Bihar Police Constable Memory Based Paper (Held On: 1 Oct 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 26 miles and 385 yards

Key Points

• The Marathon is a long-distance foot race with a distance of 26 miles and 385 yards usually run as a road race, but the distance can be covered on trail routes.
• The Marathon can be completed by running or with a run/walk strategy. There are also wheelchair divisions.
• The Marathon has been an Olympic distance since the modern Olympics started in 1896, but nothing like it was ever seen in the ancient Olympics, run from 776 BC to 261AD.
• The marathon was one of the original modern Olympic events in 1896. The distance did not become standardized until 1921.

Additional Information 

• Ram Singh Yadav is an Indian marathon runner. Ram represented India at the 2012 Summer Olympics, in London.
• Nitendra Singh Rawat is one of the best marathoners in India.
• A barefooted long-distance runner from Bihar, Shivnath is the greatest Indian marathon runner.

The correct answer is Africa

Key Points

• Eritrea is a country located in the Horn of Africa region of Eastern Africa.
• It is bordered by Ethiopia in the south, Sudan in the west, and Djibouti in the southeast.
• Eritrea has an extensive coastline along the Red Sea in the northeast.
• Eritrea became the 182nd member of the United Nations on May 28, 1993, following a referendum in which the Eritrean people voted overwhelmingly in favour of independence from Ethiopia.
• The country was admitted to the UN as a full member on September 28, 1993.

Additional Information

United Nations:

• The UNO was formed on 24 October 1945.
• It was founded in San Francisco, USA.
• The headquarters were shifted to New York in 1946.
• At present, 193 countries are members of the UN.
• South Sudan is the latest and the 193rd member to join the UN in 2011.
• The UN Charter came into force on October 24, 1945, when the Governments of China, France, the UK, the Soviet Union, and the USA, and a majority of other counties had ratified it.

The correct answer is Dr. C. V. Raman

Key Points

Dr. C.V. Raman

• He was the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1930 for the discovery that when light traverses a transparent material, some of the light that is deflected changes in wavelength.
• In 1954, he was awarded the Bharat Ratna.
• He was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society early in his career (1924) and was knighted in 1929.

Additional Information 

Dr Vikram Sarabhai

• Dr Vikram Sarabhai is considered the Father of the Indian space program.
• He was instrumental in establishing the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad after returning from Cambridge to an independent India in 1947.

Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose

• Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose demonstrated that plants are also sensitive to heat, cold, light, noise, and various other external stimuli.
• He was the first Asian to be awarded a US patent in 1904.

Homi Jehangir Bhabha

• Homi Jehangir Bhabha was an Indian physicist who is often considered the father of the Indian nuclear program.
• In 1945, he founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, where initial research for India’s nuclear program began.

The correct answer is Europe

Key Points

• The continent that is often referred to as the Continent of Disparities is Europe.
• While Europe, overall, has achieved high levels of service coverage on par with OECD countries, some parts lag far behind.
• The countries of the WHO European region are extremely diverse in many ways, and they have developed a shared vision of a ‘European road’ to universal health coverage (UHC) based on equity, financial protection, and a focus on primary care.
• However, given the diversity of these 53 countries, their pathways to UHC have already taken very different roads.
• This is a pivotal moment for Europe, and it presents a great opportunity for policymakers to address the existing disparities across the continent.

Additional InformationThe Europe 

• Europe is the second smallest continent in the world, located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere and mostly in the Eastern Hemisphere.
• It shares the continental landmass of Afro-Eurasia with both Africa and Asia.
• Europe is bordered by the Arctic Ocean to the north, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, the Mediterranean Sea to the south, and Asia to the east.
• The continent has over 40 countries.
• The Prime Meridian passes through London in the United Kingdom.
• The European climate is largely affected by warm Atlantic currents that temper winters and summers on much of the continent, even at latitudes along which the climate in Asia and North America is severe.
• European culture is the root of Western civilization, which traces its lineage back to ancient Greece and ancient Rome.
• The fall of the Western Roman Empire in 476 CE and the related Migration Period marked the end of Europe’s ancient history and the beginning of the Middle Ages.
• The Italian Renaissance began in Florence and spread to the rest of the continent, bringing a renewed interest in humanism, exploration, art, and science which contributed to the beginning of the modern era.

The correct answer is textile

Key Points

• India is the largest exporter of textiles in the world.
• In FY 2021-22, India’s textile exports were valued at $44.4 billion, which is the highest-ever recorded value.

Important Points

Textile in India 

• The textile industry in India is one of the oldest and most important industries in the country.
• It is the only industry apart from agriculture that has generated huge employment for both skilled and unskilled labour.
• The textile industry continues to be the second-largest employment-generating sector in India, offering direct employment to over 35 million people in the country.
• India is the world’s second-largest exporter of textiles and clothing, and in the fiscal year 2022, the exports stood at $44.4 billion.
• The Indian textile industry produces a wide range of textiles, from traditional handloom and handcrafted textiles to modern, high-tech textiles.
• The sector is also a key contributor to the country’s economy, with a current contribution of around 1% of GDP.
• India is the largest producer of cotton and jute in the world and is also the world’s second-largest producer of silk.

The correct answer is Hawaiian Islands

Key PointsHawaiian Islands

• The Hawaiian Islands are an archipelago of eight major volcanic islands, several atolls, and numerous smaller islets in the North Pacific Ocean, extending some 1,500 miles (2,400 kilometres) from the island of Hawaiʻi in the south to northernmost Kure Atoll 12.
• The islands are about 1,860 miles (3,000 km) from the nearest continent and are part of the Polynesia subregion of Oceania.
• The eight main islands of Hawaii are Hawaiʻi, Maui, Kahoʻolawe, Lānaʻi, Molokaʻi, Oʻahu, Kauaʻi, and Niʻihau.

Additional InformationFiji Islands

• The Fiji Islands are an archipelago of more than 330 islands in the South Pacific Ocean, with a diverse population of about 926,000 1. The two major islands are Viti Levu and Vanua Levu.
• The archipelago enjoys a tropical marine climate with only slight seasonal temperature variations.

Greenland

• Greenland is a North American autonomous territory of the Kingdom of Denmark.
• It is the world’s largest island and the northernmost area of the world.
• The archipelago consists of more than 330 islands in the South Pacific Ocean, with a diverse population of about 926,000.
• The two major islands are Viti Levu and Vanua Levu.
• Greenland has a rich and diverse cultural heritage of Arctic peoples.

Tuvalu

• Tuvalu is a Polynesian micro-state comprising nine dispersed, low-lying islets and atolls in the South Pacific Ocean.
• It is situated about midway between Hawaii and Australia and lies east-northeast of the Santa Cruz Islands (which belong to the Solomon Islands), northeast of Vanuatu, southeast of Nauru, south of Kiribati, west of Tokelau, northwest of Samoa and Wallis and Futuna, and north of Fiji.
• The total land area of the islands of Tuvalu is 26 square kilometres (10 sq mi).
• The country has a population of about 10,645 people.
• Tuvalu is known for its unique culture, which is based on traditional Polynesian customs and practices.

The correct answer is Africa.

Key Points

• The only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, the Equator, and the Tropic of Capricorn pass is Africa.
• The Equator, Tropic of Cancer, and Tropic of Capricorn all pass through the continent of Africa.
• Out of all the seven continents, the second largest continent of Africa is the only continent through which all the three imaginary lines i.e., the equator, the tropic of Cancer, and the tropic of Capricorn pass.

Additional Information

• Africa's continent covers deserts like the Sahara desert, the Namib desert, and the Kalahari desert.
• The Sahara desert is the largest hot desert in the world. It has the longest river in the world named the Nile.
• The Savanna is a grassy plain found in this continent which covers nearly half of Africa. The savanna has scattered trees among a landscape of grasses and shrubs.
• It is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, Equator, and Tropic of Capricorn pass. This is the reason it experiences a sunny climate.
• Two-thirds part of Africa lies in the northern hemisphere and one-third part lies in the southern hemisphere.

The correct answer is a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - V

Key Points

The correct matches are:

(a) Land of the Rising Sun - Japan

(b) Land of the Midnight Sun - Norway

(c) Land of Thousand Lakes - Finland

(d) Land of Thunderbolt - Bhutan

The correct answer is As a Union of States

Key Points

The Union and its Territories:

• Article 1 describes India, i.e. Bharat, as a Union of States.
• According to Article 1, the Territory of India can be classified into three categories:
• Territories of the States.
• Union Territories.
• Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
• At present, there are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country.
• Article 2 empowers the Parliament to admit into the Union of India, or establish new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
• It is because our constitution delegates powers to both the Centre and the State, yet more power lies with the Centre.
• After independence, India was formed by the decision of princely states who decided to join India and thus form a union of states.
• Article 1 of the constitution states that India shall be a Union of states.

 Thus, we can say that the term used by the Constitution of India to describe India is the Union of the States.

The correct answer is 15th June, 2005

Key Points 

• The Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted by the Parliament and has come into force from 15 June 2005.
• The RTI Bill was passed by the Parliament of India on 15 June 2005.
• Every day on average, over 4800 RTI applications are filed.
• This act was enacted to consolidate the fundamental right in the Indian constitution's freedom of speech.

Important Points 

• Article 19 states that "Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression, this right includes freedom to hold opinions without interference and to seek, receive and impart information and ideas through any media and regardless of frontiers".
• The right to Information Act, of 2005 comes under the Right to freedom of speech.
• The right to Freedom is a Fundamental Right that comes under Article 19 to Article 22.

The correct answer is appointed by the President of India

Key Points

The Pro tem Speaker: 

• Pro-tem is a Latin phrase that means for the time being.
• The Pro tem Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a limited period of time.
• The speaker of the Lok Sabha/legislative assembly vacates the office immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected house.
• The president/governor appoints the pro-tem speaker to preside over the sittings of the newly elected house. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Usually, the senior-most member of the house is made the pro-tem speaker.
• Pro-tem is a Latin phrase that translates to for the time being in English and so the Pro-tem Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a limited period of time.
• Pro-tem speaker is chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place.
• The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha, administers the oath of office to the newly elected MPs, and oversees the election of the Speaker.
• Once the new Speaker is elected, the office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist. He also administers the floor test.
• After a general election and the formation of a new government, a list of senior Lok Sabha members prepared by the Legislative Section is submitted to the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, who selects a pro-tem speaker.
• The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the Parliament is held under the pro-tem Speaker

Additional Information 

Duties of pro tem speaker:

• The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha and administers the oath of office to the newly elected MPs.
• To conduct the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker.
• On the election of a new Speaker, the office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist.
• He also administers the floor test.

