Official Paper

Bihar Police Constable Memory Based Paper (Held On: 7 Aug 2024) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

Which is the largest producer of manganese in India?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Mistake Points

  • Odisha has the highest reserve of Manganese ore in our country while the maximum Manganese producing state is MP.

Key Points

  • Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of manganese in India.
  • Manganese is needed to build iron.
  • It is also used to produce bleaching powder, insecticides, and paints.
  • It is used to make metal.
  • Madhya Pradesh, the major manganese ore producing state, accounted for 33% of the total production in 2018-19, followed by Maharashtra (27%) and Odisha (16%).
  • Manganese is used to make clear glass, to desulfurize and deoxidize steel in steel production, and to reduce the octane rating in gasoline.
  • It also is used as a black-brown pigment in paint and as a filler in dry cell batteries.
  • Its alloys help stiffen the aluminium in soft-drink cans, according to Chemicool.

Additional Information

  • Copper Ore Reserves
  • Rajasthan:
  • Largest reserves/resources of copper ore.
  • 813 million tonnes (53.81%)
  • Jharkhand:
  • 295 million tonnes (19.54%)
  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • 283 million tonnes (18.75%).
  • Other Copper Reserves resources accounted for the remaining 7.9%:
  • Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal.
  • Link: https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/01072021154458Manganeseore_2019.pdf
2

The Himalayas consist of ______ main parallel ranges.

  1. ((a))

    four

  2. ((b))

    three

  3. ((c))

    six

  4. ((d))

    five

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

three

The correct answer is three.

Important Points

  • Himalaya is the youngest fold mountain range in the world.
  • The word Himalaya means "the abode of snow".
  • The Himalaya is mostly formed of sedimentary rocks.
  • The Himalayas consist of three main parallel ranges, namely:
  1. The greater Himalayas.
  2. The lesser Himalayas.
  3. The outer Himalayas.

Key Points 

  • The northernmost range of the Himalaya is known as the Great Himalayas.
  • It is also called Himadri.
  • Himadri is the backbone of the Himalaya.
  • It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
  • It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks like Mount Everest, Annapoorna, Nandadevi, etc.
  • The Lesser Himalayas is the mountain range that lies between Himadri and Siwalik.
  • It is also called Himachal.
  • It is mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
  • The altitude varies between 3,700 and 4,500 metres and the average width is 50 Km.
  • Pir Panjal is the largest range in Himachal.
  • This region is well known for its hill stations.
  • The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Shiwalik(Outer Himalayas.)
  • It extends over a width of 10-50 Km and has an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres.
  • The word Shiwalik literally means "tresses of Shiva".
  • Shiwalik is parallel to the Ganga plain.
3

Which was the first State in India to pass the GST bill?

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat

  3. ((c))

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Assam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Assam

The correct answer is Assam.

  • The GST Bill (Goods and Services Tax Bill), officially known as the Constitution (101nd Amendment) Bill, 2016 is a comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services in India.
  • The single pan-India tax will replace the excise duty, countervailing duty and service tax, as also state taxes such as value-added tax, entry tax and luxury tax.
  • Assam is the first state of India to pass GST Bill.

Important Points

  • 42% of the Central Government GST portion will be given back to the State.
  • The GST will cater for a special concession offer in case the NE & Himalayan states request a reduction in tax for a valid reason.
  • In case of requirement of additional revenue in emergency situations of natural calamity like floods and earthquakes, GST will allow the State Government to collect special taxes as long as it is approved by GSTC.
4

When was Patna High Court established?

  1. ((a))

    1916

  2. ((b))

    1917

  3. ((c))

    1918

  4. ((d))

    1921

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1916

The correct answer is 1916.

  • Patna High Court is the High Court of the state of Bihar.
  • Patna high court was established in 1916 and later affiliated under the Government of India Act 1915.
  • The court is headquartered in Patna, the administrative capital of the Bihar.

Key Points

  • Proclamation made by the Governor-General of India on 22 March 1912.
  • The foundation-stone of the High Court Building was laid on Monday, 1 December 1913 by His Excellency the late Viceroy and Governor-General of India, Sir Charles Hardinge of Penshurst.
  • The Patna High Court building on its completion was formally opened by the same Viceroy on 3 February 1916.
  • Hon. Sir Justice Edward Maynard Des Champs Chamier was the first Chief Justice of Patna High Court.
  • Patna High Court separate exercised jurisdiction over the territories of the Province of Bihar & Orissa till 26 July 1948, when a High Court was constituted for Orissa.
  • Circuit Bench of Patna High Court at Ranchi became Jharkhand High Court in November 2000, under the Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000.

Additional Information

  • Hon. Pandit Lakshmi Kant Jha was the first Indian Chief justice of Patna high court after independence.
  • Ms. Rekha Doshit was the first woman chief justice of Patna High court.
  • Ms. Gyan Sudha Mishra was the first woman judge in the Supreme court from Bihar.
  • The Patna high court was given two chief justice of India Justice Bhuvneshwar Prasad Mishra and Justice Lalit Mohan Sharma.
5

In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in support of the ________.

  1. ((a))

    peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic

  2. ((b))

    tribals whose customary rights were being violated

  3. ((c))

    cotton mill workers who were demanding better wages

  4. ((d))

    women who were struggling against the oppressive patriarchal system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic.

  • ​​The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, in the Kheda district of Gujarat, India during the period of the British Raj, was a Satyagraha movement organized by Mohandas Gandhi.
  • People of Kheda were unable to pay the high taxes levied by the British due to crop failure and a plague epidemic.
  • It was a major revolt in the Indian independence movement. It was the third Satyagraha movement after Champaran Satyagraha and Ahmedabad mill strike.
  • Gandhi organised this movement to support peasants of the Kheda district.
6

On which river bank is Varanasi situated?

  1. ((a))

    Ganga

  2. ((b))

    Yamuna

  3. ((c))

    Saraswati

  4. ((d))

    Godavari

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ganga

  • Varanasi is situated on the bank of river Ganga. It is also called the oldest living city in the world.
  • Varanasi has been declared the City of Music by UNESCO 2015.
  • Some Hindu temples, such as Kashi Vishwanath temple, Durga temple, Bharat Mata temple and Sankat Mochan Hanuman temples are famous in Varanasi.
  • Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh, and is also known as Benares or Kashi.
  • As per Hindu mythology, Varanasi was founded by Shiva, so the city is dedicated to Lord Shiva.

7

The Tata Iron and Steel company (TISCO) was established by Dorabji Tata in: 

  1. ((a))

    1911

  2. ((b))

    1919

  3. ((c))

    1913

  4. ((d))

    1907

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1907

  • The Tata Iron and Steel company (TISCO) was established by Dorabji Tata in 1907.
  • He was committed to fulfill the the dream of his father, Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata, an Indian Pioneer industrialist who founded the Tata Group.
  • Dorabji Tata was knighted by Edward VII, becoming Sir Dorabji Tata in January 1910.
8

The WTO was founded in Geneva in which year?

  1. ((a))

    1st January 1994

  2. ((b))

    1st January 1995

  3. ((c))

    1st January 1996

  4. ((d))

    1st January 1993

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1st January 1995

The correct answer is 1st January 1995.

Key Points

  • The WTO was founded in Geneva on 1st January 1995 year.
  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates international trade between nations.
  • It officially commenced operations on 1st January 1995, pursuant to the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which was established in 1948.
  • The WTO is the world's largest international economic organization, with 164 member states representing over 96% of global trade and global GDP.
  • The organization prohibits discrimination between trading partners but provides exceptions for environmental protection, national security, and other important goals.
  • Hence, option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Function:
  • Part of the function of the World Trade Organization is to get the Understanding of Rules and Procedures Governing Dispute Settlement administered.
  • The Trade Policy Review Mechanism shall be administered by the WTO to cover trade-related intellectual property rights, services, and goods.
  • It provides a forum for negotiations and for settling disputes.
  • It oversees the implementation, administration, and operation of the covered agreements.
9

In which year did the French revolution begin?

  1. ((a))

    1779

  2. ((b))

    1789

  3. ((c))

    1799

  4. ((d))

    1769

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1789

The correct answer is 1789.

Key Points

  • The French revolution began on 14th July 1789 and ended on 10th November 1799.
  • The revolution began to the policies of King Louis XVI, the socio-economic and political problems arising due to the loss of colonies in North America.
  • People who were fed up of all the problems led an uprising against the monarchy. Finally, King Louis XVI was executed in 1793 along with his family.
  • The National Convention, the first government of France was convened in 1792. It was the first government of the French Revolution. It lasted till 1795.
  • The revolution gave birth to the 'Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen' which inspired movements for abolitionism and universal suffrage over the years.
  • The revolution also inspired modern ideologies like liberalism, radicalism, nationalism, and secularism.
  • In 1799 Napolean Bonaparte assumed power and established the first French empire.
10

Lucknow is situated on the banks of which of the following rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Jhelum

  2. ((b))

    Hooghly

  3. ((c))

    Yamuna

  4. ((d))

    Gomti

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gomti

The correct answer is Gomti.

Key Points

  • Lucknow is situated on the bank of the Gomti river which originates near Mainkot, about 3 km east of the Pilibhit town in Uttar Pradesh, at an elevation of 200 m.
  • The total length of the river is about 940 km and it flows entirely in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It meets the Ganga in the Ghazipur district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It drains area lying between river Ramganga and Sharda in upper reaches and Ganga and Ghaghra in lower reaches.
  • Its Formation Consists mainly of Sand, Silt, clay and occasional Kankar Bands.
  • After flowing southwards through Lucknow, Barabhanki, Sultanpur, Faizabad and Jaunpur, it Confluences With Ganga **Near Varanasi.**​ 

Important Points

  • It has 22 tributaries and Sai is its major tributary.
  • Various Tributaries of River Gomati are Gachai, the Sai, the Jomkai, the Barna, the Chuha, the Saryu, the Giri, the Kalyani, and the Kathna.
  • Gomti flows through Sahajahanpur, Kheri, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, Faizabad, Jaunpur, Varanasi, and Ghazipur districts before merging into Ganga In Audihar in Jaunpur.
  • Lucknow, Sultanpur and Jaunpur are three major urban settlements on its bank.

Additional Information

  • Uttar Pradesh : (as of August 2021)
  • ​Chief Minister - Yogi Adityanath
  • Governor - Anandiben Patel
  • Loksabha Constituencies Seat - 80
  • Legislative Assembly Seat - 403
  • Rajyasabha Seat - 31
11

The headquarters of the secretariat of the League of Nations was:

  1. ((a))

    in New York 

  2. ((b))

    in Paris

  3. ((c))

    in Geneva

  4. ((d))

    in Berlin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

in Geneva

The League of Nations, established after World War I, aimed to maintain world peace. Its headquarters' is located in Geneva

Key Points

  • The League of Nations was founded in 1920, after WWI, as part of the Treaty of Versailles.
  • It was the precursor to the United Nations
  • The headquarters of the League of Nations was in Geneva, Switzerland, not in New York, Paris, Berlin, or any other city.
  • Geneva was chosen for its neutral location, which was considered ideal for an organization aiming to foster peace among nations.
  • The correct answer is "in Geneva." Geneva's selection as the headquarters underscored the League's commitment to neutrality and peace, away from the political pressures that might be more present in the capitals of major powers.

Additional Information

  • Despite its efforts, the League of Nations was unable to prevent World War II, leading to its dissolution. It was succeeded by the United Nations, with headquarters in New York City, USA.
12

GST is an indirect tax imposed in India. The full form of GST is :

  1. ((a))

    Goods and Surcharge Tax

  2. ((b))

    Goods and Services Tax

  3. ((c))

    General Service Tax

  4. ((d))

    General Structure of Tax

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Goods and Services Tax

The correct answer is Goods and Services Tax.

Key Points

  • In order to implement GST, the Constitutional (122nd Amendment) Bill (CAB for short) was introduced in the Parliament and passed by Rajya Sabha on 03rd August 2016 and Lok Sabha on 08th August 2016.
  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a uniform indirect tax levied on goods and services across India.
  • It has replaced central taxes like central excise, service tax, additional duties of excise & customs, special additional duties of customs, besides cesses and surcharges, on supply of goods and services.
  • The Objectives Of GST-
  • To achieve the ideology of ‘One Nation, One Tax’
  • To subsume a majority of the indirect taxes in India
  • To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes
  • To curb tax evasion
  • To increase the taxpayer base
  • Online procedures for ease of doing business
  • To promote competitive pricing and increase consumption
  • There are three taxes applicable under this system:
  • CGST
  • SGST
  • IGST
  • CGST: It is the tax collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale
  • SGST: It is the tax collected by the State government on an intra-state sale
  • IGST: It is the tax collected by the Central Government for an inter-state sale
13

Which of the following is the literary types of "Mrichhakatika" written by Sudraka?

  1. ((a))

    Drama

  2. ((b))

    Essay

  3. ((c))

    Commentary

  4. ((d))

    Poetry

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Drama

The correct answer is Drama.

