BPSC CDPO Prelims 2018 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is noise from a machine shop.

Key Points

• Decibel 
• It l is the unit of sound. Its symbol is ‘dB’.
• It is defined as a unit of measurement used to express the ratio of one value of a power or field quantity to another on a logarithmic scale, the logarithmic quantity being called the power level or field level, respectively.
• It is widely known as a measure of sound pressure level.
• It is used to express the ratios of power or amplitude in arithmetic ratios in electronics.
• The sound level of 100dB will fall into the category of noisy sounds coming from a machine shop. Hence option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• 0-30 dB: Most human adults can’t hear sounds under 0 decibels. Most sound within this range is practically inaudible. Sounds that produce decibel levels between 0 and 30 comprise whispers as well as the ticking of a watch.
• 31-45 dB: It is the decibel level of silent sounds. Within this variety, sounds are audible but you will have difficulty differentiating them from other noises if you’re somewhere noisy. Soft dialog (like that which you may notice from a library) drops to the 30-45 decibel range.
• 46-65 dB: Standard conversation, the sound of a bubbling flow, along with also the meow of your kitty may generate sound that drops from the 45-65 decibel range.
• 66-90 dB: A lot of your favorite handheld gadgets, by electrical beard trimmers into blenders, drop at the 70 to 90 range.
• 91-100 dB: This is all about the level at which you’re want to add some earplugs. Cars without a muffler and gas-powered lawnmowers sit in the 90 to the 100-decibel range.
• 101-125 dB: 110 decibels and above is the level where other sounds can not truly be heard. Aircraft takeoff, trains, and quite loud concerts would fall to the 110+ decibel level.
• 126+ dB: 125 decibels is where sound really begins to get painful. Now, you’re basically talking about weaponized audio. This is the noise level of a rocket ship taking off.

The correct answer is Kinetic energy. 

Key Points

• When a body moves at a constant speed in a horizontal circle, its Kinetic energy remains constant.
• When the body rotates in a horizontal circle then, only the direction of velocity, acceleration & force changes continuously at every instant but not in terms of their magnitude.
• Its kinetic energy remains constant as mass and speed remain constant.

The correct answer is sucralose. 

Key Points

• Sucralose is a nonnutritive, zero-calorie artificial sweetener.
• It is a chlorinated sugar substitute that is about 600 times as sweet as sucrose.
• It is produced from sucrose when three chlorine atoms replace three hydroxyl groups.
• It is consumed as tablets (Blendy) by diabetic and obese patients. 

Additional Information

• Aspartame is an artificial non-saccharide sweetener 200 times sweeter than sucrose and is commonly used as a sugar substitute in foods and beverages.
• Saccharin is an artificial sweetener with effectively no food energy. It is about 550 times as sweet as sucrose but has a bitter or metallic aftertaste, especially at high concentrations.
• Alitame is an aspartic acid-containing dipeptide sweetener.

The correct answer is Oxytocin.

Key Points

• Oxytocin is a hormone normally produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary.
• It plays a role in social bonding, reproduction, childbirth, and the period after childbirth.

Additional Information

• Erythromycin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of a number of bacterial infections. This includes respiratory tract infections, skin infections, chlamydia infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and syphilis.
• Penicillins are the antibiotics used in the treatment of throat infections, meningitis, syphilis, and various other infections.
• Tetracycline is an antibiotic that fights infections caused by bacteria. Tetracycline is used to treat many different bacterial infections of the skin, intestines, respiratory tract, urinary tract, genitals, lymph nodes, and other body systems.

The correct answer is 30-180 days.

Key Points

• Hepatitis is an inflammatory condition of the liver.
• Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can cause both acute and chronic diseases.
• The Hepatitis B virus is a small DNA virus that belongs to the “Hepadnaviridae” family.
• It is an infectious disease caused by an infection with the Hepatitis B virus.
• It is contracted through flat tired wounds, contact with blood, saliva, fluids of an infectious body.
• Sharing personal belongings such as razors or toothbrushes of an infected person can also cause Hepatitis B.
• The virus is most commonly transmitted from mother to child during birth and delivery, as well as through contact with blood or other body fluids during sex with an infected partner, unsafe injections, or exposure to sharp instruments.
• Structure of the Hepatitis B Virus
• ​The hepatitis B virus contains an outer envelope and an inner core.
• The outer envelope of the virus is composed of a surface protein called the hepatitis B surface antigen or "HBsAg".
• The HBsAg can be detected by a simple blood test and a positive test result indicates a person is infected with the hepatitis B virus.
• The inner core of the virus is a protein shell referred to as the hepatitis B core antigen or "HBcAg," which contains the hepatitis B virus DNA and enzymes used in viral replication.
• Life Cycle of Hepatitis B Virus:
• ​The virus enters the host liver cell and is transported into the nucleus of the liver cell.
• Once inside the nucleus, the viral DNA is transformed into a covalently closed circular DNA (cccDNA),
• cccDNA serves as a template for viral replication (creation of new hepatitis B virus).
• New HBV virus is packaged and leaves the liver cell, with the stable viral cccDNA remaining in the nucleus where it can integrate into the DNA of the host liver cell, as well as continue to create new hepatitis B virus.
• The hepatitis B virus can survive outside the body for at least 7 days.
• During this time, the virus can still cause infection if it enters the body of a person who is not protected by the vaccine.
• The incubation period of the hepatitis B virus ranges from 30 to 180 days. Hence option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is dome-shaped.

Key Points

• Breathing involves two stages: inspiration during which atmospheric air is drawn in and expiration by which the alveolar air is released out.
• During the inspiration, the diaphragm flattens and the chest cavity enlarges. 
• This contraction creates a vacuum, which pulls air into the lungs.
• During the expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and returns to its domelike shape, and the air is forced out of the lungs.

The correct answer is Sulphur dioxide (SO2).

Confusion Points

• **Please

Note:

** We may get confused between the Ozone and Sulfur dioxide (SO2).

• Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is an atmospheric pollutant.
• Whereas the Ozone is not the atmospheric pullutant but it's formed by chemical interactions.
• Hence Ozone cannot be an answer here. 

Key Points

• Air pollution refers to any physical, chemical, or biological change in the air.
• It is the contamination of air by harmful gases, dust, and smoke that affects plants, animals, and humans drastically.
• According to the source of emission, pollutants are classified into two main groups:
• A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted from a source directly into the atmosphere.
• The source can be either a natural process such as sandstorms and volcanic eruptions or anthropogenic (influenced by humans) such as industrial and vehicle emissions.
• The major primary pollutants are
• Oxides of Sulphur,
• Oxides of Nitrogen (SO₂),
• Oxides of Carbon,
• Particulate Matter,
• Methane,
• Ammonia,
• Chlorofluorocarbons, etc.
• A secondary pollutant is an air pollutant formed in the atmosphere as a result of the chemical or physical interactions between the primary pollutants themselves or between the primary pollutants and other atmospheric components.
• The most important secondary level Air Pollutants are Ground Level Ozone, photochemical Smog, and POPs (Persistent Organic Pollutants), Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN).

The correct answer is Gambusia.

Key Points

• Gambusia can be used for the biological control of mosquitoes.
• Gambusia is a fish species that feeds on larvae of mosquitoes.
• Oil can also be used to prevent the breeding of mosquitoes on stagnant water by creating an oil slick on water.
• Ointments are used by humans which provide protection from mosquito bites.
• Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is an insecticide which can also be used to control (Not biologically) mosquitoes.
• Other biological methods for control of Mosquito: 
• Introduction of Bacteria that disrupt the digestive system of larvae, can kill them within a few days.
• Algae that are specifically toxic to mosquitoes can be introduced into the water body. For eg. Blue-Green Algae.
• Sterilizing male mosquitoes can also be helpful, as they would not be able to produce offspring.

The correct answer is scurvy.

Key Points

• Vitamins
• ​They are organic compounds that help in performing the biological functions of a living organism.
• It is a vital nutrient that should be included in our daily diet in the required quantity.
• They are referred to as organic compounds, are required in very small amounts, hence, they are mentioned as micronutrients.
• They perform vital functions and an essential role in our body functions such as metabolism, immunity and digestion.
• Vitamins are of two types:
• Fat-soluble – which are dissolved in fat
• Water-soluble – which are dissolved in water
• Vitamin C
• It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a vital role in repairing, production, regeneration, and maintenance of tissues, bones, blood vessels, and skin.
• It is a powerful antioxidant, which helps in protecting against heart-related disorders, a variety of cancers and neutralizes the effects of nitrites.
• It also absorbs iron and prevents scurvy, and decreases LDL or bad cholesterol and triglycerides.
• Scurvy:
• It is a disease caused by a severe deficiency of vitamin C, hence it is also called chronic vitamin C deficiency disorder. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Following are the symptoms of Scurvy: Anaemia, Bleeding gums and gingivitis, Bruised hair follicles and skin hemorrhages, Swollen joints.
• Oral vitamin C supplements and foods containing vitamin C help treat scurvy.

Additional Information

• Below is the table list of Vitamin and Deficiency Diseases:

Key Points

• An audiometer is a machine used for evaluating hearing acuity.
• An audiometer is an instrument that delivers tones of different frequencies and intensity to ear-by-ear phones.
• It is the most relevant investigation to measure the hearing threshold.
• An audiometer is an electronic device that produces pure tones which can be adjusted up and down by 5 dB. A pure tone is a sound of a single frequency.
• Audiometer produce sounds of a single frequency in different intensities and give the results in a graphical way, which is called an audiogram.
• The audiogram is recorded for both ears and both for air conduction and bone conduction.