The correct answer is M. N. Roy

Key Points

• The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India for the first time was put forward by M.N. Roy was a pioneer of the communist movement in India in 1934.
• On behalf of the Indian National Congress, Jawaharlal Nehru declared that the Constitution of free India must be framed by a Constituent Assembly elected based on the adult franchise without outside interference.
• At the point when this interest was acknowledged by the August Offer Sir Stafford Cripps, an individual from the bureau, came to India in 1942 with a draft proposal of the British Government on the outlining of an autonomous Constitution to be received after World War II.
• As the Muslim League wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies, they rejected the Cripps Proposals.
• Under this scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan, in November 1946, the Constituent Assembly was constituted. The Constituent Assembly was to be a partly nominated and partly elected body.

Important Points 

• The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July-August 1946.
• 208 seats were won by the Indian National Congress, 73 seats by the Muslim League, and 15 by the small groups and independents.
• However, the princely states were allotted 93 seats but these were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly.

The correct answer is Part - IVA

Key Points

• Fundamental duties are the duties that need to be performed by each individual. However, it’s the right of a person if he wants to pursue fundamental duties.
• The main features of Fundamental Duties are as follows:
• It was recommended by the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
• It was added to the Indian Constitution after the 42nd Amendment also known as the Mini Constitution.
• It is 11 in number stated under Article 51-A in Part - IVA

Hence, we conclude that the Fundamental Duties are in part IV-A of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information 

The following are the fundamental duties stated in the Indian Constitution:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
• to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
• Parent or guardian provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

The correct answer is Article 227

Key Points

• The powers of superintendence over all subordinate courts are given to the High Court under Article 227 of the Indian Constitution.
• This article empowers every High Court to have superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories about which it exercises jurisdiction.
• The High Court has the power to call for returns from such courts, make and issue general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of such courts, and prescribe forms in which books, entries, and accounts shall be kept by the officers of any such courts.

Article 227: Power of superintendence over all courts by the High Court - Constitution. 

Additional InformationArticle 226

• Article 226 of the Indian Constitution gives High Courts the power and ability to enforce any of the basic fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution of India, 1949, or for any other reason.
• Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed before any High Court within whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises, either wholly or in part. It is immaterial if the authority against whom the writ petition is filed is within the territory or not.

Article 228

• Article 228 deals with the transfer of certain cases to High Court If the High Court is satisfied that a case pending in a court subordinate to it involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case

Article 229

• Article 229 of the Indian Constitution deals with the officers and servants and the expenses of High Courts.
• It empowers the Chief Justice of the High Court to make appointments to various positions in the judicial and civil services of a state, subject to consultation with the State Public Service Commission in some cases.
• This article helps to ensure the independence and fairness of the judiciary and the civil service.

The correct answer is The elected members of the Legislative Assembly

Key Points

The Rajya Sabha

• It functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament.
• The Rajya Sabha can also initiate legislation and a bill is required to pass through the Rajya Sabha to become law.
• It, therefore, has an important role in reviewing and altering (if alterations are needed) the laws initiated by the Lok Sabha.
• The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states.
• There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President.
• Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the people, that is, by the MLAs.
• Members of a state's Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system.
• Each MLA’s vote is counted only once.
• To win a Rajya Sabha seat, a candidate should get the required number of votes.
• hat number is found using the below formula. Required vote = Total number of votes / (Number of Rajya Sabha seats + 1 ) + 1.

Additional Information 

• The Rajya Sabha or the Upper House of Parliament is modeled after the House of Lords in the United Kingdom.
• Composition of the House: Article 80 of the Constitution has provisions for members of the Rajya Sabha. Currently, it has 245 members, including 233 elected members and 12 nominated. As per the constitutional limit, the Upper House strength cannot exceed 250.
• The number of Rajya Sabha members a state can send depends on its population. Hence, the number of elected seats changes as states are merged, bifurcated or new ones are created.
• Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India in the fields of art, literature, science, and social service.
• The Vice-President is the ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Deputy Chairman, who is elected from amongst the house's members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman.
• Tenure of members: Every Rajya Sabha MP has a tenure of six years and elections to one-third of seats are held every two years.
• According to Section 154 of the Representation of the People Act 1951, a member who has chosen to fill a casual vacancy will serve for the remainder of his predecessor's term of office.
• Permanent house: The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, is not subjected to dissolution. However, the Rajya Sabha, like the Lok Sabha can be prorogued by the President.

The correct answer is The Supreme Court

Key PointsThe Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial body of India and the highest court of India under the constitution. It is the most senior constitutional court and has the power of judicial review.

Important Points

The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.

• According to Article 139A of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the right to transfer any case anywhere in the territory of India.
• The Supreme Court can also withdraw the case or cases pending before the High Court and dispose of all the cases to itself.
• It can directly transfer any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court.
• Article 32 of the Constitution gives extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court with enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• It is empowered to issue directions, orders, or writs, including writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari to enforce them.
• While transferring a case Supreme Court takes all the measures to uphold fairness and principles of natural justice.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

Local governments play a crucial role in fulfilling the needs of the local people and ensuring their well-being. However, they face several challenges that hinder their effectiveness. 

1. Irregular elections: The irregularity of Gram Sabha elections undermines public participation and accountability. Infrequent elections lead to a lack of fresh perspectives and hinder the responsiveness of Gram Sabhas to the evolving needs of the community.
2. Limited power transfer: Despite decentralization efforts, state governments often retain significant control over local affairs, limiting the autonomy of local bodies. This restricts their ability to make decisions tailored to their specific context and address local issues effectively.
3. Resource constraints: Local governments often struggle with inadequate financial resources to fulfill their responsibilities. This lack of funding impedes their ability to provide essential services, infrastructure development, and other initiatives that improve the quality of life for residents.
4. Inefficiencies and corruption: Local governments are not immune to inefficiencies and corruption, which can further hinder their ability to deliver effective services and utilize resources responsibly. These issues can erode public trust and undermine the overall effectiveness of local governance.

The correct answer is demand-pull inflation

Key Points

• The term for a steady increase in the general level of prices as a result of an excessive increase in aggregate demand as compared to aggregate supply is demand-pull inflation.
• This type of inflation occurs when economic growth is too fast, and aggregate demand rises faster than productive capacity.
• This creates a condition where there are “too many dollars chasing too few goods”.
• When demand surpasses supply, higher prices are the result.

Additional InformationCost-push inflation

• Cost-push inflation is a type of inflation that occurs when overall prices increase due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials.
• This type of inflation can be caused by unexpected or expected events such as natural disasters, strikes, or government policies.
• When the cost of production increases, producers raise the price of their products to maintain profit levels while keeping pace with expected demand.

Stagflation

• Stagflation is an economic cycle characterized by slow growth, high unemployment, and rising prices.
• This phenomenon presents a dilemma for economic policymakers, as actions intended to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment.
• Stagflation has occurred repeatedly in the developed world since the 1970s oil crisis.
• The term was first used by British politician Iain Macleod in a speech before the House of Commons in 1965.

Structural inflation

• Structural inflation is a type of inflation that results from changes in the structure of demand and supply.
• Under the influence of changes in the structure of demand and supply, some branches will experience an increase in demand for their products, while in the case of others, this demand will fall.
• Lack of adequate supply responses or production to increase in demand is the cause of structural inflation.
• This type of inflation is prevalent in most developing countries.

The correct answer is Capital receipts and payments

Key Points

• The current account is a part of the balance of payments (BOP) that records a country’s transactions with the rest of the world in goods, services, income, and current transfers.
• The current account balance shows whether a country is a net creditor or debtor to the rest of the world and whether it has a surplus or deficit in its trade and income flows.
• The four major components of a current account are goods, services, income, and current transfers.

Therefore, capital receipts and payments do not form a part of the current account of Balance of Payments.

Additional Information

The Balance of payments (BoP)

• It records the transactions in goods, services, and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified period typically a year.

There are two main accounts in the BoP

• The current account
• The current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.
• The capital account
• The capital account records all international purchases and sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc.

The correct answer is export of goods is less than import of goods 

Key Points

• Trade deficit is a term used to describe a situation where the value of a country’s export of goods is less than import of goods during a given period.
• It is also referred to as a negative balance of trade (BOT).
• The balance can be calculated on different categories of transactions: goods, services, goods and services.
• Trade deficits can have advantages and disadvantages depending on impacts on production, jobs, national security, and how they are financed.

The Impact of Trade Deficit

• Initially, a trade deficit can enhance the standard of living as it offers residents access to a wider variety of products.
• If a trade deficit continues for an extended period, the government may need to source more foreign exchange to bridge the gap, leading to the depreciation of the local currency.
• A significant trade deficit necessitates finding foreign investors to help reduce the import-export gap.
• A high trade deficit can lead to job outsourcing to foreign countries as more imports reduce job opportunities locally.
• The demand for imported goods can cause a decline in demand for local products, leading to factory closures and job losses.

Benefits of Trade Deficit

A trade deficit does come with some advantages, including:

• It allows a country to consume more than its production capacity.
• It helps nations to avoid any shortage in goods.
• Trade deficit provides countries with a comparative advantage, increasing global wealth.
• It can lead to increased foreign direct investment.

The correct answer is RBI

Key Points

• The base rate is the minimum rate of interest set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) below which banks are not allowed to lend funds to their customers.
• The RBI rules specify that unless there is a government mandate, no bank may offer loans at an interest rate lower than the base rate.
• The base rate is regarded as the standard lending rate which is offered by commercial banks to their borrowers.
• It is determined to increase transparency and to ensure that the banks pass the benefit of lower interest rates to their customers.
• The base rate is calculated only after considering all the risk factors.
• It is fixed by an individual bank, hence it varies from bank to bank.
• Banks should revise the base rate at least once every quarter or more than once a quarter at their convenience.

The correct answer is Commercial Banks.

Key Points

• Within the agriculture sector the allied sectors like horticulture, animal husbandry, dairy and fisheries, have an important bearing on the overall economic growth.
• Public sector lending (PSL) is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), making it a requirement for domestic and foreign banks to offer loans to specific sectors and sub-sectors within the nation’s economy.
• Priority Sector includes the following categories:
• Agriculture
• Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
• Export Credit
• Education
• Housing
• Social Infrastructure
• Renewable Energy
• Others
• At present, institutional agricultural credit is mainly disbursed by commercial banks, cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) under the multi-agency approach.
• The commercial banks disburse around 60% credit followed by cooperative banks around 30% and RRB and others.

Additional Information

• As per RBI directions, Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks are required to lend 18% of the Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent to Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher, towards agriculture.
• Similarly, in the case of Regional Rural Banks, 18% of their total outstanding advances are required to be towards agriculture and a sub-target of 8% has been set for lending to small and marginal farmers.
• India set a target of making available agricultural credit of up to Rs 15 lakh crore in the financial year 2020-21.

The correct answer is Sukumar Sen

Key Points

• The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India. The Election Commission of India conducts the election for the centre and state legislature and for the President and Vice president.
• Sukumar Sen (2 January 1898 – 13 May 1963) was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958.

• Under his leadership, the Election Commission successfully administered and oversaw independent India's first two general elections, in 1951–52 and in 1957.
• He also served as the first Chief Election Commissioner in Sudan.

