Official Paper

AP Police Constable (Prelims) Official Paper (Held On: 22 Jan 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

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Full Test (200 questions)

1

Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence.

The poor family has no visible means of subsistence.

  1. ((a))

    employment

  2. ((b))

    respect

  3. ((c))

    livelihood

  4. ((d))

    encouragement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

employment

2

Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.

His Cartoons lampooned the leaders of his time.

  1. ((a))

    Praised

  2. ((b))

    Exposed

  3. ((c))

    Ridiculed

  4. ((d))

    Elevated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Praised

3

Choose the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence.

Kiran’s attendance at school was sporadic.

  1. ((a))

    Regular

  2. ((b))

    Occasional

  3. ((c))

    Sharp

  4. ((d))

    Co-ordinated

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regular

4

Choose the word that has the opposite meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

When she saw the stranger, her eyes dilated with fear.

  1. ((a))

    contracted

  2. ((b))

    widened

  3. ((c))

    reddened

  4. ((d))

    quietened

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

contracted

5

Choose the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Playright

  2. ((b))

    Mispell

  3. ((c))

    Skilful

  4. ((d))

    Untill

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Playright

6

Choose the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    perceverance

  2. ((b))

    perseverence

  3. ((c))

    perseverance

  4. ((d))

    perseveranse

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

perceverance

7

Choose the appropriate set of prepositions and fill in the blanks in the following sentence.

The Sun is ______ the clouds, Vani drew that picture ______ a Crayon.

  1. ((a))

    on, of

  2. ((b))

    above, with

  3. ((c))

    with, for

  4. ((d))

    against, across

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

on, of

8

Choose the correct set of prepositions and fill in the blanks in the following sentence.

Stirred ______ pride and envy Satan rebelled ______ God.

  1. ((a))

    off, on

  2. ((b))

    in, with

  3. ((c))

    with, with

  4. ((d))

    by, against

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

off, on

9

Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct.

  1. ((a))

    The event be telecasted next week.

  2. ((b))

    The event will be telecast next week.

  3. ((c))

    The event is telecasted next week.

  4. ((d))

    The event will telecasts next week.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The event be telecasted next week.

10

Choose the grammatically correct sentence. 

  1. ((a))

    Of the two major political parties in Britain, the Conservatives and Labour, the later represents the interests of the working class.

  2. ((b))

    Of the two major political parties in Britain, the Conservatives and the Labour, the latter represents the interests of the working class.

  3. ((c))

    Of the two major political parties in Britain, the Conservatives and Labour, the letter represents the interests of the working class. 

  4. ((d))

    Of the two major political parties in Britain the Conservatives and Labour, the latest represents the interests of the working class.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Of the two major political parties in Britain, the Conservatives and Labour, the later represents the interests of the working class.

11

Choose the meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom.

He is a sensible person and knows how to button his lip.

  1. ((a))

    smack one’s lips

  2. ((b))

    stylish in appearance

  3. ((c))

    press the lips to look smart

  4. ((d))

    remain silent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

smack one’s lips

12

Choose the meaning of the underlined phrase/idiom.

Envy is just like a Green-eyed monster which can destroy everything.

  1. ((a))

    Anger

  2. ((b))

    Hatred

  3. ((c))

    Jealousy

  4. ((d))

    Flattery

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anger

13

Choose the option which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A tall strong masculine kind woman.

  1. ((a))

    amazon

  2. ((b))

    virago

  3. ((c))

    circe

  4. ((d))

    coquette

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

amazon

14

Choose the correct one word substitute.

The school or college in which one has been educated

  1. ((a))

    Learner

  2. ((b))

    Alumni

  3. ((c))

    Alma mater

  4. ((d))

    Graduate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Learner

15

Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive Voice from the given options.

One should keep one’s promise.

  1. ((a))

    One’s promise should be kept by us.

  2. ((b))

    One’s promise has to be kept.

  3. ((c))

    A promise should be kept.

  4. ((d))

    A promise should be keeping

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One’s promise should be kept by us.

16

Choose the correct Passive form for the given sentence.

No one told me about the accident.

  1. ((a))

    I was not told about the accident.

  2. ((b))

    I am not told about the accident.

  3. ((c))

    I have not been told about the accident.

  4. ((d))

    I was not telled about the accident.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I was not told about the accident.

17

Rearrange the given phrases into a meaningful sentence.

reading books is a habit (1) / but also enlarges the mind (2) / because it not only increases knowledge (3) / which must be cultivated by everybody (4)

The correct order is

  1. ((a))

    1, 2, 3, 4

  2. ((b))

    1, 4, 3, 2

  3. ((c))

    4, 1, 3, 2

  4. ((d))

     1, 2, 4, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 2, 3, 4

18

Choose the correct order of the following jumbled sentence from the options.

expresses a command (1) / an imperative sentence (2) / a sentence that (3) / or an entreaty (4) / is called (5)

The correct order is

  1. ((a))

    3, 5, 4, 1, 2

  2. ((b))

    3, 1, 4, 5, 2

  3. ((c))

    5, 3, 2, 1, 4

  4. ((d))

    4, 1, 3, 2, 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3, 5, 4, 1, 2

19

Choose the correct form of the verb from the options and fill in the blank.

If we ______ enough money, we could buy a villa in a posh locality.

  1. ((a))

    have been

  2. ((b))

    has

  3. ((c))

    had

  4. ((d))

    were

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

have been

20

Choose the option with correct punctuation

The squirrels nuts were hidden in several hollow trees throughout the forest.

  1. ((a))

    The squirrels nuts were hidden in several hollow trees’ throughout the forest.

  2. ((b))

    The squirrels nuts were hidden in several hollow tree’s throughout the forest.

  3. ((c))

    The squirrels’ nuts were hidden in several hollow trees throughout the forest. 

  4. ((d))

    The squirrels nut’s were hidden in several hollow trees throughout the forest.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The squirrels nuts were hidden in several hollow trees’ throughout the forest.

21

Identify the clause in the given sentence.

The hand that rocks the cradle rules the world.

  1. ((a))

    Noun clause

  2. ((b))

    Adjective clause 

  3. ((c))

    Prepositional clause

  4. ((d))

    Adverbial clause

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Noun clause

22

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

_______ learning is a dangerous thing.

  1. ((a))

    A less

  2. ((b))

    An little

  3. ((c))

    A little

  4. ((d))

    The Little

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A less

23

Choose the correct form of Indirect Speech of the sentence.

He says, “I go to gym every morning.”

  1. ((a))

    He said that he goes to gym every morning.

  2. ((b))

    He says that he goes to gym every morning.

  3. ((c))

    He said that he used to go to gym every morning.

  4. ((d))

    He says that he went to gym every morning.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He said that he goes to gym every morning.

24

Choose the correct form of Indirect Speech of the following sentence.

Rajesh said, “I bought a car yesterday.”

  1. ((a))

    Rajesh said that I have bought a car yesterday

  2. ((b))

    Rajesh said that he did bought a car the previous day

  3. ((c))

    Rajesh told that he had bought a car yesterday.

  4. ((d))

    Rajesh said that he had bought a car the previous day.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajesh said that I have bought a car yesterday

25

Choose the appropriate phrasal verb.

The books on Shakespeare _______ 10 shelves.