Key Points

  • The Mricchakatika (the clay-cart) is written by Sudraka (248 A.D.).
  • It presents a remarkable social drama with touches of grim reality.
  • The characters are drawn from all strata of society, which include thieves and gamblers, rogues and idlers, courtesans and their associates, police constables, mendicants, and politicians.
  • It is a Sanskrit play composed in the 2nd century AD.
  • Arthur W. Ryder translated it in 1905 as ‘The Little Clay Cart'.
  • It portrays the story of a poor man Charudatta with a naga sadhu Vasantsena.
  • The play is considered to be a rewritten version of Daridra Charudatta.
  • Shudraka is an Abhira King named Indranigupta who used Shudraka as his pen name.
  • Mrichhakatika has a description of a civil court with headquarters at Nalanda.
14

Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

  2. ((b))

    The President

  3. ((c))

    The Joint session of Parliament

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of these

Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber. Hence it cannot be dissolved.

Alternate names of Rajya SabhaUpper House, House of Elders, Council of States
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabhafixed at 250
The present strength  of the Rajya Sabha245
Members representing the state229
Members representing the union territories4
Members nominated by the president12
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and UTsFourth Schedule of the Constitution
Chairman of Rajya SabhaJagdeep Dhankad
Deputy- Chairman of Rajya SabhaHarivansh Narayan Singh
Secretary-General of Rajya SabhaPramod Chandra Mody
15

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, took place in consequence to the protest against the _________.

  1. ((a))

    Regulating Act

  2. ((b))

    Rowlatt Act

  3. ((c))

    Pitt's India Act

  4. ((d))

    Government of India Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rowlatt Act

The correct answer is Rowlatt Act

Key Points

  • The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on 13th April 1919.
  • It was a direct consequence of the widespread protests against the Rowlatt Act.
  • The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government in India in March 1919.
  • This act allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial.
  • It led to widespread anger and protests among the Indian populace, which culminated in the tragic massacre.

Additional Information

  • The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was carried out by troops under the command of General Dyer.
  • It took place in Amritsar, Punjab, where a large crowd had gathered for a peaceful protest.
  • General Dyer ordered his troops to fire into the crowd, resulting in hundreds of deaths and thousands of injuries.
  • The massacre is considered a turning point in Indian history, galvanizing the Indian independence movement.
  • It highlighted the brutal nature of British colonial rule and intensified the call for complete independence (Swaraj).
16

According to census 2011, the child sex ratio was ______ females per 1000 males.

  1. ((a))

    919

  2. ((b))

    909

  3. ((c))

    929

  4. ((d))

    939

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

919

The correct answer is 919.

Key Points:

  • The ratio of females to men in the 0–6 age group is known as the child sex ratio.
  • India's child sex ratio was 927 in the census of 2001 but dropped to 919 in the census of 2011.
  • According to the 2011 Census, Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio (834 per thousand men), while Arunachal Pradesh has the highest (971 females against 1000 males) among the Indian states.
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the greatest child sex ratio of any Indian Union Territory, at 968 per 1,000 men.

Additional Information:

  • The child sex ratio has decreased in India for a variety of causes.
  • The society's desire for a boy child over a girl child is one of the primary causes of this threat.
  • Sons will take care of parents in old age, extravagant dowry demands, men are the breadwinners, sons can administer the last rites and can take care of the parents, etc. are some other reasons.
17

The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is __________.

  1. ((a))

    Judicial Procedure

  2. ((b))

    Quasi - Judicial Procedure

  3. ((c))

    Legislative Procedure

  4. ((d))

    Executive Procedure

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Quasi - Judicial Procedure

The correct answer is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.

Important Points

  • The procedure of Impeachment of the President of India is the Quasi-Judicial Procedure.
  • The procedure begins with the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament.
  • The only condition for the initiation of the impeachment of the Indian president is the ‘violation of the constitution.
  • None of the presidents of India has faced impeachment so far.
  • A quasi-judicial body is an organ of Government other than a Court or Legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either through adjudication or rulemaking”.
  • It is not mandatory that a Quasi-Judicial Body has to necessarily be an organization resembling a Court of Law.
  • For example, the Election Commission of India is also a Quasi-Judicial Body but does not have its core functions as a Court of Law.
  • Some examples of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are the Election Commission of India, the National Green Tribunal, and the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Key Points

  • Process of Impeachment of the President of India:
  • When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
  • For the motion to be valid, it must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of the house where it is introduced
  • In the case of the Lok Sabha, this means that the motion must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total Lok Sabha members.
  • A 14-day notice is given to the President of India.
  • Then, Lok Sabha passes the impeachment charges with a two-thirds majority and sends it to Rajya Sabha.
  • Then, the Rajya Sabha investigates the charges.
  • While Rajya Sabha is investigating the charges, the President has the right to sit in the proceedings.
  • Rajya Sabha agrees to the charges and passes it with a two-thirds majority and the President is removed.
18

Which article of the Indian Constitution is about the Supreme Court?

  1. ((a))

    123

  2. ((b))

    124

  3. ((c))

    153

  4. ((d))

    213

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

124

The correct answer is Article 124.

Key Points

  • Article 124 of the Indian constitution deals with the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court.
  • Articles 124-147 in Part V of the constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, and powers procedures of the Supreme Court.
  • It is the highest judicial court in India.
  • It is led by the Chief Justice of India and a maximum of 34 judges.
  • Dr Justice D.Y. Chandrachud is the 50th and present Chief Justice of India.
  • Article 124:
  • Article 124 is related to the establishment and Constitution of the Supreme Court.
  • There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
  • Article 124 (4):
  • It deals with the "Removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court" and prescribes the manner of procedure to be followed for removing a Judge of the Supreme Court from his office.

Additional Information

ArticleDeals with
123Deals with the ordinance-making power of the President.
153There shall be a Governor for each State:
126Appointment of acting Chief Justice
213Deals with the ordinance-making power of the Governor.
19

The highest peak of Bihar is-

  1. ((a))

    Kaimur Hills

  2. ((b))

    Barabara Hill

  3. ((c))

    Someshwar

  4. ((d))

    Santpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Someshwar

The correct answer is Someshwar.

  • Someshwar Fort is the highest peak of Bihar.
  • It is part of a Shiwalik hill.
  • It is situated in West of Champaran district.
  • Nitish Kumar is the Chief Minister of Bihar.

Important Points

StateHighest Peak
OdishaDeomali Peak
GujaratGirnar Peak
RajasthanGuru Shikhar
GoaSonsogor Peak
Madhya PradeshDhupgarh Peak
JharkhandParasnath Peak
20

​When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?

  1. ((a))

    1915

  2. ((b))

    1921

  3. ((c))

    1934

  4. ((d))

    1910

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1915

The correct answer is 1915.

Key Points

  • After over 21 years stay in South Africa, Gandhi returned to India on January 9, 1915 with his wife Kasturba.
  • 9th January is commemorated as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas on the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to Mumbai on 9 January, 1915.
  • Three days later he was honored by the people of Bombay at a magnificent reception in the palatial house of a Bombay magnate Jehangir Petit.
  • He received a "Kaiser-I-Hind" gold medal in the King’s birthday honours list of 1915.
  • Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was born on October 2, 1869 in Porbandar, India.

Additional Information 

  • The Indian people called Gandhi 'Mahatma', meaning Great Soul.
  • Gandhi studied law in London and returned to India in 1891 to practice.
  • In 1893 he took on a one-year contract to do legal work in South Africa.
21

Consider the following organizations are associated with Mahatma Gandhi:

  1. Natal Indian Congress
  2. Khilafat Committee
  3. All India Home Rule League

Which of the statements is/are correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    1, 2 only

  2. ((b))

    2, 3 only

  3. ((c))

    1, 3 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2 only

Gandhi & Associations:

Natal Indian Congress:

  • This was the organization set up by M.K.Gandhi when he was in South Africa.
  • The organization was created to fight for the rights of Indian workers in South Africa against the British. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
<br>

Khilafat Committee:

  • Gandhi was made All India Khilafat committee president in 1919.
  • Gandhi used this platform to unite the Hindu-Muslim issues together in the Non-cooperation movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
<br>

All India Home Rule League:

  • All India Home Rule League: The All India Home Rule League was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1916 to demand self-rule for India within the British Empire. While Gandhi supported the cause of self-rule, this was not directly associated with him in terms of its founding or leadership. Gandhi's direct involvement in the Home Rule movement came later when he joined the broader freedom struggle but not through the Home Rule League.

The correct match is:

  • Statement 1 (Natal Indian Congress) and Statement 2 (Khilafat Committee) are correctly associated with Gandhi. Therefore, the correct option is Option 1) 1, 2 only.
22

The nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President was borrowed by the constitution of India from________

  1. ((a))

    Ireland

  2. ((b))

    Canada

  3. ((c))

    Germany

  4. ((d))

    Government of India act 1935

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ireland

The correct answer is **Ireland.**​

Key Points

  • The nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President was borrowed by the constitution of India from Ireland.
  • Indian President nominates 12 persons having special knowledge in various fields.
  • 12 members are nominated by the President from amongst person having special knowledge or practical experience in:
  • Arts.
  • Literature.
  • Science.
  • Social service.

Important Points:

  • The constitution of India has borrowed most of its features from the constitutions of various other countries in the world.
  • More than half of the provisions of the Indian constitution are identical to the Government of India act 1935.
  • Important provisions borrowed from Ireland are:
  • Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha.
  • Presidential election.

Additional Information:

  • Important provisions borrowed from the Government of India act 1935 are:
  • Office of the governor.
  • Federal court.
  • Public Service Commissions.
  • Emergency provisions.
  • Important provisions borrowed from Canada are:
  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Residuary powers.
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • Important provisions borrowed from Russia are:
  • Fundamental duties
  • Five-year plans.
23

What is the Sex Ratio of Birth(SRB) of India in the year 2020-2021?

  1. ((a))

    918

  2. ((b))

    920

  3. ((c))

    937

  4. ((d))

    927

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

937

The correct answer is 937.

Key Points

  • India’s Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) improved by 19 points at the National level, from 918 in the year 2014-15 to 937 in 2020-21.
  • This was announced during the Year End Review of Women and Child Development Ministry. 
  • The “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme” is being implemented across India, covering 640 districts across the country.
  • The Poshan Tracker application ensures real-time monitoring of supplementary nutrition.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana scheme is implemented for pregnant women and lactating mothers.
24

Which Mughal Emperor built the Taj Mahal? 

  1. ((a))

    Shah Jahan

  2. ((b))

    Bhahadur Shah

  3. ((c))

    Akbar

  4. ((d))

    Aurangzeb

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shah Jahan

The correct answer is Shah Jahan.

  • The construction of the Taj Mahal is credited to the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan who erected this mausoleum in memory of his beloved wife, Mumtaj Mahal.
  • The construction of the Taj Mahal was started in A.D. 1632 and completed at the end of 1648 A.D. in Agra.
  • Amanat Khan Shirazi was the calligrapher of the Taj Mahal, his name occurs at the end of an inscription on one of the gates of the Taj.
  • Poet Ghyasuddin had designed the verses on the tombstone, while Ismail Khan Afridi of Turkey was the dome maker.
  • The designer of Taj Mahal was Ustad Ahmad Lahauri.
  • The central dome is 187 feet high at the center**. White marbles and red sandstones** were used to build the monument.

Additional Information

 

Mughal KingTimelineImportant Points
Shah Jahan1627-1658Mughal campaigns continued in the Deccan under Shah Jahan after Akbar and Jahangir. Shah Jahan was imprisoned by his son Aurangazeb for the rest of his life in Agra.
Akbar1556 - 1605During 1st five years of Akbars reign, Bairam khan acted as his regent & consolidated Mughal empire. He was the greatest king of the Mughal dynasty. Akbar married Rajput princess Jodha, daughter of Raja Bhairomal of Amber. He fought the Battle of Panipat (1556) against Hemu and Battle of Haldighati against Maharana Pratap (1576).
Bahadur Shah1837 - 1857He was the last Mughal emperor of India. He died in 1862 in Rangoon (Myanmar).
Aurangzeb1658 - 1707Assumed the title Alamgir (or World Conqueror). Reimposed Jiziya & pilgrimage tax (in 1679). Was against Sikhs & executed 9th Sikh Guru Teg Bahadur, which resulted in the transformation of Sikhs into the warring community.
25

Secondary memory is also called as

  1. ((a))

    Primary memory

  2. ((b))

    Main memory

  3. ((c))

    External memory

  4. ((d))

    Virtual memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

External memory

The correct answer is External memory.