The correct answer is base rate

Key Points

• The Base Rate is the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it is not viable to lend.

Additional Information Prime Lending Rate:

• It is the interest rate that commercial banks normally charge (or we can say they were expected to charge) their most credit-worthy customers.
• The Base Rate is the minimum interest rate of a Bank below which it cannot lend, except in cases allowed by RBI. The base rate system has replaced the BPLR system with effect from July 1, 2010.

Deposit rate

• The deposit interest rate is the percentage of profit you earn on your money in an interest-bearing account with a financial institution.
• The interest rate offered by banks and other financial institutions on deposits can vary depending on the type of deposit account, the amount of deposit, and the tenure of the deposit

Bank rate

• The bank rate is the rate of interest at which a central bank lends money to commercial banks, usually in the form of long-term loans.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and determines the bank rate in India.
• The bank rate is used by the central bank to control the money supply in the economy and influence economic activity.
• The bank rate is usually higher than the repo rate on account of its ability to regulate liquidity

The correct answer is Export-Import Banks

Key Points

• National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) refinances State Land Development Banks, State Cooperative Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Commercial Banks and other financial institutions approved by the Reserve Bank of India.
• Hence, it doesn't refinance Export-Import Banks

NABARD 

• NABARD refers to the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.
• NABARD was formed on the recommendation of the committee formed on 30 March 1979, under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman.
• It came into existence on 12 July 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
• NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India.
• NABARD Facts:-
• | Founded | 12 July 1982 | | --- | --- | | Headquarter | Mumbai, India | | Chairman | Dr. G.R. Chintala |

Additional InformationExport-Import Banks

• Exim Bank was established by the Government of India, under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981 as a purveyor of export credit, mirroring global Export Credit Agencies.
• EXIM Bank stands for Export-Import Bank of India.
• Exim Bank serves as a growth engine for industries and SMEs through a wide range of products and services.
• This includes import of technology and export product development, export production, export marketing, pre-shipment and post-shipment, and overseas investment.
• Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) was set up in 1982 by an Act of Parliament for financing, facilitating, and promoting India's foreign trade.
• It is the principal financial institution in the country for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in financing exports and imports.
• Mr. David Rasquinha is Managing Director of EXIM Bank.
• Its headquarters are in Mumbai.
• Exim Bank supplements its financing programs with a wide range of value-added information, advisory, and support services, which enable exporters to evaluate international risks, exploit export opportunities and improve competitiveness, thereby helping them in their globalization efforts.

The correct answer is When imports are greater than exports

Key Points

• The problem of an unfavourable balance of payment arises when the value of imports exceeds the value of exports in a country.
• This means that the country is spending more money on buying goods and services from abroad than it is earning from selling goods and services to other countries.
• It is also known as the balance of payment deficit.
• Some possible causes of unfavourable balance of payments are high inflation, trade restrictions by other countries, and low competitiveness.

 

Additional Information

Balance of payment deficit

• A balance of payment deficit is a situation in which the payments a country makes are more than the payments it receives.
• Essentially, more money leaves the country than is brought into it, and the country suffers a decrease in its supply of money.
• It is also known as a balance of payment gap.
• A balance of payment deficit can arise if a country imports more capital, goods, and services than it exports.
• This deficit can be balanced by utilizing the country’s foreign exchange reserves to meet the balance of payment shortfall.
• If the deficit continues for a long time, it can lead to inflation and a lower standard of living.

Given:

 The 

There are a total of 36562 army men.

Calculation:

∴The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 81.

Given:

The 10th term of the sequence a, a - b, a - 2b, a - 3b,......is 20. The 20th term is 10.

Calculation:

10^th term = a - 9b = 20    --(1)

20^th term = a - 19b = 10   ---(2)

On subtracting equation (2) from (1):

a - 9b - (a - 19b) = 20 - 10

⇒ a - 9b - a + 19b = 10

⇒ 10b = 10

⇒ b = 1

From equation (1):

a - 9 (1) = 20

⇒ a = 20 + 9 = 29

Now, x^th term = a - (x - 1)b

⇒ 29 - (x - 1) (1) 

⇒ 29 - x + 1 = 30 - x

∴ The xth term of the sequence is 30 - x.

Given:

6x2 - x - 2 = 0 

Calculation:

6x2 - x - 2 = 0

⇒ 6x2 - 4x + 3x - 2 = 0

⇒ 2x(3x - 2) + 1(3x - 2)

⇒ (2x + 1)(3x - 2) = 0 

So, 2x + 1 = 0 and 3x - 2 = 0

⇒ x = $-\frac{1}{2}$ and x = $\frac{2}{3}$

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Total time = 5 hours and Speed of river = 1 km/hour

Total time to go to a certain point and come back = 75 minutes.

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let the distance to the point be x km.

When swimming downstream, the swimmer's speed = (5 + 1) = 6 km/h.

When swimming upstream, the swimmer's speed = (5 - 1) = 4 km/h

The total time taken = 75 minutes = $\dfrac{75}{60}$ = 1.25 hours = 1$\dfrac{1}{4}$

Now, T₁ + T₂ = T

⇒ $\dfrac{\text{x}}{6} + \dfrac{\text{x}}{4}$ = $\dfrac{5}{4}$.

⇒ 4x + 6x = 30.

⇒ 10x = 30.

⇒ x =$\dfrac{30}{10}$ = 3 km.

∴ The place is 3 km away from the starting point.

Given:

Speed of four successive distances = 10 km/hour, 20 km/hour, 30 km/hour and 60 km/hour.

Total Distance = 7 km.

Formula used:

Average Speed = Total Distance /Total Time

Calculation:

For the first 7 km at a speed of 10 km/hour:

time₁ = $\dfrac{7}{10}$

For the next 7 km at a speed of 20 km/hour:

time₂ = $\dfrac{7}{20}$

For the next 7 km at a speed of 30 km/hour:

time₃ =$\dfrac{7}{30}$

For the last 7 km at a speed of 60 km/hour:

time₄ = $\dfrac{7}{60}$

Total time = $\dfrac{7}{10} + \dfrac{7}{20} + \dfrac{7}{30} + \dfrac{7}{60}$ 

⇒ $\dfrac{42 +21 +14 +7 }{60}$ ⇒ $\dfrac{84 }{60}$ 

Total distance covered = 7 km + 7 km + 7 km + 7 km = 28 km

Average speed = $\dfrac{28}{ \dfrac{84}{60} }$ = 20 km/hour

∴ The average speed over this distance is 20 km/hour.

Given:

The radius of sector (r) = 7 cm

Central angle (θ) = 60° 

Formula Used:

Area of sector = πr2 × $\dfrac{60}{360}$

Calculation:

Area of sector = $\dfrac{22}{7}$× 7 × 7 × $\dfrac{60}{360}$

⇒ Area of sector =$\dfrac{77}{3}$ cm2

∴ Required area of the sector is $\dfrac{77}{3}$ cm2

Given:

80% of A = 50% of B and B = x% of A

Calculation:

80% of A = 50% of B.

⇒ $\dfrac{80}{100}$ A = $\dfrac{50}{100}$ B

⇒ 8A = 5B

⇒ $\dfrac{A}{B} = \dfrac{5}{8}$

∴ B = $\dfrac{8}{5} \times 100$ = 160 

So, the value of x is 160.

Shortcut Trick

Current Ratio of Father to Son = 4 : 1 (Difference = 3 units)

Ratio 5 years ago = 5 : 1 (Difference = 4 units)

Equate the differences by multiplying current ratio by 4 and past ratio by 3:

New Present Ratio = 16 : 4 | New Past Ratio = 15 : 3

Difference in units = 16 − 15 = 1 unit → 5 years

Father's present age = 16 units × 5 = 80 years.

∴ The correct answer is 80 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present age of Father = 4 × Son's age

Age 5 years ago: (Father − 5) = 5 × (Son − 5)

Calculations:

Let the present age of the Son be x years.

⇒ Present age of the Father = 4x years.

⇒ 5 years ago, Son's age = (x − 5) years.

⇒ 5 years ago, Father's age = (4x − 5) years.

According to the problem:

⇒ 4x − 5 = 5 × (x − 5)

⇒ 4x − 5 = 5x − 25

⇒ 5x − 4x = 25 − 5

⇒ x = 20

⇒ Father's present age = 4 × 20 = 80 years.

∴ The correct answer is 80 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The numerical difference between the ages of two individuals always remains the same throughout their lives, regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio Balancing Method

To solve age problems quickly, ensure the difference between the ratio terms is the same for both time periods by multiplying with the cross-difference (Difference 1 × Ratio 2 and vice versa).

Sum of Ages

If the sum of ages of n people is S at present, then t years ago, the sum was (S − n × t).

According to given information,

Hence, Vikram is in South-West direction of R.

Number of Triangles in the given figure,

There are total 19 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "19".

The logic follows here:

Parliament : Great Britain → ‘Parliament’ is the name of the Great Britain Parliament.

Similarly,

Congress : USA → ‘Congress’ is the name of the USA Parliament.

Hence, the correct answer is "USA".

The correct answer is 25 Ω

Key Points

Given that the electric heater does 200 J of work in 2 seconds and the current in the circuit is 2 A, we can calculate the resistance of the heater using the formula for the heating effect of electric current.

The heat dissipated is given by:

Heat (H) = I² × R × t 

where I is the current flowing in the circuit, R is the resistance of the circuit, and t is the time taken. Substituting the given values, we get:

Heat (H) = 2² ×  R × 2 = 8R

Since the heat dissipated is 200 J, we have:

8R = 200

R = 25 Ω

Therefore, the resistance of the electric heater is 25 Ω.

The correct answer is in parallel

Key Points

• The different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel.
• It has the following advantages
• If one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect, then all other appliances keep working properly.
• Each electrical appliance has its own switch due to which it can be turned on or turned off independently, without affecting other appliances.
• Each electrical appliance gets the same voltage as that of the power supply line.
• The potential difference across each appliance is equal to the supplied voltage in a parallel connection.

The correct answer is zero

Key Points

• For a body in circular motion, the displacement of the object is equal to the length of the shortest path between the final and the initial points.
• If the body comes back to its original position, then the displacement of the body is zero.
• In this case, the body completes two revolutions along the circular path.
• Therefore, it returns to its initial position after completing one revolution.
• Hence, the displacement of the body is zero.

Additional Information

Displacement:

• It is the shortest distance covered by a body in a definite direction.
• It is a vector quantity.
• It can be positive, Negative or Zero.
• The unit of displacement is a meter(m).

The correct answer is 1.8 sec.

Key Points

The time taken by an object to fall freely under gravity is given by the formula: t = √(2h/g)

where:

t is the time taken to fall

h is the height of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity (≈ 9.8 m/s²)

In this case, h = 16 m and g = 9.8 m/s², so:

t = √(2 * 16 m / 9.8 m/s²) ≈ 1.8 s

Therefore, the object will take approximately 1.8 seconds to strike the ground.

