Official Paper

Allahabad High Court RO Official Paper (Held On: 10 Dec, 2021 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

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Test (200 questions)

How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

((a))
24
((b))
30
((c))
32
((d))
36

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The number of triangles in the give figure is shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 30 triangles.

Hence, “Option 2” is the correct answer.

Three of the following terms are alike in a certain way. Find the odd one out.

((a))
EFKL
((b))
QRWX
((c))
NOTU
((d))
HIMN

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

HIMN

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EFKL

Option 2) QRWX

Option 3) NOTU

Option 4) HIMN

Thus, out of all 'HIMN' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

If J = 10 and JAR = 29, then PICKLE = _________ .

((a))
56
((b))
58
((c))
62
((d))
64

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

J = 10

And,

JAR = 29

Similarly,

PICKLE = ___

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given Venn diagram represents which of the following relationships ?

((a))
Ponds, Waterfall, River
((b))
India, Monsoon, Desert
((c))
Furniture, Plastic, Bag
((d))
Furniture, Bag, Table

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Furniture, Bag, Table

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

Table is a type in furniture and bag is represented separately.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term

CE : XV :: GJ :

((a))
TQ
((b))
SP
((c))
UR
((d))
RO

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The logic followed here is:

CE : XV

Similarly,

GJ :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

In the following diagram, the triangle represents cricketers, the circle represents swimmers and the rectangle represents students. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons.

<br>

How many students are swimmers but not cricketers ?

((a))
17
((b))
18
((c))
13
((d))
14

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area represents students who are swimmers but not cricketers → 17

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The average of nine numbers is $40$ . If the average of the first five numbers is $38$ and the average of the last five numbers is $50$ , then what is the fifth number ?

((a))
80
((b))
75
((c))
70
((d))
65

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given:

Average of nine numbers → 40

Average of first five numbers → 38

Average of last five numbers → 50

Formula used: Sum of all observations = Average × Number of observations

Sum of all nine numbers → 40 × 9 = 360

Sum of first five numbers → 38 × 5 = 190

Sum of last five numbers → 50 × 5 = 250

5th number → (250 + 190) - 360 = 80

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

A + B means A is brother of B

A – B means A is husband of B

A × B means A is mother of B

A ÷ B means A is sister of B

If P + R ÷ T – K × O × C then how is P related to O ?

((a))
Paternal uncle
((b))
Maternal uncle
((c))
Paternal aunt
((d))
Maternal aunt

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Paternal uncle

A simple family tree diagram showing different relations.

A is
Symbol	+	-	×	÷
Meaning	Brother	Husband	Mother	Sister
of B

Given Expression: P + R ÷ T – K × O × C

P + R → P is the brother of R

R ÷ T → R is the sister of T

T – K → T is the husband of K

K × O → K is the mother of O

O × C → O is the mother of C

Thus, P is O's paternal uncle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will South become?

((a))
North - West
((b))
North - East
((c))
South - West
((d))
South - East

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

North - East

Given:

South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and son on.

So, the directions are rotating 135 degrees clockwise.

Thus, South will become North - East.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

((a))
115
((b))
127
((c))
108
((d))
112

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

127

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 115 → Composite number

Option 2) 127 → Prime number

Option 3) 108 → Composite number

Option 4) 112 → Composite number

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series ?

$83, 79, 71, 67, 59, 55, \text{?}$

((a))
43
((b))
45
((c))
47
((d))
49

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

Three different positions of the same die are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite the face showing 2 ?

((a))
6
((b))
3
((c))
1
((d))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 6 is common on both the dice I and II, it is clear that 4, 2, 1 and 5 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e., 3 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

2 → 5

4 → 1

6 → 3

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "5".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

In a code language, FIRST is written as URIHG. How will HUMAN be written in the same language ?

((a))
SEMZN
((b))
SGMZN
((c))
SHMZN
((d))
SFNZM

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

SFNZM

The logic followed here is:

FIRST is written as URIHG

Similarly,

HUMAN is written as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

In a class of 35 students, Aman’s rank is sixth from the top. Raj is seven ranks below Aman. What is Raj’s rank from the bottom ?

((a))
20^th
((b))
21^st
((c))
22^nd
((d))
23^rd

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

23^rd

According to the question:

Total students → 35

Aman’s rank from the top → 6th

Raj is seven ranks below Aman, so Raj’s rank from the top → 6th + 7 = 13th

Raj’s rank from the bottom → Total students - Raj’s rank from the top + 1

→ 35 - 13 + 1 = 23rd

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Select the number pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number pair.

$8 : 27$

((a))
125 : 145
((b))
64 : 81
((c))
49 : 64
((d))
216 : 343

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

216 : 343

The logic followed here is:

8 : 27 → (³√8 + 1)³ = (2 + 1)³ ⇒ 3³ → 27

Similarly,

216 : 343 → (3√216 + 1)3 = (6 + 1)3 ⇒ 73 → 343

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Select the letter cluster that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

DEC, HIG, ?, PQO, TUS

((a))
LMK
((b))
LKM
((c))
MLK
((d))
MKL

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

LMK

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

$ 546 : 591 :: 963 : _________ $

((a))
1002
((b))
1014
((c))
1008
((d))
1024

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1008

The logic followed here is:

546 : 591 → 546 + 45 = 591

Similarly,

963 : __ → 963 + 45 = 1008

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

In the following question, Figure A is embedded in one of the four answer Figures. Select the correct alternative.

<br>

((a))
(1)
((b))
(2)
((c))
(3)
((d))
(4)

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

(2)

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Study the pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?)

((a))
41
((b))
43
((c))
45
((d))
47

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is :-

→ √441 + 5 = 21 + 5 ⇒ 26

And,

→ √576 + 7 = 24 + 7 ⇒ 31

Similarly,

→ √1156 + 9 = 34 + 9 ⇒ 43

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Study the pattern and replace the question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

18	76	20
25	144	47
16	?	13

((a))
56
((b))
58
((c))
60
((d))
62

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is :-

1st Row → (20 + 18) × 2 = 38 × 2 ⇒ 76

And,

2nd Row → (47 + 25) × 2 = 72 × 2 ⇒ 144

Similarly,

3rd Row → (13 + 16) × 2 = 29 × 2 ⇒ 58

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

If ‘ $\div$ ’ stands for ‘ $+$ ’, ‘ $\times$ ’ stands for ‘ $\div$ ’, ‘ $+$ ’ stands for ‘ $–$ ’ and ‘ $–$ ’ stands for ‘ $\times$ ’, then what will be the value of the following expression?

16 - 4 + 12 × 3 ÷ 5 = ?

((a))
67
((b))
65
((c))
59
((d))
53

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Decoding signs:

Sign	÷	×	+	-
Stands For	+	÷	-	×

Given: 16 - 4 + 12 × 3 ÷ 5 = ?

16 - 4 + 12 × 3 ÷ 5 = ? ⇒ 16 × 4 - 12 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 16 × 4 - 12 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 16 × 4 - 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 64 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 69 - 4 = ?

⇒ 65 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Directions for questions:

According to a certain code.

(I) ‘kemp temp lemp’ means ‘speak the truth’

(II) ‘bemp timp nimp’ means ‘always seek knowledge’

(III) ‘timp lemp simp’ means ‘knowledge is truth’

(IV) ‘limp bemp zimp’ means ‘never seek violence’

Which word is represented by ‘lemp’ ?

((a))
speak
((b))
the
((c))
truth
((d))
always

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

truth

According to the question:

Thus, 'lemp' is coded as 'truth'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Directions for questions:

According to a certain code.

(I) ‘kemp temp lemp’ means ‘speak the truth’

(II) ‘bemp timp nimp’ means ‘always seek knowledge’

(III) ‘timp lemp simp’ means ‘knowledge is truth’

(IV) ‘limp bemp zimp’ means ‘never seek violence’

<br>

Which word is represented by ‘timp’?

((a))
always
((b))
is
((c))
truth
((d))
knowledge

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

knowledge

According to the question:

Thus, 'timp' is coded as 'knowledge'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Directions for questions:

According to a certain code.

(I) ‘kemp temp lemp’ means ‘speak the truth’

(II) ‘bemp timp nimp’ means ‘always seek knowledge’

(III) ‘timp lemp simp’ means ‘knowledge is truth’

(IV) ‘limp bemp zimp’ means ‘never seek violence’

<br>

Which letter code stands for ‘seek’?

((a))
limp
((b))
bemp
((c))
zimp
((d))
nimp

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

bemp

According to the question:

Thus, 'bemp' is coded as 'seek'.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Tilapia : Fish :: Teal : ________

((a))
Duck
((b))
Dolphin
((c))
Buffalo
((d))
Monkey

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Duck

The logic followed here is:

Tilapia : Fish → Tilapia is a type of fish.

Similarly,

Teal : ___ → Teal is a type of duck (bird).

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

________ is an invalid type of database key.

((a))
Structured primary key
((b))
Atomic primary key
((c))
Primary key
((d))
Composite primary key

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Structured primary key

The correct answer is - Structured primary key

Key Points

Structured primary key
In the context of Database Management Systems (DBMS), there is no formal definition or standard type known as a structured primary key.
Database keys are categorized based on their functionality and the number of attributes they contain, such as Primary, Candidate, Foreign, Atomic, and Composite keys.
A Primary Key must always contain unique values and cannot contain NULL values.

Additional Information

Atomic primary key
Refers to a Primary Key that consists of only a single attribute or column.
It is called "atomic" because it cannot be decomposed into smaller components while maintaining its unique identifying property.
Composite primary key
A Composite Key is a Primary Key that consists of two or more attributes.
It is used when a single column is insufficient to uniquely identify a record in a table.
Candidate key
A Candidate Key is a set of one or more columns that can uniquely identify a row in a table.
From the set of Candidate Keys, the database designer selects one to be the Primary Key.
Foreign key
A Foreign Key is a column or group of columns used to establish a link between the data in two tables.
It acts as a cross-reference between tables because it references the Primary Key of another table.

Cache and main memory will loose their contents when the power is off. They are ________.

((a))
Dynamic
((b))
Static
((c))
Volatile
((d))
Non-volatile

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Volatile

The correct answer is - Volatile

Key Points

Volatile memory
It is a type of computer memory that requires continuous power to maintain the stored information.
The contents of Cache and Main Memory (RAM) are wiped clean as soon as the power supply is interrupted or turned off.
Volatile storage is typically much faster than non-volatile storage, making it ideal for temporary data processing by the CPU.
It serves as the primary workspace for the computer, holding data and applications currently in use.

Additional Information

Non-volatile memory
This type of memory retains its data even when the power is off.
Common examples include ROM (Read-Only Memory), Hard Drives, SSD, and Flash drives.
It is used for long-term storage of the operating system, files, and permanent instructions like the BIOS.
Static vs. Dynamic RAM
Static RAM (SRAM): Used in Cache memory; it is faster and does not need constant refreshing but is more expensive.
Dynamic RAM (DRAM): Used in Main Memory; it stores data in capacitors that must be periodically refreshed to retain information.
Cache Memory
A very high-speed semiconductor memory that can speed up the CPU.
It acts as a buffer between the CPU and the main memory to store frequently accessed data.

Which of the following must be contained in a URL ?

((a))
A protocol identifier
((b))
The letters www
((c))
The unique registered domain name
((d))
A protocol identifier, the letters www and unique registered domain name

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A protocol identifier

The correct answer is - A protocol identifier

Key Points

Protocol Identifier
Every URL (Uniform Resource Locator) must begin with a protocol identifier, which specifies the method used to exchange data over the internet.
Common examples of protocols include HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), HTTPS (HTTP Secure), and FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
The protocol is followed by a colon and two forward slashes (://) to separate it from the rest of the web address.
It informs the web browser how to retrieve the resource from the server.

Additional Information

Domain Name
A URL also requires a resource name, which is typically the unique registered domain name (e.g., testbook.com).
The DNS (Domain Name System) translates these human-readable names into numerical IP addresses.
Optional Components
The letters www (World Wide Web) are a subdomain and are not mandatory; many modern websites function correctly without them.
Other optional parts include the port number, the path to a specific folder or file, and query parameters.
URL Anatomy
A complete URL is a standardized string of characters that refers to a specific resource on a network.
It ensures that different systems can find and access the same web pages or files consistently.

A compiler is used to translate a program written in ________.

((a))
a low level language
((b))
a high level language
((c))
assembly language
((d))
machine language

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

a high level language

The correct answer is - a high level language

Key Points

Compiler
A compiler is a translation program that converts the entire source code written in a high-level language (HLL) into machine language or object code at once.
It checks the syntax of the whole program and generates a list of errors if the code does not follow the language rules.
The primary purpose of a compiler is to create an executable file that the computer's processor can understand and run directly.
Languages such as C, C++, and COBOL utilize compilers to transform human-readable code into binary format.

Additional Information

High-Level Language
These languages are machine-independent and use English-like words and mathematical notations, making them easier for humans to read and write.
Interpreter
An interpreter is another type of language processor that translates high-level instructions into machine code line-by-line during execution.
If an error is found, the interpreter stops execution immediately, unlike a compiler which scans the full program first.
Assembler
An assembler is a translator specifically designed to convert assembly language (which uses mnemonics) into machine language.
Machine Language
This is the lowest-level programming language, consisting entirely of binary digits (0s and 1s), which is the only language a computer's central processing unit (CPU) can execute directly.

Numbers that are written with base 10 are classified as :

((a))
decimal number
((b))
whole number
((c))
hexadecimal number
((d))
exponential integers

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

decimal number

The correct answer is decimal number.

Key Points

Numbers written with base 10 belong to the decimal number system.
The decimal system uses 10 digits: 0 to 9.
It is also called the denary system.
This is the standard number system used in everyday arithmetic.

Additional Information

Other Number Systems:
Binary: Base 2 (0,1)
Octal: Base 8 (0–7)
Hexadecimal: Base 16 (0–9, A–F)
Important Points:
Base of decimal system = 10.
Hexadecimal is base 16, so option 3 is incorrect.

A protocol is a set of rules that consists of :

((a))
TCD/IT
((b))
TCP/IP
((c))
TCP/IT
((d))
TCT/IP

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

TCP/IP

The correct answer is - TCP/IP

Key Points

TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol)
A protocol is defined as a set of digital rules that govern how data is exchanged between devices on a network.
TCP/IP is the foundational suite of protocols used to interconnect network devices on the Internet.
It provides end-to-end connectivity by specifying how data should be formatted, addressed, transmitted, and routed.
The protocol suite was developed by the Department of Defense (DoD) to ensure data integrity and communication during network failures.

Additional Information

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that ensures the reliable delivery of data.
It breaks data into packets at the source and reassembles them in the correct order at the destination.
It performs error-checking and requests retransmission if data packets are lost or corrupted.
Internet Protocol (IP)
IP is a connectionless protocol responsible for logical addressing.
It determines the routing path for packets based on the destination IP address.
Common versions include IPv4 (32-bit addresses) and IPv6 (128-bit addresses).
TCP/IP Model Layers
The conceptual model consists of four layers: Network Access, Internet, Transport, and Application.
It serves as the practical implementation of the theoretical OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model.

A removable magnetic disk that holds information is called :

((a))
Floppy disk
((b))
Hard drive
((c))
Monitor
((d))
Portable

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Floppy disk

The correct answer is - Floppy disk

Key Points

Floppy disk
A floppy disk is a removable storage medium composed of a thin, flexible disk of magnetic storage material.
It is encased in a square or rectangular plastic shell to protect the magnetic disk from dust and physical damage.
The data is accessed by the computer using a floppy disk drive (FDD).
Historically, the 3.5-inch floppy disk was the most common version, typically holding 1.44 MB of data.

Additional Information

Hard drive
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is a non-volatile magnetic storage device that uses rapidly rotating rigid platters.
Unlike a floppy disk, it is generally fixed inside the computer casing and offers significantly higher storage capacity.
Monitor
A monitor is an output device that displays information in pictorial form.
It does not have the capability to store data magnetically or otherwise; its primary function is visual display.
Magnetic Storage Media
This category includes devices like magnetic tapes, floppy disks, and hard drives.
Data is stored by magnetizing particles on a storage medium, where the orientation of the magnetization represents binary bits (0s and 1s).

__________ Disk Encryption is a technology (hardware or software) where data is encrypted before storage.

((a))
Half
((b))
Whole
((c))
Double
((d))
Triple

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Whole

The correct answer is - Whole

Key Points

Whole Disk Encryption (WDE)
It is a security technology that encrypts every bit of data that goes onto a disk or disk volume.
WDE protects the entire contents of the storage medium, including the operating system, registry files, and temporary files.
The data is encrypted automatically before it is stored on the physical hardware, ensuring that unauthorized users cannot access the information without the correct key.
It provides at-rest data protection, making it essential for securing sensitive information on portable devices like laptops.

Additional Information

Full Disk Encryption (FDE)
FDE is a term frequently used synonymously with Whole Disk Encryption.
It often involves pre-boot authentication, requiring a password or smart card before the computer even begins to load the operating system.
Software vs. Hardware Encryption
Software-based encryption uses the computer's CPU to perform encryption; common examples include BitLocker (Windows) and FileVault (macOS).
Hardware-based encryption is performed by a dedicated processor on the storage device itself, often found in Self-Encrypting Drives (SEDs).
Disk vs. File Encryption
Unlike file-level encryption, which encrypts individual files, Whole Disk Encryption eliminates the risk of leaving unencrypted "fragments" of data in temporary system directories.
It ensures uniform security across the entire storage surface regardless of the file type.

What are the two examples of free ware ?

((a))
Win Zip and Linux
((b))
Share ware and file sharing
((c))
Microsoft Word and Google Toolbar
((d))
Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

The correct answer is - Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

Key Points

Freeware
It is software that is distributed at no monetary cost to the end-user.
Unlike Open Source software, the source code of freeware is generally closed and cannot be modified by the user.
Google Toolbar is a classic example of freeware, provided as a free browser extension to enhance search functionality.
Most Instant messaging applications (like the early Yahoo Messenger or modern equivalents) are classified as freeware because they are free to download and use.

Additional Information

Shareware
Software provided for free on a trial basis only, such as WinZip.
Users are typically required to pay a fee to continue using the full version after the trial period expires.
Open Source Software
Software where the source code is publicly available for anyone to inspect, modify, and enhance.
Linux is a prominent example of an open-source operating system.
Proprietary Software
Also known as closed-source software, where the publisher retains intellectual property rights.
Microsoft Word is a commercial product that requires a paid license for legal use.
Public Domain Software
Software that has no legal, copyright, or editing restrictions.
It is free to use and modify without any permission from the original creator.

ICMP is used for :

((a))
Addressing
((b))
Forwarding
((c))
Multicasting
((d))
Error reporting

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Error reporting

The correct answer is - Error reporting

Key Points

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
It is primarily used by network devices, such as routers, to send error messages indicating that a requested service is not available or that a host or router could not be reached.
ICMP is a Network Layer protocol used for diagnostics and management purposes within an IP network.
Unlike TCP or UDP, ICMP is not typically used to exchange data between systems but rather to provide feedback about communication issues.
It generates reports when an IP packet cannot be delivered, such as when the Time to Live (TTL) expires or the destination is unreachable.

Additional Information

Common ICMP Tools
Ping: Uses ICMP Echo Request and Echo Reply messages to test the connectivity and latency between two nodes.
Traceroute: Uses ICMP Time Exceeded messages to identify the path and intermediate routers (hops) packets take to reach a destination.
Protocol Characteristics
ICMP messages are encapsulated within IP datagrams to ensure they can be routed across the network.
It does not provide error correction; it only provides error reporting. Recovery from errors is the responsibility of higher-layer protocols like TCP.
Comparison with Other Options
Addressing: Handled by the IP (Internet Protocol) itself using IPv4 or IPv6 addresses.
Forwarding: The process where a router moves packets from an input interface to an output interface based on a routing table.
Multicasting: Managed by protocols like IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) to deliver data to a group of recipients.

OCR is an example of

((a))
Output device
((b))
Input device
((c))
Interface device
((d))
Storage device

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Input device

The correct answer is - Input device

Key Points

Optical Character Recognition (OCR)
OCR is a technology used as an input device to convert different types of documents, such as scanned paper documents, PDF files, or images captured by a digital camera, into editable and searchable data.
It functions by scanning the text character by character, analyzing the strokes, and translating them into machine-encoded text.
Because it sends data from the physical world into the computer system for processing, it is categorized strictly as an input device.

Additional Information

Input Devices
These are hardware components used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system.
Common examples include the Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, OMR (Optical Mark Recognition), and MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition).
Output Devices
These devices receive information from the computer and present it to the user in a human-readable form.
Typical examples include the Monitor, Printer, Plotter, and Speaker.
Storage Devices
Used for storing data and instructions permanently or temporarily for later use.
Examples include Hard Disk Drives (HDD), Solid State Drives (SSD), and Optical Discs like CDs and DVDs.

Which component of computer is required to process data into information and consists of integrated circuits ?

((a))
Hard disk
((b))
RAM
((c))
CPU
((d))
ROM

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CPU

The correct answer is - CPU

Key Points

CPU (Central Processing Unit)
The CPU is the primary component of a computer system responsible for processing data into meaningful information.
It is constructed using Integrated Circuits (ICs), where millions of microscopic transistors are etched onto a single silicon chip.
It functions as the brain of the computer, executing instructions from software and managing the operation of all other hardware components.
The speed and efficiency of a computer are largely determined by the processing power of its CPU.

Additional Information

Integrated Circuits (IC)
An IC is a compact electronic circuit fabricated on a small piece of semiconductor material (usually silicon).
The invention of the microprocessor integrated the functions of a CPU into a single IC, leading to the development of personal computers.
RAM (Random Access Memory)
RAM is volatile memory used to store data and instructions that the CPU needs in real-time.
It allows for high-speed read/write access but does not process the data itself; it only serves as a temporary workspace.
Hard Disk
A Hard Disk is a non-volatile secondary storage device used for permanent data storage.
While it contains control circuitry, its primary purpose is storage rather than active data processing.
ROM (Read Only Memory)
ROM stores permanent instructions required to start the computer, such as the BIOS.
Data in ROM is generally non-volatile and cannot be easily modified by the user or the system during normal operation.

The first computer virus is :

((a))
creeper
((b))
PARAM
((c))
the famous
((d))
HARLIE

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

creeper

The correct answer is - Creeper

Key Points

Creeper
Creeper is widely recognized as the first computer virus (or more specifically, a self-replicating worm).
It was written in 1971 by Bob Thomas at BBN Technologies.
The program was designed as an experiment to see if a self-replicating application could move between computers on the ARPANET.
When it infected a system, it displayed the message: "I'm the creeper, catch me if you can!"
It was not designed to be malicious; it simply hopped from one TENEX operating system node to another.

Additional Information

The Reaper
Reaper was the first anti-virus software created.
It was developed specifically to find and delete the Creeper program as it moved through the network.
Brain Virus
The Brain virus, released in 1986, is considered the first virus for MS-DOS based personal computers.
It was created by the Farooq Alvi Brothers in Pakistan to track and prevent illegal copies of their software.
PARAM
PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by C-DAC in India.
PARAM 8000 was India's first supercomputer, launched in 1991, and is not a computer virus.
Elk Cloner
Created in 1982, Elk Cloner was the first virus to spread via floppy disks on Apple II computers.

Tabulating machine was the first electromechanical machine developed by :

((a))
Herman Hollerith
((b))
Howard Aiken
((c))
Blaise Pascal
((d))
John Napier

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Herman Hollerith

The correct answer is - Herman Hollerith

Key Points

Herman Hollerith
He developed the Tabulating Machine, which is widely recognized as the first electromechanical machine designed for data processing.
The machine was specifically created to speed up the processing of data from the 1890 United States Census.
It utilized punched cards to record and store information, which were then read and counted by the machine using electrical contacts.
Hollerith's invention led to the founding of the Tabulating Machine Company, which later became a core part of IBM.

Additional Information

Howard Aiken
He was the primary engineer behind the Harvard Mark I (IBM Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator), a pioneering electromechanical computer completed in 1944.
Blaise Pascal
A French mathematician who invented the Pascaline in 1642, which was an early mechanical calculator capable of performing addition and subtraction.
John Napier
A Scottish mathematician who invented logarithms and developed a manual calculating device known as Napier's Bones for multiplication and division.
Punched Card Technology
This technology served as the primary medium for data input and storage in early computing systems until the mid-20th century.
The concept was inspired by the Jacquard loom, which used cards to control textile patterns.

Desktop and personal computers are also known as :

((a))
supercomputers
((b))
microcomputers
((c))
main frames
((d))
my-computers

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

microcomputers

The correct answer is - Microcomputers

Key Points

Microcomputers
A microcomputer is a complete computer on a small scale, designed for use by one person at a time.
These systems are characterized by the use of a microprocessor as their Central Processing Unit (CPU).
Common examples include desktop computers, laptops, tablets, and smartphones.
The term "micro" refers to the small physical size of the components compared to older computer architectures.

Additional Information

Supercomputers
These are the most powerful and expensive computers designed to perform complex calculations at extremely high speeds.
They are used for specialized tasks such as weather forecasting, quantum mechanics, and molecular modeling.
Performance is typically measured in FLOPS (Floating-point Operations Per Second) rather than MIPS.
Mainframes
Large, powerful systems used primarily by large organizations for critical applications and bulk data processing.
They are designed to support thousands of users simultaneously and handle massive amounts of input and output.
Key features include high reliability, security, and extensive input-output facilities.
Minicomputers
Mid-range computers that are more powerful than microcomputers but less powerful than mainframes.
Historically used for scientific research, industrial process control, and as small business servers.
In modern computing, many tasks previously handled by minicomputers are now performed by workstations or servers.

The space in computer that loads and works with data is called :

((a))
Cache memory
((b))
RAM memory
((c))
ROM memory
((d))
CPU

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

RAM memory

The correct answer is - RAM memory

Key Points

RAM (Random Access Memory)
It is the primary memory of a computer that serves as a temporary workspace for the CPU.
RAM is where the computer loads the operating system, application programs, and data currently in use so the processor can access them quickly.
It is volatile memory, meaning all data stored in it is erased when the power supply is turned off.
The speed and performance of a system are often directly related to the amount of RAM installed.

Additional Information

Cache memory
A high-speed buffer memory used to store frequently accessed instructions and data.
It is much faster than RAM and is located closer to or inside the CPU.
ROM memory (Read Only Memory)
It is non-volatile memory used to store permanent instructions like the BIOS.
Data in ROM cannot be easily modified or deleted by normal computer operations.
CPU (Central Processing Unit)
Known as the brain of the computer, responsible for executing instructions and processing data.
It fetches data from the RAM, processes it, and sends the output back to the memory or storage devices.

A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the :

((a))
compiler
((b))
loader
((c))
operating system
((d))
assembler

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

operating system

The correct answer is - Operating System

Key Points

Operating System (OS)
An operating system is the essential software that manages a computer's hardware, memory, and all of its software and processes.
Booting is the process of powering on a computer and loading the operating system into the RAM (Random Access Memory).
Without an operating system, the computer hardware cannot communicate with the user or execute any application programs.
During the boot sequence, the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) identifies, tests, and initializes system devices before handing over control to the OS.

Additional Information

Compiler
A compiler is a translation program that converts high-level programming language into machine code so that the CPU can execute it.
It is a developer tool and is not involved in the system booting process.
Loader
A loader is a part of the operating system that is responsible for loading programs and libraries into memory.
While the "boot loader" is essential for starting the OS, the computer specifically cannot function or complete the boot cycle without the Operating System itself.
Assembler
An assembler is a program that translates assembly language (low-level code) into machine language.
It is used during software development and does not play a role in the hardware boot sequence.
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)
The BIOS is the firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process (Power-On Self-Test).
Its main job is to locate the bootloader, which then starts the operating system.

DOS can not retrieve any data from a disk if a computer virus corrupts the ______________ of the computer.

((a))
File allocation table
((b))
BAT Files
((c))
Root Directory Area
((d))
Directory Area

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

File allocation table

The correct answer is - File allocation table

Key Points

File allocation table
The File Allocation Table (FAT) is a critical file system component that acts as a map or index for the operating system to locate files on a disk.
In a DOS environment, if the FAT is corrupted by a virus or error, the system cannot identify which clusters belong to which files.
Even if the physical data remains on the disk, the operating system cannot retrieve it because the logical links between data blocks are lost.
It is stored at the beginning of a volume to ensure the system can access it immediately upon mounting the drive.

Additional Information

Root Directory Area
This area stores specific information about files such as filenames, extensions, file attributes, and the starting cluster number.
While the Root Directory lists the file, the FAT is required to find the subsequent parts of the file if it spans multiple clusters.
BAT Files
A BAT file (Batch file) is a plain text file containing a sequence of commands to be executed by the command-line interpreter.
Corruption of a BAT file affects the execution of scripts but does not prevent the operating system from retrieving other data from the disk.
DOS (Disk Operating System)
DOS refers to a family of disk-based operating systems, most notably MS-DOS, which used the FAT file system architecture exclusively for data management.
It uses a command-line interface where users interact with the hardware through typed instructions.

Dumb terminals have terminals and ___________.

((a))
mouse
((b))
speakers
((c))
keyboard
((d))
mouse or speakers

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

keyboard

The correct answer is - keyboard

Key Points

Dumb Terminals
A dumb terminal consists of a monitor (display) and a keyboard, serving as a basic interface for a remote computer system.
It lacks local processing power (CPU), memory (RAM), and internal storage (hard drive).
It is used primarily to send data to and receive data from a central host computer or mainframe.
The primary function is input and output; the terminal itself does not execute applications or process data locally.

Additional Information

Intelligent Terminals
Unlike dumb terminals, intelligent terminals contain a built-in processor and memory.
They can perform limited local data processing and formatting before sending information to the host server.
Mainframe Architecture
Dumb terminals were widely used in time-sharing systems where many users accessed a single powerful mainframe simultaneously.
Communication between the terminal and the host is typically handled via serial ports or network connections.
Thin Clients
A thin client is a modern evolution of the dumb terminal concept, relying on a client-server architecture where most processing occurs on the server side.
They are used in virtual desktop infrastructures (VDI) to provide a cost-effective and secure computing environment.

A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a :

((a))
Logical error
((b))
Syntax error
((c))
Compiler error
((d))
Program error

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Logical error

The correct answer is - Logical error

Key Points

Logical error
A logical error is a mistake in a program's source code that results in incorrect or unexpected behavior.
It occurs when the algorithm is designed incorrectly, even though the code follows the correct syntax of the language.
Unlike other errors, a program with a logical error will compile and execute without crashing, but it produces incorrect output.
These errors are often the most difficult to identify because the compiler or interpreter cannot detect them automatically.

Additional Information

Syntax error
Refers to a mistake in the grammar or rules of the programming language.
Common examples include missing semicolons, unmatched parentheses, or misspelled keywords.
Programs with syntax errors will fail to compile or run.
Runtime error
An error that occurs during the execution of the program.
It is typically caused by invalid operations such as division by zero or accessing an out-of-bounds array index.
Unlike logical errors, runtime errors usually cause the program to terminate abnormally or crash.
Compiler error
A broad category of errors detected by the compiler during the translation of source code into machine code.
It prevents the creation of an executable file and includes syntax and semantic errors.

Which device uses a hand held operation system ?

((a))
A PDA
((b))
A personal computer
((c))
A laptop
((d))
A main frame

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A PDA

The correct answer is - PDA

Key Points

PDA (Personal Digital Assistant)
A PDA is a compact, mobile device that functions as a personal information manager, designed to be held in one hand.
It uses a handheld operating system specifically designed for mobile hardware with limited processing power and small screens.
Common operating systems for these devices include Palm OS, Windows CE, and Pocket PC.
PDAs were the precursors to modern smartphones, featuring touchscreens or buttons for navigation and data entry.

Additional Information

Personal Computer (PC)
A Personal Computer is intended for use by a single person at a fixed location.
It runs desktop operating systems like Windows, macOS, or Linux, which require significant hardware resources.
Laptop
A Laptop is a portable computer that integrates all the components of a PC into a single unit.
Despite being portable, it utilizes full-scale operating systems rather than specialized handheld systems.
Mainframe
A Mainframe is a large, powerful computer used primarily by large organizations for bulk data processing.
It is designed for high-volume transactions and multi-user environments, not for handheld operations.

The ___________ key and the ___________ key can be used in combination with other keys to perform shortcuts and special tasks.

((a))
Control, Alt
((b))
Function, toggle
((c))
Delete, insert
((d))
Caps lock, num lock

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Control, Alt

The correct answer is - Control, Alt

Key Points

Modifier Keys
The Control (Ctrl) and Alt (Alternate) keys are classified as modifier keys.
They are designed to be used in combination with other keys to perform keyboard shortcuts or special tasks.
These keys usually do nothing when pressed alone; they modify the normal action of another key.
Common examples include Ctrl + S (Save), Ctrl + P (Print), and Alt + F4 (Close window).

Additional Information

Shift Key
The Shift key is also a modifier key used primarily to type capital letters and the symbols shown on the upper part of keys.
Toggle Keys
Keys like Caps Lock and Num Lock are called toggle keys because they switch a specific function on or off.
Caps Lock: Toggles between uppercase and lowercase letters.
Num Lock: Enables or disables the numeric keypad on the right side of most keyboards.
Function Keys
The keys labeled F1 through F12 are function keys.
They are used to perform specific tasks depending on the software or operating system being used (e.g., F1 is commonly used for Help).
Navigation Keys
These include keys like Insert, Delete, Home, End, Page Up, and Page Down.
They are used for moving around in documents or webpages and editing text.

Choose from the following options, the antonym of the given word.
‘GREGARIOUS’

((a))
GARRULOUS
((b))
TACITURN
((c))
AFFABLE
((d))
JAUNTY

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

TACITURN

The correct answer is: Taciturn.

Key Points

The word "Gregarious" refers to someone who is sociable, outgoing, and enjoys the company of others. (समाजप्रिय)
Example: She is a gregarious person, always surrounded by friends and engaging in lively conversations.
"Taciturn" refers to someone who is reserved, uncommunicative, or speaks very little. (अल्पभाषी)
Example: Unlike his gregarious brother, he is taciturn and prefers to keep to himself.
Hence, the antonym of 'Gregarious' is 'Taciturn'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Taciturn.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Garrulous (बातूनी): Excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters.
Example: He is so garrulous that it can be hard to get a word in during the conversation.
Affable (मिलनसार): Friendly, good-natured, or easy to talk to.
Example: The new teacher was very affable, making it easy for students to approach her with their concerns.
Jaunty (प्रसन्नचित्त): Having or expressing a lively, cheerful, and self-confident manner.
Example: He walked into the room with a jaunty step, exuding confidence.

In the given sentence, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If ‘no error’ choose option IV.

Not just housewives, even working women do not have/ the financial independence as they

(I) (II)

end up/giving their salaries to their husbands./ no error

(III) (IV)

((a))
(I)
((b))
(II)
((c))
(III)
((d))
(IV)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

(I)

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The error lies in part (I) of the sentence.
The phrase "Not just" acts as a correlative conjunction here and must be paired properly with "but" or "but also / but even".
The structure "Not just... even..." is grammatically incomplete. It needs to be corrected to "Not just... but even..." to establish the correct relationship between the two clauses.
Therefore, inserting the conjunction "but" before "even working women" is required.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Not just housewives, but even working women do not have the financial independence as they end up giving their salaries to their husbands."

Additional Information

(II): "the financial independence as they end up" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and logically follows the context.
(III): "giving their salaries to their husbands." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and forms a meaningful clause.
(IV): "no error" – This would be the correct option if there were no grammatical mistakes in the sentence, but there is a missing conjunction in part (I).

Which of the following options best replaces the set of words given below?

‘a feeling that something has happened before’

((a))
de jure
((b))
de novo
((c))
deja vu
((d))
detente

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

deja vu

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Déjà vu.

Key Points

The word Déjà vu refers to the phenomenon of feeling as though you have already experienced something that is happening for the first time. (पहले से अनुभव होने का एहसास)
Example: As she walked into the room, she was overwhelmed by a sense of déjà vu, as if she had been there before.
Déjà vu is commonly associated with situations that feel familiar but cannot be explained rationally or scientifically.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Déjà vu.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

De jure (कानूनी रूप से): Refers to something that exists by right or according to law.
Example: The country has de jure independence, but in practice, it is heavily influenced by its neighboring power.
De novo (नई शुरुआत): Means starting from the beginning or anew.
Example: The judge ordered a de novo trial because the evidence was mishandled in the previous case.
Detente (तनाव में कमी): Refers to the easing of strained relations, especially in a political context.
Example: The two nations entered a period of détente after decades of conflict.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

The Education Minister emphasised the need to discover and ______ each student’s ______ talents.

((a))
enlarge ; dormant
((b))
flourish ; hidden
((c))
belittle ; concealed
((d))
develop ; intrinsic

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

develop ; intrinsic

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. develop; intrinsic.

Key Points

"Develop" means to grow or cause to grow and become more mature, advanced, or elaborate. (विकसित करना)
Example: Teachers help students develop their skills and confidence.
"Intrinsic" refers to something that is inherent, essential, or naturally a part of something. (अंतरनिहित)
Example: A sense of curiosity is intrinsic to human nature.
In the given sentence, the Minister is emphasizing the importance of identifying and enhancing each student’s inherent (intrinsic) talents, which makes "develop" and "intrinsic" the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. develop; intrinsic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Enlarge; dormant (बढ़ाना; सुप्त):
"Enlarge" means to make something bigger or more extensive. (बड़ा करना)
Example: They plan to enlarge the community center to accommodate more people.
"Dormant" means inactive or in a state of rest but capable of being activated. (सुप्त)
Example: The volcano has been dormant for centuries.
Incorrect as the sentence talks about talents that need to be "developed" rather than "enlarged".
Flourish; hidden (फूलना-फैलना; छुपा हुआ):
"Flourish" means to grow or develop in a healthy or vigorous way. (फूलना-फैलना)
Example: The business began to flourish after they implemented new strategies.
"Hidden" means concealed or not visible. (छिपा हुआ)
Example: She discovered hidden treasures in the attic.
Incorrect as "flourish" refers to thriving, which doesn't align with the context of developing talents.
Belittle; concealed (तुच्छ करना; छिपा हुआ):
"Belittle" means to make someone or something seem less important. (तुच्छ करना)
Example: It’s not fair to belittle someone’s efforts.
"Concealed" means hidden or kept secret. (छिपा हुआ)
Example: The criminal concealed the evidence from the authorities.
Incorrect as "belittle" has a negative connotation, which is unsuitable for the context of encouraging talents.

Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Well begun is half done.

((a))
Adverb
((b))
Adjective
((c))
Noun
((d))
Interjection

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Adjective

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'Adjective'.

Key Points

The underlined word "Well" in the sentence “Well begun is half done” is used to describe or modify the verb "begun", indicating the manner in which the action is performed.
It qualifies the verb and provides additional information about how the action was initiated, which is a characteristic of adjectives.
In this context, “Well” functions as an adjective because it describes the quality of the action (how it was “begun”).
Adjectives are often used to modify nouns or pronouns, but in certain contexts, like this, they can also modify verbs or verbal expressions, particularly when describing the manner of an action.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

Adverb: An adverb modifies verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs by explaining how, when, where, or to what extent an action is performed. However, in this sentence, “Well” is not functioning as an adverb because it directly relates to the quality of the action, making it an adjective.
Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. The word “Well” is not a noun in this context as it does not represent any of these entities.
Interjection: An interjection is a word or phrase that expresses sudden emotion or reaction. The word “Well” is not being used in this way in the given sentence.

Choose from the options, the synonym of the given word :

INCONGRUOUS

((a))
inefficient
((b))
abetted
((c))
apposite
((d))
incompatible

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

incompatible

The correct answer is: 4) incompatible.

Key Points

The word "incongruous" refers to something that is not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. (असंगत)
Example: The modern furniture looked incongruous in the ancient castle.
"Incompatible" means not able to exist or work together in harmony or agreement. (असंगत)
Example: Their personalities were so incompatible that they decided not to work on the project together.
Since "incongruous" and "incompatible" have similar meanings, the correct synonym is "incompatible."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 4) incompatible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Inefficient (अक्षम): Someone or something that is not achieving maximum productivity or wasting time and resources.
Example: The old machinery is inefficient and needs to be replaced.
Abetted (उकसाया हुआ): To assist or encourage someone to do something wrong, especially a crime.
Example: He was accused of having abetted the thief in his escape.
Apposite (उचित): Something that is very appropriate or suitable to the situation.
Example: His comment was particularly apposite for the current discussion.

Choose the correctly spelt word :

((a))
APPROPRIATE
((b))
AMBITOUS
((c))
CONVENENTLY
((d))
EXAGERATE

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

APPROPRIATE

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The question asks to identify the correctly spelt word among the given options.
Let us analyze the options:
Option 1: APPROPRIATE - This word is correctly spelled. It means 'suitable or proper in the circumstances.' (उचित)
Option 2: AMBITOUS - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'AMBITION' or 'AMBITIOUS.'
Option 3: CONVENENTLY - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'CONVENIENTLY.'
Option 4: EXAGERATE - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'EXAGGERATE.'
Only 'APPROPRIATE' is spelled correctly among the given options.

Correct word: APPROPRIATE

Additional Information

Let’s understand the correct spellings and meanings of the other words:

AMBITIOUS - having or showing a strong desire and determination to succeed (महत्त्वाकांक्षी)
CONVENIENTLY - in a way that is easy, suitable, or comfortable for a particular purpose (सुविधाजनक ढंग से)
EXAGGERATE - to represent something as being larger, better, or worse than it really is (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना)

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
Autumn is the ______ Spring.

((a))
harbinger to
((b))
harbinger over
((c))
harbinger with
((d))
harbinger of

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

harbinger of

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. harbinger of.

Key Points

The word "harbinger" means a person or thing that announces or signals the approach of another. (सूचक / अग्रदूत)
Example: The blooming flowers are a harbinger of spring.
The correct word to use is "harbinger of" because "of" indicates the relationship between the harbinger and what it announces. (का सूचक)
Example: Autumn is the harbinger of winter.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. harbinger of.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Harbinger to (सूचक के लिए): This is an incorrect usage because "to" does not fit grammatically with "harbinger."
Example: This phrase is rarely used and is grammatically incorrect.
Harbinger over (सूचक पर): This is incorrect because "over" does not convey the intended meaning of something signaling another.
Example: This usage is not grammatically appropriate.
Harbinger with (सूचक के साथ): This is not a standard usage as "with" does not align with the meaning of "harbinger."
Example: The phrase "harbinger with" is not used in standard English.

Select the correct meaning of the given idiom from the options.

‘Eat humble pie’

((a))
very poor
((b))
complete failure
((c))
to apologize
((d))
out of elements

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

to apologize

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. To apologize.

Key Points

The idiom "Eat humble pie" means to admit one's mistake or wrongdoing and apologize for it. (गलती स्वीकार करना और माफी मांगना)
Example: After realizing his mistake, John had to eat humble pie and apologize to his team for his rude behavior.
Here, the phrase signifies a sense of humility required to accept one’s fault and make amends.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To apologize.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Very poor (बहुत गरीब): Refers to a state of extreme poverty or lack of resources.
Example: The family was very poor and struggled to afford even the basic necessities.
Complete failure (पूर्ण विफलता): Refers to the total inability to achieve success.
Example: The project was a complete failure due to poor planning and execution.
Out of elements (असहज स्थिति): Refers to being in an unfamiliar or uncomfortable situation.
Example: Sarah felt out of elements during the formal dinner party as she wasn’t used to such settings.

Re-arrange the parts to make a meaningful sentence.

the gist of	than fifty words	the paragraph	in not more	please write
(I)	(II)	(III)	(IV)	(V)

((a))
(V) (IV) (II) (III) (I)
((b))
(V) (I) (III) (IV) (II)
((c))
(V) (III) (IV) (II) (I)
((d))
(V) (I) (IV) (II) (III)

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

(V) (I) (III) (IV) (II)

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. (V) (I) (III) (IV) (II)

Key Points

The sentence begins with the imperative phrase "Please write," which is part (V).
Next, we need the object of the verb. "The gist of" (I) followed by "the paragraph" (III) forms the complete object, creating the sequence (V-I-III).
The final part of the sentence provides the constraint. "In not more" (IV) followed by "than fifty words" (II) completes the instruction logically.
When combined, the sequence becomes: "Please write the gist of the paragraph in not more than fifty words."

Therefore, the correct answer is (V) (I) (III) (IV) (II).

Additional Information

Option 1 (V-IV-II-III-I): "Please write in not more than fifty words the paragraph the gist of." This is incorrect because the object "the gist of" is placed at the end without a noun to follow it.
Option 3 (V-III-IV-II-I): "Please write the paragraph in not more than fifty words the gist of." This structure is fragmented and fails to link "the gist" to the action of writing.
Option 4 (V-I-IV-II-III): "Please write the gist of in not more than fifty words the paragraph." This is grammatically incorrect as the preposition "of" is separated from its object "the paragraph" by the word-count constraint.