Key Points

  • Secondary memory
  • Secondary memory provides a feature of being non-volatile, which means it can hold on to its data with or without an electrical power supply.
  • Secondary memory is also termed external memory and refers to the various storage media on which a computer can store data and programs.
  • The Secondary storage media can be fixed or removable.
  • Secondary Memory is slower in data accessing.
  • Typically primary memory is six times faster than secondary memory.
  • Secondary memory is not accessed directly by the Central Processing Unit (CPU).
  • Secondary memory is first loaded into Random Access Memory (RAM) and is then sent to the Processing Unit.
  • External memory
  • External memory is a memory that uses cues from the environment to aid the remembrance of ideas and sensations.
  • A popular type of External memory is a flash drive.

Additional Information

  • Primary Memory
  • Primary memory is the main memory.
  • It is used to store the data and instructions during the execution of the instructions.
  • It is of two types: Random Access Memory(RAM) and Read-Only Memory(ROM).
  • Virtual memory
  • Virtual memory is a section of volatile memory created temporarily on the storage drive.
  • It is created when a computer is running many processes at once RAM is running low.
26

Soil erosion can be stopped by which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    By vegetative eradication

  2. ((b))

    By overgrazing

  3. ((c))

    Increase in the number of birds

  4. ((d))

    By planting forests

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

By planting forests

The correct answer is By planting forests.

Key Points

  • Afforestation is the establishment of forest trees in an area where there were no trees before.
  • Plantation helps prevent soil erosion as the roots of plants and trees hold the soil together and also slow down the movement of runoff water that can erode the soil.

Additional Information

  • Causes of Soil Erosion:
  • A variety of agricultural practices expose soil that is readily available to erosion.
  • Soil loosening from grazing and overgrazing can lead to exposure.
  • The construction of various buildings causes deforestation and land clearing. This exposes the soil to erosion.
  • Strong winds blow away the top layer of soil along with it.
  • Natural calamities like floods are an important reason for the removal of topsoil.
27

Which Article of the Constitution of India talks about Superintendence, direction and control of elections?

  1. ((a))

    Article 324

  2. ((b))

    Article 333

  3. ((c))

    Article 356

  4. ((d))

    Article 367

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 324

The correct answer is Article 324

Key Points

  • Article 324 :
  • ​Article 324 in the Indian Constitution gives power to the Election Commission to direct, control, and conduct elections to all Parliament, to the Legislature of every state, and of elections to the offices of the President and Vice President held under the Constitution.
  • Article 324 of the Constitution vests the "superintendence, direction and control of elections" in an Election Commission consisting "of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix".
ArticleDescription
325No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex
326Elections on the basis of adult suffrage
327Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures Subject to the provisions of this constitution
328Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections
329Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters

Additional Information

  • Article 333:-
  • ​The Legislative Assembly consists of 175 elected members and one member nominated by the Governor from among Anglo-Indian Community, under Article 333 of the Constitution of India.
  • The duration of the Assembly is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless sooner dissolved.
  • Article 367- States about the Interpretation of miscellaneous provisions.
  • Artcile 356
  • ​It ​states that “If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclaim emergency in a state”.
28

The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in the year

  1. ((a))

    1846

  2. ((b))

    1856

  3. ((c))

    1870

  4. ((d))

    1891

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1856

The correct answer is 1856.

Key Points

  • The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 legalize the remarriage of Hindu widows on 16th July 1856.
  • The Hindu widow remarriage act was drafted during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie.
  • The act was passed by Lord Canning in 1856.
  • The remarriage of Hindu widows was first legalized by Lord Canning.
  • This act also provided all the rights and inheritances to all the windows that they have had at the time of her first marriage.
  • The enactment of The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 was a major social reform to improve the condition of the widow in India.
  • Before this law, the custom of Sati was also abolished by Lord William Bentinck in 1829.
29

'The Council of Ministers’ of Central Govt comes into existence only after

  1. ((a))

    All the Ministers have taken the Oath of office

  2. ((b))

    The Prime Minister has taken the Oath of office

  3. ((c))

    Allocation of portfolios

  4. ((d))

    Winning the confidence of Parliament

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All the Ministers have taken the Oath of office

The correct answer is All the Ministers have taken the Oath of office.

Key Points

  • Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers
  • it states that (1) there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act per such advice: Provided that the
  • President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act per the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
  • (2) The question of whether any and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.

Additional Information

    • Article 75:- The PM shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.
  • The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the COM, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
  • A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister.
  • Article 75 clearly states that the COM is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission.
  • Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility.
  • It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, which means that the President can remove a minister even at a time when the COM enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
  • However, the President removes a minister only on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • The council of Ministers comes into existence after the Ministers have taken the oath to their respective offices.
30

Who executed the fifth Sikh Guru Arjan Dev?

  1. ((a))

    Babur

  2. ((b))

    Akbar

  3. ((c))

    Jahangir

  4. ((d))

    Aurangzeb

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jahangir

  • The fourth Mughal Ruler Jahangir executed Guru Arjan Dev.
  • Jahangir's son named Khusro was influenced by the teachings of Guru Arjan Dev hence he decided to follow Sikhism.
  • In order to stop his son doing so, he executed Guru Arjan Dev.
31

What is RAM?

  1. ((a))

    Random Aided Memory

  2. ((b))

    Read Access Memory

  3. ((c))

    Read Analog Memory

  4. ((d))

    Random Access Memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Random Access Memory

Correct answer is Random Access Memory.

Key Points

  • RAM is the internal memory of the CPU for storing data, programs, and program results.
  • It is a read/write memory that stores data until the machine is working.
  • RAM is volatile, i.e. data stored in it is lost when we switch off the computer.
  • RAM stands for Random Access Memory.
  • RAM is a temporary memory bank
  • RAM is of two types −
  1. Static RAM (SRAM)
  2. Dynamic RAM (DRAM)

Important Points

  • ROM (read-only memory): Unlike RAM, ROM is non-volatile and only permits the user to read data.
  • Dynamic Random Access Memory
  • Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a type of random-access memory used in computing devices (primarily PCs).
  • DRAM stores each bit of data in a separate passive electronic component that is inside an integrated circuit board.
  • Its captivator needs to be refreshed often otherwise information fades.
  • Static Random Access Memory
  • Static Random Access Memory (Static RAM or SRAM) is a type of RAM that holds data in a static form, that is, as long as the memory has power. Unlike dynamic RAM, it does not need to be refreshed.
  • SRAM stores a bit of data on four transistors using two cross-coupled inverters.
  • The two stable states characterize 0 and 1.
  • ​MOSFET is a popular SRAM type.
32

Kanwar lake one of Asia’s largest Oxbow lake is located in which of the following states of India?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Bihar

  4. ((d))

    Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bihar

  • Kanwar lake is located in the Begusarai district of Bihar
  • It is also known as Kanwar lake bird sanctuary and Kabar Taal lake
  • Oxbow - An oxbow is a crescent-shaped(U shaped) lake lying alongside a winding river. The oxbow lake is created over time as erosion and deposits of soil change the river's course.
33

Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is located in which among the following states of India?

  1. ((a))

    Bihar

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Assam

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

Important Points

  • The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), Bhagalpur in Bihar is the only dolphin sanctuary in the country.
  • Experts have pegged the population of the Ganges dolphin in VGDS from 150 to 200.
  • National Waterway-1 connecting Haldia to Varanasi passes through the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS).

Additional Information

  • Gangetic Dolphin:
  • The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater, are blind and catch their prey in a unique manner, using ultrasonic sound waves.
  • They are distributed across seven states in India: Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
  • Categorized as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for the Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.

Hence,Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is located in Bihar.

34

First cotton mill in India was set up in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Ahmedabad

  2. ((b))

    Nashik

  3. ((c))

    Madras

  4. ((d))

    Bombay

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bombay

Option 4 is correct:

  • The first Indian cotton mill, "The Bombay Spinning Mill", was opened in 1854 in Bombay by Cowasji Nanabhai Davar.
  • India has rich resources of raw materials in the textile industry.
  • It was also the second-largest employment generator after agriculture in India.
  • In India, the cotton and man-made fiber industry are concentrated mainly in Maharastra, Tamil Nadu, and Gujarat.
35

The Brundtland Commission Report was entitled

  1. ((a))

    Limits to Growth

  2. ((b))

    Our Common Future

  3. ((c))

    Sustainable Development

  4. ((d))

    Tragedy of Commons

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Our Common Future

The correct answer is Our Common Future.

Key Points

  • The Brundtland Commission was created by the United Nations to suggest measures to protect the human environment and natural resources and prevent the deterioration of economic and social development.
  • It is formally called World Commission on Environment and Development.
  • Its report was titled as "Our Common Future".
  • It was released in 1987.
  • The Brundtland Commission’s characterization of ‘sustainable development’ is the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • The prominence given to ‘needs’ reflects a concern to eradicate poverty and meet basic human needs, broadly understood.

Therefore, the Brundtland Commission Report was entitled as Our Common Future.

36

Who wrote the "Harshacharita", a biography of Harshavardhana?

  1. ((a))

    Banabhatta

  2. ((b))

    Harisena

  3. ((c))

    Ravikirti

  4. ((d))

    Xuan Zang

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banabhatta

The correct answer is Banabhatta.

Key Points

  • The "Harshacharita", a biography of Harshavardhana, was written by Banabhatta, who was a Sanskrit scholar and a poet in the court of Harshavardhana. Banabhatta lived around the 7th century CE.
  • "Harshacharita" is a historical narrative detailing the life and times of King Harsha, who ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE.
  • He is also known for his work "Kadambari."

Additional Information

  • Harisena:
  • He was a court poet of Samudragupta, a Gupta emperor.
  • His most notable work is the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which details the conquests and accomplishments of his patron.
  • Ravikirti:
  • He was the court poet of the Chalukya king Pulakeshin II.
  • His work, the Aihole Prashasti (Aihole Inscription), written in Sanskrit, extols the victory of Pulakeshin II over the northern king Harshavardhana.
  • Xuan Zang:
  • He was a Chinese Buddhist monk, scholar, traveler, and translator who traveled to India in the 7th century.
  • His works, "Great Tang Records on the Western Regions" and "Buddhist Records of the Western World," detail his journey and experiences in India and other parts of Central and South Asia.
37

The National Waterway (NW) – 3 is located in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat 

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala 

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala 

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • National Waterway (NW) – 3 is officially known as the West Coast Canal.
  • It is located in the state of Kerala.
  • This waterway stretches from Kottapuram to Kollam, covering a distance of approximately 205 km.
  • The waterway also includes the Udyogamandal and Champakara Canals.
  • NW-3 was declared a National Waterway in 1993.
  • It plays a crucial role in the transportation of goods and passengers within Kerala, promoting economic growth and reducing traffic congestion on roads.
38

 In which of the following cities headquarter of WHO situated?

  1. ((a))

    Lyon, France

  2. ((b))

    Vienna, Austria

  3. ((c))

    New York

  4. ((d))

    Geneva, Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Geneva, Switzerland

  • Headquarter of WHO (World Health Organization) situated in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • WHO (World Health Organization) founded in 7 April 1948.
  • Director general of the World Health Organization-Tedros Adhanom.
39

On which river Hirakud dam is situated?

  1. ((a))

    Meghna

  2. ((b))

    Mahanadi

  3. ((c))

    Krishna

  4. ((d))

    Cauvery

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mahanadi

The correct answer is Mahanadi.

  • The Hirakud Dam is constructed across the river Mahanadi.
  • Hirakud Dam is close to Sambalpur city in Odisha.
  • Sambalpur is called the rice bowl of Odisha.

Key Points

  • It is one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects that started after India's independence.
  • It began its operations in 1957.
  • The total length of the Hirakud Dam is 25.79 km.

 

Important Points 

LabelNameLocationRiver
Highest Dam in IndiaTehri DamUttarakhandBhagirathi River
Longest Dam in IndiaHirakud DamOdishaMahanadi
Oldest Dam in IndiaKallanai DamTamil NaduKaveri
40

The image formed by a concave lens is always _______ and _______.

  1. ((a))

    Virtual, erect

  2. ((b))

    Real, Inverted

  3. ((c))

    Virtual, inverted

  4. ((d))

    Real, erect

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virtual, erect

The correct answer is Virtual, erect.

Key Points 

  • The image formed by a concave lens is always Virtual and erect.
  • Images are always smaller than the object, erect, and virtual.
  • As the distance between the object and the lens decreases, the size of the virtual image increases as the distance between the virtual image and the mirror decreases.

 Additional Information

  • Concave lens: It is a diverging lens that diverges the parallel beam of light.
  • It can also gather light from all directions and project it as a parallel beam.
  • The focal length of the concave lens is negative.
  • It has a virtual focus from the diverging rays of light that seem to converge.
41

The instrument 'pyrometer' is used for ___________.

  1. ((a))

    Measuring high temperatures

  2. ((b))

    Measuring air pressure

  3. ((c))

    Measuring heart rate

  4. ((d))

    Measuring electric current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Measuring high temperatures

The correct answer is Measuring high temperatures.