The correct answer is transportation of oxygen.

Key Points

• The function of haemoglobin is the transportation of oxygen in your blood from the lungs to the tissues.
• Haemoglobin is a protein in your red blood cells that carries oxygen to your body's organs and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from your organs and tissues back to your lungs.
• Red blood cells carry a biomolecule known as Hemoglobin.
• About 70% of your body's iron is found in the red blood cells of your blood called haemoglobin and in muscle cells called myoglobin.
• The haemoglobin is responsible for binding oxygen molecule to itself and carrying it around the various human organs through the bloodstream.
• Iron is the central atom in the biomolecule haemoglobin.
• The low concentration of iron affects the function of the bloodstream significantly to assure the availability of oxygen.
• The normal range for haemoglobin is: For men, 13.5 to 17.5 grams per deciliter. For women, 12.0 to 15.5 grams per deciliter.
• Haemoglobin is produced in bone marrow by erythrocytes and is circulated with them until their destruction.
• It is then broken down in the spleen, and some of its components, such as iron, are recycled to the bone marrow.

The correct answer is joule.

Key Points

• SI Unit of work is the joule.
• Joule is defined as the work done by a force of one newton causing a displacement of one meter.
• If force is expressed in Newton and the distance in metre, then the work done is expressed in Joule.
• Work is said to be done by a force when the body is displaced actually through some distance in the direction of the applied force.
• Since the body is being displaced in the direction of F, therefore work done by the force in displacing the body through a distance s is given by
• \(W = \vec F \cdot \vec s\)

Or, W = Fs cos θ

• Work done upon a body is only a scalar quantity.
• This means work has only magnitude, not direction.

The correct answer is Cadmium.

Key Points

• A radioactive element is one with an unstable nucleus, which radiates alpha, beta, or gamma radiation and gets converted to a stable element.
• A radioactive element is a fundamental element whose atomic nuclei demonstrate the phenomenon of radioactivity.
• The name ‘radioactivity’ is a misnomer because these elements have nothing to do with radio waves. The reason is that the energy and frequency of a gamma-ray that is emitted by a radioactive element are far beyond that of the radio band of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• Radioactive elements from nature, as a result of nuclear fission, and via the intentional synthesis in nuclear reactors or particle accelerators.
• It is one with an unstable nucleus, which radiates alpha, beta, or gamma radiation and gets converted to a stable element.
• List of Radioactive elements-
• Technetium, Promethium, Polonium, Astatine, Radon, Francium, Radium, Actinium, Thorium, Protactinium, Uranium, Neptunium, Plutonium, Americium, Curium, Berkelium, Californium, Einsteinium, Fermium, Mendelevium, Nobelium, Lawrencium, Rutherfordium, Dubnium, Seaborgium, Bohrium, Hassium, Meitnerium, Darmstadtium, Roentgenium, Copernicium, Nithnium, Flerovium, Moscovium, Livermorium, Tennessine, Organesson.
• From the above given radioactive element, Cadmium is not given. Hence option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Uranium Element-
• ​Uranium is a weakly radioactive element with an atomic number 92 and symbol U in the periodic table.
• Natural uranium was found as a mixture of two isotopes. U-238 accounts for 99.3% and U-235 around 0.7%.
• Uranium fission is made efficient by nuclear engineers. To increase the proportion of U-235, the engineers either gasify the element to differentiate the isotopes.
• The most enriched uranium in nuclear power plants is made up of 3-5% of U-235.
• Radium Element-
• ​Radium is a type of radioactive element with the symbol Ra.
• It is the sixth element that lies in group 2 of the periodic table.
• The pure form of radium is silvery-white in color, however, it combines with nitrogen readily when it is exposed to air and forms a black surface layer of the radium nitride.
• Radium was discovered in the year 1898 by Marie Sklodowska Curie and Perre Curie in the form of radium chloride.
• Thorium Element-
• ​Thorium is a weakly radioactive metallic chemical element with the symbol Th and atomic number 90.
• Thorium is silvery and tarnishes black when it is exposed to air, forming thorium dioxide; it is moderately soft and malleable and has a high melting point.
• Thorium is found as the minerals thorite, uranothorite, and thorianite. It is also found in monazite, which is the most important commercial source.
• Cadmium Element-
• ​Cadmium is a soft bluish-white metal with atomic number 48 and represented with the symbol Cd in the periodic table.
• Cadmium is a natural element in the earth’s crust. It is usually found as a mineral combined with other elements such as oxygen, chlorine, or sulfur.
• Cadmium is the second-row transition metal belonging to group 12 of the periodic table, along with Zn and Hg.
• The element has an atomic number of 48, an atomic mass of 112, one main oxidation state (+2), and eight naturally occurring isotopes.

The correct answer is More than one of the above.

Key Points

• Clinical death is a phenomenon in which the pulse rate and beating of the heart stop their function.
• When the heart stops pumping the lungs stop breathing, the person is in a state of clinical death.
• Usually, this is measured from the moment the cessation of heart and lung functions begin.
• In such a type of death, various body cells and organs remain to live for a few hours after the death.
• Biological death refers to the condition when all the organs of the body including the brain have ceased functioning.

The correct answer is concave lens.

Key Points

• Myopia also known as Shortsightedness or Nearsightedness is a common vision condition in which you can see objects near to you clearly, but objects farther away are blurry.
• It occurs when the shape of your eye causes light rays to bend (refract) incorrectly, focusing images in front of your retina instead of on your retina.
• Concave lenses are used to cure Myopia.
• When looking at objects close to them a myopic individual has perfect vision, but distant objects can appear blurred.
• This is because, in front of the retina, light is concentrated, and being so far ahead in the eye, objects appear distorted in the distance.
• Using a concave (curved inward) lens that is positioned in front of a myopic eye, transferring the vision back to the retina and making it clearer, shortsightedness is corrected.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The process in which the change of vapour or gas into liquid is known as condensation.
• Condensation occurs when the temperature of the vapour is reduced below its saturation temperature.
• Condensation is the process through which the physical state of matter changes from the gaseous phase into the liquid phase.

Additional Information

• The process of change of state from solid to liquid is called melting.
• The temperature at which a solid starts to liquefy is known as the melting point of that solid.
• The melting point of a substance at atmospheric pressure is called a normal melting point.
• Evaporation is the conversion of liquid into its vapour, below the boiling point of the liquid.
• During evaporation, a small fraction of particles at the surface, having higher kinetic energy, is able to break away from the forces of attraction of other particles and gets converted into vapour.

The correct answer is neutron.

Key Points

• Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of neutrons.
• Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a heavy nucleus, such as uranium or plutonium, into two smaller nuclei of nearly the same mass.
• During this process, the unstable radioactive nucleus is split into two smaller nuclei.
• During this fission process, a huge amount of energy is produced further giving rise to radioactive elements as well as the release of many neutrons.
• These neutrons can further induce chain fission reaction in the nucleus of the uranium or plutonium and release more neutrons.
• Nuclear fusion is a reaction through which two or more light nuclei collide to form a heavier nucleus.
• The nuclear fusion process occurs in elements that have a low atomic number, such as hydrogen.

The correct answer is zinc and copper.

Key Points

• Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.
• In proportions, it can be varied to achieve varying mechanical and electrical properties.
• An alloy is a metallic intimately mixed solid mixture of two or more different elements.
• An alloy in which one of the components is mercury is known as amalgam.
• Other important Alloys:

The correct answer is Wrought iron.

Key Points

• Wrought iron is a very pure iron where the iron content is of the order of 99.5%.
• It is produced by re-melting pig iron and some small amount of silicon, sulphur, or phosphorus may be present.
• It is an iron alloy with a very low carbon (less than 0.08%) content in contrast to cast iron (2.1% to 4%).
• It is tough, malleable and ductile and can easily be forged or welded.
• It cannot however take sudden shock.
• Chains, crane hooks, railway couplings and such other components may be made of this iron.

Additional Information

• Steel is an alloy of iron and other elements, primarily carbon.
• It is basically an alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon content can be less than 1.7% and carbon is present in the form of iron carbide to impart hardness and strength.
• Pig iron has a very high carbon content, typically 3.5 - 4.5%.
• Pig iron is the intermediate product of smelting iron ore.​
• Cast iron is an alloy of iron, carbon and silicon and it is hard and brittle.
• Carbon content in cast iron may be within 1.7% to 3% and carbon may be present as free carbon or iron carbide Fe3C.

The correct answer is distance.

Key Points

• Light year:  The distance travelled by light in one year is called a light-year.
• It is the unit of astronomical distance.
• 1 light-year = 9.461 trillion kilometres which is a very large distance.
• The International Astronomical Union defines a light-year as the distance light travels in 365.25 days.
• A light-year is a distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (365.25 days).

The correct answer is Kempegowda International Airport.