The correct answer is Servants of India society.

Key Points 

• In 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded 'The Servants of India Society'. 
• The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune on June 12, 1905, for the expansion of Indian education.
• Servants of India Society's aim was to unite and train Indians of different ethnicities and religions in welfare work.
• It was the first secular organization in that country to devote itself to the underprivileged, rural and tribal people, and other social causes.
• Members go through a five-year training period and agree to serve on extremely modest salaries.

Additional Information 

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a great social reformer and educationist who provided exemplary leadership to India's freedom movement.
• He worked towards social empowerment, expansion of education, and struggle for freedom in India for three decades and rejected the use of reactionary or revolutionary ways.
• Between 1899 and 1902, he was a member of the Bombay Legislative Council followed by work at the Imperial Legislative Council from 1902 till his death (1915).
• At the Imperial legislature, Gokhale played a key role in framing the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
• He was associated with the Moderate Group of the Indian National Congress (joined in 1889).
• He was also associated with the Sarvajanik Sabha journal started by Govind Ranade.
• In 1908, Gokhale founded the Ranade Institute of Economics.
• He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The People's paper).
• He became president of INC in 1905 in the Banaras session.

The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar

Key Points

• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Federation (DCF) in 1930.
• He established the Independent Labour Party (ILP) in 1935.
• The first convention of Depressed Classes changed into convened on November 11, 1917, via way of means of Justice Chandravarkar.
• The convention pleaded the needs of untouchables earlier than the government.
• The first All India Depressed Classes convention was changed into held in Bombay on March 23, 1918, under the Chairmanship of Maharaja Shivajirao of Baroda.
• It changed into attended via way of means of many distinguished leaders.

Additional Information

• Ambedkar fought against caste-based prejudice in society and supported the organisation of Dalits to demand their rights. 
• He advocated for Dalit education and represented this cause before the government in several ways.
• He participated in the 1925 work of the Simon Commission as a member of the Bombay Presidency Committee.
• In order to encourage Dalit education and socioeconomic advancement, he founded the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha. Magazines like Mooknayak, Equality, Janta, and Bahishkrit Bharat were founded by him.
• He started an intensive campaign against untouchability in 1927. He organised and campaigned for Dalits' rights to access public water sources and enter temples. He denounced Hindu texts that, in his opinion, supported caste prejudice.
• He supported separate electoral districts for the "Depressed Classes," as Dalits were known at the time.
• At the time, he disagreed with Mahatma Gandhi since Gandhi was opposed to all forms of racial discrimination in the electorate.
• Gandhi fasted in Yerwada Jail after the British government issued the "Communal Award" in 1932.
• Gandhi and Ambedkar signed a contract in the prison committing to provide reserved seats for the underprivileged sections of the general electorate. It was known as the Poona Pact.
• Ambedkar launched the Independent Labour Party in 1936, which eventually changed its name to the Scheduled Castes Federation.
• In 1937, he campaigned for the Central Legislative Assembly from Bombay.
• Following India's independence in 1947, he ran for office from Bombay (north-central).

The correct answer is The Mundaka Upanishad

Key Points

• "Satyamev Jayate" means 'Truth alone triumphs'.
• It is a part of the mantra of the Hindu scripture- Mundaka Upanishad.
• It was adopted as the motto of India on 26 January 1950.
• It is inscribed in Devanagari script at the base of the national emblem.
• The emblem and the words 'Satyamev Jayate' are inscribed on one side of all Indian currency.

 Thus, we can say that the words 'Satyamev Jayate' were taken in the state Emblem of India from the Upanishads.

Additional Information 

There are four Vedas, the Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda.

• The Vedas are the primary texts of Hinduism.
• Scholars have determined that the Rig Veda, the oldest of the four Vedas, was composed about 1500 B.C., and codified about 600 B.C.
• The Samaveda, or Veda of Holy Songs, ranks next in sanctity and liturgical importance to the Rigveda or Veda of Recited praise.
• Its Sanhita, or metrical portion, consists chiefly of hymns to be chanted by the Udgatar priests at the performance of those important sacrifices.

The correct Answer is Jai Hind

Key Points

These are all popular slogans in India. They have different meanings and significance.

1. Jai Jawan Jai Kisan("Hail the soldier, hail the farmer") rallied India. Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri's powerful slogan lauded soldiers defending borders and farmers nourishing the nation, highlighting their crucial interdependence.
2. Vande Mataram is a patriotic song that was written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in 1870. The song is a hymn to Mother India and expresses love and devotion to the country. Vande Mataram became a rallying cry for the Indian independence movement and is now considered to be the national song of India.
3. Jai Hind is a simple and direct slogan that means "Victory to India." It is often used as a greeting or farewell. Jai Hind is a popular slogan that is used by people of all ages and backgrounds.
4. Inqilab Zindabad is a Urdu slogan that means "Long live the revolution." It is a slogan of the Indian independence movement and is still used today by people who advocate for social and political change.

The correct answer is 776 BC

Key Points

• The ancient Olympic Games were primarily a part of a religious festival in honour of Zeus, the father of the Greek gods and goddesses.
• The Games were held every four years in Olympia, located in the western Peloponnese peninsula.
• The Games were named for their location at Olympia, a sacred site located near the western coast of the Peloponnese peninsula in southern Greece.
• The games were held on an official basis every four years from 776 BCE.
• The first written records of the ancient Olympic Games date to 776 B.C. when a cook named Coroebus won the only event, a 192-meter footrace called the stade (the origin of the modern “stadium”, to become the first Olympic champion.
• However, it is generally believed that the Games had been going on for many years by that time.
• Legend has it that Heracles (the Roman Hercules), son of Zeus and the mortal woman Alcmene, founded the Games, which by the end of the 6th century B.C had become the most famous of all Greek sporting festivals.
• After the Roman Empire conquered Greece in the mid-2nd century B.C., the Games continued, but their standards and quality declined.
• In A.D. 393, Emperor Theodosius I, a Christian, called for a ban on all “pagan” festivals, ending the ancient Olympic tradition after nearly 12 centuries.
• The first modern Olympics were held in Athens, Greece, in 1896.

Thus, the first ancient Olympic Games were held in 776 BC.

The correct answer is Bombay under the Presidentship of W. C. Bonnerjee

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress conducted its first session in Bombay in 1885 at the initiative of retired Civil Service officer Allan Octavian Hume.
• The first session of the INC was proposed at Poona, but because of an outbreak of plague in Poona, the venue was shifted to Bombay.
• And in the first session that was held in Bombay, at the ‘Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit Pathshala,’ only 72 delegates had participated and most of them belonged to a background of lawyers, and there weren’t many women in this session.

Additional Information 

• In the first session, the Early Nationalists, presented 9 resolutions before the British, and Lord Dufferin who was closely watching the activities of the Indian National Congress called the organization a ‘microscopic minority’.
• Thus one can say that the ‘benevolent neutrality’ of Lord Dufferin turned to ‘bitter hostility’.
• The moderates didn’t want ‘complete independence’, they mainly wanted ‘Indianisation’ of the services, their effort was that India should be governed by Indians, along with collaboration by the British. So, even in 1904, the popular demands from the moderates were representation in the House of Commons- so that the integration of the British and Indian political system could be achieved.
• The session was held under the presidentship of Womesh Chandra Banerjee who was a prominent Bengali barrister. The meeting was attended by 72 delegates from all over India. This meeting was held in December 1885  while the All-India National Conference was also holding its meeting in Calcutta.

The correct answer is Udayin.

Key Points

• Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Mauryan Empire, which was an extensive and powerful empire in ancient India. He established his rule around 322 BCE, and his empire stretched from the Himalayas in the north to as far south as the Deccan.
• His advisor, Kautilya (also known as Chanakya), helped him in his quest to unify the various kingdoms of India.

Additional Information

Ashoka

• Ashoka is one of the greatest emperors of all time.
• He belongs to the Maurya Dynasty.
• His reign time lasted from 268 BC to 232 BC.
• The Mauryan Empire under Ashoka reached nearly the whole Indian subcontinent at its height, from present-day Iran.
• Ashoka had many victorious battles in his reign time and the battle of Kalinga was his last.
• He is the only emperor in India to get the title ‘Chakravarti Samrat’.
• Ashoka is credited with creating both "The National Emblem" and "The Ashoka Chakra."
• Ashoka made several Hospitals for animals as well as humans.
• In his kingdom, Ashoka forbade the practice of animal sacrifice

King Harshavardhana

• King Harshavardhana was the son of Prabhakar Vardhana, the founder of the Pushyabhuti Dynasty or the Vardhana Dynasty.
• He is considered one of the most prominent rulers of the 7th century.
• He had ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj on the death of his brother, Rajyavardhana, and consolidated his kingdom in northern India.
• He was a Hindu who later embraced Mahayana Buddhism.
• On acquiring Kannauj, Harsha united the two kingdoms of Thanesar and Kannauj.
• He moved his capital to Kannauj.

Udayin

• The city of Pataliputra was founded by Udayin at the confluence of two rivers, the Son and the Ganges.
• Because of Patliputra's pivotal location in the empire, he moved his capital from Rajgriha to Patliputra. It was named Rajagaha in the Pali language.
• Udayin (c. 460-444 BCE) was a monarch of Magadha in ancient India, also known as Udayabhadra. He was the son and heir of Haryanka king Ajatashatru, according to Buddhist and Jain sources.
• Udayin was Ajatashatru's favourite son, according to Buddhist tradition, and lived during the reign of his grandfather Bimbisara.
• He was a young prince when Ajatashatru met Gautama Buddha.

The correct answer is Sheelabhadra

 

Key Points

• The University of Nalanda was an ancient centre of higher learning in Bihar.
• It was established in the 5th century AD and was one of the world’s first residential universities.
• The university attracted scholars and students from all over the world, including Korea, Japan, China, Tibet, Indonesia, Persia, and Turkey.
• The university was destroyed by invaders in the 12th century.
• The head of the University of Nalanda was Sheelabhadra, the great Bengali Scholar.
• The chancellor and Chairperson of the Governing Board of the modern-day Nalanda University is Professor Arvind Panagariya.

Additional Information

• Kumargupta founded Nalanda University in the 5th century A.D.
• He was also called Shakraditya.
• Nalanda University:
• Constructed during the rule of Kumargupta of the Gupta dynasty.
• Mahayana monks Asnaga and Vasubandhu said to have found Nalanda in 400-500AD.
• Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang came during Harsha’s reign, and gave a detailed account of Nalanda University.
• Nalanda was a huge monastic educational establishment.
• Primary teaching focus: Mahayana Buddhism, yet included other ‘secular’ subjects as well- Like, Grammar, logic, epistemology, and sciences.

The correct answer is "Somnambulist".