Key Points

Pyrometer:

  • Pyrometer is a device for measuring relatively high temperatures, such as are encountered in furnaces.
  • Most pyrometers work by measuring radiation from the body whose temperature is to be measured.
  • Radiation devices have the advantage of not having to touch the material being measured.
  • Radiation Pyrometers are used to measure the temperature of red hot metals up to 3000°C.
42

Twinkling of stars is due to

  1. ((a))

    Scattering of starlight

  2. ((b))

    Atmospheric refraction of starlight

  3. ((c))

    Multiple reflections by the ionosphere

  4. ((d))

    Vibrational movement of stars in the sky

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Atmospheric refraction of starlight

CONCEPT:

Refraction: 

  • The phenomenon by which a ray of light bends its path when it travels from one transparent medium to another is called the refraction of light.
  • The bending happens because the speed of light varies in different mediums.

Refractive index: 

  • The ratio of the speed of light in the air by the speed of light in the medium is called the refractive index. More will be the ratio of refractive index between two mediums more will be the bending of light.

Atmospheric Refraction: 

  • The different layers of the atmosphere have a different refractive index.
  • The ray of light coming from some outer space changes continuously bends its path while passing through different atmospheric layers.

EXPLANATION:

  • The atmosphere of the earth is made of different layers.
  • It is affected by winds, varying temperatures, and different densities as well.
  • When light from a distant source (a star) passes through our turbulent (moving air) atmosphere, it undergoes refraction many times.
  • When we finally perceive this light from a star, it appears to be twinkling.
  • So, we can say that twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of starlight.
  • This is because some of the light rays reach us directly and some bend away from and toward us. It happens so fast that it gives a twinkling effect.​

Important Points 

  • This twinkling effect does not happen for the sun or moon because these are very close to the earth and appear big.
  • Stars are very far and appear to us as point size. So, the twinkling effect is visible.
43

Which of the following plant hormones regulates growth, particularly by stimulating cell elongation in stems?

  1. ((a))

    Ethylene

  2. ((b))

    Auxin

  3. ((c))

    Gibberellin

  4. ((d))

    Cytokinin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Auxin

The correct answer is Auxin.

Key Points

  • Stem Elongation
  • Stem elongation refers to the rapid growth in the length of the internodes of the upper stem before the reproductive phase starts for the plant.
  • Stem elongation causes many problems for the plant, such as skinny stems that are too weak to support large flowers, as well as plants that grow too high vertically and appear spindly, so it should be prevented.
  • Auxin
  • Auxin is a group of plant hormones that regulate growth, particularly by stimulating cell elongation in stems.
  • Auxins also play a role in cell division and differentiation, in fruit development, in the formation of roots from cuttings, in the inhibition of lateral branching and in leaf fall.
  • The most important naturally occurring auxin is ß- indolyl acetic acid (IAA).

Additional Information

  • Ethylene
  • Ethylene is the first-identified plant hormone known to regulate numerous processes in plant growth, development, and response to biotic and abiotic stresses.
  • Ethylene is best known for its effect on fruit ripening and thus has great commercial importance in agriculture.
  • Gibberellin
  • Gibberellin is a group of plant hormones that occur in seeds, young leaves, and roots.
  • It stimulates the growth of main stems, especially when applied to the whole plant.
  • It is commercially obtained from fungi.
  • Cytokinin
  • Cytokinins are plant hormones that influence not only numerous aspects of plant growth, development and physiology, including cell division.
  • Cytokinins are also produced by other prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms such as bacteria, fungi, microalgae and insects.
44

The device to measure electric current is

  1. ((a))

    Ammeter

  2. ((b))

    Hygrometer

  3. ((c))

    Barometer

  4. ((d))

    Voltmeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ammeter

The correct answer is Ammeter.

  • An ammeter is an instrument that is used to measure the current in the circuit.
  • Measure either direct or alternating electric current, in amperes (A).
  • It has a set of coils with very low resistance and inductive reactance.
  • This allows for very low impedance, the force that opposes electric current.

Additional Information

INSTRUMENTMEASUREMENT
VoltmeterThe terminal potential difference (terminal voltage) of a circuit. Based on the deflection method.
Voltameter or CoulometerMeasuring the quantity of electricity (electric charge) through electrolytic action.
PotentiometerMeasuring the emf of a circuit very accurately. It based on the zero deflection method.
BarometerUse to measure Atmospheric pressure
HygrometerUse to measure Humidity
45

________ is called ‘the power house of the cell’. 

  1. ((a))

    Cell membrane

  2. ((b))

    Nucleus

  3. ((c))

    Mitochondria

  4. ((d))

    Golgi bodies

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mitochondria

The Correct Answer is Option 3 i.e Mitochondria.

  • Golgi apparatus:
  • This cell organelle is primarily responsible for storage, processing, and packaging proteins.
  • Golgi Apparatus is found within the cytoplasm of a cell and are present in both plant and animal cells.
  • Mitochondria:
  • Mitochondria is the cell organelle also called the Powerhouse of the cell.
  • It generates energy molecules called ATP or Adenosine Triphosphate.
  • Cell membrane:
  • The cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane, is found in all cells and separates the interior of the cell from the outside environment.
  • The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.
  • Nucleus:
  • It is a membrane-bound organelle that contains the genetic material of organisms.
46

What is the scientific name of Peacock?

  1. ((a))

    Molpastes cafer

  2. ((b))

    Eudynamis scolopaccus

  3. ((c))

    Psittacula eupatria

  4. ((d))

    Pavo Cristatus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pavo Cristatus

Option 4 is correct, i.e. Pavo Cristatus.

Scientific Names of Some Common Animals - 

AnimalScientific Name
LionPanthera Leo
ElephantElephas Maximus
PeacockPavo Cristatus
FoxVulpes Vulpes
TigerPanthera Tigris
DogCanis Lupus Familiaris
CatFelis Domesticus
PigeonColumba Livia
Indian CobraNaja Naja
GiraffeGiraffa Camelopardalis
ZebraEquus Quagga
House CrowsCorvus Splendens
47

What is the amphibian of the plant kingdom called?

  1. ((a))

    Thallophyta

  2. ((b))

    Gymnosperm

  3. ((c))

    Angiosperm

  4. ((d))

    Bryophyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bryophyte

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Bryophyte.

Key Points

The amphibians of the plant kingdom are called Bryophyte.

  • The sperms of bryophyte require water to swim into the eggs and called as Amphibians of the plant kingdom.
NameCharacteristics
Thallophyta- They are non-mobile organisms that are grouped together having similar characteristics but not the same ancestors. - Examples are lichens, algae, bacteria etc.
Gymnosperm- They are a group of seed-producing plants. - This group consists of Conifers, Cycads, Ginkgo and Gnetophytes.
Angiosperm- These are the group of flowering plants. It is the most diverse group of land plants. - They are also the seed-producing plants.
Bryophyte- It is the group of three non-vascular plants: liverworts, hornworts, and mosses. - They usually found in a moist environment but can survive in a drier atmosphere also.
48

The term ‘mutation’ primarily refers to:

  1. ((a))

    genetic migration

  2. ((b))

    genetic line

  3. ((c))

    genetic correction

  4. ((d))

    genetic mistake

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

genetic mistake

The correct answer is Genetic Mistake.

 Key Points

A mutation is a change that occurs in our DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is copied or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light or alcoholic/smoking activities.

  • The mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and consequently results in changes in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism.
  • In addition to recombination, the mutation is another phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA
  • One DNA helix runs continuously from one end to the other in each chromatid, in a highly supercoiled form.
  • Therefore loss (deletions) or gain (insertion/duplication) of a segment of DNA, resulting in an alteration in chromosomes.
  • Since genes are known to be located on chromosomes, alteration in chromosomes results in abnormalities or aberrations.
  • Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.
  • In addition to the above, the mutation also arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA. This is known as a point mutation.
  • A classical example of such a mutation is sickle cell anemia.
  • Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA cause frame-shift mutations.
  • The mechanism of mutation is beyond the scope of this discussion, at this level.
  • However, there are many chemical and physical factors that induce mutations.
  • These are referred to as mutagens.
  • UV radiations can cause mutations in organisms – it is a mutagen.
49

The yellow part of the yolk in the hen's egg is

  1. ((a))

    A single cell

  2. ((b))

    More than one cell

  3. ((c))

    A cell which has undergone division

  4. ((d))

    Not a cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A single cell

The correct answer is A single cell.

  • The edible chicken egg is a single cell containing both protein and fat components.
  • The egg develops into a chicken with the division of a single cell leading to the development of the embryo.
  • Therefore, the whole egg behaves like a single cell.

Key Points

  • The yolk is the nutrient-rich part of the egg.
  • Its main function is to supply food for the developing embryo.
  • It contains fat and protein.
  • Type of yolk: Yolk is of two types:
  • Yellow yolk - it contains more phospholipids.
  • White Yolk - It is rich in protein.
50

Which of the following is found in plant cells only?

  1. ((a))

    Centrosome

  2. ((b))

    Vacuoles

  3. ((c))

    Granules

  4. ((d))

    Plastids

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Plastids

The correct answer is Plastids.

Explanation:

  • Plastids are semiautonomous organelles that have double-membrane envelopes.
  • Plastids are found in the cells of plants and in certain protists. It is not found in animal cells.
  • Plastids have their own genetic material (i.e., DNA). Due to their large size, they are easily seen under the microscope.
  • Plastids are the sites where important chemical compounds used by the cell are manufactured and stored.
  • They frequently contain photosynthesis pigments, and the pigments present can alter or determine the colour of the cells.
  • They are of two main types:
  • Leucoplast- The leucoplasts are colourless and it is primarily used for food storage.
  • Chromoplast- The chromoplasts are coloured and they play a role in the production and storage of pigments such as carotene, xanthophylls, and others.

Additional Information

  • Some of the cell organelles are present in both plant cells and animal cells, while others are unique to just one.
  • Plant and animal cells are different as the plant cell possesses cell walls, plastids, and a large central vacuole.
  • Cell walls, plastids, and a large central vacuole are absent in animal cells.
  • In the plant cell, lysosomes are generally absent.
  • On the other hand, animal cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all plant cells.

​​Thus, centrosome and lysosome are absent in a plant cell but present in animal cells.

51

The atomic number of which of the following elements is 11?

  1. ((a))

    Silicon

  2. ((b))

    Germanium

  3. ((c))

    Carbon

  4. ((d))

    Sodium

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sodium

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Sodium.

  • Atomic Number: It is defined as the number of protons found in the nucleus of the atom.
  • For example, the number of protons in the sodium atom is 11, therefore its atomic number is 11.
  • Atomic Number of Germanium is 32, Carbon is 6 and Silicon is 14.
NameSodium
SymbolNa
Atomic Number11
Atomic Mass22.98977 amu (atomic mass units)
Number of Protons/Electrons11
Number of Neutrons12
Year of Discovery1807
DiscovererSir Humphrey Davy
52

What is the chromosome number in a human ovum?

  1. ((a))

    None of these

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

23

The correct answer is 23.

  • The chromosome number in the human ovum is 23.

Key Points

  • The human egg, or ovum, is one of the largest cells in the human body.
  • Karl Ernst von Baer discovered the mammalian ovum in 1827.
  • After ovulation, the egg lives for 12 to 24 hours and must be fertilized in that time.
  • An egg cell is a metabolically active cell, substances are absorbed and released.
  • Humans are diploid (2n) organisms having 46 or 23 pairs of chromosomes.
  • The gametes, sperm and ovum, are haploid (n) as they are formed by meiosis.
  • This means the gametes will have only one of each pair of chromosomes.
  • Therefore, chromosome number in the human ovum is 23.

Additional Information

  • Embryology, the study of the formation and development of an embryo and fetus.
  • Panchanan Maheswari was a prominent Indian botanist noted chiefly for his invention of the technique of test-tube fertilization of angiosperms.
  • The first test-tube baby of India, Kanupriya Agarwal aka Durga on October 3 1978.
  • The first test-tube baby of World is Louise Joy Brown through In vitro fertilization (IVF).
53

When burnt in air, a magnesium strip burns with a bright _____ flame.

  1. ((a))

    Green

  2. ((b))

    White

  3. ((c))

    Red

  4. ((d))

    Blue

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

White

The correct answer is White.

Key Points

  • When burnt in the air, a magnesium strip burns with a bright white flame and formed white ash — MgO.
  • However, if the magnesium is not removed from the flame, then it still burns in the flame, not nearly so well (it sputters), and above it the flame is yellow-orange.
  • It happens because when magnesium ribbons burn in the presence of air they undergo an oxidation reaction to form magnesium oxide.
  • This change proceeds with the evolution of heat and light due to which we see the dazzling white flame.

Additional Information

Color of the flame of several elements:

  • Arsenic - Blue
  • Strontium - Crimson
  • Tellurium - Pale green
  • Thallium - Bright green
  • Zinc Blue-green to pale green
54

How many bones are present in the Human Skull?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

22

  • There are 22 bones present in the human skull.
  • These include 8 cranial bones, 14 facial bones, one hyoid bone, and 6 auditory bones.
  • The Skull contains small holes, called Foramina, that allows blood vessels and nerves to enter and exit cranium.
  • The Jaw bone is known as the mandible. It is the only bone in the skull that moves.
55

Lemon contains which acid?