  1. ((a))

    take up

  2. ((b))

    take over

  3. ((c))

    turn up

  4. ((d))

    turn over

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

take up

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow

While riding his bicycle between two and three O’clock yesterday morning along the unfrequented locality of the Pimlico Road, a young of foreign extraction named Joseph perceived the body of an individual stretched apparently motionless in the gutter. He alighted from his machine and discovered that the victim of the occurrence had been assaulted by some criminals, who, after relieving him of his watch and all available cash, had made off undetected. The unfortunate victim, who appears to be well-connected, has not yet been identified. He lies at present at the Three Stars Hotel in a critical condition, whither his compassionate rescuer escorted him in a cab. Hopes are entertained of his ultimate recovery. The police are on the alert.

26

‘unfrequented locality’ means

  1. ((a))

    people often go there

  2. ((b))

    not often visited by people

  3. ((c))

    frequent transport is not available 

  4. ((d))

    prohibited area

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

people often go there

27

Joseph is ________, according to the author.

  1. ((a))

    a native of that place

  2. ((b))

    a foreigner

  3. ((c))

     an old man

  4. ((d))

    the victim

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a native of that place

28

Where did the bicycle rider find the victim?

  1. ((a))

    at Three Stars Hotel

  2. ((b))

    in the field

  3. ((c))

    in hospital

  4. ((d))

    in the drain

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

at Three Stars Hotel

29

 What is the meaning of the expression ‘well-connected’?

  1. ((a))

    having good social contacts

  2. ((b))

    having connected to the assailants 

  3. ((c))

    well connected to the locality

  4. ((d))

    connected with the crime

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

having good social contacts

30

 The ‘machine’ mentioned in the passage is _____ 

  1. ((a))

    the weapon used by the attacker(s)

  2. ((b))

    the victim’s personal weapon

  3. ((c))

    the bicycle

  4. ((d))

    the police gun

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the weapon used by the attacker(s)

31

A tower is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by an inverted cone of the same base area as that of the cylinder. If the radius and height of the cylinder are 2√6 m and 14 m respectively and the height of the cone is 5 m, then the lateral surface area (in square meters) of the tower is

  1. ((a))

    330

  2. ((b))

    220√6

  3. ((c))

    330√6

  4. ((d))

    220

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

330

32

The part above the cone filled with ice-cream looks as a hemisphere surmounted on its top. If the height and the radius of the cone are 13 cm and 4 cm respectively, then the volume (in cu.cm) of the ice-cream is

  1. ((a))

    198

  2. ((b))

    176

  3. ((c))

    352

  4. ((d))

    396

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

198

33

From a wooden cube of edge 14 cm, a right circular cone of maximum volume is carved out. If the volume of the removed portion of the cube is V, then 3 V (in cu.cm) is

  1. ((a))

    2744

  2. ((b))

    2025.33

  3. ((c))

    868

  4. ((d))

    6076

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2744

34

A solid metallic right circular cylinder of radius 3 inches and height 8 inches is melted and recast into identical hemispheres whose base is equal to the base of the cylinder. Then the number of hemispheres thus formed is

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2

35

A solid iron cube of edge 24 cm is melted and recast into a rectangular sheet of thickness 2 mm. If the length (l) and breadth (b) of the sheet are in the ratio 6:5, then l + b (in cm) is

  1. ((a))

    484

  2. ((b))

    528

  3. ((c))

    561

  4. ((d))

    594

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

484

36

A vendor sells vegetables at 12% less than the cost price, but manipulates the weight of 800 gms as 1 kg. Then he gets

  1. ((a))

    10% profit

  2. ((b))

    10% loss

  3. ((c))

    15% profit

  4. ((d))

    15% loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10% profit

37

A dealer bought an article for Rs. 400 and paid Rs. 40 towards its transport charges. If he sold it for a profit of 20% on the cost price, then he gets

  1. ((a))

    a loss of Rs. 40

  2. ((b))

    a profit of Rs. 40

  3. ((c))

    a loss of Rs. 80

  4. ((d))

    a profit of Rs. 80 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a loss of Rs. 40

38

A telephone is sold for Rs. 4,000 at a loss of 10%. Then the price (in Rs.) at which it must be sold in order to get a profit of 17% is

  1. ((a))

    4,400

  2. ((b))

    4,800

  3. ((c))

    5,200

  4. ((d))

    5,600

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4,400

39

If a certain principal amounts to Rs. 34,000 in 3 years and to Rs. 40,000 in 5 years at a simple interest of r% per year, then r =

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

8

40

If a principal of Rs. x, at a rate of interest 20% compounded annually for 4 years amounts to Rs. 62,208, then x =

  1. ((a))

    30,000

  2. ((b))

    40,000

  3. ((c))

    35,000

  4. ((d))

    45,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30,000

41

 A man borrows Rs. 5,000 for 2 years at the rate of interest of 16% compounded yearly. If at the end of the first year he paid back Rs. 500, then the amount he should pay at the end of the second year is

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 6,228

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 6,148

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6,728

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 6,648

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 6,228

42

The simultaneous linear equations 2x – 3y + 4 = 0 and 3x – 2y – 4 = 0 have

  1. ((a))

    no solution

  2. ((b))

    unique solution

  3. ((c))

    finite number of solutions

  4. ((d))

    infinitely many solutions

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

no solution

43

If the simultaneous linear equations 2x – ky + 5 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 7 = 0 have a unique solution, then

  1. ((a))

    k=−43\rm k=-\frac{4}{3}

  2. ((b))

    k = -3

  3. ((c))

    k ≠ -3

  4. ((d))

    k≠−43\rm k\ne-\frac{4}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

k=−43\rm k=-\frac{4}{3}

44

30 apples and 23 guavas together cost Rs. 392. If 7 guavas and 15 apples of the same kind together cost Rs. 178, then the cost (in Rs.) of an apple is

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

45

19 of 21 + 27 - 36 ÷ 3 × 6 + 4−2‾\rm \overline{4-2} =

  1. ((a))

    426

  2. ((b))

    356

  3. ((c))

    383

  4. ((d))

    330

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

426

46

The sum of all two digit natural numbers which are divisible by 3 is

  1. ((a))

    1665

  2. ((b))

    1776

  3. ((c))

    1110

  4. ((d))

    1265

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1665

47

The sum of the 9th term and 12th term of the series 17,111,115\frac{1}{7}, \frac{1}{11}, \frac{1}{15} ..... is

  1. ((a))

    1121\frac{1}{121}

  2. ((b))

    10663\frac{10}{663}

  3. ((c))

    10221\frac{10}{221}

  4. ((d))

    982365\frac{98}{2365}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1121\frac{1}{121}

48

 If a card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 playing cards, then the probability of getting a card having a prime number is

  1. ((a))

    113\frac{1}{13}

  2. ((b))

    213\frac{2}{13}

  3. ((c))

    313\frac{3}{13}

  4. ((d))

    413\frac{4}{13}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

113\frac{1}{13}

49

If two dice are thrown simultaneously, then the probability of getting distinct numbers on them is

  1. ((a))

    56\frac{5}{6}

  2. ((b))

    512\frac{5}{12}

  3. ((c))

    16\frac{1}{6}

  4. ((d))

    712\frac{7}{12}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

56\frac{5}{6}

50

If 3 coins are tossed simultaneously, then the probability of getting atleast 2 tails is

  1. ((a))

    38\frac{3}{8}

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    14\frac{1}{4}

  4. ((d))