Key Points

• Somnambulist is derived from the Latin words 'somnus' meaning sleep and 'ambulare' meaning to walk.
• Therefore, a somnambulist means a person who walks in sleep.
• This term is most commonly used to describe the condition of sleepwalking, where a person gets up and moves around while still asleep.
• For Example - Despite being a deep sleeper, John became known as a somnambulist due to his frequent sleepwalking episodes.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Chance".

Key Points

• Chance: It refers to a possibility of something happening, to the occurrence and development of events in the absence of any obvious design.
• A "coincidence" refers to a situation where two or more things happen at the same time or in the same place by chance, and not due to any planned arrangement or causal relationship.​

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• Accent: It typically refers to a distinctive mode of pronunciation of a language, especially one associated with a particular nation, locality, or social class.
• Extent: This word relates to the area covered by something (like a territory), or the degree to which something has occurred or has a certain characteristic.
• Incident: An incident generally refers to an event or occurrence, often one that is unpleasant or noteworthy. While related to events like 'coincidence', it lacks the imputation of these events occurring together by chance.

The correct answer is "being fond of".

Key Points

• The idiom 'having a soft spot for' means to be particularly fond of someone or something or to have a special liking or weakness for them.
• This could involve people, things, places, activities, etc.
• "Being fond of" is the correct meaning.
• If someone has a 'soft spot' for something, it means they have a particular affection or liking for it.
• For Example - She has a soft spot for stray cats and always feeds them.

Therefore, the correct answer is **"option 2".**​

The correct answer is "Fall off".

Key Points

• "Fall off" is used when something detaches and drops from an object or position.
• In terms of ripe fruits on a tree, "fall off" would be the appropriate phrase as it implies the fruit detaching and dropping due to ripeness.
• The sentence "ripe mangoes have started to fall off." indicates that the ripe mangoes are detaching and dropping from the tree, a natural occurrence when fruit reaches full maturity.
• For Example - As autumn began, the leaves started to fall off the trees.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 4".

The correct answer is "Support".

Key Points

• "Deceive" means to deliberately mislead or trick someone into believing something that is not true.
• ​For Example - He decided to deceive his brother by hiding the truth about the broken vase.
• Support: Generally, means to back up or defend someone or something. While not a direct opposite, it aligns most with honesty and loyalty, characteristics opposite of deception. It implies helping someone truthfully and faithfully.
• For Example - Even when it was difficult, he chose to support the truth by admitting his mistake.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

• Betray: This term is similar in meaning to 'deceive'. It represents disloyalty or a breach of trust, not the opposite of it.
• Delude: This again is similar to 'deceive' and means to mislead someone or to create a false belief.
• Pretend: This is also in alignment with 'deceive'. To pretend means to make believe or to act in a way that is not genuine.

The correct answer is "must have done".

Key Points

• The sentence structure suggests that Swati's behavior or characteristic is such that her sister is expected or likely to emulate or display a similar trait.
• "Must have done" indicates a strong possibility or inference based on evidence or the likelihood of an action having occurred.
• In this sentence, it suggests that due to Swati's gentle nature, her sister is very likely to exhibit a similar quality.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Complete Sentence: Swati is gentle, her sister must have done it.

The correct answer is "Volunteer".

Key Points

• "Volunteer" is the correct choice.
• A volunteer is a person who offers their services or helps others willingly without expecting any payment or monetary compensation.
• Volunteers engage in various activities to contribute to society, support causes, or assist organizations, purely out of their willingness to help.
• For Example - Alia decided to volunteer at the local animal shelter every weekend to help take care of abandoned pets.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "run down".

Key Points

• The phrase "run down" means to be exhausted or worn out, especially due to overwork, stress, or fatigue.
• It describes a state of physical or mental tiredness resulting from prolonged stress or excessive work.
• For Example - After working double shifts for a week, Sarah felt completely run down and desperately needed a day off to rest.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 1".

Complete Sentence: On account of overwork, he is run down.

'आलवार' महिला संत "आंडाल" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Pointsआलवार- 

• आलवार दक्षिण भारत का एक वैष्णव संप्रदाय था।
• जो 'भक्तिमार्ग' का प्रचार करते थे।
• इनका मूल उद्देश्य विष्णु की प्रगाढ़ भक्ति में स्वत: लीन होना और अपने उपदेशों से दूसरे साधकों को लीन करना था।

आंडाल

• वैष्णव आलवार के 12 सन्तों में ये एकमात्र नारी थीं।
• इनका बचपन का नाम आंडालथा।
• इनकी काव्य रचनाएँ - 'तिरुप्पवै' और 'नाच्चियार तिरुमोळि'
• इनका तमिल साहित्य में वही स्थान है, जो हिंदी में मीरा का है।

Important Points

• अक्कामाशी, सहजोबाई और मीराबाई सभी भक्ति संत हैं, लेकिन वे आलवार नहीं हैं।
• अक्कामाशी, सहजोबाई और मीराबाई की रचनाएँ हिंदी साहित्य की अमूल्य निधि हैं।

वाक्य का भाग (C) त्रुटिपूर्ण है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points 

• वाक्‍य- उसकी खराब स्थिति (A) / को देखकर मुझे (B) / दुःख और क्षोभ हुए। (C) / कोई त्रुटि नहीं (D)
• इस वाक्‍य के भाग (C) में "दुःख और क्षोभ हुए" में त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'हुए' के स्थान पर 'हुआ' उपयुक्त है।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- उसकी खराब स्थिति को देखकर मुझे दुःख और क्षोभ हुआ।

Additional Information वाक्‍य में अशुद्धियाँ- ​

• वाक्‍य सम्‍प्रेषण की सबसे महत्‍वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई है अत: वाक्‍यगत अशुद्धियों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना वाक्‍य को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
• वाक्‍य में पदक्रम, पुनरावृत्ति, वर्तनी, शब्‍द-अर्थ, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया, विशेषण, क्रिया-विशेषण आदि अशुद्धियॉं हो सकती हैं।

जो सब कुछ जानता है 'सर्वज्ञ' कहलाता है। 

Key Points

• जो सब कुछ जानता है- सर्वज्ञ

​अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प

Additional Information 

सही उत्तर व‍िकल्‍प (1) II, IV, III, I है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  सही वाक्‍य क्रम- 

• II. एक कौआ को प्यास लगी।
• IV. बगीचे में उसने एक घड़ा देखा।
• III. घड़े में पानी बहुत नीचे था।
• I. कौआ घड़े में कंकड़ डालने लगा।

Additional Information 

• सार्थक वाक्‍य- एक कौआ को प्यास लगी। बगीचे में उसने एक घड़ा देखा। घड़े में पानी बहुत नीचे था। कौआ घड़े में कंकड़ डालने लगा।

'नियति' का सही समानार्थी शब्द "भाग्‍य" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• नियति के समानार्थी शब्‍द- भाग्य, प्रारब्ध, विधि, भावी, दैव्य आदि।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

Additional Information 

र‍िक्‍त स्‍थान की पूर्ति के उच‍ित शब्‍द अनुकरणीय है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• देवानंद का काम के प्रति लगन और निष्ठा अनुकरणीय है।
• र‍िक्‍त स्‍थान की पूर्ति के ल‍िए अनुकरणीय शब्‍द का प्रयोग होगा।
• अनुकरणीय का अर्थ- अनुकरण करने योग्य।

Additional Information 

• देश में बढ़ता भ्रष्‍टाचार घोर चिन्‍ता का विषय है।
• हमने दर्शक दीर्घा में बैठकर संसद की कार्यवाही देखी।
• ईश्‍वर तुम्‍हारा कल्‍याण करें।
• मस्तिष्क हमें सोचने की अनुमति देता है।

"पाँव" असंगत शब्‍द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प तत्सम शब्द हैं। 

Key Points

• पाँव एक तद्भव शब्द है।
• नेत्र, नख एवं हस्त तत्सम शब्द हैं।
• अत: सही उत्तर पाँव है।

Important Points

वाक्य का भाग (C) त्रुटिपूर्ण है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• वाक्‍य- सहशिक्षा वाली कक्षा को यदि पुरुष पढ़ाता है (A) / तो वह लड़कियों की आवश्यकताओं को नहीं समझ सकेगा (B) / और स्त्री अध्यापिका लड़कों के साथ पूर्ण न्याय नहीं कर सकेगी। (C) / कोई त्रुटि नहीं है। (D)
• इस वाक्‍य के भाग (C) में स्‍त्री अध्‍याप‍िका का प्रयोग उच‍ित नहीं क‍िया गया है। इसल‍िए इस वाक्‍य के भाग (C) में त्रुट‍ि है।
• इस वाक्य में 'स्त्री अध्यापिका' के स्थान पर 'अध्यापिका' शब्द का प्रयोग क‍िया जाएगा।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- सहशिक्षा वाली कक्षा को यदि पुरुष पढ़ाता है तो वह लड़कियों की आवश्यकताओं को नहीं समझ सकेगा और अध्यापिका लड़कों के साथ पूर्ण न्याय नहीं कर सकेगी।

Additional Informationवाक्‍य में अशुद्धियाँ- ​

• वाक्‍य सम्‍प्रेषण की सबसे महत्‍वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई है अत: वाक्‍यगत अशुद्धियों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना वाक्‍य को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
• वाक्‍य में पदक्रम, पुनरावृत्ति, वर्तनी, शब्‍द-अर्थ, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया, विशेषण, क्रिया-विशेषण आदि अशुद्धियॉं हो सकती हैं।

"नामदेव" का भक्तिपरक गीतों का संकलन 'अभंग' नाम से प्रसिद्ध है। 

Key Points

• संत नामदेव के भक्तिपरक गीतों का संकलन 'अभंग' नाम से प्रसिद्ध है।
• इन अभंगों में नामदेव की भक्ति भाव की सरस धारा प्रवाहित है।
• इनमें उन्होंने अपने ईश्वर के प्रति गहन प्रेम और समर्पण का भाव व्यक्त किया है।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

• कबीरदास का भक्तिपरक गीतों का संकलन बीजक नाम से प्रस‍िद्ध है।
• मीराबाई का भक्तिपरक गीतों का संकलन संत ग्रंथावलीनाम से प्रस‍िद्ध है।
• शंकरदेव का भक्तिपरक गीतों का संकलन संत अष्टकम नाम से प्रस‍िद्ध है।

The correct answer is 21%

Key Points

Oxygen

• Nitrogen gas contributes the maximum amount to the atmospheric gases, the rest of the gases occupy a minimal amount of the atmosphere which is less than 1%.
• The second most abundant gas in the atmosphere is oxygen.
• Oxygen is present in 21% of the atmosphere.
• Along with air, it holds many tiny dust particles called aerosols.
• Air carrying a large amount of these particles is termed air pollution and forms soot in the atmosphere.
• The major source of oxygen in the atmosphere is trees, tiny ocean plants called phytoplankton, and some bacteria.
• Phytoplankton lives under the water where they use sunlight and carbon dioxide to make food and release oxygen as a by-product.
• Oxygen is present in two forms- oxygen O2 and ozone O3.
• Ozone is the upper layer of the atmosphere that protects us from the harmful radiation of the sun.
• Aloe vera is a plant that releases oxygen at night and that purifies the air also removing toxins like aldehyde and benzene.