  1. ((a))

    Palmitic acid

  2. ((b))

    Nitric acid

  3. ((c))

    Tartaric acid

  4. ((d))

    Citric acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Citric acid

The correct answer is Citric acid.

Key Points

  • Lemon contains citric acid and malic acid.
  • The presence of these acids gives a sour taste of lemon.
  • Lemon juice is a very acidic fruit juice with an average pH of 2.3.
  • Citric acid is the predominant organic acid in it, with smaller but significant amounts of ascorbic acid.
  • The juice also contains malic acid.

 Additional Information

Common namepHChemical name
Vinegar2.4Acetic Acid
Orange2.3Citric Acid
Tamarind3.4Tartaric Acid
Sour milk3.5Lactic Acid
56

Deficiency of Iodine causes:

  1. ((a))

    Night Blindness

  2. ((b))

    Cancer

  3. ((c))

    Goitre

  4. ((d))

    Osteoporosis

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Goitre

The correct answer is Goitre.

Key Points

  • Deficiency of Iodine causes Goitre.
  • Deficiency of iodine can result in a range of disabilities and disorders such as goitre, hypothyroidism, cretinism, abortion, stillbirths, mental retardation, and psychomotor defects.
  • Defects in which there is a slow down in thought process and a reduction of physical movements in an individual.
  • Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of thyroid enlargement and goitre.
  • Within a goitre, nodules can develop.
  • Patients with a large goitre may experience symptoms of choking, especially when lying down, and difficulty swallowing and breathing.
  • Hence, option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Iodine:
  • Iodine is a vital micro-nutrient for the optimal mental and physical development of human beings.
  • In 1992, India made fortification of salt with iodine mandatory, for direct human consumption.
  • In 2011, the Supreme Court also mandated universal iodization for the control of iodine deficiencies.
  • A recent initiative in this regard named Jeevan Bindi (an iodine patch designed like a regular bindi) was started to help one lakh tribal women in north-west Maharashtra battle iodine deficiency as these tribals did not consume iodized salt.
57

Which of the following is a dead phloem element

  1. ((a))

    sieve cells

  2. ((b))

    sieve tubes

  3. ((c))

    phloem fibres

  4. ((d))

    companion cells

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

phloem fibres

​Concept:

  • Tissues in plants are classified into two main groups, namely, meristematic and permanent tissues based on whether the cells being formed are capable of dividing or not.
  • Further Permanent tissues are also categorised into 2 types - Simple tissue & Complex tissue.
  • The complex tissues are made of more than one type of cells and these work together as a unit.
  • Xylem and phloem constitute the complex tissues in plants.

Explanation:

  • Phloem is made up of five types of cells: sieve cells, sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem fibres and the phloem parenchyma.
  • Sieve tubes are tubular cells with perforated walls.
  • Phloem transports food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
  • Except for phloem fibres, other phloem cells are living cells hence, phloem fibre is the only dead element

     Section of phloem

58

CO2 when passed in excess, in lime water turns colourless again because of:

  1. ((a))

    Calcium Carbonate

  2. ((b))

    Calcium bicarbonate

  3. ((c))

    Calcium Chloride

  4. ((d))

    Copper Carbonate

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Calcium bicarbonate

Explanation:

  • Calcium hydroxide is sparingly soluble in water producing an alkaline solution known as limewater.
  • Calcium Carbonate is a chemical compound found commonly in rocks as minerals and is the main component of pearls and the shells of marine organisms, eggs, etc.
  • When carbon dioxide gas is passed through or over limewater, it turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate.
  • In the chemical reaction it can be shown as :

Ca(OH)2Lime water (aq) + CO2 (g)Carbon Dioxide  CaCO3 (g)Calcium Carbonate\rm \underset{Lime\ water}{Ca (OH)_2} \ (aq) \ + \ \underset{Carbon \ Dioxide}{CO_2 \ (g) }\ \longrightarrow \ \underset{Calcium \ Carbonate}{CaCO_3 \ (g)}Ca(OH)2

  • However, when an excess of CO2 ​is passed through this solution, the milkiness disappears. This is due to the formation of calcium bicarbonate which is colorless and soluble in water.

Ca(OH)2Lime water (aq) + CO2 (g)Carbon Dioxide  CaCO3 (g)Calcium Carbonate\rm \underset{Lime\ water}{Ca (OH)_2} \ (aq) \ + \ \underset{Carbon \ Dioxide}{CO_2 \ (g) }\ \longrightarrow \ \underset{Calcium \ Carbonate}{CaCO_3 \ (g)}CaCO3Lime water (aq) + CO2 (g)Carbon Dioxide  Ca(HCO3)2 (g)Calcium Carbonate\rm \underset{Lime\ water}{Ca CO_3} \ (aq) \ + \ \underset{Carbon \ Dioxide}{CO_2 \ (g) }\ \longrightarrow \ \underset{Calcium \ Carbonate}{Ca(HCO_3)_2 \ (g)}Lime water (aq) + CO2 (g)Carbon Dioxide ⟶ CaCO3 (g)Calcium CarbonateCaCO3Calcium Carbonate  +H2O+ CO2 (g)Carbon Dioxide  Ca(HCO3)2 (g)Calcium bi Carbonate\rm \underset{Calcium\ Carbonate}{Ca CO_3} \ \ +H_2O+ \ \underset{Carbon \ Dioxide}{CO_2 \ (g) } \ \longrightarrow \ \underset{Calcium \ bi\ Carbonate}{Ca(HCO_3)_2 \ (g)}

 

Additional Information Reaction involved-

CaCO3 + 2HCl →  CaCl+ CO2 + H2O

  • The evolved gas is carbon dioxide which then passes through lime water and turns it milky.

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → H2O + CaCO3  

  • Due to formation of these compounds
  • when excess CO2 is passed

CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 →  Ca(HCO3)2 

  • Bicarbonate is formed which again clears the solution

Mistake Points

  • Do not confuse Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate.
  • One produces white colour while the other makes it colourless.
59

Which of the following is largest phylum of the animal kingdom ?

  1. ((a))

    Chordata

  2. ((b))

    Mollusca

  3. ((c))

    Annelida

  4. ((d))

    Arthropoda

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Arthropoda

The correct answer is Arthropoda.

Key Points

  • Arthropoda is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom.
  • Arthropoda contains a wide diversity of animals with hard exoskeletons and jointed appendages.
  • The familiar species belong to the phylum Arthropoda are insects, spiders, scorpions, centipedes, and millipedes on land; crabs, crayfish, shrimp, lobsters, and barnacles in water.
  • The important characteristics of Arthropoda include:
  • They possess an exoskeleton and have jointed appendages.
  • Their body is segmented and is bilaterally symmetrical.
  • They possess an open circulatory system.

Additional Information

  • Chordata contains five classes of animals: fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals examples are pandas, crows, sarks, alligators, etc
  • Mollusca is the second-largest phylum of invertebrate animals after the Arthropoda. Examples are an octopus, squid, etc
  • Annelids are known commonly as segmented (ringed) worms. Some common names for more well-known annelids include earthworms, sandworms, ragworms, bristle worms, and leeches.
60

Cell wall is not present in cells of _______

  1. ((a))

    Bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Plants

  3. ((c))

    Fungi

  4. ((d))

    Humans

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Humans

The correct answer is Humans.

Key Points

  • Cell walls are present in most prokaryotes (except mollicute bacteria), in algae, fungi, and eukaryotes including plants but are absent in animals.

Additional Information

Plant cells have a cell wall, chloroplasts and other specialized plastids, and a large central vacuole, whereas animal cells do not.

  • All cells have a cell membrane, but not all cells have a cell wall.
  • Cell walls are very rigid, which makes the cell harder to move.
  • They can be made up of a variety of substances, so cell walls in plant cells are different from those found in bacterial cells.
  • A cell wall is a fairly rigid layer surrounding a cell located outside of the plasma membrane that provides additional support and protection.
61

What is the Scientific Name of Cat?

  1. ((a))

    Panthera Leo

  2. ((b))

    Felis Domesticus

  3. ((c))

    Equus Africanus

  4. ((d))

    Panthera Tigris

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Felis Domesticus

The scientific name of a cat is Felis Domestica and it is the only species belonging to the Felidae family that is domesticated.

AnimalScientific NameFamilyClassKingdomLife Span
CatFelis Domestica/Felis catusFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia2-16 years
LionPanthera leoFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia10-14 years
TigerPanthera tigrisFelidaeMammaliaAnimalia16-18 years
DonkeyEquus AfricanusEquidaeMammaliaAnimalia25-30 years
62

Acetic acid is present in:

  1. ((a))

    Curd spinach

  2. ((b))

    Vinegar

  3. ((c))

    Ant's sting

  4. ((d))

    Lime water

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vinegar

The correct answer is Vinegar.

 Key Points

  • Acetic acid is present in all types of vinegar.
  • The chemical formula for acetic acid is CH3COOH
  • The Percentage of acetic acid (CH3COOH) present in vinegar is between 4 - 5% in weight.
  • Vinegar is a liquid consisting of acetic acid water and other trace chemicals.
  • Acetic acid is produced by the formation of ethanol and bacteria.

 Additional Information

ACIDSUBSTANCES
Citric acidLemon, orange
Lactic acidSour milk and curd
Uric acidurine
Formic acidThe sting of bees, ants, scorpion
Butyric acidRancid butter
Tartaric acidtamarind, grapes
Malic acidapples
Stearic acidfats
Acetic acidvinegar
Tannic acidtea
Oxalic acidtomato
63

Burning of coal is an example of ______.

  1. ((a))

    decomposition reaction

  2. ((b))

    double displacement reaction

  3. ((c))

    combination reaction

  4. ((d))

    displacement reaction

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

combination reaction

The correct answer is a Combination Reaction.

Key Points 

  • The combustion of coal is an example of Combination Reaction.
  • A combination reaction is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single compound. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: X + Y → XY.
  • The combination of two or more elements to form one compound is called a combination reaction.

Additional Information 

Other types of Chemical Reactions:

  • Decomposition reaction:
  • The opposite of a combination reaction, a complex molecule breaks down to make simpler ones. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: AB → A + B.
  • Precipitation reaction: 
  • Two solutions of soluble salts are mixed resulting in an insoluble solid (precipitate) forming. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + Soluble salt B  → Precipitate + soluble salt C.
  • Neutralization reaction: 
  • An acid and a base react with each other. Generally, the product of this reaction is salt and water. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
  • Combustion reaction: 
  • Oxygen combines with a compound to form carbon dioxide and water. These reactions are exothermic, meaning they give off heat. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + O2 → H2O + CO2.
  • Displacement reaction: 
  • One element takes place with another element in the compound. Such reactions are represented by equations of the following form: A + BC → AC + B.
  • Double displacement reaction:
  • Double displacement reactions occur when a part of two ionic compounds is exchanged and makes two new components.
  • Double displacement reactions take place mostly in aqueous solutions wherein the ions precipitate and the exchange of ions takes place.
64

Sodium hydroxide is NOT used for  ________.

  1. ((a))

    making soap 

  2. ((b))

    making newspapers

  3. ((c))

    degreasing metals

  4. ((d))

    preserving pickle

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

preserving pickle

The correct answer is Preserving pickle.

Key Points

  • Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is known as 'caustic soda' and it is a 'high-base' alkali.
  • It is used in the manufacture of pulp and paper cloth, drinking water, soap, and detergent.
  • In the field of medicine, sodium hydroxide is used for the treatment, control, prevention, and improvement of diseases.

Hint

  • Sodium benzoate is used as a preservative for carbonated drinks, jams and fruit juices, and pickles.
65

Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of haemoglobin?

  1. ((a))

    Malaria

  2. ((b))

    Anaemia

  3. ((c))

    Rabies

  4. ((d))

    Cholera

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Anaemia

The correct answer is Anaemia.

Key Points

  • Anaemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body's tissues.
  • Anemia also referred to as low haemoglobin, can make you feel tired and weak.
  • Signs and symptoms include:
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Pale or yellowish skin
  • Irregular heartbeats
  • Shortness of breath
  • Dizziness or lightheadedness
  • Chest pain
  • Cold hands and feet
  • Headaches

Important Points

  • One can avoid iron deficiency anaemia and vitamin deficiency anaemias by eating a diet that includes a variety of vitamins and minerals, including:
  • Iron: Iron-rich foods include beef and other meats, beans, lentils, iron-fortified cereals, dark green leafy vegetables, and dried fruit.
  • Folate: This nutrient, and its synthetic form folic acid, can be found in fruits and fruit juices, dark green leafy vegetables, green peas, kidney beans, peanuts, and enriched grain products, such as bread, and cereal, pasta, and rice.
  • Vitamin B-12: Foods rich in vitamin B-12 include meat, dairy products, fortified cereal, and soy products.
  • Vitamin C: Foods rich in vitamin C include citrus fruits and juices, peppers, broccoli, tomatoes, melons, and strawberries. These also help increase iron absorption.