‘निर्जन’ में प्रयुक्त समास है।

((a))
अव्ययीभाव
((b))
तत्पुरुष
((c))
कर्मधारय
((d))
बहुब्रीहि

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

बहुब्रीहि

‘निर्जन’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त समास का सही उत्तर है- बहुब्रीहि

Key Points

'निर्जन' का सामासिक विग्रह 'जहाँ कोई जन न हो' अर्थात एक 'विशेष स्थान' (एकांत या सुनसान जगह) होता है।
यहाँ 'निर्' और 'जन' दोनों पद मिलकर किसी तीसरे अर्थ (सुनसान स्थान) की ओर संकेत कर रहे हैं, इसलिए यहाँ बहुब्रीहि समास है।
बहुब्रीहि समास के अन्य उदाहरण: नीलकंठ (नीला है कंठ जिसका - शिव), दशानन (दस हैं आनन जिसके - रावण)।

Important Points

समास के मुख्य भेद-

अव्यय��भाव समास
तत्पुरुष समास
द्वंद्व समास
बहुब्रीहि समास
द्विगु समास
कर्मधारय समास

Additional Information

समास का नाम	मुख्य पहचान	उदाहरण (सामासिक पद)	समास विग्रह
अव्ययीभाव	पहला पद प्रधान और अव्यय होता है।	यथाशक्ति	शक्ति के अनुसार
तत्पुरुष	दूसरा पद प्रधान और कारक चिह्न का लोप होता है।	राजकुमार	राजा का कुमार
कर्मधारय	विशेषण-विशेष्य या उपमान-उपमेय का संबंध।	चरणकमल	कमल के समान चरण
द्विगु	पहला पद संख्यावाचक (नंबर) होता है।	त्रिलोक	तीन लोकों का समूह
द्वंद्व	दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं और 'और' का लोप होता है।	माता-पिता	माता और पिता

‘पितृण’ में प्रयुक्त संधि है।

((a))
गुण
((b))
अयादि
((c))
यण
((d))
दीर्घ

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

दीर्घ

‘पितृण’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त संधि का सही उत्तर है- दीर्घ

Key Points

'पितृण' का सही संधि विच्छेद 'पितृ + ऋण' होता है।यहाँ 'ऋ' और 'ऋ' के मिलने से दीर्घ 'ऋ' हो गया है।
जब दो सवर्ण (समान) स्वर पास-पास आते हैं तो मिलकर दीर्घ स्वर में बदल जाते हैं, इसे दीर्घ संधि कहते हैं।
उदाहरण: होतृ + ऋकार = होतृकार, मातृ + ऋण = मातृण।
अन्य उदाहरण:
वेद + अंत = वेदांत (अ+अ=आ)
गिरि + ईश = गिरीश (इ+ई=ई)
भानु + उदय = भानूदय (उ+उ=ऊ)

अन्य विकल्प -

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
गुण	अ/आ के बाद इ/ई आए तो 'ए', उ/ऊ आए तो 'ओ' और ऋ आए तो 'अर्' हो जाता है।	महा + ऊर्जा = महोर्जा (आ + ऊ) देव + ऋषि = देवर्षि (अ + ऋ)
अयादि	ए/ऐ/ओ/औ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आए तो क्रमशः अय/आय/अव/आव हो जाता है।	शे + अन = शयन (ए + अ = अय) पो + अन = पवन (ओ + अ = अव)
यण	इ/ई, उ/ऊ, ऋ के बाद भिन्न स्वर आए तो क्रमशः य, व, र हो जाता है।	मनु + अंतर = मन्वंतर (उ + अ = व) पितृ + आज्ञा = पित्राज्ञा (ऋ + आ = रा)

Important Points

स्वर संधि के मुख्य भेद-

दीर्घ संधि
गुण संधि
वृद्धि संधि
यण संधि
अयादि संधि

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
वृद्धि संधि	जब दो शब्दों में आपस में संधि करते समय यदि अ, आ के साथ ए, ऐ हो तो 'ऐ' बनता है और जब अ, आ के साथ ओ, औ हो तो 'औ' बनता है, उसे वृद्धि संधि कहते हैं।	महा + ऐश्वर्य = महैश्वर्य (आ + ऐ = ऐ) जल + ओघ = जलौघ (अ + ओ = औ)

‘एक ही रट लगाना’ इस भाव को व्यक्त करने वाला मुहावरा है।

((a))
सिर पीटना
((b))
सिर पर सवार होना
((c))
सिर फिर जाना
((d))
सिर पर भूत सवार होना

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

सिर पर भूत सवार होना

‘एक ही रट लगाना’ इस भाव को व्यक्त करने वाले मुहावरे का सही उत्तर है- सिर पर भूत सवार होना

Key Points

'सिर पर भूत सवार होना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है- एक ही रट लगाना अथवा किसी धुन में मग्न हो जाना।
जब कोई व्यक्ति किसी एक ही विचार या कार्य को बार-बार दोहराता है, तब इस मुहावरे का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने सामान्य अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करता है।
उदाहरण-

उसे हर समय मैच जीतने का भूत सवार रहता है।
परीक्षा के दिनों में उसके सिर पर पढ़ने का भूत सवार हो गया है।

अन्य विकल्प -

मुहावरा	विग्रह/अर्थ
सिर पीटना	अत्यधिक पछताना या दुख प्रकट करना।
सिर पर सवार होना	पीछे पड़ना या तंग करना।
सिर फिर जाना	पागल हो जाना या अहंकारी हो जाना।

Important Points

मुहावरों के भेद-

सादृश्य पर आधारित मुहावरे
शारीरिक अंगों पर आधारित मुहावरे
प्रतीकात्मक मुहावरे

Additional Information

मुहावरा	अर्थ	वाक्य प्रयोग
कलेजा मुँह को आना	बहुत अधिक व्याकुल या दुखी होना।	जवान बेटे की मृत्यु का समाचार सुनकर माँ का कलेजा मुँह को आ गया।
गागर में सागर भरना	कम शब्दों में बहुत अधिक बात कह देना।	बिहारी के दोहों के बारे में कहा जाता है कि उन्होंने गागर में सागर भर दिया है।
गुदड़ी का लाल	निर्धन परिवार में जन्मा गुणवान व्यक्ति।	झोपड़ी में रहने वाला वह बच्चा आई.ए.एस. बन गया, वह तो सही मायने में गुदड़ी का लाल है।
चाँद पर थूकना	निर्दोष पर कलंक लगाना।	उस सज्जन व्यक्ति पर भ्रष्टाचार का आरोप लगाना चाँद पर थूकने जैसा है।
हवा से बातें करना	बहुत तेज दौड़ना।	महाराणा प्रताप का चेतक हवा से बातें करता था।

‘मेरे निमित्त ही ईश्वर की कोई कृपा नहीं।’

रेखांकित पद में प्रयुक्त कारक है।

((a))
कर्म
((b))
करण
((c))
संप्रदान
((d))
संबंध

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

संबंध

‘मेरे निमित्त ही’ वाक्यांश में प्रयुक्त कारक का सही उत्तर है- संप्रदान

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य में ‘मेरे निमित्त’ पद में संप्रदान कारक है क्योंकि यहाँ ‘निमित्त’ का प्रयोग ‘के लिए’ के अर्थ में किया गया है।
संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए या कुछ दिया जाए, उसे संप्रदान कारक कहते हैं।
इसके विभक्ति चिह्न 'के लिए' और 'को' हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त 'के निमित्त', 'के हेतु', 'के वास्ते' आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग भी इसी कारक में होता है।
उदाहरण 1: राम के निमित्त लक्ष्मण वन गए।
उदाहरण 2: छात्र पढ़ने के हेतु पाठशाला जाते हैं।

Important Points

कारक -

संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से उसका सीधा संबंध क्रिया (काम) के साथ जाना जाता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
ये वाक्य में शब्दों के बीच संबंध जोड़ते हैं और उनके अर्थ को स्पष्ट करते हैं।
हिंदी में कारक के 8 भेद (कर्ता, कर्म, करण, संप्रदान, अपादान, संबंध, अधिकरण, संबोधन) होते हैं,
जिन्हें चिन्हों (विभक्ति) द्वारा पहचाना जाता है (जैसे: ने, को, से, के लिए)।

Additional Information

कारक	विभक्ति चिह्न	पहचान	वाक्य में उदाहरण
कर्ता	ने	काम करने वाला।	राम ने पुस्तक पढ़ी।
कर्म	को	जिस पर क्रिया का फल पड़े।	अध्यापक ने छात्र को पीटा।
करण	से, के द्वारा	काम करने का साधन।	वह कलम से लिखता है।
सम्प्रदान	को, के लिए	जिसके लिए काम किया जाए।	माँ ने बच्चे के लिए खिलौना खरीदा।
अपादान	से (अलग होना)	जहाँ अलगाव या तुलना हो।	पेड़ से पत्ता गिरा।
संबंध	का, की, के	अन्य शब्दों से संबंध बताना।	यह सोहन का घर है।
अधिकरण	में, पर	क्रिया का आधार (स्थान/समय)।	पुस्तक मेज पर रखी है।
सम्बोधन	हे! ओ! अरे!	किसी को पुकारना या बुलाना।	अरे भाई! इधर आओ।

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द नहीं है।

((a))
प्राणिवृंद
((b))
कृत्यकृत्य
((c))
स्वामिभक्ति
((d))
सलज्ज

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

कृत्यकृत्य

दिए गए विकल्पों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द नहीं होने का सही उत्तर है- कृत्यकृत्य

Key Points

विकल्प 'B' में दिया गया शब्द 'कृत्यकृत्य' वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है। इसका शुद्ध रूप 'कृतकृत्य' होता है।
हिंदी व्याकरण के अनुसार, वर्तनी का अर्थ शब्दों को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के क्रम से है।
'कृतकृत्य' का अर्थ होता है - जिसने अपना कार्य पूरा कर लिया हो या जो धन्य हो चुका हो।
इसमें 'कृत्य' शब्द की पुनरावृत्ति न होकर 'कृत' और 'कृत्य' का मेल होता है।
इसी प्रकार के अन्य उदाहरण: सकुशल (शुद्ध) - सकुलश (अशुद्ध), उपरोक्त (अशुद्ध) - उपर्युक्त (शुद्ध)।

अन्य विकल्प -

शुद्ध वर्तनी	विग्रह/अर्थ
प्राणिवृंद	प्राणी + वृंद (यहाँ नियमतः 'ई' का 'इ' हुआ है)
स्वामिभक्ति	स्वामी + भक्ति (यहाँ भी 'ई' का 'इ' हुआ है)
सलज्ज	स + लज्जा (अर्थात लज्जा सहित)

Important Points

वर्तनी अशुद्धियों के मुख्य भेद-

स्वर संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: अ-आ, इ-ई की गलतियाँ)
व्यंजन संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: श-ष-स का भ्रम)
समास या संधि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: शब्दों को जोड़ते समय होने वाली त्रुटि)

Additional Information

अशुद्ध शब्द	शुद्ध शब्द
अभ्युदेय	अभ्युदय
उद्दिपन	उद्दीपन
प्रज्वालित	प्रज्वलित
दीप्तमान	दीप्तिमान
सन्न्यास	संन्यास
तदोपरांत	तदुपरांत
छीण	क्षीण
अभिवृधि	अभिवृद्धि
सुसंगठ	सुसंगत
निर्विघन	निर्विघ्न

प्रयोग की दृष्टि से सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए।

((a))
समर ने रोटी को खाया।
((b))
समर ने रोटी को खाई।
((c))
समर ने रोटी खाया।
((d))
समर ने रोटी खाई।

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

समर ने रोटी खाई।

वाक्य में प्रयोग की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- समर ने रोटी खाई।

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्यों में 'समर ने रोटी ��ाई' पूर्णतः शुद्ध है क्योंकि यहाँ क्रिया कर्म के लिंग के अनुसार प्रयुक्त हुई है।
व्याकरणिक नियम के अनुसार, यदि भूतकाल की सकर्मक क्रिया में कर्ता के साथ 'ने' विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया जाता है,
तो क्रिया का लिंग और वचन कर्ता के अनुसार न होकर कर्म (Object) के अनुसार होता है।
चूँकि यहाँ 'रोटी' एक स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है, इसलिए क्रिया भी स्त्रीलिंग 'खाई' होगी।
उदाहरण: 1. राम ने किताब (स्त्रीलिंग) पढ़ी। 2. सीता ने आम (पुल्लिंग) खाया।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
समर ने रोटी को खाया।	निर्जीव कर्म के साथ 'को' का प्रयोग अनावश्यक है। यदि 'को' लगे, तो क्रिया सदैव पुल्लिंग एकवचन होती है।	अशुद्ध वाक्य
समर ने रोटी को खाई।	जब कर्म के साथ 'को' विभक्ति आती है, तो क्रिया कर्म के अनुसार नहीं बल्कि 'तटस्थ' (पुल्लिंग एकवचन) रहती है।	अशुद्ध वाक्य
समर ने रोटी खाया।	यहाँ क्रिया 'खाया' (पुल्लिंग) है, जबकि कर्म 'रोटी' स्त्रीलिंग है, इसलिए यह व्याकरणिक रूप से गलत है।	अशुद्ध वाक्य

Important Points

हिंदी में 'ने' विभक्ति के मुख्य नियम-

'ने' का प्रयोग केवल सकर्मक क्रियाओं के साथ भूतकाल में होता है।
यदि कर्ता के साथ 'ने' और कर्म के साथ 'को' लगा हो, तो क्रिया सदैव पुल्लिंग, एकवचन और अन्य पुरुष में होती है।
अकर्मक क्रियाओं के साथ (कुछ अपवादों को छोड़कर) 'ने' का प्रयोग नहीं होता है।

Additional Informationलिंग व कारक अशुद्ध वाक्य-

अशुद्ध वाक्य	शुद्ध वाक्य	अशुद्धि का प्रकार
दही बहुत खट्टी है।	दही बहुत खट्टा है।	लिंग संबंधी (दही पुल्लिंग है)
वह अपनी बात को कह दिया।	उसने अपनी बात कह दी।	कारक संबंधी ('ने' का प्रयोग)
महादेवी वर्मा एक विद्वान कवयित्री थीं।	महादेवी वर्मा एक विदुषी कवयित्री थीं।	लिंग संबंधी (स्त्री के लिए विदुषी का प्रयोग)
पेड़ में फल लग रहे हैं।	पेड़ पर फल लग रहे हैं।	कारक संबंधी (अधिकरण कारक - पर)
शत्रु मैदान से भाग खड़ा हुआ।	शत्रु मैदान छोड़कर भाग गया।	कारक संबंधी
आज की ताज़ा समाचार क्या है?	आज का ताज़ा समाचार क्या है?	लिंग संबंधी (समाचार पुल्लिंग है)

'ऋ' का उच्चारण स्थान है।

((a))
दंत्य
((b))
मूर्द्धन्य
((c))
ओष्ठ्य
((d))
तालव्य

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

मूर्द्धन्य

'ऋ' के उच्चारण स्थान का सही उत्तर है- मूर्द्धन्य

Key Points

'ऋ' का उच्चारण स्थान मूर्द्धा है, इसलिए इसे मूर्द्धन्य वर्ण कहा जाता है।
हिंदी व्याकरण के नियमानुसार, जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण मुख के मूर्धा (कठोर तालु के ऊपरी भाग) से होता है, वे मूर्द्धन्य कहलाते हैं।
इसके लिए संस्कृत का सूत्र है- 'ऋटुरषाणां मूर्धा'।
इस नियम के अंतर्गत ऋ, ट-वर्ग (ट, ठ, ड, ढ, ण), र और ष वर्ण आते हैं।
अन्य उदाहरण: ऋषि, ऋण।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
दंत्य	जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण दांतों की सहायता से होता है (जैसे- त-वर्ग, स)।	दंत्य वर्ण
ओष्ठ्य	जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण होंठों की सहायता से होता है (जैसे- उ, ऊ, प-वर्ग)।	ओष्ठ्य वर्ण
तालव्य	जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण तालु के स्पर्श से होता है (जैसे- इ, ई, च-वर्ग, य, श)।	तालव्य वर्ण

Important Points

उच्चारण स्थान के मुख्य भेद-

कंठ्य (कंठ से)
तालव्य (तालु से)
मूर्द्धन्य (मूर्धा से)
दंत्य (दांतों से)
ओष्ठ्य (ओष्ठ से)
नासिका (नाक से)

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
कंठ्य	जिनका उच्चारण कंठ से होता है। इसमें अ, आ, क-वर्ग और ह शामिल हैं।	अकुहविसर्जनीयानां = कण्ठः कमल = क + म + ल
कंठ-तालव्य	जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण कंठ और तालु दोनों के योग से होता है।	ए = अ + इ ऐ = अ + ए

‘बद्धाक्षर' का उदाहरण है।

((a))
जो
((b))
वो
((c))
एक्
((d))
रे

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

एक्

‘बद्धाक्षर' का सही उदाहरण है- एक्

Key Points

'एक्' एक बद्धाक्षर है क्योंकि इसके उच्चारण के अंत में व्यंजन ध्वनि (क्) स्पष्ट है और वह स्वर रहित है।
जिस अक्षर की अंतिम ध्वनि व्यंजन होती है, उसे बद्धाक्षर कहा जाता है। इसमें अक्षर के अंत में स्वर का लोप होता है या हलंत का प्रयोग होता है।
बद्धाक्षर के अन्य उदाहरण: आप, नाम, सत आदि।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
जो	ज + ओ (अंतिम ध्वनि स्वर है)	मुक्ताक्षर
वो	व + ओ (अंतिम ध्वनि स्वर है)	मुक्ताक्षर
रे	र + ए (अंतिम ध्वनि स्वर है)	मुक्ताक्षर

Important Points

ध्वनि के आधार पर अक्षर के भेद-

मुक्ताक्षर
बद्धाक्षर

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेद	परिभाषा	उदाहरण
मुक्ताक्षर	जिस अक्षर की अंतिम ध्वनि स्वर होती है, उसे मुक्ताक्षर कहते हैं। हिंदी की अधिकतर ध्वनियाँ मुक्ताक्षर होती हैं।	जा = ज + आ खायो = खा + यो (य + ओ)
बद्धाक्षर	जिस अक्षर की अंतिम ध्वनि व्यंजन होती है, उसे बद्धाक्षर कहते हैं। इसमें वायु का प्रवाह अचानक रुक जाता है।	श्रीमान् = मान् (म + आ + न्) अचानक = नक (न + अ + क)

'गो' का अर्थ नहीं है।

((a))
बाण
((b))
आँख
((c))
बादल
((d))
सरस्वती

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

बादल

'गो' शब्द के अनेकार्थी रूपों के आधार पर 'गो' का अर्थ नहीं है का सही उत्तर है- बादल

Key Points

'गो' एक अनेकार्थी शब्द है। हिंदी साहित्य और व्याकरण में 'गो' शब्द का प्रयोग अत्यंत व्यापक है, जिसका अर्थ संदर्भ के अनुसार बदल जाता है।
हिंदी व्याकरण के अनुसार अनेकार्थी शब्द वे शब्द होते हैं, जिनके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हों।
'गो' के अर्थों में गाय, पृथ्वी, दिशा, माता, वाणी, सरस्वती, आँख, स्वर्ग, बाण, जल, और इन्द्रिय शामिल हैं।
विकल्पों में 'बादल' शब्द 'गो' का अर्थ नहीं है। बादल के समानार्थी शब्द मेघ, जलधर, ��ारिद आदि होते हैं।
अन्य उदाहरण: अक्ष (धुरी, आँख, पासा), अंक (संख्या, गोद, नाटक का अध्याय)।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
बाण	'गो' का प्रयोग प्राचीन साहित्य में बाण (arrow) के अर्थ में किया जाता है।	अनेकार्थी
आँख	'गो' का अर्थ ज्ञान का स्रोत या आँख (eye) भी होता है।	अनेकार्थी
सरस्वती	वाणी या ज्ञान की देवी सरस्वती को भी 'गो' कहा जाता है।	अनेकार्थी

Additional Information अनेकार्थी शब्द के कुछ प्रमुख उदाहरण-

शब्द	विभिन्न अर्थ
हरि	विष्णु, बंदर, सिंह, सूर्य, पहाड़, हाथी।
कर	हाथ, किरण, टैक्स, हाथी की सूँड़।
अंबर	आकाश, वस्त्र, एक इत्र (अम्बर)।
सारंग	कोयल, मोर, मृग (हिरण), धनुष, बादल, हाथी।
अंक	संख्या, गोद, नाटक का अध्याय, चिह्न।
पट	कपड़ा, दरवाजा, पर्दा, पट (चित्र का उलटा भाग)।
वर्ण	अक्षर, रंग, जाति (जैसे ब्राह्मण, क्षत्रिय)।
तीर	बाण, नदी का किनारा (तट)।

‘किला’ शब्द है।

((a))
फारसी
((b))
उर्दू
((c))
अरबी
((d))
तुर्की

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

अरबी

‘किला’ शब्द का सही उत्तर है- अरबी

Key Points

'किला' शब्द का उद्गम अरबी भाषा से हुआ है। इसका सामान्य अर्थ गढ़ या दुर्ग होता है।
हिन्दी भाषा में वे शब्द जो विदेशी भाषाओं (जैसे- अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी आदि) के प्रभाव से आए हैं, उन्हें विदेशज या आगत शब्द कहते हैं।
अरबी भाषा के अन्य उदाहरण: अदालत, मुसाफिर, औलाद, वकील, इलाज।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्प	विग्रह/अर्थ	भेद/प्रकार
फारसी	ईरान की प्राचीन भाषा से आए शब्द जैसे चश्मा, दुकान और जमीन।	विदेशज शब्द
उर्दू	स्वयं 'उर्दू' शब्द तुर्की भाषा का है, जिसका अर्थ शाही शिविर या लश्कर होता है।	विदेशी भाषा
तुर्की	तुर्क आक्रमणकारियों के माध्यम से आए शब्द जैसे कैंची, कुली और तोप।	विदेशज शब्द

Important Points

उत्पत्ति के आधार पर शब्द के भेद-

तत्सम
तद्भव
देशज
विदेशज (आगत)
संकर

Additional Information

भाषा	महत्वपूर्ण शब्द
फारसी	आदमी, आईना, उम्मीद, चश्मा, नमक, बीमार, मज़दूर, राह, सरकार, हफ़्ता, बाज़ार, गवाह, दरोगा।
अरबी	अदालत, अक्ल, इस्तीफ़ा, औरत, किताब, कुर्सी, जिला, तहसील, फ़ैसला, वकील, सुबह, शराब, हुक्म।
तुर्की	उर्दू, कैंची, कुली, चाकू, तोप, बारूद, बेगम, बहादुर, चेचक, लाश, सराय, कालीन।
अंग्रेज़ी	डॉक्टर, स्कूल, स्टेशन, पुलिस, टिकट, नर्स, पेंसिल, रजिस्टर, रेल, बजट, सिनेमा।
पुर्तगाली	आलमारी, बाल्टी, साबुन, फीता, गमला, आलू, काजू, तौलिया, चाबी, पादरी।
फ्रांसीसी	काजू, कारतूस, कूपन, रेस्तरां, अंग्रेज़, बिगुल।
चीनी	चाय, लीची, चीकू, तूफ़ान।

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

((a))
President is the head of Military forces of India
((b))
Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area
((c))
President of India chooses the Chairman of the Finance Commission
((d))
President can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area

The correct answer is Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area.

Key Points

According to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to declare an area as a Scheduled Area. The Parliament does not have the initial authority to declare such areas, although it can make laws regarding their administration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
As per Article 53(2) of the Constitution, the Supreme Command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President, and the exercise thereof is regulated by law. This makes the President the formal head of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is responsible for constituting a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. The President appoints the Chairman and four other members of the commission. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Article 339 provides that the President may at any time, and shall at the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution, appoint a commission to report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the States. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

The Fifth Schedule:
It deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule).
The President can also increase or decrease the area of a Scheduled Area, alter its boundary lines, or rescind any such order in consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.
The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas must submit a report to the President annually regarding the administration of such areas.
Military Powers of the President:
The President appoints the Chief of the Army, the Chief of the Naval Staff, and the Chief of the Air Staff.
The President can declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of the Parliament.
The Finance Commission:
The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body that gives recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States.
The Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission was N.K. Singh, and recently the government constituted the 16th Finance Commission under the chairmanship of Arvind Panagariya in December 2023.

Important Points

Constitutional Commissions:
Apart from SCs and STs, the President can also appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes under Article 340.
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article 338, while the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is established under Article 338A.
Tribes Advisory Council:
In states having Scheduled Areas, a Tribes Advisory Council must be established consisting of not more than 20 members, three-fourths of whom shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
PESA Act, 1996:
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 was enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas.

Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched :

((a))
Madhubani painting - Bihar
((b))
Phulkari Art - Haryana
((c))
Pichwal painting - Gujarat
((d))
Kalamkari Art - Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Pichwal painting - Gujarat

The correct answer is Pichwal painting - Gujarat.

Key Points

Madhubani painting: This traditional art form, also known as Mithila art, is native to the Mithila region of Bihar and neighboring Nepal. It is characterized by complex geometrical patterns and is traditionally created by women. Hence, the pair Madhubani painting - Bihar is correctly matched.
Phulkari Art: Literally translating to "flower work," this embroidery technique is the traditional craft of Punjab and Haryana. It involves intricate floral patterns embroidered on khaddar (hand-spun cotton) using silken threads. Hence, the pair Phulkari Art - Haryana is correctly matched.
Pichwal painting: Also referred to as Pichwai, these are large devotional cloth paintings that depict Lord Krishna (specifically as Srinathji). This art form originated and is primarily practiced in Nathdwara, Rajasthan, not Gujarat. Hence, the pair Pichwal painting - Gujarat is not correctly matched.
Kalamkari Art: This is an ancient style of hand-painting or block-printing on cotton textiles. It is predominantly practiced in the state of Andhra Pradesh, with two distinct styles: Srikalahasti (using a pen) and Machilipatnam (using blocks). Hence, the pair Kalamkari Art - Andhra Pradesh is correctly matched.

Additional Information

Madhubani Painting Details:
Location: Madhubani district and Mithila region of Bihar.
Features: Artists use fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks. The dyes are extracted from natural sources like turmeric, indigo, and sandalwood.
Themes: Predominantly features Hindu deities like Krishna, Ram, Shiva, Durga, and Lakshmi, along with elements of nature like the sun and moon.
Phulkari Art Details:
Origin: Mentioned in the famous Punjabi folklore Heer Ranjha in the 15th century.
Uses: Traditionally used for shawls, dupattas, and trousseau for weddings in Punjab and Haryana.
Functions: It was a domestic craft practiced by women to celebrate significant life events like the birth of a child or marriages.
Pichwai Painting Details:
Location: Nathdwara in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan.
History: Developed in the 17th century when the idol of Srinathji was shifted from Mathura to Nathdwara.
Applications: These paintings are hung behind the deity in temples to depict different moods, seasons, and festivals like Janmashtami and Holi.
Kalamkari Art Details:
Styles: The Srikalahasti style uses a tamarind pen for freehand drawing, while the Machilipatnam style relies on vegetable-dyed wooden blocks.
Data/Facts: It received Geographical Indication (GI) tag protection for both its styles in Andhra Pradesh.
Materials: Uses only natural dyes and involves a 23-step process of bleaching, softening, and painting.

Important Points

Geographical Indications (GI): Many of these art forms are protected under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, which ensures the preservation of their origin-based identity.
Artistic Evolution: While traditional arts were once restricted to walls and ritualistic spaces, they have now evolved into commercial art, found on saris, bags, and home decor items globally.
Conservation: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Textiles and various handicraft boards, provides subsidies and training programs to artisans to keep these centuries-old traditions alive.

Who appoints the Chief of Army, Navy and Air Force ?

((a))
Prime Minister
((b))
President
((c))
Defence Minister
((d))
Both (2) and (3)

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

President

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, which includes the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian Air Force.
Under Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is specifically vested in the President, and the exercise of this power is regulated by law.
The President has the formal authority to appoint the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS), the Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS), and the Chief of the Air Staff (CAS).
The Prime Minister (Option 1) leads the Cabinet Committee on Appointments (ACC), which discusses and recommends the names of the officers for these posts; however, the Prime Minister is not the official appointing authority. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
The President (Option 2) acts as the ceremonial and constitutional head of the state and performs the appointment based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. Hence, this statement is correct.
The Defence Minister (Option 3) is the political head of the Ministry of Defence and handles administrative and policy matters, but the Defence Minister does not hold the constitutional power to appoint the service chiefs. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

Chief of the Army Staff (COAS):
The COAS is the professional head and the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Army.
The tenure of the Army Chief is generally 3 years or until the age of 62 years, whichever occurs earlier.
The officer holds the four-star rank of General.
Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS):
The CNS is the commander and the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Navy.
The tenure and age limit are the same as the Army Chief: 3 years or 62 years of age.
The officer holds the four-star rank of Admiral.
Chief of the Air Staff (CAS):
The CAS is the head of the Indian Air Force and serves as the chief military adviser to the government regarding aerial warfare.
The officer holds the four-star rank of Air Chief Marshal.
The age and tenure rules remain consistent with the other two service branches (3 years or 62 years).
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
The post of CDS was created in December 2019 to provide "single-point military advice" to the Government of India.
The CDS is a four-star officer who acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC) and heads the Department of Military Affairs.
The first CDS of India was General Bipin Rawat, appointed in January 2020.

Important Points

Role of the Ministry of Defence: The Ministry of Defence (MoD) provides the necessary resources and policy framework to the Armed Forces to discharge their responsibilities in the context of the Defence of the country.
Cabinet Committee on Appointments (ACC): This committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Minister of Home Affairs. It decides the appointments of several top-tier civil and military positions, including the Service Chiefs.
Constitutional Status: While the President is the Supreme Commander, the actual executive power resides with the Prime Minister and the Cabinet, as India follows a Parliamentary system of government.
Selection Process: The selection is usually based on the principle of seniority-cum-merit, where the most senior Lieutenant General (Army), Vice Admiral (Navy), or Air Marshal (Air Force) is considered for the top post.

Who started “Din-e-Illahi” religion ?

((a))
Babur
((b))
Humayun
((c))
Akbar
((d))
Jahangir

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Akbar

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

Din-e-Illahi (The Religion of God) was a syncretic religious movement propounded by the Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1582 AD.
The primary intent behind this new faith was to merge the best elements of the various religions practiced in his empire, such as Islam, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, Christianity, Jainism, and Buddhism.
The religion was based on the philosophy of Sulh-i-kul, which means "universal peace" or "absolute tolerance," aiming to bridge the religious divide among his subjects.
Din-e-Illahi did not have a sacred scripture, a priestly hierarchy, or a temple/mosque for worship; it functioned more as an ethical and social code of conduct.
The entry into this faith was voluntary, and it is recorded that very few people joined it. Birbal, one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) in Akbar's court, was the only Hindu to embrace the religion.

Additional Information

Akbar (1556–1605):
He was the third Mughal Emperor and is considered one of the greatest rulers in Indian history.
He established the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575 to conduct theological discussions with scholars of different faiths.
In 1579, he issued the Mahzarnama (Infallibility Decree), which authorized him to be the final arbiter in religious disputes.
He is well-known for abolishing the Jizya tax (a tax on non-Muslim subjects) in 1564, demonstrating his secular outlook.
Babur (1526–1530):
He was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
He wrote his autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburnama), in the Chaghatai Turkic language.
Humayun (1530–1540 and 1555–1556):
The son of Babur, he struggled against Sher Shah Suri and spent 15 years in exile.
He built a new city in Delhi called Dinpanah. His tomb, Humayun's Tomb, is a major architectural precursor to the Taj Mahal.
Jahangir (1605–1627):
The son of Akbar, known for his Zanjir-i-Adal (Chain of Justice) installed at the Agra Fort.
His reign is considered the Golden Age of Mughal Painting.

Important Points

The Din-e-Illahi emphasized monotheism and prohibited vices like lust, sensuality, and pride.
It encouraged virtues such as piety, prudence, abstinence, and kindness toward all living beings.
The religion used symbols like the Sun and Fire as representations of divine light, a feature heavily influenced by Zoroastrian practices.
Because it was centered heavily on the personality of Akbar, the movement lost its momentum and virtually disappeared after his death in 1605. Historians suggest that no more than 18 to 20 high-ranking officials ever formally adopted the faith.

Who among the following Presidents died during his term at the office ?

((a))
Dr. Zakir Hussain
((b))
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
((c))
V.V. Giri
((d))
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Dr. Zakir Hussain

The correct answer is Dr. Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

Dr. Zakir Hussain served as the 3rd President of India from 13 May 1967 until his death on 3 May 1969.
He was the first Indian President to die in office, which necessitated the appointment of an Acting President for the first time in Indian history.
Prior to his presidency, he served as the 2nd Vice-President of India from 1962 to 1967 and the Governor of Bihar from 1957 to 1962.
He was a renowned educationist and an intellectual, being one of the co-founders of Jamia Millia Islamia, serving as its Vice-Chancellor from 1926.
In recognition of his service to the nation, he was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, in the year 1963. Hence, the option Dr. Zakir Hussain is correct.

Additional Information

Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
He was the 1st President of independent India, serving the longest tenure from 26 January 1950 to 13 May 1962.
He was a lawyer by training and a pivotal figure in the Indian Independence Movement, having joined the Indian National Congress in 1911.
He was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946, which drafted the Constitution of India.
He did not die in office; he retired after his second term and passed away on 28 February 1963. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. Rajendra Prasad is incorrect.
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan:
He served as the 2nd President of India from 1962 to 1967 and was the 1st Vice-President of India from 1952 to 1962.
He was a distinguished philosopher and statesman; his birthday on 5 September is celebrated annually as Teachers' Day in India.
He completed his full term of five years and did not die in office. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is incorrect.
V.V. Giri:
Varahagiri Venkata Giri served as the 4th President of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974.
He served as the Acting President following the death of Dr. Zakir Hussain in May 1969 but resigned to contest the presidential election as an Independent candidate.
He was a prominent leader of the Labour Movement in India and served as the Union Minister of Labour.
He completed his full term in 1974 and passed away later in 1980. Hence, the statement regarding V.V. Giri is incorrect.

Important Points

Constitutional Vacancy: Under Article 62 of the Constitution of India, an election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of death, resignation, or removal must be held within six months from the date of occurrence.
Succession: In the event of the death of the President, the Vice-President acts as the President as per Article 65. If the Vice-President is also unavailable, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) performs the functions. This occurred in 1969 when Justice M. Hidayatullah became the Acting President.
Other Instances: Apart from Dr. Zakir Hussain, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the only other Indian President to die during his term. He served as the 5th President from 1974 until his death on 11 February 1977.
Eligibility: To become the President of India, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 35 years of age, and qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

The President gives his resignation to the :

((a))
Chief Justice
((b))
Parliament
((c))
Vice President
((d))
Prime Minister

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Vice President

The correct answer is Vice President.

Key Points

According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President, resign his office.
Once the Vice President receives the resignation letter from the President, he is constitutionally mandated under Article 56(2) to communicate this information immediately to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
The President holds office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office, but can vacate the office earlier through resignation or the process of impeachment.
The resignation must be a formal written document; a verbal announcement does not constitute a valid resignation under the Indian Constitution.
In the event that the office of the President falls vacant due to resignation, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected, which must happen within 6 months of the vacancy.

Additional Information

Article 52 to 62 of the Constitution of India deal with the President of India, who is the head of the Indian State and the formal executive head of the union.
Eligibility and Age: To be eligible for election as President, a person must be a citizen of India, have completed the age of 35 years, and be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
Election Process: The President is elected indirectly by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Location: The official residence of the President of India is the Rashtrapati Bhavan, located on Raisina Hill in New Delhi.
Oath of Office: Before entering office, the President must take an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available, as per Article 60.
Functions: The President exercises several powers including Executive (appointing the Prime Minister), Legislative (summoning Parliament), Financial (prior recommendation for money bills), and Judicial (power to grant pardons).

Important Points

Impeachment: The President can be removed from office by the process of impeachment for the "violation of the Constitution" under Article 61. The charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
Interim Roles: If both the offices of the President and the Vice President are vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court) performs the duties of the President. This occurred in 1969 when Justice M. Hidayatullah became the acting President.
First President: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, serving from 1950 to 1962, and remains the only person to hold the office for two terms.
Nominal Head: While the President is the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces, he is a nominal or titular executive, acting on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister as per Article 74.

The “Liberty, equality and fraternity” enshrined in Preamble of Constitution of India, is inspired by which revolution ?

((a))
Russian
((b))
French
((c))
Irish
((d))
American

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

French

The correct answer is French.

Key Points

The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were inspired by the French Revolution. This revolution, which took place between 1789 and 1799, was a period of far-reaching social and political upheaval in France that fundamentally changed the course of modern history. Hence, the French revolution is the correct source.
Liberty: It implies the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals and, at the same time, provides opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
Equality: This concept signifies the absence of special privileges to any section of society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity.
Fraternity: This refers to a sense of brotherhood and a feeling that all people are children of the same soil, the same motherland. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship.
The inclusion of these three words highlights the democratic and republican nature of the Indian state, emphasizing that the Constitution aims to establish a society based on social justice and individual dignity.

Additional Information

Russian Revolution (1917): The ideals of Justice (Social, Economic, and Political) in the Preamble are borrowed from the Russian Revolution. This revolution aimed to create a classless society and eliminate exploitation. Hence, statement regarding Russian revolution being the source for Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity is incorrect.
Irish Revolution/Constitution: India borrowed the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), the method of Election of the President, and the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha from the Irish Constitution. Hence, statement regarding Irish influence on these specific Preamble ideals is incorrect.
American Revolution/Constitution: The United States provided the inspiration for the Preamble itself (starting with "We the People"), Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, Independence of Judiciary, and the impeachment of the President. Hence, statement regarding American revolution being the source for Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity is incorrect.
British Constitution: Features like the Parliamentary form of government, the Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, Single citizenship, and Cabinet system were borrowed from the United Kingdom.

Important Points

The Preamble was amended only once in 1976 by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
The 42nd Amendment added three new words to the Preamble: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution, drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December 1946 and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd January 1947.
Legal experts like N.A. Palkhivala called the Preamble the "Identity card of the Constitution."
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided the Basic Structure is not altered.

Which pair is correctly matched ?

((a))
Zakir Hussain - Sitar
((b))
Amjad Ali Khan - Sarod
((c))
Hari Prasad Chaursia - Tabla
((d))
Pt. Ravi Shankar - Flute

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Amjad Ali Khan - Sarod

The correct answer is Amjad Ali Khan - Sarod.

Key Points

Amjad Ali Khan is a world-renowned Indian classical musician who is best known for playing the Sarod. Born in 1945 in Gwalior, he belongs to the Bangash lineage and is credited with reinventing the technique of playing the Sarod. This pair correctly identifies the artist with his instrument. Hence, the statement is correct.
Zakir Hussain is an iconic Tabla player and a composer. He was born in 1951 in Mumbai and is the son of the legendary Ustad Alla Rakha. The option incorrectly associates him with the Sitar, which is a stringed instrument. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a legendary maestro of the Bansuri (Indian bamboo Flute) in the Hindustani classical tradition. Born in 1938 in Prayagraj, he has been awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2000. The option incorrectly matches him with the Tabla. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
Pt. Ravi Shankar was a celebrated Sitar player and a composer who became the world's best-known proponent of Hindustani classical music in the 20th century. He was born in 1920 in Varanasi and received the Bharat Ratna in 1999. The option incorrectly matches him with the Flute. Hence, the statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

Sarod: It is a stringed musical instrument, used mainly in Hindustani music on the Indian subcontinent. Along with the Sitar, it is among the most popular and prominent instruments. It is known for a deep, weighty, introspective sound. Amjad Ali Khan received the Padma Vibhushan in 2001 for his contributions to this instrument.
Tabla: This is a pair of twin hand drums from the Indian subcontinent. Since the 18th century, it has been the principal percussion instrument in Hindustani classical music. Zakir Hussain has won multiple Grammy Awards, including three in 2024, showcasing the global reach of this instrument.
Bansuri (Flute): It is a side-blown flute originating from the Indian subcontinent, made from a single hollow shaft of bamboo with six or seven finger holes. It is intimately linked to the love story of Krishna and Radha and is a symbol of divine music. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a member of the Senia Maihar Gharana.
Sitar: A plucked stringed instrument used in Hindustani classical music, the Sitar flourished under the Mughal Empire. Pt. Ravi Shankar was instrumental in introducing Indian music to the Western world, notably through his association with George Harrison of The Beatles in the 1960s.

Important Points

Gharanas: In Indian classical music, a Gharana is a system of social organization linking musicians or dancers by lineage or apprenticeship, and by adherence to a particular musical style. For example, Pt. Ravi Shankar belonged to the Maihar Gharana.
Cultural Awards: Most of these maestros are recipients of India's highest civilian honors, such as the Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri, as well as the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, which is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
Global Influence: These artists have performed at major international venues like Carnegie Hall and the United Nations, helping to establish Indian Classical Music as a respected genre globally. Zakir Hussain was also awarded the United States National Endowment for the Arts' National Heritage Fellowship in 1999.

The President can nominate how many members of the “Rajya Sabha” ?

((a))
14
((b))
6
((c))
12
((d))
16

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

According to Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the President has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
These individuals are selected from among people who have special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
The primary objective of this provision is to provide distinguished persons a place in the Upper House without them having to go through the process of elections.
The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at a maximum of 250 members, out of which 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories, and 12 are nominated by the President.
Currently, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members, which includes 233 elected members and 12 nominated members.

Additional Information

Nature of the House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every second year.
Tenure and Age: A member who is elected or nominated for a full term serves for a period of 6 years. To become a member of the Rajya Sabha, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age.
Election Process: The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the respective states through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Presiding Officers: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members to handle proceedings in the absence of the Chairman.
Allocation of Seats: The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories is laid down in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution, based on the population of each state.

Important Points

Nomination in Lok Sabha: Previously, the President could nominate 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if they were not adequately represented. However, this provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
Powers of Nominated Members: Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers, privileges, and immunities available to an elected Member of Parliament. They can participate in the proceedings of the House and vote on legislation.
Presidential Election: It is a crucial fact that while nominated members participate in the impeachment of the President, they do not have the right to vote in the election of the President of India. They do, however, vote in the election of the Vice-President.
Anti-Defection Law: A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified for being a member if he/she joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he/she takes his/her seat.

Folk Dance “Lambadi” belongs to which state of India ?

((a))
Gujarat
((b))
Maharashtra
((c))
Tamil Nadu
((d))
Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

The Lambadi dance is a famous folk dance that originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh and is also widely performed in the newly formed state of Telangana.
It is the traditional folk dance of the Banjara community, also known as the Lambadi or Sugalal tribe, who are a semi-nomadic group residing across various parts of the Deccan Plateau.
The dance is predominantly performed by women, who move in rhythmic synchronization to the tunes of folk songs, often depicting scenes from daily agricultural life or celebrating social occasions.
This dance form is deeply rooted in rural culture and is typically performed during festive seasons such as Holi, Dassera, and Deepavali to seek divine blessings for a prosperous harvest.
The performance is characterized by graceful movements, clapping, and the use of hand gestures that reflect the joy and spirit of the community.

Additional Information

Banjara Tribe and Language: The Banjara people are historically nomadic traders. They speak a language known as Lambadi or Gor Boli, which belongs to the Indo-Aryan family of languages, though it has incorporated many local Telugu words over the centuries.
Distinctive Costumes: The Lambadi dancers are known for their vibrant and colorful attire. The women wear a Kanchalli (blouse) and a Phetiya (skirt) heavily embroidered with glass pieces, mirrors, and cowrie shells. They also wear heavy ivory or brass bangles that cover their arms from the wrist to the elbow.
Musical Accompaniment: The dance is accompanied by traditional percussion instruments like the Dappu and the Nagara (kettle drum). The rhythmic beats dictate the pace of the dance, which starts slowly and gains momentum as the performance progresses.
Geographical Spread: While the dance is most prominent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, versions of this nomadic dance can be found in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Rajasthan, where the Banjara population is significant.
Other Folk Dances of Andhra Pradesh: The state has a rich heritage of performing arts including Kuchipudi (the state's classical dance), Vilasini Natyam, Bhamakalpam, Veeranatyam, Dappu, Tappeta Gullu, Dhimsa, and Kolattam.

Important Points

Cultural Significance: Lambadi dance is not just for entertainment but serves as a social glue for the Banjara community, preserving their nomadic history and cultural identity through generations.
Themes: The songs sung during the dance usually revolve around the planting and harvesting of crops, making it an essential agrarian folk art.
Recognition: In recent years, the Government of India and state governments have promoted Lambadi dance in various national cultural festivals and Republic Day parades to showcase the tribal diversity of the Deccan region.
Modern Context: Today, while the Banjara community has largely settled into sedentary lifestyles, the Lambadi dance remains a vital part of their weddings and community gatherings.

The first woman Governor of a State in free India was :

((a))
Mrs. Indira Gandhi
((b))
Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
((c))
Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
((d))
Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mrs. Sarojini Naidu

The correct answer is Mrs. Sarojini Naidu.

Key Points

Mrs. Sarojini Naidu holds the distinction of being the first woman Governor of a state in independent India.
She was appointed as the Governor of the United Provinces, which is currently known as Uttar Pradesh, immediately after India gained independence on 15th August 1947.
She remained in this prestigious constitutional office until her death on 2nd March 1949.
Apart from her political career, she was a celebrated poet, popularly known by the sobriquet "Nightingale of India" or "Bharat Kokila" due to the lyrical quality of her literary works.
In 1925, she became the first Indian woman to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress during the Kanpur Session.

Additional Information

Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani:
She was a noted freedom fighter and became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state.
She served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967.
She was also a member of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the Constitution of India.
Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit:
She was the sister of India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and a distinguished diplomat.
In 1953, she became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly (8th session).
She also served as India's ambassador to several countries, including the Soviet Union, the United States, and Mexico.
Mrs. Indira Gandhi:
She was the daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru and the first female Prime Minister of India.
She served as Prime Minister for three consecutive terms (1966–1977) and a fourth term from 1980 until her assassination in 1984.
She was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1971.

Important Points

The Governor of a state is the Constitutional Head of the State Executive and is appointed by the President of India under Article 155.
The qualifications for the post of Governor include being a citizen of India and having completed the age of 35 years as per Article 157.
To honor Sarojini Naidu's contributions to the nation and women's rights, her birth anniversary on 13th February is celebrated as National Women's Day in India.
Her literary contributions include famous collections of poems such as "The Golden Threshold" (1905), "The Bird of Time" (1912), and "The Broken Wing" (1917).
She played a vital role in the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Quit India Movement alongside Mahatma Gandhi.

“Papeti” festival belongs to :

((a))
Parsees
((b))
Jainism
((c))
Sikkim
((d))
Buddhism

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Parsees

The correct answer is Parsees.

Key Points

Papeti (often referred to as Pateti) is a major festival celebrated by the Parsee community, who follow the religion of Zoroastrianism.
It is observed on the eve of the Parsi New Year, which is known as Navroz or Nowruz.
The festival signifies a day of repentance and purification. The word "Pateti" is derived from the word "Patet," which means confession or atonement for sins committed during the year.
According to the Shahenshahi calendar followed by Parsees in India, this day falls on the last day of the tenth month (Gatha days) of the year.
During this day, Parsees visit the Fire Temple, known as the Agiary, to offer prayers and thank Ahura Mazda (the Almighty) for the blessings of the past year while seeking forgiveness for their mistakes.

Additional Information

Zoroastrianism: It is one of the world's oldest monotheistic religions, founded by Prophet Zarathustra (Zoroaster) in ancient Persia (modern-day Iran) approximately 3,500 years ago.
Holy Scripture: The primary sacred text of the Parsees is the Avesta, which contains the Gathas (hymns attributed to the Prophet).
Settlement in India: The Parsee community migrated to India between the 8th and 10th centuries to escape religious persecution in Persia. They primarily settled in the coastal regions of Gujarat and later in Mumbai.
Traditions and Rituals:
Chalk-puja: Houses are cleaned and decorated with traditional floral patterns and rangoli made of chalk.
Special Cuisine: Traditional dishes such as Ravo (a sweet semolina preparation), Dhan Sak (lentils and meat/vegetables), and Sali Boti are prepared during the festivities.
Dress: Men and women wear traditional Parsi attire; men often wear the Dagli (white coat) and Fetah (cap).
Comparison with Other Options:
Jainism: Key festivals include Paryushana (a period of fasting and repentance) and Mahavir Jayanti (celebrating the birth of Lord Mahavira).
Buddhism: Major festivals include Buddha Purnima (Vesak), celebrating the birth, enlightenment, and death of Gautama Buddha.
Sikkim: While a state and not a religion, its cultural festivals include Losoong (Sikkimese New Year) and Saga Dawa, which are deeply rooted in Tibetan Buddhism.

Important Points

Navroz: While Papeti is for repentance, the following day, Navroz, is for celebration. It usually falls in the month of August in India due to the Shahenshahi calendar which does not account for leap years.
Global Context: Many other Zoroastrians worldwide follow the Fasli calendar, where Navroz coincides with the Spring Equinox on March 21st.
Values: The festival emphasizes the three pillars of Zoroastrianism: Humata, Hukhta, Huvarshta, which translate to Good Thoughts, Good Words, and Good Deeds.
Population Data: The Parsi population is a micro-minority in India, with significant concentrations in Maharashtra and Gujarat. Efforts like the Jiyo Parsi scheme by the Government of India aim to arrest the decline in their population.

Who among the following headed the Advisory Committee on “Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas”, a Committee under the Constituent Assembly ?

((a))
Jawahar Lal Nehru
((b))
Vallabhbhai Patel
((c))
H.C. Mukherjee
((d))
Maulana Azad

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairperson of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
This was one of the eight major committees of the Constituent Assembly of India, tasked with the monumental responsibility of defining the rights of citizens and safeguards for minorities.
Under the leadership of Patel, this large committee worked through various sub-committees to address the specific needs of different groups, ensuring social justice and equality were embedded in the Constitution.
The recommendations of this committee significantly influenced the inclusion of Part III (Fundamental Rights) and various safeguards for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the final draft.
The committee's work was vital in the integration of India and in building a secular framework where the rights of minorities were protected by law.

Additional Information

Jawahar Lal Nehru:
He was a key figure in the Constituent Assembly and headed several important committees including the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States).
He presented the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946, which laid down the underlying principles of the Indian Constitution.
H.C. Mukherjee:
Harendra Coomar Mookerjee served as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
He was also the chairman of the Minorities Sub-Committee under the main Advisory Committee headed by Vallabhbhai Patel.
He later served as the Governor of West Bengal from 1951 to 1956.
Maulana Azad:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and contributed significantly to debates on Education and Minority Rights.
He served as the first Education Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1958.
Constituent Assembly Background:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the Cabinet Mission Plan.
It consisted of 389 members (initially), representing various provinces and princely states.
The first meeting took place on 9 December 1946, and Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the temporary President.
Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly.