Key Points

• Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru became the first airport in the country to have a helicopter taxi.
• Operated by the Kochi-based  Thumby Aviation HeliTaxi service will initially fly 2 helicopters, Initially, the services will be operated between Kempegowda International Airport & Electronics City where a heliport is expected to come up.
• It will ensure quick, seamless transfers to & from the airport, at a cost similar to a luxury taxi fare.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The Aam Aadmi Party government in Delhi introduced the doorstep delivery of public services scheme in September 2018.
• Under the scheme, 100 services are delivered at the doorstep of the citizens.
• The government claimed that no citizen of Delhi would have to stand in queues for the services listed under the scheme.
• Under the scheme, citizens call on 1076 to book a service and a ‘Mobile Sahayak’ visits them to collect necessary documents, saving them the hassle of travelling to government offices.
• The scheme was launched initially with 40 services across eight departments which has now been expanded to 100 services across 14 departments.
• Some key departments for which most requests are received include revenue, transport, social welfare with service requests for caste, income, domicile certificates, driving licence, transfer of vehicle ownership etc.
• The scheme has a robust infrastructure with 80 dedicated call centre representatives who have responded to more than 2.5 million calls and on date serving more than 500,000 service requests.

The correct answer is Biplab Kumar Deb.

Key Points

• In March 2018, Shri Biplab Kumar Deb took an oath of office as the Chief Minister of the state of Tripura.
• In January 2016, Shri Biplab Kumar Deb was appointed as the BJP State President for Tripura Pradesh, a position which he continues to hold till date.
• During his tenure as the State President of the party, the BJP achieved an unprecedented victory in the Assembly Elections in Tripura held in February 2018, the first-ever for the party in the state.
• In May 2015, Shri Deb has entrusted with the responsibility of being the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) Central Jansampark Prabhari for Tripura Pradesh.

Additional Information

• About Tripura: As of May 2022:
• ​Capital: Agartala
• Chief minister: Manik Saha
• Governor: Satyadev Narayan Arya
• Union territory: 1 November 1956
• Upgraded as State: 21 January 1972
• State Animal: Phayre's leaf monkey
• State Bird: Green imperial pigeon

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh has decided to build 'Mother India Temple'.
• Madhya Pradesh has cleared a proposal allowing the construction of a “Bharat Mata” temple near Bhopal.
• The government has sanctioned the allocation of 5.046 hectares of land to the BMC for the construction of the Bharat Mata Mandir Parisar at Singarcholi.

The correct answer is Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Key Points

• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeITY) has launched Stree Swabhiman Initiative in 2018.
• Its aim is to create a sustainable model for providing adolescent girls and women access to affordable sanitary products by leveraging Common Service Centres (CSCs).
• Its purpose is to improve awareness of menstrual health and hygiene of women, thus helping to protect the dignity and rights of women.
• Under this initiative, semi-automatic and manual sanitary napkin manufacturing units will be set up at CSC for producing affordable and eco-friendly sanitary napkins.
• These micro manufacturing units will be operated by women entrepreneurs and generate employment for 8-10 women.

The correct answer is Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail.

Key Points

• In the context of Elections in India, the term VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail.
• VVPAT is the system that allows voters to verify their votes.
• The VVPAT machine prints a slip along with the name of the candidate and the corresponding election symbol and automatically drops it in a sealed box.
• It was first introduced in India in 2013.
• VVPAT was first used in Noksen (assembly constituency) in Nagaland.
• It can be accessed by polling officers only.
• During the 2019 general election, VVPAT was introduced in all 543 Lok Sabha constituencies.

The correct answer is Flag of Friendship.

Key Points

• India for the first time hosted the 8^th International Theatre Olympics, the greatest carnival of theatre in the world in 2018.
• The 51-day carnival of theatre had begun on 17 February 2018.
• The mega international event was organised by the National School of Drama (NSD) in coordination with the Union Culture Ministry.
• The theme of the 8^th Theatre Olympics was “Flag of Friendship” which aims to bridge borders and bring people of different cultures, beliefs and ideologies together through the medium of theatrical art.

The correct answer is Vadodara.

Key Points

• The National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI) is India's first and only civil service training institute located in Vadodara, Gujarat,
• It is named as the National Rail and Transportation Institution (NRTI).
• The National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI), a vision of the Hon'ble Prime Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi, is India's first university exclusively focussed on transport-related education, multidisciplinary research, and training.
• The Union Railway Minister Piyush Goyal dedicated the National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI), India’s first Railway University, to the nation in Vadodara on 15 December 2018.
• It is the third such university in the world after Russia and China.
• The Railway University began its operations on 5^th September 2018.

The correct answer is Deen Dayal Port, Gujarat.

Key Points

• Kandla Port is a tidal port located in the state of Gujarat.
• it was renamed as Deendayal Port and it became the third port to be named after a person.
• The other two are Jawahar Lal Nehru Port of Mumbai and Kamaraja port.
• Kandla Port is located on Kandla creek, 90 km inward from the Gulf of Kachchh.
• At a distance of 9 km from the port, Kandla SEZ is located which was established in 1965.

Major ports of India:

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh High Court.

Key Points

• The Gwalior bench of Madhya Pradesh High Court has banned the use of word 'Dalit' in official  and unofficial communication.
• The Gwalior bench of the high court has suggested that scheduled caste or scheduled tribe be used instead of Dalit.
• The order by the Gwalior bench of the Madhya Pradesh high court comes in January 2018 on a PIL filed by a social activist.
• The Madhya Pradesh high court has asked the state government and the Centre not to use the term Dalit in official communication, saying the word finds no mention in the Constitution.

The correct answer is Abu Dhabi.

Key Points

• The World Future Energy Summit, 2018 was held in Abu Dhabi, the United Arab Emirates from 15-18 January 2018.
• The World Future Energy Summit (WFES) is an annual event that is dedicated to advancing future energy, energy efficiency and clean technology.
• WFES brings together over 30,000 visitors from 175 countries attracting government leaders, policymakers, entrepreneurs and thought leaders.
• It began in 2008, held under the patronage of Sheikh Mohammed Bin Zayed Al Nahyan, Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi and Deputy Supreme Commander of the UAE Armed Forces,
• WFES includes a summit, an exhibition, the Project Village, Round Table Discussions, the Young Future Energy Leaders program, corporate meetings and social events.

The correct answer is Finland.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report is published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
• It contains articles and rankings of national happiness, based on respondent ratings of their own lives, which the report also correlates with various life factors.
• According to World Happiness Index 2018, Finland is the happiest country in the world followed by Norway (2^nd), Denmark (3^rd), Iceland (4^th), and Switzerland (5^th).
• India was ranked 133^rd among 156 countries in World happiness Index 2018.

The correct answer is Tulum (Mexico).

Key Points

• The world's longest underwater cave has been discovered near the city of Tulum, on Mexico's Yucatan Peninsula.
• The new discovery connects two previously known flooded caves into one 215-mile-long stretch.
• The cave holds an important large freshwater reserve that supports great biodiversity.
• Hundreds of archaeological sites exist in the cave, including evidence of America's first settlers, Mayan culture, and extinct animals.

The correct answer is UN Women.

Key Points

• "Turning promises into action: Gender equality in the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development” is report released by UN Women.
• It provides a comprehensive and authoritative assessment of progress, gaps and challenges in the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) from a gender perspective.
• The report monitors global and regional trends in achieving the SDGs for women and girls based on available data, and provides practical guidance for the implementation of gender-responsive policies and accountability processes.
• This report lays the basis for powerful, gender-responsive monitoring of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

The correct answer is Insaniyat.

Key Points

• The Union Ministry of External Affairs on 14 September 2017 launched Operation Insaniyat in Bangladesh to help Rohingya refugees.
• Under Operation Insaniyat, India will distribute relief material consisting of items required urgently by the affected people. These materials are rice, pulses, sugar, salt, cooking oil, tea, ready to eat noodles, biscuits, mosquito nets etc.
• The Rohingya people are stateless Indo-Aryan people from Rakhine State, Myanmar.
• Described by the United Nations in 2013 as one of the most persecuted minorities in the world, the Rohingya population are denied citizenship under the 1982 Burmese citizenship law.
• The United Nations officials have described Myanmar's persecution of the Rohingya as ethnic cleansing, while there have been warnings of an unfolding genocide.

The correct answer is Indigenous Languages.

Key Points

• In 2016, the United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming 2019 as the International Year of Indigenous Languages, based on a recommendation by the Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues.
• Its aim is to raise awareness about the role that languages play in our daily lives.
• Hosted by UNESCO in collaboration with the Permanent Forum, the International Year of Indigenous Languages 2019 will strive to preserve, support and promote indigenous languages at the national, regional and international levels.
• Five key areas:- 
• Increasing understanding, reconciliation and international cooperation.
• Creating favourable conditions for knowledge-sharing and dissemination of good practices.
• Integrating indigenous languages into a standard-setting.
• Empowering through capacity building.
• Elaborating new knowledge to foster growth and development.

The correct answer is Montenegro.

Key Points

• Montenegro became the 29^th member of the Alliance on 5 June 2017 when it deposited its instrument of accession to the North Atlantic Treaty with the US State Department in Washington DC.
• NATO: North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• This organization is an alliance of 30 independent member countries.
• It was established at the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty on 4 April 1949.
• Montenegro is a country in Southeastern Europe. 
• Podgorica, the capital and largest city of Montenegro.
• It is located on the Adriatic Sea and is a part of the Balkans, sharing borders with Serbia to the northeast, Bosnia and Herzegovina to the north and west, Kosovo to the east, Albania to the southeast, the Adriatic Sea and Croatia to the southwest, and maritime boundary with Italy.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• Same-sex marriage in Australia has been legal since 9 December 2017.
• The Marriage Amendment (Definition and Religious Freedoms) Act 2017 is an Act of the Parliament of Australia, which legalizes same-sex marriage in Australia by amending the Marriage Act 1961 to allow marriage between two persons of marriageable age, regardless of their gender.