Additional Information

  • Malaria 
  • ​Malaria is caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium.
  • Four species cause disease in humans: P falciparum, P vivax, P ovale and P malaria.
  • Malaria is spread to humans by the bite of female mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles.
  • Rabies​
  • A deadly virus spread to people from the saliva of infected animals.
  • Rabies is usually transmitted through an animal bite, for example, from stray dogs.
  • Cholera​
  • Cholera is an acute diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with Vibrio cholerae bacteria.
  • It causes severe diarrhoea and dehydration, usually spread in water.
66

A bifocal lens is used as a remedy in which of the following defects in the eyes?

  1. ((a))

    Hyperopia

  2. ((b))

    Presbyopia

  3. ((c))

    Astigmatism 

  4. ((d))

    Myopia 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Presbyopia

CONCEPT:

Defects of VisionDetailsCorrections
Myopia (short-sightedness)The human eye can see a nearby object clearly but cannot see far away object clearly.concave lens
Hypermetropia or FarsightednessThe human eye can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects clearly.Convex Lens
PresbyopiaIn this defect, both near and far objects are not clearly visible. It is an old age disease and it is due to the losing power of accommodation.Bifocal lenses
AstigmatismIn this defect, the eye cannot see horizontal and vertical lines clearly, simultaneously. It is due to the imperfect spherical nature of the eye lens.Cylindrical lens

Explanation:

  • When the eye lens becomes less elastic then it happens.
  • When the Objects nearby appear to be blurred to a person then it is called Presbyopia.
  • Due to presbyopia, the ciliary muscles of the eye lens becomes weak and the visual defect started.
  • So option 2 is correct.
67

The air bubbles shine in the water because of ________.

  1. ((a))

    Dispersion

  2. ((b))

    Diffraction

  3. ((c))

    Reflection

  4. ((d))

    Total internal reflection

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Total internal reflection

The correct answer is ​Total internal reflection.

Key Points

  • Total internal reflection
  • It is the complete reflection of a ray of light within a medium such as water or glass from the surrounding surfaces back into the medium.
  • The phenomenon occurs if the angle of incidence is greater than a certain limiting angle, called the critical angle.
  • Examples -
  • The formation of a mirage.
  • Shining of an empty test tube in water.
  • Shining of a crack in a glass vessel.
  • Sparkling of a diamond.
  • Transmission of light rays in an optical fibre.

Additional Information

  • Dispersion
  • Dispersion is defined as the spreading of white light into its full spectrum of wavelengths.
  • Examples - 
  • Rainbow formation,
  • Petrol poured on the water will show different colours,
  • The prism splits the light into different colours on passing through it,
  • Dispersion of colours in soap bubbles, etc.
  • Diffraction
  • Diffraction is the spreading of waves around obstacles.
  • Examples
  • X-Ray Diffraction,
  • Water passing from a small gap,
  • Solar or lunar corona, sound, etc.
  • Reflection
  • Reflection occurs when a light ray hits a surface and bounces off and returns to the medium from which it originated.
  • Examples
  • Reflection of light in the mirror, in a water pool, glowing stars, lighting of the moon at night, etc.
68

The flexibility in plants is due to a tissue called

  1. ((a))

    Parenchyma

  2. ((b))

    Collenchyma

  3. ((c))

    Sclerenchyma

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Collenchyma

The correct answer is Collenchyma.

 Concept:

  • Collenchyma is a specialized simple permanent tissue that provides support and flexibility to plants.
  • This tissue is made up of living cells having uneven thickenings of cellulose, pectin, and hemicellulose on the walls.
  • Cells possess chloroplast, then it is involved in manufacturing sugar and starch.
  • Provides tensile strength and flexibility to the plant body.

Explanation:

  • Parenchyma- this tissue provides support to plants. It also stores food. So this option is not correct.
  • Collenchyma- it allows easy bending of plant parts and provides flexibility. So the option is correct.
  • Sclerenchyma- this tissue makes the plant hard and stiff. It is present in the husk of a coconut. So the option is not correct.

Additional Information

  • Parenchyma is the most common and abundant tissue in plants which is made up of thin-walled living cells having a distinct nucleus.
  • The main function of parenchyma is to store and assimilate food. Hence, they are referred to as food storage tissues.
  • Serves as a packing tissue to fill the spaces between other tissues and maintain the shape and firmness of the plant.
  • Stores waste products of plants.
  • Sclerenchyma is a lignified supportive tissue made up of thick-walled and lignified cells.
  • Provides mechanical strength to the plant.
69

Which one is known as the brain of the cell?

  1. ((a))

    Nucleus

  2. ((b))

    Mitochondria

  3. ((c))

    Cytoplasm

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nucleus

The correct answer is Nucleus.

Cell OrganellesOther Names
NucleusThe brain of the cell
MitochondriaThe power-house of the cell
CytoplasmProtoplasm, Cytosol
LysosomeSuicide Bags
70

Use the correct punctuation mark in the following sentence.

Take it easy_______and I hope you get better soon.

  1. ((a))

    ,

  2. ((b))

    !

  3. ((c))

    ;

  4. ((d))

    :

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

,

The correct answer is , i.e. the comma.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate punctuation mark to fill the blank is the comma (,).
  • Commas are one of the most common forms of punctuation marks in English. Traditionally, they are used to introduce a short pause in discourse.
  • We always use a comma before the coordinating conjunction in a compound sentence.
  • For example, 'The wind blew*,** and the old tree shook**,** but it did not fall*.'
  • In the given sentence, the first independent clause is separated from the second one by the Coordinating conjunction 'and'. Therefore, we need a comma in the given blank.
  • Correct sentence: 'Take it easy**,** and I hope you get better soon.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let us revisit the use of other punctuation marks given in the options:
  • The exclamation mark (!) ⇒ Exclamation points are used to signal interjections most commonly associated with fear, surprise, excitement, shock, and disbelief.
  • The semicolon (;) ⇒ Semicolons are used to designate a break in a sentence that is more pronounced than a comma break. Semicolons are used to separate independent clauses in several cases and most importantly before conjunctive adverbs like, however, therefore, furthermore, etc.
  • The Colon (:) ⇒ Colons mark a distinct break in a sentence, but they are used between clauses that are closely linked in topic. Where two clauses are connected by a colon, the second clause typically continues the thought of the first clause, or the second clause contains an elaboration or illustration of the topic discussed in the first clause.
71

The sentence given with the blank is to be filled with an appropriate word. Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Union Health Secretary Rajesh Bhushan said that 1,239 private and 5,912 public hospitals _______ utilised as vaccination session sites.

  1. ((a))

    was being

  2. ((b))

    were being

  3. ((c))

    are been

  4. ((d))

    were been

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

were being

The correct answer is were being.

Key Points

  • As the sentence is an indirect speech and reporting verb is in the past tense**(said**) so the reporting speech must be in the past tense. (Option 3 is ruled out).
  • The subject of the reporting speech is hospitals(plural), helping verb should also be plural(were). (Option 1 is ruled out).
  • The reporting speech is in passive form and referring to the past continuous tense. sentence structure of past continuous passive voice is subject+ was/were+ being+ v3+ object.(option 4 is ruled out).
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Thus the correct sentence isUnion Health Secretary Rajesh Bhushan said that 1,239 private and 5,912 public hospitals were being utilised as vaccination session sites.

Additional Information

  • Active and Passive Voice Rules for Continous Tense;
Active VoicePassive Voice (Auxiliary Verb- was/were)
Subject + is/are/am + V1 + ing + objectObject + is/are/am + being + V3 + by + subject
Subject +was/were+ V1+ ing+ objectObject + was/were + being +V3 + by + Subject
Sub + shall/will + be + V1 + ing + objectThe passive form of future continuous tense can not be made.
72

Choose the correct preposition, out of the four options, to be filled in the blanks:-

His speech was appropriate _____ the occasion.

  1. ((a))

    upon

  2. ((b))

    to

  3. ((c))

    about

  4. ((d))

    for

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

for

The correct answer is "for."

Key Points

  • Let us understand the meaning and usage of the given prepositions:
  • "Upon" means on or onto something.
  • Example: Upon her head she wore a black velvet hat.
  • "To" is used for showing who receives something or who experiences an action.
  • Example: I lent my bike to my brother.
  • "About" is used to talk about something on the subject of, or connected with.
  • ​Example: I really don't know what all the fuss is about.
  • "For" is used to express something having the purpose of
  • ​Example: The books are not for sale.​​
  • In the given sentence, the speech is for the purpose of the occasion.
  • From the above explanation, it is clear that the preposition "for" is appropriate for the blank given in the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

73

Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

"You can be insane if you A) think i am accompanying you to the trip B)/ to Las vegas." said Steven to Gilbert. C)/ No error D)

  1. ((a))

    A)

  2. ((b))

    B)

  3. ((c))

    C)

  4. ((d))

    D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A)

Option 1 is correct as,

When we make a logical conclusion from some situation or activity, we use 'must'  and not 'should or ought to' in the sentence.

E.g :- You must be mad if you assume Payal holds any feeling for you.

Hence, 'must' will be used in place of 'can'  in the 1st part of the sentence.

74

What is the correct Passive Voice form of the given sentence - "The team will launch the new software next week".

  1. ((a))

    The new software will be launched by the team next week

  2. ((b))

    The new software will being launched by the team next week.

  3. ((c))

    The team will have launched the new software next week.

  4. ((d))

    The new software is being launched by the team next week.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The new software will be launched by the team next week

Correct Answer: Option 1 - 'The new software will be launched by the team next week'.

 Key Points

  • The given structure is written as 'Subject + will + verb + object'.
  • In Passive Voice, the structure is: Object + will be  + past participle + by + Subject.
  • Therefore, the correct Passive voice sentence should have the object first, the verb in the past participle form then 'by', and finally the subject ('the team').

Therefore, the correct answer is - 'The new software will be launched by the team next week'.

 Additional Information

  • Option 3 suggests that the software has already been launched by next week, not that it is in the process of being launched.
  • Option 4 is present continuous passive, not future continuous
75

Select the correct active form of the given sentence.

There is a bed to be lain in.

  1. ((a))

    There is a bed to lie in.

  2. ((b))

    There is a bed to lie on.

  3. ((c))

    There is a bed which is lain in.

  4. ((d))

    I lain in bed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

There is a bed to lie in.

The correct answer is 'There is a bed to lie in'.

Key Points

  • The above sentence is in passive voice since it emphasizes the action or object of the sentence.
  • The above sentence is a special kind of sentence that is asked in exams and it needs to be learned as it is.
  • If the sentence is of the form 'to + verb', then this rule is followed:
  • Active voice: There is a bed to lie in.
  • Passive voice: There is a bed to be lain in.
  • The tense remains the same as the passive voice.
  • Here, the simple present tense is used.   

Additional Information

PresentPastPast participle
lielaylain
  • Only sentences with the transitive verb can be converted into passive voice and not the ones with an intransitive verb.
  • A transitive verb needs an object to complete its meaning. For example: He answered the questions confidently. (subject + verb + object)
  • The intransitive verb does not have an object. For example: He answered confidently. (subject + verb)

Correct sentence: "There is a bed to lie in".

76

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

She said to her, “Will you ready my suit tomorrow?"

  1. ((a))

    She asked her that if she would ready her suit tomorrow

  2. ((b))

    She asked her if she would ready her suit the next day.

  3. ((c))

    She asked her if she would ready her suit tomorrow.

  4. ((d))

    She said her if she would ready her suit tomorrow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

She asked her if she would ready her suit the next day.

The correct answer is 'She asked her if she would ready her suit the next day.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the question, we have to change it into Indirect Speech.
  • The process of transformation is as follows:
  • In the given sentence the reporting verb has an object. Hence, 'said to' will be changed into 'asked'.
  • Comma and inverted commas will be removed.
  • The conjunction 'if' will be added.
  • 'you' will be changed into 'She' because the second-person pronouns are changed according to the object of the reporting verb.
  • 'will' changes into 'would'.
  • 'tomorrow' will be changed into 'the next day'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: She asked her if she would ready her suit the next day.

77

Direction: In the following question, the sentence has been given Indirect/Direct Speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.

The gentleman requested the lady to have lunch with him.

  1. ((a))

    The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to had lunch with me?"

  2. ((b))

    The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"

  3. ((c))

    The gentleman says to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"

  4. ((d))

    The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you liked to have lunch with me?"