    18\frac{1}{8}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

38\frac{3}{8}

51

Among the first nine terms of the sequence 5, 7, 11, 19, 31, 67, 131, 259, 515, ..., the number which doesnot fit into the sequence is

  1. ((a))

    515

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    31

  4. ((d))

    131

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

515

52

The tenth term in the sequence 421,27,37,23,1....\frac{4}{21}, \frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{7}, \frac{2}{3}, 1.... is

  1. ((a))

    157\frac{15}{7}

  2. ((b))

    6221\frac{62}{21}

  3. ((c))

    277\frac{27}{7}

  4. ((d))

    10421\frac{104}{21}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

157\frac{15}{7}

53

Among the first eight terms of the sequence 1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, 4096, ..., the term which does not fit into the sequence is

  1. ((a))

    3rd term

  2. ((b))

    5th term

  3. ((c))

    8th term

  4. ((d))

    7th term

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd term

54

The tenth term of the sequence 7, 14, 19, 29, 40, 44, ... is

  1. ((a))

    73

  2. ((b))

    103

  3. ((c))

    93

  4. ((d))

    83

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

73

55

If ABBB – – AAABA – – BABAAAB – – BBA is the given letter series with six missing letters, then the correct option which contains all the missing letters in the order from left to right is

  1. ((a))

    ΑΒΒΒΑΒ

  2. ((b))

    ΑΒΑΒΑΒ

  3. ((c))

    BABABA

  4. ((d))

    BAAABA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ΑΒΒΒΑΒ

56

If BDGL, DGLN, GLNQ, _______ is the given series, then the correct option which fills the missing term is

  1. ((a))

    LNQS

  2. ((b))

    LNQV

  3. ((c))

    LNQT

  4. ((d))

    GLNV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

LNQS

57

If Z25A, X21C, T13G, _______ is the given series, then the correct option which fills the missing term is

  1. ((a))

    S5L

  2. ((b))

    T10M

  3. ((c))

    N1M

  4. ((d))

    R10K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

S5L

58

In a certain code language if the word PENCILS is coded as WKSGLNT, then in the same code language, the word DRAWING is coded as

  1. ((a))

    JWEZKOI

  2. ((b))

    KXGZPH

  3. ((c))

    JWEALPH

  4. ((d))

    KXFALPH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JWEZKOI

59

 In a certain code language if the word DELICIOUS is coded as DLCOSEIIU, then the word which is coded as COOATHCLE in the same language is

  1. ((a))

    CHOCOLATE

  2. ((b))

    CHAOCOLET

  3. ((c))

    CHOCOLAET

  4. ((d))

    COACHOLET

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

CHOCOLATE

60

In a certain code language if the word FRUITS is coded as 618211878, then in the same code language, HEALTH is coded as

  1. ((a))

    85115719

  2. ((b))

    85112208

  3. ((c))

    19222615719

  4. ((d))

    19222612208

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

85115719

61

A point B is 25√2 m away along North-East direction from A. Another point C is 50 m distant along West direction from B. The end point D is 50√2 m away along South-East direction from C. Then the distance (in meters) between points B and D is

  1. ((a))

    50√2

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    25√2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50√2

62

A clock is so placed that at 6 pm, its hour hand points towards South-East. Then at 9 pm, the hour hand points towards

  1. ((a))

    South

  2. ((b))

    North-West

  3. ((c))

    South-West

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South

63

Two friends A and B are standing opposite to each other at about 8 O’clock in the morning. If the shadow of A is exactly to his left side, then the direction faced by B is

  1. ((a))

    South

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

South

64

A is B’s father. C is B’s sister. C’s husband is D. E is A’s brother. D’s son is F. Then F is B’s

  1. ((a))

    Nephew

  2. ((b))

    Cousin

  3. ((c))

    Son-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nephew

65

If A says “B is the son of my sister’s daughter’s husband’s father-in-law”, then A is B’s

  1. ((a))

    Maternal uncle

  2. ((b))

    Paternal uncle

  3. ((c))

     Father-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Brother-in-law

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maternal uncle

66

If A + B means A is son of B and A × B means A is brother of B, then A × B + C means

  1. ((a))

    A is father of C

  2. ((b))

    A is son of C

  3. ((c))

    B is father of C

  4. ((d))

    B is brother of C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A is father of C

67

Every student of an educational institution speaks either Telugu or Hindi or English. If 50 students can speak both Telugu and English, 35 both Telugu and Hindi, 25 both English and Hindi, 5 can speak all the 3 languages, 15 can speak only Telugu, 25 can speak only Hindi and 10 can speak only English, then the total number of students of that institution is

  1. ((a))

    145

  2. ((b))

    165

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    160

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

145

68

The converse of the statement “If a number is even, then it is divisible by 2” is given by “If a number is divisible by 2, then it is even”. Here both the statement and its converse are true. With this information, choose the statement among the following four true statements whose converse is also true.

  1. ((a))

    If a triangle is an equilateral, then it is isosceles.

  2. ((b))

    If a number is divisible by 6, then it is divisible by 3.

  3. ((c))

    If the sum of all the digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number is divisible by 3.

  4. ((d))

    If a quadrilateral is a square, then its sides are equal. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If a triangle is an equilateral, then it is isosceles.

69

If ‘@’ means ‘+’, ‘#’ means ‘–’, ‘’means‘÷’and‘’ means ‘÷’ and ‘%’ means ‘×’, then the value of 49@64#7525%36 is

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    -123

  3. ((c))

    93

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

70

A car covers a distance of 560 km in 8 hrs. The speed of a bike is five-sevenths of the speed of the car. If the ratio of the speeds of the bike and a train is 5:9, then the distance (in km) covered by the train in 5 hours is

  1. ((a))

    250

  2. ((b))

    450

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    400

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

250

71

The distance between two stations A and B is 240 km. It takes 2 hours for the two cars L and W to cross each other if they start respectively from A and B at the same time towards each other. Further, it takes 8 hours for L to overtake W if they both start at the same time from A and B in the same direction. Then the speed of the car L (in kmph) is

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    50

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    80

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

45

72

An employee will be late by 12 minutes to his office if he rides his bike at a speed of 40 kmph and he will be on time to his office if he rides his bike at a speed of 50 kmph. Then the distance (in km) of his office from his house is

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

80

73

Directions: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the conclusion(s) follow(s) the statement. Give your answer as

Statement : As it stands today, some Indian sports are not what they were once. India had significant victories in football and hockey earlier.

Conclusions :

I) Presently we have no good players in football and hockey in our country.

II) India lost many football and hockey matches in recent years.

  1. ((a))

    if only conclusion I follows;

  2. ((b))

    if only conclusion II follows;

  3. ((c))

    if neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    if both conclusions I and II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if only conclusion I follows;

74

Directions: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the conclusion(s) follow(s) the statement. Give your answer as

Statement : All rectangles are parallelograms.

Conclusions :

I) No parallelogram is a rectangle.

II) All parallelograms are rectangles

  1. ((a))

    if only conclusion I follows;

  2. ((b))

    if only conclusion II follows;

  3. ((c))

    if neither conclusion I nor II follows;

  4. ((d))

    if both conclusions I and II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if only conclusion I follows;

75

Directions: In the following question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the conclusion(s) follow(s) the statement. Give your answer as

Statement : A and B are extremities of a diameter of a circle. P and Q are any two points on the circle such that APBQ is a quadrilateral.