Important Points

The Advisory Committee headed by Sardar Patel had five specific sub-committees:
Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: Chaired by J.B. Kripalani.
Minorities Sub-Committee: Chaired by H.C. Mukherjee.
North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee: Chaired by Gopinath Bardoloi.
Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: Chaired by A.V. Thakkar.
North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee: Formed later but faced challenges due to the partition.
The Drafting Committee, which was the most important committee, was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and was set up on 29 August 1947.
The Rules of Procedure Committee and the Steering Committee were headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
The entire process of drafting the Constitution took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete.

When did the “naya paisa”, introduced with the decimal system of coinage, become paise ?

((a))
April 1, 1957
((b))
October 2, 1962
((c))
June 1, 1964
((d))
April 1, 1965

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

June 1, 1964

The correct answer is June 1, 1964.

Key Points

The transition to the decimal system of coinage in India occurred through the Indian Coinage (Amendment) Act, 1955, which was brought into force on April 1, 1957. Before this, the currency followed a non-decimal system where 1 Rupee was equal to 16 Annas, and 1 Anna was equal to 4 Pice.
Upon the introduction of the decimal system in April 1, 1957, the Rupee was divided into 100 units. To distinguish the new unit from the old pice, the new subunit was officially designated as "Naya Paisa" (New Paisa).
The term "Naya Paisa" remained in official use for a period of seven years. During this time, both old and new coins circulated together until the old denominations were phased out.
On June 1, 1964, the Government of India decided to drop the prefix "Naya" from the currency. From this date onwards, the unit was simply called "Paisa" (plural "Paise"). Hence, the statement regarding the change on June 1, 1964, is correct.
The coins issued during the 1957-1964 period carried the legend "Naya Paisa" to educate the public about the decimal division of the Rupee.

Additional Information

Pre-Decimal System: Before 1957, the basic unit of currency was the Rupee, which was subdivided into 16 Annas. Each Anna was further divided into 4 Pice, and each Pice into 3 Pies. This meant 1 Rupee was equivalent to 192 Pies.
Denominations Introduced: Under the 1957 reform, the initial denominations of "Naya Paisa" were 1, 2, 5, 10, 25, and 50 naye paise. The 1 Rupee coin remained the standard unit.
Withdrawal of Small Coins: Over the decades, due to inflation and the rising cost of production, smaller denominations became obsolete. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) eventually withdrew coins of denomination 25 paise and below from circulation effective from June 30, 2011.
Legal Authority: The Government of India has the sole right to mint coins under the Coinage Act, 2011 (which replaced the older 1906 Act). The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as an agent to the Central Government for the distribution and management of these coins.
Mints in India: Coins are currently minted at four locations owned by the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL): Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), Hyderabad, and Noida.

Important Points

April 1, 1957: This date marks the official launch of the decimal coinage system in India. This was a landmark administrative and economic reform to simplify accounting and transactions.
The Term "Paisa": The word Paisa is derived from the Sanskrit word 'Padamsah', which means a quarter part. Historically, the value and metal composition of the paisa have changed significantly, moving from copper and bronze to stainless steel and ferritic stainless steel in modern times.
Symbol of Rupee: While the subunits (paise) evolved in 1964, the Indian Rupee got its distinct symbol (₹) much later, on July 15, 2010. It was designed by Udaya Kumar Dharmalingam.
Demonetization Context: While the change from Naya Paisa to Paisa was a nomenclature shift, India has seen major currency reforms, including the 1978 and 2016 demonetization of high-value banknotes. However, the 1964 change was specifically focused on the decimal subunit.

Which article of Indian Constitution envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India ?

((a))
Article 78
((b))
Article 76
((c))
Article 67
((d))
Article 113

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Article 76

The correct answer is Article 76.

Key Points

Article 76 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Attorney General of India (AGI). It states that the President of India shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court to be the Attorney General for India.
The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country and acts as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
As per Article 76(2), it is the duty of the Attorney General to give advice to the Union Government upon such legal matters and perform such other duties of a legal character as may from time to time be referred or assigned by the President.
The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the President may determine. Hence, the statement regarding Article 76 envisaging the Attorney General is correct.

Additional Information

Article 78:
This article defines the duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President.
It mandates that the Prime Minister communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Hence, the statement regarding Article 78 is incorrect in the context of the Attorney General.
Article 67:
This article deals with the term of office of the Vice-President of India.
It specifies that the Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office, subject to resignation or removal. Hence, the statement regarding Article 67 is incorrect.
Article 113:
This article pertains to the procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates (Budget).
It states that estimates relating to expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India shall not be submitted to the vote of Parliament, although they can be discussed. Hence, the statement regarding Article 113 is incorrect.
Rights of the Attorney General:
Under Article 88, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), any joint sitting, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but he does not have the right to vote.
In the performance of his duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.

Important Points

Qualifications: To be appointed as the Attorney General, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some High Court for five years or an advocate of some High Court for ten years, or an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President.
Limitations: The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government and does not fall in the category of government servants. Therefore, he is not debarred from private legal practice, provided he does not advise or hold a brief against the Government of India.
Assistance: The Attorney General is assisted by the Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitors General. It is important to note that the offices of Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor General are statutory and not constitutional (they are not mentioned in Article 76).
Tenure: The Constitution does not provide a fixed tenure for the Attorney General; the individual serves at the mercy of the President, which usually means the duration of the current Union Cabinet.

The “Principle of Karma” belongs to which Indian Philosophy ?

((a))
Nyaya
((b))
Mimasa
((c))
Vedanta
((d))
Vaisheshika

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mimasa

The correct answer is Mimasa.

Key Points

The Mimamsa philosophy, specifically Purva Mimamsa, is one of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy that directly addresses the Principle of Karma through ritualistic action.
It was founded by Sage Jaimini, who composed the Mimamsa Sutras around the 4th century BCE. The core objective of this school is to provide a correct interpretation of the Vedas, focusing on the Karma-kanda (the portion dealing with actions and rituals).
The school posits that the universe is governed by the Principle of Karma, where every ritual action performed correctly produces an unseen potency called Apurva. This Apurva ensures that the performer receives the fruits of their actions in the future, either in this life or the next. Hence, Mimasa is the correct answer.
Unlike other schools that might focus on meditation or logic, Mimasa emphasizes that Dharma is synonymous with the performance of Vedic injunctions. It treats the Vedas as Apaurusheya (not created by man or God) and eternal.

Additional Information

Nyaya Philosophy:
Founded by Sage Gautama (also known as Akshapada), this school focuses on logic and epistemology.
It identifies four valid sources of knowledge: Pratyaksha (Perception), Anumana (Inference), Upamana (Comparison), and Shabda (Verbal Testimony).
While it accepts the concept of Karma, its primary contribution is the development of a rigorous system of reasoning to attain liberation. Hence, Statement 1 (Nyaya) is not the primary origin of this specific principle.
Vedanta Philosophy:
Also known as Uttara Mimamsa, it was systematized by Sage Badarayana in the Brahma Sutras.
It shifts the focus from the ritualistic Karma-kanda to the Jnana-kanda (knowledge portion) found in the Upanishads.
Key sub-schools include Advaita (Non-dualism) by Adi Shankara (approx. 8th century CE) and Vishishtadvaita by Ramanuja. It teaches that the realization of Atman (soul) and Brahman (ultimate reality) is the way to end the cycle of Samsara. Hence, Statement 3 (Vedanta) is not the correct answer.
Vaisheshika Philosophy:
Founded by Sage Kanada, this school is renowned for its Atomic Theory of the universe.
It classifies all existence into seven Padarthas (categories): Dravya (Substance), Guna (Quality), Karma (Action/Movement), Samanya (Generality), Vishesha (Particularity), Samavaya (Inherence), and Abhava (Non-existence).
In this context, Karma refers to physical motion or action of substances, rather than the moral principle of cause and effect. Hence, Statement 4 (Vaisheshika) is not the correct answer.

Important Points

Historical Context: The six orthodox schools (Shad-darshana) also include Sankhya (founded by Sage Kapila) and Yoga (founded by Sage Patanjali).
The Concept of Dharma: In Mimamsa, Dharma is defined as Codana-laksana—that which is indicated by the Vedic commands. The school argues that the Principle of Karma operates automatically without the need for a divine creator to dispense justice.
Language and Sound: Mimamsa philosophers, such as Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara, made significant contributions to the philosophy of language, arguing that the relationship between a word and its meaning is natural and eternal.

Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly ?

((a))
Sachidanand Sinha
((b))
B.N. Rao
((c))
H.N. Kunzuru
((d))
V.N. Menon

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B.N. Rao

The correct answer is B.N. Rao.

Key Points

Sir Benegal Narsing Rau (popularly known as B.N. Rao) was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in 1946.
He was a distinguished Indian jurist, diplomat, and statesman who played a foundational role in drafting the Constitution of India.
His primary function was to prepare the original draft of the Constitution, which he submitted in October 1947. This draft consisted of 243 articles and 13 schedules.
The Drafting Committee, led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, used this initial draft as the working document to further refine and debate the provisions of the Constitution.
Beyond India, B.N. Rao also assisted in drafting the Constitution of Burma (now Myanmar) in 1947, showcasing his international expertise in constitutional law.
He later served as a Judge of the International Court of Justice at The Hague from 1952 until his death in 1953.

Additional Information

Sachchidananda Sinha:
He was the oldest member of the Constituent Assembly and served as its interim/temporary President during the first meeting held on December 9, 1946.
This practice of appointing the oldest member as the presiding officer was inspired by the French practice.
H.N. Kunzuru:
Hriday Nath Kunzuru was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and a freedom fighter.
He is well-known for being a member of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) in 1953, which recommended the reorganization of Indian states on a linguistic basis.
V.N. Menon / V.P. Menon:
V.P. Menon was a high-ranking civil servant who served as the Political Advisor to the Viceroy and later as the Secretary of the Ministry of States.
He worked closely with Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to achieve the political integration of over 560 princely states into the Union of India between 1947 and 1949.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
He was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946.
He later became the first President of Independent India in 1950.

Important Points

The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to frame the Constitution, holding a total of 11 sessions.
The Drafting Committee was set up on August 29, 1947, specifically to scrutinize the draft prepared by B.N. Rao.
The Constitution of India was formally adopted on November 26, 1949, and it officially came into force on January 26, 1950.
The Objective Resolution, which outlined the philosophy of the Constitution, was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946.
The total expenditure incurred for making the Constitution was approximately 64 lakh rupees at that time.

When was the NABARD formed ?

((a))
1952
((b))
1962
((c))
1982
((d))
1972

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1982

The correct answer is 1982.

Key Points

NABARD, which stands for the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, was established on 12 July 1982.
The institution was formed to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981, fulfilling a mandate to uplift the rural economy of India.
It was established based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee, also known as the Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development (CRAFICARD), which submitted its report on 28 November 1979.
NABARD replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as well as the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
The bank was dedicated to the service of the nation by the then Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on 5 November 1982 with an initial capital of Rs. 100 crore.

Additional Information

Headquarters and Presence: The Headquarters of NABARD is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It operates through a vast network of Regional Offices across all states and union territories in India.
Functions and Roles: As an apex development finance institution, its primary function is to provide refinance support for building rural infrastructure and to promote sustainable agriculture. It also prepares District Level Credit Plans to guide the banking industry in rural lending.
Supervisory Role: NABARD is responsible for the supervision of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Microfinance Initiatives: It launched the SHG Bank Linkage Programme in 1992, which has evolved into the world’s largest microfinance project, helping millions of women in rural areas achieve financial inclusion.
Ownership: While it started as a joint venture between the RBI and the Government of India, the Government of India now holds 100% share capital of NABARD following the NABARD (Amendment) Act, 2018.

Important Points

Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF): Set up in 1995-96, this fund is managed by NABARD to provide low-cost funds to State Governments for completing ongoing projects related to irrigation, roads, and bridges.
Subsidiaries: NABARD has several specialized subsidiaries including NABCONS (Consultancy Services), NABFINS (Microfinance), NABKISAN (Support for farmers' collectives), and NABVENTURES (Equity support for agriculture startups).
Financial Growth: From an initial capital of Rs. 100 crore in 1982, its paid-up capital has increased significantly over the years, reaching Rs. 17,080 crore as of 31 March 2022.
Kisan Credit Card (KCC): NABARD designed the Kisan Credit Card scheme in August 1998 to provide timely and adequate credit to farmers for their cultivation needs.

When a gas is turned into a liquid, the process is called ?

((a))
Condensation
((b))
Evaporation
((c))
Deposition
((d))
Sublimation

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Condensation

The correct answer is Condensation.

Key Points

Condensation is defined as the physical change of the state of matter from the gaseous phase into the liquid phase. This process is the reverse of vaporization. Hence, the statement regarding gas turning into liquid is correct.
This phenomenon occurs when the temperature of a gas is reduced below its boiling point or when the pressure on the gas is significantly increased, causing the molecules to lose kinetic energy and cluster together.
It is an exothermic process, which means it releases thermal energy or latent heat into the surrounding environment as the substance transitions to a lower energy state.
In nature, this process is a critical component of the water cycle. When water vapor in the air cools down, it forms clouds, fog, or dew. This transition usually happens around nuclei like dust or smoke particles in the atmosphere.
Common applications and examples of this process include the formation of water droplets on the outside of a cold glass, the fogging of mirrors in a bathroom, and the operation of distillation units in chemical laboratories.

Additional Information

Evaporation:
This is the process where a liquid changes into a gas or vapor at a temperature below its boiling point.
It is an endothermic process, meaning it absorbs heat energy from the surroundings, which often leads to a cooling effect.
Factors affecting this include surface area, humidity, wind speed, and ambient temperature. Hence, the statement regarding evaporation being the change from gas to liquid is incorrect.
Deposition:
Also known as desublimation, this is a thermodynamic process in which a gas transforms directly into a solid without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.
A classic example is the formation of frost on a windowpane or on grass during winter when water vapor touches a very cold surface.
In industrial applications, it is used in Physical Vapor Deposition (PVD) to create thin films on semiconductors. Hence, the statement regarding deposition being the change from gas to liquid is incorrect.
Sublimation:
This is the transition of a substance directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without becoming a liquid.
Notable examples include Dry Ice (solid carbon dioxide) at room temperature, naphthalene balls, and camphor.
This process is utilized in freeze-drying (lyophilization) to preserve food and pharmaceuticals by removing moisture at low temperatures. Hence, the statement regarding sublimation being the change from gas to liquid is incorrect.

Important Points

States of Matter: Matter primarily exists in solid, liquid, and gas phases. Transitions between these phases are driven by changes in enthalpy and entropy.
Boiling vs. Evaporation: While both result in a liquid-to-gas transition, boiling occurs throughout the bulk of the liquid at a specific boiling point, whereas evaporation is a surface phenomenon occurring at various temperatures.
Latent Heat: During the process of condensation, the temperature of the substance remains constant even though it is releasing energy. This energy is known as the latent heat of condensation, which is numerically equal to the latent heat of vaporization (approximately 2260 kJ/kg for water at 100°C).
Atmospheric Pressure: The altitude and local pressure can influence the temperature at which phase changes occur. For instance, water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes like the Himalayas compared to sea level.

1 metre = ________ nanometre.

((a))
$10^6$
((b))
$10^7$
((c))
$10^8$
((d))
$10^9$

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

$10^9$

The correct answer is 10⁹.

Key Points

The nanometre (symbol: nm) is a unit of length in the International System of Units (SI), representing one-billionth of a metre.
The mathematical relationship is defined as 1 nanometre = 10^-9 metres; conversely, 1 metre contains exactly 1,000,000,000 (one billion) nanometres, which is written in scientific notation as 10⁹.
Statement 1 suggests 1 metre = 10⁶ nanometres: This is incorrect because 10⁶ is the conversion factor for micrometres (microns) per metre. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 suggests 1 metre = 10⁷ nanometres: This value does not correspond to any standard SI prefix conversion for length. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 suggests 1 metre = 10⁸ nanometres: Similar to the previous option, this numerical value is not a recognized metric system power for base unit conversion. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4 suggests 1 metre = 10⁹ nanometres: This correctly identifies the billion-fold difference between the base unit (metre) and the sub-unit (nanometre). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
The term "nano" originates from the Greek word "nanos", which translates to "dwarf", highlighting the extremely small scale of this measurement.

Additional Information

Applications in Nanotechnology: This scale is critical in the field of nanotechnology, where scientists manipulate matter at the atomic and molecular levels, typically between 1 and 100 nanometres. For example, a DNA double helix has a diameter of approximately 2 nanometres, while a human hair is about 80,000 to 100,000 nanometres wide.
Wavelength of Light: The nanometre is the standard unit for measuring the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation near the visible spectrum. Visible light ranges from approximately 400 nanometres (violet) to 700 nanometres (red).
Metric Prefixes: To understand the context, 1 millimetre (mm) is 10^-3 metres, 1 micrometre (µm) is 10^-6 metres, and 1 picometre (pm) is 10^-12 metres. The systematic nature of the metric system allows for easy decimal-based scaling.
History of the Metre: The metre was originally defined in 1793 as one ten-millionth of the distance from the equator to the North Pole. Today, the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) defines it based on the speed of light in a vacuum, which is 299,792,458 metres per second.

Important Points

The Angstrom (Å): Another unit frequently used in crystallography and atomic physics is the Angstrom. 1 Angstrom is equal to 0.1 nanometres or 10^-10 metres. While not a formal SI unit, it remains popular in India and globally for discussing atomic radii.
Scientific Computing: In semiconductor manufacturing, the "process node" (e.g., 5 nm or 7 nm) refers to the size of transistors on a microchip. Smaller nanometre scales allow for higher transistor density and better energy efficiency.
Conversion Factors Summary:
1 m = 1,000 mm (Millimetres)
1 m = 1,000,000 µm (Micrometres)
1 m = 1,000,000,000 nm (Nanometres)

When the temperature increases, the angle of contact of a liquid ?

((a))
Increases
((b))
Decreases
((c))
Remains the same
((d))
Increases by $3/4$ value

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Decreases

The correct answer is Decreases.

Key Points

The angle of contact is defined as the angle between the tangent to the liquid surface at the point of contact and the solid surface inside the liquid. It is a critical parameter in understanding capillarity and the wetting properties of a liquid.
When the temperature of a liquid increases, the surface tension of the liquid generally decreases. This happens because the kinetic energy of the liquid molecules increases, which weakens the intermolecular cohesive forces holding the molecules together.
As the surface tension decreases with rising temperature, the liquid finds it easier to spread over the solid surface. This increased spreading leads to a reduction in the angle of contact.
For most common liquids, an increase in temperature results in a decrease in the angle of contact. For example, if the temperature of water is increased, its ability to wet a glass surface improves as the angle of contact decreases.
Conversely, if the temperature is decreased, the surface tension typically increases, causing the angle of contact to increase as the liquid molecules pull closer together and resist spreading.

Additional Information

Classification of Angle of Contact:
Acute Angle: If the angle of contact is less than 90 degrees, the liquid is said to wet the solid surface (e.g., water and clean glass). In such cases, the adhesive forces between the liquid and solid are stronger than the cohesive forces within the liquid.
Obtuse Angle: If the angle of contact is greater than 90 degrees, the liquid does not wet the solid surface (e.g., mercury and glass). Here, the cohesive forces dominate over the adhesive forces.
Right Angle: If the angle is exactly 90 degrees, the liquid surface is flat at the point of contact.
Factors Affecting Angle of Contact:
Nature of Liquid and Solid: The angle depends entirely on the specific pair of substances in contact.
Impurities: The presence of impurities can significantly alter the surface tension and the angle of contact. For instance, adding detergent to water decreases its surface tension and its angle of contact, allowing it to penetrate cloth fibers better.
Cleanliness of the Surface: If a solid surface is contaminated with dust or grease, the angle of contact will increase, making it harder for the liquid to wet the surface.
Surface Tension and Temperature:
The surface tension of a liquid becomes zero at its critical temperature. At this point, the distinction between the liquid and its vapor disappears, and the angle of contact also ceases to have its usual meaning.

Important Points

Meniscus Shape: The angle of contact determines the shape of the meniscus in a capillary tube. An acute angle results in a concave meniscus, while an obtuse angle results in a convex meniscus.
Capillary Action: If the angle of contact is acute, the liquid will rise in a capillary tube. If the angle is obtuse, the liquid level will fall or depress within the tube.
Practical Application: In waterproofing technology, substances are added to fabrics to increase the angle of contact between water and the fibers to more than 90 degrees, so that water droplets bead up and roll off rather than soaking in.
Data/Facts: For pure water and perfectly clean glass, the angle of contact is approximately 0 degrees. For mercury and glass, the angle is approximately 135 to 140 degrees at standard room temperature.

If the Earth were to spin faster, acceleration due to gravity at the poles will

((a))
Increase
((b))
Decrease
((c))
Remain the same
((d))
Become half

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Remain the same

The correct answer is Remain the same.

Key Points

The acceleration due to gravity (g) at any point on the Earth's surface is affected by the rotation of the Earth. The formula for effective gravity (g') at a specific latitude is given by g' = g - Rω² cos²θ, where ω is the angular velocity of the Earth, R is the radius, and θ is the latitude.
At the poles, the latitude (θ) is exactly 90 degrees. Since the mathematical value of cos 90° is zero, the entire term Rω² cos²θ becomes zero.
Because this subtractive term is zero at the poles, the effective acceleration due to gravity at the poles is simply g' = g. This means that the spin speed or angular velocity of the Earth has no impact on the gravity felt at the North or South poles.
If the Earth were to spin faster (increase in ω), the value of g at the poles would not be affected because the centrifugal force is zero at the axis of rotation. Hence, the statement that it remains the same is correct.
Conversely, at the equator, where the latitude is 0 degrees and cos 0° is 1, the effect of rotation is at its maximum. An increase in spin speed would significantly decrease the effective gravity at the equator.

Additional Information

Shape of the Earth: The Earth is not a perfect sphere; it is an oblate spheroid. This means it is bulged at the equator and flattened at the poles. Due to this shape, the polar radius is about 21 kilometers shorter than the equatorial radius.
Gravity Variation with Radius: Since acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the radius (g = GM/R²), gravity is naturally stronger at the poles (where R is smaller) and weaker at the equator (where R is larger).
Numerical Values: The value of g at the poles is approximately 9.832 m/s², while at the equator, it is approximately 9.780 m/s². The standard average value used in calculations is 9.8 m/s² or 9.81 m/s².
Weight and Mass: While the mass of an object (the amount of matter) is constant everywhere, its weight (W = mg) varies. An object or person will weigh slightly more at the poles than at the equator due to the differences in g.
Universal Gravitational Constant: It is important to distinguish between g (acceleration due to gravity) and G (Universal Gravitational Constant). G has a fixed value of 6.674 x 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² and does not change regardless of location or rotation.

Important Points

Effect of Altitude: As we move to a higher altitude (e.g., climbing a mountain), the value of g decreases because we are moving further away from the center of the Earth.
Effect of Depth: If we go below the surface of the Earth towards the core, the value of g also decreases. This is because the mass of the Earth "above" you cancels out part of the pull. At the center of the Earth, the value of g is zero.
Hypothetical Scenarios: If the Earth were to stop rotating, the acceleration due to gravity would increase at all locations on Earth except at the poles. The most significant increase would be observed at the equator.
Centrifugal Force: The rotation of the Earth creates an outward centrifugal force that acts against the inward pull of gravity. This force is zero at the axis of rotation (the poles), which explains why the spin speed does not influence polar gravity.

The distance between two crests in a wave is referred as :

((a))
Wave number
((b))
Wave velocity
((c))
Amplitude
((d))
Wave length

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Wave length

The correct answer is Wave length.

Key Points

The distance between two consecutive crests or two consecutive troughs in a transverse wave is defined as the Wave length. In longitudinal waves, this corresponds to the distance between two successive compressions or rarefactions. Hence, the statement regarding the distance between two crests is correct.
Wavelength is commonly represented by the Greek letter lambda (λ). It is a fundamental characteristic of any wave, determining its identity and properties within a medium.
The SI unit of wavelength is the meter (m). However, for waves with very small dimensions like light or X-rays, units such as nanometers (nm) or Angstroms (Å) are used, where 1 Å = 10^-10 meters.
The energy of a wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength. This means that waves with shorter wavelengths (such as gamma rays) carry more energy compared to waves with longer wavelengths (such as radio waves).
In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ meters per second. The wavelength changes when the wave enters a different medium due to changes in velocity, while the frequency remains constant.

Additional Information

Amplitude:
This refers to the maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their mean position or equilibrium.
In a wave diagram, it is the height of a crest or the depth of a trough.
The intensity or loudness of a sound wave is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude.
Wave Velocity:
It is the distance traveled by a wave per unit of time in a given direction.
The formula for wave velocity (v) is v = ν × λ, where ν (nu) is the frequency and λ is the wavelength.
Velocity depends strictly on the nature and density of the medium through which the wave is propagating.
Wave Number:
This is defined as the number of waves per unit distance.
Mathematically, it is the reciprocal of wavelength (1/λ). Its SI unit is m^-1.
It is widely used in spectroscopy and quantum chemistry to describe the spatial frequency of a wave.
Frequency:
It represents the number of oscillations or cycles a wave completes in one second.
The SI unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz), named after Heinrich Hertz.
Frequency is the inverse of the time period (T), represented as f = 1/T.

Important Points

Electromagnetic Spectrum:
The visible light spectrum ranges from approximately 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red).
Radio waves have the longest wavelengths (ranging from 1 millimeter to over 100 kilometers), while Gamma rays have the shortest wavelengths (less than 10 picometers).
Wave Anatomy:
A crest is the highest point of a wave, and a trough is the lowest point.
In longitudinal waves (like sound), compressions are regions of high pressure, and rarefactions are regions of low pressure.
Refraction: When a wave passes from air to water, its velocity decreases and its wavelength shortens, but the frequency remains the same as it is determined by the source.

Which of the following will show the “Tyndall Effect” ?

((a))
Salt solution
((b))
Milk and starch solution
((c))
Copper sulphate solution
((d))
Silver nitrate solution

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Milk and starch solution

The correct answer is Milk and starch solution.

Key Points

The Tyndall effect is the phenomenon of scattering of a beam of light by medium particles, such as those found in a colloid or a very fine suspension.
For the effect to occur, the size of the particles must be comparable to the wavelength of the light. Particles in a colloid typically range between 1 to 1000 nanometers (nm) in diameter.
Milk is a colloid where liquid fat globules are dispersed in water. When light passes through milk, these particles are large enough to scatter the light, making the path of the beam visible. Hence, the statement regarding milk is correct.
Starch solution is also a colloidal system. The starch molecules form aggregates that are large enough to cause the Tyndall effect. Hence, the statement regarding starch solution is correct.
Salt solution (Sodium Chloride), Copper sulphate solution, and Silver nitrate solution are examples of true solutions. In these mixtures, the solute particles are less than 1 nm in diameter, which is too small to scatter visible light. Hence, the statements regarding salt, copper sulphate, and silver nitrate solutions are incorrect.

Additional Information

True Solutions: These are homogeneous mixtures where the solute is completely dissolved in the solvent. The particles do not settle down and cannot be seen even with a powerful microscope. Because they do not scatter light, the path of light is not visible.
Colloids: A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture that appears homogeneous to the naked eye. Examples include fog, clouds, smoke, and blood. They exhibit the Tyndall effect because their particles are large enough to deflect light rays.
Suspensions: These are heterogeneous mixtures containing large particles (greater than 1000 nm) that settle out over time. Before settling, they show the Tyndall effect quite prominently. Examples include chalk powder in water or muddy water.
History: The effect is named after the 19th-century physicist John Tyndall, who first studied the phenomenon extensively around 1869. It helps in distinguishing between a true solution and a colloidal solution in laboratory settings.

Important Points

Natural Examples: The Tyndall effect can be observed when a fine beam of sunlight enters a dusty room through a small hole or when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In the forest, mist contains tiny droplets of water, which act as particles of colloid dispersed in the air.
Blue Sky and Red Sun: While related to scattering, the blue color of the sky is primarily due to Rayleigh scattering, which involves particles much smaller than the wavelength of light (like oxygen and nitrogen molecules). The Tyndall effect specifically refers to scattering by larger macroscopic particles.
Visibility of Path: The intensity of scattered light depends on the frequency of the light and the density of the particles. Blue light is scattered more strongly than red light by the Tyndall effect, which is why smoke from motorcycles sometimes appears blue.
Applications: This effect is used in nephelometers to determine the size and density of particles in aerosols and other colloidal suspensions, which is vital in environmental science and pharmaceuticals.

In food chain, small carnivores represent the level.

((a))
I
((b))
II
((c))
III
((d))
IV

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

III

The correct answer is III.

Key Points

In an ecosystem, a food chain is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism eats another. Each step in this chain is known as a trophic level.
First Trophic Level (I): This level consists of Producers or Autotrophs, such as green plants and algae, which produce their own food through photosynthesis using solar energy.
Second Trophic Level (II): This level comprises Primary Consumers or Herbivores. These organisms, such as rabbits, grasshoppers, and cows, derive their energy by consuming producers.
Third Trophic Level (III): This level represents Secondary Consumers, which are typically small carnivores. These animals, such as frogs, small fish, or birds, feed on herbivores to obtain energy. Hence, small carnivores represent the third trophic level.
Fourth Trophic Level (IV): This level consists of Tertiary Consumers or large carnivores. These are top predators like lions, tigers, or hawks that prey on small carnivores.

Additional Information

Energy Flow: The flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional, meaning it moves from producers to higher trophic levels and cannot flow back. Approximately 90% of energy is lost as heat at each level.
Ten Percent Law: Formulated by Raymond Lindeman in 1942, this law states that only about 10% of the energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next higher level. This limits the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems to four or five.
Food Web: Unlike a simple food chain, a food web consists of many interconnected food chains and represents a more realistic transfer of energy within a community. An organism can occupy more than one trophic level depending on its diet.
Decomposers: Organisms like bacteria and fungi break down dead organic matter from all trophic levels, recycling nutrients back into the soil for producers to use again.
Biomass: The total dry weight of all organisms at a specific trophic level is called biomass. In terrestrial ecosystems, the biomass usually decreases as we move to higher levels.

Important Points

Ecological Pyramids: These are graphical representations of the relationship between different organisms. There are three types: Pyramid of Number, Pyramid of Biomass, and Pyramid of Energy.
Pyramid of Energy: This pyramid is always upright because energy is lost as it moves from one level to the next, as per the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
Bio-magnification: This is a phenomenon where the concentration of toxic substances (like DDT or mercury) increases as one moves up the food chain. Top carnivores (Level IV) usually face the highest risk of accumulation.
Trophic Efficiency: It refers to the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next. It is generally low, averaging around 10%.

Haemorrhagic dengue fever is spread by :

((a))
Aedes fluviatilis
((b))
Aedes albinanus
((c))
Aedes aegypti
((d))
Aedes meristica

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Aedes aegypti

The correct answer is Aedes aegypti.

Key Points

Haemorrhagic dengue fever (DHF) is a severe and potentially fatal form of the dengue disease, and it is primarily spread by the female mosquito of the species Aedes aegypti.
The Aedes aegypti mosquito acts as a vector, meaning it carries the Dengue virus (DENV) from an infected person to a healthy person through its bite.
This mosquito species is well-adapted to urban environments and typically breeds in stagnant water found in man-made containers such as flower pots, discarded tires, buckets, and water storage tanks.
The transmission occurs when the mosquito bites a person during the daytime, particularly in the early morning and late afternoon.
While Aedes albopictus is another known vector for dengue, Aedes aegypti remains the primary and most efficient spreader of the haemorrhagic variety due to its high proximity to human dwellings.

Additional Information

Symptoms of Haemorrhagic Dengue: Unlike classic dengue fever, DHF is characterized by high fever, damage to lymph and blood vessels, bleeding from the nose and gums, enlargement of the liver, and failure of the circulatory system. It can lead to Dengue Shock Syndrome (DSS) if not treated promptly.
The Virus: Dengue is caused by any one of four closely related virus serotypes: DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4. These belong to the Flaviviridae family.
Global Prevalence: The disease is most common in tropical and subtropical climates. Countries in Southeast Asia, the Western Pacific, and Latin America report the highest number of cases. In India, outbreaks are frequently observed during and after the monsoon season (July to November).
Biological Features of the Vector: The Aedes aegypti mosquito is recognizable by white markings on its legs and a lyre-like shape on its thorax. Only the females bite because they require blood protein to produce eggs.
Other Species Mentioned:
Aedes fluviatilis: Found primarily in South America, it is known to inhabit rocky pools but is not a major vector for human dengue outbreaks.
Aedes albinanus and Aedes meristica: These are less common species and do not play a significant role in the global spread of haemorrhagic dengue fever.

Important Points

Prevention and Control: Since there is no specific antiviral treatment for dengue, prevention focuses on vector control. This includes using insecticides, mosquito nets, and eliminating stagnant water sources where larvae grow.
Diagnosis: Common diagnostic methods include the NS1 antigen test, which can detect the virus during the early stages of fever, and ELISA tests to check for IgM and IgG antibodies.
Medical Data: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), there are millions of dengue infections annually, with a significant percentage progressing to severe dengue (DHF), requiring hospitalization for intravenous fluid management and platelet monitoring.
National Programs: In India, the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) monitors and works to control the spread of dengue through surveillance and public awareness campaigns.

Why do most of the elements try to participate in the chemical combinations ?
(i) To gain more electrons
(ii) To achieve inert gas configuration
(iii) To complete their octet
(iv) To complete their inner shells
Choose the correct option among the following :

((a))
Both (i) and (ii)
((b))
Both (ii) and (iii)
((c))
Only (ii)
((d))
Both (i) and (iv)

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Both (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is Both (ii) and (iii).

Key Points

Statement (i) suggests that elements participate in chemical combinations to gain more electrons. This is incorrect because while non-metals tend to gain electrons, metals typically lose electrons to achieve stability, and some elements share electrons. Therefore, statement (i) is incorrect.
Statement (ii) states that elements aim to achieve inert gas configuration. Atoms are most stable when they have the same electron arrangement as a noble gas (Group 18 elements like Helium, Neon, or Argon), which have completely filled outer shells. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
Statement (iii) mentions that elements try to complete their octet. The Octet Rule dictates that atoms are most stable when their valence shell contains 8 electrons. Elements react to reach this count through ionic or covalent bonding. Hence, statement (iii) is correct.
Statement (iv) claims elements try to complete their inner shells. In any atom, the inner shells are already filled; chemical combinations primarily involve the valence (outermost) shell. Inner shell electrons do not participate in standard chemical bonding. Hence, statement (iv) is incorrect.
Therefore, the primary driving force for chemical reactivity is the attainment of a stable, lower-energy state resembling noble gases by completing the valence octet.

Additional Information

Chemical Bonding: It is the physical process responsible for the attractive interactions between atoms and molecules. Atoms bond to minimize potential energy and maximize stability.
The Octet Rule: Proposed by G.N. Lewis and Albrecht Kossel in 1916, this rule explains that atoms of elements combine in such a way that each atom has eight electrons in its valence shell, giving it the same electronic configuration as a noble gas.
Duet Rule: For elements like Hydrogen, Lithium, and Beryllium, stability is achieved by having 2 electrons in the 1s shell, mimicking the configuration of Helium (He).
Valence Electrons: These are the electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. The number of valence electrons determines the valency and the chemical reactivity of the element.
Noble Gases: Elements like Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and Radon (Rn) have a general electronic configuration of ns²np⁶. Their high ionization enthalpy and stable configuration make them chemically inert under normal conditions.

Important Points

Methods of Completion: Atoms can complete their octet by transferring electrons (forming Electrovalent or Ionic bonds) or by sharing electrons (forming Covalent bonds).
Electropositive Elements: Elements (mostly metals in Groups 1 and 2) that lose electrons to achieve a positive charge and a stable configuration.
Electronegative Elements: Elements (mostly non-metals in Groups 16 and 17) that gain electrons to achieve a negative charge and a stable octet.
Exceptions to Octet Rule: Some molecules like BF₃ (incomplete octet), PCl₅ (expanded octet with 10 electrons), and SF₆ (expanded octet with 12 electrons) do not strictly follow the rule but remain stable.

J.J. Thomson was awarded the “Nobel Prize” in Physics in 1906 for the discovery of :

((a))
Protons
((b))
Neutrons
((c))
Electrons
((d))
Atom

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Electrons

The correct answer is Electrons.

Key Points

Sir J.J. Thomson, a renowned British physicist, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in the year 1906.
The prize was bestowed upon him in recognition of his theoretical and experimental investigations on the conduction of electricity by gases.
His most significant contribution was the discovery of the electron in 1897. Through experiments with cathode ray tubes, he proved that cathode rays were actually streams of negatively charged particles. Hence, the option Electrons is correct.
He determined the charge-to-mass ratio (e/m) of these particles, finding that they were significantly lighter than the hydrogen atom, which was the smallest known unit of matter at the time.
This discovery was monumental as it challenged the long-held belief of Dalton's Atomic Theory that the atom was indivisible and indestructible.

Additional Information

Protons: These are positively charged particles located within the atomic nucleus. The discovery of the proton is generally credited to Ernest Rutherford around 1917 through his experiments with alpha particles and nitrogen gas. Hence, the option Protons is incorrect.
Neutrons: These are subatomic particles with no net electric charge and a mass slightly larger than that of a proton. They were discovered by James Chadwick in 1932, for which he received the Nobel Prize in 1935. Hence, the option Neutrons is incorrect.
Atom: The term "atom" refers to the smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element. While John Dalton formulated the modern atomic theory in the early 19th century, the concept of the atom originated in Ancient Greece with philosophers like Democritus. Hence, the option Atom is incorrect.
Thomson's Atomic Model: Following his discovery, Thomson proposed the "Plum Pudding Model" in 1904. In this model, the atom was envisioned as a sphere of positive charge with negatively charged electrons (which he called "corpuscles") embedded within it like seeds in a watermelon.

Important Points

Properties of Electrons: An electron carries a negative elementary charge of approximately -1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ Coulombs. Its rest mass is approximately 9.109 x 10⁻³¹ kilograms.
Discovery of Isotopes: In 1913, J.J. Thomson also discovered the first evidence for stable isotopes of a non-radioactive element (Neon) while studying the nature of positive rays.
Legacy: Thomson was a prolific mentor; seven of his research assistants and even his son, George Paget Thomson (who proved the wave-like properties of electrons), went on to become Nobel Laureates.
Scientific Impact: The discovery of the electron paved the way for quantum mechanics, electronics, and our modern understanding of chemical bonding and electricity.

Blue litmus paper is converted into red in a solution of

((a))
Acid
((b))
Water
((c))
Alkali
((d))
Salt

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Acid

The correct answer is Acid.

Key Points

Litmus paper is a natural pH indicator used to determine the acidity or alkalinity of a substance. It is a filter paper that has been treated with a natural water-soluble dye obtained from lichens.
In the presence of an acidic solution, blue litmus paper undergoes a chemical reaction that changes its color to red. This occurs because acids release hydrogen ions (H+), which react with the pigment molecules in the paper. Hence, the statement that blue litmus turns red in acid is correct.
Water, specifically pure or distilled water, is a neutral substance with a pH of exactly 7.0. Because it is neither acidic nor basic, it does not change the color of blue or red litmus paper. Hence, the statement regarding water is incorrect.
An alkali (a water-soluble base) has the opposite effect on litmus; it turns red litmus paper into blue. If blue litmus paper is dipped into an alkali, it remains blue without any change. Hence, the statement regarding alkali is incorrect.
Salts are generally the result of a neutralization reaction between an acid and a base. Most common salts, such as Sodium Chloride (NaCl), are neutral in aqueous solutions and do not affect the color of litmus paper. Hence, the statement regarding salt is incorrect.

Additional Information

The pH Scale:
The pH scale was introduced by S.P.L. Sorensen in 1909 to measure the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
The scale ranges from 0 to 14, where 0 to 6 represents acidic solutions, 7 is neutral, and 8 to 14 represents alkaline (basic) solutions.
Characteristics of Acids:
Acids are characterized by a sour taste and the ability to turn blue litmus red. They have a pH value less than 7.
Common examples include Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) found in the human stomach, Acetic Acid in vinegar, and Citric Acid in lemons.
They are corrosive in nature and can conduct electricity when dissolved in water.
Characteristics of Bases (Alkalis):
Bases have a bitter taste and a soapy or slippery feel. They turn red litmus paper blue.
They have a pH value greater than 7. Common examples include Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH), used in soap making, and Magnesium Hydroxide, used as an antacid.
Other Indicators:
Apart from litmus, other synthetic indicators include Phenolphthalein (which turns pink in bases and remains colorless in acids) and Methyl Orange (which turns red in acids and yellow in bases).
Natural indicators also include Turmeric and Red Cabbage juice.

Important Points

Source of Litmus: The dye used in litmus paper is primarily extracted from lichens belonging to the species Roccella tinctoria. Lichens are unique organisms composed of a symbiotic relationship between fungi and algae.
Application: The litmus test is a qualitative analysis used in laboratories, education, soil testing, and swimming pool maintenance to quickly check the chemical nature of a liquid.
History: The use of litmus as a chemical indicator dates back to the year 1300 AD, credited to the Spanish physician Arnaldus de Villa Nova.
Dry Litmus: It is important to note that dry litmus paper does not change color when exposed to dry acid gas (like HCl gas); moisture is required to ionize the acid and trigger the color change.

Ampere is the unit of :

((a))
Current electricity
((b))
Magnetic field
((c))
Electric charge
((d))
Resistance

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Current electricity

The correct answer is Current electricity.

Key Points

Ampere (symbol: A) is the SI base unit used to measure the intensity of Current electricity. It represents the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor.
The unit is named after the French physicist and mathematician André-Marie Ampère (1775–1836), who is often referred to as the "father of electrodynamics" for his pioneering work in electromagnetism.
One Ampere is mathematically defined as the flow of one Coulomb of electric charge per second (1 A = 1 C/s). In the International System of Units, as of 2019, it is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the elementary charge (e).
The instrument used to measure electric current in an electrical circuit is the Ammeter. To ensure accurate readings of the Current electricity, an Ammeter is always connected in series because it has very low resistance, allowing the full current to pass through it.
The relationship between current, charge, and time is expressed by the formula I = Q / t, where I stands for current in Amperes, Q is the quantity of charge in Coulombs, and t is the time in seconds. Hence, the option 'Current electricity' is correct.

Additional Information

Magnetic field: The SI unit for magnetic flux density (commonly referred to as Magnetic field strength) is the Tesla (T), named after Nikola Tesla. Another non-SI unit used for smaller fields is the Gauss (G), where 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss. Hence, the statement regarding Magnetic field is incorrect.
Electric charge: The SI unit for Electric charge is the Coulomb (C), named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb. It is a derived unit defined as the amount of charge transported by a constant current of one Ampere in one second. Hence, the statement regarding Electric charge is incorrect.
Resistance: The SI unit of electrical resistance is the Ohm (Ω), named after the German physicist Georg Simon Ohm. Resistance is the opposition that a substance offers to the flow of electric current. Hence, the statement regarding Resistance is incorrect.
Ohm's Law: This fundamental law of physics describes the relationship between Voltage (V), Current (I), and Resistance (R). It states that V = I × R, meaning the potential difference is equal to the product of current and resistance at a constant temperature.

Important Points

The International System of Units (SI) consists of seven base units: Ampere (current), Meter (length), Kilogram (mass), Second (time), Kelvin (temperature), Mole (amount of substance), and Candela (luminous intensity).
Galvanometer: Unlike an Ammeter, which measures the magnitude of current, a Galvanometer is a sensitive instrument used to detect the presence and direction of even very small electric currents in a circuit.
Potential Difference: Often referred to as Voltage, its SI unit is the Volt (V). It is measured using a Voltmeter, which is always connected in parallel across the points between which the potential difference is to be measured.
Conductivity: The inverse of resistance is conductance, measured in Siemens (S) or Mho. Materials like Silver and Copper are excellent conductors because they have very low resistance.

True nucleus is absent in :

((a))
Bacteria
((b))
Fungi
((c))
Algae
((d))
Lichens

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Bacteria

The correct answer is Bacteria.

Key Points

Bacteria are classified as prokaryotic organisms, which means they lack a well-defined nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
In Bacteria, the genetic material is located in an irregularly shaped region called the nucleoid. Unlike eukaryotes, this DNA is typically a single, circular chromosome that is in direct contact with the cytoplasm.
Because they lack a true nucleus, bacterial cells also lack other membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus.
The absence of a nuclear envelope allows for transcription and translation to occur almost simultaneously in Bacteria, which is a key feature of their rapid growth and reproduction.
Bacteria reproduce primarily through binary fission, an asexual process where the single cell divides into two identical daughter cells after the DNA replicates in the cytoplasm.

Additional Information

Fungi: These are eukaryotic organisms that possess a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. They can be unicellular (like yeast) or multicellular (like mushrooms). Their cell walls are composed of chitin, and they play a vital role as decomposers in the ecosystem.
Algae: Most algae are eukaryotic and contain chloroplasts for photosynthesis. They range from microscopic single-celled diatoms to massive multicellular seaweeds. Because they are eukaryotic, they have a true nucleus containing their linear chromosomes.
Lichens: These are composite organisms resulting from a symbiotic association between a fungus (mycobiont) and a photosynthetic partner, usually green algae or cyanobacteria (phycobiont). Since the fungal component belongs to the Eukaryota domain, lichens are considered to have a true nucleus in their fungal cells.
Cellular Organization: The primary distinction between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes is the complexity of the cell. Prokaryotes (like Bacteria and Archaea) have 70S ribosomes, while Eukaryotes typically have 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm and a true nucleus.

Important Points

The term prokaryote comes from the Greek words "pro" (before) and "karyon" (nut or kernel, referring to the nucleus), signifying organisms that evolved before the true nucleus.
Cyanobacteria (formerly known as blue-green algae) are a specific type of Bacteria that are photosynthetic but still lack a true nucleus.
In Eukaryotes, the nucleus acts as the control center, protecting the genetic information and regulating gene expression through the nuclear pores in the nuclear membrane.

Lamarck's theory of evolution is also called

((a))
Survival of the fittest
((b))
Special creation theory
((c))
Inheritance of acquired characters
((d))
Mutation theory

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Inheritance of acquired characters

The correct answer is Inheritance of acquired characters.

Key Points

Lamarckism, also known as the Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters, was the first logical theory of evolution proposed by the French biologist Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
He published his ideas in his famous book "Philosophie Zoologique" in the year 1809, which happens to be the same year Charles Darwin was born.
The theory is centered on the principle of use and disuse, which states that organs used frequently by an organism become stronger and more developed, while those not used gradually weaken and eventually disappear.
Lamarck argued that these modifications or acquired characters developed during the lifetime of an individual are transmitted to the next generation through reproduction.
A classic example provided by Lamarck is the long neck of the Giraffe; he believed ancestors of giraffes had short necks and stretched them to reach higher foliage, an acquired trait passed down over generations.

Additional Information

Survival of the fittest:
This concept is a core component of Darwinism or the Theory of Natural Selection.
The term was actually coined by Herbert Spencer in 1864 after reading Charles Darwin's work, and later Darwin adopted it in the 5th edition of his book "On the Origin of Species".
It refers to the biological process where organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring.
Mutation theory:
Proposed by the Dutch botanist Hugo de Vries in the year 1901.
It suggests that evolution is a discontinuous process where new species are formed by sudden, large, and heritable changes called mutations.
He conducted his experiments on the Evening Primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana) to support this claim.
Special creation theory:
This is a non-scientific, religious, or mythological belief regarding the origin of life.
It asserts that the universe and all living species were created by a supernatural power (a Creator) in their current form and have not changed since.
Proponents of this theory, like Father Suarez, believed that the Earth is only a few thousand years old.

Important Points

August Weismann, a German biologist, famously criticized and disproved Lamarckism through his Germplasm Theory.
In an experiment, he cut off the tails of mice for 22 generations, but the offspring in the 23rd generation were still born with normal tails.
He concluded that only changes occurring in the germ cells (sperm and ova) are inherited, while changes in somatic cells (body cells) are not passed to the next generation.
Today, Lamarck's theory is largely rejected in its original form, though the field of Epigenetics has recently explored how environmental factors can influence gene expression across generations without altering the DNA sequence itself.

