डालना)
• Example: He had to rack his brains to remember where he had kept the keys.
• The correct option is "to struggle to recall or think of something" (किसी बात को याद करने या सोचने के लिए बहुत कोशिश करना).
• Example: She racked her brains trying to solve the puzzle.
• Thus, the idiom clearly matches the meaning given in Option 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: To be completely free from dirt (बिल्कुल साफ़ होना) – This has no relation to the idiom.
• Option 3: To get something that is easily obtained (आसानी से मिल जाना) – Incorrect meaning.
• Option 4: To take great care over details (बारीकियों पर बहुत ध्यान देना) – This means "meticulous," not "rack your brains."

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that the breakfast was a cold breakfast, not hot. The coffee was kept hot, but the breakfast itself was cold.
• Therefore, the statement “The protagonist was served hot breakfast” is not true.
• Other statements are correct:
• The table service was indeed of gold.
• The protagonist enjoyed a hearty meal, meaning it was fulfilling.
• There was no bell to call the servants.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: True — The table service was beautifully wrought gold.
• Option 2: True — The protagonist enjoyed a hearty meal.
• Option 3: True — The protagonist could not find a bell to call the servants.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes the protagonist waking up in an extremely luxurious house, where the breakfast table is set with gold tableware and “extraordinary evidences of wealth.”
• The narrator observes this wealth firsthand and expresses surprise at it, especially due to the lack of simple conveniences like a bell.
• Nothing in the passage proves that the person who left the message (“D.”) is a close friend or that the protagonist dislikes the extravagance.
• Therefore, the only inference fully supported by the passage is that the protagonist had visited a wealthy house.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect — The passage does not state any friendship or invitation details.
• Option 3: Incorrect — No dislike or humility is indicated.
• Option 4: Incorrect — The protagonist mentions he rested and “enjoyed the last twenty-four hours,” so he was not unhappy.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes a luxurious setting—gold tableware, rich surroundings, warm breakfast, and comfort.
• The narrator is clearly experiencing a high level of comfort and wealth during the day.
• Thus, the most suitable title that captures the essence of the passage is “A day in luxury.”
• Other options focus on minor details and do not represent the central theme of luxury and comfort.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Mr D. — Too vague; the passage focuses on the narrator’s experience, not Mr. D.
• Option 2: The hearty meal — Only describes one small part of the passage.
• Option 4: Room service — Incorrect, as there is no actual service or servant; rather, the narrator notes the lack of bells and service.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word “absent” in the sentence means “not present” or “away.”
• In the context—"I have to be absent for a while"—the writer clearly means that the person will be away for some time.
• Thus, the meaning that best matches the use of the word is “away.”

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Sufficient — means “enough”; does not relate to presence or absence.
• Option 2: Ignorant — means “lacking knowledge”; does not fit the context.
• Option 3: Attending — opposite in meaning; means being present.