Conclusions :

I) ∠APB = ∠AQB

II) ∠PAQ = ∠QBP

  1. ((a))

    if only conclusion I follows;

  2. ((b))

    if only conclusion II follows;

  3. ((c))

    if neither conclusion I nor II follows;

  4. ((d))

    if both conclusions I and II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

if only conclusion I follows;

76

Two objects A and B are projected up with velocities 20 ms–1 and 30 ms–1 respectively. The ratio of the distances travelled by them in the last second of their ascending motion is

  1. ((a))

    2 : 3

  2. ((b))

    4 : 1

  3. ((c))

    1 : 1

  4. ((d))

    9 : 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 : 3

77

A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving on a circle of radius ‘R’ with uniform speed ‘v’. The average force on particle in the interval in which it completes a half circle is equal to

  1. ((a))

    mv2R\rm \frac{mv^2}{R}

  2. ((b))

    2mv2πR\rm \frac{2mv^2}{\pi R}

  3. ((c))

    mv2πR\rm \frac{mv^2}{\pi R}

  4. ((d))

    mv22πR\rm \frac{mv^2}{2\pi R}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

mv2R\rm \frac{mv^2}{R}

78

A man of mass 80 kg is moving in the compartment of a train with a velocity of 10 ms–1 eastward with respect to train frame. The train is moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1 westward with respect to ground. The kinetic energy of a man in the ground frame in Joules is

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    4 × 103

  3. ((c))

    16 × 103

  4. ((d))

    8 × 103

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

79

How much of heat is to be removed from 50 g of water at 50°C to convert it into ice at 0°C? (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g–1 and specific heat of water = 1 cal/g/°C)

  1. ((a))

    6500 calorie

  2. ((b))

    650 calorie

  3. ((c))

    650 J

  4. ((d))

    6500 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6500 calorie

80

The speed of sound in air is 340 ms–1. If its frequency is 170 Hz, then the distance between compression and immediate rarefaction (in metres) is

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

81

The phenomenon which is not involved in the formation of rainbow is

  1. ((a))

     Dispersion

  2. ((b))

    Total internal reflection

  3. ((c))

     Refraction

  4. ((d))

    Diffraction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Dispersion

82

In the circuit shown below potential at point A is 20 V. The potential in volts at point B is

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

83

 Two particles start simultaneously from origin and moves along +ve X-axis. One particle moves with uniform acceleration starting from the rest and second particle moves with constant velocity. The distance between them

  1. ((a))

    Continuously increases

  2. ((b))

    Does not change

  3. ((c))

    First increases, decreases to zero and then increases

  4. ((d))

    First increases, reaches a maximum value and then remains constant 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Continuously increases

84

The products formed during the electrolysis of brine are

  1. ((a))

    Na2SO4, SO2, H2

  2. ((b))

    NaOH, H2, Cl2

  3. ((c))

    NaCl, H2, Cl2

  4. ((d))

    Na2CO3, CO2, H2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Na2SO4, SO2, H2

85

Which of the following is an ingredient in antacids?

  1. ((a))

    Na2CO3

  2. ((b))

    Na2SO4

  3. ((c))

    NaHCO3

  4. ((d))

    MgSO4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Na2CO3

86

Identify the metals which do not react either with cold water or hot water from the list given under.

I. Mg

II. Al

III. K

IV. Zn

V. Fe

VI. Na

  1. ((a))

    I, II, VI only

  2. ((b))

    III, IV only

  3. ((c))

    II, IV, V only

  4. ((d))

    II, VI only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II, VI only

87

Which of the following has the lowest pH value?

  1. ((a))

    Blood

  2. ((b))

    Gastric juice

  3. ((c))

    Pure water

  4. ((d))

    Sodium hydroxide solution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Blood

88

Which ores are generally subjected to roasting in the extraction of metals?

  1. ((a))

    Oxide ores

  2. ((b))

    Sulphide ores

  3. ((c))

    Carbonate ores

  4. ((d))

    Sulphate ores

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Oxide ores

89

The metal lead is present in the ore, X and metal mercury is present in the ore Y. X and Y are respectively

  1. ((a))

    Bauxite, Pyrolusite

  2. ((b))

    Haematite, Galena

  3. ((c))

    Galena, Cinnabar

  4. ((d))

    Cinnabar, Galena

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bauxite, Pyrolusite

90

The oxide of metal ‘X’ reacts with both hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide. What is X?

  1. ((a))

    Na

  2. ((b))

    Mg

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    Al

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Na

91

Following are some of the organisms in an ecosystem. Arrange them as a food chain.

I) Frog II) Grass III) Snake IV) Eagle V) Locust

  1. ((a))

    II → I → III → IV → V

  2. ((b))

    II → V → I → III → IV

  3. ((c))

     IV → III → I → V → II

  4. ((d))

    V → II → IV → III → I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

II → I → III → IV → V

92

Snow-blindness is due to

  1. ((a))

    Infrared rays

  2. ((b))

    UV - A rays

  3. ((c))

    UV - B rays

  4. ((d))

    X - rays

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Infrared rays

93

Pick up the mismatched pair

  1. ((a))

    Coxal glands - Scorpions

  2. ((b))

    Malpighian tubules - Insects

  3. ((c))

    Nephridia - Prawns

  4. ((d))

    Flame cells - Flatworms 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coxal glands - Scorpions

94

Match the following.

List I (Chordate group)List II (Example)
(a)Fishes(i)Bungarus
(b)Amphibia(ii)Camelus
(c)Reptilia(iii)Labeo
(d)Mammalia(iv)Passer
(v)Bufo
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii

  2. ((b))

    a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii

  3. ((c))

    a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii

  4. ((d))

    a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii

95

Catalytic converters are used to

  1. ((a))

    Control SO2 pollution

  2. ((b))

    Control poisonous gases in automobile exhausts

  3. ((c))

    Control particulates of exhausts of thermal power plants

  4. ((d))

    Dispose hospital wastes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Control SO2 pollution

96

Polyembryony is common in

  1. ((a))

    Banana

  2. ((b))

    Tomato

  3. ((c))

    Potato

  4. ((d))

    Citrus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banana

97

Match the following.

List I (Alkaloid)List II (Use)
(a)Caffeine(i)Antiseptic
(b)Nimbin(ii)Sedative
(c)Scopolamine(iii)Excitation of nervous system
(d)Pyrethroid(iv)Treatment of Malaria
(v)Insecticide
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

  2. ((b))

    a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

  3. ((c))

     a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-v

  4. ((d))

    a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

98

Statement I : The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative phosphorylation. '

Statement II : NADH is oxidised to NAD+ fastly in fermentation and slowly in aerobic respiration

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II are true.

  2. ((b))

    Both statements I and II are false.

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II are true.

99

Study the following statements and pick up the correct ones.

I) No energy expenditure takes place in diffusion.

II) In facilitated diffusion special proteins help to move substances across the membrane by utilising ATP.

III) In plants transport of materials over longer distances proceeds through the xylem and phloem and is called translocation.

IV) Facilitated diffusion is non specific for molecules to be transported.

  1. ((a))

    I, II

  2. ((b))

    II, IV

  3. ((c))

    I, III

  4. ((d))

    III, IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I, II

100

Study the following and pick up the correct statements

I) A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus with a root system.

II) The water loss through the leaves of plants in its liquid phase is called guttation.