100

Number of elements in the second period of the periodic table is :

((a))
eighteen
((b))
eight
((c))
two
((d))
ten

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

eight

The correct answer is eight.

Key Points

The second period of the Modern Periodic Table contains exactly 8 elements.
These elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers, starting from Lithium (atomic number 3) and ending with the noble gas Neon (atomic number 10).
The elements included in this period are Lithium (Li), Beryllium (Be), Boron (B), Carbon (C), Nitrogen (N), Oxygen (O), Fluorine (F), and Neon (Ne).
In terms of electronic configuration, the elements in the second period have their valence electrons in the L shell (principal quantum number n = 2).
The number of elements in a period is determined by the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the corresponding electronic shells. For the second period, the 2s and 2p subshells are filled, which can hold a total of 2 + 6 = 8 electrons.

Additional Information

Structure of the Periodic Table:
The Modern Periodic Table was developed based on the Modern Periodic Law proposed by Henry Moseley in 1913, which states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
It consists of 7 horizontal rows called periods and 18 vertical columns called groups.
Period Lengths and Element Counts:
Period 1: This is the shortest period and contains only 2 elements, Hydrogen (H) and Helium (He).
Period 2 and Period 3: Both are considered short periods and contain 8 elements each. Period 3 starts with Sodium (Na) and ends with Argon (Ar).
Period 4 and Period 5: These are long periods containing 18 elements each. They include transition elements where the d-orbital is filled.
Period 6 and Period 7: These are the longest periods, containing 32 elements each. Period 6 includes the Lanthanides and Period 7 includes the Actinides.
Characteristics of Period 2 Elements:
Lithium (Li): An alkali metal located in Group 1; it is highly reactive and has the atomic number 3.
Carbon (C): A non-metal in Group 14 with atomic number 6, known for its ability to form covalent bonds and the basis of organic chemistry.
Fluorine (F): A halogen in Group 17 with atomic number 9; it is the most electronegative element in the periodic table.
Neon (Ne): A noble gas in Group 18 with atomic number 10; it has a complete octet and is chemically inert.

Important Points

Trends across Period 2:
The atomic radius generally decreases from left to right across the period due to the increase in effective nuclear charge, which pulls the electron cloud closer to the nucleus.
The ionization energy generally increases from left to right because it becomes harder to remove an electron as the nuclear attraction increases.
The electronegativity increases across the period, reaching its peak at Fluorine.
Metallic character decreases from left (metals like Lithium and Beryllium) to right (non-metals like Oxygen and Fluorine).
Filling of Orbitals: In the second period, the 2s orbital is filled first (Lithium and Beryllium), followed by the three 2p orbitals (Boron through Neon). Because the 2p subshell can hold 6 electrons and the 2s subshell can hold 2 electrons, the total number of elements corresponds to the total capacity of 8 electrons.

101

Unit of heredity is

((a))
Gene
((b))
Chromosome
((c))
Chromatin
((d))
Nucleosome

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Gene

The correct answer is Gene.

Key Points

A gene is the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity. It acts as an instruction manual that carries information to determine the specific traits and characteristics of an organism.
Genes are made up of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA). They are arranged, one after another, on structures called chromosomes.
The primary function of a gene is to provide the genetic code required for the synthesis of proteins. These proteins are responsible for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.
The term "gene" was first introduced by the Danish botanist Wilhelm Johannsen in the year 1909. This replaced earlier terms like "factors" used by Gregor Mendel.
In humans, genes vary significantly in size, ranging from a few hundred DNA bases to more than 2 million bases. The Human Genome Project estimated that humans have between 20,000 and 25,000 genes.

Additional Information

Chromosome:
These are thread-like structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells. Each chromosome is composed of protein and a single molecule of DNA.
In humans, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. One set is inherited from the mother and the other from the father.
Chromosomes ensure that DNA is accurately copied and distributed during cell division (mitosis and meiosis).
Chromatin:
Chromatin is the material that makes up a chromosome and consists of a complex of DNA and proteins (primarily histones).
Its major function is to package massive amounts of DNA into a highly compact form that can fit inside the small cell nucleus.
There are two types: Euchromatin (loosely packed and transcriptionally active) and Heterochromatin (densely packed and mostly inactive).
Nucleosome:
The nucleosome is the basic repeating subunit of chromatin. It consists of a segment of DNA wrapped around a core of eight histone proteins (a histone octamer).
Under an electron microscope, this structure often resembles "beads on a string."
Each human nucleosome contains approximately 147 base pairs of DNA wrapped around the histone core.
Alleles:
An allele is a variant form of a gene. Some genes have a variety of different forms, which are located at the same locus (position) on a chromosome.
Humans are diploid organisms because they have two alleles at each genetic locus, with one allele inherited from each parent.

Important Points

Genotype vs. Phenotype: The Genotype refers to the actual genetic makeup of an individual, while the Phenotype refers to the observable physical characteristics (like eye color or height) resulting from the interaction of the genotype with the environment.
Gregor Mendel: Often called the "Father of Genetics," he conducted landmark experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum) between 1856 and 1863, establishing the laws of inheritance.
DNA Structure: The double-helix structure of DNA was discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953, which provided the chemical basis for how genes function and replicate.
Mutation: A mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene. This can lead to genetic variation within a species or cause genetic disorders.

102

“Kulhs” the ancient water harvesting structure were made in :

((a))
Manipur
((b))
Bihar
((c))
Himachal Pradesh
((d))
Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Himachal Pradesh

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

Kulhs are a traditional and ancient irrigation system that originated and is primarily practiced in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
This unique water harvesting structure was developed over 400 years ago to manage the flow of water in the steep and rugged terrains of the Himalayas.
The system works by diverting water from natural streams (known as khads) or glacier melts into man-made channels that run along the mountain contours to reach agricultural fields.
Management of these structures was traditionally a community-driven effort where the village appointed a person called a Kohli to supervise the water distribution and maintenance.
In terms of distribution logic, the water usually flows to the farthest village or the tail-end of the channel first, ensuring that those at the end of the line are not deprived of water. Hence, the statement regarding its location in Himachal Pradesh is correct.

Additional Information

Geographical Distribution: These structures are most prominently found in the Kangra Valley and other districts of Himachal Pradesh. They are specifically suited for hilly regions where large-scale dam projects are geologically and environmentally challenging.
Technical Features: Kulhs are designed to use gravity for water movement. The channels are lined with stones and clay to prevent seepage and are often repaired by the community after the monsoon season or heavy snowfall.
Social Organization: The Kohli (manager) was traditionally compensated with a share of the agricultural produce by the farmers, highlighting a non-monetary, community-based economy.
Regional Comparisons:
In Bihar, the traditional system is known as Ahar-Pynes, which involves catchments and channels for floodwater.
In Tamil Nadu, ancient structures called Eris (tanks) are used to store rainwater.
In Rajasthan, systems like Khadins, Tankas, and Bawris (stepwells) are common due to the arid climate.
In Maharashtra, the Bandharas and Phad systems are prevalent for local irrigation.
Impact of Modernization: After the 19th century and particularly after the independence of India, many Kulhs were taken over by the State Irrigation Department. This shift from community management to government control has often led to the neglect of traditional maintenance practices.

Important Points

Sustainability: Kulhs are considered highly sustainable because they do not require electricity or fossil fuels to operate, relying entirely on the natural topography of the land.
Agriculture: They are vital for the cultivation of crops such as paddy (rice), wheat, and maize in the valleys of Himachal Pradesh.
Ecological Value: By slowing down the flow of water and allowing it to percolate into the soil, Kulhs contribute to groundwater recharge and maintain the soil moisture level of the surrounding mountain slopes.
Current Status: While many have been replaced by cemented pipes, thousands of traditional Kulhs are still operational, representing a living heritage of indigenous water management in India.

103

Who was the founder of “Jamia Millia Islamia” ?

((a))
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
((b))
Dr. Zakir Hussain
((c))
Dr. Fakruddin Ali Ahmad
((d))
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Dr. Zakir Hussain

The correct answer is Dr. Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

Jamia Millia Islamia was established in 1920 at Aligarh in the United Provinces, India, during the British Raj.
Dr. Zakir Hussain was one of the primary founders of the institution and served as its Vice-Chancellor for a long period from 1926 to 1948. He played a crucial role in the survival and growth of the university during its financial crises. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. Zakir Hussain is correct.
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the second President of India and a distinguished philosopher; however, he was not a founder of Jamia Millia Islamia. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is incorrect.
Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed served as the fifth President of India from 1974 to 1977, but he did not belong to the group of founding members of this university. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed is incorrect.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was a prominent leader and the first Education Minister of independent India. While he was a strong supporter and involved in the foundation committee, the primary administrative and foundational leadership in the context of this specific question is attributed to Dr. Zakir Hussain and others like Mohammad Ali Jauhar. Hence, the statement regarding Maulana Abul Kalam Azad is incorrect.

Additional Information

Historical Context: The university was born out of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Khilafat Movement. It was founded in response to Mahatma Gandhi's call to boycott educational institutions supported or run by the British Government.
Founding Members: Apart from Dr. Zakir Hussain, the other key founders included Mohammad Ali Jauhar (the first Vice-Chancellor), Hakim Ajmal Khan (the first Chancellor), Dr. Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari, and Abdul Majid Khwaja.
Relocation: Originally established in Aligarh, the institution moved to Karol Bagh, New Delhi, in 1925. Later, in 1935, the foundation stone for the current campus was laid in Okhla (now known as Jamia Nagar).
Dr. Zakir Hussain's Legacy: He was a great educationist who later served as the Governor of Bihar, the Vice-President of India, and finally the third President of India from 1967 until his death in 1969. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1963.
Meaning of the Name: In Urdu, Jamia means 'University' and Millia means 'National', reflecting its identity as a National Muslim University.

Important Points

Central University Status: By an Act of Parliament in 1988, Jamia Millia Islamia was declared a Central University. It had previously been granted Deemed University status by the UGC in 1962.
Educational Philosophy: The university was a pioneer in implementing Nai Talim (Basic Education), a concept championed by Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Zakir Hussain to promote self-reliance through craft-based education.
Silver Jubilee: The university celebrated its Silver Jubilee in 1945, an event attended by various leaders including Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah, highlighting its importance in the socio-political fabric of pre-independence India.
Current Standing: As of recent years, it consistently ranks among the top 10 universities in India according to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF).

104

Where is “Bibi Ka Makbara” situated ?

((a))
Fatehpur Sikri
((b))
Aurangabad
((c))
Hyderabad
((d))
Jaunpur

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Aurangabad

The correct answer is Aurangabad.

Key Points

Bibi Ka Maqbara is a famous Mughal monument located in the city of Aurangabad (now officially known as Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar), in the state of Maharashtra, India.
The structure was commissioned by the sixth Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb in the year 1660 in memory of his first wife and chief consort, Dilras Banu Begum.
It is widely known as the "Taj of the Deccan" or "Dakkhani Taj" because its design is heavily inspired by the world-famous Taj Mahal in Agra. Hence, the statement regarding its location in Aurangabad is correct.
The construction of this tomb is often attributed to Prince Azam Shah, the son of Aurangzeb, who oversaw the project between 1651 and 1661 to honor his mother, posthumously known as Rabia-ud-Daurani.
The principal architect of Bibi Ka Maqbara was Ata-ullah, who was the son of Ustad Ahmad Lahauri, the lead architect behind the Taj Mahal and the Red Fort in Delhi.

Additional Information

Architectural Features:
The monument is laid out in the traditional Charbagh (four-fold garden) style, featuring symmetrical water channels, fountains, and broad pathways.
Unlike the Taj Mahal, which is constructed entirely of white marble, Bibi Ka Maqbara uses marble only for the main dome and the screen around the grave. The rest of the structure is built using basaltic trap and covered with fine polished stucco (plaster).
It features four towering minarets at the corners of the main platform, standing about 72 feet high, which provide a grand visual frame to the central tomb.
Historical Context of Other Options:
Fatehpur Sikri: Located near Agra, it was the capital of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Emperor Akbar. It is home to monuments like the Buland Darwaza and the Tomb of Salim Chishti.
Hyderabad: This city was the capital of the Nizams and is famous for the Charminar, built by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah in 1591, and the Golconda Fort.
Jaunpur: Known as the "Shiraz of the East" during the medieval period, it was the seat of the Sharqi Dynasty and is famous for the Atala Masjid and the Shahi Bridge.
Geographical and Political Data:
Aurangabad was renamed to Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in 2023 by the Government of Maharashtra, named after the second Chhatrapati of the Maratha Empire.
The city serves as a major tourism hub, providing the gateway to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites of Ajanta Caves and Ellora Caves.

Important Points

Comparison with the Taj Mahal: While the Taj Mahal cost approximately 32 million rupees in the 1630s, the Bibi Ka Maqbara was completed with a budget of about 6,68,203 rupees. This discrepancy reflects the austerity measures of Aurangzeb compared to the extravagance of Shah Jahan.
Dilras Banu Begum: She was a princess of the prominent Safavid dynasty of Persia (modern-day Iran). She died in 1657 due to complications following childbirth, shortly after which the construction of the tomb began.
Maintenance: The site is currently a protected monument under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and remains one of the most visited historical sites in the Marathwada region.
The inscription on the main entrance records the name of the engineer, Hanspat Rai, alongside the architect Ata-ullah, showcasing the collaborative nature of 17th-century engineering.

105

Who wrote the ‘Harshacharita’ ?

((a))
Kalidasa
((b))
Banabhatta
((c))
Vishnugupta
((d))
Parimalgupta

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Banabhatta

The correct answer is Banabhatta.

Key Points

Banabhatta was the Asthana Kavi (court poet) of the Indian Emperor Harshavardhana, who ruled northern India in the 7th century AD.
He is most famous for writing the Harshacharita, which is considered the first historical biography written in the Sanskrit language.
The Harshacharita provides a detailed account of the life and reign of King Harshavardhana, the rise of the Pushyabhuti dynasty, and the military achievements of the king.
The text is divided into eight chapters, known as Uchchhasas. The first few chapters provide an autobiographical account of Banabhatta himself and his ancestry, while the later chapters focus on the king's life.
It offers valuable insights into the political, social, and religious landscape of India during that era, including the administration and the transition of the capital to Kannauj.

Additional Information

Other Options Explained:
Kalidasa: He was a legendary Sanskrit playwright and poet often associated with the Gupta Empire (specifically Chandragupta II). His world-famous works include Abhijnanashakuntalam, Meghaduta, and Raghuvamsha.
Vishnugupta: Widely known as Chanakya or Kautilya, he was the prime minister of Chandragupta Maurya. He authored the Arthashastra, a seminal work on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
Parimalgupta: He was a poet in the court of the Paramara kings of Malwa. He is best known for the Navasahasanka Charita, a historical poem written around 1000 AD.
King Harshavardhana:
He ascended the throne in 606 AD and established a vast empire in North India.
He was a patron of learning and a writer himself, credited with composing three famous Sanskrit plays: Ratnavali, Priyadarshika, and Nagananda.
The famous Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) visited India during his reign and stayed in his court for several years, documenting the king's generosity and the Prayag Assembly.

Important Points

Kadambari: Apart from the Harshacharita, Banabhatta is also the author of Kadambari, which is one of the world's earliest novels. It was completed by his son, Bhushanabhatta, after Banabhatta's death.
Literary Style: Banabhatta's writing is characterized by an ornate style, with long compound words and complex sentences, reflecting the high literary culture of the 7th century.
Historical Context: The Harshacharita is essential for historians because it describes the conflict between Harsha and the ruler of Gauda (Sasanka), which led to the unification of much of Northern India under the Vardhana banner.

106

When congress leaders condemned the Montague Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the :

((a))
Indian Liberal Federation
((b))
Swaraj Party
((c))
Indian Freedom Party
((d))
Independence Federation of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Indian Liberal Federation

The correct answer is Indian Liberal Federation.

Key Points

The Montagu-Chelmsford Report was published in July 1918, proposing gradual self-government for India. While the Indian National Congress (INC) leaders condemned the report as "disappointing and unsatisfactory," a group of Moderate leaders welcomed the reforms.
When the Congress held a special session in Bombay in August 1918 under the presidency of Syed Hasan Imam to deliberate on the report, the Moderates, led by Surendranath Banerjee, boycotted it.
These Moderates believed that the reforms were a step in the right direction and feared that extreme opposition might lead the British government to withdraw the proposals altogether.
Consequently, the Moderates left the Indian National Congress and organized the All India Moderate Conference in 1918. This organization later evolved into the Indian Liberal Federation in 1919.
The Indian Liberal Federation aimed to work within the framework of the Government of India Act, 1919, and cooperate with the British administration to achieve constitutional progress through peaceful and legal means.

Additional Information

Swaraj Party:
The Swaraj Party was formed in January 1923, not in 1918. It was founded by Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) and Motilal Nehru following the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Unlike the Moderates who left earlier, the Swarajists wanted to enter the Legislative Councils to "wreck the reforms from within."
Surendranath Banerjee:
Known as the "Rashtraguru," he was a founding member of the Indian National Association in 1876.
He was one of the most prominent Moderate leaders who chose to support the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, eventually serving as a Minister in the Bengal Government after the elections held under the 1919 Act.
Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1918-1919):
Named after Edwin Montagu (the Secretary of State for India) and Lord Chelmsford (the Viceroy of India).
These reforms introduced "Dyarchy" (dual government) in the provinces, dividing subjects into Reserved (controlled by the Governor) and Transferred (controlled by Indian Ministers) categories.
Indian Freedom Party & Independence Federation of India:
These are not standard historical parties associated with the 1918 split of the Congress. The primary breakaway group for the Moderates was the Indian Liberal Federation, often referred to simply as the Liberals.
Key members of the Liberal Federation included Tej Bahadur Sapru, V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M.R. Jayakar.

Important Points

The split in 1918 marked the second major division in the Congress, the first being the Surat Split of 1907 between Moderates and Extremists.
The Indian Liberal Federation played a significant role in various Round Table Conferences in London during the early 1930s, acting as mediators between the Congress and the British Government.
By the late 1930s and 1940s, the influence of the Liberal Federation declined significantly as the Indian national movement moved toward Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership.

107

Who among the following is the author of the famous classical book ‘A Passage to India’ ?

((a))
Mark Twain
((b))
Nayantara Sehgal
((c))
Nirad C. Choudhuri
((d))
E. M. Forster

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

E. M. Forster

The correct answer is E. M. Forster.

Key Points

E. M. Forster (Edward Morgan Forster) is the author of the renowned novel A Passage to India, which was first published in 1924.
The novel is set against the backdrop of the British Raj and the Indian Independence Movement in the 1920s, specifically in the fictional city of Chandrapore.
The story revolves around four main characters: Dr. Aziz, a young Indian physician; Cyril Fielding, a British schoolmaster; Adela Quested, a young Englishwoman; and Mrs. Moore, an elderly Englishwoman.
It explores the complex relationship and social tensions between Indians and the British colonizers, highlighting the difficulty of personal friendship under the shadow of colonialism.
The book was highly acclaimed and won the James Tait Black Memorial Prize for fiction in 1924 and was named one of the 100 great works of 20th-century English literature by the Modern Library.

Additional Information

Mark Twain:
Mark Twain (born Samuel Langhorne Clemens, 1835–1910) was a famous American writer and humorist.
He is best known for his novels The Adventures of Tom Sawyer (1876) and Adventures of Huckleberry Finn (1884).
He visited India in 1896 during a worldwide lecture tour and wrote about his experiences in his travelogue Following the Equator.
Nayantara Sehgal:
Nayantara Sehgal (born 1927) is a prominent Indian writer in English and a member of the Nehru-Gandhi family.
She was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1986 for her English novel Rich Like Us.
Her works often deal with India's elite and the political shifts within the country.
Nirad C. Chaudhuri:
Nirad C. Chaudhuri (1897–1999) was an Indian-Bengali writer and polymath.
His most famous work is The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian (1951).
Interestingly, he wrote a book titled A Passage to England (1959), which was a response to E. M. Forster's title and explored his first trip to Britain at the age of 57.

Important Points

The title A Passage to India is derived from a poem of the same name by the American poet Walt Whitman in his 1871 edition of Leaves of Grass.
The Marabar Caves, which play a central role in the novel's plot involving the alleged assault on Adela Quested, are based on the real-life Barabar Caves located in the Jehanabad district of Bihar, India.
Forster visited India twice, once in 1912–1913 and again in 1921, where he served as the private secretary to the Maharaja of Dewas. These experiences provided the authentic material for his book.
In 1984, the book was adapted into a critically acclaimed film directed by David Lean, which won two Academy Awards.
The novel remains a staple in post-colonial studies, as it examines the dichotomy between the East and the West and the psychological impact of imperialism on both the ruler and the ruled.

108

Who, among the following, were official congress negotiators with Cripps Mission ?

((a))
Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
((b))
Acharya J. B Kriplani and C. Rajagopalachari
((c))
Pandit Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
((d))
Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Pandit Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

The correct answer is Pandit Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

Key Points

The Cripps Mission was sent by the British Government to India in March 1942 to obtain Indian cooperation for the British war effort in World War II.
The Indian National Congress appointed Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad as its official negotiators to carry out talks with Sir Stafford Cripps. Maulana Azad was the President of the Congress at that time, having been elected in 1940.
Sir Stafford Cripps was a member of the British War Cabinet and a leader of the House of Commons, known for his sympathetic views toward Indian self-rule, which is why he was chosen for this mission.
The mission was prompted by the Japanese advance in Southeast Asia and pressure from Allied leaders like Franklin D. Roosevelt of the USA and Chiang Kai-shek of China on the British Prime Minister Winston Churchill.
The negotiations eventually failed because the British were unwilling to grant immediate Cabinet-style government with full powers to Indians during the war.

Additional Information

Main Proposals of Cripps Mission:
The promise of Dominion Status to India after the conclusion of World War II.
The setting up of a Constituent Assembly comprising elected members from Provincial Assemblies and nominated members from Princely States to frame a new Constitution.
The British Government would accept the new Constitution subject to the condition that any Province not willing to join the Union could have a separate Constitution and form a separate Union.
The Defence of India would remain in British hands during the transition period.
Rejection by Indian Parties:
The Indian National Congress rejected the proposals because they did not offer immediate Complete Independence and the provision for provinces to secede was seen as a threat to national unity.
Mahatma Gandhi famously described the Cripps offer as a "post-dated cheque on a crashing bank".
The Muslim League rejected it because it did not explicitly concede the demand for Pakistan and they were dissatisfied with the machinery for the creation of the Constituent Assembly.
Other Personalities mentioned:
Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel: While they were central figures in the Congress, they were not the designated negotiators for this specific mission. Sardar Patel was a key leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928.
Acharya J.B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari: Kripalani served as Congress President during the 1947 transition. Rajagopalachari later proposed the C.R. Formula in 1944 to solve the Congress-League deadlock.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad: He was the President of the Constituent Assembly and later the 1st President of India in 1950.

Important Points

The failure of the Cripps Mission led directly to the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942, which was the most massive civil disobedience movement against British rule.
The mission highlighted the British policy of "Divide and Rule" by providing an option for provinces to opt out of the Indian Union, which laid the seeds for Partition.
The August Offer of 1940 preceded this mission, but it was also rejected by Indian leaders as it only offered Dominion Status at an unspecified future date.
The Cripps Mission was the first time the British Government formally recognized the right of Indians to frame their own Constitution.

109

Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Servants of India’ Society ?

((a))
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
((b))
Dadabhai Naoroji
((c))
Gopal Krishna Gokhle
((d))
Lala Lajpat Rai

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Gopal Krishna Gokhle

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Key Points

The Servants of India Society was founded on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra, by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
The society was established after Gokhale left the Deccan Education Society to dedicate himself to the service of the nation through a new platform that emphasized social and human development.
The main objective of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India and to promote, by all constitutional means, the true interests of the Indian people without distinction of caste or creed.
Members of the society were required to undergo a rigorous five-year training period and take a vow of poverty, promising to serve the country on a very meager salary.
The organization played a significant role in the fields of education, healthcare, and providing relief during famines and other natural disasters across various provinces of India.

Additional Information

Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
Popularly known as Lokmanya, he was a prominent leader of the Extremist faction of the Indian National Congress.
He founded the Deccan Education Society in 1884 and started famous newspapers like Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English).
He is well-known for his slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it,” and he played a pivotal role in the Home Rule League movement in 1916.
Dadabhai Naoroji:
Often referred to as the Grand Old Man of India, he was a three-time President of the Indian National Congress.
He formulated the Drain of Wealth theory in his book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India", explaining how Britain was depleting India's resources.
He was the first Indian to be elected as a Member of Parliament (MP) in the British House of Commons in 1892.
Lala Lajpat Rai:
Known as Punjab Kesari (Lion of Punjab), he was a key leader of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
He founded the Servants of the People Society in 1921 in Lahore, which worked for the welfare of the downtrodden, and should not be confused with Gokhale's society.
He died in 1928 following injuries sustained during a Lathi charge while protesting against the Simon Commission.

Important Points

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi was highly influenced by Gokhale’s moderate approach and his insistence on spiritualizing politics.
The society avoided direct involvement in political demonstrations, focusing instead on social reforms such as women's education, removal of untouchability, and tribal upliftment.
Prominent leaders associated with the society included Srinivasa Sastri, who became the president after Gokhale’s death in 1915, and N.M. Joshi, who founded the Social Service League in 1911.
The Servants of India Society continues to exist today with its headquarters in Pune, running various primary schools, hostels, and dispensaries for the marginalized sections of society.

110

‘Bhimbetka’ an important site of Mesolithic culture, is in :

((a))
Gujarat
((b))
Punjab
((c))
Madhya Pradesh
((d))
Rajasthan

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

The Bhimbetka rock shelters are located in the Raisen District of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. This site is situated about 45 kilometers south of Bhopal, nestled at the southern edge of the Vindhya Range.
These shelters were discovered by the famous Indian archaeologist Dr. Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar in the year 1957. He happened to see these unique rock formations while traveling by train and recognized their archaeological potential.
In recognition of its immense historical and cultural value, Bhimbetka was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003. It is considered one of the oldest known human habitations in the Indian subcontinent.
The site provides a continuous sequence of Stone Age cultures, ranging from the Late Paleolithic to the Mesolithic, and extending into the Chalcolithic and historical periods.
The Mesolithic phase at Bhimbetka is particularly significant as it showcases the transition of human society through elaborate rock paintings and the use of microliths (small stone tools).

Additional Information

Artistic Characteristics: The paintings at Bhimbetka use natural pigments. The most common colors used are white and red (ochre), which were made by mixing manganese, hematite, and wooden charcoal with water or animal fat.
Depicted Themes: The Mesolithic paintings often depict hunting scenes, group dances, musical instruments, and daily chores. They provide evidence of a structured social life and a deep connection with nature.
Faunal Evidence: A variety of animals are illustrated in these caves, including bison, tigers, lions, wild boar, elephants, antelopes, and lizards. These depictions help researchers understand the biodiversity of the region during the prehistoric era.
Geographical Context: The site is located within the Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary. The natural sandstone formations provided durable shelters for prehistoric humans, protecting them from harsh weather and predators.
Comparative History: While Bhimbetka is in Madhya Pradesh, other states like Rajasthan house sites like Bagor, and Gujarat houses Langhnaj, which are also vital Mesolithic sites in India.

Important Points

Zoo Rock: This is one of the most famous shelters in Bhimbetka, named so because it contains paintings of over 16 different species of animals. It serves as a prehistoric gallery of the local fauna.
Chronology: The oldest paintings at this site are estimated to be around 30,000 years old, belonging to the Upper Paleolithic period, though the Mesolithic paintings are the most numerous and well-preserved.
Superimposition: A unique feature of Bhimbetka art is the superimposition of paintings. Multiple layers of art from different eras (Paleolithic, Mesolithic, Medieval) are often found on the same rock surface, showing that the same shelters were used for thousands of years.
Cultural Continuity: The site is unique because it shows the evolution of human artistic expression and technological advancement in a single location, reflecting the long-term occupancy of the Indian subcontinent.

111

What is the name of Megasthenes’s book?

((a))
Arthashastra
((b))
Rigveda
((c))
Purana
((d))
Indica

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Indica

The correct answer is Indica.

Key Points

Megasthenes was an ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and explorer who lived during the Hellenistic period.
He was sent as an ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire, by the Greek ruler Seleucus I Nicator around 302 BC.
His most celebrated work is titled Indica, which provides a comprehensive account of India's geography, social structure, and administration during that era.
Although the original text of Indica has been lost over time, its fragments have been preserved in the works of later classical writers like Arrian, Strabo, Diodorus Siculus, and Pliny the Elder.
The book is considered one of the earliest and most important foreign accounts of ancient India, offering insights into the life and governance of the Mauryan dynasty.

Additional Information

Arthashastra:
This is an ancient Indian Sanskrit treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
It was authored by Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta), who was the Prime Minister and mentor to Chandragupta Maurya.
The text contains 15 books (Adhikaranas) covering topics such as the duties of a king, law, and diplomacy.
Rigveda:
It is the oldest of the four Vedas and is a foundational text of Hinduism.
Compiled between 1500 BCE and 1000 BCE, it consists of 1,028 hymns (Suktas) organized into 10 books (Mandalas).
The hymns are dedicated to ancient deities like Indra, Agni, and Varuna.
Purana:
The Puranas are a vast genre of Indian literature about a wide range of topics, particularly legends and mythology.
There are 18 Maha Puranas (Great Puranas), including the Vishnu Purana, Matsya Purana, and Bhagavata Purana.
They provide details on the genealogy of kings, cosmology, and traditional history.

Important Points

Observations on Society: In Indica, Megasthenes noted that Indian society was divided into seven castes: philosophers, farmers, herdsmen, artisans, soldiers, overseers, and councilors.
City of Pataliputra: He described the Mauryan capital, Pataliputra (modern-day Patna), as a magnificent city shaped like a parallelogram, protected by a massive wooden wall with 570 towers and 64 gates.
Military Administration: Megasthenes detailed that the Mauryan army was managed by a board of 30 members, split into six committees of five members each, overseeing different wings such as the navy, infantry, cavalry, and elephants.
Slavery: A notable point in his writing was the claim that slavery did not exist in India. Historians believe he likely observed a system of servitude that was far more humane than the Greek system he was accustomed to.
Geography: He provided early accounts of the Himalayas (Hemodos) and the Ganges river, noting the fertility of the soil and the two harvests per year in India.

112

Who among the following is well known for his contribution in the field of Algebra ?

((a))
Aryabhatta
((b))
Brahmagupta
((c))
Bhaskara
((d))
Bana

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Bhaskara

The correct answer is Bhaskara.

Key Points

Bhaskara II, also known as Bhaskaracharya, was a legendary Indian mathematician and astronomer who lived in the 12th century (born in 1114 AD and died in 1185 AD).
He was born in Bijapur, Karnataka, and later became the head of the astronomical observatory at Ujjain, a leading mathematical center in ancient India.
His most celebrated work is the Siddhanta Shiromani, which is divided into four distinct sections: Lilavati (covering Arithmetic), Bijaganita (dedicated to Algebra), Grahaganita (Mathematics of Planets), and Goladhyaya (Study of the Sphere).
The Bijaganita is considered the first specialized and comprehensive treatise on Algebra. In this work, Bhaskara dealt with positive and negative numbers, zero, surds, and indeterminate equations of the first and second degrees. Hence, option 3 is correct.
He is specifically credited with perfecting the Chakravala method (cyclic method) to solve indeterminate quadratic equations, a feat that was not achieved in Europe until the 17th century.

Additional Information

Aryabhatta:
He was a great mathematician and astronomer of the Classical Age, born in 476 AD in Kusumapura (modern-day Patna).
He authored the Aryabhatiya at the age of 23, which covered Arithmetic, Trigonometry, and Astronomy.
While he contributed to early algebraic concepts, he is best known for the discovery of Zero as a placeholder, the decimal place value system, and calculating the value of Pi to four decimal places (3.1416). Hence, option 1 is incorrect in the specific context of Algebra leadership.
Brahmagupta:
Lived in the 7th century (598–668 AD) and was based in Bhinmal, Rajasthan.
He wrote the Brahmasphutasiddhanta in 628 AD, which was the first book to provide formal rules for computing with zero and negative numbers.
Although he made significant strides in Algebra, Bhaskara's work is more extensively focused and advanced in this specific field. Hence, option 2 is not the primary answer.
Bana (Banabhatta):
He was a 7th-century Sanskrit scholar and the Asthana Kavi (Court Poet) of King Harshavardhana.
He is famous for writing the Harshacharita (a biography of Harsha) and Kadambari, one of the earliest novels in the world.
He was a literary figure and had no notable contributions to Mathematics or Algebra. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

Calculus Origins: Bhaskara II is often regarded as a precursor to modern Calculus. He understood the concept of instantaneous motion and worked on the differential coefficient centuries before Newton and Leibniz.
Lilavati: This mathematical text was translated into Persian by Faizi in 1587 during the reign of Akbar, reflecting its global features and lasting importance.
Mathematical Symbols: Ancient Indian mathematicians like Bhaskara used letters of the alphabet to denote unknown quantities, which is a fundamental function of modern Algebra.
Division by Zero: Bhaskara was the first to state that any number divided by zero results in infinity (Khahara).

113

Where did the traveller Ibn Batuta come from ?

((a))
Morocco
((b))
Persia
((c))
Turkey
((d))
Central Aisa

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Morocco

The correct answer is Morocco.

Key Points

Ibn Batuta was a famous Muslim scholar and explorer who hailed from Tangier, Morocco. He was born in the year 1304 into a family of Islamic legal scholars.
He began his extensive travels in 1325 at the age of 21, initially setting out for the Hajj pilgrimage to Mecca, but his journey eventually spanned across most of the known Islamic world and beyond.
He arrived in India in the year 1333 by crossing the Hindu Kush mountains and reaching the Indus river on the 12th of September.
Upon reaching Delhi, he was received by the Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate, Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Impressed by his scholarship, the Sultan appointed him as the Qazi (judge) of Delhi, a position he held for about eight years.
His primary location of origin, North Africa, allowed him to bridge the gap between the Mediterranean and Asian cultures, making his accounts a vital source for medieval history.

Additional Information

The Rihla:
The traveller documented his experiences in a famous book titled Rihla (The Journey), which was written in the Arabic language.
This manuscript provides detailed data regarding the political, social, and economic conditions of the 14th century across Asia and Africa.
Global Reach:
Over a period of 30 years, he visited countries including Egypt, Persia, China, Mali, Spain, and the Maldives.
His total travel distance is estimated to be around 75,000 miles (1,20,000 kilometers), which significantly exceeds the travels of his contemporary, Marco Polo.
Observations on India:
He noted the functions of the postal system in India, describing the Uluq (horse post) and Dawa (foot post), which facilitated rapid communication.
He also wrote about the features of Indian cities like Delhi and Daulatabad, mentioning their size, fortifications, and vibrant markets.

Important Points

In 1341, Muhammad bin Tughlaq appointed Ibn Batuta as an envoy to the Yuan Dynasty of China, showing his high designation and trust within the administration.
His applications of Islamic law as a Qazi helped him understand the legal frameworks of different nations, which he recorded with numerical values regarding taxation and army strength.
He returned to his home country, Morocco, in the late 1340s and finally settled in Fez, where he dictated his memoirs to a scribe named Ibn Juzayy.
He died in Morocco in approximately 1368 or 1369, leaving behind one of the most comprehensive surveys of the pre-modern world.

114

In which language was the ‘Shrimad Bhagavad Gita’ originally written ?

((a))
Sanskrit
((b))
Apabhramsa
((c))
Prakrit
((d))
Pali

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Sanskrit

The correct answer is Sanskrit.

Key Points

The Shrimad Bhagavad Gita was originally composed in Sanskrit, which is considered the classical language of ancient India and the primary liturgical language of Hinduism.
It is an integral part of the great Indian epic, the Mahabharata, specifically located in the Bhishma Parva (chapters 23 to 40).
The text is attributed to the ancient sage Veda Vyasa, who is traditionally regarded as the author of the Mahabharata and the compiler of the Vedas.
Structurally, the Gita consists of 700 verses organized into 18 chapters, following the Anustubh meter (a poetic form consisting of 32 syllables per verse).
The setting of the Gita is the battlefield of Kurukshetra, where it unfolds as a dialogue between the Pandava prince Arjuna and his charioteer and guide, Lord Krishna.

Additional Information

Pali: This language was primarily used in ancient India to record Buddhist scriptures. The Tripitaka, the standard collection of scriptures in the Theravada Buddhist tradition, is written in Pali. It is a Middle Indo-Aryan language that evolved from Vedic Sanskrit.
Prakrit: This refers to a group of vernacular Middle Indo-Aryan languages used in India from around the 3rd century BCE to the 8th century CE. Many Jain scriptures and Ashokan Edicts were written in Prakrit to reach the common people.
Apabhramsa: This term refers to the transitional dialects between the late Prakrit stage and the early Modern Indo-Aryan languages (like Hindi, Gujarati, and Marathi). It was prominent in North India during the medieval period, roughly between the 6th and 13th centuries.
Significance of Sanskrit: In the context of ancient India, Sanskrit was the language of scholars, philosophers, and religious leaders. It provided a unified medium for the Vedas, Upanishads, and Puranas.

Important Points

Chronology: While traditional dates for the Gita go back thousands of years, modern historians generally estimate its composition to have occurred between the 5th century BCE and the 2nd century CE.
Philosophical Themes: The Bhagavad Gita synthesizes several philosophical concepts including Dharma, Theistic Bhakti, and the yogic ideals of Moksha. It highlights three paths to spiritual liberation: Karma Yoga (the path of action), Bhakti Yoga (the path of devotion), and Jnana Yoga (the path of knowledge).
Global Reach: The first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita was completed by Charles Wilkins in the year 1785. Since then, it has been translated into more than 75 languages worldwide.
Prasthanatrayi: The Gita is one of the three foundational texts (Prasthanatrayi) of Vedanta philosophy, along with the Upanishads and the Brahma Sutras.
Major Commentaries: Famous historical commentaries on the Gita were written by Adi Shankara (8th century), Ramanuja (11th century), and Madhvacharya (13th century), each interpreting the Sanskrit verses through different schools of thought like Advaita and Vishishtadvaita.

115

Which of the following Sultans of Delhi was known as Lakh Bakhsh (giver of Lakhs) ?

((a))
Iltutmish
((b))
Balban
((c))
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
((d))
Qutubuddin Aibak

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Qutubuddin Aibak

The correct answer is Qutubuddin Aibak.

Key Points

Qutubuddin Aibak was the first Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate and the founder of the Slave Dynasty (also known as the Mamluk Dynasty) in 1206.
He was known by the title Lakh Bakhsh, which literally translates to "giver of lakhs," due to his extreme generosity and the large amount of donations and charity he distributed among the poor and needy.
Originally a Turkish slave, he was purchased by Muhammad Ghori, the ruler of Ghor in Afghanistan. He rose through the ranks due to his military talent and eventually became the Governor of Ghori's Indian territories.
His reign lasted from 1206 to 1210. During this brief period, he focused on consolidating his power in North India rather than further expansion.
He was a great patron of architecture and started the construction of the world-famous Qutub Minar in Delhi, dedicated to the Sufi saint Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki.
He also built the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi and the Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra mosque in Ajmer, which are among the earliest examples of Indo-Islamic architecture in India.

Additional Information

Iltutmish (Reign: 1211–1236):
He was the son-in-law of Aibak and is considered the real founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
He introduced the Iqta system of land grants and the silver coin known as Tanka and copper coin called Jital.
He organized a group of 40 powerful Turkish nobles known as Turkan-i-Chahalgani (The Forty).
Ghiyasuddin Balban (Reign: 1266–1287):
A former member of the Chahalgani, he ascended to the throne and followed a policy of "Blood and Iron" to maintain law and order.
He introduced the Persian customs of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the Sultan's feet).
He established a separate military department called Diwan-i-Arz to strengthen the army against Mongol invasions.
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq (Reign: 1325–1351):
Known as one of the most learned yet controversial rulers, he is often called a "wise fool" by historians due to his failed administrative experiments.
In 1327, he shifted the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (renamed Daulatabad) in the Deccan, which caused immense hardship to the people.
He introduced a token currency of copper and brass in 1329-30, which failed because of large-scale counterfeiting.

Important Points

Death of Qutubuddin Aibak: He died in 1210 after falling from his horse while playing Chaugan (an early form of Polo) in Lahore.
Burial Place: He was buried in Lahore (now in Pakistan) near the Anarkali Bazaar.
Succession: After his sudden death, he was briefly succeeded by Aram Shah, who was soon replaced by Iltutmish, who established the stability of the Sultanate.
Literary Patronage: Aibak was also a patron of learning; writers like Hasan-un-Nizami (author of Taj-ul-Maasir) and Fakhr-ud-din flourished during his time.

116

The city of Jaunpur was founded in the memory of :

((a))
Ghiyassuddin Tughlaq
((b))
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
((c))
Firoz Shah-Tughlaq
((d))
Akbar

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

The correct answer is Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq.

Key Points

The city of Jaunpur was founded in 1359 by the Sultan of Delhi, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
It was established to honor the memory of his cousin, Sultan Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq, whose original name was Jauna Khan. Hence, the correct answer is Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq.
The city is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh on the banks of the Gomti River.
During the 15th century, Jaunpur became the capital of the independent Sharqi Dynasty, founded by Malik Sarwar in 1394.
It earned the title Shiraz-i-Hind (Shiraz of the East) because it became a major center for Islamic art, culture, and Arabic and Persian education.

Additional Information

Ghiyassuddin Tughlaq:
He was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty in 1320 and ruled until 1325.
He built the fortified city of Tughlaqabad in Delhi.
He was the father of Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq:
Ruled from 1325 to 1351. He was known for his ambitious but controversial administrative experiments, such as shifting the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) and introducing token currency.
His childhood name Jauna Khan is the etymological root of the name Jaunpur.
Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
He ruled from 1351 to 1388. He was a prolific builder and founded several cities, including Hissar, Fatehabad, Firozpur, and Firozabad.
He is credited with the construction of several canals, hospitals, and rest houses.
Akbar:
The third Mughal Emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605.
While he did not found Jaunpur, his governor, Munim Khan, built the famous Shahi Bridge (also known as Akbari Bridge) over the Gomti River in 1564.

Important Points

Sharqi Architecture: Jaunpur is famous for its unique style of architecture. The Atala Masjid, completed in 1408 by Ibrahim Shah Sharqi, is a primary example. It stands on the site of the former Atala Devi temple.
The Lodi Conquest: In 1479, Bahlul Lodi, the Sultan of Delhi, conquered Jaunpur and destroyed many of the Sharqi monuments, though several mosques survived.
Linguistic Significance: The city played a vital role in the development of Urdu and Sufi literature during the medieval period.

117

In which among the following cities in India, the First European Factory was built by the Portuguese in 1500 AD :

((a))
Kozhikode
((b))
Goa
((c))
Surat
((d))
Calicut

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Calicut

The correct answer is Calicut.

Key Points

The first European factory in India was established by the Portuguese in the year 1500 AD at the port city of Calicut (present-day Kozhikode).
This factory was set up by Pedro Álvares Cabral, who led the Second Portuguese India Armada. Cabral arrived in Calicut in September 1500 with a fleet of 13 ships and 1,200 men to consolidate trade following Vasco da Gama's discovery of the sea route.
The establishment of the factory was initially permitted by the local ruler, known as the Zamorin. However, tensions quickly escalated between the Portuguese and the Arab merchants, who had long-standing control over the Indian Ocean trade routes.
In December 1500, the Calicut factory was attacked by a mob, resulting in the deaths of several Portuguese employees, including the lead factor Aires Correa. In retaliation, Cabral bombarded the city of Calicut and seized several merchant ships before sailing further south.
Despite the initial setback at Calicut, the Portuguese successfully established trade relations with the rulers of Cochin (Kochi) and Cannanore (Kannur), which eventually became the pillars of their maritime empire in the East.

Additional Information

Vasco da Gama's Voyage: The Portuguese era in India began when Vasco da Gama landed at Kappad, near Calicut, on May 20, 1498. His successful voyage opened a direct sea route from Europe to Asia via the Cape of Good Hope.
First Permanent Fort: While the first factory was attempted in Calicut in 1500, the first permanent European fort in India was Fort Manuel, built in Cochin in 1503 AD by Afonso de Albuquerque with the permission of the Raja of Cochin.
Portuguese Governors:
Francisco de Almeida was appointed as the first Viceroy of India in 1505. He is famous for the "Blue Water Policy" (Cartaze system), aimed at maintaining naval supremacy in the Indian Ocean rather than territorial conquest.
Afonso de Albuquerque, the second Governor (1509–1515), is considered the real founder of the Portuguese power in India. He captured Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 AD.
Geographical Expansion: The Portuguese established several strategic points along the western coast of India, including Daman, Diu, Salsette, Bassein, and Chaul. They also held Bombay (Mumbai) until it was gifted to the British as dowry in 1661.
Monopoly on Spice Trade: The primary objective of the Portuguese was to control the pepper and spice trade. They sought to eliminate the mediation of Arab and Venetian merchants by controlling the sea lanes through force and a system of naval passes.

Important Points

The Zamorin: The hereditary title of the Hindu monarch of the Kingdom of Calicut. The Zamorin's power was largely based on the prosperity of Calicut as a major trading hub for Chinese, Arab, and Indian goods.
The Cartaz System: A naval trade license issued by the Portuguese in the 16th century. Any merchant vessel operating in the Indian Ocean was forced to purchase a Cartaz, or risk being seized and its cargo confiscated.
Capital Shift: Initially, the Portuguese headquarters were at Cochin. In 1530 AD, the Governor Nino da Cunha shifted the capital of the Portuguese State of India from Cochin to Goa.
Cultural Impact: The Portuguese introduced new agricultural crops to India, including tobacco, cashew, pineapple, and chilly. They also brought the printing press to India, with the first book being printed in Goa in 1556 AD.

118

Consider the following statements regarding educational history of India :

(i) Lord Curzon paid special attention to training of teachers.

(ii) Wood's Despatch, 1854 was said to be the 'Magna Carta of India Education'.

(iii) Baroda was the first Indian State to introduce, in 1906, compulsory and free primary education.

Which of the above statement is/are correct ?

((a))
(i) and (ii) only
((b))
(ii) and (iii) only
((c))
(ii) only
((d))
(i), (ii) and (iii)

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is (i), (ii) and (iii).

Key Points

Lord Curzon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, introduced significant educational reforms. He believed that the quality of education was directly linked to the quality of teachers. Under the Government Resolution on Education Policy (1904), he emphasized the expansion of teacher training facilities and the establishment of more training colleges to improve the pedagogical standards in schools. Hence, statement (i) is correct.
Wood’s Despatch of 1854 is widely regarded as the ‘Magna Carta of Indian Education’. Issued by Sir Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of the East India Company, it was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. It advocated for a structured education system, ranging from primary schools (using vernacular languages) to high schools and colleges. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
The princely state of Baroda made history in 1906 by becoming the first Indian state to introduce compulsory and free primary education. This progressive initiative was spearheaded by Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, who believed that education was the primary tool for social and economic upliftment. Hence, statement (iii) is correct.
Lord Curzon also passed the Indian Universities Act in 1904, based on the recommendations of the Raleigh Commission (1902), which aimed to tighten government control over higher education and improve the research environment in universities.

Additional Information

Wood’s Despatch (1854): It recommended the establishment of Departments of Public Instruction in all five provinces of British India and the founding of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857, modeled after the University of London. It also emphasized female education and vocational training.
Hunter Education Commission (1882): Appointed by Lord Ripon and chaired by Sir William Wilson Hunter, this commission was tasked with reviewing the progress of education since 1854. Its primary focus was on the decentralization of primary education to local boards and the encouragement of private enterprise in secondary education.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale’s Contribution: Inspired by the Baroda model, Gopal Krishna Gokhale introduced a private member’s bill in the Imperial Legislative Council in 1910 to make primary education free and compulsory across India. Although the British Government rejected the bill, it sparked a national debate on the right to education.
Saddler University Commission (1917-19): This commission was appointed to study the problems of Calcutta University. It recommended a 12-year school course followed by a 3-year degree course, essentially separating intermediate education from university degree courses.