The correct answer is ape.

Key Points

• Humans share a closer evolutionary relationship with apes than with lemurs.
• Lemurs belong to the infraorder Prosimii, which are considered the more "primitive" primates.
• They diverged from the lineage leading to monkeys, apes, and humans about 65 million years ago.
• Apes, on the other hand, are a more recent evolutionary branch that diverged from our lineage about 25 million years ago.
• The closest living relative of humans is the chimpanzee, sharing about 98% of our DNA.
• Chimpanzees are also social primates that exhibit similar behaviors to humans, such as using tools, forming complex social structures, and communicating through vocalizations and gestures.

The correct answer is Blood plasma cells

Key Points

• Antibody formation takes place in Blood plasma cells.
• Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that develops from stem cells in bone marrow.
• When B cells encounter an antigen, a foreign substance that triggers an immune response, they divide and clone into plasma cells that release millions of antibodies specific to that antigen.
• Antibodies bind to the antigen and help to eliminate it from the body.
• Antibodies are released into the bloodstream and lymph system, where they can circulate and fight different threats.

Additional InformationPlatelets

• Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are special blood cells with an important function.
• Platelets control blood clotting, which means they are critical for healing wounds and stopping bleeding.
• A normal platelet count is 150,000–450,000 platelets per microliter.
• A low platelet count can put you at risk for uncontrolled bleeding. It is also possible to have too many platelets in your blood.
• This leads to a potentially life-threatening condition related to abnormal clotting.
• It also covers possible disorders related to platelet counts.

RBCs

• Red blood cells (RBCs), also known as erythrocytes, are the most common type of blood cell and the vertebrate’s principal means of delivering oxygen to the body tissues via blood flow through the circulatory system.
• They are thin-walled and biconcave in shape with no nucleus or organelles.
• The primary function of RBCs is to transport oxygen from the lungs to the body’s tissues and to carry carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs for exhalation.
• RBCs contain a protein called haemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and gives blood its red colour.

Donnan's membrane

• Donnan’s membrane is a term used to describe the behaviour of charged particles near a semi-permeable membrane that sometimes fail to distribute evenly across the two sides of the membrane.
• The usual cause is the presence of a different charged substance that is unable to pass through the membrane and thus creates an uneven electrical charge.
• For example, the large anionic proteins in blood plasma are not permeable to capillary walls.
• Because small cations are attracted but are not bound to the proteins, small anions will cross capillary walls away from the anionic proteins more readily than small cations.
• Thus, some ionic species can pass through the barrier while others cannot.
• The solutions may be gels or colloids as well as solutions of electrolytes, and as such the phase boundary between gels, or a gel and a liquid, can also act as a selective barrier.
• The electric potential arising between two such solutions is called the Donnan potential.
• The effect is named after the American physicist Josiah Willard Gibbs who proposed it in 1878 and the British chemist Frederick G. Donnan who studied it experimentally in 1911 1

The correct answer is Sleeping sickness

Key Points

• The Human African Trypanosomiasis is also called sleeping sickness.
• It is a vector-borne parasitic disease.
• Sleeping sickness is caused by parasites that are transmitted by infected tse tse flies. Hence these flies act as a medium to transport the parasites.
• This disease is endemic to sub-Saharan African countries. Also, failure to get timely treatment may lead to the death of the person.

These are of two types:

• African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
• T. Brucie gambiense - West African sleeping sickness
• T. Brucei rhodesiense - East African Sleeping Sickness
• American Trypanosomiasis (Chagas disease)
• Modes of transmission:
• By the bite of the tsetse fly (Most common)
• Mother-to-child transmission
• Mechanical transmission
• Accidental infection from laboratories
• Diagnostic tests:
• Microscopic examination:
• lymph and blood test ( for state 1 infection)
• CSF sampling for stage 2 infection.

Additional Information

• Dengue fever
• It is a mosquito-borne viral disease.
• It is caused by the Aedes aegypti mosquito.
• It occurs in tropical and subtropical areas.
• Filariasis
• It is a parasitic disease that affects the lymph nodes and lymph vessels.
• It is spread by infected mosquitoes.
• Their bites deposit a parasite that travels to the lymph system.
• Malaria
• It is caused by a plasmodium parasite.
• It is transmitted by the bite of infected mosquitoes.

The correct answer is palm of hands

Explanation:

• The sweat gland and sebaceous gland in the skin can eliminate unwanted substances through secretions.
• Sweat is a watery fluid containing NaCl, lactic acid, small amounts of urea, etc.
• Facilitating a cooling effect on the body surface is the primary function of sweat, it also helps in the removal of wastes mentioned above.
• The palms of the hands (and the soles of the feet) have the highest density of sweat glands, known as eccrine sweat glands.
• These glands are involved in thermoregulation and are particularly abundant in these areas to aid in grasp and prevent slipping by keeping the skin moist. This high concentration helps in maintaining grip and dexterity.
• Other regions, such as the forehead, armpits, and back, also contain sweat glands, but not in as high a density as the palms and soles.

Important Points 

• Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons, and waxes through sebum.
• This secretion provides a protective oily covering for the skin.

Additional Information

• Hormones are chemical substances that act like messenger molecules in the body.
• Exocrine glands secrete their substances through ducts onto the body's surface,
• Endocrine glands secrete their substances directly into our bloodstream.

They are called ductless glands.

• Endocrine glands secrete hormones.
• Holocrine glands are those glands where the entire cell disintegrates while discharging its secretion, e.g., sebaceous glands.
• Apocrine glands: In apocrine glands, apical parts of the cells are shed off to discharge secretions, e.g., mammary glands.

The correct answer is Cell wall 

Key Points

• The cell wall is responsible for maintaining the turgidity of the cell.
• The cell wall is a rigid layer that surrounds the cell membrane of plant cells, bacteria, and some fungi.
• The cell wall is made up of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin.
• Cell walls are a feature of almost all prokaryotic cells, as well as many eukaryotic organisms.
• In addition to providing structural support and maintaining the shape of the cell, The cell wall serves as a protective barrier against physical and biological threats.
• It also allows the cell to withstand the difference in osmotic pressure between the cell's interior and its environment.
• However, it is not primarily involved in functions such as storage of material, cell division, or the synthesis of carbohydrates.

Additional InformationLysosomes

• Lysosomes are small, spherical, sac-like structures that contain several digestive enzymes enclosed in a membrane.
• They help in the digestion of foreign substances and worn-out cell organelles.
• They protect against bacteria and viruses.
• They help to keep the cell clean.
• During the disturbance in cellular metabolism, for example, when the cell gets damaged, lysosomes may burst and the enzymes digest their own cell.
• Therefore, lysosomes are also known as suicide bags of a cell.

Plastids

• Plastids are responsible for photosynthesis, storage of products like starch, and the synthesis of many classes of molecules such as fatty acids and terpenes, which are needed as cellular building blocks and/or for the function of the plant.
• There are different types of plastids with their specialized functions.

Golgi Body

• A major function of Golgi bodies is the modification of proteins.
• It is a major organelle in most eukaryotic cells.
• It has the structure of membrane-bound sacs.
• Its function is to process and package the macromolecules such as proteins and lipids that are synthesized by the cell.
• Its functions also involve the transport of lipids around the cell and the creation of lysosomes.
• The sacs/folds of the Golgi apparatus are called cisternae.
• The Golgi complex works jointly with the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• When the endoplasmic reticulum makes a protein, a transition vesicle is also made later it drifts through the cytoplasm to the Golgi apparatus where it gets absorbed.
• After the Golgi works on the molecules inside, it secretes a vesicle into the cytoplasm which then releases the protein molecule out of the cell.

The correct answer is parenchyma

Key Points

Simple Permanent tissues: 

• The tissues which are specialized to offer elasticity, flexibility, and strength to the plant but have lost their ability to distribute.
• Simple Permanent Tissue can be classified into the parenchyma, sclerenchyma, collenchyma, based on their purpose.

Parenchyma: 

• These are living polygonal cells with a big central vacuole & intercellular spaces amidst them.
• Parenchymatous cells are responsible to create ground pith & tissue.
• It comprising of chloroplasts and that's why it is termed as chlorenchyma & it helps in photosynthesis.
• Parenchyma which comprises of The big air voids is called aerenchyma. 'Buoyancy' is the main purpose of aerenchyma.
• Some of these cells perform as storage chambers for starch in fruits & vegetables.

Additional Information

Collenchyma: 

• These have minute intercellular gaps & are stretched out living cells.
• Their cell walls are made up of cellulose & pectin.
• Collenchyma is found in the marginal regions of stems & leaves.
• It offers mechanical support in plants & offers flexibility with the structural framework.

Sclerenchyma: 

• In their cell wall, these are dead cells with lignin deposits.
• Sclerenchyma is found in the covering of seeds and nuts, veins of leaves, and around the vascular tissues in stems.
• It provides strength to the plant & they have no intercellular gaps.

Chlorenchyma

• Chlorenchyma is a type of parenchymatous tissue that contains chlorophyll and assists plants in performing their photosynthetic function.
• It can be found below the epidermis on the leaf stalks or in the mesophyll area of leaves.
• Some plants’ green stems may also contain it.

The correct answer is Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells, but not in animal cells 

Key PointsThe chloroplast

• The chloroplast is an organelle that contains the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and converts it into useful energy, thereby, releasing oxygen from water.
• Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae. Hence,Statement 3 is wrong
• They are the food producers of plants.
• These are found in the guard cells located in the leaves of the plants.
• They contain a high concentration of chlorophyll that traps sunlight.
• This cell organelle is not present in animal cells.

Explanation-

• RuBP enzyme is required for Photosynthesis.
• RuBP enzyme is the most abundant enzyme present in plants.
• It catalyzes the carboxylation reaction between carbon dioxide and Ribulose Bisphosphate.
• It is used in the Calvin cycle of Photosynthesis.
• Each molecule of carbon dioxide is attached to a five-carbon sugar called ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
• Rubisco is the most abundant protein found in chloroplasts.

The correct answer is Fullerene

Key Points

• Fullerene has a cage-like structure.
• Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon that has a unique structure consisting of hexagonal and pentagonal rings that attach to itself and form a cage-like structure or soccer-like structure.
• The first example of fullerene is Buckminsterfullerene (C60). This allotrope of carbon is named fullerene after the architect Richard Buckminster Fuller because the structure of C60 resembles the structure of the geodesic dome he designed.
• Harold Kroto, Robert Curl and Richard Smalley were given the Nobel Prize in chemistry in 1996, for the discovery of this carbon allotrope, fullerene C60.