III) Transpiration occurs mainly through the stomata in the leaves.

IV) No energy is required for diffusion.

  1. ((a))

    I only

  2. ((b))

    I and II only

  3. ((c))

    I, II and III only

  4. ((d))

    I, II, III and IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I only

101

Appearance of hair on the head of human embryo occurs at this month of pregnancy

  1. ((a))

    3rd month

  2. ((b))

    5th month

  3. ((c))

    7th month

  4. ((d))

    9th month

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3rd month

102

Pick up the odd one

  1. ((a))

    Mangifera

  2. ((b))

    Cycas

  3. ((c))

    Pinus

  4. ((d))

    Ginkgo

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mangifera

103

Genotypic ratio of Mendelian Monohybrid cross in F2 generation is

  1. ((a))

    3:1

  2. ((b))

    1:1 

  3. ((c))

    1:0

  4. ((d))

    1:2:1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3:1

104

Statement I : In sponges, digestion is intracellular and they have canal system.

Statement II : Cnidarians having exoskeleton are able to form islands in sea called coral reefs.

  1. ((a))

    Both statements I and II are true.

  2. ((b))

     Both statements I and II are false. 

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true, but statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both statements I and II are true.

105

Function of synergids is

  1. ((a))

    Nutrition

  2. ((b))

    Directing the pollen tube

  3. ((c))

    Formation of endosperm

  4. ((d))

    Formation of pollen grains

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nutrition

106

The number ‘zero’ was first invented by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Romans

  2. ((b))

    Arabs

  3. ((c))

    Indians

  4. ((d))

    Greeks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Romans

107

Who is the first martyr of the 1857 Revolt?

  1. ((a))

    Mangal Pandey

  2. ((b))

    Bahadur Shah II

  3. ((c))

    Nana Saheb

  4. ((d))

    Jhansi Lakshmibai

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mangal Pandey

108

In which Indus valley site more number of wells were discovered?

  1. ((a))

    Harappa

  2. ((b))

    Kalibangan

  3. ((c))

    Lothal

  4. ((d))

    Mohanjodaro

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harappa

109

Name the Principal of the Anglo-oriental college, Aligarh, that changed the attitude of Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan towards the Indian National Congress.

  1. ((a))

    Theoder Marison

  2. ((b))

    Henry Siddons

  3. ((c))

    Theodore Beck

  4. ((d))

    William Archbold

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Theoder Marison

110

Match the following.

List IList II
(a)Lingaraja Temple(i)Chola
(b)Vaikunta Perumal Temple(ii)Hoyasala
(c)Brihadisvara Temple(iii)Ganga
(d)Belur Chennakeshava Temple(iv)Pallava
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

  2. ((b))

    a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

  3. ((c))

    a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

  4. ((d))

    a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

111

Match the following.

List IList II
(a)Lord Dalhousie(i)Local Self Government
(b)William Bentinck(ii)Pindaris
(c)Lord Hastings(iii)Thugs
(d)Lord Rippon(iv)Annexation of Oudh
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

  2. ((b))

    a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

  3. ((c))

    a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

  4. ((d))

    a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

112

The revolutionary organization ‘India House’ established in London was handed over in 1907 to

  1. ((a))

    Mahadev Govinda Ranade

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  3. ((c))

    Bala Gangadhar Tilak

  4. ((d))

    Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahadev Govinda Ranade

113

The Sabarmati Ashram was established by Gandhiji during the period.

  1. ((a))

    A.D. 1906-1907

  2. ((b))

     A.D. 1913-1914

  3. ((c))

    A.D. 1915-1916

  4. ((d))

    A.D. 1917-1918 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A.D. 1906-1907

114

In which year Vasco da Gama first reached to Calicut?

  1. ((a))

    A.D. 1498

  2. ((b))

    A.D. 1492

  3. ((c))

    A.D. 1598

  4. ((d))

    A.D. 1491 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A.D. 1498

115

The Hunter Committee was appointed

  1. ((a))

    To control extremists activity

  2. ((b))

    To negotiate with moderates

  3. ((c))

    To report on salt satyagraha

  4. ((d))

    To enquire into the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To control extremists activity

116

Which text among the following is considered as Buddha’s biography.

  1. ((a))

    Vinaya Pitaka

  2. ((b))

    Sutta Pitaka 

  3. ((c))

    Abhidhamma Pitaka

  4. ((d))

    Buddhacharita

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vinaya Pitaka

117

Who described 1857 Revolt as the First war of Indian Independence?

  1. ((a))

    Ganesh Savarkar

  2. ((b))

    Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

  3. ((c))

    Bala Gangadhar Tilak

  4. ((d))

    Vallabhbai Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ganesh Savarkar

118

Which was the first Mookee Movie in Telugu?

  1. ((a))

     Raja Harischandra

  2. ((b))

    Bhishma Pratigna

  3. ((c))

    Malapilla

  4. ((d))

    Raitu Bidda

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Raja Harischandra

119

In which year the Muslim League passed a resolution demanding Pakistan?

  1. ((a))

    A.D. 1937

  2. ((b))

     A.D. 1936

  3. ((c))

    A.D. 1940

  4. ((d))

    A.D. 1942

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A.D. 1937

120

Which was the first Newspaper in India?

  1. ((a))

    Bengal News

  2. ((b))

    The Hindu

  3. ((c))

    Amrit Bazar

  4. ((d))

    Bengal Gazzette

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bengal News

121

In which of the following Congress session Non-Cooperation resolution is passed

  1. ((a))

    Nagpur

  2. ((b))

    Calcutta

  3. ((c))

    Vijayawada

  4. ((d))

    Amritsar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nagpur

122

Who among the following was the founder of Indian National Congress?

  1. ((a))

    Bala Gangadhar Tilak 

  2. ((b))

    William Wedderburn 

  3. ((c))

    Bruce T. McCully

  4. ((d))

    Allan Octavian Hume

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bala Gangadhar Tilak 

123

Who wrote the book ‘Poverty and un-British rule in India’?

  1. ((a))

    Ramesh Chandra Dutt

  2. ((b))

    Rudder Palme Dutt

  3. ((c))

    Dadabhai Naoroji 

  4. ((d))

    Surendranath Benerjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ramesh Chandra Dutt

124

“Give me blood, I will give you freedom” - Who said

  1. ((a))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. ((b))

    Subhash Chandra Bose 

  3. ((c))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  4. ((d))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jawaharlal Nehru

125

India was transferred from East India Company to British Crown in the year

  1. ((a))

    A.D. 1858

  2. ((b))

    A.D. 1857

  3. ((c))

    A.D. 1859

  4. ((d))

     A.D. 1947

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A.D. 1858

126

Which formula was proposed by Muhammad Ali Jinnah after rejection of Nehru Report?

  1. ((a))

    Thirteen points

  2. ((b))

    Fourteen points

  3. ((c))

    Fifteen points

  4. ((d))

    Sixteen points

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thirteen points

127

Under Lahore conspiracy case, Shiva Ram Hari Rajguru was executed on the following date

  1. ((a))

    23 March 1931

  2. ((b))

     23 April 1931

  3. ((c))

    23 February 1931

  4. ((d))

    23 January 1931

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

23 March 1931

128

Which one among the following was not the founders of the revolutionary organization Hindustan Republic Association?