Important Points

Hartog Committee (1929): This committee highlighted the problem of ‘wastage’ and ‘stagnation’ in primary education, where students dropped out before completing their schooling. It recommended focusing on quality rather than a mere quantitative increase in schools.
Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937): Also known as Nai Talim, this was proposed by Mahatma Gandhi at the Wardha Education Conference. It focused on learning through craft and providing education in the mother tongue for children aged 7 to 14 years.
Sargent Plan (1944): Officially known as the Report of the Central Advisory Board of Education, it aimed to create an educational system in India equivalent to that of Great Britain within 40 years, including universal literacy for the age group of 6 to 14.

119

Moplah Rebellion took place in :

((a))
1919
((b))
1920
((c))
1921
((d))
1922

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1921

The correct answer is 1921.

Key Points

The Moplah Rebellion, also known as the Malabar Rebellion of 1921, was an armed uprising in the Malabar region of Kerala, India.
It began in August 1921 as a response to the British colonial rule and the feudal system prevalent in the region, where Muslim tenants (Mappilas) revolted against Hindu landlords (Jenmis) and the British administration. Hence, option C is the correct year.
The rebellion was heavily influenced by the Khilafat Movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, which sought to unite Hindus and Muslims against British rule.
The primary leaders of the movement were Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji and Ali Musliyar, who established a short-lived independent state in parts of Malabar.
By the end of 1921, the British government suppressed the rebellion with significant force, leading to thousands of deaths and the arrest of numerous rebels.

Additional Information

Wagon Tragedy: One of the most infamous incidents of this period was the Wagon Tragedy in November 1921, where 67 Mappila prisoners died of suffocation while being transported in a closed freight wagon from Tirur to Podanur.
Geographic Scope: The uprising was most intense in the Ernad and Walluvanad taluks of the then Madras Presidency.
Linguistic and Cultural Context: The Mappilas are a Muslim community residing in the Malabar coast of Kerala, speaking Malayalam, and their history of resistance against foreign powers dates back to the Portuguese era in the 16th century.
Impact on National Movement: The communal turn the rebellion took in its later stages led to a setback for the Hindu-Muslim unity envisioned during the Non-Cooperation Movement and prompted criticism from various national leaders.

Important Points

Malabar Special Police (MSP): Following the rebellion, the British government formed the Malabar Special Police in 1921 to maintain law and order and prevent future uprisings in the sensitive Malabar region.
Economic Grievances: The rebellion was rooted in deep-seated agrarian distress; the British legal system had granted Jenmis absolute ownership of land, leading to high rents and arbitrary evictions of the Mappila peasants.
Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji: He is a central figure in the rebellion who declared an independent 'Malayala Rajyam' (Malayalam Kingdom) and was eventually captured and executed by the British in January 1922.

120

Which Indian Nationalist movement is also known as ‘August Movement’ ?

((a))
Swadeshi Movement
((b))
Civil Disobedience Movement
((c))
Quit India Movement
((d))
Non-Cooperation Movement

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Quit India Movement

The correct answer is Quit India Movement.

Key Points

The Quit India Movement is widely recognized as the ‘August Movement’ or ‘August Kranti’ because it was officially launched in the month of August in the year 1942. Hence, the correct answer is Quit India Movement.
On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi addressed the All India Congress Committee at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai), signaling the start of the movement.
The movement was a massive, non-violent civil disobedience call for the British to leave India immediately. It was during this event that Gandhiji gave his famous call to the nation: “Do or Die” (Karo ya Maro).
The primary catalyst for the August Movement was the failure of the Cripps Mission in March 1942, which failed to offer India a concrete timeline for Self-Rule or Independence during World War II.
The British government responded by arresting almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress, including Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, within hours of the resolution being passed.

Additional Information

Swadeshi Movement:
Launched in 1905 as a reaction to the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.
It emphasized the use of Indian-made goods and the boycott of British products, particularly textiles and salt.
Prominent leaders included Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal (the Lal-Bal-Pal trio).
Non-Cooperation Movement:
Started in 1920 and lasted until 1922 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
It was triggered by grievances such as the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, the Rowlatt Act, and the Khilafat Movement.
The movement was abruptly called off after the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922, where a mob set fire to a police station.
Civil Disobedience Movement:
Initiated in 1930 with the historic Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha.
Mahatma Gandhi walked from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi to break the Salt Law imposed by the British government.
This movement saw wide participation from women and was a major step towards Purna Swaraj (Total Independence).

Important Points

Underground Activities: During the Quit India Movement, while the main leaders were in jail, younger leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, and Ram Manohar Lohia continued the struggle through underground networks.
Usha Mehta: She is famously known for operating the ‘Congress Radio’, an underground radio station that broadcasted news and messages for the movement for several months in 1942.
Aruna Asaf Ali: She earned the title ‘Heroine of the 1942 Movement’ for hoisting the Indian National Flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay on 9th August 1942.
Significance: Although the British suppressed the movement by 1944, it made it clear that they could no longer govern India without the consent of its people, paving the final path to Independence in 1947.

121

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Council of Four’ established by the Regulating Act of 1773 :
(i) It was also known as the Calcutta Council
(ii) It was established, to limit the powers of Warren Hastings, the Governor - General
Which of the following is/are correct ?

((a))
(i) only
((b))
(ii) only
((c))
Both (i) and (ii)
((d))
Neither (i) nor (ii)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both (i) and (ii)

The correct answer is Both (i) and (ii).

Key Points

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Parliament to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
This Act established a Council of Four members to assist the Governor-General of Bengal. Since the seat of the British administration was located at Fort William in Calcutta, this executive body was widely known as the Calcutta Council. Hence, statement (i) is correct.
One of the primary objectives of establishing the council was to prevent the Governor-General from exercising absolute or autocratic power. The Act mandated that decisions be made by a majority vote of the council members.
Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General, only possessed a casting vote in the event of a tie, which effectively limited his individual authority as he often faced opposition from the other four members. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
The four members appointed to the council under the 1773 Act were Philip Francis, Richard Barwell, John Clavering, and George Monson.

Additional Information

Centralization of Power: The Regulating Act of 1773 made the Governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal, marking the beginning of a centralized administration in India.
Establishment of the Supreme Court: The Act provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta in 1774, consisting of a Chief Justice and three other judges. Sir Elijah Impey was appointed as the first Chief Justice.
Restriction on Private Trade: To curb corruption, the Act prohibited the servants of the East India Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents and bribes from the native population.
Court of Directors: The Act required the Court of Directors (the governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India to the British Treasury and the Secretary of State.
Tenure and Removal: The members of the Council were appointed for a term of five years and could only be removed by the British Crown based on a representation from the Court of Directors.

Important Points

The Council of Four was often divided by internal friction. Philip Francis, John Clavering, and George Monson (often called the Triumvirate) frequently combined to outvote Warren Hastings and Richard Barwell, leading to administrative paralysis in the early years.
The defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, including the constant conflict between the Governor-General and his Council, eventually led to the enactment of the Pitts India Act of 1784.
Under the Pitts India Act of 1784, the number of members in the Governor-General's Council was reduced from four to three to make the decision-making process more efficient.

122

The Lucknow Pact dealt with :

(i) The structure of the Government of India

(ii) The relation of the Hindu and Muslim Communities

((a))
(i) only
((b))
(ii) only
((c))
Both (i) and (ii)
((d))
Neither (i) nor (ii)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both (i) and (ii)

The correct answer is Both (i) and (ii).

Key Points

The Lucknow Pact was a historic agreement reached between the Indian National Congress (INC) and the All India Muslim League during their joint session held in Lucknow in December 1916.
The pact dealt with the structure of the Government of India by demanding self-government for India at an early date and proposing that four-fifths of the members of the Provincial and Central Legislative Councils should be elected. Hence, statement (i) is correct.
It also addressed the relation of the Hindu and Muslim communities by formally accepting the principle of separate electorates for Muslims and deciding the proportion of seats for Muslims in the provincial legislatures. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
The negotiation for this pact was led by prominent leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak from the Congress and Muhammad Ali Jinnah from the Muslim League, who was then known as the 'Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity'.
This agreement marked a significant shift as it was the first time both organizations presented a common set of constitutional demands to the British Government, including the separation of the executive from the judiciary.

Additional Information

The Lucknow Session of 1916:
The session was presided over by Ambica Charan Mazumdar, a prominent Moderate leader of the Congress.
Apart from the Lucknow Pact, this session was famous for the reunion of the Moderates and Extremists within the Congress, who had split earlier during the Surat Session of 1907.
The atmosphere of unity was further strengthened by the ongoing Home Rule League movement started by Annie Besant and Tilak.
Context of the Pact:
The Muslim League changed its objective to Self-Government in 1913, bringing its goals closer to those of the Congress.
External factors like World War I and the British attitude towards the Caliphate (Khilafat issue) pushed the Muslim League to seek cooperation with the Congress against colonial rule.

Important Points

Specific Demands under the Pact:
It was agreed that one-third of the Indian elected members in the Central Legislative Council should be Muslims, elected by separate electorates.
The Secretary of State for India should be paid from British revenues rather than the Indian exchequer, a demand aimed at reducing the economic burden on India.
The Executive Council of the Governor-General and the Governors should have at least half of its members as Indians.
Legacy and Criticism:
While the pact brought temporary communal harmony and pressure on the British, it was later criticized by some historians for institutionalizing communal politics through the formal acceptance of separate electorates.
The unity displayed in 1916 eventually paved the way for the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Khilafat Movement in the following decade.

123

Bamabodhini Patrika, a journal for women was started by :

((a))
Keshav Chandra Sen
((b))
Atmaram Pandurang
((c))
Debendranath Tagore
((d))
Swami Dayananda Saraswati

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Keshav Chandra Sen

The correct answer is Keshav Chandra Sen.

Key Points

Bamabodhini Patrika was a highly influential monthly journal established in August 1863. It was specifically designed to cater to the intellectual needs and social issues of women (referred to as 'Bamas') in Bengal.
The journal was started by Umesh Chandra Dutta along with a group of young, progressive members of the Brahmo Samaj. These individuals were deeply influenced by the radical reformist ideas of Keshav Chandra Sen. Hence, statement A is correct.
Keshav Chandra Sen was the guiding spirit behind the Vama Bodhini Sabha, which was the organization responsible for publishing the journal. His leadership in the Brahmo Samaj emphasized the urgent need for women’s education and the abolition of social evils like child marriage.
The primary objective of the Bamabodhini Patrika was to provide a platform for Zenana education (education within the home) for women who were not permitted to attend formal schools. It covered subjects like history, geography, science, health, and literature.
The journal was published for a remarkable period of 60 years, concluding its run in 1923. It remains a primary historical source for understanding the socio-cultural development of women during the 19th-century Bengal Renaissance.

Additional Information

Keshav Chandra Sen: He joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1857. Due to ideological differences with the more conservative Debendranath Tagore, he formed the Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866. He was instrumental in the enactment of the Native Marriage Act of 1872, which set the minimum age for marriage.
Atmaram Pandurang: He was a prominent social reformer from Maharashtra who founded the Prarthana Samaj in 1867 in Bombay. His work focused on theistic worship and social reforms like widow remarriage and the upliftment of the depressed classes. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Debendranath Tagore: He was the leader of the Tattvabodhini Sabha (founded in 1839) and later led the Adi Brahmo Samaj. He started the Tattvabodhini Patrika in 1843, which was a vehicle for Vedantic thought and the promotion of Bengali literature. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
Swami Dayananda Saraswati: A renowned scholar and reformer who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. He promoted the slogan "Back to the Vedas" and worked extensively against idolatry and the caste system. He authored the famous book Satyarth Prakash. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Important Points

Social Impact: The Bamabodhini Patrika encouraged women to write and share their perspectives. Many early female writers in Bengal found their voice through this journal, contributing to the shift in the domestic and intellectual status of women.
Brahmo Samaj Splits: The movement saw two major splits. The first was in 1866, led by Keshav Chandra Sen (Brahmo Samaj of India), and the second in 1878, when the Sadharan Brahmo Samaj was formed by followers who disagreed with Sen's decision regarding his daughter's marriage.
Umesh Chandra Dutta: While Keshav Chandra Sen was the organizational leader, Umesh Chandra Dutta served as the dedicated editor of the journal for many decades, ensuring its consistency and focus on educational reform.

124

Which of the following year was not a part of ‘Imperial Durbar’ in India ?

((a))
1877
((b))
1903
((c))
1911
((d))
1921

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1921

The correct answer is 1921.

Key Points

The Imperial Durbar, also known as the Delhi Durbar, was a grand Indian imperial style assembly organized by the British at Coronation Park, Delhi, to mark the succession of an Emperor or Empress of India.
The first Durbar was held in 1877 to proclaim Queen Victoria as the Empress of India (Kaiser-i-Hind). This event was organized during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Lytton. Hence, 1877 was a part of the Imperial Durbar.
The second Durbar took place in 1903 to celebrate the coronation of King Edward VII and Queen Alexandra. It was orchestrated by Viceroy Lord Curzon and is remembered for its unparalleled scale and luxury. Hence, 1903 was a part of the Imperial Durbar.
The third and final Durbar was held in 1911 to commemorate the coronation of King George V and Queen Mary. This was the only occasion where the British Monarch personally attended the ceremony in India. Hence, 1911 was a part of the Imperial Durbar.
There was no Imperial Durbar held in the year 1921. Although the Prince of Wales (later Edward VIII) visited India in 1921, it was a royal tour and not a coronation assembly or Durbar. Hence, statement 1921 is correct as it was NOT a part of the Imperial Durbar.

Additional Information

The Durbar of 1877 (Proclamation Durbar):
Organized by Lord Lytton, it occurred while parts of India were suffering from the Great Famine of 1876–78.
The transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown had occurred in 1858, but the title of Empress was formally assumed through the Royal Titles Act 1876.
The Durbar of 1903:
Lord Curzon intended this Durbar to be a display of British power.
Though King Edward VII did not attend, he was represented by his brother, the Duke of Connaught.
It featured an enormous display of Indian Princes and jewels, reinforcing the hierarchical relationship between the British Raj and Princely States.
The Durbar of 1911:
Organized under Viceroy Lord Hardinge, this event had massive historical implications.
It was at this Durbar that King George V announced the transfer of the capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi.
The Annulment of the Partition of Bengal (which had occurred in 1905) was also announced during this ceremony.

Important Points

Coronation Park: All three Delhi Durbars were held at the same location in North West Delhi. Today, it houses a collection of colonial-era statues, including the tallest statue of King George V in India.
Terminology: The term 'Durbar' is derived from Persian and was traditionally used in Mughal courts. The British adopted this terminology to present themselves as the legitimate successors to the Mughal Emperors.
Prince of Wales Visit (1921): The 1921 visit was marked by significant protests and boycotts led by the Indian National Congress as part of the Non-Cooperation Movement under Mahatma Gandhi, which stands in stark contrast to the celebratory nature of the Durbars.

125

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding India in eighteenth century ?

((a))
Elementary education was quite widespread
((b))
There was uniformity of culture all over the country
((c))
There was no division in Muslim Community on the basis of caste, race or tribe
((d))
There was political unity in the country

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Elementary education was quite widespread

The correct answer is Elementary education was quite widespread.

Key Points

In the eighteenth century, despite the political turmoil following the decline of the Mughal Empire, elementary education was surprisingly common and accessible to many segments of society through traditional institutions. Hence, statement A is correct.
Education was primarily imparted through Pathshalas for Hindu students and Maktabs or Madrasas for Muslim students, where the curriculum focused on reading, writing, and arithmetic, alongside religious teachings.
Cultural uniformity was absent in 18th-century India as the country was a patchwork of diverse linguistic, regional, and social traditions, although a common "high culture" influenced by Persian existed among the elite. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
The Muslim community was not a monolithic entity and was characterized by sharp divisions based on race (such as Irani, Turani, Afghani, and Hindustani factions) and social hierarchy (the Ashraf and Ajlaf). Hence, statement C is incorrect.
Political unity was non-existent during this period as the centralized authority of the Mughals disintegrated after the death of Aurangzeb in 1707, leading to the emergence of numerous independent regional states. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Education System: While elementary education was widespread, it was mostly traditional and lacked scientific or technical orientation. Higher education was restricted to the Brahmin and Upper-class Muslim communities, focusing on Classical Sanskrit and Arabic/Persian literature.
Social Structure: The caste system was the dominant social feature among Hindus, dictating profession and social interaction. Similarly, caste-like divisions existed among Muslims, particularly between the descendants of foreign invaders (Ashrafs) and local converts (Ajlafs).
Position of Women: The 18th century was a period of social stagnation for women; practices like Sati, child marriage, and purdah were prevalent, although women in some royal households played significant political roles.
Economic Condition: Despite political instability, India remained a manufacturing hub, particularly for textiles and handicrafts. However, the peasantry was heavily burdened by high land revenue demands from both the declining Mughal state and emerging regional powers like the Marathas.

Important Points

Decline of Mughals: The death of Aurangzeb in 1707 marked the beginning of the end of Mughal hegemony, creating a power vacuum that led to frequent foreign invasions, such as those by Nadir Shah in 1739 and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
Rise of Regional Powers: States like Bengal under Murshid Quli Khan, Awadh under Saadat Khan, and Hyderabad under Nizam-ul-Mulk became virtually independent, signaling the fragmentation of political power.
Maratha Confederacy: The Marathas emerged as the most formidable challenge to Mughal authority, but their defeat in the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 prevented them from establishing a pan-Indian empire.
European Encroachment: The 18th century also witnessed the growing influence of European trading companies, primarily the British East India Company and the French East India Company, who exploited the political disunity of the era to establish colonial rule.

126

Hindustan Republican Association (1924) was founded by :

((a))
Bhagat Singh
((b))
Chandrashekhar Azad
((c))
Sachindra Nath Sanyal
((d))
Pulin Bihari Das

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Sachindra Nath Sanyal

The correct answer is Sachindra Nath Sanyal.

Key Points

The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was established in October 1924 in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
The primary founders of this revolutionary organization were Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. Hence, option C is correct.
The main objective of the HRA was to organize an armed revolution to overthrow the British colonial government and establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India.
In January 1925, the association issued its manifesto titled "The Revolutionary", which advocated for universal adult suffrage and the nationalization of transport and heavy industries.
The HRA gained significant attention after the Kakori Train Robbery on August 9, 1925, which was an attempt to fund their activities by looting government treasury.

Additional Information

Bhagat Singh: While he was a legendary figure in the movement, he was not the founder of the HRA in 1924. He joined the organization later and played a pivotal role in reorganizing it into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in September 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi. Hence, option A is incorrect.
Chandrashekhar Azad: He was a prominent member of the HRA and survived the Kakori arrests. He later became the Commander-in-Chief of the HSRA. He is famously known for his vow to never be caught alive, which he fulfilled in February 1931 at Alfred Park, Allahabad. Hence, option B is incorrect.
Pulin Bihari Das: He was a key figure in the revolutionary movement in Bengal and was the founder of the Dhaka Anushilan Samiti in 1906. Although his work inspired many, he was not the founder of the HRA. Hence, option D is incorrect.
Sachindra Nath Sanyal: He was a senior revolutionary who had previously been involved in the Ghadar Conspiracy. He authored the famous book "Bandi Jiwan" (A Life of Captivity), which served as a textbook and source of inspiration for revolutionaries across India during the 1920s.

Important Points

The HRA's transition to HSRA in 1928 marked a significant ideological shift towards Marxism and Socialism, largely driven by the influence of Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev.
The organization was responsible for high-profile acts of resistance, including the Saunders Murder (1928) and the Central Assembly Bombing (1929), which aimed to protest against repressive laws like the Public Safety Bill.
The legacy of the HRA and HSRA remains a vital part of the Indian Independence Movement, representing the militant nationalism that complemented the non-violent struggles led by the Congress.

127

Gandhi ji began the Non-Cooperation Movement in :

((a))
1919
((b))
1920
((c))
1921
((d))
1922

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1920

The correct answer is 1920.

Key Points

Mahatma Gandhi officially launched the Non-Cooperation Movement on August 1, 1920. This date coincided with the passing of the great leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Hence, option 1920 is correct.
The movement was a significant phase of the Indian Independence Movement, marking the first time Gandhi led a mass-scale Satyagraha nationwide against the British Raj.
The Indian National Congress (INC) formally ratified the resolution for the movement during its Nagpur Session held in December 1920, under the leadership of C. Vijayaraghavachariar.
The primary objectives of the movement were to protest against the Punjab wrongs (Jallianwala Bagh Massacre), the Khilafat issue, and the demand for Swaraj (Self-rule).
The year 1919 is significant for the Rowlatt Act and the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919), which acted as the immediate catalysts for the movement, but the actual movement had not yet started. Hence, option 1919 is incorrect.
During 1921, the movement was in its peak phase with widespread participation from all strata of society, but it did not originate in this year. Hence, option 1921 is incorrect.
In 1922, the movement was abruptly called off by Gandhi following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922. Hence, option 1922 is incorrect.

Additional Information

Main Features of the Movement:
The movement involved the surrender of titles and honors awarded by the British Government. Mahatma Gandhi returned his Kaisar-i-Hind gold medal.
It called for the boycott of foreign goods, government schools, colleges, law courts, and legislative councils.
Promotion of Swadeshi goods, especially Khadi (hand-spun cloth), became a symbol of national pride and self-reliance.
Unity and Participation:
A unique feature was the Hindu-Muslim unity, as the Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali Brothers: Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali) merged its grievances with the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Prominent leaders like Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from their professions or government posts to join the cause.
Economic Impact:
The import of foreign cloth fell drastically between 1921 and 1922, with its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore as people burned foreign clothes in huge bonfires.

Important Points

Chauri Chaura Incident: On February 4, 1922, a mob set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura (Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh), killing 22 policemen. Gandhi, a staunch believer in Ahimsa (Non-violence), withdrew the movement immediately after this event.
Significance: Although it did not achieve Swaraj in one year as Gandhi had hoped, it transformed the Indian National Congress into a mass revolutionary organization and shook the foundations of British authority in India.
Educational Institutions: During this period, several national educational institutions were established, including Bihar Vidyapeeth, Kashi Vidyapeeth, Gujarat Vidyapeeth, and Jamia Millia Islamia.

128

Before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement, Mahatma Gandhi presented minimum demands, in the form of 11 points, before the British Indian Government. Which of the following was/were included in those demands ?

(i) Reduction in the rate of land revenue

(ii) Abolition of Salt tax

(iii) Reduction in the Military expenditure

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

((a))
(i) and (ii) only
((b))
(ii) only
((c))
(ii) and (iii) only
((d))
(i), (ii) and (iii)

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is (i), (ii) and (iii).

Key Points

Mahatma Gandhi presented his 11 demands to the British Indian Government in an ultimatum addressed to Viceroy Lord Irwin on January 31, 1930.
Reduction in the rate of land revenue: Gandhi demanded a 50% reduction in the land revenue collected from the peasants to provide them relief from heavy taxation. Hence, statement (i) is correct.
Abolition of Salt tax: One of the most critical demands was the total abolition of the Salt Tax and the Government's monopoly over salt production, as salt was a universal necessity for all Indians. Hence, statement (ii) is correct.
Reduction in the Military expenditure: To reduce the financial burden on the Indian economy, Gandhi demanded that Military expenditure should be reduced by at least 50%. Hence, statement (iii) is correct.
The demands were designed to represent all sections of Indian society, including the peasantry, the bourgeoisie, and the general public, to create a united front against British rule.
Since Lord Irwin showed no willingness to negotiate or accept these demands by the deadline of March 11, 1930, the Civil Disobedience Movement was officially launched.

Additional Information

Demands of General Interest: These included the prohibition of intoxicants, the reduction of salaries of the highest grade civil services by 50%, and the release of political prisoners not convicted of murder.
Specific Bourgeoisie Demands: These included the reduction of the rupee-sterling exchange ratio to 1s 4d, the introduction of a protective tariff on foreign cloth, and the passage of the Coastal Traffic Reservation Bill.
The Salt Satyagraha: Following the rejection of the 11 demands, Mahatma Gandhi began his famous Dandi March on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram.
Dandi March Details: Gandhi, along with 78 chosen followers, marched for 24 days covering a distance of approximately 240 miles. He reached Dandi on April 5, 1930, and ceremonially broke the salt law on April 6, 1930.
Impact: This movement led to widespread boycotts of foreign goods, refusal to pay taxes, and the resignation of Indian officials from government services, marking a significant phase in the Indian Independence Movement.

Important Points

Lord Irwin’s Response: The Viceroy ignored the demands, which Gandhi viewed as the British Government's refusal to grant even the most basic rights to Indians.
Abolition of CID: One of the 11 points was either the abolition of the Central Intelligence Department (CID) or subjecting it to popular control.
Right to Self-Defense: Gandhi also demanded the issuance of licenses to Indians to use firearms for self-defense, similar to the rights enjoyed by the British.
Civil Disobedience vs. Non-Cooperation: While the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) focused on refusing to cooperate with the government, the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) specifically involved the deliberate breaking of laws, starting with the salt law.

129

Nau Jawan Bharat Sabha was founded in :

((a))
March, 1924
((b))
March, 1926
((c))
March, 1931
((d))
March, 1942

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

March, 1926

The correct answer is March, 1926.

Key Points

The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was a radical left-wing organization founded in March 1926. It was established by Bhagat Singh to foster a spirit of nationalism and secularism among the youth of India.
The organization was founded in Lahore, which was a major hub for revolutionary activities in the Punjab region during the 1920s.
Its primary objective was to organize the peasants and workers to overthrow British colonial rule and establish a sovereign republic based on socialist principles.
Bhagat Singh served as the Secretary of the Sabha, while Ram Chandra was appointed as its first President. Other prominent members included Bhagwati Charan Vohra, Sukhdev, and Yashpal.
The Sabha held public meetings, lectures, and published literature to spread the message of Revolutionary Socialism and to protest against communalism. Hence, the option stating March 1926 is correct.

Additional Information

Ideological Foundation: The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was deeply influenced by the October Revolution of 1917 in Russia. It aimed to mobilize the working class and rejected the path of non-violence when it deemed revolutionary action necessary for independence.
Anti-Communal Stand: One of the unique features of the Sabha was its strict opposition to religious communalism. Members were required to sign a pledge that they would put the interests of the country above their religion.
Transition to HSRA: Many members of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha later joined or collaborated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which was reorganized in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi.
Banning of the Organization: Due to its growing influence and radical activities, the British Government declared the Naujawan Bharat Sabha an illegal organization in 1934 under the Criminal Law Amendment Act.
Option Analysis:
March 1924: This year is significant for the formation of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) in Kanpur by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Ram Prasad Bismil. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
March 1931: This date is historically remembered for the martyrdom of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru, who were hanged on March 23, 1931. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
March 1942: This year marks the arrival of the Cripps Mission and the subsequent launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Important Points

The Naujawan Bharat Sabha published a manifesto that articulated the need for a mass movement involving laborers and farmers, rather than just elite politics.
It collaborated with the Kirti Kisan Party to address agrarian issues and workers' rights in North India.
The Sabha's influence was most potent in Punjab, United Provinces, and parts of Rajasthan, creating a generation of political activists dedicated to socialism.
The numerical value of its membership grew rapidly between 1926 and 1929, posing a significant threat to the colonial administration.

130

The Morley - Minto Reforms were officially known as the :

((a))
Indian Council Act 1861
((b))
Indian Council Act 1909
((c))
Defence of India Act 1900
((d))
Defence of India Act 1915

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Indian Council Act 1909

The correct answer is Indian Council Act 1909.

Key Points

The Morley-Minto Reforms were officially translated into legislation as the Indian Council Act 1909. This act was named after John Morley, the then Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, the then Viceroy of India.
The act significantly increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both the Central and Provincial levels. The membership of the Central Legislative Council was expanded from 16 to 60 members.
It introduced a system of separate electorates for Muslims, allowing Muslim members to be elected exclusively by Muslim voters. This provision is often criticized for sowing the seeds of communal division in India.
For the first time, the act provided for the inclusion of Indians in the Executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha was appointed as the first Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, serving as the Law Member.
The act expanded the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both levels, empowering members to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions on the budget, although the budget as a whole was not subject to vote.

Additional Information

Lord Minto: Because of the introduction of communal representation, Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate in India.
Indian Council Act 1861: This act is an important landmark in the constitutional history of India as it initiated the process of decentralization by restoring legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It also introduced the Portfolio System, which was pioneered by Lord Canning in 1859.
Defence of India Act 1915: This was an emergency criminal law enacted during the First World War to curtail nationalist and revolutionary activities. It granted the government wide powers of preventive detention and internment without trial.
Elections: While the 1909 Act introduced an elective element, the system was indirect. The people elected members of local bodies, who then elected members of electoral colleges, who in turn elected members of the provincial legislatures.
The Morley-Minto Reforms aimed to placate the Moderates within the Indian National Congress while isolating the Extremists, following the Surat Split of 1907.

Important Points

The Simla Deputation of 1906, led by the Aga Khan, met Lord Minto to demand separate electorates for Muslims, which heavily influenced the drafting of the 1909 Act.
The Indian Council Act 1909 did not provide for responsible government or universal suffrage; the franchise was highly restricted based on property, education, and taxation qualifications.
Despite the increase in the number of members, the official majority was maintained in the Central Legislative Council, ensuring that the British government retained ultimate control over legislation.

131

Pusa Snow ball is a variety of :

((a))
Cabbage
((b))
Cauliflower
((c))
Knol Khol
((d))
Turnip

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Cauliflower

The correct answer is Cauliflower.

Key Points

Pusa Snowball (specifically the Pusa Snowball K-1 variety) is one of the most popular late-maturing varieties of Cauliflower (Brassica oleracea var. botrytis) grown in India.
It was developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), commonly known as the Pusa Institute, located in New Delhi. This organization is a premier national institute for agricultural research, education, and extension.
A major feature of this variety is its resistance to Black Rot (caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas campestris), which is a devastating disease for cruciferous crops. Hence, the option Cauliflower is correct.
The physical characteristics of Pusa Snowball include a very compact, snow-white curd that remains attractive even after maturity. The leaves are upright and outer leaves cover the curd, a process known as self-blanching, which protects the curd from direct sunlight and maintains its white color.
This variety is typically sown during the winter season (specifically from October to November in the plains of North India) and requires a cool climate for the best quality curd formation.

Additional Information

Cabbage (Brassica oleracea var. capitata):
Cabbage is characterized by a dense "head" of leaves. Popular IARI varieties include Pusa Drumhead, which is known for its large, flat heads and resistance to black leg disease.
It is an excellent source of Vitamin C and Vitamin K and is widely used in salads and cooked dishes across Asia and Europe.
Knol Khol (Brassica oleracea var. gongylodes):
Also known as Kohlrabi, this vegetable features a swollen, edible stem that grows above the ground.
Common varieties include White Vienna and Purple Vienna. It is rich in fiber and potassium. Knol Khol is widely consumed in Kashmir and West Bengal in India.
Turnip (Brassica rapa):
Turnip is a root vegetable. Pusa Kanchan is a famous variety developed by IARI, which is a hybrid between Turnip and Radish, containing high Vitamin A and Vitamin C.
Another variety, Pusa Sweti, is known for its very white, crisp, and mildly pungent roots, suitable for early sowing in August-September.
IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute):
Founded in 1905 at Pusa, Bihar, and later shifted to New Delhi in 1936 after an earthquake, it has been instrumental in the Green Revolution in India.
It develops high-yielding varieties (HYV) of crops like wheat, mustard, and various horticultural vegetables to ensure food security.

Important Points

Cultivation Requirements: Cauliflower requires a pH range of 5.5 to 6.5 for optimal growth. It is sensitive to Boron deficiency, which causes "browning" of the curd, and Molybdenum deficiency, which causes "whiptail" of the leaves.
Data and Facts: India is the second-largest producer of Cauliflower in the world, following China. It accounts for a significant portion of the global vegetable production.
Applications: Varieties like Pusa Snowball are preferred for dehydration and freezing because they retain their color and texture well during processing.

132

Immature stage of ________ pests is called Crub :

((a))
Hymenopteran
((b))
Lepidopteran
((c))
Coleopteran
((d))
Dipteran

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Coleopteran

The correct answer is Coleopteran.

Key Points

The immature stage of Coleopteran pests is commonly known as a grub. This stage represents the larval phase of the insect's life cycle.
Coleoptera is the largest order in the animal kingdom, comprising beetles and weevils. Members of this order undergo complete metamorphosis, which includes four distinct stages: egg, larva (grub), pupa, and adult.
A grub is typically characterized by a thick, fleshy, C-shaped body, often white or creamy in color, with a well-developed brown or orange head capsule and three pairs of thoracic legs.
In agricultural contexts, White Grubs (such as Holotrichia consanguinea) are significant soil-dwelling pests that cause extensive damage to the roots of crops like groundnut, sugarcane, and cereals. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Additional Information

Lepidopteran: This order includes butterflies and moths. Their immature larval stage is called a caterpillar. Caterpillars possess a cylindrical body with prolegs on the abdomen and are primarily known for feeding on foliage. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Dipteran: This order consists of true flies and mosquitoes. The larvae of many dipterans are referred to as maggots. These larvae are usually legless, worm-like, and lack a distinct head capsule. Hence, statement D is incorrect.
Hymenopteran: This order includes ants, bees, and wasps. While their larvae are sometimes generically called larvae or occasionally grubs in social insect colonies, the term "grub" is scientifically and specifically associated with the Coleoptera order in entomology. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Hemipteran: This order includes true bugs like aphids and cicadas. Unlike the others, they undergo incomplete metamorphosis, and their immature stage is called a nymph, which resembles a miniature version of the adult.

Important Points

Economic Impact of Grubs: Coleopteran grubs are particularly notorious for being subterranean pests. They inhabit the soil and feed on the underground parts of plants, leading to wilting and eventual death of the crop.
Identification Features: Grubs can be distinguished from other larvae by their scarabaeiform shape. They possess strong mandibles used for chewing tough plant tissues or organic matter in the soil.
Metamorphosis Types: Understanding the difference between Holometabolous (complete metamorphosis like beetles and flies) and Hemimetabolous (incomplete metamorphosis like grasshoppers) is crucial for identifying immature stages. The grub, caterpillar, and maggot are all terms specific to holometabolous insects.
Common Examples: The most famous example of a grub is the larva of the Scarabaeidae family (Scarabs), including the June beetle and the Japanese beetle, which are global agricultural pests.

133

Stress hardening in plants can be achieved by :

((a))
Abscisic Acid
((b))
Gibberellic Acid
((c))
Auxin
((d))
Cytokinin

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Abscisic Acid

The correct answer is Abscisic Acid.

Key Points

Abscisic Acid (ABA) is commonly known as the stress hormone because its production is stimulated by environmental stresses such as drought, water logging, salinity, and cold temperatures.
It plays a vital role in stress hardening, which is the process where plants develop tolerance to unfavorable conditions through physiological and biochemical adjustments.
One of its primary functions is to induce the closure of stomata in the leaves during water deficiency, thereby reducing transpiration and preventing desiccation. Hence, the option is correct.
ABA promotes seed dormancy and inhibits germination, ensuring that seeds only sprout when environmental conditions (like moisture and temperature) are optimal for survival.
It also triggers the synthesis of osmoprotectants and stress-related proteins (like LEA proteins) that protect the cellular machinery from damage during dehydration.

Additional Information

Gibberellic Acid (GA): This is a growth-promoting hormone that stimulates cell elongation, bolting (sudden stalk growth), and seed germination. It acts as an antagonist to Abscisic Acid by breaking dormancy.
Auxins (IAA): Primarily involved in apical dominance, phototropism, and geotropism. They are responsible for root initiation in cuttings and are widely used in agriculture as weedicides (e.g., 2,4-D).
Cytokinins: These hormones promote cytokinesis (cell division) and are found in high concentrations in root apices and developing shoot buds. They help in delaying leaf senescence (aging) by promoting nutrient mobilization.
Ethylene: A unique gaseous phytohormone that regulates fruit ripening and the abscission (shedding) of leaves and flowers.

Important Points

Discovery: Abscisic Acid was discovered in the 1960s and was initially named Abscisin II and Dormin before being standardized as ABA.
Transport: ABA is synthesized in chloroplasts and other plastids. It can be transported throughout the plant via both the xylem and phloem tissues.
Hardening Mechanism: During cold hardening, ABA helps in the accumulation of solutes that lower the freezing point of the cellular sap, preventing ice crystal formation within cells.
Signaling: ABA signaling involves PYR/PYL/RCAR receptors, which inhibit Protein Phosphatase 2C (PP2C), eventually activating SnRK2 kinases that regulate gene expression for stress response.

134

Central Food Technological Research Institute is located at :

((a))
Tamil Nadu
((b))
Mysuru
((c))
Hyderabad
((d))
Solan

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mysuru

The correct answer is Mysuru.

Key Points

The Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) is one of the premier research institutions in India, specifically dedicated to the field of food science and technology.
It was established on 21 October 1950 and is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
The institute is located in Mysuru (formerly Mysore), Karnataka. It is housed in the majestic Cheluvamba Mansion, which was built by the Wadiyar dynasty of the Kingdom of Mysore.
The main objective of CFTRI is to promote food security and improve the nutritional status of the Indian population through scientific research and industrial development.
The institute operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.

Additional Information

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR):
CSIR was established by the Government of India in September 1942 as an autonomous body.
It has a network of 37 national laboratories and 39 outreach centers across India.
The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio President of CSIR.
Mysuru (The Location):
Mysuru is known as the Cultural Capital of Karnataka and is famous for its rich history and heritage.
It is situated at the foothills of the Chamundi Hills and is roughly 140 kilometers from the capital city, Bengaluru.
Apart from CFTRI, the city is home to other significant organizations like the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) and the Defense Food Research Laboratory (DFRL).
Major Functions of CFTRI:
The institute focuses on post-harvest technology, food engineering, and food safety.
It provides consultancy services to food industries and develops low-cost technologies for food processing and storage.
It offers academic programs, including an M.Sc. Food Technology and Ph.D. research, affiliated with the University of Mysore.

Important Points

Research Centres: While the headquarters is in Mysuru, CFTRI maintains regional resource centers in Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Lucknow to cater to regional industrial needs.
Inventions: The institute is credited with several innovations, such as the development of Amul baby food (from buffalo milk) and protocols for storage and transport of various tropical fruits.
Director: The current leadership is headed by a Director; for instance, Dr. Sridevi Annapurna Singh has been a notable figure leading the institute.
Global Recognition: CFTRI is recognized by international bodies like the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for its contribution to nutrition and food science.

135

Rice inflorescence is known as :

((a))
Panicle
((b))
Raceme
((c))
Spike
((d))
Capitulum

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Panicle

The correct answer is Panicle.

Key Points

The inflorescence of the Rice plant (Oryza sativa) is technically known as a panicle. It is a complex, branched structure located at the terminal end of the culm.
A panicle consists of a central rachis that supports primary branches. These primary branches can further divide into secondary branches, which bear the spikelets.
The spikelet is the basic unit of the rice inflorescence. In rice, each spikelet typically contains a single fertile floret surrounded by protective structures called the lemma and palea.
The emergence of the panicle from the sheath of the flag leaf is a process called heading. This stage is crucial for the reproductive cycle of the crop.
The panicle structure allows for the efficient distribution of pollen and support for the developing grains (caryopsis) until harvest.

Additional Information

Raceme: In a raceme, the main axis continues to grow (indeterminate growth) and bears pedicellate (stalked) flowers in an acropetal order. This is commonly seen in Mustard (Brassica) and Radish.
Spike: A spike is similar to a raceme, but the flowers are sessile, meaning they lack a stalk and are attached directly to the rachis. This is the characteristic inflorescence of Wheat (Triticum aestivum) and Barley.
Capitulum (Head): This is a highly condensed inflorescence where the peduncle is flattened into a receptacle that bears numerous small, sessile florets. It is the hallmark of the Asteraceae family, including Sunflower (Helianthus annuus) and Marigold.
Cyme: Unlike the racemose types mentioned above, in a cyme, the main axis terminates in a flower, limiting further growth. This is seen in plants like Jasmine and Solanum.

Important Points

Pollination: Rice is primarily a self-pollinated crop. The anthers release pollen within the floret or shortly after it opens, a process called anthesis, which usually occurs in the morning.
Rice Taxonomy: Rice belongs to the Poaceae (Gramineae) family. It is one of the most important staple foods globally, especially in Asia.
Environmental Needs: Rice cultivation requires high humidity, prolonged sunshine, and an assured water supply. In India, it is the primary Kharif crop, sown during the monsoon season.
Fruit Type: The fruit of rice is a Caryopsis, a type of simple dry fruit where the seed coat is fused with the pericarp.
Yield Components: The number of panicles per unit area, the number of spikelets per panicle, and the grain weight are the three primary components that determine the final yield of a rice crop.

136

Downward movement of nutrients and salts from the root zone with the water is called :

((a))
Infiltration
((b))
Leaching
((c))
Percolation
((d))
Seepage

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Leaching

The correct answer is Leaching.

Key Points

Leaching refers to the downward movement of nutrients and dissolved salts from the root zone of the soil as water moves through the soil profile. Hence, option B is correct.
This process occurs when the amount of water (from rainfall or irrigation) entering the soil exceeds its field capacity, causing the excess liquid to drain into deeper layers or the groundwater table.
It results in the removal of essential plant nutrients such as Nitrogen (N), Potassium (K), and Magnesium (Mg), which can lead to reduced soil fertility and poor crop yields.
Leaching is also used as a beneficial practice in reclamation of saline soils, where excess salts are intentionally washed out to make the land suitable for agriculture.
The intensity of leaching is highly dependent on the soil texture; for instance, sandy soils experience much higher rates of nutrient loss compared to clay soils due to larger pore spaces.

Additional Information

Infiltration: This is the process by which water on the ground surface enters the soil. It is the transition of water from the surface into the upper soil layer and is measured by the infiltration rate (e.g., mm/hour). Hence, option A is incorrect.
Percolation: This term describes the vertical movement of water through saturated soil layers under the influence of gravity. While leaching involves the transport of solutes, percolation refers specifically to the movement of the water itself. Hence, option C is incorrect.
Seepage: It is the slow movement of water through porous media, such as soil or rock, often occurring laterally or horizontally. It is commonly observed in the banks of canals, dams, and tanks. Hence, option D is incorrect.
Factors Influencing Water Movement: The rate of these processes is governed by soil porosity, hydraulic conductivity, organic matter content, and the presence of vegetation cover.

Important Points

Environmental Impact: Excessive leaching of nitrate-nitrogen from chemical fertilizers can lead to the contamination of aquifers, causing health hazards such as Methemoglobinemia (Blue Baby Syndrome).
Leaching Fraction (LF): This is a numerical value representing the ratio of the amount of water that passes through the root zone to the total amount of irrigation water applied. It is used to manage soil salinity.
Soil Horizons: In the process of soil formation, the E horizon (Eluviation) is the layer where maximum leaching occurs, transporting minerals down to the B horizon (Illuviation).
Nutrient Management: To minimize leaching losses, farmers use slow-release fertilizers, split-application methods, and cover crops to retain nutrients in the upper soil layers.

137

Parshall flume is used for the measurement of :

((a))
Wind Velocity
((b))
Water Flow
((c))
Soil Erosion
((d))
Relative humidity

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Water Flow

The correct answer is Water Flow.

Key Points

A Parshall flume is a specifically designed hydraulic structure used primarily for the measurement of flow rate (discharge) in open channels such as irrigation canals or sewer lines.
This device was developed and standardized by Ralph L. Parshall of the U.S. Soil Conservation Service in the year 1922 at Colorado State University.
It operates based on the principle of critical flow or the Venturi effect, where the water is accelerated through a contracted throat section, allowing for an accurate calculation of the flow rate by measuring the water level (head) at a specific point.
The Parshall flume is preferred for its self-cleaning properties; the high velocity of water through the throat prevents the deposition of sediment, sand, or debris, making it ideal for wastewater and untreated water. Hence, Option B is correct.
It is designed to handle a wide range of flows with relatively low head loss compared to traditional weirs, ensuring that the water level upstream does not rise excessively.

Additional Information

Wind Velocity: This is measured using an instrument called an Anemometer. Common types include cup anemometers and sonic anemometers, which are used in meteorology to determine wind speed and direction. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
Soil Erosion: This refers to the displacement of the upper layer of soil. It is measured using erosion pins, runoff plots, or sediment traps to quantify the loss of topsoil in tonnes per hectare per year. Hence, Option C is incorrect.
Relative Humidity: This is the amount of moisture in the air compared to what the air can hold at that temperature. It is measured using a Hygrometer or a Sling Psychrometer and is expressed as a percentage (%). Hence, Option D is incorrect.
Structure of Parshall Flume: It consists of three main components: a converging inlet section, a throat section with a downward-sloping floor, and a diverging outlet section.
Applications: Parshall flumes are widely used in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs), Industrial effluent monitoring, agricultural irrigation, and stormwater management systems.
Accuracy: When installed and maintained correctly, a Parshall flume provides an accuracy of ±3% to ±5% for free-flow conditions.

Important Points

Submerged Flow: If the downstream water level rises enough to retard the flow through the flume, it enters a state of submerged flow, which requires a second head measurement in the throat to calculate the corrected flow.
Materials: These flumes are typically constructed from Fiberglass (FRP), Stainless Steel, or Concrete, depending on the corrosive nature of the fluid and the location of the installation.
Size Range: Parshall flumes come in standard sizes ranging from 1 inch to 50 feet in throat width, capable of measuring flows from 0.005 cubic feet per second (cfs) to over 3,000 cfs.

138

Lines connecting points of equal wind velocities are called :

((a))
Isoclines
((b))
Isodemic
((c))
Isotherm
((d))
Isotachs

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Isotachs

The correct answer is Isotachs.

Key Points

Isotachs are defined as lines on a meteorological map or synoptic chart that connect points having the same wind speed or velocity at a given time or for a given period.
These lines are primarily used by meteorologists to identify and locate jet streams, which are narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere, typically found at altitudes of 30,000 to 50,000 feet. Hence, Option D is correct.
In weather forecasting, the spacing of isotachs indicates the wind gradient; closely packed lines signify a rapid change in wind speed over a short distance, often associated with strong frontal systems.
The term finds its etymological origin in the Greek words 'isos', meaning equal, and 'tachos', meaning speed, which directly describes its function in climatology.
Analysis of isotachs is essential for aviation safety, as it helps pilots and air traffic controllers identify areas of potential turbulence and high-velocity wind shears.

Additional Information

Isotherm: These are lines drawn on a map connecting points that have the same temperature. They are fundamental in thermal mapping and help in identifying air masses and isothermal layers in the stratosphere. Hence, Option C is incorrect.
Isocline: In geophysics, these are lines connecting points on the Earth’s surface where the magnetic dip or inclination is equal. In cartography and civil engineering, it can also refer to lines of equal slope. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
Isobar: These are lines that connect points of equal atmospheric pressure. They are vital for identifying high-pressure cells (anticyclones) and low-pressure systems (cyclones), which dictate global weather patterns.
Isohyet: This is a line on a map connecting points that receive the same amount of rainfall or precipitation during a specific year, month, or day.
Isodemic: This term is generally used in demography or social sciences to represent lines of equal population density or distribution across a country or region. Hence, Option B is incorrect.

Important Points

Anemometer: This is the primary instrument used to measure wind velocity. The data collected from various weather stations by this device is used to plot isotachs on surface maps.
Knots: The standard unit of measurement for wind speed in international aviation and nautical navigation is the knot. 1 knot is equal to 1.852 kilometers per hour or approximately 0.514 meters per second.
Beaufort Scale: Created in 1805 by Francis Beaufort, this empirical measure relates wind speed to observed conditions at sea or on land, ranging from 0 (calm) to 12 (hurricane force).
Wind Direction: While isotachs measure speed, isogons are the lines that connect points of equal wind direction. Both are used together to provide a complete picture of atmospheric motion.
Pressure Levels: In the upper atmosphere, isotachs are often analyzed at specific numerical values of pressure, such as the 300 mb or 250 mb levels, to track the Polar Jet Stream.