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. 'The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"'

Key Points  

  • The given sentence is in Indirect Speech. As per the given directions, we have to change it into Direct Speech.
  • As we have to transform the given sentence into an interrogative sentence, the process of transformation is as follows:
  • The comma and inverted commas will be added.
  • In the direct speech 'requested' will be changed into 'said to' because reporting verb has an object, 'the lady.'
  • The direct speech will begin like 'The gentleman said to the lady.'
  • Now, let's focus on the reported speech.
  • 'Could, would, or would like' are used as polite request in interrogative sentences are reported as: "Subject + Request, Advice + Object + to"
  • 'to have lunch' will be changed into 'Would you like to have lunch .'
  • Also, 'with him' will be changed into 'with me.'
  • Finally, the direct speech is 'The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"'
  • ​So, the correct answer is option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: The gentleman said to the lady, "Would you like to have lunch with me?"

78

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Scintillating

  1. ((a))

    Sparkling

  2. ((b))

    Craving

  3. ((c))

    Mourning

  4. ((d))

    Boring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sparkling

The correct answer is 'Sparkling'.

Key Points

  • The given word, 'scintillating', generally means sparkling or shining brightly. It can also be used metaphorically to mean excitingly clever or skillful. ('दामिनी' or 'चमकता हुआ').
  • Example: The diamond necklace was scintillating in the light.
  • The word 'sparkling', which is the correct synonym, conveys a similar sense of being bright, glittering or shining. It is often used to describe something that emits or reflects light in a quick, flashing manner. ('चमकता हुआ' or 'चमकीला').
  • Example: The night sky was filled with sparkling stars.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 1'.

Additional Information

  • 'Craving', signifies a strong desire or longing for something. ('इच्छा' or 'लालसा').
  • 'Mourning', refers to the act of expressing or feeling deep sorrow for someone who has died, often involving specific rituals or practices. ('शोक' or 'संवेदना').
  • 'Boring', means not interesting; tedious; causing a feeling of annoyance because it is not exciting. ('उबाऊ' or 'नीरस').
79

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

"Viper in one's bosom"

  1. ((a))

     A ruthless ambush

  2. ((b))

    A sudden and severe health condition

  3. ((c))

    The act of fostering or nurturing someone who proves to be traitorous, ungrateful, or harmful

  4. ((d))

    The act of keeping anger or bitterness to oneself

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The act of fostering or nurturing someone who proves to be traitorous, ungrateful, or harmful

The correct answer is "The act of fostering or nurturing someone who proves to be traitorous, ungrateful, or harmful".

Key Points

  • The idiom "Viper in one's bosom" is a phrase that originated from Aesop's fables.
  • It is used to describe a situation where someone has fostered, nurtured or trusted a person who turned out to be traitorous, ungrateful, or harmful. (अपने ही सीने में सांप पालना").
  • For Example: "After years of supporting her colleague, Jane discovered he was undermining her, a true 'viper in one's bosom'."

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 3".

80

स्वागत का सही संधि विच्छेद है-

  1. ((a))

    सु + वागत 

  2. ((b))

    स्व + आगत

  3. ((c))

    स + आगत

  4. ((d))

    सु + आगत

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सु + आगत

'स्वागत' के लिए सही संधि विच्छेद - सु + आगत

Key Points

  • ‘स्वागत’ में यण संधि है। ‘सु+आगत= स्वागत (उ+आ=व्)’, यहाँ पर ‘उ +आ’ मिलकर ‘व्’ बना है।
  • यण संधि में इ, ई, उ, ऊ तथा ऋ के बाद कोई अन्य स्वर आए तो ’इ-ई’ का ’य्’ ’उ’ ’ऊ’ का ’व्’ और ’ऋ’ का ’र्’ हो जाता है।

Additional Information

संधि - दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर, 2. व्यंजन और 3. विसर्ग,
संधिपरिभाषा
स्वरस्वर वर्ण के साथ स्वर वर्ण के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है। जैसे - विद्या + अर्थी = विद्यार्थी; महा + ईश = महेश।
व्यंजनएक व्यंजन से दूसरे व्यंजन या स्वर के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है। जैसे - अहम् + कार = अहंकार; उत् + लास = उल्लास।
विसर्गविसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है। जैसे - दुः + आत्मा = दुरात्मा; निः + कपट = निष्कपट।
81

सही वर्तनी कौन-सी है? 

  1. ((a))

    आजीविका

  2. ((b))

    अजीविका

  3. ((c))

    आजिविका

  4. ((d))

    अजीभीका

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

आजीविका

"आजीविका" शब्‍द की वर्तनी शुद्ध है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • आजीविका शुद्ध वर्तनी का शब्‍द है।
  • आजीविका का अर्थ- रोज़गार, धंधा
  • अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍पों में द‍िए गए शब्‍दों की वर्तनी अशुद्ध हैं।

Important Points

अशुध्‍द शब्‍दशुध्‍द शब्‍द
महत्‍वमहत्त्व
उज्‍जवलउज्‍ज्‍वल
कवियित्रीक‍वयित्री
रसायणरसायन
82

अव्ययीभाव समास का उदाहरण है:

  1. ((a))

    यथाशक्ति

  2. ((b))

    भरपेट

  3. ((c))

    प्रत्येक

  4. ((d))

    उक्त सभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उक्त सभी

यथाशक्ति, भरपेट व प्रत्येक अव्ययीभाव समास के उदाहरण है।

 

  • अव्ययीभाव समास - जब प्रथम पद प्रधान हो तथा समस्त पद क्रिया विशेषण अव्यय हो उसे अव्ययीभाव समास कहते हैं।

समास विग्रह -

  • यथाशक्ति =  शक्ति के अनुसार
  • भरपेट = पेट भर कर
  • प्रत्येक =  हर एक

Additional Information

  • दो या दो से अधिक सार्थक शब्दों के परस्पर मेल को  समास कहते है।

समास के छ: भेद हैं-

समासपरिभाषासमास-विग्रह उदाहरण
द्वंद्व समासइस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं। इसमें तथा, और, या, अथवा आदि शब्दों का लोप हो जाता है।शस्त्रास्त्र = शस्त्र और अस्त्र
द्विगु समासइस समास में पहला पद संख्यावाचक विशेषण होता है और दूसरा पद उसका विशेष्य होता है।अठन्नी = आठ आनों का समूह
तत्पुरुष समासइस समास में प्रथम पद गौण तथा द्वितीय पद प्रधान होता है।चर्मरोग = चर्म का रोग जन्मान्ध = जन्म से अन्धा
कर्मधारय समासइस समास में पहला पद विशेषण और दूसरा पद विशेष्य हो अथवा एक पद उपमान तथा दूसरा पद उपमेय होचरणकमल = कमल के समान चरण
अव्ययीभाव समासइस समास में पहला पद अव्यय होता है और पहला पद प्रधान भी होता है।
यथायोग्य = योग्यता के अनुसार
बहुव्रीहि समासइस समास में कोई भी पद प्रधान नहीं होता बल्कि समस्त पद किसी अन्य के विशेषण का कार्य करते हैं।दीर्घबाहु- दीर्घ हैं बाहु जिसके अर्थात् विष्णु
83

'उर्वशी' किसकी रचना है? 

  1. ((a))

    जय शंकर प्रसाद 

  2. ((b))

    महादेवी वर्मा 

  3. ((c))

    रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर' 

  4. ((d))

    सुमित्रा नंदन 'पंत' 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर' 

'उर्वशी' रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर'  की रचना है। 

स्पष्टीकरण: 

दिनकर की भाषा में हमेशा एक प्रत्यक्षता और सादगी दिखी है, परन्तु उर्वशी में भाषा की सादगी अलंकृति और आभिजात्य की चमक पहन कर आयी है-शायद यह इस कृति को वस्तु की माँग रही हो।

अन्य विकल्प: 

जय शंकर प्रसादकामायनी,कंकाल,तितली,लहर आदि।
महादेवी वर्मानिहार, नीरजा,रश्मि, दीपशिखा, अग्निरेखा आदि।
सुमित्रा नंदन 'पंत'वीणा', 'ग्रन्थि', 'पल्लव', 'गुंजन आदि।

विशेष: 

  • रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर' हिन्दी के प्रसिद्ध लेखक, कवि एवं निबंधकार थे।
  • उर्वशी के लिये उन्हें  "भारतीय ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार" प्राप्त हुुआ।
84

"हर्षचरित" के लेखक कौन हैं?

  1. ((a))

    सुबन्धु

  2. ((b))

    भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

  3. ((c))

    बाणभट्ट

  4. ((d))

    पाणिनि

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

बाणभट्ट

सही उत्तर बाणभट्ट है।

Key Points 

  • हर्षचरित भारतीय सम्राट हर्षवर्धन की जीवनी है, जिन्होंने 606 से 647 ईस्वी तक उत्तर भारत पर शासन किया और यह वर्धन वंश के शासक थे।
  • इसे बाणभट्ट द्वारा लिखा गया था, जो सातवीं शताब्दी सीई में एक संस्कृत लेखक थे और हर्षवर्धन के दरबारी कवि (अस्थाना कवि) थे।
  • यह बाणभट्ट की पहली रचना थी और संस्कृत भाषा में ऐतिहासिक काव्य रचनाओं के लेखन की शुरुआत का प्रतीक है।
  • यह काव्यात्मक गद्य में लिखा गया था जो आठ अध्यायों में सम्राट हर्ष की जीवनी का वर्णन करता है।
  • 1897 में एडवर्ड बाइल्स कॉवेल और फ्रेडरिक विलियम थॉमस द्वारा इसका अंग्रेजी में अनुवाद किया गया था।
85

गुरु गोविंद सिंह की प्रमुख कृतियों में से एक _________ थी।

  1. ((a))

    अर्यन्यक

  2. ((b))

    जापु साहिब

  3. ((c))

    गीता रहस्य

  4. ((d))

    ज्ञानेश्वरी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जापु साहिब

सही उत्तर: जापु साहिब

Key Points

  • गुरु गोविंद सिंह की प्रमुख कृतियाँ हैं - 'जापु साहिब', 'अकाल उसतति', ‘विचित्र नाटक', 'चंडी चरित्र', 'ज्ञान प्रबोध', 'शास्त्रनाममाला', 'चौपाई' ।
  • 'जफरनामा' 1706 ई० में औरंगजेब को लिखा गया पत्र है जो खूब प्रसिद्ध हुआ ।
  • हिंदी कवियों द्वारा उन्होंने पंजाब में वीर रस के काव्य का प्रणयन कराया और स्वयं भी काव्य की रचना की ।

Additional Information

  • गुरुगोविंद सिंह का जन्म बिहार की राजधानी पटना में सन् 1666 में हुआ।
  • उनका मूल नाम गोविंद राय था।
  • 1699 ई० में आनंदपुर के केशवगढ़ नामक स्थान पर दयाराम, धर्मदास, मुहमचंद, साहिबचंद, हिम्मत इन पाँच सिखों को मृत्युंजयी बनाकर 'सिंह' बनाया और गोविंद राय से गोविंद सिंह बने।
  • वे गुरु तेगबहादुर के शिष्य थे और औरंगजेब के समकालीन।
  • वे भलीभाँति समझ चुके थे कि औरंगजेब के विरुद्ध तबतक नहीं लड़ा जा सकता, जबतक औरंगजेब की कट्टरता का विरोध करने वाले को धार्मिक स्तर पर जागरूक न किया जाए ।
  • इसी उद्देश्य की सफलता के लिए उन्होंने 'खालसा पंथ' की स्थापना की, जो उनके जीवन की सबसे बड़ी सफलता है ।
  • 1708 ई० में उनका देहांत हो गया ।
86

Gitanjali is a collection of poems by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Rabindranath Tagore

  2. ((b))

    Taslima Nasrin

  3. ((c))

    Sunil Gangopadhyay

  4. ((d))

    Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rabindranath Tagore

The correct answer is option 1 i.e., Rabindranath Tagore

Key Points

  • Rabindranath Tagore (1861- 1941) was the youngest son of Debendranath Tagore, a leader of the Brahmo Samaj.
  • He is also known as "Guruji", "Bard of the Bengal", etc.
  • Gitanjali or "Song Offering" is a collection of poems by the Indian poet Rabindranath Tagore.
  • Rabindranath Tagore received the Nobel Prize for literature (1913), largely for the English translation of Song Offerings.
  • He was the first Asian to win the Nobel Prize.
WriterFamous works of literature
Rabindranath TagoreManasi (1890), Sonar Tari (1894), Gitimalya (1914), Balaka (1916), The Gardener (1913), Fruit-Gathering (1916), The Fugitive (1921).
Taslima NasrinLajja, Shodh, French Lover: A Novel.
Sunil GangopadhyayKrittibas, Nikhilesh, Neera, Atmaprakash, Desh, etc.
Bankim Chandra ChatterjeeVande Matram (composer), Rajsimha, Anandamath, Durgeshnandini, Kapalkundala, etc.
87

निम्नलिखित चार विकल्पों में से, उस विकल्प का चयन करें, जो दिए गए मुहावरे का सही अर्थ वाला विकल्प है।