  1. ((a))

    Chandra Shekhar Azad

  2. ((b))

    Sachin Sanyal

  3. ((c))

    Ram Prasad Bismil

  4. ((d))

    Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chandra Shekhar Azad

129

The British Officer Saundars was assassinated by

  1. ((a))

    Bhagat Singh

  2. ((b))

    Surya Sen 

  3. ((c))

    Jatindas

  4. ((d))

    Sachin Sanyal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhagat Singh

130

Who criticized the offers of the Cripps Mission as “the post dated cheque drawn on a folling bank”?

  1. ((a))

    Nehru

  2. ((b))

    Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Azad

  4. ((d))

    Rajendra Prasad

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nehru

131

Naganika who ruled the South India as a regent during the Satavahana period was the Queen of the following ruler?

  1. ((a))

    Srimukha

  2. ((b))

    Satakarni I

  3. ((c))

    Satakarni II

  4. ((d))

    Gowthami Putra Satakarni

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Srimukha

132

During the Satavahana period, for the Administrative purpose kingdom was divided as following

  1. ((a))

    Ahara

  2. ((b))

    Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Sima

  4. ((d))

    Sthala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ahara

133

Who was the founder of the Pancharamas in Andhra? 

  1. ((a))

    Kubja Vishnu Vardhana

  2. ((b))

    Pulakeshin II

  3. ((c))

    Rajaraja Narendra

  4. ((d))

    Chalukya Bhima I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kubja Vishnu Vardhana

134

Place the following rulers of Vijayanagara in the chronological order

i) Achyuta Deva Raya

ii) Deva Raya II

iii) Venkatapati II

iv) Saluva Narasimha

  1. ((a))

     i, ii, iii, iv

  2. ((b))

    iv, iii, ii, i

  3. ((c))

    iii, i, iv, ii

  4. ((d))

    ii, iv, i, iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 i, ii, iii, iv

135

Who was the Author of the work “Sakalaniti Sammatam”?

  1. ((a))

    Prolaraja II

  2. ((b))

    Madiki Singana

  3. ((c))

    Singa Bhupala

  4. ((d))

    Rudrama Devi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Prolaraja II

136

The construction of Orugallu Fort was initiated by the following Kakatiya ruler. 

  1. ((a))

    Rudra Deva

  2. ((b))

    Ganapati Deva

  3. ((c))

    Rudrama Devi

  4. ((d))

    Prola Raja II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rudra Deva

137

In the following which Telugu work describes the daily life of Krishna Devaraya?

  1. ((a))

    Manucharitra

  2. ((b))

    Amukthamalyada

  3. ((c))

    Rayavachakam

  4. ((d))

    Krishna Devaraya Dinachare

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manucharitra

138

Vajrakarur is famous for

  1. ((a))

    Textiles

  2. ((b))

    Gold

  3. ((c))

    Diamonds

  4. ((d))

    Copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Textiles

139

Andhra Mahila Sabha was established by

  1. ((a))

    Sarojini Naidu

  2. ((b))

    Durgabai Deshmukh

  3. ((c))

    Muttu Lakshmi Reddi

  4. ((d))

    Duvvuri Subbamma

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sarojini Naidu

140

Sri Mukhalingam is located on the banks of the river

  1. ((a))

    Vamsadhara

  2. ((b))

    Nagavali

  3. ((c))

    Gosthani

  4. ((d))

    Champavati

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vamsadhara

141

Which of the following longitude is called as international date line?

  1. ((a))

    150° E

  2. ((b))

    160° W

  3. ((c))

    180°

  4. ((d))

    0°

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150° E

142

Which State of India occupies first position in Jowar production?

  1. ((a))

     Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Andhra Pradesh

143

Match the following.

List IList II
(a)Yarada(i)Bapatla
(b)Manginapudi(ii)Nellore
(c)Suryalanka(iii)Visakhapatnam
(d)Mypadu(iv)Krishna
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

  2. ((b))

    a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

  3. ((c))

    a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

  4. ((d))

    a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

144

Which of the following Rock is not a Igneous Rock? 

  1. ((a))

    Granite

  2. ((b))

    Basalt

  3. ((c))

    Quartzite

  4. ((d))

    Pegmatite

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Granite

145

Which of the following is not a tributary of the river Bramhaputra?

  1. ((a))

    Teesta

  2. ((b))

    Manas

  3. ((c))

    Luni

  4. ((d))

    Dihong

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Teesta

146

Average monthly values of maximum temperature, minimum temperature and rainfall for a place can be represented by

  1. ((a))

     Climograph

  2. ((b))

    Thematic map

  3. ((c))

    Climate map

  4. ((d))

    Histogram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Climograph

147

The shape of the Earth’s orbit is

  1. ((a))

    A circular path

  2. ((b))

    An elongated oval path

  3. ((c))

    A scaled oval path

  4. ((d))

    A definite path

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A circular path

148

The moist deciduous forests located in North Eastern Andhra Pradesh grow in the following range of rainfall.

  1. ((a))

    100-200 cm

  2. ((b))

    < 75 cm

  3. ((c))

    > 250 cm

  4. ((d))

    50-75 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100-200 cm

149

Choose the incorrect statement.

  1. ((a))

    India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods in the world. 

  2. ((b))

    India stands first in the world in sugar production.

  3. ((c))

    India stands first in the world in jaggery production.

  4. ((d))

    India stands ninth in the world in crude steel production.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods in the world. 

150

The Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Goa

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu

151

Clause 2 of Article 13 in Indian Constitution is not applicable to

  1. ((a))

    Law made by the Parliament

  2. ((b))

    Ordinance issued by the President of India

  3. ((c))

    Constitutional amendment made under Article 368

  4. ((d))

    A decision taken by Union Cabinet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Law made by the Parliament

152

Which of the following is not correct with regard to Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.

  2. ((b))

     Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by writs.

  3. ((c))

    Ten Fundamental Duties are incorporated by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. 

  4. ((d))

    Eleventh Fundamental Duty was added by 87th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.

153

Which of the following is not correct with regard to Vice President of India?

  1. ((a))

    He draws his salary as Chair Person of Rajya Sabha.

  2. ((b))

    His salary is paid from Public Account of India. 

  3. ((c))

    His tenure is five years.

  4. ((d))

    He is elected by Members of Parliament.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

He draws his salary as Chair Person of Rajya Sabha.

154

The Directive Principle in Article 43B relating to co-operative societies was incorporated by this Constitutional Amendment Act

  1. ((a))

    91st Constitutional Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    93rd Constitutional Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

    95th Constitutional Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

     97th Constitutional Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

91st Constitutional Amendment Act

155

Which of the following is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    Rajya Sabha provides representation to States.

  2. ((b))

    Deputy Chair Person of Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha. 

  3. ((c))

    There is no reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in Rajya Sabha.

  4. ((d))

    The normal life of Rajya Sabha is six years.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rajya Sabha provides representation to States.

156

From the following identify the State which has higher representation in Rajya Sabha

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

157

Lord Rippon’s famous resolution on Local Self Government was passed on

  1. ((a))

    18th May, 1882

  2. ((b))

    21st May, 1882

  3. ((c))

    11th May, 1882

  4. ((d))

    9th May, 1882

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18th May, 1882

158

Panchayats at the Intermediate Level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding

  1. ((a))

    20 lakhs

  2. ((b))

    30 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    40 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    25 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20 lakhs

159

The word ‘Cabinet’ is incorporated in the Indian Constitution by this Constitutional Amendment Act

  1. ((a))

    42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    24th Constitutional Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

     44th Constitutional Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

    45th Constitutional Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

160

The Judges of International Court of Justice are appointed by

  1. ((a))

    Secretary General of UNO

  2. ((b))

    Security Council

  3. ((c))

    General Assembly

  4. ((d))

    General Assembly and Security Council

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Secretary General of UNO

161

A representative elected by the people can be removed by adopting this method in Direct Democracy.