139

Non-edible plants suitable for Bio-diesel is :

((a))
Castor
((b))
Jatropha
((c))
Oil Palm
((d))
Sunflower

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Jatropha

The correct answer is Jatropha.

Key Points

Jatropha curcas is a flowering plant in the spurge family, Euphorbiaceae, and is the most widely recognized non-edible plant used for the production of biodiesel. Hence, Option B is correct.
The seeds of the Jatropha plant contain approximately 30% to 40% oil by weight, which can be extracted and processed into a high-quality fuel that serves as a substitute for petroleum diesel.
Castor (Ricinus communis) is also a non-edible plant, but its oil is primarily utilized in industrial lubricants, paints, and medicinal applications rather than being the primary source for biodiesel in large-scale government programs. Hence, while non-edible, it is not the standard answer for biodiesel in this context.
Oil Palm is a major source of edible oil used globally in food processing and cosmetics; although it can be used for fuel, its classification as an edible plant makes it incorrect in this context. Hence, Option C is incorrect.
Sunflower is a prominent edible oilseed crop used mainly for cooking and nutrition due to its high unsaturated fat content. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Biodiesel Production: It is produced through a chemical process called transesterification, which involves reacting vegetable oil or animal fat with an alcohol (usually methanol) in the presence of a catalyst to produce methyl esters.
Advantages of Jatropha: This plant is drought-resistant and can grow in marginal lands or wastelands where other crops cannot survive. This ensures that biodiesel production does not compete with food security.
Environmental Impact: Biodiesel is biodegradable and carbon-neutral. The carbon dioxide released during combustion is offset by the CO2 absorbed by the plants during their growth. It also contains no sulfur, reducing the emission of sulfur dioxide.
Global Producers: While Jatropha is native to Mexico and Central America, it is now grown extensively in India, Africa, and Southeast Asia for renewable energy projects.

Important Points

National Policy on Biofuels (2018): The Government of India aimed to reach 20% ethanol blending in petrol and 5% biodiesel blending in diesel by 2030. This policy promotes the use of non-edible oilseeds like Jatropha and Karanja.
Other Non-edible Sources: Apart from Jatropha, other plants suitable for biodiesel include Karanja (Pongamia pinnata), Neem (Azadirachta indica), and Mahua (Madhuca indica).
Cetane Number: Biodiesel from Jatropha typically has a high cetane number (around 51), indicating excellent ignition quality in compression-ignition engines.
Economic Benefits: Large-scale cultivation of Jatropha on degraded land provides employment opportunities for rural communities and reduces a country's dependency on crude oil imports.

140

FAI stands for :

((a))
Female Association of India
((b))
Food Association of India
((c))
Fertiliser Association of India
((d))
Farmers Association of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Fertiliser Association of India

The correct answer is Fertiliser Association of India.

Key Points

FAI stands for the Fertiliser Association of India, which is a premier national-level representative body of the fertilizer industry in India.
It was established in the year 1955 as a non-profit and non-trade statutory organization to promote the scientific use of fertilizers.
The association is headquartered in New Delhi and represents fertilizer manufacturers, distributors, importers, and equipment suppliers.
Its primary objective is to ensure food security in India by improving agricultural productivity through the balanced and efficient use of plant nutrients.
FAI acts as a vital link between the industry and the Government of India, specifically the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Additional Information

The Fertilizer Industry in India:
India is the second-largest consumer of fertilizers in the world after China.
The industry witnessed a massive boom following the Green Revolution in the 1960s, which necessitated the high consumption of chemical fertilizers like Urea, DAP (Diammonium Phosphate), and NPK complexes.
The Government of India provides significant subsidies on fertilizers to make them affordable for farmers, ensuring stable crop yields.
Balanced Fertilization:
The FAI actively promotes the NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium) ratio, ideally recommended as 4:2:1 for Indian soil conditions.
Excessive use of Nitrogen (mostly through Urea) has led to soil degradation in various parts of India, and FAI works to educate farmers on soil health.

Important Points

Publications and Data:
FAI publishes the Indian Journal of Fertilizers, a monthly publication that provides technical and economic information regarding the agricultural sector.
It also maintains comprehensive Fertiliser Statistics, which is the most authentic source of data on production, imports, and consumption of fertilizers in India since 1955.
Global Recognition:
FAI is a member of the International Fertilizer Association (IFA), which helps in aligning Indian standards with global best practices in nutrient management.
The association organizes an Annual Seminar every year in December, which is attended by national and international experts to discuss challenges in the fertilizer and agriculture sectors.

141

Which of the following can be used both as pulse and as oilseed ?

((a))
Tur
((b))
Guar
((c))
Soybean
((d))
Chana

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Soybean

The correct answer is Soybean.

Key Points

Soybean (Glycine max) is unique among crops as it is classified as both a pulse and an oilseed because of its high protein and oil content. Hence, the correct answer is Soybean.
It belongs to the legume family and is a significant source of plant-based protein (approximately 40%) and edible oil (approximately 20%).
In India, Soybean is primarily grown as a Kharif crop, mainly during the monsoon season from June to October.
Madhya Pradesh is known as the "Soya Bowl" of India, contributing the highest share of production, followed by Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
Globally, the USA, Brazil, and Argentina are the leading producers, with India ranking among the top five producers in the world.

Additional Information

Tur (Pigeon Pea):
Tur, also known as Arhar, is one of the most important pulse crops in India.
It is a Kharif crop that requires a warm climate and is largely consumed as Dal.
While it is rich in protein, it is not used for commercial oil extraction. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Guar (Cluster Bean):
Guar is a legume crop primarily grown in arid regions like Rajasthan and Haryana.
It is used as fodder, green manure, and for the extraction of Guar Gum, which has high industrial value in petroleum and food processing.
It is not classified as a primary oilseed or human pulse in this context. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Chana (Chickpea):
Chana is the most important pulse crop in India, accounting for nearly 40-50% of total pulse production.
It is a Rabi crop (sown in winter) and is a major source of protein for the vegetarian population.
Like Tur, it does not contain enough lipid content to be used as an oilseed. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Important Points

Climatic Requirements: Soybean requires an average temperature of 26°C to 32°C and rainfall between 60 cm to 120 cm for optimal growth.
Nitrogen Fixation: As a legume, Soybean plants have root nodules containing Rhizobium bacteria, which help in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into the soil, thereby improving soil fertility.
Commercial Applications: The oil extracted is used for cooking and industrial purposes, while the de-oiled cake (DOC) or soymeal is a high-protein animal feed exported globally from India.
Nutritional Value: It contains essential amino acids, vitamins, and minerals, making it a staple in tofu, soy milk, and textured vegetable protein (TVP) production.

142

Which of the following is called king of Coarse Cereals ?

((a))
Maize
((b))
Bajra
((c))
Sorghum
((d))
Ragi

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Sorghum

The correct answer is Sorghum.

Key Points

Sorghum, commonly known as Jowar in India, is widely recognized as the King of Coarse Cereals due to its extensive cultivation area and high production volume among all coarse grains.
It is an essential C4 plant known for its high photosynthetic efficiency and remarkable drought resistance, making it a staple crop in semi-arid and arid regions across Asia and Africa.
In the Indian agricultural context, it is a versatile crop grown during both Kharif and Rabi seasons, with leading production coming from states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
Nutritionally, Sorghum is highly valued as it contains approximately 10.4% protein, 72.6% carbohydrates, and 1.9% fat, providing significant energy and dietary fiber to the population.
It serves a dual purpose in the rural economy, being used as a staple food for humans and as a high-quality green or dry fodder for livestock.

Additional Information

Maize (Zea mays): Frequently referred to as the Queen of Cereals, it possesses the highest genetic yield potential among all cereal crops. It is widely used for poultry feed, starch production, and increasingly for bio-fuel (ethanol) manufacturing.
Bajra (Pearl Millet): This crop is the most heat-tolerant of all millets and is predominantly grown in the sandy soils of Rajasthan and Gujarat. It is exceptionally rich in iron and zinc.
Ragi (Finger Millet): A staple in South India, particularly Karnataka, it is famous for its extremely high calcium content (about 344 mg per 100g). It has a low glycemic index, making it beneficial for individuals with diabetes.
Nutri-cereals: Recognizing their superior nutritional profile, the Government of India officially notified millets as Nutri-cereals in April 2018 to encourage their consumption and cultivation.

Important Points

The United Nations General Assembly declared the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets (IYM) following a proposal initiated by India to promote global food security and nutrition.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world, contributing nearly 20% of global production and 80% of Asia’s production.
Coarse cereals are considered climate-resilient crops as they require 25% to 30% less water than crops like sugarcane or paddy and can thrive in low-fertility soils without heavy chemical fertilizers.
Other minor millets include Kodo Millet, Barnyard Millet, and Little Millet, which are also gaining popularity due to their gluten-free nature and high antioxidant properties.

143

Akiochi disease in rice is due to :

((a))
$H_{2}S$ toxicity
((b))
Zinc deficiency
((c))
Copper deficiency
((d))
Nitrogen deficiency

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

$H_{2}S$ toxicity

The correct answer is H₂S toxicity.

Key Points

Akiochi disease, also known as Autumn Decline, is a physiological disorder in rice (Oryza sativa) primarily caused by Hydrogen Sulfide (H₂S) toxicity in degraded paddy soils. Hence, statement A is correct.
In healthy submerged soils, active iron reacts with H₂S to form insoluble ferrous sulfide, which is harmless to the plant. However, in iron-deficient or degraded soils, the free H₂S gas accumulates to toxic levels.
The toxicity leads to the inhibition of root respiration by disrupting the cytochrome oxidase enzyme system, which severely impairs the uptake of nutrients such as potassium and silica.
Zinc deficiency is the cause of Khaira disease in rice, characterized by rust-colored or brownish spots on the leaves, rather than Akiochi. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Copper deficiency in rice leads to reduced pollen viability and chlorosis of the leaf tips, but it does not cause the specific symptoms associated with Akiochi. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
Nitrogen deficiency typically causes a general yellowing or chlorosis of the older leaves and stunted growth due to poor protein synthesis. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Khaira Disease: This is a major nutritional disorder in rice caused by Zinc deficiency. It was first identified by Dr. Y.L. Nene in 1966 at the G.B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology in Pantnagar, India. Symptoms appear within 2 to 3 weeks of transplanting.
H₂S Toxicity Mechanism: When paddy fields remain continuously flooded, anaerobic conditions prevail. Sulfate-reducing bacteria convert sulfates into sulfides. If the soil lacks active iron (often found in sandy or peaty soils), H₂S remains free and poisons the root system.
Soil Management: To prevent Akiochi, farmers often apply iron-rich soil or ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃) to the fields. Improving soil drainage and aeration helps in oxidizing sulfides back into sulfates.
Nitrogen Management: Nitrogen is the most critical macronutrient for rice. It is often applied in the form of Urea or Ammonium sulfate. In lowland rice, Nitrogen is best applied in the reduced zone to prevent denitrification and leaching.

Important Points

Geographic Origin: The term Akiochi originated in Japan, where the disease was widely observed in degraded soils that were low in bases and active iron.
Time of Occurrence: The symptoms usually manifest during the reproductive stage of the rice crop, typically in the late summer or autumn season, leading to a sudden decline in yield.
Root Symptoms: Roots affected by H₂S toxicity appear dark brown or black and eventually rot, emitting a rotten egg odor characteristic of Hydrogen Sulfide.
Impact on Yield: Akiochi can reduce rice grain weight and percentage of filled grains, leading to a significant loss in agricultural productivity if soil amendments are not used.

144

The concept of photoperiodism for flowering was put forward by :

((a))
Blackman
((b))
Watson
((c))
Lysenko
((d))
Garner and Allard

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Garner and Allard

The correct answer is Garner and Allard.

Key Points

The concept of photoperiodism was first discovered and put forward by W.W. Garner and H.A. Allard in the year 1920. Hence, the statement regarding Garner and Allard is correct.
They conducted their pioneering research at the Bureau of Plant Industry in Maryland, USA, while working with a mutant variety of tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) known as Maryland Mammoth.
Photoperiodism is defined as the developmental response of plants and other organisms to the relative lengths of light and dark periods within a 24-hour cycle.
They observed that the Maryland Mammoth tobacco plant failed to flower during the summer regardless of its size, but flowered profusely in winter when the days were shorter.
Their work established that the duration of light (and more importantly, the continuous duration of darkness) is the critical factor that triggers the transition from vegetative growth to flowering in plants.

Additional Information

Classification of Plants based on Photoperiodism: Based on the discovery by Garner and Allard, plants are broadly classified into three categories:
Short-Day Plants (SDP): These plants require a light period shorter than a critical duration to flower (e.g., tobacco, soybean, rice, and chrysanthemum).
Long-Day Plants (LDP): These plants require a light period longer than a critical duration to flower (e.g., wheat, radish, spinach, and beet).
Day-Neutral Plants (DNP): These plants do not have a specific photoperiod requirement and can flower in any day length (e.g., tomato, cucumber, sunflower, and cotton).
Role of Phytochromes: Flowering in response to light is mediated by a specialized pigment called phytochrome, which exists in two interconvertible forms: Pr (red-light absorbing) and Pfr (far-red light absorbing).
Site of Perception: The leaves are the primary site where the photoperiodic stimulus is perceived. Upon receiving the appropriate stimulus, a hormonal substance (hypothetically called florigen) migrates to the shoot apices to induce flowering.

Important Points

Blackman: He is famous for proposing the Law of Limiting Factors in 1905, which states that when a biological process is conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate factors, the rate of the process is limited by the pace of the slowest factor (often applied to photosynthesis). Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Watson: James Watson, along with Francis Crick, is renowned for discovering the double-helix structure of the DNA molecule in 1953. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Lysenko: Trofim Lysenko was a Soviet biologist known for the concept of vernalization, which is the induction of flowering by exposure to low temperatures (cold treatment), rather than light duration. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Garner and Allard's Legacy: Their discovery revolutionized agriculture and horticulture, allowing farmers to control flowering times by manipulating artificial light, leading to year-round production of flowers and crops.

145

Which is an abiotic component of ecosystem ?

((a))
Humus
((b))
Bacteria
((c))
Plants
((d))
Fungi

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Humus

The correct answer is Humus.

Key Points

Abiotic components refer to the non-living physical and chemical elements in the Ecosystem. These factors influence the ability of living organisms to survive and reproduce.
Humus is a dark, organic material that forms in Soil when plant and animal matter decays. Although it is derived from once-living organisms, it is classified as an Abiotic component because it is a non-living chemical constituent of the soil environment that provides Nutrients. Hence, Humus is the correct answer.
Bacteria are single-celled Microorganisms that play a vital role as Decomposers in the nutrient cycle. Since they are living organisms, they are considered Biotic components. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Plants are Autotrophs or Producers that convert solar energy into chemical energy through Photosynthesis. They are the foundation of most food chains and are living entities. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms including yeasts, molds, and mushrooms. Like bacteria, they function as Saprotrophs or Decomposers in an ecosystem. Being living organisms, they belong to the Biotic category. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Ecosystem Structure: The term Ecosystem was first coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935. It consists of two main branches: Biotic (living) and Abiotic (non-living) factors that interact to form a stable system.
Types of Abiotic Factors:
Climatic Factors: These include Sunlight, Temperature, Precipitation (Rainfall), Humidity, and Wind.
Edaphic Factors: These relate to the Soil, including pH, Mineral content, Soil Texture, and Humus.
Inorganic Substances: Elements like Carbon, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Phosphorus, and Sulfur which circulate in the ecosystem via Biogeochemical Cycles.
Biotic Factor Classification:
Producers (Autotrophs): Primarily green Plants and Algae that produce food.
Consumers (Heterotrophs): Animals that depend on producers for energy, categorized into Herbivores, Carnivores, and Omnivores.
Decomposers (Saprotrophs): Organisms like Bacteria and Fungi that break down dead organic matter into simpler Inorganic substances.
Characteristics of Humus: Humus is highly Colloidal in nature and serves as a reservoir of nutrients. It improves Soil Structure, increases Water-holding Capacity, and prevents Soil Erosion. It is formed through the process of Humification.

Important Points

Interaction: No Biotic component can survive without Abiotic factors. For instance, Plants (Biotic) require Sunlight and Water (Abiotic) for growth.
Limiting Factors: Abiotic factors often act as Limiting Factors that determine the Population Growth and distribution of species in different Geographical Locations. For example, Temperature dictates the types of flora and fauna found in Tropical vs. Arctic regions.
Data on Soil: Healthy agricultural soil typically contains about 5% Organic Matter (including Humus), which is essential for global Food Security.

146

Pyramid of __________ is always upright :

((a))
Energy
((b))
Number
((c))
Biomass
((d))
Soil

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Energy

The correct answer is Energy.

Key Points

The Pyramid of Energy is a graphical representation of the amount of energy trapped per unit time and area in different trophic levels of a food chain. It is always upright and can never be inverted. Hence, option A is correct.
This phenomenon is explained by the 10 percent Law, proposed by Raymond Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, only 10% of the total energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, while the remaining 90% is consumed in metabolic activities or lost as heat.
The base of the pyramid is always occupied by producers (green plants), which have the highest amount of energy. As energy flows to primary consumers, secondary consumers, and top carnivores, the available energy progressively decreases.
The Pyramid of Number can be inverted in certain cases, such as a parasitic food chain where a single large tree supports many birds and parasites. Hence, statement B is not always upright.
The Pyramid of Biomass can also be inverted, particularly in aquatic ecosystems where the biomass of producers (phytoplankton) is often less than the biomass of consumers (fish). Hence, statement C is not always upright.
The term Pyramid of Soil is not a standard ecological pyramid used to describe energy or matter flow in ecosystems. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Ecological Pyramids: These are also known as Eltonian Pyramids, named after Charles Elton who developed the concept in 1927. They illustrate the trophic structure and function of an ecosystem.
Pyramid of Biomass: This measures the dry weight of organic matter at each level. While upright in terrestrial ecosystems like forests or grasslands, it is inverted in oceans because phytoplankton have a very short lifespan and high turnover rate despite their rapid reproduction.
Pyramid of Numbers: This shows the total number of individual organisms at each level. It is upright in a grassland ecosystem but can be spindle-shaped in a forest ecosystem where one large producer supports many herbivores.
Thermodynamics in Ecosystems: The energy flow follows the First Law of Thermodynamics (energy is neither created nor destroyed) and the Second Law of Thermodynamics (energy is dissipated as heat during transfer, increasing entropy).

Important Points

Unidirectional Flow: Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional, meaning it moves from the Sun to producers and then to consumers. It never flows back to the previous trophic level.
Trophic Levels: Organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain based on their feeding relationship. T1 represents Producers, T2 represents Herbivores, T3 represents Primary Carnivores, and T4 represents Top Carnivores.
Limitations: Ecological pyramids do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels, nor do they accommodate saprophytes (decomposers) in the diagram, despite their vital role in the ecosystem.

147

Indo - Burma region is one of the :

((a))
Best tourist place
((b))
Best Agro-forestry place
((c))
Biodiversity Hot-spots
((d))
International tropical rainforests

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Biodiversity Hot-spots

The correct answer is Biodiversity Hot-spots.

Key Points

The Indo-Burma region is officially designated as one of the 36 Biodiversity Hotspots in the world, characterized by significant levels of biodiversity that are under threat from human activities.
This region spans a vast area of approximately 2,373,000 square kilometers in South-east Asia. It includes parts of North-eastern India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam, and the southern part of China.
To be classified as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics (species found nowhere else) and it must have lost at least 70% of its original primary vegetation.
The Indo-Burma hotspot is known for its remarkable endemism, particularly among freshwater turtles, birds, and mammals. Several large mammals have been discovered in this region as recently as the 1990s, such as the Saola and the Large-antlered Muntjac.
In the context of India, this region covers the states of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh south of the Brahmaputra River.

Additional Information

Biodiversity Hotspots in India:
India is home to four of the world's biodiversity hotspots: The Himalayas, The Western Ghats, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland (which includes the Nicobar Islands).
The Himalayas: This hotspot includes the entire Himalayan mountain range and covers countries like India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Tibet.
The Western Ghats: Stretching along the western coast of the Indian peninsula, it is famous for its high rainfall and evergreen forests.
Sundaland: This region covers South-east Asia and, in India, specifically includes the Nicobar group of islands.
Conservation International (CI): This is the organization that currently maintains the official list of global biodiversity hotspots. The concept was originally pioneered by environmental scientist Norman Myers in 1988.
Flora and Fauna: The Indo-Burma region is estimated to host about 13,500 vascular plant species, of which approximately 7,000 are endemic. It is also a critical habitat for migratory birds and diverse amphibian populations.

Important Points

Threats to the Region: The Indo-Burma region faces severe threats from deforestation, illegal wildlife trade, agricultural expansion (such as rubber and oil palm plantations), and infrastructure development like hydroelectric dams.
Endemic Species: Notable endemic species in this hotspot include the Grey-shanked Douc, Tonkin Snub-nosed Monkey, and various species of Gibbons.
Ecological Importance: These hotspots cover only about 2.4% of the Earth's land surface but support more than 50% of the world’s plant species and nearly 43% of bird, mammal, reptile, and amphibian species as endemics.
Yearly Updates: The number of recognized hotspots has increased over the years as more research is conducted, growing from the original 10 identified by Norman Myers to the current 36 globally recognized areas.

148

Study of typical behaviour of Organisms in their natural habitats is called :

((a))
Euthenics
((b))
Eugenics
((c))
Ethology
((d))
Ethnology

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Ethology

The correct answer is Ethology.

Key Points

Ethology is defined as the scientific and objective study of animal behavior, specifically focusing on how organisms behave in their natural habitats rather than in a controlled laboratory environment.
It is a sub-discipline of Zoology that explores behavior as an evolutionary adaptive trait, helping organisms survive and reproduce in their specific ecological niches.
The foundations of modern ethology were laid by pioneers such as Konrad Lorenz, Nikolaas Tinbergen, and Karl von Frisch, who collectively received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1973 for their discoveries concerning organization and elicitation of individual and social behavior patterns.
Ethologists focus on observing behaviors such as migration, mating rituals, foraging, and social communication to understand how these actions have evolved over generations.
This field distinguishes between proximate causes (how a behavior occurs, such as hormonal triggers) and ultimate causes (why a behavior occurs in terms of evolutionary benefit).

Additional Information

Euthenics:
This is the study of the improvement of the human race by regulating environmental factors such as education, health, nutrition, and housing.
Unlike genetics-based approaches, it posits that better living conditions and external influences can enhance the well-being and efficiency of a population.
Eugenics:
A controversial field of study and social movement that aims to improve the genetic quality of a human population through selective breeding or genetic manipulation.
Historically, it gained prominence in the early 20th century but became widely discredited after World War II due to its association with discriminatory and unethical practices.
Ethnology:
A branch of Anthropology that compares and analyzes the characteristics of different peoples and the relationships between them.
It involves the study of cultures, social structures, languages, and customs of various ethnic groups across the world.

Important Points

Fixed Action Patterns (FAPs): A fundamental concept in Ethology referring to a series of unlearned, innate behaviors that are essentially unchangeable and, once triggered by a sign stimulus, are carried to completion.
Imprinting: Discovered by Konrad Lorenz, this refers to a form of learning occurring at a critical period early in an animal's life where it forms a strong attachment to a specific individual or object.
Innate vs. Learned Behavior: Ethology emphasizes that many behaviors are genetically programmed (instincts), while others are acquired through experience and interaction with the environment.
Natural Habitat Significance: Studying organisms in their natural habitat is vital because laboratory settings often suppress complex behaviors or omit the ecological pressures (like predators or food scarcity) that shape how an organism actually lives.

149

As per the census 2011 in Indian States the Tribal Population is largest in :

((a))
Assam and Tripura
((b))
Kerala and Tamil Nadu
((c))
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
((d))
Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

According to the Census 2011, Madhya Pradesh has the largest population of Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India, with a total of 15,316,784 individuals, which accounts for 21.1% of the state's total population.
Chhattisgarh follows with a significant tribal population of 7,822,902, constituting approximately 30.6% of the state's population. This central Indian region is the core hub for major tribal groups like Gonds and Bhils. Hence, Option C is correct.
In Assam, the Scheduled Tribe population is about 3,884,371 (approx 12.4% of the state), and in Tripura, it is 1,166,813 (approx 31.8%). While high in percentage, their absolute numbers are lower than Central India. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Kerala (484,839) and Tamil Nadu (794,697) have relatively small Scheduled Tribe populations in comparison to the national average and northern/central counterparts. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Uttar Pradesh (1,134,273) and Uttarakhand (291,903) also have much smaller tribal populations when compared to the vast tribal belts of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

National Statistics: As per Census 2011, the total Scheduled Tribe population in India is 104,545,716, which represents 8.6% of the country's total population.
Highest Concentration (Percentage): Among the states, Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes at 94.4%, followed by Nagaland at 86.5%. Among Union Territories, Lakshadweep leads with 94.8%.
States with No ST Population: According to the 2011 Census, there are no Scheduled Tribes notified in Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry.
Major Tribal Groups: The Bhil tribe is the largest tribal group in India as of the 2011 data, primarily residing in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan, followed by the Gond tribe.
Sex Ratio: The sex ratio for Scheduled Tribes in India is 990, which is significantly better than the national average of 943.

Important Points

Constitutional Definition: Article 366 (25) of the Constitution of India defines Scheduled Tribes as such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of the Constitution.
Article 342: This article provides the procedure for the President to specify the tribes or tribal communities in a state or UT through a Public Notification.
Decadal Growth: The Scheduled Tribe population in India witnessed a decadal growth rate of 23.7% between the 2001 and 2011 censuses.
Literacy Rate: The literacy rate among Scheduled Tribes improved from 47.1% in 2001 to 58.96% in 2011, though it remains lower than the national average.
Five Largest States by ST Population: In descending order of population, they are Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Gujarat.

150

As per the census 2011 the State having the highest density of population is :

((a))
Kerala
((b))
Tamil Nadu
((c))
Uttar Pradesh
((d))
West Bengal

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

West Bengal

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

As per the Census 2011, among the given options, West Bengal is the state with the highest population density, recording 1,028 persons per square kilometer.
Historically, West Bengal was the most densely populated state in the 2001 Census, but it was surpassed by Bihar in the 2011 data. Since Bihar is not in the options, West Bengal is the highest among those listed.
Kerala has a population density of 860 persons per square kilometer, ranking as the third most densely populated state in India after Bihar and West Bengal.
Uttar Pradesh has a density of 829 persons per square kilometer. While it is the most populous state in India by total numbers, its large land area results in a lower density compared to West Bengal.
Tamil Nadu recorded a density of 555 persons per square kilometer in 2011, which is lower than the National Average of high-density states but higher than the overall Indian average.
Hence, the correct answer is West Bengal.

Additional Information

Highest Overall: Bihar is the most densely populated state in India as per Census 2011, with a density of 1,106 persons per sq km.
Lowest Overall: Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density in India, with only 17 persons per square kilometer, due to its difficult mountainous terrain.
Union Territories: Among all States and Union Territories, Delhi has the highest density at 11,320 persons per square kilometer, followed by Chandigarh at 9,258.
National Average: The average population density of India as a whole was recorded at 382 persons per square kilometer in 2011, an increase from 325 in 2001.
Growth Factors: High density in the Indo-Gangetic plains (including West Bengal and Bihar) is largely due to fertile soil, water availability, and flat terrain which support high levels of agriculture and urbanization.

Important Points

Census 2011: The 2011 Census was the 15th census of India since 1872 and the 7th census after Independence.
Definition: Population Density is defined as the number of persons per unit area. It is a critical metric for government planning, resource allocation, and infrastructure development.
Administrative Authority: The census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The 2011 Census was led by C. Chandramouli.
Data Trends: Between 2001 and 2011, the population density of India showed a decadal growth of approximately 17.5%.

151

A __________ species is a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat or environmental cause.

((a))
Keystone
((b))
Flagship
((c))
Indicator
((d))
Umbrella

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Flagship

The correct answer is Flagship.

Key Points

A Flagship species is a species chosen to represent an environmental cause, such as an ecosystem in need of conservation or a habitat under threat.
These species are typically charismatic megafauna that possess high public appeal and can stimulate conservation awareness and funding for broader environmental initiatives.
The primary function of a flagship species is to act as an ambassador or icon, making them effective marketing tools for organizations like the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
Common examples of flagship species include the Giant Panda, the African Elephant, and the Bengal Tiger, which help in garnering support for the protection of their entire biological community.

Additional Information

Keystone Species:
A Keystone species is one that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance.
The concept was introduced by Robert T. Paine in 1969. If a keystone species is removed, the ecosystem often experiences a dramatic shift or collapse.
Examples include Sea Otters, which control sea urchin populations to protect kelp forests, and Wolves in Yellowstone National Park.
Indicator Species:
An Indicator species is an organism whose presence, absence, or well-being reflects the specific environmental conditions of its habitat.
They are used as a proxy to monitor ecosystem health, such as pollution levels, climate change, or habitat fragmentation.
Lichens are a classic example used to detect air quality (specifically sulfur dioxide levels), while amphibians often indicate water quality due to their permeable skin.
Umbrella Species:
Umbrella species are species selected for making conservation-related decisions because protecting these species indirectly protects the many other species that make up the ecological community of its habitat.
They usually have a large habitat requirement or wide range, such as the Northern Spotted Owl or the Amur Tiger in Russia.
The application of the umbrella species concept helps in land management and the creation of wildlife corridors.

Important Points

The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), founded in 1961, famously adopted the Giant Panda as its logo and flagship species, which remains one of the most recognized icons in global conservation.
In India, the Bengal Tiger was designated the National Animal in 1973 under Project Tiger, serving as a powerful flagship for the protection of tropical evergreen forests and mangroves.
While Keystone and Indicator species are defined by their biological roles and ecological functions, the Flagship species is primarily defined by its socio-economic and cultural impact on human perception.
Selection features for flagship species often include anthropomorphic traits, cultural significance, and endangered status as per the IUCN Red List data.

152

The Triangular shaped age-sex pyramid with a wide base indicates that :

((a))
The region has smaller population of lower age group due to low birth rate
((b))
The region has zero population of lower age group with low birth rate
((c))
The region has larger populations in lower age group due to the high birth rate
((d))
The region has large population of higher age group due to low birth rate

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The region has larger populations in lower age group due to the high birth rate

The correct answer is The region has larger populations in lower age group due to the high birth rate.

Key Points

An age-sex pyramid, also known as a population pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population, which forms the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing.
A triangular-shaped age-sex pyramid with a wide base specifically indicates that the region has larger populations in the lower age groups (children and adolescents). This is primarily driven by a high birth rate in that specific region or country. Hence, statement C is correct.
In this type of pyramid, the age structure tapers rapidly toward the top, suggesting that while many children are being born, there is also a relatively high mortality rate in older age brackets, or simply that the younger generations significantly outnumber the elderly.
The wide base is characteristic of developing countries where fertility rates remain high. Examples of countries with this expansive population structure include Nigeria, Bangladesh, and Mexico.
Statement A suggests a smaller population in the lower age group due to a low birth rate, which would result in a narrow base rather than a wide one. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
Statement B claims a zero population of the lower age group, which is demographically impossible for any living society and does not describe a triangular pyramid. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
Statement D describes a large population of higher age groups and a low birth rate, which describes a declining or constrictive pyramid (like Japan), not a triangular one. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Types of Population Pyramids: There are generally three types of pyramids classified by their shapes: Expansive (triangular), Stationary (bell-shaped), and Constrictive (narrow base).
Expansive Pyramids: These feature a broad base representing high fertility. This indicates a young population with a high growth rate.
Stationary Pyramids: These are bell-shaped and taper towards the top. This indicates that birth rates and death rates are nearly equal, leading to a stable population size. Australia is a classic example.
Constrictive Pyramids: These have a narrow base and a thicker middle/top section. This indicates a declining birth rate and an aging population. Japan and several European countries show this trend.
Demographic Transition: The triangular pyramid usually represents the second stage of the Demographic Transition Model, where death rates begin to fall due to improved healthcare, but birth rates remain high.
Dependency Ratio: In a triangular pyramid, the youth dependency ratio is typically very high. This means the working-age population (usually 15-59 years) must support a large number of children (0-14 years).
Applications: Governments use these indices and graphs to plan for future needs such as schools, healthcare for children, jobs for the upcoming labor force, and housing.

Important Points

Sex Ratio: The pyramid also displays the sex ratio by splitting the graph into males (usually on the left) and females (usually on the right). Any asymmetry can indicate gender-specific migration, war, or sex-selective practices.
Numerical Value: In a typical expansive pyramid, the percentage of the population under the age of 15 can often exceed 30-40% of the total population.
Demographic Dividend: If a country with a triangular pyramid manages to reduce its birth rate, it may eventually experience a demographic dividend, where the proportion of productive working-age individuals increases relative to dependents.
Yearly Trends: According to the United Nations Population Division, world population trends are shifting from expansive to stationary as global fertility rates decline towards the replacement level of 2.1.

153

Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always :

((a))
Unidirectional
((b))
Bidirectional
((c))
Multidirectional
((d))
No Specific direction

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Unidirectional

The correct answer is Unidirectional.

Key Points

The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional, meaning it moves in a single, non-reversible direction from the Sun to producers and then through various levels of consumers. Hence, option A is correct.
Energy enters the biological world primarily through photosynthesis carried out by autotrophs (green plants), which capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.
Once energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, it cannot flow back; for instance, energy transferred from herbivores to carnivores cannot be sent back to the herbivores or the plants. Hence, option B is incorrect.
According to the 10 percent law, proposed by Raymond Lindeman in 1942, only about 10% of the energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next higher level, while the rest is lost as heat during respiration or metabolic processes.
Because energy is continuously lost as heat at every step, it does not move in multiple directions or cycles like nutrients (carbon, nitrogen, etc.) do. Hence, options C and D are incorrect.

Additional Information

Laws of Thermodynamics:
The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be transformed. In an ecosystem, solar energy is transformed into chemical energy by plants.
The Second Law of Thermodynamics explains that during every energy transformation, some energy is dispersed as heat (increasing entropy), which is why energy decreases as we move up the food chain.
Trophic Levels:
T1 (Producers): Includes green plants and algae that fix energy.
T2 (Primary Consumers): These are herbivores like rabbits or grasshoppers that feed on plants.
T3 (Secondary Consumers): These are carnivores like frogs or snakes that eat herbivores.
T4 (Tertiary Consumers): Top predators like lions or hawks.
Ecological Pyramids:
The Pyramid of Energy is a graphical representation of energy flow. Unlike pyramids of numbers or biomass, the Pyramid of Energy is always upright because energy is lost at each successive trophic level.

Important Points

Nutrient Cycling vs. Energy Flow: While energy flow is unidirectional, the movement of nutrients (minerals) is cyclic. Decomposers (fungi and bacteria) break down organic matter to release nutrients back into the soil, which are then reused by producers.
Primary Source: The Sun is the ultimate source of energy for almost all ecosystems on Earth, except for deep-sea hydrothermal vent communities which rely on chemosynthesis.
Efficiency: Due to low energy transfer efficiency, most food chains are limited to 4 or 5 trophic levels, as there isn't enough energy left to support more levels.

154

Community Development Programme was initiated primarily to :

((a))
bring development among people by raising literacy rate
((b))
bring about over all development of the village through self help
((c))
increasing the control of the masses over the locally available resources
((d))
increase agricultural production through mechanized farming

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

bring about over all development of the village through self help

The correct answer is bring about over all development of the village through self help.

Key Points

The Community Development Programme (CDP) was launched in India on October 2, 1952, coinciding with the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. It was the first major initiative for rural transformation after independence.
The primary objective of the program was to bring about the overall development of the village by encouraging self-help and the active participation of the masses in the development process. Hence, statement B is correct.
While the program aimed to improve social education and literacy, it was not the sole primary objective; rather, it was a component of a much broader socio-economic development plan. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
The initiative focused on community collaboration and government assistance rather than merely increasing the legal or administrative control of the masses over resources. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
The program did aim to increase agricultural production by providing better seeds and fertilizers, but the primary focus was on general rural upliftment rather than specifically promoting mechanized farming as the main goal. Hence, statement D is incorrect.
Initially, the programme was started with 55 community projects across different parts of the country, covering about 16,500 villages and a population of over 12 million.

Additional Information

Administrative Structure: The CDP was organized at the Block level. A Block Development Officer (BDO) was appointed as the head, assisted by several extension officers and Village Level Workers (VLW), often called Gram Sevaks, who acted as the link between the government and the villagers.
International Support: The programme received significant financial and technical assistance from the United States of America through the Ford Foundation and under the Indo-US Operational Agreement of 1952.
Evolution of the Scheme: To support the CDP, the National Extension Service (NES) was launched in 1953 to provide the necessary administrative setup and technical personnel to the rural areas on a wider scale.
Key Activities: The programme's core functions included improving animal husbandry, irrigation, health and sanitation, housing, and rural communications like building roads.

Important Points

Evaluation and Impact: By 1957, the government appointed the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service.
Democratic Decentralization: The committee observed that the CDP had failed to evoke sufficient popular initiative. This led to the recommendation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system to ensure genuine democratic decentralization and local governance.
Historical Context: The CDP was part of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956), reflecting the government's top priority towards rural and agricultural development in a newly independent nation.

155

In view of Urbanization, India is considered a :

((a))
Highly Urbanized Country
((b))
Poorly Urbanized Country
((c))
High-Medium Urbanized Country
((d))
Medium-Poorly Urbanized Country

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Medium-Poorly Urbanized Country

The correct answer is Medium-Poorly Urbanized Country.

Key Points

According to the Census of India 2011, the level of urbanization in the country stands at 31.16%, which is relatively low compared to developed nations and the global average (which exceeds 50%). Hence, India is classified as a Medium-Poorly Urbanized Country.
Out of the total population of 121.02 crore in 2011, about 37.71 crore people reside in urban areas, while 83.37 crore (68.84%) live in rural areas.
The decadal growth rate of the urban population during 2001-2011 was 31.8%, while the rural population grew by 12.3%. This indicates a steady but not "high" pace of urban transition.
The classification of "Medium-Poorly" reflects that while India has one of the largest absolute urban populations in the world, the proportion of people living in cities remains lower than in many other emerging economies like China or Brazil.

Additional Information

Criteria for Urban Areas: In India, the Census defines an urban area based on two categories: Statutory Towns (municipalities, corporations, etc.) and Census Towns (population over 5,000, density at least 400 persons per sq. km, and 75% of male main workers in non-agricultural pursuits).
State-wise Urbanization: Goa is the most urbanized state with 62.2% of its population living in urban areas. Among larger states, Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized (48.4%), followed by Kerala (47.7%) and Maharashtra (45.2%).
Least Urbanized States: Himachal Pradesh has the lowest urbanization level at 10%, followed by Bihar (11.3%), Assam (14.1%), and Odisha (16.7%).
Union Territories: The National Capital Territory of Delhi and Chandigarh are the most urbanized UTs, with 97.5% and 97.25% urban populations, respectively, according to 2011 data.

Important Points

Future Projections: The National Commission on Population predicts that by the year 2036, approximately 38.6% of India’s population will live in urban areas. By 2050, more than 50% of Indians are expected to be urban dwellers.
Government Initiatives: To manage this transition, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs launched the Smart Cities Mission in 2015 to develop 100 cities with sustainable infrastructure.
AMRUT Scheme: The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in June 2015 to provide basic services (e.g. water supply, sewerage, urban transport) to households and build amenities in cities to improve the quality of life for all.
Economic Contribution: Despite the "Medium-Poorly" urbanization rate, urban areas contribute more than 60% of India’s GDP, highlighting the critical role of cities as engines of economic growth.

156

Which are the key areas in human development ?

((a))
Access to resources, health and education
((b))
Following agriculture and rural expansion
((c))
Tourism and Transport
((d))
Access to Religious activities

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Access to resources, health and education

The correct answer is Access to resources, health and education.

Key Points

Access to resources, health, and education are considered the three most critical areas of Human Development as they define the basic capabilities and freedoms available to individuals. Hence, Option A is correct.
Health: This is measured by Life Expectancy at Birth, which reflects the ability of a person to lead a long and healthy life. A higher life expectancy indicates better healthcare facilities, sanitation, and nutritional standards in a country.
Education: This dimension is measured through indicators like Mean Years of Schooling and Expected Years of Schooling. It represents the level of knowledge and the ability of a population to participate in the socio-economic progress of a nation.
Access to Resources: This is usually measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US Dollars. It determines the standard of living and the ability of individuals to meet their needs and desires.
Agriculture and rural expansion: While these are important for economic growth and food security, they are specific sectors of the economy rather than the fundamental pillars that define the broader concept of human development. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
Tourism and Transport: These are tertiary sector industries and infrastructure components that support development but are not the primary metrics used to measure human well-being or human capabilities. Hence, Option C is incorrect.
Access to Religious activities: While freedom of religion is a fundamental right in many democracies and contributes to cultural life, it is not a standardized metric for measuring the Human Development Index (HDI). Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Additional Information

The concept of Human Development was introduced by Dr. Mahbub ul Haq, a Pakistani economist, in 1990. He described it as development that enlarges people's choices and improves their lives.
Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen also contributed significantly to this field by emphasizing the Capability Approach, which focuses on what people are actually able to do and be.
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been publishing the Human Development Report (HDR) annually since 1990, ranking countries based on the Human Development Index (HDI).
The HDI is a composite index that ranges from 0 to 1. A value closer to 1 indicates a higher level of human development, while a value closer to 0 indicates a lower level.
In the Human Development Report 2023-24, Switzerland topped the global rankings, while India was ranked 134th out of 193 countries, falling in the Medium Human Development category.

Important Points

Apart from the core HDI, the UNDP also measures other indices such as the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI), which accounts for the distribution of achievements within a population.
The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is another critical measure that evaluates gender-based disparities in reproductive health, empowerment, and the labour market.
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is used to identify multiple deprivations at the household and individual level in health, education, and standard of living.
Four pillars of human development often discussed include Equity (equal access to opportunities), Sustainability (continuity of opportunities), Productivity (human resource investment), and Empowerment (freedom to choose).

157

Which one is the correct sequence of Indian States in descending order from the Urbanization point of view :

((a))
West Bengal, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu
((b))
Gujarat, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
((c))
Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal
((d))
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal.

Key Points

According to the Census 2011, the degree of urbanization is defined as the percentage of the urban population to the total population of a state or country.
Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized large state in India, with a significant 48.4% of its total population residing in urban areas. This makes it the leader in the descending sequence of the provided options. Hence, its primary position is correct.
Maharashtra follows in the sequence with an urbanization level of 45.2%. It contains the highest total number of urban dwellers in India, although its percentage is slightly lower than Tamil Nadu. Hence, its secondary position is correct.
Gujarat ranks third among the states listed, with an urbanization data value of 42.6%. The state has seen rapid industrial growth which contributes to its urban expansion. Hence, its third position is correct.
West Bengal has an urbanization level of approximately 31.9%. While it has major urban centers like Kolkata, a vast majority of its population still resides in rural areas compared to the other three states. Hence, its final position in the descending sequence is correct.
Therefore, the correct descending order from the urbanization point of view is Tamil Nadu (48.4%) > Maharashtra (45.2%) > Gujarat (42.6%) > West Bengal (31.9%).

Additional Information

Highest Urbanization: Excluding small states and Union Territories, Tamil Nadu leads, but if all states are considered, Goa is the most urbanized state in India with 62.2% urbanization.
Union Territories: Among Union Territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Chandigarh show the highest urbanization numerical values, reaching 97.5% and 97.25% respectively.
Lowest Urbanization: Himachal Pradesh is the least urbanized state in India according to Census 2011, with only 10% of its population living in urban regions, followed by Bihar at 11.3%.
National Average: As per the 2011 survey, the total urban population of India was 377 million, which constitutes 31.16% of the total population of the country.
Administrative Definitions: An urban area in India is defined by the Census as a location with a minimum population of 5,000, a population density of at least 400 per sq. km, and where at least 75% of the male main working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.

Important Points

Government Initiatives: To manage rapid urbanization, the Government of India launched the Smart Cities Mission in the year 2015 to improve infrastructure and sustainable land uses.
AMRUT Scheme: The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was also introduced in 2015 to provide basic services like water supply and sewerage to households in 500 cities.
Economic Impact: Urban centers in India contribute more than 60% of the country's GDP, highlighting the functions of cities as engines of economic growth.
Decadal Growth: Between the year 2001 and 2011, the urban population grew by 91 million, showing an increasing trend in migration from rural areas to urban locations for better employment and features of modern living.

158

A High growth rate of population is characterized by :

((a))
High birth and High death rate
((b))
High birth and low death rate
((c))
Low birth and low death rate
((d))
Low birth and high death rate

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

High birth and low death rate

The correct answer is High birth and low death rate.

Key Points

Population Growth Rate is determined by the difference between the Crude Birth Rate (CBR) and the Crude Death Rate (CDR) in a given year, excluding the effects of migration.
High birth and high death rate: This scenario typically results in a stationary or very slow population growth. It is characteristic of the first stage of the Demographic Transition Theory, where medical facilities are poor and mortality is high. Hence, option A is incorrect.
High birth and low death rate: A high growth rate, often termed a population explosion, occurs when the birth rate remains high due to social norms or lack of awareness, while the death rate falls significantly due to improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and nutrition. Hence, option B is correct.
Low birth and low death rate: This indicates a stabilized population or low growth rate, usually found in developed nations where literacy and urbanization are high. Hence, option C is incorrect.
Low birth and high death rate: This combination leads to a negative growth rate or population decline, which is rare but can occur during severe pandemics, natural disasters, or extreme economic collapse. Hence, option D is incorrect.

Additional Information

Demographic Transition Theory: Proposed by Warren Thompson in 1929 and further developed by Frank Notestein, it explains the transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops from an agrarian to an industrial economy.
The Year of Great Divide: In the context of India, the year 1921 is known as the Year of the Great Divide because, before this year, the population was unstable (sometimes decreasing), but after 1921, it showed a continuous and rapid increase.
Natural Growth Rate: It is calculated as (Birth Rate - Death Rate) / 10 to express it as a percentage. The Census 2011 of India recorded a decadal growth rate of 17.7%.
Total Fertility Rate (TFR): This refers to the average number of children a woman would have in her lifetime. According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) for 2019-21, India's TFR has declined to 2.0, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.

Important Points

Malthusian Theory: Thomas Robert Malthus, in his 1798 essay, argued that population grows geometrically (1, 2, 4, 8...) while food supply grows arithmetically (1, 2, 3, 4...), leading to eventual famine or war unless checked.
Replacement Level Fertility: This is the level of fertility at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next, usually estimated at 2.1 children per woman for most countries.
Population Density: In India, as per Census 2011, the population density was 382 persons per square kilometer, with Bihar being the most densely populated state.
National Population Policy (2000): This policy was launched with the objective of achieving a stable population by 2045, emphasizing voluntary and informed choice and target-free approach in family planning.

159

Which of the following trees is found in West Odisha, Chhattisgarh and on the eastern slopes of the Western ghats ?

((a))
Mulberry
((b))
Acacia
((c))
Palm
((d))
Euphorbia

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mulberry

The correct answer is Mulberry.

Key Points

Mulberry trees are a characteristic species of the Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests of India.
These forests are typically found in regions that receive an annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm.
The geographical distribution of Mulberry includes the foothills of the Himalayas, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and states like West Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
The Mulberry tree is of great economic importance as its leaves are the primary food source for silkworms (Bombyx mori), supporting the sericulture industry in states like Karnataka and West Bengal.
In these regions, the vegetation adapts to the seasonal availability of water, shedding leaves during the dry summer for about six to eight weeks to conserve moisture.