Additional InformationDiamond

• Diamond is the purest crystalline allotrope of carbon having several carbons, linked together tetrahedrally.
• Each carbon atom in a diamond is surrounded by four other carbon atoms and connected to them by strong covalent bonds - the strongest type of chemical bond.
• Colourless diamonds are used in making gems and colored diamonds like black diamonds are used in glass cutting and in making rock drilling machines.
• Carbon having Atomic Number 6 and mass Number 12 occurs in nature abundantly in both free and compound forms.
• The other Allotropes of Carbon are Graphite, fullerenes, Lonsdaleite, Graphene, and Linear acetylenic carbon (Carbyne).
• The allotropes of carbon like diamond, graphite coal, etc are crystalline solids but wood, stone are non-crystalline solids.

Graphite

• Graphite is an allotrope of carbon.
• It is a conductor of heat and electricity.
• It has a lower density than diamond.
• Graphite is used as a lubricant in high temperatures.
• Because it has a high melting point.

The correct answer is m

Key Points

• The area under a velocity-time graph represents a physical quantity which is displacement.
• The unit of displacement is meters (m).
• Therefore, the unit of area under the v-t graph which represents a physical quantity is also metered (m).

The correct answer is Salt solution

Key Points

• The salt solution is an example of a homogeneous mixture.
• A homogeneous mixture is a mixture that has the same composition throughout its entire volume.
• In other words, the components of a homogeneous mixture are uniformly distributed and cannot be distinguished from one another.
• A solution in which the substances are regularly suspended in a fluid is a Colloidal Solution.
• A true solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances in which the substance dissolved in the solvent has a particle size of less than 10-9 m or 1 nm.
• Salt solution is a mixture of salt and water, and it is a clear, colourless liquid.

Additional InformationHomogeneous mixture

• A homogeneous mixture is a type of mixture in which its components are present in the same proportion.
• An alloy is considered a homogeneous mixture.
• Gunpowder is a homogeneous mixture of sulfur, charcoal and potassium nitrate.
• Examples of homogeneous mixtures are rainwater, vinegar, air, saline solution, etc.

Heterogeneous mixture

• A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture with a non-uniform composition that contains components in different phases.
• The non-uniform composition with at least two phases varies from one region to another
• They remain separate from each other, with clearly identifiable properties.
• This type of mixture contains particles that sustain their chemical properties when they are mixed.
• It can be distinguished after they are mixed.

The correct answer is hydration to yield another hydrate

Key Points

• The setting of the plaster of Paris is the process of hydration to yield another hydrate.
• Plaster of Paris is a powder made from gypsum, which is a naturally occurring mineral.
• When water is added to the plaster of Paris, it undergoes a chemical reaction called hydration, which results in the formation of a solid crystalline hydrate.
• The hydration reaction is the reverse of the dehydration of gypsum.
• The hardening and setting process starts about 10 minutes after mixing and is complete in approximately 45 minutes.

Additional Information

• Plaster of Paris (POP), quick-setting gypsum plaster consisting of a fine powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate), which hardens when moistened and allowed to dry.
• It is also known as the Plaster of Paris because for the preparation of POP, the abundant gypsum was first found near the capital city of France i.e. Paris.
• The chemical formula of the Plaster of Paris is (CaSO4). 1/2 H2O.

The application of Plaster of Paris:

• It is used as a building material as a protective coating on walls and ceilings.
• It is used as a moulding and vesting agent for decorative elements.
• It is also used for aesthetic touch to the construction elements.
• It is also field as plaster in orthopaedics and as a filling material by dentists, etc.

The correct answer is All of these.

Key Points

Nuclear Reactor

• A nuclear reactor is a system that contains and controls sustained nuclear chain reactions.

Neutron Moderators

• A Neutron moderator is a medium that reduces the speed of fast neutrons i.e., nuclear chain reaction.
• Moderators are like accelerators.

Commonly used moderators

• Regular light water
• Solid graphite
• Heavy water
• Graphite
• Paraffin

The correct answer is HAsO2 (aq)

Key Points

The balanced chemical equation for the given reaction is:

HAsO2(aq) + 2Sn2+(aq) + 4H+(aq) → As(s) + 2Sn4+(aq) + 2H2O(l)

In this reaction, HAsO2 (aq) acts as an oxidizing agent and Sn2+ acts as a reducing agent.

Important PointsOxidizing agent:

• An oxidizing agent, or oxidant, gains electrons and is reduced in a chemical reaction.
• Also known as the electron acceptor, the oxidizing agent is normally in one of its higher possible oxidation states because it will gain electrons and be reduced.
• Chlorine is used as the oxidizing agent for the purification of water.

Reducing agent:

• A reducing agent, or reductant, loses electrons and is oxidized in a chemical reaction.
• Examples of reducing agents include the earth metals, formic acid, and sulfite compounds

The correct answer is As

Key Points

• (Arsenic)As. Metalloids are elements that have properties of both metals and nonmetals.
• They are located between the metals and nonmetals on the periodic table.
• Arsenic is a chemical element with the symbol As and atomic number.
• It is a metalloid that occurs in many minerals, usually in combination with sulfur and metals, but also as a pure elemental crystal.
• It has various allotropes, but only the grey form, which has a metallic appearance, is important to industry.

Additional InformationIron

• Iron is a reddish, extremely ductile metal with very high thermal and electrical conductivity.
• It is a soft, malleable, and ductile metal with a pinkish-orange colour.
• It is one of the few metals that can occur in nature in a directly usable metallic form (native metals).
• Iron has a standard atomic weight of 55.845 ± 0.002 and an atomic number of 26.
• It is commercially produced mainly by smelting.
• Iron is widely used in electrical wiring, plumbing, roofing, and industrial machinery.
• It is also used in currency, jewellery, and decorative art.
• Iron is an essential nutrient for all living organisms, including humans.

Copper(cu)

• Copper is a reddish, extremely ductile metal with very high thermal and electrical conductivity.
• It is a soft, malleable, and ductile metal with a pinkish-orange colour.
• It is one of the few metals that can occur in nature in a directly usable metallic form (native metals).
• Copper has a standard atomic weight of 63.546 ± 0.003 and an atomic number of 29.
• It is commercially produced mainly by smelting.
• Copper is widely used in electrical wiring, plumbing, roofing, and industrial machinery.
• It is also used in currency, jewellery, and decorative art.
• Copper is an essential nutrient for all living organisms, including humans.

Sodium (Na)

• Sodium is a soft, silvery-white, highly reactive metal and an alkali metal.
• It is the sixth most abundant element in the Earth’s crust and the major cation in the extracellular fluid.
• It has many isotopes, including Na, the only stable one.
• It is essential for all animals and some plants

The logic follows here:

Novelty : Oldness → Novelty is an antonym of Oldness.

Similarly,

Newness : Antiquity → Antiquity is an antonym of Newness.

Hence, the correct answer is "Antiquity".

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.,1992

Key Points

• The National Commission for Women was established in 1992.
• The National Commission for Women was established on 31 January 1992.
• The National Commission for Women was established under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, as defined in the 1990 National Commission for Women Act.
• The first head of the commission was Jayanti Patnaik.
• National Commission for Women has also advocated the amendment of Section 198 of the CrPC to allow women to file complaints against unfaithful husbands and prosecute them for their promiscuous behaviour.

Additional Information

• The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body of the Government of India that was established on January 31, 1992, under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, as defined in the 1990 National Commission for Women Act.
• The NCW is generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting women.
• Its mandate is to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances, and advise the government on all policy matters affecting women.
• The NCW has several cells, including the Complaints & Investigation Cell, Legal Cell, PMR Cell, Non-Resident Indians Cell, and North East Cell.

The correct answer is 66%

In News

• The Union Minister of Finance announced a 66% increase in the allocation made towards the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) in the Union Budget for 2023-24.

Key Points

• The Finance Minister announced that the outlay for PM Awas Yojana is being enhanced by 66 per cent to over Rs 79,000 crore.
• The Defence Ministry has been allocated 5.94 lakh crore rupees in Budget 2023-24.
• This is 13.18 percent of the total budget, and a jump of 13 percent over previous year.
• The Government has also decided to continue the 50-year interest free loan to state governments for one more year to spur investment in infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban(PMAY-U):
• It is a flagship Mission of Government of India being implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• It was launched on 25th June 2015.

The correct answer is Mahila Samman Saving Certificate

In News

• Finance Minister  Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget for 2023-24 in Parliament on February 01.

Key Points 

• To commemorate Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav, a one-time new small savings scheme, the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, will be made available for a two-year period up to March 2025.
• This will offer a deposit facility of up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls for a tenor of 2 years at a fixed interest rate of 7.5 per cent.
• This scheme is a one-time scheme with a partial withdrawal facility.

Additional Information 

• Women and girls can invest in this scheme in state-owned banks starting from 1st April 2023.

The correct answer is RadioGPT

In NewsWorld's first-ever radio platform powered by artificial intelligence called RadioGPT has launched.

Key Points

• The world’s first-ever radio platform powered by artificial intelligence is called RadioGPT.
• It was developed by Ohio-based media company Future and uses TopicPulse technology to detect local market trends and create scripts for radio broadcasts.
• RadioGPT also uses GPT-3 technology to produce scripts for on-air use while AI voices turn that script into compelling audio.
• Radio stations are given a choice of AI voices for single--, duo, or trio-hosted shows.
• The AI can even be trained to sound like their existing personalities’ voices.

The correct answer is Arjuna Award

Key Points

• Arjuna Award:-
• Arjuna Award is one of the famous sports awards given to individuals for their exemplary performance in various sports.
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India extends this award.
• The Arjuna Award is given to promote sports in India by motivating the sportsperson for their fantastic performance.
• The First Arjuna Award was given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in 1961.
• The award carries a cash prize of Rs 15 lakh, a bronze statue of Arjuna and a scroll of honour.

Additional Information

Jamnalal Bajaj Award

• It recognizes and commemorates businessmen and industrialists who uphold the highest ethical practices in business.

Tagore Award 

• This Awad is for Cultural Harmony was instituted by the Government of India from 2012 recognizing the contributions made by Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore to humanity at large with his works and ideas.

Moortidevi Award 

• It is given every year for excellence in the field of Literature.

The correct answer is 1936 - Berlin

Key Points

• The Olympic Torch Relay is a tradition that began in 1936 during the Berlin Olympics.
• The relay involves the transportation of the Olympic flame from Olympia, Greece, to the host city of the Olympic Games.
• The flame is then used to light the Olympic cauldron during the opening ceremony of the games.
• The relay is a symbol of peace, unity, and friendship among nations.