छाती पर साँप लोटना

  1. ((a))

    ईर्ष्या करना

  2. ((b))

    अपमानित करना

  3. ((c))

    परम तृप्ति

  4. ((d))

    विलाप करना

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ईर्ष्या करना

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 ‘ईर्ष्या करना’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके गलत उत्तर हैं।

स्पष्टीकरण:

  • ‘छाती पर साँप लोटना’ मुहावरे का उचित अर्थ ‘ईर्ष्या करना’ होगा। दिए गए अन्य विकल्प असंगत उत्तर होंगे।
  • वाक्य- अपने रिश्तेदार की सफलता देखकर रोहन की छाती पर साँप लोट गया।

अन्य विकल्प:

मुहावराअर्थ
इज्जत उतारनाअपमानित करना
जी जुड़ानापरम तृप्ति
छाती पीटनाविलाप करना

Additional Information

मुहावरा परिभाषाउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है। हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोडकर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।आँख का तारा अर्थात बहुत प्यारा। वाक्य- हर बच्चा अपनी माँ की आँख का तारा होता है।
88

गौरव का विलोम शब्द

  1. ((a))

    लाघव

  2. ((b))

    लघुता

  3. ((c))

    लघूतव

  4. ((d))

    लघुतम

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

लाघव

गौरव का विलोम शब्द;- 'लाघव'

  • गौरव का अर्थ:  महत्त्व
  • लाघव का अर्थ: लघु होने का भाव

Key Pointsविलोम शब्द;- 

  • जो शब्द किसी दूसरे शब्द का उल्टा अर्थ बताते हैं, उन्हें विलोम शब्द या विपरीतार्थक शब्द या विरुद्धार्थी शब्द कहते है।
  • जैसे- हार- जीत, आय- व्यय, आजादी- गुलामी, नवीन- प्राचीन आदि।

अन्य विकल्प के अनुसार;- 

  • लघुता का विलोम- दीर्घता
  • लघुत्तम का विलोम- महत्तम
  • लघूतव शब्द अनुचित है।

Additional Information

महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द;- 

शब्दविलोम
ऊसरउर्वरा
आस्तिकनास्तिक
उत्कृष्टनिकृष्ट
इहलोकपरलोक
एकमुखीबहुमुखी
कर्कशमधुर
आदर्शयथार्थ
गणतंत्रराजतंत्र
कुसुमवज्र
89

'गजानन' में समास: 

  1. ((a))

    द्विगु 

  2. ((b))

    बहुव्रीहि 

  3. ((c))

    अव्ययीभाव 

  4. ((d))

    कर्मधारय

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बहुव्रीहि 

‘गजानन’ में 'बहुव्रीहि' समास है। शेष विकल्प गलत हैं । अतः सही विकल्प 2 ‘बहुव्रीहि’ है।

Key Points

  • 'गजानन' का समास विग्रह करने पर 'गज से आनन वाला' होगा।
  • इसमें 'गणेश' का सांकेतिक आने पर 'बहुव्रीहि समास' है।
  • 'बहुव्रीहि समास' में दोनों पद मिलकर किसी एक अर्थ विशेष की और संकेत करते हैं।

Additional Information

समास - समास उस प्रक्रिया को कहते हैं, जिसमें दो शब्द मिलाकर उनके बीच के संबंधसूचक आदि का लोप करके नया शब्द बनाया जाता है। समास से तात्पर्य 'संक्षिप्तीकरण' से है। समास के माध्यम से कम शब्दों में अधिक अर्थ प्रकट किया जाता है। जैसे - राजा का पुत्र – राजपुत्र, समास के छःप्रकार हैं -
समास का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्पुरुष समासजिस समास में उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तथा समास करने के उपरांत विभक्ति (कारक चिन्ह) का लोप हो।धर्म का ग्रन्थ = धर्मग्रन्थ, तुलसीदास द्वारा कृत = तुलसीदासकृत।
बहुव्रीहि समासजिस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान नहीं होते हैं और दोनों पद मिलकर किसी अन्य विशेष अर्थ की ओर संकेत कर रहे होते हैं।जो महान वीर है = महावीर अर्थात हनुमान, तीन आँखों वाला = त्रिलोचन अर्थात शिव।
कर्मधारय समासजिस समास के दोनों शब्दों के बीच विशेषण-विशेष्य अथवा उपमान-उपमेय का सम्बन्ध हो, पहचान: विग्रह करने पर दोनों पद के मध्य में 'है जो', 'के समान' आदि आते हैं।कमल के समान नयन = कमलनयन, महान है जो देव = महादेव।
द्विगु समासजिस समास में पूर्वपद (पहला पद) संख्यावाचक विशेषण हो।दो पहरों का समूह = दोपहर, तीनों लोकों का समाहार = त्रिलोक।
अव्यययीभाव समासजिस समास में पहला पद प्रधान हो और समस्त शब्द अव्यय का काम करे।प्रति + दिन = प्रतिदिन, एक + एक = एकाएक
द्वंद्व समासद्वन्द्व समास में समस्तपद के दोनों पद प्रधान हों या दोनों पद सामान हों एवं दोंनों पदों को मिलाते समय "और, अथवा, या, एवं" आदि योजक लुप्त हो जाएँ, वह समास द्वंद्व समास कहलाता है।माता- पिता = माता और पिता, हाँ- न = हाँ या न
90

The area of ​​a rectangular plot is 210 m2.  If its length is 21 meters, find its perimeter.

  1. ((a))

    620 m

  2. ((b))

    10 m

  3. ((c))

    31 m

  4. ((d))

    62 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

62 m

Give:

The area of a rectangular plot = 210 m2

length of plot = 21 m

Formula used :

The area of a rectangular plot = l × b

The perimeter of a rectangular plot = 2(l + b)

where l = length, b = breadth

Calculation :

⇒ 210 = 21 × b

⇒ b = 10 m

The perimeter of that plot = 2(l + b)

⇒ 2(21 + 10)

⇒ 2 × 31 = 62 m

∴ The perimeter of the rectangular plot is 62 meters.

91

Solve the following expression.

[7 + 30 ÷ 6 - (6 + 6) + 7]

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7

Given :

[7 + 30 ÷ 6 - (6 + 6) + 7]

BODMAS Rule:

BODMAS

Calculation :

[7 + 30 ÷ 6 - (6 + 6) + 7]

⇒ 7 + 5 - 12 + 7

⇒ 19 - 12

⇒ 7

∴ The answer is 7.

92

What are the sum and product of the roots of the equation x2 - 3x + 4 = 0?

  1. ((a))

    3, -4

  2. ((b))

    -3, -4

  3. ((c))

    -3, 4

  4. ((d))

    3, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3, 4

Given: 

Quadratic equation =  x2 - 3x + 4 = 0

Formula used:

Quadratic equation: ax2 + bx + c = 0

The sum of the roots = α + β = ba\dfrac{-b}{a}

Product of the roots = α × β = ca\dfrac{c}{a} 

Calculation:

The sum of the roots = α + β= (3)1\dfrac{-(-3)}{1} = 3

Product of the roots = α × β = 41\dfrac{4}{1} = 4

∴ 3 and 4 are the sum and product of the roots of the equation x2 - 3x + 4 = 0.

93

The LCM of the three numbers 16, 28 and 42 is:

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    168

  3. ((c))

    252

  4. ((d))

    336

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

336

Shortcut Trick

Perform Prime Factorization of the given numbers: 16 = 24, 28 = 22 × 7, and 42 = 2 × 3 × 7.

The LCM is obtained by multiplying the highest power of every prime factor present in the numbers.

Highest power of 2 is 24 = 16, power of 3 is 31 = 3, and power of 7 is 71 = 7.

LCM = 16 × 3 × 7 = 48 × 7 = 336.

∴ The correct answer is 336.

Alternate Method

Given numbers: 16, 28, and 42.

Method: Common Division Method

⇒ Divide by 2: 8, 14, 21

⇒ Divide by 2: 4, 7, 21

⇒ Divide by 2: 2, 7, 21

⇒ Divide by 2: 1, 7, 21

⇒ Divide by 3: 1, 7, 7

⇒ Divide by 7: 1, 1, 1

LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7

LCM = 16 × 21

LCM = 336

∴ The correct answer is 336.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF Relationship

For any two numbers a and b, their product is equal to the product of their LCM and HCF (a × b = LCM × HCF).

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The HCF of 16, 28, and 42 is 2, as it is the largest number that divides all three given integers without a remainder.

LCM of Fractions

The LCM of fractions = (LCM of numerators) ÷ (HCF of denominators).

94

If 78% of a number is added to 396, then the result is the number itself. Find the number.

  1. ((a))

    1825

  2. ((b))

    1750

  3. ((c))

    1850

  4. ((d))

    1800

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1800

Given:

0.78m + 396 = m

Calculation:

Let, number = m

0.78m + 396 = m

⇒ 396 = m - 0.78m 

⇒ 396 = 0.22m 

⇒ m = 396/0.22 = 1800

∴ The number is 1800.

95

Find the next number in the series.

2, 7, 24, 77, 238, ?

  1. ((a))

    723

  2. ((b))

    724

  3. ((c))

    722

  4. ((d))

    721

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

723

Given: 2, 7, 24, 77, 238,? 

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "723".

96

What is the total surface area of a cone whose radius is r4\frac{r}{4} and slant height is 4l ?

  1. ((a))

    4πr(l + r) 

  2. ((b))

    πr(l+r4)\pi r\left(l+\frac{r}{4}\right)

  3. ((c))

    πr(l+r16)\pi r\left(l+\frac{r}{16}\right)

  4. ((d))

    8πr(l + r) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

πr(l+r16)\pi r\left(l+\frac{r}{16}\right)

Given:

radius is r4\frac{r}{4} and slant height is 4l 

Concept Used:

TSA of cone = π r(r + l)

Solution:

According to the question, 

⇒ π (r/4)(r/4 + 4l)

⇒ π r(l + r/16)

∴ The TSA of Cone is  π r(l + r/16)

97

The value of 2tan245° + cos230° - sin260° is:

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))
    • 1
  4. ((d))
    • 2
Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

Given:

2tan245° + cos230° - sin260°

Concept used:

tan(45°) = 1,

cos(30°) = √3/2,

sin(60°) = √3/2,

Calculation:

⇒ 2tan245° = 2(1)2 = 2,

⇒ cos230° = (√3/2)2 = 3/4,

⇒ sin260 = (√3/2)2 = 3/4,

⇒ 2 + 3/4 - 3/4 = 2 + 0 = 2

Thus, the value is 2.

98

Peter borrowed Rs. 2000 from his friend at the rate for 3123\frac{1}{2}% per annum of 4 years. Find the amount to be paid at the end of 4 years.

  1. ((a))

    2240

  2. ((b))

    2290

  3. ((c))

    2260

  4. ((d))

    2280

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2280

Formula Used:

  1. Amount = Principal + Simple Interest 2. Simple Interest = P×R×T100\frac{P\times R\times T }{100}

Where P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time

Calculation:

P = 2000 , R = 3123\frac{1}{2} = 7/2 % , T = 4 years

Using the above formula -

⇒ Amount = 2000 + 2000×7×4200\frac{2000\times 7\times 4 }{200}

⇒ Amount = 2000 + 280 = 2280

∴ The correct answer is 2280.

99

The 3rd term of an A.P is 28 and the 11th term is 12 more than the 7th term. Find the 20th term.

  1. ((a))

    79

  2. ((b))

    62

  3. ((c))

    86

  4. ((d))

    89

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

79

Given:

a3 = 28

a11 = 12 + a7 

Concept used:

an = a + (n - 1)d

Calculation:

a3 = a + 2d = 28

⇒ a = 28 - 2d →(1)

Now, a11 = 12 + a7 

⇒ a + 10d = 12 + a + 6d

⇒ d = 3

From Eqn (1), 

a = 28 - 2 × 3

⇒ a = 28 - 6 = 22

an = a + (n - 1)d

a20 = 22 + 19(3)

⇒ 22 + 57 = 79

The 20th term is 79.

100

Which is the first Ramsar Site in Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Kaimur Range

  2. ((b))

    Kharagpur Lake

  3. ((c))

    Kanwar Lake

  4. ((d))

    Rajgir Hill

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kanwar Lake

The correct answer is Kanwar Lake.

Key Points

  • Kanwar lake or Kabartal Lake is situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar.
  • It is Asia’s largest oxbow lake.
  • It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the curving of the Burhi Gandak river
  • It has been declared as a Ramsar site in November 2020 and become the first Ramsar site in Bihar.
  • Kanwar Lake Bird sanctuary is home to 60 migratory birds that come from Central Asia in winter and recorded around 106 species of resident birds.

Important Points 

  • The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
  • The treaty was signed on 2 Feb 1971 in the city of Ramsar in Iran on the Caspian Sea, hence got the name Ramsar Convention.
  • India now has 91 Ramsar sites.

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