Additional Information

Acacia:
This genus belongs to the Tropical Thorn Forests, which are found in areas receiving less than 70 cm of rainfall.
Commonly found in North-Western India, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, and the semi-arid areas of the Deccan Plateau.
These plants have thorns and small leaves to minimize transpiration in arid and semi-arid climates.
Euphorbia:
Like Acacia, Euphorbia is a typical xerophytic plant found in Tropical Thorn Forests.
They are characterized by succulent stems to store water and are prevalent in the desert and semi-desert regions of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Palm:
Various species of Palms (such as Phoenix sylvestris) are found in dry deciduous or thorny patches.
While some palms grow in coastal areas, others are adapted to semi-arid zones where groundwater is accessible.

Important Points

Rainfall Pattern: The Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats lie in the rain-shadow area compared to the western slopes, receiving moderate rainfall (100-200 cm), which facilitates the growth of deciduous rather than evergreen trees.
Forest Cover: Chhattisgarh and Odisha are among the states with the highest forest density in India, dominated by Sal and Teak along with Mulberry and Kusum.
Biodiversity: The deciduous belt is the most widespread forest type in India, and it provides essential timber like Shisham, Sandalwood, and Mahua.
Government Classification: According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), the management of these forests is crucial for maintaining the ecological balance and supporting rural livelihoods through non-timber forest produce (NTFP).

160

The famous vallies of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu belong to :

((a))
Shiwalik range
((b))
Pir Panjal range
((c))
Dhaula Dhar range
((d))
Mahabharat range

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Pir Panjal range

The correct answer is Pir Panjal range.

Key Points

The famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra, and Kullu are located within the Lesser Himalayas, which is also known as the Himachal range. This region lies to the south of the Great Himalayas and north of the Shiwalik range.
The Kashmir Valley is a unique physiological feature situated between the Great Himalayas (specifically the Zanskar Range) and the Pir Panjal range. It is world-renowned for its scenic beauty, the Dal Lake, and its traditional houseboats.
The Kangra Valley and Kullu Valley are located in the state of Himachal Pradesh. The Kullu Valley is often referred to as the "Valley of Gods" and is situated along the banks of the Beas River.
The Lesser Himalayas or Himachal range is mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. It has an average altitude ranging between 3,700 and 4,500 metres and an average width of about 50 kilometres.
While the Pir Panjal range forms the longest and most important range of this section, the Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent features of the Lesser Himalayas.

Additional Information

Great Himalayas (Himadri): This is the northernmost and highest range, with an average height of 6,000 metres. It contains the world's highest peaks, such as Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
Shiwalik Range (Outer Himalayas): This is the southernmost range of the Himalayas with an altitude varying between 900 and 1,100 metres. It is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges.
Duns: These are longitudinal valleys lying between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks. Well-known examples include Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun.
Topography and Tourism: The Himachal range is well known for its hill stations. Major tourist destinations such as Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital, and Ranikhet are located in this range, attracting millions of visitors annually.

Important Points

Pir Panjal Range: It is the longest range of the Lesser Himalayas and extends from the Jhelum River to the upper Beas River for over 300 kilometres.
Dhaula Dhar Range: This range is prominently visible from the Kangra Valley and is known for its granite formations and snow-capped peaks.
Vegetation: The Lesser Himalayas are covered with dense forests of Pine, Deodar, Oak, and Rhododendron, which are vital for the local ecology and economy.
Geological Significance: The Himalayan ranges were formed during the Cenozoic Era due to the collision of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, a process that continues to cause seismic activity in the region today.

161

Which of the following country is larger than India in land area but smaller than Brazil ?

((a))
Canada
((b))
United States
((c))
Australia
((d))
China

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Australia

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

India is the 7th largest country in the world by land area, covering approximately 3.28 million sq km. It accounts for about 2.4% of the total geographical area of the globe.
Brazil is the 5th largest country in the world, with an area of about 8.51 million sq km. It is the largest country in both South America and the Southern Hemisphere.
Australia occupies the 6th position in the global ranking of countries by area, with approximately 7.69 million sq km. Because its area is greater than India (3.28 million) but less than Brazil (8.51 million), it perfectly fits the criteria of the question. Hence, the correct answer is Australia.
Canada is the 2nd largest country in the world, covering nearly 9.98 million sq km. Since it is significantly larger than Brazil, it does not satisfy the condition of being smaller than Brazil. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
The United States of America ranks as the 3rd or 4th largest country (depending on the inclusion of coastal and territorial waters), with an area of about 9.83 million sq km. This is larger than Brazil. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
China is either the 3rd or 4th largest country with an area of approximately 9.6 million sq km. Like the US and Canada, it is larger than Brazil. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Additional Information

India's Geographical Dimensions: India measures about 3,214 km from North to South and 2,933 km from East to West. It has a land frontier of 15,200 km and a total coastline of 7,516.6 km including island territories like Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep.
Brazil's Unique Features: Brazil is the only country in the world that has both the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn passing through it. It borders every South American country except Chile and Ecuador.
Australia as a Continent: Australia is often referred to as an "island continent" because it is surrounded by the Indian and Pacific Oceans. It is the smallest continent but the 6th largest country. Its vast interior is known as the Outback.
Russia's Dominance: Russia is the largest country in the world by a significant margin, spanning 17.1 million sq km. It covers one-eighth of Earth's inhabited land area and spans 11 time zones.

Important Points

List of Top 7 Countries by Area: The sequence of the largest countries is: (1) Russia, (2) Canada, (3) United States, (4) China, (5) Brazil, (6) Australia, and (7) India.
Demographic Comparison: While India is 7th in area, it is currently the 1st most populous country in the world as per UN reports in 2023-2024, surpassing China.
Linguistic and Cultural Diversity: Brazil is the largest Portuguese-speaking nation in the world, while Australia is predominantly English-speaking, and India is known for its massive linguistic diversity with 22 scheduled languages under the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Global Surface Area: India occupies only 2.4% of the world's land area but supports nearly 18% of the global population, highlighting the immense population density compared to countries like Australia or Canada.

162

Which of the following is not a tributary of the Indus ?

((a))
Gandak
((b))
Zaskar
((c))
Nubra
((d))
Shyok

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Gandak

The correct answer is Gandak.

Key Points

The Indus River is one of the most significant river systems in South Asia, originating in the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Mansarovar and flowing through India and Pakistan.
Gandak is a major river that flows through Nepal and India. It is a left-bank tributary of the Ganga River, not the Indus. It originates at an altitude of 7,620 metres in the Himalayas. Hence, Gandak is the correct answer as it is not a tributary of the Indus.
Zaskar (also known as Zanskar) is a prominent left-bank tributary of the Indus. It flows through the Ladakh region and meets the Indus at Nimmu. Hence, this statement/option is a tributary of the Indus.
Nubra is a tributary of the Shyok River, which is a major constituent of the Indus drainage system. It originates from the Siachen Glacier and flows through the Nubra Valley in Ladakh. Hence, this statement/option is part of the Indus river system.
Shyok is an important right-bank tributary of the Indus River. It originates from the Rimo Glacier and is often referred to as the "River of Death" due to its difficult terrain. Hence, this statement/option is a tributary of the Indus.

Additional Information

Indus River System: The river has a total length of approximately 3,180 kilometres. Its source is the Sengge Zangbo spring in the Kailash Range at an elevation of 5,182 metres. It eventually empties into the Arabian Sea near Karachi.
Major Tributaries: The primary Himalayan tributaries of the Indus in India include the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. Other significant tributaries in the Ladakh and Gilgit-Baltistan regions include the Gilgit, Gartang, Dras, and Shigar.
Gandak River Details: In Nepal, the river is known as the Narayani or Sapti Gandaki. It enters India at Valmiki Nagar in the West Champaran district of Bihar. It joins the Ganga at Sonepur near Patna. The river basin covers an area of about 46,300 square kilometres.
Indus Waters Treaty: This water-distribution treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, between India (Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru) and Pakistan (President Ayub Khan), brokered by the World Bank. It gives India control over the Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) and Pakistan control over the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab).

Important Points

Geographical Significance: The Indus is the backbone of Pakistan's agriculture and economy. In India, it is vital for the union territory of Ladakh and the states of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh (via its tributaries).
Glacial Sources: Most tributaries of the Indus are perennial, fed by snow and glaciers such as the Rimo Glacier for the Shyok and the Siachen Glacier for the Nubra.
Drainage Basin: The total drainage area of the Indus is estimated to be 1,165,000 square kilometres. Out of this, 321,289 square kilometres lie within the political boundaries of India.

163

Which of the following species can be considered as rare ?

((a))
Indian Rhino
((b))
Andaman Teal
((c))
Wild Asiatic buffalo
((d))
Asiatic Cheetah

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Wild Asiatic buffalo

The correct answer is Wild Asiatic buffalo.

Key Points

Rare species are those organisms with a small population in the world that may move into the endangered or vulnerable category if the negative factors affecting them continue to operate.
The Wild Asiatic buffalo (Bubalus arnee) is a classic example of a Rare species as its population is limited to specific pockets and faces threats from habitat loss and interbreeding. Hence, Option C is correct.
Indian Rhino is categorized as an Endangered species because it is in danger of extinction if the negative factors like poaching and habitat destruction are not checked. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
Andaman Teal is considered an Endemic species, meaning it is found only in a particular area, specifically the Andaman Islands, isolated by geographical barriers. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
Asiatic Cheetah is classified as an Extinct species in the context of India, as it was officially declared extinct in the country in the year 1952. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Additional Information

IUCN Classification: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) classifies species into different categories to prioritize conservation efforts globally.
Endangered Species: These are species in danger of extinction. Examples include the Lion-tailed macaque, Blackbuck, and Indian wild ass. Their survival is difficult if negative factors continue.
Vulnerable Species: These species have a population that has declined to levels from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future. Examples include the Blue sheep, Asiatic elephant, and Gangetic dolphin.
Endemic Species: These are species found only in some particular areas usually isolated by natural or geographical barriers. Examples include the Nicobar pigeon and Mithun in Arunachal Pradesh.
Extinct Species: These are species which are not found after searches of known or likely areas where they may occur. Examples include the Pink head duck and the Asiatic Cheetah.

Important Points

Wild Asiatic Buffalo: It is mostly found in the wetlands and swamps of Assam, specifically in Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park. It is estimated that India holds the largest population of this species.
Conservation Laws: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 was enacted by the Government of India to protect plant and animal species. It provides for the protection of endangered and rare species by banning hunting and providing legal protection to their habitats.
Factors of Depletion: The main reasons for the decline of rare and endangered species in India include habitat destruction, poaching, environmental pollution, and forest fires.
Rare Species Examples: Other examples of rare species mentioned in biological records include the Himalayan Brown Bear, Desert Fox, and the Hornbill.

164

The largest oil field of Iraq is :

((a))
Al-Faw
((b))
Halt Sulaiman
((c))
Kirkuk
((d))
Khor - al - Amaya

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Kirkuk

The correct answer is Kirkuk.

Key Points

Kirkuk is a super-giant oil field located in Northern Iraq and is the largest and most significant oil field in that region, discovered in 1927. Hence, option C is correct.
Al-Faw is a strategic peninsula and a major oil terminal on the Persian Gulf, primarily used for export and logistical operations rather than extraction. Hence, option A is incorrect.
Khor-al-Amaya is a deep-water offshore oil loading terminal located in the Persian Gulf and is not classified as an oil field itself. Hence, option D is incorrect.
Halt Sulaiman does not correspond to any major or internationally recognized oil field within the primary hydrocarbon regions of Iraq. Hence, option B is incorrect.
The Kirkuk field is managed by the North Oil Company (NOC), which is a state-run company under the Ministry of Oil in Iraq.

Additional Information

Rumaila Oil Field: While Kirkuk is the largest in the north, the Rumaila field, located in southern Iraq near Basra, is the largest oil field in the country and the third largest in the world.
Oil Reserves: Iraq possesses the fifth-largest proven crude oil reserves in the world, with approximately 145 billion barrels as of 2023, making up a significant portion of global energy security.
Economic Impact: The oil sector is the backbone of the Iraqi economy, contributing approximately 90% of the government's revenue and the vast majority of its foreign exchange earnings.
OPEC Membership: Iraq is a founding member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which was established during the Baghdad Conference in September 1960.
Major Infrastructure: The Kirkuk–Ceyhan Oil Pipeline is the largest crude oil export line in Iraq, transporting oil from the Kirkuk field to the port of Ceyhan in Turkey.

Important Points

Discovery and History: The Kirkuk field was discovered at the Baba Gurgur site on October 14, 1927, by the Turkish Petroleum Company, marking the first major discovery of oil in Iraq.
Production Statistics: Commercial production at the field began in 1934, and it has since produced billions of barrels, with remaining recoverable reserves estimated at over 9 billion barrels.
Geographical Distribution: Most of Iraq's oil production is concentrated in the Basra region in the south and the Kirkuk region in the north, with other major fields including West Qurna, Majnoon, and Zubair.
Strategic Port Projects: The Grand Faw Port, currently under development in Al-Faw, aims to become one of the largest ports in the Middle East, further enhancing Iraq's export capabilities.

165

Silicon used in computer industry is obtained from :

((a))
bauxite
((b))
quartz
((c))
cuprite
((d))
magnetite

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

quartz

The correct answer is quartz.

Key Points

Silicon (Si) is a chemical element with atomic number 14. It is the second most abundant element in the Earth's crust, accounting for approximately 28% of its mass.
In the computer industry, silicon is the primary material used for manufacturing semiconductors, microchips, and integrated circuits due to its unique electrical properties.
High-purity silicon is obtained primarily from quartz, which is a crystalline form of silicon dioxide (SiO2). It is widely available in sand and sandstone.
The extraction process involves the chemical reduction of quartz with carbon (in the form of coal, coke, or wood chips) in an electric arc furnace at temperatures exceeding 1900°C.
To be used in electronics, the resulting metallurgical-grade silicon must be further refined into electronic-grade silicon (EGS), achieving a purity level of 99.9999999% (often referred to as "nine nines").

Additional Information

Bauxite: This is the primary ore of aluminum. It consists of hydrous aluminum oxides like gibbsite and diaspore. Australia, Guinea, and China are the leading producers of bauxite globally. It is not used for silicon production.
Cuprite: It is a copper oxide mineral (Cu2O) and a minor ore of copper. Known for its dark red crystals, it is often found in the oxidized zones of copper lodes. It has no application in the computer chip industry.
Magnetite: This is a magnetic iron ore with the chemical formula Fe3O4. It is one of the most important sources of iron for the steel industry and contains approximately 72.4% iron by mass.
Semiconductor Properties: Silicon is classified as a metalloid, meaning it possesses properties of both metals and non-metals. Its ability to act as an insulator or a conductor when doped with impurities like boron or phosphorus makes it vital for transistors.

Important Points

Czochralski Process: This is a common method used to grow single-crystal silicon from a melt. This process is essential to create the silicon wafers used in the VLSI (Very Large Scale Integration) manufacturing.
Silicon Valley: Located in California, USA, this region became the global hub for technology and innovation, specifically named after the silicon-based transistors and chips developed there starting in the 1950s.
Photovoltaic Cells: Apart from computers, crystalline silicon derived from quartz is the foundational material for solar panels, converting sunlight into electricity.
Global Production: While silicon is abundant everywhere, China is currently the largest producer of ferrosilicon and silicon metal in the world as of 2023.

166

Taiga forests are found in which of the following countries ?

((a))
Brazil
((b))
Australia
((c))
Russia
((d))
India

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Russia

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

Taiga, also known as the boreal forest or snow forest, is the world's largest terrestrial biome, characterized by its coniferous forests.
It is found in the high northern latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere, specifically between 50°N and 70°N.
Russia contains the largest portion of the world's taiga, primarily spanning across the vast region of Siberia. This forest belt plays a crucial role in the country's ecology and economy. Hence, Option C is correct.
The vegetation in these forests is dominated by needle-leaf trees such as pine, spruce, fir, and larch, which are well-adapted to survive extreme subarctic temperatures.
The climate of the taiga is marked by long, cold winters that can last up to six to nine months, and short, mild summers.

Additional Information

Brazil: Located in the equatorial and tropical regions, Brazil is famous for the Amazon Rainforest, which is a tropical evergreen forest. It does not have a taiga biome due to its hot and humid climate. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
Australia: This continent features a wide variety of biomes including deserts, tropical savannas, and temperate eucalyptus forests, but it lacks the high-latitude subarctic environment necessary for taiga. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
India: While India has temperate coniferous forests and alpine vegetation in the Himalayan region at high altitudes, it does not possess the circumpolar taiga belt found in Northern Eurasia and North America. Hence, Option D is incorrect.
Global Distribution: Apart from Russia, the taiga is also found extensively in Canada, Alaska (USA), Sweden, Finland, and Norway.
Fauna: The biome is home to mammals like the Siberian tiger, moose, reindeer, brown bears, lynx, and wolves, many of which have adapted with thick fur or hibernation patterns.

Important Points

Soil Characteristics: The soil in the taiga is known as podzol. It is acidic, nutrient-poor, and often frozen (permafrost) in some northern areas, which limits the diversity of plant life.
Carbon Sink: The boreal forests act as a massive carbon sink, storing more carbon than tropical and temperate forests combined, making them vital for global climate regulation.
Economic Importance: These forests are the primary source of softwood used in the timber, paper, and pulp industries globally. Russia is a leading exporter of these materials.
Environmental Threats: The taiga is increasingly threatened by wildfires, insect infestations, and global warming, which causes permafrost to melt and releases methane into the atmosphere.

167

India lies entirely in the Northern hemisphere. The northernmost latitude of India is :

((a))
37°6'N
((b))
8°4'N
((c))
68°7'N
((d))
97°25'N

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

37°6'N

The correct answer is 37°6'N.

Key Points

India is a vast country located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, specifically in the south-central part of the continent of Asia.
The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N. The latitude 37°6'N marks the northernmost point of the country, which is near Indira Col in the Karakoram range. Hence, option A is correct.
The latitude 8°4'N is the southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland, located at Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu. Hence, option B is incorrect.
The longitudinal extent of India is between 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The values 68°7' and 97°25' mentioned in the options refer to the west-east extent (longitudes), not the northern latitude. Hence, options C and D are incorrect.
Due to this great latitudinal extent of nearly 30 degrees, there is a wide variation in the climate and duration of day and night from south to north.

Additional Information

Geographical Area: India covers a total land area of approximately 3.28 million square kilometers, accounting for about 2.4% of the total geographical area of the world. It is the 7th largest country globally by land area.
Indira Point: While the mainland ends at 8°4'N, the southernmost point of the Indian Union is Indira Point (formerly Pygmalion Point), located in the Great Nicobar Island at the latitude of 6°45'N. It was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
Tropic of Cancer: The Tropic of Cancer at 23°30'N latitude passes through the center of India, dividing the country into the subtropical and tropical zones. It passes through 8 states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Standard Meridian: To avoid time confusion across its 2,933 km east-west span, India follows Indian Standard Time (IST) based on the Standard Meridian of 82°30'E, which passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.

Important Points

North-South Distance: The actual distance between the northernmost point (Indira Col) and the southernmost point of the mainland (Kanyakumari) is approximately 3,214 kilometers.
East-West Distance: The distance between the westernmost point (Ghuar Moti in Gujarat) and the easternmost point (Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh) is approximately 2,933 kilometers.
Boundaries: India has a land frontier of about 15,200 kilometers and a total coastline of 7,516.6 kilometers, including the Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep island groups.
Hemisphere: Because India is located north of the Equator and east of the Prime Meridian, it is technically situated in the North-Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth.

168

Administrative headquarter of Lakshadweep is :

((a))
Kavaratti
((b))
Laccadive
((c))
Amindivi
((d))
Minicoy

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Kavaratti

The correct answer is Kavaratti.

Key Points

Kavaratti serves as the administrative headquarters and the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. It is located on an island of the same name and is the most developed island in the archipelago. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Lakshadweep is India's smallest Union Territory, consisting of 36 islands with a total land area of approximately 32 square kilometers. It is situated in the Arabian Sea, off the coast of Kerala.
The islands were earlier known as the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands. This name was officially changed to Lakshadweep on November 1, 1973, by an Act of Parliament.
Kavaratti is famous for its pristine white sand beaches, calm lagoons, and the Ujra Mosque, which is a significant religious site on the island. It is also the base for the Lakshadweep Administration, including the office of the Administrator.
The connectivity to the headquarters is primarily through Kochi (Cochin) in Kerala, which is about 404 kilometers away by sea. The Agatti Aerodrome is the nearest airport providing air links to the islands.

Additional Information

Laccadive: This refers to the central group of islands in the archipelago. Historically, it was one of the three main clusters that formed the territory before the 1973 renaming. It is not an administrative headquarter but a subgroup. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
Amindivi: This represents the northernmost group of islands, including Amini, Kadmat, Kiltan, Chetlat, and Bitra. These islands were the first to come under British administration in the region. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
Minicoy: It is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep and the second-largest island in the territory. It is unique due to its culture and language, Mahl, which is closely related to the language spoken in the Maldives. It is separated from the rest of the islands by the 9-degree channel. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
Judicial Jurisdiction: The entire Union Territory of Lakshadweep falls under the jurisdiction of the Kerala High Court located in Ernakulam.
Demographics: The majority of the population follows Islam, and the primary language spoken across the islands is Malayalam, except in Minicoy.

Important Points

Formation: The Union Territory was formed in 1956 following the States Reorganisation Act. Before this, the islands were part of the Malabar District of the Madras Presidency.
Geography and Ecology: The islands are coral islands (atolls) and are known for their rich biodiversity, including coral reefs, sea turtles, and a variety of marine life. The Pitti Island is a designated bird sanctuary.
Economic Activities: The main occupations of the people are fishing and coconut cultivation. Tourism is an emerging sector, though it is strictly regulated to protect the fragile ecological balance of the islands.
Channels: The 8-degree channel separates the Minicoy Island from the Maldives, while the 11-degree channel passes between the Amindivi Islands and the Laccadive Islands.
Governance: As a Union Territory, it is governed by an Administrator appointed by the President of India under Article 239 of the Constitution.

169

Which one among the following cities never gets the vertical rays of the Sun all through the year ?

((a))
Chennai
((b))
Mumbai
((c))
Kolkata
((d))
Srinagar

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Srinagar

The correct answer is Srinagar.

Key Points

The vertical rays of the Sun can only be experienced in the regions lying between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). This region is known as the Torrid Zone or the Tropical Zone.
Srinagar is located at a latitude of approximately 34.08° N. Since this location is well north of the Tropic of Cancer, the Sun's rays will always hit this city at an angle and never vertically. Hence, Srinagar is the correct answer.
Chennai is situated at a latitude of about 13.08° N. Because it lies within the tropics (south of 23.5° N), it receives vertical rays of the Sun twice every year as the Sun moves between the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Mumbai is located at approximately 19.07° N latitude. As it is positioned south of the Tropic of Cancer, it also experiences the Sun directly overhead twice a year during the northward and southward movement of the Sun. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Kolkata is located at a latitude of 22.57° N. It is situated very close to the Tropic of Cancer but still falls within the tropical zone. Therefore, it receives vertical rays of the Sun at least once a year, specifically around the Summer Solstice. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Additional Information

Tropic of Cancer in India: The Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) is a significant latitude that passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Cities located north of these states (like Delhi, Shimla, and Srinagar) will never experience the Sun at its zenith.
Earth's Axial Tilt: The Earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to its orbital plane. This tilt is the primary reason why the vertical rays of the Sun migrate between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn throughout the year, causing seasons.
Summer Solstice: Occurring on June 21, this is the day when the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. This marks the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.
Winter Solstice: Occurring on December 22, the Sun's vertical rays fall on the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). On this date, the Northern Hemisphere experiences its shortest day, and cities like Srinagar receive the most slanted rays of the Sun.
Equinoxes: On March 21 and September 23, the Sun is directly overhead at the Equator. On these two days, all places on Earth experience nearly equal day and night.

Important Points

Latitudinal Impact: The further a city is from the Equator, the greater the angle at which the Sun's rays hit the surface. Srinagar, being in the temperate zone, only receives slanted rays, which results in a cooler climate compared to tropical cities.
Solar Intensity: Vertical rays concentrate solar energy over a smaller area, leading to higher temperatures. This explains why Chennai and Mumbai have higher average temperatures throughout the year compared to Srinagar, which is located in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Shadow Formation: In cities like Srinagar, a vertical pole will always cast a shadow at noon. In contrast, in tropical cities, there are specific days (Zero Shadow Days) when the Sun is directly overhead, and no shadow is cast by a vertical object at local noon.

170

Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states ?

((a))
Punjab
((b))
Rajasthan
((c))
Haryana
((d))
Odisha

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line that is at an angle of 23.50 degrees North of the Equator. It passes through the middle of India, dividing the country into two climatic zones.
In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Rajasthan: The Tropic of Cancer passes through the southern tip of this state. It specifically traverses through the Banswara and Dungarpur districts. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Punjab: This state is located in the northwestern part of India and lies significantly to the north of the Tropic of Cancer. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
Haryana: Situated in North India, Haryana is located above the latitude of the Tropic of Cancer. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
Odisha: This state is located on the eastern coast of India but lies to the south of the Tropic of Cancer. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

Geographical Significance: The Tropic of Cancer represents the northernmost point on Earth where the Sun can be directly overhead at noon. This occurs during the Summer Solstice around June 21 each year.
River Crossing: The Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh and then in Gujarat.
Proximity of Cities: Udaipur city in Tripura is considered the nearest city to the Tropic of Cancer in India. However, Ranchi, the capital of Jharkhand, is the only state capital located almost exactly on the Tropic of Cancer.
Standard Meridian Intersection: The Standard Meridian of India (82.5° E) and the Tropic of Cancer intersect at Koriya district in the state of Chhattisgarh.
Global Context: Outside of India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 16 countries, 3 continents, and 6 water bodies. Countries include Mexico, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, China, and Bangladesh.

Important Points

Climate Impact: The areas south of the Tropic of Cancer in India fall under the Tropical Zone, experiencing higher average temperatures, while the areas to the north fall under the Sub-tropical or Temperate Zone.
Distance in India: The total length of the Tropic of Cancer passing through India is approximately 2,678 km. The maximum length is covered in Madhya Pradesh, while the minimum length is in Rajasthan.
Latitudinal Extent: India's main landmass extends between latitudes 8°4' N and 37°6' N. Because the Tropic of Cancer is at 23°30' N, it almost bisects the country into two halves.
State-wise Distribution: In West Bengal, the line passes through Purulia, Bankura, Bardhaman, and Nadia districts. In Gujarat, it passes through Kutch, Surendranagar, Ahmedabad, Mehsana, and Sabarkantha.

171

Which one of the following states do not share land border with Myanmar?

((a))
Meghalaya
((b))
Manipur
((c))
Mizoram
((d))
Nagaland

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Meghalaya

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

The India-Myanmar border spans a total length of approximately 1,643 kilometers (1,021 miles) across the northeastern part of India.
There are four Indian states that share a land border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram.
Meghalaya does not share a border with Myanmar. It is bounded by the Indian state of Assam to the North and East, and shares an international boundary with Bangladesh to the South and West. Hence, the statement regarding Meghalaya is the correct answer.
Nagaland shares its eastern border with the Sagaing Region of Myanmar. This border is roughly 215 km long. Hence, Nagaland shares a border with Myanmar.
Manipur shares a land border of about 398 km with Myanmar to its East and South. Hence, Manipur shares a border with Myanmar.
Mizoram shares a 510 km long border with Myanmar to its East and South. It is also unique as it shares a border with Bangladesh to its West. Hence, Mizoram shares a border with Myanmar.

Additional Information

Arunachal Pradesh:
It shares the longest border with Myanmar among the four states, covering about 520 km.
The state also shares international borders with Bhutan to the West and China (Tibet) to the North at the McMahon Line.
Meghalaya:
The name Meghalaya means "Abode of Clouds" in Sanskrit.
It was carved out of Assam as an autonomous state in 1970 and became a full-fledged state on 21 January 1972.
It shares a 443 km long international border with Bangladesh.
International Relations and Infrastructure:
The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is a significant project under the Act East Policy, aiming to connect Moreh in Manipur (India) with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar.
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar.
Border Guarding Forces:
The Assam Rifles, which is India's oldest paramilitary force (established in 1835), is primarily responsible for guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB).
The border is relatively porous, and a Free Movement Regime (FMR) existed to allow local tribes to travel 16 km across the border without a visa, though this has faced recent security regulations.

Important Points

Geographic Summary:
Mizoram: Borders Myanmar and Bangladesh.
Manipur: Borders Myanmar.
Nagaland: Borders Myanmar.
Arunachal Pradesh: Borders Myanmar, China, and Bhutan.
Sikkim: Borders China, Nepal, and Bhutan (but not Myanmar).
Tripura: Surrounded on three sides by Bangladesh.
State Capitals:
The capital of Meghalaya is Shillong.
The capital of Manipur is Imphal.
The capital of Nagaland is Kohima.
The capital of Mizoram is Aizawl.

172

The climate and associated weather conditions in India are not dependent on which of the following atmosphere conditions?

((a))
Tropical Cyclones
((b))
Eastern Cyclonic Disturbances
((c))
Pressure and Surface Winds
((d))
Upper air Circulation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Eastern Cyclonic Disturbances

The correct answer is Eastern Cyclonic Disturbances.

Key Points

The climate and associated weather conditions in India are governed by several atmospheric conditions, primarily including Pressure and surface winds. India lies in the region of North Easterly winds, which originate from the subtropical high-pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere. Hence, the statement regarding Pressure and Surface Winds is a factor the climate depends on.
Upper air circulation is another crucial determinant. The higher levels of the atmosphere are dominated by a westerly flow, the most important component of which is the Jet stream. These are narrow belts of high-altitude westerly winds in the troposphere with speeds varying from 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter. Hence, the statement regarding Upper air Circulation is a factor the climate depends on.
Western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India. There is no standard meteorological term called "Eastern Cyclonic Disturbances" used to describe India's primary climate drivers; rather, tropical cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal (East) but are distinct from the Mediterranean "disturbances." Hence, the statement regarding Eastern Cyclonic Disturbances is the condition India's climate is NOT dependent on.
Tropical cyclones occur during the monsoon as well as in October - November, and are part of the easterly flow. These disturbances affect the coastal regions of India, such as Odisha, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh, often causing heavy rainfall and damage. Hence, the statement regarding Tropical Cyclones is a factor the climate depends on.

Additional Information

Coriolis Force: This is an apparent force caused by the Earth's rotation. It is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is also known as Ferrel's Law and plays a major role in the direction of the Indian Monsoon winds.
Jet Streams: These are located approximately over 27°-30° north latitude. Over India, these jet streams blow south of the Himalayas, all through the year except in summer. The Western Cyclonic Disturbances experienced in the north and north-western parts of the country are brought in by this westerly flow.
Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): The ITCZ is a low-pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds converge. During the summer, the ITCZ shifts northwards over the Ganga plain (referred to as the monsoon trough), which heavily influences the Southwest Monsoon rainfall patterns in India.
El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO): This is a periodic development of a warm ocean current along the coast of Peru as a temporary replacement of the cold Peruvian current. It affects the high-pressure systems in the Indian Ocean, often leading to a delay or reduction in monsoon rainfall in India.
Monsoon Mechanism: The differential heating and cooling of land and water is a primary driver. During summer, the landmass of Asia (including the Tibetan Plateau) develops a high-temperature, low-pressure area, while the surrounding Indian Ocean remains at a relatively lower temperature and higher pressure, causing moisture-laden winds to flow toward the Indian subcontinent.

Important Points

Loo: This is a striking feature of the hot weather season in North India. These are strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day over the north and northwestern India. Direct exposure to these winds may even prove fatal during the months of May and June.
Mango Showers: Towards the end of the summer season, pre-monsoon showers are common especially in Kerala and Karnataka. They help in the early ripening of mangoes and are often referred to as "Mango Showers".
October Heat: With the retreat of the monsoon, the sky becomes clear and the temperature rises. While day temperatures are high, nights are cool and pleasant. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive during the day; this is commonly known as "October Heat".
Annual Rainfall: The average annual rainfall in India is about 125 cm, but it is highly variable. Parts of Western Ghats and northeastern India receive over about 400 cm of rainfall annually (e.g., Mawsynram in Meghalaya), while it is less than 60 cm in western Rajasthan and adjoining parts of Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab.

173

Who is the author of the recently published book “NEHRU, TIBET AND CHINA”?

((a))
Shashi Tharoor
((b))
Avtar Singh Bhasin
((c))
Manan Bhatt
((d))
Sanjay Gubbi

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Avtar Singh Bhasin

The correct answer is Avtar Singh Bhasin.

Key Points

The book titled “NEHRU, TIBET AND CHINA” is authored by Avtar Singh Bhasin, a renowned historian and former officer of the Ministry of External Affairs.
Released in May 2021, the book is published by Penguin Random House India and offers a deep dive into the historical records of India’s diplomatic relations.
The narrative meticulously tracks the events from 1949, the year of the Communist Revolution in China, leading up to the Sino-Indian War of 1962.
Avtar Singh Bhasin utilized declassified archival documents and files from the Historical Division of the Ministry of External Affairs to provide an authentic account of the period.
The book explores the role of Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, in navigating the complexities of the Tibetan issue and the evolving border disputes with China.
It highlights the strategic miscalculations and the geopolitical pressures that culminated in the 1962 conflict, providing a detailed analysis of the McMahon Line and the 1954 Panchsheel Agreement.

Additional Information

Shashi Tharoor: He is a prolific author and a Member of Parliament (Lok Sabha) from Thiruvananthapuram. Some of his notable recent works include “The Battle of Belonging” (2020), “An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India” (2016), and “Inglorious Empire”.
Manan Bhatt: He is the author of the book “Balakot Air Strike: How India Avenged Pulwama”, published in August 2021. The book provides a detailed account of the Indian Air Force operation carried out on February 26, 2019, in response to the Pulwama terror attack.
Sanjay Gubbi: A well-known wildlife conservationist, he is the author of “Leopard Diaries: The Rosette in India”, released in 2021. His work focuses on the ecology, behavior, and conservation challenges of leopards in the Indian landscape.
Avtar Singh Bhasin’s Literary Contributions: Apart from this work, he has edited several volumes of documents on India’s foreign relations with countries like Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, and Pakistan. His previous notable book includes “India in Conflict and Cooperation - 1947–2007”.
Historical Context: The book “NEHRU, TIBET AND CHINA” is critical for understanding the roots of the current Line of Actual Control (LAC) disputes between India and China, as it traces the origin of the boundary disagreements back to the early years of Indian independence.

Important Points

The Panchsheel Agreement (Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence) was signed between India and China in 1954, emphasizing mutual respect for territorial integrity and non-aggression.
The McMahon Line serves as the effective boundary between China and India in the Eastern Sector, though its legality has been historically contested by Beijing.
Jawaharlal Nehru served as India’s Prime Minister from 1947 to 1964, and his Non-Alignment Movement (NAM) policy significantly shaped early Indian foreign relations during the Cold War era.

174

Recently who has been awarded ‘Woman of the Year’ by World Athletics?

((a))
Pusarla Venkata Sindhu
((b))
Hima Das
((c))
Anju Bobby George
((d))
Dutee Chand

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Anju Bobby George

The correct answer is Anju Bobby George.

Key Points

The legendary Indian long jumper Anju Bobby George was bestowed with the Woman of the Year award by World Athletics in December 2021.
She was honored with this prestigious title for her constant voice against gender inequality and her efforts in advancing the sport of athletics in India.
Anju Bobby George made history by becoming the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the World Athletics Championships when she secured the bronze medal in long jump in 2003 held in Paris.
The award recognizes her immense contribution to the sport through her academy, the Anju Bobby George Foundation, which she opened in 2016 to train and mentor young girls, helping them reach the world stage in athletics.
Beyond her competitive career, she serves as the Senior Vice President of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), where she continues to advocate for the rights and development of athletes.

Additional Information

Anju Bobby George: Born on 19 April 1977 in Changanassery, Kerala, she is a world-renowned track and field athlete. Apart from her 2003 victory, she won the Gold medal at the IAAF World Athletics Final in 2005 in Monte Carlo. She represented India at the 2004 Athens Olympics, finishing sixth with a personal best of 6.83m.
Pusarla Venkata Sindhu (PV Sindhu): She is a world-class badminton player from Hyderabad, India. She is the first Indian to become the Badminton World Champion and has won two consecutive Olympic medals—a Silver at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a Bronze at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
Hima Das: Popularly known as the 'Dhing Express', she is a sprinter from the state of Assam. She became the first Indian athlete to win a Gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championships in 2018, competing in the 400m race.
Dutee Chand: She is a professional sprinter from Odisha and is the national record holder in the women's 100m sprint. She is a double Silver medalist at the 2018 Asian Games and is the first Indian woman sprinter to win Gold at the Universiade (World University Games) in 2019.

Important Points

World Athletics: Formerly known as the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF), it is the international governing body for the sports of athletics. It was founded on 17 July 1912 and is currently headquartered in Monaco. The current President is Sebastian Coe.
National Recognition: For her exemplary performance and contribution to sports, Anju Bobby George was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2002, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (then Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna) in 2003, and the Padma Shri (India's fourth-highest civilian award) in 2004.
Global Impact: The Woman of the Year award is part of the World Athletics Awards, which celebrate the achievements of athletes, officials, and contributors who have significantly impacted the world of track and field.

175

“Vikram Sarabhai” Space Centre is located in:

((a))
Shreeharikota
((b))
Thiruvananthapuram
((c))
Trombay
((d))
Bangalore

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Thiruvananthapuram

The correct answer is Thiruvananthapuram.

Key Points

The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is a major space research center of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), focusing on rocket and space vehicles for India's satellite program. It is located in Thiruvananthapuram, the capital city of Kerala.
It is the lead center for the design and development of launch vehicle technology. The center's research activities include work on aerodynamics, flight mechanics, propulsion, avionics, and composite materials.
The center had its modest beginnings as the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) in 1963. Thumba was selected for its proximity to the magnetic equator of the Earth, making it ideal for ionospheric studies and sounding rocket launches.
The facility was later renamed in honor of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the legendary scientist often regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Programme, following his death in December 1971.
Major projects currently spearheaded by VSSC include the development of the GSLV Mk-III (LVM3), Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), and the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).

Additional Information

Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh):
This location houses the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), which is the primary spaceport of India.
It is the main launch site for ISRO, providing the infrastructure for launching satellites into Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).
It was chosen for its location on the East Coast, which provides a velocity boost from the Earth's rotation during eastward launches.
Bangalore (Karnataka):
Bangalore (Bengaluru) serves as the Headquarters of ISRO.
It is also the location of the U R Rao Satellite Centre (URSC), formerly known as ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC), which is responsible for the design, fabrication, and testing of Indian satellites.
The Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) and ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) also have significant facilities here.
Trombay (Maharashtra):
Trombay, located in Mumbai, is the site of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
It is India's premier nuclear research facility, established by Dr. Homi J. Bhabha in 1954.
While it focuses on nuclear energy and radioisotope applications, it is not a primary center for space vehicle development like VSSC.
Ahmedabad (Gujarat):
This city hosts the Space Applications Centre (SAC), which develops payloads for communication, meteorology, and remote sensing satellites.

Important Points

Dr. Vikram Sarabhai: He was instrumental in establishing the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) in 1962, which later became ISRO in 1969. He also established the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad in 1947.
Geographical Significance: The Magnetic Equator passes through Thumba, which is why the first sounding rocket, Nike-Apache, was launched from there on November 21, 1963.
Employment and Impact: VSSC employs thousands of scientists and engineers and is a vital part of the Department of Space, contributing to India's self-reliance in space technology and defense capabilities.
Recent Developments: The center is playing a crucial role in the Gaganyaan mission, India's first crewed orbital spacecraft project, by designing the Crew Escape System (CES) and the Human-Rated Launch Vehicle (HRLV).

176

Which States Chief Minister has been awarded the ‘Skoch’ Chief Minister of the Year Award ?

((a))
Telangana
((b))
Odisha
((c))
Andhra Pradesh
((d))
Kerala

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

The Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy, was conferred the Skoch Chief Minister of the Year Award in February 2021.
The award was presented to him by Sameer Kochhar, the Chairman of the Skoch Group, at the CM’s camp office located in Tadepalli, Guntur district.
The selection was based on a year-long study of project-level outcomes across various states. Andhra Pradesh emerged at the top because of its high performance in governance and effective delivery of government services.
The state demonstrated significant progress in 123 projects across different sectors, which were evaluated by the Skoch Group to determine the ranking.
This recognition was largely due to the transparency and efficiency maintained in the implementation of various welfare schemes, specifically aimed at poverty alleviation and socio-economic development.

Additional Information

Skoch Group:
It is an independent think tank based in Gurugram, India, founded in the year 1997.
The group focuses on socio-economic issues and recognizes excellence in governance, finance, technology, and social inclusion.
The Skoch Award was instituted in 2003 and is considered one of the highest independent honors in the country.
Governance Initiatives in Andhra Pradesh:
The state government under Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy implemented the Navaratnalu program, which consists of nine welfare schemes covering agriculture, health, education, and housing.
Key schemes include YSR Rythu Bharosa (financial assistance to farmers), Aarogyasri (health insurance), and Amma Vodi (financial assistance to mothers for schooling children).
The state has been a pioneer in Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), ensuring that funds reach the beneficiaries without any middlemen.
Other States and Comparative Data:
While Telangana, Odisha, and Kerala have also performed well in various governance indices, Andhra Pradesh secured the first rank in the SKOCH State of Governance report for the year 2020-21.
Odisha has frequently been recognized for its disaster management capabilities and industrial growth.
Kerala often leads in human development indices (HDI), particularly in literacy and public health.

Important Points

Selection Criteria: The Skoch Award selection process involves a multi-layered evaluation, including peer evaluation, expert jury assessment, and online voting.
Impact of Welfare Schemes: The Chief Minister emphasized that the award belongs to the people of the state, highlighting that the Village and Ward Secretariat system launched in October 2019 played a crucial role in improving last-mile delivery.
Ranking Significance: Being named the Chief Minister of the Year signifies that the state leadership has successfully balanced economic growth with social welfare, especially during the challenges posed by the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020.
Skoch State of Governance Report: This is an annual report released by the Skoch Group that ranks Indian states based on their performance in governance across various sectors such as agriculture, district administration, and municipalities.

177

With which, Indian company Clean Max has signed an agreement to achieve the target of 100% renewable energy :

((a))
Google
((b))
Facebook
((c))
Microsoft
((d))
Amazon

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Facebook

The correct answer is Facebook.

Key Points

In April 2021, the social media giant Facebook (now known as Meta) announced a partnership with the Indian renewable energy company Clean Max Enviro Energy Solutions (Clean Max). Hence, the option Facebook is the correct answer.
The agreement involves a 32 MW wind power project located in the state of Karnataka, India. This project is part of a larger portfolio of renewable energy plants that Clean Max is developing to provide power to the electrical grid.
Under this agreement, Clean Max owns and operates the facility, while Facebook purchases the environmental attribute certificates (carbon credits) from the project to offset its carbon footprint in India.
This collaboration was specifically designed to help Facebook achieve its global target of 100% renewable energy for its operations and reach net-zero emissions.
By supporting such projects, Facebook aims to increase the availability of renewable energy on the Indian power grid, rather than just purchasing existing green energy.

Additional Information

Clean Max Enviro Energy Solutions: Established in 2011 and headquartered in Mumbai, India, it is a leading sustainability partner for corporate consumers. It specializes in solar and wind energy projects under the OPEX (Operating Expenditure) or RESCO (Renewable Energy Service Company) model.
Meta's Sustainability Strategy: Meta achieved its goal of 100% renewable energy for its global operations in 2020. The company is a member of RE100, a global initiative of influential businesses committed to 100% renewable electricity.
Geographic Location: Karnataka was chosen for this project because it is one of the leading states in India for renewable energy potential, particularly for wind energy due to its favorable coastal and hilly topography.
Corporate Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs): These agreements are vital for India to reach its ambitious target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030, as pledged at COP26.

Important Points

Google: While Google is a leader in renewable energy procurement, its major Indian partnerships include a 2024 agreement with the Adani Group to procure 61.4 MW of solar-wind hybrid energy in Rajasthan. Hence, the statement regarding Google being the partner for this specific Clean Max deal is incorrect.
Microsoft: Microsoft has committed to being carbon negative by 2030. In 2022, it signed a renewable energy agreement with ReNew Power for 150 MW of solar energy in India. Hence, the statement regarding Microsoft is incorrect in the context of the Clean Max 2021 agreement.
Amazon: Amazon is the world’s largest corporate buyer of renewable energy. In India, it has launched several solar farms in Rajasthan with a total capacity of 420 MW through partnerships with companies like ReNew Power and Amp Energy. Hence, the statement regarding Amazon is incorrect.
The Clean Max-Facebook deal was one of the first instances of a global tech company supporting a wind power project in India through a corporate partnership model to decarbonize the local grid.

178

The Kalyani Rafael Advanced System (KRAS) has rolled out the first batch of Surface to Air Missile Kit for Indian Air Force, The KRAS is a joint venture between India and ______________.

((a))
Russia
((b))
France
((c))
Israel
((d))
UAE

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Israel

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

Kalyani Rafael Advanced Systems (KRAS) is a joint venture (JV) between Kalyani Group of India and Rafael Advanced Defense Systems of Israel.
In March 2021, KRAS rolled out its first batch of Medium Range Surface to Air Missile (MRSAM) kits for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Indian Army.
The KRAS production facility is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, and is spread across 24,000 square feet.
This facility is notable for being India’s first private sector missile sub-systems manufacturing unit, emphasizing indigenization in the defense sector.
The JV aims to provide high-end technology solutions and advanced weapon systems to the Indian Armed Forces, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) initiative.

Additional Information

Rafael Advanced Defense Systems: It is a leading Israeli defense technology company known for developing iconic systems like the Iron Dome, Spyder air defense, and the Spike anti-tank guided missile.
Kalyani Group: An Indian multinational conglomerate with a strong presence in sectors such as forging, automotive, and defense. Its flagship company is Bharat Forge.
MRSAM (Medium Range Surface to Air Missile): It is a land-based version of the Barak-8 missile system. It is designed to provide air defense against a variety of aerial threats, including fighter aircraft, UAVs, and cruise missiles at ranges up to 70 km.
Make in India: The KRAS initiative aligns with the Government of India’s Make in India policy, which encourages domestic manufacturing and reduces dependency on defense imports.
The MRSAM system is a result of collaborative development between DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) and IAI (Israel Aerospace Industries).

Important Points

Joint Venture Structure: The KRAS partnership follows the FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) guidelines, with Kalyani Group holding a 51% stake and Rafael holding a 49% stake.
Technical Expertise: The facility in Hyderabad is equipped to manufacture Missile Control Sections (MCS), which are critical components for the guidance and maneuverability of the missiles.
Strategic Significance: The successful rollout of these kits signifies a deepening of the strategic and defense ties between India and Israel, which have grown significantly since the year 1992 when formal diplomatic relations were established.
Role of BDL: While KRAS produces the sub-system kits, the final integration of the missiles is often carried out by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Defence.

179

The UN General Assembly has adopted a resolution, sponsored by which country, to declare 2023 as the “International Year of Millets” ?

((a))
China
((b))
Sri Lanka
((c))
India
((d))
Bangladesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

India

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution in March 2021 to declare the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets (IYM 2023).
This specific resolution was initiated and sponsored by India, aimed at bringing these "nutri-cereals" back to the global food basket.
The proposal received overwhelming support from more than 70 countries, highlighting the global importance of millets for food security and nutrition.
The declaration of 2023 as the International Year of Millets focuses on raising awareness about the health benefits of millets and their ability to thrive in challenging climatic conditions.
Millets were among the first crops to be domesticated and have served as a traditional staple for millions across Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa for over 7,000 years.