The correct answer is Kumbh Mela.

Key Points

• 13 elements of India were listed in the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity as of March 2018.
• UNESCO’s List of Intangible Cultural Heritage:
• ​The list was established in 2008 when the Convention for Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage came into effect.
• UNESCO maintains three lists under its “Intangible Cultural Heritage”:
• The list of intangible cultural heritage in need of urgent safeguarding.
• The list of the intangible cultural heritage of humanity.
• The register of good safeguarding practices.
• Presently, there is a total of 13 intangible cultural heritages of humanity in India recognized by UNESCO.
• These 13 elements are -

1. Buddhist Chanting
2. Kalbelia
3. Chhau Dance
4. Koodiyattam
5. Kumbh Mela
6. Mudiyett
7. Namruz
8. Ramlila
9. Ramman
10. Sankirtana
11. Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making
12. Vedic chanting
13. Yoga

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• India and France signed 14 agreements after delegation-level talks between President Emmanuel Macron and PM Modi at Hyderabad House in New Delhi.
• Addressing a joint press conference after the talks with President Macron, PM Modi said the two countries have robust cooperation in the fields of defence and security. This is not just a meeting of two leaders but a meeting of common ideologies of two nations.
• The agreements, including those in the field of education, environment, urban development and railways etc.

The correct answer is Nitish Kumar.

Key Points

• Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar will be conferred the First Mufti Mohammad Sayeed Award for Probity in Public Life at an official function to be organised by the Jammu and Kashmir government in Jammu.
• Mufti Mohammad Sayeed was a politician from the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The award has been constituted by the state government to commemorate the death anniversary of People's Democratic Party founder and two-time J&K CM Mufti Mohammad Sayeed.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar State Government has imposed a ban on manufacture, distribution, sale, purchase, display and advertisement of electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes) across the state.
• E-cigarettes are handheld battery-run devices that are smoked just like a conventional cigarette. However, the ingredient (in liquid form) may differ.
• The ban also applies to the online sale and purchase of e-cigarettes.
• It is to be noted Bihar has already imposed a ban on manufacture, distribution, trade, sale, purchase, display and advertisement of all tobacco products and items containing nicotine and not approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DGCI).
• E-cigarette has been banned in pursuance of the earlier decision of the State Tobacco Control Coordination Committee (STCCC) headed by the health department principal secretary

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Bihar government has launched Safe City Surveillance Scheme for checking crime against women.
• It aims to bring all major public places under the watch of close-circuit television (CCTV) cameras and improve overall crime control in the state on 13 December 2017.
• The scheme has been launched in a phase-wise manner, will commence from the capital city Patna.
• It has been specially launched for checking crime against women, such as harassment, eve-teasing and molestation, snatching incidents and roadside scuffles etc. It will also help in keeping a track of miscreants.

The correct answer is Patna.

Key Points

• The world’s first “Gender Literature Festival” was held in Patna, Bihar in April 2017.
• The Gender Resource Centre of Bihar’s Women Development Corporation (WDC) had organised the festival.
• The purpose of this initiative is to create a platform, exchange ideas, and share and learn experiences of renowned people in the field of gender-based or focused literature.
• The festival also acts as a platform to increase visibility for gender equity and advocacy in the State of Bihar.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The 6^th Conference of Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) of India Region was organized in Patna, Bihar on 16 February 2018.
• The 2-day conference discussed subjects of 'Parliament's role in the development agenda' and Legislature and Judiciary.
• It was inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan.
• Over 100 delegates from India and abroad, including Australia, Britain and Uganda, will participate in the conference.
• Speakers of State Assemblies, Chairpersons of Legislative Councils and delegates from across the country also took part.
• The theme of the conference is 'Role of Parliament and Parliamentarians in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)’.

The correct answer is Tokyo.

Key Points

• 32^nd Summer Olympics
• The 2020 summer Olympics is an international sports event that will be held from 23 July to 8 August 2021, in the city of Tokyo, Japan. As the name suggests, this summer Olympics were originally intended to be held from 24 July to 9 August 2020, but due to the ongoing Covid-19 Pandemic, Tokyo 2020 Olympics was postponed.
• The name ‘Tokyo 2020’ is not changed to ‘Tokyo 2021’ because of marketing and branding reasons.
• This is also the first time in history when an Olympic games event is postponed instead of being cancelled.
• The motto of summer Olympic 2020 is Faster, Higher, Stronger– Together. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Six new sports are added at the Tokyo summer Olympics 2020- baseball, softball, karate, skateboarding, sport climbing, and surfing. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The name of the 2020 Summer Olympics Mascot is Miraitowa. It is derived from the Japanese words Mirai (future) and Towa (eternity). The mascot embodies both the old and the new, echoing the concept of "innovation from harmony". The Mascot was created by Ryo Taniguchi.
• Tokyo has hosted the Summer Olympic Games in 1964 thereby becoming the first Asian city to host Summer Olympics twice.

The correct answer is Sunder Singh Gurjar.

Key Points

• Sundar Singh Gurjar becomes the first Indian para-athlete to win gold at World Para Athletic Championships.
• He won the gold medal in the men’s javelin throw event at World Para Athletics Championships 2017.
• It was held in London, United Kingdom.
• In the F46 category, Sundar recorded his personal best effort of 60.36m ahead of Dinesh Priyantha Herath (Sri Lanka) who emerged second with 57.93m, followed by defending champion Guo Chunliang (China) with 56.14m.
• Sundar Singh Gurjar hails from the Karauli district in Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Sagarika Ghose.

Key Points

• Indira: India's Most Powerful Prime Minister is a biography of Indira Gandhi, former prime minister of India.
• It was authored by Sagarika Ghose and published in 2017.
• Sagarika Ghose is an Indian journalist, columnist and author.
• The Gin Drinkers, published in 1998, and Blind Faith, in 2004 are two novels Published by Sagarika Ghose.
• In her 2018 non-fiction book, Why I Am A Liberal: A Manifesto For Indians Who Believe in Individual Freedom, she describes herself as a liberal who believes in rule of law, limited government, robust institutions and individual liberty.

The correct answer is Sumitha Narain.

Key Points

• Sunita Narian has written the book 'Conflicts of Interest; My journey through India's Green Movement" in 2017.
• India's foremost environmentalist, Sunita Narain gives a personal account of her battles as part of the country's Green Movement.
• While outlining the enormous environmental challenges that India faces today.
• Narain talks about how corporate lobbies and political interests often scuttle their effective resolution.
• Sunita Narain is an Indian environmentalist and political activist as well as a major proponent of the Green concept of sustainable development.
• Movies: - Before the Flood, River blue, Flow: For Love of Water, Weather Report
• Awards: - Stockholm Water Prize, Padma Shri
• Books: - Excreta Matters, Capitan America: US Climate Goals: a Reckoning, Not in My Backyard: Solid Waste Management in Indian Cities

The correct answer is International Women's Day, 2018.

Key Points

• On 8 Marche every year International Women's Day is celebrated globally to commemorate the social, economic, cultural, and political achievements of women.
• The day also marks a call to action for accelerating women's equality.
• The theme of International Women's Day, 2018 was "Time is Now: Rural and Urban Activists Transforming Women's Lives".
• International Women’s Day 2018, comes on the heels of unprecedented global movement for women’s rights, equality and justice.
• This has taken the form of global marches and campaigns, including #MeToo and #TimesUp in the United States of America and their counterparts in other countries, on issues ranging from sexual harassment and femicide to equal pay and women’s political representation.

The correct answer is Avanti.

Key Points

• Pradyota was the ruler of the ancient Indian Mahajanapada Avanti.
• Pradyota dynasty, also called prthivim bhoksyanti, is an ancient Indian dynasty, which ruled over Avanti in present-day Madhya Pradesh.
• Prodyota had two sons, Gopala and Palaka.
• He was succeeded by Palaka.
• Pradyotas of Avanti won Magadha and ruled there for 138 years from 799-684 BCE.
• His father was Punika, a minister in Ujjain.
• Pradyota was contemporary to Gautama Buddha and Bimbisara.

The correct answer is Prakasadharman.

Key Points

• Toramana was an Huna king who ruled in northern India in the late 5^th and the early 6^th century CE.
• The Sanjeli inscription of Toramana speaks of his conquest and control over Malwa and Gujarat. His territory also included Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Kashmir.
• According to the Rīsthal inscription, discovered in 1983, Huna King Toramana was defeated by the Aulikara King Prakashadharma of Malwa.