Additional Information

• The first modern Olympics was held in Athens, Greece in the 1896 Summer Olympics.
• Baron Pierre de Coubertin started the modern Olympics.
• He is known as the father of the modern Olympics.
• The Olympic flag has a white background, with five interlaced rings in the centre: blue, yellow, black, green, and red.
• Each colour corresponds to a particular continent: blue for Europe, yellow for Asia, black for Africa, green for Australia and Oceania, and red for the Americas.
• The Olympic motto “Citius, Altius, Fortius” (“Faster, Higher, Stronger”) was coined by Father Henri Didon
• Only three modern Olympic Games have been cancelled.
• The games were cancelled due to World War I (1916) and World War II (1940, 1944).
• The youngest Olympian is Greek gymnast Dimitrios Loundras, who competed in the 1896 Athens Olympics at the age of 10.

The correct answer is Anand

In NewsLife Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has launched the Ananda mobile app.

Key Points

• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has launched a mobile app called Ananda mobile app for its agents and intermediaries in order to onboard prospective customers.
• ANANDA stands for Atma Nirbhar Agents New Business Digital Application.
• It is a paperless solution for new business processes.

Additional InformationThe Life Insurance Corporation of India 

• The Life Insurance Corporation of India was founded when the Parliament of India passed the Life Insurance of India Act which nationalised the insurance industry in India.
• Life Insurance Corporation of India is an Indian state-owned insurance group and investment corporation owned by the Government of India.
• The Oriental Life Insurance Company, the first company in India offering life insurance coverage, was established in Kolkata in 1818.
• Surendranath Tagore had founded the Hindusthan Insurance Society, which later became the Life Insurance Corporation.
• The LIC's executive board consists of the Chairman, currently M R Kumar, and Managing Directors, Vipin Anand, T. C. Suseel Kumar, Mukesh Kumar Gupta and Raj Kumar.

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

• Rawatbhata Nuclear Power Station located in Rajasthan was established in 1975.
• It was established in collaboration with the Government of Canada.
• It is the second nuclear power plant in India.
• Rawatbhata nuclear power plant is a 1240 MW capacity nuclear plant.
• The plant has eight reactors with a total installed capacity of 1180 MW.
• The first two Indian PHWRs- RAPS-I and RAPS-2 were taken up for construction as a joint venture with Canada in the 60s.
• The plant is built near the Maharana Pratap Dam.
• The Rajasthan Atomic Power Project (RAPP) currently has six pressurised heavy water reactor (PHWR) units, operating with a total installed capacity of 1,180MW.
• The eighth reactor, which is also of 700MW capacity, is expected to be completed by December 2021.
• The plant is a nuclear power project built in the northwestern part of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

The correct answer is USA

Key Points

• ‘Red Flag’ is the name of a joint exercise between India and the United States of America.
• The exercise is a multinational air combat training exercise that is held annually in the United States.
• The exercise is designed to provide realistic combat training for military pilots and other personnel from the United States, NATO, and other allied countries.

Additional Information

Some Military Exercises of India:

The correct answer is (2) Nikhat Zareen

Key Points4 Indian boxers won gold medals in the Women’s World Boxing Championship 2023 held in New Delhi.

1. Nikhat Zarreen won gold in the 50kg category
2. Nitu Ghanghas in the 48kg category
3. Lovlina Borgohain in the 70kg category
4. Saweety Boora in the 81kg category.

The correct answer is  A. V. Leeuwenhoek

Key Points

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 

• He was a trader, land surveyor, wine rower, glassmaker, and microbiologist from the Netherlands.
• Van Leeuwenhoek is most known for the microscope he created.
• He has made groundbreaking contributions to cell biology and microbiology.
• In 1964, microorganisms (bacteria) were detected in a pepper infusion.
• A point to note is people did not know about bacteria in the year it was discovered.
• Leeuwenhoek called them animalcules.
• It was in 1838, that they were called bacteria.

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Additional InformationRobert Hooke

• Robert Hooke discovered the cell.
• Robert Hooke also discovered the law of elasticity.
• Robert Hooke was an English polymath active as a scientist and architect, who, using a microscope, was the first to visualize a micro-organism.
• He illustrated that all organisms are made of cells, which are the basic structural units of life.

Robert Koch

• Robert Koch was a microbiologist and German physician.
• He established the basic causative agents of tuberculosis, cholera, and anthrax as one of the key pioneers of modern bacteriology, and also provided scientific support for the idea of infectious disease, which included experiments on humans and animals.
• In 1905, He received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his studies on tuberculosis.
• Research into tuberculosis and tropical diseases earned him the Prussian Order Pour le Merite in 1906, and the Robert Koch Award in 1908 was created to honour the greatest living doctors.

Louis Pasteur

• The pasteurization process was discovered by Louis Pasteur.
• It is the process that kills harmful bacteria by heating milk to a specific temperature.
• The process of pasteurization involves heating milk to about 70°C for at least 15 to 30 seconds.
• By doing so, it prevents the growth of microbes

The correct answer is 6 month.

Key Points

• A person who is not a member of any House of the Parliament can become a Prime Minister or Minister for a time period of 6 months.
• In 1997, the Supreme Court of India held that a person who is not a member of either house of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister or Minister for six months but he will need to gain the membership of any house within six months of the oath-taking otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime minister or minister.
• Constitutionally, The Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of the Parliament.
• For example, three Prime Ministers, Indira Gandhi, Deve Gowda, and Manmohan Singh were members of the Rajya Sabha.
• In Britain, the Prime Minister should be a member of the Lower House not a member of the Upper House.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Mormugao Port is located in the state of Goa, which is one of the smallest states in India.
• It is the leading iron ore exporting port of India and handles other types of cargo as well, such as coal, petroleum products, and fertilizers.
• The port is situated on the southern side of the Zuari River, which flows into the Arabian Sea.
• Mormugao Port is an important economic hub for the state of Goa and plays a crucial role in the state's trade and commerce.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu is a southern state of India and has major ports like Chennai Port, Kamarajar Port, and VO Chidambaranar Port.
• West Bengal is an eastern state of India and has major ports like Kolkata Port and Haldia Port.
• Maharashtra is a western state of India and has major ports like Mumbai Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar is the first state to impose Agricultural Income Tax in India.
• ​Agricultural income is not taxable under Section 10 (1) of the Income Tax Act as it is not counted as a part of an individual's total income.
• However, the state government can levy tax on agricultural income if the amount exceeds Rs. 5,000 per year.
• Taxes on agricultural income” falls under Entry 46 in the “State List” under the Constitution.
• Only the state governments are competent to enact legislation imposing a tax on agricultural income.

Additional Information

• The tax on agricultural income can be imposed by the central government only if the states pass a resolution under Article 252 of the Constitution, authorizing the Centre to impose such tax on agricultural income**.**
• In 1935, Bihar was the first province to levy agricultural income tax which was later followed by Assam and Bengal in 1944.

The correct answer is Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), Bhagalpur district, Bihar.

Key Points

• The Bihar Forest department has discovered the first breeding site of endangered Indian skimmers also known as Indian scissors bill (Rynchops albicollis) birds in the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), in Bhagalpur district
• 7 Indian skimmers, an endangered bird species on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) list, were spotted in VGDS, Bhagalpur, last month

Additional Information

• International Union for Conservation of Nature:
• International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), in full form International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
• Formerly it was called the World Conservation Union, a network of environmental organizations.
• It was founded as the International Union for the Protection of Nature in October 1948 in Fontainebleau, France.
• Its headquarters are in Gland, Switzerland.

The correct answer is Endoplasmic Reticulum.

Key Points 

• The endoplasmic reticulum is a part of the endomembrane system.
• These are tiny tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm and consist of membrane-bound channels, tubules, sacs, or vesicles.
• On the basis of the presence of ribosomes ER of two types rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
• If ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum then it is called a rough endoplasmic reticulum and if there are no ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum then it is called a smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation:

• The proteins and lipids which are essential for building the cell membrane are manufactured in the Endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
• Rough ER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
• The Smooth ER is the major site for the synthesis of lipids.
• In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
• ER also acts as an internal support for cytoplasm.
• Plasma membrane lipids and proteins are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum through the process known as membrane biosynthesis.

Additional Information 

Mitochondria:

• These are sausage-shaped, cylindrical double membrane-bound cell organelles.
• Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.
• They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, thus they are called the "powerhouse of the cell".
• The mitochondrial matrix contains circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, and enzymes that take part in protein synthesis and respiration respectively.

Plasma membrane:

• It is a selectively permeable outer layer of the cell.
• PM is composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer.
• The important functions of PM include the transport of materials, mechanical barrier, cell division, formation of intercellular junctions, osmosis, endocytosis, and secretion, and it also ensures cellular integrity.

Golgi apparatus:

• Golgi apparatus are membrane-bound cell organelles with flat or disc-shaped sacs, tubules, and vesicles.
• Its important functions include the storage, modification, and packaging of biochemical compounds.
• It is also the major site of the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Hence, the correct answer is Endoplasmic reticulum.

Concept:

Energy

• The rate of doing work is known as energy.
• Energy is the product of power and time.
• The unit of energy is Joule or kWh.

E = P × t

where, E = Energy

P = Power

t = Time

Calculation:

Given,

Rating of each electric bulb(P) = 100 W

Time = 10 hrs per day.

Number of days = 3

So, the total time it work = 3 × 10 = 30 hrs

E = P × t

= 100 × 30

= 3000 Wh

= 3 kWh

= 3 unit

The correct answer is option (1)

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Polypropylene.

Key points-

• Polypropylene (PP) is a type of thermoplastic polymer resin used in a wide variety of applications such as packaging, textiles, automotive parts, reusable containers, laboratory equipment, and many more.
• This fibre is used for the manufacture of chords and carpets.

Explanation - 

• The key properties of polypropylene:

1. Chemical Resistance: Polypropylene has excellent resistance to many organic solvents, acids, and alkalis. It is resistant to most detergents and cleaning agents used around the home.
2. Lightweight: Polypropylene has a low density, which makes it ideal for uses where weight saving is important.
3. Strength and Toughness: It is strong and tough, especially when copolymerized with ethylene or other polymers. Even when flexed repeatedly, it does not readily crack or fatigue.
4. Thermal Stability: Polypropylene has a relatively high heat deflection temperature, making it suitable for items that require sterilization at high temperatures.
5. Cost-effectiveness: Polypropylene is relatively inexpensive to produce and this affordability, combined with its versatility, contributes to its widespread use.
6. Recyclability: Polypropylene is recyclable and has a resin identification code of 5.

• Uses of other polymers -
• Polyethylene-
• Polyethene (IUPAC) is the most commonly produced plastic.
• ​ It is a polymer, primarily used for packaging (plastic bags, plastic films, geomembranes and containers including bottles, etc.).
• Polyacrylonitrile-
• Polyacrylonitrile is a vinyl polymer and a derivative of the acrylate family of polymers.
  

​It is made from the monomer acrylonitrile by free radical vinyl polymerization.

• Polyacrylonitrile is used in making tennis rackets, bicycles, missiles, fishing rods, rocket motors, etc.
• Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) - 
• PVC (plasticised) is less rigid; has high impact strength; is easier to extrude or mould; has lower temperature resistance; is less resistant to chemicals, and usually has lower ultimate tensile strength.