  1. ((a))

    Referendum

  2. ((b))

    Recall

  3. ((c))

    Plebiscite

  4. ((d))

    Initiative

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Referendum

162

NOTA (None of the above) option in Electronic Voting Machines was introduced for the first time in the elections to State Legislative Assemblies held in the year.

  1. ((a))

    2012

  2. ((b))

    2010

  3. ((c))

    2013

  4. ((d))

    2015

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2012

163

Open Ballot System is adopted in this election of our country.

  1. ((a))

    Election of Members to Rajya Sabha

  2. ((b))

    Election of Members to State Legislative Assembly

  3. ((c))

    Election of Members to Nagara Panchayat

  4. ((d))

    Open Ballot System is not adopted in any election of our country

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Election of Members to Rajya Sabha

164

“Elephant” is the election symbol of this political party in Assam.

  1. ((a))

    Asom Gana Parishad

  2. ((b))

    Bodo Land People’s Front

  3. ((c))

    All India United Democratic Front

  4. ((d))

     Janata Dal (United)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Asom Gana Parishad

165

The following language is not found in the 8th Schedule of Indian Constitution

  1. ((a))

    Sindhi

  2. ((b))

    Urdu

  3. ((c))

    Dogri

  4. ((d))

    Gondi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sindhi

166

What are the basic indices for measuring quality of life of people in developing countries?

  1. ((a))

    Real income, Health and Educational attainments

  2. ((b))

    Real income, Health and under weight of children below 5 years

  3. ((c))

    Health, Education, Infant mortality rate

  4. ((d))

    Income, Health and Educational attainments

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Real income, Health and Educational attainments

167

Based on which of the following, Indian Economy is said to be a dualistic economy? 

  1. ((a))

    Existence of large scale income and wealth inequalities

  2. ((b))

    Recording higher rate of population growth

  3. ((c))

    Existence of modern and traditional economy

  4. ((d))

    In efficient utilization of natural resources

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Existence of large scale income and wealth inequalities

168

In respect of which of the following, India emerged as the largest producer and consumer in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Meat

  2. ((b))

    Pulses

  3. ((c))

    Eggs

  4. ((d))

    Tea

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Meat

169

The objective of Pradhana Mantri Grama Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is

  1. ((a))

    Integrated development of scheduled caste dominated villages in the country

  2. ((b))

    Unconnected habitations in rural areas are to be connected

  3. ((c))

    To provide old age pension and maternity benefits

  4. ((d))

    To issue property ownership cards to property owners in rural areas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Integrated development of scheduled caste dominated villages in the country

170

In which year the new industrial policy announced the abolisation of industrial licensing in India?

  1. ((a))

    1948

  2. ((b))

    1951

  3. ((c))

    1956

  4. ((d))

    1991

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1948

171

Which of the following activity is not a part of service sector?

  1. ((a))

     Fish farming

  2. ((b))

    Warehousing of fish

  3. ((c))

    Transportation of fish

  4. ((d))

    Sale of fish

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Fish farming

172

According to J.M. Keynes, what is the main cause of unemployment in developed countries?

  1. ((a))

    High Population

  2. ((b))

    Introduced Automation

  3. ((c))

    Low effective demand

  4. ((d))

    Low quality of Education

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

High Population

173

As per 2011 census which one of the following districts in Andhra Pradesh (after bifurcation 2014) has the highest sex ratio?

  1. ((a))

    Vijayanagaram

  2. ((b))

    Srikakulam

  3. ((c))

    Krishna

  4. ((d))

    Visakhapatnam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vijayanagaram

174

Who established the EX-IM Bank?

  1. ((a))

    The Government of India

  2. ((b))

    The Reserve Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    The World Bank

  4. ((d))

    The IMF

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Government of India

175

TRIMs and TRIPs agreements are related to which of the following International Organisation?

  1. ((a))

    W.T.O.

  2. ((b))

    I.B.R.D

  3. ((c))

    I.L.O.

  4. ((d))

    I.M.F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W.T.O.

176

Match the following incidents with their respective dates.

List IList II
(a)Prime Minister of India Commissioned INS-VIKRANT on(i)1st July 2022
(b)Ban on identified single use plastic items in India came into force from(ii)2nd September 2022
(c)The First National Start-up Day in India was celebrated on(iii)21st July 2022
(d)Smt. Droupadi Murmu elected as the 15th President of India on(iv)16th January 2022
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

  2. ((b))

    a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

  3. ((c))

    a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

  4. ((d))

    a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

177

Choose the correct statements regarding the awards of Swachh Survekshan - 2022.

a) Indore won the cleanest city title for the sixth consecutive year in more than 1 lakh population category.

b) Panchgani won the cleanest city title for the less than 1 lakh population category.

c) Tirupati received the best city award in Safai Mitra Suraksha category.

d) Rishikesh received the award for the best Ganga town in more than 1 lakh population category.

  1. ((a))

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. ((b))

     (b), (c) and (d) only

  3. ((c))

    (a), (c) and (d) only

  4. ((d))

     (a), (b) and (d) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a), (b) and (c) only

178

According to the MoU between the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer’s Welfare Govt. of India, and United Nation’s Development Programme (UNDP) in May 2022, UNDP provides technical support to the following.

a) PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PMKSNY)

b) Kisan Credit Card - Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (KCC - MISS)

c) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)

d) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b) only

  2. ((b))

    (b) and (c) only

  3. ((c))

    (c) and (d) only

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (d) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b) only

179

Name the category in which the highest number of gold and highest number of silver medals won by the India in the Common Wealth Games - 2022 respectively.

  1. ((a))

    Athletics and Judo

  2. ((b))

    Athletics and Wrestling

  3. ((c))

    Wrestling and Athletics

  4. ((d))

    Wrestling and Weight lifting

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Athletics and Judo

180

The winner of both the U.S. Open and French Open Women’s Tennis singles titles, in 2022 is

  1. ((a))

    Elena Rybakina

  2. ((b))

    Iga Swiatek

  3. ((c))

    Ashleigh Barty

  4. ((d))

    Coco Guaff

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elena Rybakina

181

According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, India’s overall score on the NITI Aayog’s SDG India Index and Dashboard in 2020-21 is

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    66

  4. ((d))

    67

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

64

182

The Reserve Bank of India published Financial Inclusion Index in August 2022. According to the report the raise in the value of Financial Inclusion Index from March 2021 to March 2022 is

  1. ((a))

    53.9 to 59.3

  2. ((b))

    56.4 to 59.3

  3. ((c))

    53.9 to 56.4

  4. ((d))

    54.9 to 56.4

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

53.9 to 59.3

183

Expand the IPMDA which was initiated in the Quad - Leader’s Summit - 2022, in Tokyo in May 2022.

  1. ((a))

    Indo-Pacific Partnership for Medical and Drugs Awareness.

  2. ((b))

    Inclusive Participation in Maritime Domestic Arms.