Additional Information

• Mihirakula was the founder of the Huna Empire in India.
• Mihirakula was the son of Toramana
• He is described as "The Record of the Western Regions" by Hiuen Tsang as a ruler who started to conquer neighbouring territories.
• As per the Gwalior inscription issued in the 15^th regal year his sovereignty extended up to Gwalior.
• He was defeated by the Aulikara king Yasodharman of Malwa in 528, and the Gupta emperor Narasimhagupta Baladitya.
• Yashodharman was a ruler of Malwa, in central India, during the early part of the 6^th century.
• He probably belonged to the Second Aulikara dynasty.
• The Mandsaur stone inscription of Yashodharman-Vishnuvardhana was written in 532 CE.
• The Mandasor Pillar Inscriptions of Yashodharman are a set of Sanskrit inscriptions from the early 6^th-century discovered at an archaeological site at the village of Sondani.
• These record the victory of Aulikara king Yasodharman over the Hun king Mihirakula.
• The Mandasor inscription praises Yasodharman, describes him as having rescued the earth from "rude and cruel kings of the Kali age, who delight in viciousness".

The correct answer is Rajaraja I.

Key Points

• The Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur:
• It is one of the greatest achievements of Chola architecture.
• According to the inscriptions, Linga in this temple was known as Dakshina Meru Vitankan.
• Built by the Chola King, Rajaraja I (985-1012 AD) possibly in (1003-1004 AD).
• There is a pradakshinapatha runs all around the grabha griha housing a huge linga.
• The temple walls are decorated with incredible and exquisite mural paintings.
• Features added by Nayaks of Tanjore of the 16^th century:
• The Sivaganga Tank
• The fort walls of the Sivaganga Little Fort are surrounded by a moat.
• These were built outside the temple.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The first epigraphic evidence of Sati has been found from Eran Pillar Inscription of Bhanugupta, Madhya Pradesh.
• Some records suggest that the first example of Sati appears in the Gupta Period in 510 AD.
• After about this time, instances of Sati began to be marked by inscribed memorial stones.
• According to Axel Michaels, the first clear proofs of the practice is from Nepal in 464 CE, and in India from 510 CE.
• In India, the earliest of these memorial stones are found in Sagar, Madhya Pradesh, though the largest collections date from several centuries later, and are found in Rajasthan.

The correct answer is 1178 AD.

Key Points

• The Battle of Kayadara (1178):
• Gujarat was ruled by Mularaja II (1175-78: Chalukyan Dynasty) he was young at the time of Coronation.
• In 1178, Mohd. Ghori crossed the desert and marched towards Gujarat.
• Naikidevi (Mother of Mularaja) met forces of Ghori at Kayadara (near Mount Abu).
• Naikidevi inflicted a major defeat to Muhammad Ghori and he was forced to retreat.
• In 1178 itself, Bhima II, brother of Mularaja II succeeded Mularaja II.
• As both the brothers occupied the throne during 1178, hence some historians also credit Bhima II with defeating Mohd. Ghori.

The correct answer is Malik Kafur.

Key Points

• Malik Kafur was deputed for the conquest of Dvarasamudra by Ala-ud-din Khalji.
• During the third period (1307–1313), Ala-ud-din completed the conquest of South India.
• The ground had been prepared for this by his conquests in Central India, and in 1307 his general, Malik Kafur, defeated Raja Ramchandra of Devagiri, who had withheld the tribute he had promised to pay after Ala-ud-din's first raid.
• The raja was brought to Delhi, and, reaffirming his submission, he received the title of Rai Rayan.
• Two years later Malik Kafur led another expedition to the south and conquered Warangal.
• Among the booty was a great diamond, [[64]] identified by some with the famous Koh-i-Nur.
• In this campaign the raja of Devagiri gave the Muslims considerable help, including a force of Marathas.
• Next year Malik Kafur set out on a year-long expedition which, through the defeat of the rajas of Madura and Dvarasamudra, extended the Muslim dominion to the southern sea-coast. During this expedition, the Muslim officers built a mosque, either at Rameshwaram on the island of Pamban, or on the mainland opposite.

The correct answer is Rihla.

Key Points

• Ibn Batuta was a Moroccan and Berber explorer.
• He is known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla.
• Riḥlah was a travel book written by Ibn Battuta in Arabic in the 14^th century.
• Batuta is considered one of the greatest travellers of all time.
• He came to India during the regime of Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
• He was appointed a qadi or judge by the Sultan.
• He has written about contemporary India and the court and the policies of Muhammad Tughlaq.

Additional Information

• Riyaz-us-Salatin is the first complete history of Muslim rule in Bengal.
• It was written in the Persian language by Ghulam Husain Salim Zaidpuri.
• It covers the whole Muslim rule in Bengal from Bakhtiar's conquest of Nadia in 1204-05 AD to the Battle of palasy in 1757, though there are lacunae in various places.

The correct answer is Southern.

Key Points

• The Buland Darwaza is a fifteen-storied high gateway that acts as the southern entrance of the Fatehpur Sikri city.
• It is higher than the courtyard of the Jama Masjid.
• Buland Darwaza Agra popularly known as the 'Gate of Magnificence' was built by the Great Mughal Emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujrat.
• He built it in the 16^th century as a gateway to his newly built city of Fatehpur Sikri.
• It is the greatest Indian architecture monument of the entire Akbar's reign.
• Buland Darwaza is an outstanding example of Mughal architecture.
• Buland Darwaza Architecture was designed and constructed in 1601 AD.
• It is made of beige, red sandstone, and decorated by enchanting carvings and inlaying of white and black marbles.

The correct answer is 1829.

Key Points

• The Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII) was passed by the then Governor-General of India, Lord William Bentinck making the practice of Sati illegal in all of British India in 1829.
• Lord William Bentinck became the Governor-General of India in 1828. He helped Raja Rammohan Roy to suppress many prevalent social evils like Sati, polygamy, child marriage and female infanticide.
• Raja Rammohan Roy, the great Hindu reformer from Bengal fought many social evils prevalent in the Hindu society of Bengal and Sati pratha was one of the chief ones.
• He had witnessed the live immolation of his own sister-in-law. He started his struggle against this practice in 1812.

The correct answer is W. H. Sleeman.

Key Points

• Under the able Administrator, William Henry Sleeman. Originally, he was a soldier and later became the administrator.
• In 1835, the 'Thuggee and Dacoity Dept' was created by William Bentinck and William Henry Sleeman was made its superintendent.
• During the 1830s, the Thugs were targeted for eradication by Governor-General of India, William Bentinck and his chief captain, William Henry Sleeman.
• The initiative was due largely to the efforts of civil servant William Henry Sleeman, who caught “Feringhea” (also known as Syeed Amir Ali).
• The rigorous operations under Sleeman led to the capture of 1400 Thugs who were executed by the government or imprisoned to live. A special prison was established at Jabalpur for Thugs.
• Lord William Bentick:
• Lord William Bentinck served as Governor-General of India between 1828 to 1835.
• His tenure is remembered for the social reforms such as the Abolition of Sati in 1829, Suppression of Thugi, and Suppression of Infanticide, etc.
• English was introduced as a medium of higher education on the recommendation of his council member, Thomas Babington Macaulay.
• He was the First Governor-General of India.
• British East India Company Monopoly was completely abolished.

The correct answer is 1917.

Key Points 

• Champaran Satyagraha was launched on 19 April 1917.
• This was Gandhi’s first Satyagraha movement and a farmer’s revolt in Bihar against the indigo crop production.
• It was undertaken after Mahatma Gandhi learned about the abuses suffered by farmers, who were forced into growing indigo by British planters and estate owners.
• The tenants from Champaran were forced under the law to plant three out of every twenty parts of his land with indigo for his landlord under the so-called Tinkathia system.
• Initially, Gandhiji was reluctant to commit himself to the task but he was so persuaded by indigo cultivator Rajkumar Shukla that he decided to investigate the matter.
• Gandhiji planned to carry out an extensive inquiry in the district and demand action based on its findings.
• However, local authorities did not find his visit welcoming and they unsuccessfully tried to dissuade him.
• But Gandhi began his work from the house of Babu Gorakh Prasad in Motihari, headquarters of the then Champaran district.
• During this time, Gandhiji was served with a court summon while he was making a spot visit to the village.
• Gandhiji was charged with violating the law and was told to leave Champaran, but he refused to leave.
• On April 18, 1917, when Gandhi appeared in Motihari Court and was accompanied by nearly 2000 local people.
• The then Lieutenant Governor of Bihar ordered the withdrawal of the case against Gandhi, and the Collector wrote to Gandhi saying he was free to conduct the inquiry.
• This small step in the form of passive protest was a giant leap forward in the history of the freedom struggle and heralded the advent of the Gandhian era.
• His protest led to abolishing of the exploitative tinkathia system.
• The victory at Champaran established Gandhiji in India’s struggle against the British raj.

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (1883-1966):
• He was a scholar, social worker & revolutionary from Maharastra.
• Founded:
• Mitra Mela, 1899. (renamed it as Abhinav Bharat Society in 1904).
• Free India Society in London, 1906.
• He got arrested for his involvement in Nashik Conspiracy Case.
• He got elected as the President of Hindu Mahasabha in 1937.
• He described the Revolt of 1857 as the 1^st war of Independence in his book, "Indian War of Independence".
• The airport at Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar was renamed Veer Savarkar International Airport in 2002.
• Books:
• The Indian war of independence, 1857.
• Hindutva: Who Is a Hindu?

The correct answer is 22 March 1942.

Key Points

• Sir Stafford Cripps came to India during World War II to discuss with the nationalist leaders of the Indian contingent about self-governance in India through dominion status.
• Sir Stafford Cripps arrived in Delhi on March-22. Hence option 2 is correct.
• He proceeded to meet with the Indian leaders.
• Under Gandhi’s leadership, the Congress Party then stopped talks and demanded prompt self-government in exchange for war support.
• Gandhi described Cripps’ offer of dominion status as, “a post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank”.
• The Cripps Mission was a failure as it failed to give confidence to Congress about Britain’s intentions (which were not sincere in any case).
• Neither did the Indian leadership offer support to Britain’s war effort.

Some people view the mission as just British appeasement of American concerns over British imperialism and nothing more.

• In the same year, Congress started the Quit India Movement in the wake of the mission’s failure.

Additional Information

• Cripps Mission
• The Cripps Mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. ​
• The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior left-wing politician and government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill.
• Cripps was sent to negotiate an agreement with the nationalist leaders, speaking for the majority Indians, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, speaking for the minority Muslim population.
• Cripps promised to give dominion status after the war as well as elections to be held after the war.
• Both the major parties, the Congress and the League rejected his proposals and the mission proved a failure.
• Congress moved towards the Quit India movement whereby it refused to cooperate in the war effort, while the British imprisoned practically the entire Congress leadership for the duration of the war.

The correct answer is 16 July, 1947.

Key Points

• Indian Independence Bill
• The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in British Parliament on 16 July, 1947.
• The Act provided for the partition of India and the establishment of the two dominions (India and Pakistan).
• The Bill was introduced on the House of Commons and within a short span of a fortnight, it was passed by both the Houses of the British Parliament.
• Lord Mountbatten, the viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan, known as the Mountbatten Plan.
• The plan was accepted by the Congress and Muslim League.
• The immediate effect was given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act.

Additional Information

• Indian Independence Act.
• ​The act provided for the end of the British Rule in India on 15 August 1947 and the establishment of two Dominions of India and Pakistan.
• The Act abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.
• It provided for the appointment of the Governor-General in each of the Dominions
• The Act deprived the Monarch of the right to Veto laws or to ask for a reservation of certain laws for his approval.
• The British king was to drop the title of the Emperor of India.
• The British Government was to transfer all the powers to the Constituent Assemblies of the two Dominions.
• Till a new constitution was framed by each Dominion, all the provinces were to be administered in accordance with the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935.

The correct option is 15 years.

Key Points

• Bimbisara was the first important king of the Magadha Empire in eastern India.
• He probably ruled in the 5^th century BC.
• His empire covered a large part of today's state of Bihar, with the Ganges forming the northern border.
• The Buddha Siddharta Gautama stayed there under his reign, with whom he had a close relationship.
• In Jain sources, Bimbisara is called "Shrenika".
• According to the chronicles Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa, Bimbisara's reign was 52 years.
• According to the information in the Mahavamsa Chronicle, Bimbisara was appointed heir to the throne by his father at the age of 15 and immediately succeeded him.
• The father's name is given as Bhati or Bhatiya (Bhattiya) or Mahapadma, that of the mother with Bimbi.
• The first meeting between the Buddha and Bimbisāra took place in Rājagaha under the Pandavapabbata, only after the Buddha's Renunciation.
• He pursued a successful marriage and expansion policy and thus created the basis for the heyday of the Empire of Magadha.
• Bimbisara made the place Girivraja (Pali: Giribbaja) his capital, which he called Rajagriha (Pali: Rajagaha) and expanded it into an important metropolis (today Rajgir).
• Among the sons of Bimbisara, Ajatasattu seems to have been the undisputed heir to the throne.

The correct answer is Kharavela.

Key Points

• Kharavela (193 BCE–170 BCE) was the greatest king of the Mahameghavahana dynasty of Kaḷinga.
• It was an ancient ruling dynasty of Kalinga after the decline of the Mauryan Empire.
• He was associated with administration at the age of sixteen when he was installed as Yuvaraja.
• When he completed the twenty-fourth year, he was appointed Maharaja of Kalinga.
• He assumed the title of Kalingadhipati or Kalinga Chakravartin.
• The main source of information about Kharavela is his famous seventeen-line rock-cut Hatigumpha inscription in a cave in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• Kharavela of Kaliṅga attacked Gorathagiri has been identified as the Barabar hills lying five or six miles west of Rājagṛha.
• He first occupied Gorathagiri and then terrorized Rajagrha.
• The Barabar hill may have been used as a cantonment and a garrison might have been stationed to check any invasion from the south.
• There are traces of fortification to substantiate the view. So Kharavela might have decided to destroy the base at Barabar first and then to move to Rajagrha.

The correct answer is Chausa.

Key Points

• The Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri.
• Sher Shah defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa in 1539.
• The Tomb of Sher Shah Suri is located in Sasaram, Bihar.
• The Battle of Chausa was a notable military engagement between the Mughal emperor, Humayun, and the Afghan, Sher Shah Suri.
• It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa.
• Sher Shah was victorious and crowned himself Farid al-Dīn Sher Shah.
• Sher Khan **defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (**1540), forcing him to flee to Iran.

The correct answer is 1765.

Key Points

• Shah Alam II, born as Ali Gohar or Ali Gauhar was the seventeenth Mughal Emperor and the son of Alamgir II.
• He became the emperor of a crumbling Mughal empire.
• He faced many invasions, mainly by the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat.
• He was considered the only and rightful emperor, but he was unable to return to Delhi until 1772, under the protection of the Maratha general Mahadaji Shinde.
• He was acknowledged emperor by the Durrani Empire. His declared reign extended to the 24 Parganas of the Sundarbans, Mir Qasim, Nawabs of Bengal and Murshidabad (and Bihar), Raja of Banares, Nizam of Hyderabad, Nawab of Ghazipur, Sahib of Punjab, Hyder Ali's Mysore, Nawab of Kadapa and Nawab of Kurnool, Nawab of the Carnatic of Arcot and Nellore, Nawab of Junagarh, Rohilkhand of Lower Doab, Rohilkhand of Upper Doab, and Nawab of Bhawalpur.
• The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the combined armies of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal; Shuja-ud-Daula the Nawab of Awadh; the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro.
• The battle fought at Buxar, a town located on the bank of the Ganges river then within the territory of Bengal, was a decisive victory for the British East India Company.
• Soon after the Battle of Buxar, Shah Alam II, a sovereign who had just been defeated by the British, sought their protection by signing the Treaty of Allahabad in the year 1765. Thus ending his Bihar expedition in the year 1765. Hence option 3 is correct.

The correct option is Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• The Kisan Sabha movement was started in Bihar.
• In 1929, Sahajanand Saraswati formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS). Hence option 3 is correct
• The motive was to mobilise peasant grievances against the zamindari attacks on their occupancy rights and thus sparking the Farmers’ movement in India.
• A Kisan Sabha was organised in 1922 by Mohammad Zubair and Sri Krishna Singh in Munger.
• United Political Party was formed by Zamindars of Bihar to suppress peasants.
• Bihar Kisan Sabha was formed in 1933.
• All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936 and Swami Shajanand Saraswati was President and NG Ranga was made secretary.
• Pandit Yamuna Karjee and Rahul Sankrityayan who was followers of Swami Shahjanand Saraswati started Hindi weekly “Hunkar” in 1940 which became the mouthpiece of agrarian and peasant movement in Bihar.

Additional Information

• All India Kisan Sabha ​
• The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936 at Lucknow.
• All India Kisan Sabha is also known as ‘Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha.’
• Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the head of the Sabha.
• The motives of the All India Kisan Sabha were:
• To abolish the Zamindari system,
• To reduce land revenue,
• To institutionalize credit.
• In the 1937 elections, INC got a good number of seats and formed the majority in as many as 8 provinces.
• A good number of the INC leaders were Zamindars themselves, while the peasants and workers came from another class. Thus this class clash within the INC was a hurdle, in implementing all the schemes that were visualized by Gandhi, Nehru and others.
• So, by and large, the INC failed to meet all the promises they had claimed to fulfil to the peasants. The peasants thus became disillusioned with the INC government.
• Thus, the All India Kisan Sabha felt betrayed by the INC and this is why, when in 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave a call for the Quit India Movement, the peasant leaders such as Swami Sahajanand Saraswati appealed to the peasants not to support Gandhi or the INC.
• The peasant movement started being dominated by the socialists and communists and in the INC Haripura session, the rift between INC and AIKS became evident.
• In May 1942, CPI took over AIl India Kisan Sabha all across the country.
• There are two organisations at present working under the name AIKS (following the split of Communist Party of India in 1964):
• All India Kisan Sabha – Communist Party of India’s Peasant Wing
• All India Kisan Sabha – Communist Party of India-Marxist’s Peasant Front; also known as All India Kisan Sabha (36 Canning Lane)

The correct answer is 1733.