  3. ((c))

    Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness.

  4. ((d))

     International Participation in Maintaining Drug Awareness.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indo-Pacific Partnership for Medical and Drugs Awareness.

184

The first woman appointed as the Director General of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.

  1. ((a))

    Jyotirmayee Dash

  2. ((b))

    Neena Gupta

  3. ((c))

    Chandrima Saha

  4. ((d))

    Nallathamby Kalaiselvi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jyotirmayee Dash

185

Choose the incorrect statements regarding the field of education and skill development in Union Budget - 2022-23.

  1. ((a))

    One class - One TV channel programme of PM eVIDYA will be expanded from 12 to 100 TV channels.

  2. ((b))

    Startups will be promoted to facilitate Drone Shakti for Drone-As-A-Service.

  3. ((c))

    Establishment Digital University to provide universal education

  4. ((d))

    Launch of DESH-Stack e-portal : A Digital Ecosystem for skilling and livelihood.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One class - One TV channel programme of PM eVIDYA will be expanded from 12 to 100 TV channels.

186

‘Anubhuti’ - the QR code-based feedback system launched in February 2022 was aimed to

  1. ((a))

    Address the problems of the female artists of film industry in Mumbai.

  2. ((b))

    Analyse the requirements of the students of Class X in Mumbai.

  3. ((c))

    Ensure the safety and security of the people with maximum use of technology in Delhi.

  4. ((d))

     Address the problems of female workers in Delhi.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Address the problems of the female artists of film industry in Mumbai.

187

Choose the correct sentences from the following.

a) On the occasion of world Bio-fuel Day, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi dedicated the 2nd Generation (2G) Ethanol plant in Panipat, Haryana to the nation.

b) The 2G Ethanol plant has been built by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) at an estimated cost of over Rs. 1000 crores.

c) The project will have zero liquid discharge.

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (b) only

  2. ((b))

    (a) and (c) only

  3. ((c))

    (b) and (c) only

  4. ((d))

    (a), (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (b) only

188

According to the Global Gender Gap Report 2022, the India’s rank is

  1. ((a))

    125

  2. ((b))

    135

  3. ((c))

    145

  4. ((d))

    115

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

125

189

Match the following Raman Magsaysay Award 2022 winners with their countries.

List IList II
(a)Chhim Sotheara(i)Japan
(b)Hattori Tadashi(ii)Indonesia
(c)Madrid Bernadette. J.(iii)Cambodia
(d)Bencheghib Gary(iv)Philippines
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

  2. ((b))

    a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

  3. ((c))

    a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

  4. ((d))

    a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

190

The Nobel Prize-2022 winners in Chemistry are

  1. ((a))

    K. Barry Sharpless, Alain Aspect and Svante Paabo

  2. ((b))

    Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal and K. Barry Sharpless

  3. ((c))

    Morten Meldal, Anton Zeilinger and John. F. Clauser

  4. ((d))

    Carolyne R. Bertozzi, Svante Paabo and Anton Zeilinger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

K. Barry Sharpless, Alain Aspect and Svante Paabo

191

Choose the incorrect statements regarding GSAT-24 satellite.

a) ISRO successfully launched GSAT-24 satellite from Kourou in French Guiana in June 2022.

b) Weight of GSAT-24 is 3180 kg.

c) GSAT-24 is a 24-Ku band communication satellite.

d) The satellite was successfully placed into geostationary orbit by the Ariane - IV rocket.

  1. ((a))

     (a) & (b)

  2. ((b))

    (b) & (c)

  3. ((c))

    (c) & (d)

  4. ((d))

    (b) & (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 (a) & (b)

192

In August 2022 Modern equipment was supplied to Indian Army. Nipun is one of them. It is a

  1. ((a))

    light weight helicopter

  2. ((b))

    missile that reaches exact target

  3. ((c))

    anti-personnel mine

  4. ((d))

    thermal imager 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

light weight helicopter

193

Match the Military/Naval exercises with their participating countries.

List IList II
(a)SAREX-2022(i)India-US joint military exercise
(b)Dharma Guardian-2022(ii)Indian coast guard exercise
(c)Varuna-2022(iii)India-Japan Joint Military exercise
(d)VAJRA PRAHAR-2022(iv)India-France Naval exercise
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

  2. ((b))

    a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

  3. ((c))

     a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

  4. ((d))

     a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

194

Choose the countries that joined the steering board of First Movers Coalition led by WEF and US Government in May 2022.

  1. ((a))

    Japan, Sweden and Germany

  2. ((b))

    India, Germany and Sweden

  3. ((c))

     Japan, Germany and India

  4. ((d))

    India, Japan and Sweden

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Japan, Sweden and Germany

195

As on August 13, 2022 India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar Sites. Choose the correct statement from the following regarding the number of new sites added from the respective States.

  1. ((a))

    Tamil Nadu-2, Odisha-3, Jammu & Kashmir-4, Madhya Pradesh-1, Maharashtra-1

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu-3, Odisha-4, Jammu & Kashmir-2, Madhya Pradesh-1, Maharashtra-1

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu-4, Odisha-3, Jammu & Kashmir-1, Madhya Pradesh-2, Maharashtra-1

  4. ((d))

    Tamil Nadu-4, Odisha-3, Jammu & Kashmir-2, Madhya Pradesh-1, Maharashtra-1 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tamil Nadu-2, Odisha-3, Jammu & Kashmir-4, Madhya Pradesh-1, Maharashtra-1

196

On 25th February 2022 The Secretary General of the United Nations appointed the following as the Assistant Secretary General to serve as United Nations Crisis Coordinator for Ukraine.

  1. ((a))

    Michelle Bachelet

  2. ((b))

    Amin Awad

  3. ((c))

    Frederic Leclerc - Imhoff

  4. ((d))

    Wairimu Nderitu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Michelle Bachelet

197

The theme for World Maritime Day-2022 is

  1. ((a))

    Empowering women in the maritime community

  2. ((b))

    Sustainable shipping for a sustainable planet

  3. ((c))

    Seafarers : At the core of shipping’s future

  4. ((d))

    New technologies for greener shipping

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Empowering women in the maritime community

198

“Progress towards an equitable world” is the goal of the following summit held in 2022.

  1. ((a))

    G20 Summit

  2. ((b))

    G7 Summit

  3. ((c))

    BRICS Summit

  4. ((d))

    I2U2 Summit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

G20 Summit

199

Match the following persons with their respective positions/designations as on October 2022.

List IList II
(a)IMF - Executive Director(i)Sanjay Kishan Kaul
(b)DRDO Chairman(ii)Krishnamurty Subrahmanyan
(c)Supreme Court legal services committee chairman(iii)Sameer V. Kamath
(d)Scientific Advisor to Minister of Defence(iv)G. Satish Reddy
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

    a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

  2. ((b))

    a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

  3. ((c))

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

  4. ((d))

     a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

200

Match the following books with the authors. 

List I (Books)List II (Authors)
(a)In Free Fall : My Experiments with Living(i)Bimal Jalan
(b)India’s Economy from Nehru to Modi A Brief History(ii)Mallika Sarabhai
(c)From Dependence to Self Reliance(iii)Sahil Seth
(d)A Confused Mind Story(iv)Pulapre Balakrishnan
<br>

The correct answer is :

  1. ((a))

     a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

  2. ((b))

    a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

  3. ((c))

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

  4. ((d))

    a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

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