Key Points

• Alivardi Khan 
• He was the Nawab of Bengal from 1740 to 1756.
• He toppled the Nasiri dynasty of Nawabs and assumed power himself.
• He is also known for his victory during the Battle of Burdwan against the Maratha Empire during the Maratha invasions of Bengal.
• In 1728, Shuja-ud-Din promoted Muhammad Ali to Faujdar (General) of Rajmahal and entitled him as Alivardi Khan.
• In 1733, he was assigned as the Naib Nazim (Deputy Governor) of Bihar. Hence option 4 is correct.
• A year later, he was titled Shuja ul-Mulk (Hero of the country), Hassemm ud-Daula (Sword of the state) and Mahabat Jang (Horror in War) and the rank of Paach Hazari Mansabdar by Nawab Shuja ud-Din and returned to Azimabad.
• He had his takeover legitimized by the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah and resumed the policies of Murshid Quli Khan.
• His reign of 16 years was mostly engaged in various wars against the Marathas. Towards the end, he turned his attention to rebuilding and restoring Bengal.
• He died of dropsy at 5am on 9 April 1756, aged at least 80.
• He was succeeded by his daughter's son, Siraj-ud-Daula, who was aged 23 at the time.

The correct answer is Baltic Sea.

Key Points

• Saint Petersburg is formerly known as Petrograd (1914–1924) and later Leningrad (1924–1991).
• It is the capital of the Leningrad Oblast and the second largest city in Russia after Moscow,
• It is situated on the Neva River, at the head of the Gulf of Finland on the Baltic Sea. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The city was founded by Tsar Peter the Great on 27 May 1703 on the site of a captured Swedish fortress, and was named after apostle Saint Peter.
• It is known as the Cultural Capital of Russia.
• It is ranked by UNESCO as the eighth most popular tourist city.

The correct answer is Sachsen.

• Sachsen is Germany's easternmost and one of the smallest wine-growing regions.
• Sachsen, officially the Free State of Saxony is a landlocked state of Germany, bordering the states of Brandenburg, Saxony-Anhalt, Thuringia, Bavaria, as well as the countries of Poland and the Czech Republic. Its capital is Dresden.

Key Points

• There are seven primary wine-producing regions in France: Alsace, Bordeaux, Burgundy, Loire, Champagne, Provence, and the Rhone Valley comprise the dominant French wine regions.
• The champagne wine region is one of the most prestigious not only in France but also in the world. The Champagne wine region is situated in the North-East of France and it is a large agricultural and industrial area.

The correct answer is Benguela Current.

 Key Points

• The Benguela Current is a Cold current.
• The Benguela Current is the broad, northward flowing ocean current that forms the eastern portion of the South Atlantic Ocean gyre.
• Benguela current is cooled by coastal upwelling along the west coast of South Africa and Namibia.
• The current extends from roughly Cape Point in the south, to the position of the Angola-Benguela front in the north, at around 16°S.
• The current is driven by the prevailing south-easterly trade winds.
• Inshore of the Benguela Current proper, the south easterly winds drive coastal upwelling, forming the Benguela Upwelling System.
• The cold, nutrient-rich waters that upwell from around 200–300 m (656–984 ft) depth in turn fuel high rates of phytoplankton growth, and sustain the productive Benguela ecosystem.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Kurd.

Key Points

• The Kurds are the largest ethnic minority in Iraq, comprising between 20% and 26.5% of the country's population.
• Kurds represent by far the largest non-Arab ethnic minority.
• They are the overwhelming majority in al-Sulaymaniyah, Erbil, and Dahuk governorates.
• The Kurds are almost certainly also a majority in the oil-rich region around Kirkuk.
• Kurds are part of the larger Kurdish population (probably numbering close to 16 million) that inhabits the wide arc from eastern Turkey and the northwestern part of Syria through Azarbaijan and Iraq to the northwest of the Zagros Mountains in Iran.
• The largest numbers live in Turkey whose successive governments have prevented any independence for the Kurds in the region.
• In terms of ethnicity, Arabs make up between 75 - 80% of the population and Kurds a further 15-20%.
• Ethnic minorities include Turkmen, Shabak, Chaldeans, Assyrians, Armenians, black Iraqis and Roma.

Some Yezidis consider themselves a distinct ethnic group, while others identify as being Kurds.

The correct answer is Campos.

Key Points

• Grassland can be defined as a region where grasses form the dominant type of plant life.
• Grasslands make up almost a quarter of the total land surface.
• We can divide the world’s grasslands into two broad categories: those that occur in the temperate region and those that occur in the tropical regions.
• Tropical grasslands: These occur on either side of the equator and extend to the tropics.
• This vegetation grows in areas of moderate to low amount of rainfall.
• The grass can grow very tall, about 3 to 4 meters in height. Savannah grasslands of Africa are of this type.
• Elephants, zebras, giraffes, deer, leopards are common in tropical grasslands.
• Grasslands are known by different names in different regions.
• Temperate grasslands: These are found in the mid latitudinal zones and in the interior part of the continents.
• Usually, the grass here is short and nutritious.
• Wild buffaloes, bison, antelopes are common in the temperate region.
• Temperate grasslands are composed of a rich mix of grasses and forbs and underlain by some of the world’s most fertile soils.
• Tropical Grasslands
• East Africa- Savanna
• Brazil- Campos
• Venezuela- Llanos
• Temperate Grasslands
• Argentina- Pampas
• N. America- Prairie
• South Africa- Veld
• Central Asia- Steppe
• Australia- Down

The correct answer is 75 cm.

Key Points

• In India, dryland farming in India is confined to regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
• 68% of the cultivated area in Indian agriculture comes under dryland.
• These areas face problems of drought.
• Rainfall is less than the total moisture requirement of the soil.
• Methods of water conservation are used also water harvesting is carried out.
• It contributes about 44% of the total food production and plays a critical role in India's food security.
• These regions grow hardy and drought-resistant crops such as Ragi, Bajra, Moong, Gram, and Guar (fodder crops).
• It is mainly practised in areas like Northern Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Harike Barrage.

Key Points

• The Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal of India.
• The origin of this canal is from Harike barrage situated in Punjab at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas.
• From Harike, 204 Km long Indira Gandhi Feeder off-takes, which has 170 Km length in Punjab & Haryana and balance 34 Km in Rajasthan.
• The total length of the canal is around 650 Km (204 km Indira Gandhi Feeder canal (IGFC) + 445 Km Indira Gandhi Main canal (IGMC)).
• This canal enters in Rajasthan at Hanumangarh.
• From the tail of Indira Gandhi Feeder 445 Km. long Indira Gandhi Main Canal starts which passes through Sri Ganganagar and Bikaner districts and ends at Mohangarh in Jaisalmer.
• The canal was earlier known as the “Rajasthan Canal”.
• The idea of Indira Gandhi Canal was conceived by a hydraulic engineer, Kanwar Sain.
• He proposed that desert land in Bikaner and the Jaisalmer could be brought under irrigation.
• In 1960, the Indus Water Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan.
• India gets right to use waters of three rivers –the Satluj, Beas and Ravi.

The correct answer is Eastern Ghats.

Key Points

• In tropical evergreen forests trees remain green throughout the year.
• There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flower, and fruition.
• They are classified into tropical wet (moist) evergreen, Semi-evergreen, and Dry evergreen.
• Tropical Wet Evergreen forest:​
• In India, evergreen forests are found on the eastern and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such states like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• They are found in hot and humid areas. 
• Precipitation: >250 cm
• Mean annual temperature <25 degree Celsius
• Humidity >80%
• Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground covered with shrubs and creepers, followed by short structured trees and a tall variety of trees.
• Trees can reach up to a height of 60m or above.
• They are rich in biodiversity (Rich in flora and fauna).
• Fine-grained and durable timber is produced in these forests.
• Important Species found in these forests: Rosewood, Mahogany, Aini, Ebony, Mesa, White cedar, Jamun, Canes, Gurjan, Agar, Bamboo, etc.
• The common animals found in these forests are elephants, monkeys, lemur, and deer.
• The one-horned rhinoceros are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal. Birds, bats, sloths, scorpions, and snails are also found in these jungles.

The correct answer is Godavari River. 

Key Points

• The Godavari is the longest river in peninsular India and is also known as Dakshin Ganga.
• It flows east for 1,465 kilometers, draining the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Length - 1465 km.
• Godavari river originates from Trimbak near Nasik in Maharashtra and a famous Hindu temple, Triambakeshwar is located on the bank of river Godawari.
• Polavaram Dam is a multi-purpose irrigation project across this river.
• Its tributaries are Purna, Manjra, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Indravati, Sabari, Pranhita (Combined flow of Wardha and Wainganga) etc.
• Godavari river forms the second largest river basin in India.
• The Godavari basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Union Territory of Puducherry.

                                Godavari River

Additional Information

• The Mahanadi river system:
• The Mahanadi river system is the third-largest river system of peninsular India.
• It is the largest river in Odisha state.
• The river is bounded by the Central India hills on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and east, and by the Maikala range on the west.
• The river originates in the northern foothills of Dandakaranya, Raipur District of Chhattisgarh.
• The river is also known as the Sorrow* of Orissa.*
• The Mahanadi River flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Left bank Tributaries of the Mahanadi river are The Seonath, the Hasdeo, the Mand, and the Ib.
• Right bank Tributaries of the Mahanadi river are The Ong, the Tel, and the Jonk.
• Krishna river:
• It originates from Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
• It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. River Krishna forms its delta near Vijaywada.
• Its tributaries are Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Bhima, Tungabhadra, Musi, Muneru, etc.
• Nagarjuna Sagar and Alamatti Dams are constructed across this river.
• Damodar river:
• Damodar River is one of the most important Rivers In Eastern India, flowing across the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• Earlier known as Sorrow of Bengal and Jharkhand, Damodar is one of the most contaminated rivers in India.
• The tributaries and sub tributaries of the Damodar include Konar, Barakar, Haharo, Bokaro, Ghari, Jamunia, Khadia, Guaia and Bhera.
• The biggest tributary of the Damodar River is the Barakar.

The correct answer is More than one of the above

Key Points

• The word ‘monsoon’ is believed to have originated from the Arabic word for season ‘mawsim’. Monsoons are basically seasonal winds that reverse their direction according to the change in season, hence called periodic winds.
• The monsoons travel from the sea to the land in summers and from land to the sea during winters, hence, are a double system of seasonal winds.
• Factors Influencing performance of Indian summer monsoon are, 
• Tropical Easterly Jet Stream (African Easterly Jet).
• Intense heating of Tibetan plateau during summer months
• Migration of ITCZ to the south of India.
• Formation of La Nina.
• Hence the correct answer is More than one of the above.

The correct answer is Meitei.

Key Points

• Meitei
• The Meitei people, or Manipuri people, are an ethnic group native to the state of Manipur in northeastern India.
• The Meitei primarily settled in the Imphal Valley region in modern-day Manipur, although a sizable population has settled in Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram; with a notable presence in the neighbouring countries of Myanmar and Bangladesh.
• The Meitei ethnic group represents about 53% of Manipur's population. They constitute the non-scheduled population of Manipur. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The Meitei people speak Meiteilon (also known as Manipuri), a Tibeto-Burman language.
• Meiteilon is one of the officially recognized languages of India and was included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India in 1992.

Additional Information

• Mishmi
• The Mishmi or Deng people of Tibet and Arunachal Pradesh are an ethnic group comprising mainly three tribes: Idu Mishmi (Idu Lhoba); Digaro tribe (Taraon, Darang Deng), and Miju Mishmi (Kaman Deng).
• The Mishmis occupy the northeastern tip of the central Arunachal Pradesh in Upper and Lower Dibang Valley, Lohit and Anjaw districts.
• Kuki 
• The Kuki people are an ethnic group native to the Mizo Hills (formerly Lushai), a mountainous region in the southeastern part of Mizoram in India.
• The Kuki constitute one of several hill tribes within India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar[citation needed].
• Apatanis
• ​The Apatani, or (Tanw, Tanii) are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh in India.
• This tribe speaks the languages Apatani, English and Hindi.

The correct answer is Punjab and Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• The Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) are officially designated groups of people and among the most disadvantaged socio-economic groups in India.
• The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes comprise about 16.6% and 8.6%, respectively, of India's population (according to the 2011 census).
• Scheduled castes distribution in India by state and union territory according to 2011 Census.
• Punjab had the highest percentage of its population as SC (~32%), while India's island territories and three northeastern states had 0%.
• Scheduled Tribes distribution in India by state and union territory according to 2011 Census. 
• Mizoram and Lakshadweep had the highest percentage of its population as ST (~95%).

The correct answer is Banihal Pass.

Key Points

• Jawahar Tunnel is the tunnel across the Banihal Pass and is a road tunnel in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The tunnel is named after the first Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Jawahar tunnel has been operational since 22 December 1956.
• The length of the tunnel is 2.85 km (1.77 mi).
• The tunnel facilitates round-the-year road connectivity between Srinagar and Jammu.

The correct answer is Mithila Plain.

Key Points

• Mithila plain physiographic division of Bihar doesn't share its boundary with Jharkand.
• Where all other physiographic divisions Ganga-Son Divide, Ganga Plain, Magadha Plain share their boundary with Jharkhand.

The correct answer is 36.

Key Points

• The literacy rate is the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above who can read and write with understanding.
• Literacy is a key for every country's socio-economic progress and the rate of literacy in India has grown to 74.00% (2011 figure) from 12% at the end of British rule in 1947.
• 36 the rank of Bihar from the top among 36 States/Union Territories of India in terms of female literacy rate in 2011. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The census of Indian states in 2011 reveals that Kerala is the highest literate state in the country with a 94% of literacy rate. Bihar is the least literate state with a literacy rate of 61.80%.
• The male literacy rate of Bihar is 71.20 % while the female literacy rate is 51.50 %.
• The total literate in Bihar is 52,504,553 among which male literates are 31,608,023 and female literates are 20,896,530.

The correct answer is Diara.

Key Points

• Diara is the piece of land that has got created in the middle of the river Ganges as a result of the deposition of sands over the decades. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Diara lands occur within the two banks of the river The Ganga like the islands format between the dhars mara (dead) or active alive.
• In the process of silting and sowing this soil has developed in between the natural levees that usually get inundated mainly during June – October and are periodically subjected to erosion meandering, braiding and shifting of courses.
• Usually, Diara lands are almost monocropped and in great majority of the cases the crops are raised only in the Rabi season due to inundation of the tract with floodwaters for nearly 3 to 4 months i.e. from July to October.

The correct answer is Muga Silk.

Key Points

• Muga Silk is known for being one of the most expensive varieties of silk in the world.
• Muga silk is a variety of wild silk geographically tagged to the state of Assam in India.
• The silk is known for its extreme durability and has a natural yellowish-golden tint with a shimmering, glossy texture.
• Muga silk is mainly produced by the Garo community of Assam, is obtained from the semi-domesticated multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea Assamensis.
• GI Tags of Bihar:-
• Agricultural Products
• ​Bhagalpuri Zardalu Mango
• Katarni Rice
• Magahi Paan
• Shahi Litchi of Muzaffarpur
• Handicraft Products
• ​Madhubani Paintings
• Applique (Khatwa) Work of Bihar
• Sujini Embroidery Work of Bihar
• Sikki Grass Products of Bihar
• Bhagalpur Silks
• Sikki Grass Products of Bihar
• Food Products
• ​Silao Khaja

The correct answer is Amarkantak Plateau.

Key Points

• Son river originates from the Amarkantak plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows through Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and finally joins Ganga in Bihar near Patna.
• Ghaghra, Johilla, Chhoti Mahanadi, Gopad, Rihand, Kanhar, and North Koel are the tributaries of the Son river.
• The Bansagar Dam in Madhya Pradesh is also on the Son river.
• Indrapuri Dam has situated on the Son river in Dehri in the Rohtas district Bihar.
• It is 1,407 meters (4,616 ft) long and the fourth-longest barrage in the world.
• The construction of the Indrapuri Dam was Started in the 1960s and was commissioned in 1968.

The correct answer is Santhal.

Key Points

• There are 30 tribes that have been notified as scheduled tribes in Bihar.
• As per the 2001 Census, the tribal population in Bihar was 758,351, that is, 0.9 % of the total population (8.2 crores) of the state.
• The most numerous Scheduled Tribes are the Santhal, Oraon, Munda, Ho, Kharwar, Kharia, and Bhumij which constitute about 86% of the total tribal population of the state.
• Santal is the most populous tribe in the state constituting 48.5% of the total ST population of the State. Oraon and Kharwar are the second and third largest tribes.
• It is noted that at the district level, more than the three-fourth tribal population of Banka, Jamui, Kishanganj, Araria, and Madhepura are Santhal.
• It is noted that Munda has their highest concentration in Katihar districts, however, they constitute only 4.3% total tribal population of the district.
• Oraon has its highest proportion (70%) to the total ST population in the Supaul district. Since Oraon can be found in Supaul.
• Kharwar has its maximum concentration in Bhagalpur district, Gond in Siwan district followed by Bhojpur and Kaimur (Bhabhua) districts.
• District-wise distribution of the ST population shows that Katihar district has the highest proportion of STs (5.9%) followed by Jamui (4.8%), Banka (4.7%), and Purnia (4.4%).
• Sheohar district has the lowest proportion of the STs (0.01%), preceded by Darbhanga and Khagaria (0.03% each).

The correct answer is Ganga River.

Key Points

• Bihar government has created an 'Organic Corridor' covering 13 districts from Buxar to Bhagalpur in the third phase of agricultural road map 2017- 22.
• The first of its kind project in the country, aims for sustainable development in the agriculture sector in the state and seeks to help farmers tap the demand for organic produce in the country and improve the environment in areas along the Ganga river.
• It has a budget of ₹1.55 lakh crore.
• Over 22,000 farmers are engaged in organic farming over nearly 20,000 acre land in the state.

The correct answer is Constituent Assembly.

Key Points

• Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949 and became effective on 26 January 1950.
• There were 395 articles originally in the Constitution of India.
• Presently 448 articles are there in Constitution.
• The Constituent Assembly took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to prepare the Constitution.
• Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly for the first two days. After that Rajendra Prasad was made the President.
• Prem Behari Narain Raizada wrote the Indian constitution by hand.
• Dr BR Ambedkar is known as the father of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is French Revolution.

Key Points

• Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity are the mottos of the French Republic and were some of the most important ideas of the enlightenment.
• The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity enshrined in the Constitution of India are borrowed from the constitution of France.
• Liberty: The idea of Liberty refers to the freedom of the activities of Indian nationals.
• Equality: This envisages that no section of the society enjoys special privileges and individuals are provided with adequate opportunities without any discrimination.
• Fraternity: This refers to a feeling of brotherhood and a sense of belonging with the country among its people.
• Indian Constitution has absorbed many features from other nations' constitutions that suited Indian problems and aspirations.

Thus, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity features were borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the French Revolution.

Additional Information