Additional Information

Nutritional Value and Features:
Millets are often termed Nutri-cereals due to their high protein, fiber, and micronutrient content, including iron, calcium, and magnesium.
They are naturally gluten-free and possess a low glycemic index, which makes them highly beneficial for individuals managing diabetes and obesity.
Agricultural and Climate Resilience:
Millets are highly drought-resistant and can grow in arid and semi-arid regions with minimal water consumption compared to rice or wheat.
They have a short growing season (typically 70 to 100 days) and can withstand high temperatures, making them a sustainable solution to climate change.
Major Varieties:
Commonly grown varieties in India include Pearl Millet (Bajra), Sorghum (Jowar), Finger Millet (Ragi), Foxtail Millet, and Little Millet.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world, contributing about 20% of global production and over 80% of the total production in Asia.
Global and National Initiatives:
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations leads the celebration of IYM 2023 to promote Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger).
In April 2018, the Government of India officially notified millets as Nutri-Cereals and observed 2018 as the National Year of Millets.

Important Points

Economic Significance: Millets provide a livelihood for small and marginal farmers in dryland areas, requiring fewer chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Industrial Uses: Beyond human consumption, millets are used as fodder for livestock and have applications in the biofuel industry due to their starch content.
Policy Impact: The National Food Security Act (2013) in India includes millets under the Public Distribution System (PDS) to improve the nutritional intake of the low-income population.
International Collaboration: By leading this resolution, India has positioned itself as a global leader in promoting sustainable agriculture and traditional farming practices.

180

Which bank has recently launched “KAVACH Personal Loan Scheme” ?

((a))
ICICI Bank
((b))
HDFC Bank
((c))
SBI
((d))
Kenya Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

SBI

The correct answer is SBI.

Key Points

The State Bank of India (SBI) launched the KAVACH Personal Loan scheme in June 2021 as a financial relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic.
The primary objective of this scheme is to provide financial assistance to customers to meet medical expenses for COVID-19 treatment for themselves or their family members.
This loan is a collateral-free personal loan, meaning borrowers do not need to provide any security or assets to avail of the funds.
The KAVACH Personal Loan is offered at a very competitive interest rate, which was 8.5% per annum at the time of launch, significantly lower than typical personal loan rates.
The scheme covers expenses incurred for COVID-19 treatment since April 1, 2021, making it a crucial support system during the devastating second wave of the pandemic in India.

Additional Information

Loan Amount and Tenure: Under this scheme, customers can avail of a loan amount ranging from a minimum of ₹25,000 to a maximum of ₹5,00,000. The repayment tenure is fixed at 60 months (5 years).
Moratorium Period: A unique feature of this loan is the 3-month moratorium period, during which the borrower is not required to pay the principal or interest, providing immediate liquid relief to families in distress.
Eligibility Criteria: The loan is available to salaried employees, non-salaried individuals, and pensioners who are existing customers of SBI.
Application Process: To ensure safety and convenience, the bank enabled the application process through its digital platform, YONO SBI, as well as through physical bank branches.
Reimbursement Facility: The scheme is not just for future expenses; it also allows for the reimbursement of medical costs that have already been paid by the customer for COVID-19 treatment.

Important Points

Zero Processing Fees: To further reduce the burden on the common man, SBI waived all processing fees, foreclosure charges, and pre-payment penalties for the KAVACH loan.
Regulatory Context: This initiative was part of the COVID Relief Measures announced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the Resolution Framework 2.0 to help individuals and small businesses navigate financial stress.
About SBI: The State Bank of India is the largest public sector bank in India, with its headquarters located in Mumbai. At the time of the scheme's launch, Dinesh Kumar Khara served as the Chairman of the bank.
Comparison with Options: While ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank are leading private sector banks in India, they did not launch this specific "KAVACH" branded scheme; it remains a signature initiative of SBI.

181

After how much years commercial and private vehicles will be scraped under the recent launched “Vehicle Scrap Policy” ?

((a))
10 years, 15 years respectively
((b))
15 years, 25 years respectively
((c))
10 years, 20 years respectively
((d))
15 years, 20 years respectively

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

15 years, 20 years respectively

The correct answer is 15 years, 20 years respectively.

Key Points

The Vehicle Scrappage Policy, also known as the Voluntary Vehicle-Fleet Modernization Program (VVMP), was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 13, 2021, during the Gujarat Investor Summit.
Under this policy, commercial vehicles are required to undergo a mandatory fitness test after 15 years of usage. If the vehicle fails the fitness test, it will be considered an End-of-Life Vehicle (ELV) and must be scrapped. Hence, the 15-year limit for commercial vehicles is correct.
For private vehicles (personal passenger vehicles), the threshold for the mandatory fitness test is set at 20 years. If a private vehicle is found unfit or its registration is not renewed after this period, it must be scrapped. Hence, the 20-year limit for private vehicles is correct.
The primary function of this policy is to phase out old, polluting, and inefficient vehicles from Indian roads to reduce environmental pollution and improve road safety.
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of this policy across the country.

Additional Information

Incentives for Scrapping: To encourage owners to scrap their old vehicles, the government provides several features such as a Scrap Value certificate, which is approximately 4-6% of the ex-showroom price of the new vehicle being purchased.
Tax Rebates: State governments are advised to offer a Road Tax rebate of up to 25% for personal vehicles and up to 15% for commercial vehicles to those who present a Certificate of Deposit (scrap certificate).
Registration Benefits: Vehicle manufacturers are also encouraged to provide a 5% discount on the purchase of a new vehicle against the scrap certificate, and the registration fee for the new vehicle may be waived entirely.
Environmental Impact: Old vehicles are estimated to pollute the air 10 to 12 times more than newer, BS-VI compliant vehicles. The policy aims to reduce Carbon Dioxide (CO2) emissions and improve fuel efficiency, contributing to India's climate goals.
Economic Growth: The policy is expected to attract investments of over Rs. 10,000 crore and create roughly 35,000 jobs in the organized scrappage and recycling industry.

Important Points

Government Vehicles: A mandatory scrapping rule applies to all Central and State Government vehicles, including those owned by Municipal Corporations and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), that have completed 15 years of age, effective from April 1, 2023.
Fitness Centers: The policy relies on the establishment of Automated Fitness Centers (AFC) and Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities (RVSF). These centers use automated equipment to check engine performance, emission levels, and safety features without human intervention to ensure transparency.
Disincentives: For vehicles older than the specified age, the government has increased the re-registration fee and fitness certificate renewal fee significantly to discourage the continued use of old fleets. Additionally, a Green Tax may be levied on older vehicles at the time of fitness renewal.
Location of Implementation: While it is a national policy, the infrastructure for scrapping is being developed in phases, starting with major industrial hubs and metropolitan cities.

182

Who is the brand ambassador of CRPF (Central Reserve Police Force) ?

((a))
Sania Mirza
((b))
Sachin Tendulkar
((c))
P.V. Sindhu
((d))
M.S. Dhoni

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

P.V. Sindhu

The correct answer is P.V. Sindhu.

Key Points

In 2016, the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) appointed the ace badminton player P.V. Sindhu as its brand ambassador.
She was also conferred with the honorary rank of Commandant in the force, which is a position equivalent to a Superintendent of Police (SP).
The appointment was made shortly after her historic achievement at the Rio Olympics 2016, where she became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic Silver Medal.
As the brand ambassador, her primary role is to motivate the paramilitary personnel and encourage the youth of the country to join the largest internal security force of India.
She represents the force in various public forums to enhance its public image and highlight the contribution of the CRPF in maintaining national integrity.

Additional Information

Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF):
It is the largest of India's Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
It was originally established as the Crown Representative's Police on 27th July 1939 and later renamed after the CRPF Act was enacted in 1949.
The force is headquartered in New Delhi and its motto is "Service and Loyalty".
Sania Mirza:
She is a professional tennis player who has won six Grand Slam titles.
While she is a prominent sports icon and has served as a brand ambassador for the state of Telangana, she is not the brand ambassador for CRPF.
Sachin Tendulkar:
A legendary cricketer often referred to as the "God of Cricket," he was the first sportsperson to be awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2014.
He holds the honorary rank of Group Captain in the Indian Air Force (IAF), which he received in 2010.
M.S. Dhoni:
The former Indian Cricket Team captain led India to victory in the 2007 T20 World Cup and the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup.
He holds the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army (Parachute Regiment), awarded to him in 2011.

Important Points

P.V. Sindhu's Major Awards:
She was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award in 2016.
She received the Padma Shri (India's fourth highest civilian award) in 2015 and the Padma Bhushan (third highest) in 2020.
She made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win two individual Olympic medals (Silver in 2016 and Bronze in 2020 Tokyo Olympics).
Significance of Honorary Ranks:
The government grants honorary ranks to celebrities and achievers to bridge the gap between civil society and the armed/paramilitary forces.
These appointments are intended to foster patriotism and provide a role model for the soldiers serving in challenging conditions like Naxal-affected areas or counter-insurgency zones.

183

Which country has proposed the expansion of G7 grouping as G7+4, which includes India, Australia, South Korea and Russia ?

((a))
United States
((b))
Italy
((c))
France
((d))
Germany

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

United States

The correct answer is United States.

Key Points

The proposal to expand the G7 grouping to a G7+4 (or G11) format was formally suggested by the United States under the administration of President Donald Trump in May 2020.
The United States aimed to include four additional countries—India, Australia, South Korea, and Russia—stating that the current G7 format is "outdated" and does not properly represent the current geopolitical landscape of the world.
By inviting India, Australia, and South Korea, the United States sought to create a broader alliance of democracies to address global security and economic challenges, particularly in the Indo-Pacific region.
The inclusion of Russia in this proposal was a point of significant debate, as Russia had been expelled from the group (formerly the G8) in 2014 following its annexation of Crimea.
This initiative was intended to be discussed during the 46th G7 Summit, which the United States was scheduled to host in 2020, though the summit was eventually transitioned due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

The G7 (Group of Seven):
The G7 is an intergovernmental political forum consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
It was originally formed as the G6 in 1975, with Canada joining in 1976 to make it the G7.
The European Union (EU) is a "non-enumerated member" and has participated in the group's work since 1977.
Transition from G8 to G7:
The group became the G8 in 1998 when Russia was formally admitted as a full member.
Following the Russian annexation of Crimea in March 2014, the other members suspended Russia's membership, reverting the group to the G7.
The D10 Initiative:
A similar concept called the D10 (Ten Democracies) was proposed by the United Kingdom in 2021.
This group includes the G7 nations plus India, Australia, and South Korea, primarily focusing on creating alternative supply chains for 5G technology and other critical emerging technologies.
India's Role:
India is not a formal member of the G7 but has been regularly invited as an "Outreach Country" or "Guest Country".
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has attended multiple G7 summits, emphasizing India's role as a "Global South" leader and a major economic power.

Important Points

Member Characteristics: The G7 members represent the world's most advanced economies and liberal democracies, accounting for over 50% of global net wealth and nearly 30% to 40% of Global GDP.
Economic and Political Influence: Unlike the G20, the G7 does not include China or Brazil, which is why the United States proposed the G7+4 expansion to include India, the world's most populous democracy.
Summit Frequency: The G7 presidency rotates annually among member nations, and the presiding country is responsible for hosting the annual summit and setting the agenda.

184

Recently which country has become the first country in the world to approve the production of genetically modified golden rice :

((a))
Philippines
((b))
Bulgaria
((c))
Ukraine
((d))
Brazil

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Philippines

The correct answer is Philippines.

Key Points

The Philippines has officially become the first country in the world to approve the commercial production of genetically modified (GM) Golden Rice, a variety of rice enriched with beta-carotene.
A biosafety permit was issued by the Department of Agriculture-Bureau of Plant Industry (DA-BPI) on July 23, 2021, authorizing the commercial propagation of this specialized crop across the nation.
The development and eventual approval were led by the Philippine Rice Research Institute (PhilRice) in collaboration with the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), both of which are based in Los Baños, Philippines.
The primary objective of Golden Rice is to combat Vitamin A Deficiency (VAD), which is a significant public health issue in developing nations, particularly among young children and pregnant women.
This approval marks a major milestone for biotechnology in agriculture, as it is the first time a GM rice intended for human consumption and nutritional benefit has been cleared for cultivation.

Additional Information

Golden Rice Technology:
Golden Rice is a variety of Oryza sativa rice produced through genetic engineering to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of pro-vitamin A, in the edible parts of the rice.
The golden yellow color of the grain is due to the presence of beta-carotene, which is the same pigment found in carrots and sweet potatoes.
The technology was originally developed by Ingo Potrykus and Peter Beyer in the late 1990s to solve malnutrition problems in areas where rice is the staple food.
Impact of Vitamin A Deficiency (VAD):
According to the World Health Organization (WHO), VAD causes blindness in 250,000 to 500,000 children every year, half of whom die within 12 months of losing their sight.
In the Philippines, approximately 15.5% of children aged 6 months to 5 years suffer from Vitamin A deficiency, making the deployment of Golden Rice a critical national health intervention.
Global Regulatory Status:
Before the Philippines approved its production, Golden Rice had already received food safety approvals from regulatory agencies in Australia, New Zealand, Canada, and the United States (FDA) between 2017 and 2018.
However, those countries approved it for consumption and import, but not for direct domestic cultivation by farmers, making the Philippine decision a global first.

Important Points

Genetic Modification Process: The engineering process involved inserting two genes—one from maize and one from a soil bacterium called Pantoea ananatis (formerly known as Erwinia uredovora)—into the rice genome.
Nutritional Value: Research indicates that just one cup of cooked Golden Rice can provide up to 30–50% of the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) of Vitamin A for preschool children.
Controversies and Challenges: The project faced significant opposition for over 20 years from environmental groups like Greenpeace, who expressed concerns regarding biosafety, biodiversity, and the corporate control of the food supply.
Partnerships: The Golden Rice project is part of the Healthier Rice Program and is supported by philanthropic organizations like the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation to ensure the seeds are available to resource-poor farmers without royalty payments.

185

Who of the following is the Author of the book “Home in the World : A Memoir” ?

((a))
Khushwant Singh
((b))
Milind Soman
((c))
Amartya Sen
((d))
Arundhati Roy

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Amartya Sen

The correct answer is Amartya Sen.

Key Points

The book titled “Home in the World: A Memoir” is written by the Nobel laureate Amartya Sen. It was published in July 2021 by Penguin Random House (Allen Lane).
In this memoir, Amartya Sen details his early life, starting from his childhood in Shantiniketan and Dhaka (now in Bangladesh) to his education at Trinity College, Cambridge.
The book provides a deep insight into the intellectual journey of Sen, highlighting his conversations with Rabindranath Tagore, who also gave him his name “Amartya,” meaning “immortal.”
It explores the concept of “home” not just as a physical location but as a space of intellectual and cultural belonging, traversing through Calcutta, Delhi, and Cambridge.
The memoir also reflects on the Bengal Famine of 1943, which Sen witnessed as a young boy, an event that significantly shaped his later work on famine and poverty.

Additional Information

Amartya Sen:
He is a world-renowned Indian economist and philosopher who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to welfare economics.
In 1999, he was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, for his work in the field of social justice and economic development.
He has served as the Master of Trinity College, Cambridge, and is currently a Thomas W. Lamont University Professor at Harvard University.
Arundhati Roy:
She is a famous Indian author and activist known for her novel “The God of Small Things”, which won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997.
Her other notable works include “The Ministry of Utmost Happiness” (2017) and several collections of essays on political and social issues like “Azadi: Freedom. Fascism. Fiction.”
Khushwant Singh:
He was a prominent Indian journalist, lawyer, and author, best known for his historical novel “Train to Pakistan” (1956), which depicts the Partition of India.
He served as the editor of The Illustrated Weekly of India and was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1974 (which he returned in protest of Operation Blue Star) and the Padma Vibhushan in 2007.
Milind Soman:
He is an Indian actor, supermodel, and fitness enthusiast. He published his memoir titled “Made in India” in January 2020.
He is widely recognized for his role in promoting fitness in India through initiatives like Pinkathon, India’s biggest women’s run.

Important Points

The memoir “Home in the World” is significant because it bridges the gap between Amartya Sen's personal experiences and his professional theories on human capability and social choice.
The book discusses his time at the Presidency College in Calcutta, where his interest in Economics and Mathematics flourished during a period of intense political activity in India.
Other famous books by Amartya Sen include “The Argumentative Indian” (2005), “The Idea of Justice” (2009), and “Development as Freedom” (1999).
The memoir emphasizes how global history and Indian traditions coexist, reflecting Sen’s lifelong commitment to secularism and rationality.

186

The recently launched scheme mission ‘Indradhanush 3.0’ is related to :

((a))
Extension of vaccination
((b))
Use of Electric Vehicle
((c))
Spread of Green Energy
((d))
Spread of Education

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Extension of vaccination

The correct answer is Extension of vaccination.

Key Points

Mission Indradhanush 3.0, officially known as Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 3.0, was launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on February 19, 2021.
The primary objective of this phase was to ensure that the routine immunization services reach children and pregnant women who had missed their doses during the COVID-19 pandemic disruptions. Hence, option 1 is correct.
The scheme was implemented in 250 districts across 29 States and Union Territories in India, specifically targeting those areas identified as "low coverage" or "high risk."
It aimed to achieve 90% Full Immunization Coverage (FIC) across the country, focusing on the most vulnerable populations in rural and urban slums. The statement regarding the extension of vaccination coverage is correct.
The campaign was conducted in two rounds, each lasting 15 days, ensuring a focused approach to identifying and vaccinating the "dropout" or "left-out" beneficiaries.

Additional Information

Historical Context: Mission Indradhanush was first launched in December 2014 by the Government of India to strengthen and re-energize the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). The name "Indradhanush" (Rainbow) signifies the seven colors, representing the seven vaccines initially included in the program.
Evolution of the Program:
IMI (1.0): Launched in 2017 to reach urban populations and areas with low routine immunization.
IMI 2.0: Launched in 2019-20 to mark the 25th anniversary of the Pulse Polio Programme, covering 272 districts.
IMI 4.0: Launched in February 2022, focusing on the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav theme to provide life-saving vaccines to children and pregnant women in 416 districts.
Diseases Covered: The mission provides protection against several vaccine-preventable diseases, including Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Tetanus, Polio, Tuberculosis, Measles, Meningitis, and Hepatitis B. In select districts, vaccines for Japanese Encephalitis and Haemophilus influenzae type B are also provided.
Implementation Strategy: The scheme utilizes a multi-ministerial approach, involving the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Panchayati Raj, and Urban Development to ensure community mobilization through ASHAs, ANMs, and Anganwadi workers.

Important Points

Co-WIN Portal Integration: During IMI 3.0, the government emphasized the use of digital monitoring. Later versions like U-WIN (modeled after Co-WIN) were proposed to maintain a digital registry of every pregnant woman and child for tracking vaccination status.
Target Demographic: The mission specifically focuses on children below 2 years of age and pregnant women who have not received their scheduled vaccines under the National Immunization Schedule.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDG): This mission is a crucial step for India to achieve SDG 3, which aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages, specifically reducing child mortality and ending preventable deaths of newborns.
Global Recognition: The success of India's Mission Indradhanush has been recognized by global health organizations like WHO and UNICEF as one of the largest public health interventions in the world.

187

Which of the following mango variety is known as ‘King of Mangoes’ ?

((a))
Chausa
((b))
Dasheri
((c))
Langda
((d))
Safeda

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Chausa

The correct answer is Chausa.

Key Points

The Chausa mango variety is widely celebrated and frequently referred to as the ‘King of Mangoes’, particularly in North India and Pakistan, due to its incredible sweetness and rich aroma.
This variety primarily originates from Hardoi in Uttar Pradesh. It is a late-season variety, usually becoming available in the months of July and August when most other varieties have finished their season.
Historically, the name Chausa was given to this mango by the ruler Sher Shah Suri. In the year 1539, after defeating the Mughal Emperor Humayun in the Battle of Chausa, he named his favorite variety of mango after the location of his victory.
The fruit is distinguished by its bright yellow or golden color when fully ripe and its fiberless, juicy pulp which makes it ideal for direct consumption.
It is highly sought after in the international market, with significant exports to Middle Eastern countries and Europe.

Additional Information

Dasheri:
This variety originated in the 18th century in the Malihabad region of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
It is famous for its sweet fragrance and slender shape. It has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, ensuring its origin and quality standards are protected.
Langda:
Commonly grown in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, this variety is unique because its skin remains green even when it is fully ripe.
It has a very strong turpentine-like aroma and a slice of this mango is exceptionally soft. It typically hits the market in June.
Safeda (Banganapalli):
This is the most popular variety from South India, specifically the state of Andhra Pradesh.
It is also known as Banganapalli and received its GI tag in the year 2017. It is known for its large size and firm, meaty pulp.
Alphonso:
While not in the given options, Alphonso (known as Hapus) is globally considered the King of Mangoes. It is primarily grown in the Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg districts of Maharashtra.

Important Points

Global Production: India is the world's largest producer of mangoes, contributing nearly 50% of the total global output.
National Fruit: The mango (Mangifera indica) is the National Fruit of India, Pakistan, and the Philippines.
Major States: In India, the top mango-producing states include Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Bihar.
Nutritional Value: Mangoes are a rich source of Vitamin A, Vitamin C, and potassium. They contain antioxidants like quercetin and astragalin.
GI Tags: Several Indian mangoes have received Geographical Indication status, including Fazli (West Bengal), Gir Kesar (Gujarat), and Jardalu (Bihar), highlighting their unique geographical characteristics.

188

“The Revolving Fund Foundation” is established for :

((a))
Divorced Muslim Women
((b))
Muslim Widows
((c))
Old and Weak Women
((d))
Women suffering from Dowry system

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Divorced Muslim Women

The correct answer is Divorced Muslim Women.

Key Points

The Revolving Fund Foundation or Scheme was primarily established to provide financial assistance and maintenance to Divorced Muslim Women who are unable to support themselves after the Iddat period.
This initiative is deeply rooted in the legal framework of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, which was enacted by the Parliament of India to specify the rights of divorced Muslim women.
Under Section 4 of the 1986 Act, if a divorced woman is unable to maintain herself and has no relatives (such as children or parents) capable of providing maintenance, the Magistrate can direct the State Waqf Board to pay such maintenance.
To facilitate these payments, a Revolving Fund was created. The Central Waqf Council, an advisory body to the Government of India, provides an interest-free loan or grant to various State Waqf Boards to maintain this fund.
The fund acts as a safety net to ensure that no Divorced Muslim Woman is left destitute, fulfilling the statutory obligations of the Waqf Boards across different States in India.

Additional Information

Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986: This Act was passed during the tenure of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi following the controversial Shah Bano case (1985). It sought to balance personal laws with the socio-economic security of divorced women.
Central Waqf Council: It is a statutory body established in 1964 by the Government of India under the Waqf Act. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Role of Waqf Boards: There are over 30 State Waqf Boards in India. Their primary function is the management and protection of Waqf properties (endowments) and utilizing the income for the welfare of the Muslim community.
Maintenance during Iddat: According to the 1986 Act, a husband is liable to pay a reasonable and fair provision and maintenance to his wife within the Iddat period (approximately three months or 90 days post-divorce).
Nai Roshni Scheme: This is another contemporary scheme by the Ministry of Minority Affairs launched in 2012-13, focusing on the leadership development and empowerment of minority women, including Muslim women, to help them interact with government systems.

Important Points

Eligibility for the Fund: A woman qualifies for assistance from the Revolving Fund only if a First Class Magistrate issues an order stating that her relatives are not in a position to pay maintenance as per Section 4(1) of the 1986 Act.
Funding Mechanism: The Central Waqf Council grants money to the State Waqf Boards, which is then deposited in a separate bank account. This amount is specifically earmarked for the purpose of paying maintenance to indigent divorced women.
Numerical Value of Aid: The amount of maintenance varies depending on the economic status of the woman and the Standard of Living in her location, as determined by the court.
Administrative Control: The Revolving Fund is strictly monitored to ensure that it is not diverted for other administrative expenses of the Waqf Board, emphasizing its social security function.
Geographical Reach: This provision is applicable throughout India, ensuring a uniform mechanism for the protection of Divorced Muslim Women under the specific personal law framework.

189

Who is the author of the book ‘Shatranj ke Khiladi’ :

((a))
Bhagwati Prasad Vajpayee
((b))
Bhagwati Charan Varma
((c))
Munshi Prem Chand
((d))
Amrit Lal Nagar

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Munshi Prem Chand

The correct answer is Munshi Prem Chand.

Key Points

Munshi Premchand is the celebrated author of the famous short story titled ‘Shatranj Ke Khiladi’ (The Chess Players). He is widely regarded as one of the greatest literary figures of modern Hindi and Urdu literature.
The story was first published in October 1924 in the Hindi journal Maduri. It is a satirical take on the decadence of the aristocracy in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, during the 19th century.
The narrative is set against the backdrop of the annexation of Awadh by the British East India Company in the year 1856. It depicts two noblemen, Mirza Sajjad Ali and Mir Roshan Ali, who are so deeply obsessed with the game of chess that they remain indifferent to the downfall of their kingdom and the capture of their ruler, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah.
In 1977, the legendary Indian filmmaker Satyajit Ray adapted this story into a critically acclaimed National Award-winning historical drama film of the same name, which featured actors like Sanjeev Kumar, Saeed Jaffrey, and Amjad Khan.
The work remains a significant piece of literature used to study the socio-political climate of pre-Independence India and the cultural decline of the feudal class.

Additional Information

Munshi Premchand (1880–1936):
His original name was Dhanpat Rai Shrivastava, but he wrote under the pen names Nawab Rai and later Premchand.
He is often referred to as ‘Upanyas Samrat’ (Emperor of Novels). His writing style, known as Idealistic Realism, focused on social issues like poverty, caste discrimination, and the plight of women.
His most famous novels include Godaan (1936), Gaban (1931), Nirmala (1927), and Seva Sadan (1919). His collection of over 300 short stories is titled Mansarovar.
Bhagwati Charan Varma (1903–1981):
He was a leading Hindi novelist and poet. His most celebrated work is the novel Chitralekha (1934), which explores the concepts of sin and virtue.
He was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1961 for his novel Bhoole Bisre Chitra and was also a recipient of the Padma Bhushan in 1971.
Amrit Lal Nagar (1916–1990):
A prominent Hindi writer and journalist based in Lucknow. He is best known for his novel Amrit Aur Vish (1966), which won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1967.
His other famous works include Suhaag Ke Nupur (1960) and Manas Ka Hans (1972), which is a fictionalized biography of Tulsidas.
Bhagwati Prasad Vajpayee (1899–1973):
He was a noted Hindi novelist and story writer. His works often dealt with middle-class social life and human emotions.
His notable novels include Tyagmayi and Meethi Chutki. He contributed significantly to the evolution of the Hindi novel in the mid-20th century.

Important Points

Context of the Book: The book highlights the transition of power in India and the British policy of Doctrine of Lapse under Lord Dalhousie, which led to the annexation of Awadh.
Literary Influence: Premchand was the first Hindi author to introduce realism in stories. Before him, Hindi literature was dominated by fantasy and religious themes.
Legacy: Every year, his birth anniversary on 31st July is celebrated in India to honor his massive contribution to the vernacular literature of the subcontinent.

190

Which one of the following is mismatched ?

((a))
Chholiya - Gorakhpur
((b))
Sheela - Mirzapur
((c))
Karma - Mirzapur
((d))
Rai Dance - Bundelkhand

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Chholiya - Gorakhpur

The correct answer is Chholiya - Gorakhpur.

Key Points

Chholiya is a famous folk dance that originated in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. In the context of Uttar Pradesh, this dance is traditionally performed by the Rajput community during marriage ceremonies. The performers carry swords and shields, depicting a mock battle. It is not specifically associated with Gorakhpur, which is known for dances like Kathghorwa and Dhobiya. Hence, the pair Chholiya - Gorakhpur is mismatched and statement 1 is incorrect.
Sheela, also known as Saila, is a traditional folk dance performed in the Mirzapur and Sonbhadra regions of Uttar Pradesh. It is a stick dance performed by tribal men after the harvest season to express joy. Hence, statement 2 is correctly matched.
Karma is one of the most prominent tribal dances in India, particularly popular among the Kharwar, Gond, and Baiga tribes residing in the Mirzapur and Sonbhadra districts. It is performed during the autumn festival to worship the Karma tree, symbolizing fertility and prosperity. Hence, statement 3 is correctly matched.
Rai Dance is a traditional folk dance of the Bundelkhand region in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. It is primarily performed by the women of the Bedia tribe. The dance is characterized by its fast-paced movements that mimic the gait of a peacock, and it is usually performed during the Janmashtami festival or weddings. Hence, statement 4 is correctly matched.

Additional Information

Regional Diversity of Uttar Pradesh: The state is culturally divided into several regions, including Braj, Bundelkhand, Awadh, Purvanchal, and Rohilkhand, each possessing unique folk traditions and performing arts.
Braj Region Dances: The Braj area (around Mathura and Vrindavan) is famous for the Charkula Dance, where women balance 108 oil lamps on their heads. Other famous forms include Raslila and Mayur Dance.
Purvanchal Region Dances: This region in eastern Uttar Pradesh features the Dhobiya Dance (performed by the Dhobi community) and the Kathghorwa Dance, which involves a wooden horse structure.
Traditional Theatre: Nautanki is a highly popular folk theatre form in North India, especially in Hathras and Kanpur. It blends mythology, romance, and social messages through song and dance.
Folk Songs: Aside from dances, Uttar Pradesh is known for Alha (a heroic ballad from Bundelkhand), Birha (a narrative song from Purvanchal), and Kajri (sung during the monsoon season in Mirzapur and Varanasi).

Important Points

Cultural Heritage: These folk dances are not just entertainment but are deeply rooted in religious beliefs, agricultural cycles, and tribal identity. For instance, Karma is performed to seek blessings from deities for a good harvest.
Preservation Efforts: The Uttar Pradesh Sangeet Natak Akademi and the Ministry of Culture actively promote these art forms through festivals and state-level competitions to ensure they do not become extinct.
Demographic Association: Most folk dances in Uttar Pradesh are community-specific. For example, Rai is associated with the Bedia tribe, while Chholiya is inextricably linked to the warrior traditions of the Rajputs.

191

In Uttar Pradesh, the Oil refinery is situated in :

((a))
Agra
((b))
Gorakhpur
((c))
Mathura
((d))
Prayagraj

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Mathura

The correct answer is Mathura.

Key Points

The only major oil refinery in the state of Uttar Pradesh is situated in Mathura. It is strategically located to meet the petroleum product demands of the North-Western region of India, including the National Capital Region (NCR).
The Mathura Refinery is owned and operated by the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), which is a Maharatna central public sector undertaking.
It was commissioned in January 1982 as the sixth refinery of Indian Oil. At the time of its inception, its refining capacity was 6.0 MMTPA (Million Metric Tonnes Per Annum), which has since been upgraded to 8.0 MMTPA.
The refinery processes a variety of crude oils, including low-sulfur crude from Bombay High and imported high-sulfur crude from the Middle East.
It serves a vast area including Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, and Delhi through a network of pipelines and rail/road transport.

Additional Information

Geographical and Environmental Context:
The refinery is located within the Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ), a defined area of 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal to protect the monument from pollution.
Due to its proximity to Agra (approximately 50 km), the refinery has implemented advanced emission control technologies and ecological parks to minimize environmental impact.
The refinery produces BS-VI (Bharat Stage VI) compliant fuels, which significantly reduce sulfur emissions, helping in the preservation of historical monuments in the region.
Raw Material Sourcing:
Crude oil is transported to the Mathura Refinery via the Mundra-Mathura Pipeline, which starts from Mundra in Gujarat.
This cross-country pipeline ensures a continuous supply of feedstock from the Gulf of Kutch to the heart of North India.
Other Cities Mentioned:
Agra: Known globally for the Taj Mahal and its leather industry, but it does not house an oil refinery.
Gorakhpur: Famous for the Gorakhnath Temple, Gita Press, and a significant Fertilizer Plant (HURL), but not an oil refinery.
Prayagraj: Formerly known as Allahabad, it is a major educational and administrative hub hosting the High Court of Uttar Pradesh and the Kumbh Mela.

Important Points

India's Oil Refining Sector:
India is the second-largest refiner in Asia. As of 2023, the country has over 23 refineries (18 in the public sector, 3 in the private sector, and 2 as joint ventures).
The Digboi Refinery in Assam is the oldest operating refinery in India, established in 1901.
The Jamnagar Refinery in Gujarat, owned by Reliance Industries, is the largest refinery complex in the world.
Economic Impact of Mathura Refinery:
The refinery contributes significantly to the State Exchequer of Uttar Pradesh through taxes and duties.
It provides direct and indirect employment to thousands of people in the Mathura-Agra industrial belt.
It supports ancillary industries such as petrochemicals, transport, and engineering services.

192

Which one of the following prize is not awarded by ‘Hindi Sansthan’ to literacy for the Hindi services ?

((a))
Lohiya Ati Vishist Samman
((b))
Sahitya Bhushan Samman
((c))
Bharat - Bharat Samman
((d))
Jnanpith Purashkar

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Jnanpith Purashkar

The correct answer is Jnanpith Purashkar.

Key Points

The Jnanpith Purashkar (Jnanpith Award) is not awarded by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan; instead, it is presented annually by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a private literary trust founded by the Sahu Jain family. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Bharat-Bharti Samman is the highest award presented by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan for excellence in Hindi literature. It carries a cash prize, a citation, and a memento. Hence, statement 3 is not the correct answer for the 'not awarded' criteria.
Lohiya Ati Vishist Samman is a significant recognition conferred by the Hindi Sansthan to writers and journalists who have made exceptional contributions to the promotion of Hindi. Hence, statement 1 is not the correct answer.
Sahitya Bhushan Samman is another prestigious award given by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan to multiple litterateurs every year to honor their lifelong service to Hindi literature across various genres. Hence, statement 2 is not the correct answer.
While the Hindi Sansthan operates under the Government of Uttar Pradesh to promote regional and national linguistic growth, the Jnanpith Award is a national-level honor that covers all languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution plus English.

Additional Information

Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan:
It was established on 30 December 1976 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, with the primary objective of promoting Hindi and Sanskrit languages.
The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh typically serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Sansthan.
Other prominent awards given by this institution include the Hindi Gaurav Samman, Mahatma Gandhi Sahitya Samman, Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Sahitya Samman, and Avantibai Sahitya Samman.
The Bharat-Bharti Samman currently carries a cash prize of Rs. 5,00,000 (as per standard updates), making it one of the most coveted state-level literary honors in India.
Jnanpith Award (Jnanpith Purashkar):
Instituted in the year 1961, the first Jnanpith Award was presented in 1965 to the Malayalam poet G. Sankara Kurup.
It is considered the highest literary award in India, and it is given to an author for their "outstanding contribution towards literature."
The award comprises a cash prize of Rs. 11 Lakh, a citation, and a bronze replica of Vagdevi (Saraswati).
The first Hindi writer to receive the Jnanpith Award was Sumitranandan Pant in 1968 for his work Chidambara.

Important Points

The Hindi Sansthan awards are generally state-sponsored and focus on the development of Hindi as a language and medium of instruction, whereas the Jnanpith is a privately-funded national award.
In 2018, the Jnanpith Award was awarded to Amitav Ghosh, making him the first English language writer to receive this honor.
The Sahitya Akademi Award is another major literary award in India, which is presented by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, and is distinct from both the Hindi Sansthan and Jnanpith honors.
The Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan also publishes a famous literary magazine called Sahitya Bharti to showcase the works of various authors.

193

'Krishi Swavalamban Scheme' was launched by Uttar Pradesh Government to :

((a))
provide insurance cover against failure of crop
((b))
use the services of youth trained in agriculture for the benefit of farmers
((c))
get the high quality seeds on subsidised rates
((d))
inform the farmer related policies and programmes

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

use the services of youth trained in agriculture for the benefit of farmers

The correct answer is use the services of youth trained in agriculture for the benefit of farmers.

Key Points

The Krishi Swavalamban Scheme is a flagship initiative of the Uttar Pradesh Government aimed at promoting self-reliance in the agricultural sector while addressing the unemployment of educated youth.
The core objective of the scheme is to use the services of youth trained in agriculture for the benefit of farmers by establishing Agri-junctions (one-stop shops) at the block level. Hence, the selected option is correct.
The scheme seeks to provide employment opportunities to agriculture graduates and postgraduates, enabling them to become Agri-entrepreneurs rather than just job seekers.
These trained youths act as a bridge between scientific research and field application, helping farmers adopt modern agricultural techniques and improved cropping patterns.
The Agri-junctions established under this scheme serve as a centralized hub where farmers can access high-quality seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and technical consultancy under one roof.

Additional Information

Eligibility Criteria: The primary beneficiaries of this scheme are unemployed youth who possess a degree in B.Sc. Agriculture or other allied branches like Horticulture, Dairy, or Veterinary Sciences from a recognized university. The age of the applicant generally falls between 18 to 40 years.
Financial Incentives: The Uttar Pradesh Government facilitates bank loans for setting up these junctions. The government provides a subsidy on the interest of the loan, typically around 5%, and also offers support for shop rent for a specified initial period (e.g., one year).
Operational Scope: Each Agri-junction is expected to maintain soil testing equipment to provide Soil Health Cards to farmers, ensuring that the application of macro-nutrients and micro-nutrients is precise and cost-effective.
Licensing: To ensure ease of doing business, the Department of Agriculture provides simplified licensing procedures for the sale of fertilizers, seeds, and insecticides to the selected youth under this scheme.
Administrative Oversight: The scheme is monitored and implemented by the Directorate of Agriculture, Uttar Pradesh, ensuring that the benefits reach the village level effectively.

Important Points

Rural Economy: By focusing on local employment, the scheme helps in curbing rural-to-urban migration of educated individuals by providing them livelihood opportunities within their own districts.
Extension Services: These youth function as private extension workers, disseminating information about Government of India schemes like Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) and PM-Kisan to the farmers.
Data and Impact: The project cost for an Agri-junction is usually estimated at 5 lakh rupees, with the government aiming to establish thousands of such centers across the 75 districts of Uttar Pradesh.
Farmer Awareness: Apart from selling inputs, the scheme emphasizes expert counseling on pest management, irrigation techniques, and weather-related advisories, which significantly increases crop productivity.
Technological Integration: The scheme encourages the use of Information Technology in agriculture, where youth can use digital tools to help farmers access market prices (e-NAM) and weather forecasts.

194

Which one of the following is mismatched :

((a))
Crockery - Khurja
((b))
Torch Industry - Lucknow
((c))
Fertilizer Industry - Gorakhpur
((d))
Cigarette Industry - Agra

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Cigarette Industry - Agra

The correct answer is Cigarette Industry - Agra.

Key Points

Crockery - Khurja: Khurja, located in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh, is internationally famous for its ceramic pottery and crockery. It is often referred to as the "Ceramic City" and has a history of pottery making that dates back over 600 years. This industry provides employment to thousands and exports products globally. Hence, this statement is correctly matched.
Torch Industry - Lucknow: Lucknow is a significant industrial hub in Uttar Pradesh. Apart from its famous Chikan embroidery, the city is a major center for the manufacturing of torches and other precision instruments. Large-scale units and ancillary industries for torch components are situated in this region. Hence, this statement is correctly matched.
Fertilizer Industry - Gorakhpur: Gorakhpur is home to a massive fertilizer plant. The Hindustan Urvarak & Rasayan Limited (HURL) plant in Gorakhpur is a landmark industrial project. It was revived to boost the availability of urea for farmers in the Purvanchal region and neighboring states. Hence, this statement is correctly matched.
Cigarette Industry - Agra: This is the mismatched pair. While Agra is a world-renowned industrial and tourism city, its primary industries are Leather, Stone Carving, and the famous Petha (sweet) industry. The Cigarette Industry in Uttar Pradesh is primarily concentrated in Saharanpur. Hence, this statement is mismatched and is the correct answer.

Additional Information

Agra's Industrial Identity: Agra is a major center for leather goods, including footwear and bags, accounting for a significant portion of India's exports. It is also famous for Zardozdi work and the Petha industry, which is a GI Tagged product of the city.
Saharanpur and Cigarettes: Saharanpur is the actual hub for the cigarette industry in Uttar Pradesh, housing major factories like those of ITC (Imperial Tobacco Company). Additionally, Saharanpur is world-famous for its intricate wood carving industry.
One District One Product (ODOP): The Government of Uttar Pradesh launched the ODOP scheme in 2018 to encourage indigenous and specialized products. Under this, Khurja (Bulandshahr) is recognized for Ceramic Products, while Agra is recognized for Leather Products.
Industrial Diversity of UP: Uttar Pradesh is the third-largest economy in India. It hosts diverse industries such as Brassware in Moradabad, Bangles/Glassware in Firozabad, Carpets in Bhadohi, and Sports goods in Meerut.

Important Points

Kanpur: Known as the "Manchester of the East," it is a global center for Leather and Textiles.
Firozabad: Known as the "City of Bangles" or "Suhaag Nagari," it is the largest producer of glass bangles in India.
Kannauj: Famous for its Perfume (Itra) industry, which has been thriving since the Mughal era.
Aligarh: Famous for its Lock industry, supplying locks to various parts of the world.
Varanasi: Renowned for Banarasi Silk Saris and Diesel Locomotives (BLW).

195

Who led the 'Kisan Andolan' in Uttar Pradesh during Freedom struggle :

((a))
Mahatma Gandhi
((b))
Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
((c))
Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
((d))
Chaudhary Charan Singh

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

The correct answer is Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Key Points

The peasant movement or Kisan Andolan in Uttar Pradesh, particularly in the Awadh region, gained significant momentum during the 1920s under the leadership of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.
While the initial grassroots organization was spearheaded by Baba Ramchandra, an indentured laborer who had returned from Fiji, he invited Jawahar Lal Nehru to visit the villages and witness the plight of the peasants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In June 1920, Jawahar Lal Nehru toured several villages in Awadh, interacting with the farmers to understand their grievances against high rents, illegal cesses, and the practice of begar (forced labor).
As a result of these efforts, the Awadh Kisan Sabha (Oudh Kisan Sabha) was formed in October 1920. Within a month, over 300 branches had been set up in the villages around the Awadh region.
The movement was closely integrated with the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by the Indian National Congress, which helped in bringing local peasant issues to the national stage.

Additional Information

Mahatma Gandhi: While Mahatma Gandhi was the supreme leader of the freedom struggle and led peasant movements like the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 and the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918, the specific organizational leadership for the Awadh Kisan Andolan was provided by Nehru and Baba Ramchandra.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: He is best known for leading the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928 in Gujarat. His leadership earned him the title of 'Sardar' from the women of Bardoli after successfully resisting the British Raj's attempt to increase land revenue.
Chaudhary Charan Singh: He is often referred to as the 'Champion of India’s Peasants'. However, his most significant contributions to the farmers of Uttar Pradesh, including the Zamindari Abolition Act, came primarily during the post-independence era and the late 1930s, rather than the early 1920s peasant movement.
UP Kisan Sabha: Before the Awadh Kisan Sabha, the UP Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra, Indra Narayan Dwivedi, and supported by Madan Mohan Malaviya. This organization provided the initial platform for peasant mobilization in the state.

Important Points

Baba Ramchandra: A Sanyasi who organized the peasants of Pratapgarh, Rai Bareli, Sultanpur, and Fyzabad. He used the recitation of Ramayana as a tool to mobilize the rural masses against the Talukdars.
Eka Movement: Also known as the Unity Movement, it emerged in 1921 in the northern districts of Uttar Pradesh like Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur. This movement was led by Madari Pasi and was distinct from the Sabha movements due to its more radical nature.
Demands of the Movement: The primary demands included the reduction of land revenue, the abolition of begar, and a social boycott of oppressive landlords. Peasants often refused to work on the landlords' farms or pay arbitrary taxes.
The Oudh Rent (Amendment) Act, 1921: Following the widespread unrest and the leadership of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru and others, the British government was forced to pass this act to provide some relief and security of tenure to the farmers.

196

Which State is the largest producer of wheat in India ?

((a))
Madhya Pradesh
((b))
Uttar Pradesh
((c))
Haryana
((d))
Punjab

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India, contributing approximately 30% to 32% of the total national production.
The state possesses a vast geographical area dedicated to wheat cultivation, primarily located in the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains, which provide rich alluvial soil.
Wheat production in this state is supported by extensive irrigation facilities, including a massive network of canals and a high density of private tubewells, ensuring water availability during the dry winter months.
The major wheat-producing belts in Uttar Pradesh include the western and central regions, with districts like Meerut, Bulandshahr, Saharanpur, Aligarh, and Agra being leading contributors.
While the state leads in total output volume, its productivity per hectare is generally lower compared to states like Punjab and Haryana due to variations in farming techniques and landholding sizes.

Additional Information

Punjab: Often referred to as the "Granary of India" or the "Bread Basket," this state consistently ranks high in production. It is renowned for having the highest yield per hectare in the country, thanks to 100% irrigation coverage and advanced mechanized farming.
Madhya Pradesh: In recent years, Madhya Pradesh has emerged as a major wheat producer, often competing for the second position with Punjab. The state is particularly famous for its Sharbati variety of wheat, which is premium quality and grown in the Sehore and Vidisha districts.
Haryana: This state is another critical contributor to the central pool of foodgrains. It benefited immensely from the Green Revolution and utilizes the Bhakra-Nangal canal system for its agricultural needs.
Wheat Characteristics: It is the second most important food crop in India after rice. It is a Rabi crop, meaning it is sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in spring (March to May).
Climate Requirements: Wheat requires a cool growing season with temperatures between 10°C and 15°C and bright sunshine during ripening (around 21°C to 26°C). It thrives best in areas receiving 75 to 100 cm of annual rainfall.

Important Points

Green Revolution: The Green Revolution of the 1960s, led by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan in India, focused heavily on wheat. The introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds like Lerma Rojo and Sonora 64 transformed India from a food-deficient to a food-surplus nation.
Soil Types: While alluvial soil is the best for wheat, it can also be grown in well-drained loamy soils and even the black soil regions of the Deccan plateau.
Government Policy: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) procures a significant portion of wheat from these top-producing states at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) to maintain the buffer stock and ensure food security through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
Global Context: India is the second-largest producer of wheat in the world, following China. The production levels reached a record high of over 110 million tonnes in the 2023-24 agricultural year.

197

Purvanchal Expressway has _________ and _________ as terminal points

((a))
Lucknow; Sultanpur
((b))
Lucknow; Mau
((c))
Lucknow; Ghazipur
((d))
Lucknow; Ambedkar Nagar

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Lucknow; Ghazipur

The correct answer is Lucknow; Ghazipur.

Key Points

The Purvanchal Expressway is a landmark infrastructure project in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India, designed to provide high-speed connectivity between the central and eastern parts of the state.
The expressway originates from Chandrasarai village, located on the Lucknow-Sultanpur road (NH-731) in the Lucknow district. This serves as the western terminal point.
The eastern terminal point of the expressway is located at Haidaria village on National Highway No. 31 in the Ghazipur district, near the Uttar Pradesh-Bihar border.
The total length of this access-controlled expressway is approximately 340.824 km (211.778 miles).
The project was officially inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on November 16, 2021, at Karwal Kheri in Sultanpur district.
It was developed by the Uttar Pradesh Expressways Industrial Development Authority (UPEIDA) at an estimated cost of around ₹22,500 crore (including land acquisition cost).

Additional Information

Districts Traversed: The expressway passes through nine major districts of Uttar Pradesh: Lucknow, Barabanki, Amethi, Sultanpur, Ayodhya, Ambedkar Nagar, Azamgarh, Mau, and Ghazipur.
Regional Impact: By connecting the underdeveloped eastern region (Purvanchal) to the state capital, it has reduced travel time between Lucknow and Ghazipur from 12 hours to approximately 6 hours.
Strategic Feature: A special 3.2 km long emergency landing strip has been constructed at Kurebhar in Sultanpur district. This allows Indian Air Force (IAF) fighter jets, such as the Mirage 2000 and Sukhoi-30 MKI, to land during emergencies or war-like situations.
Connectivity Network: The expressway is linked to the Lucknow-Agra Expressway and the Yamuna Expressway, creating a continuous high-speed corridor from Ghazipur to the National Capital Region (NCR)/Delhi.
Future Expansion: While it currently operates as a 6-lane expressway, the structures have been designed to be easily expandable to 8 lanes to accommodate future traffic growth.
Economic Corridor: The UP Government plans to develop industrial hubs and Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) along the expressway to generate employment and boost the local economy in Eastern UP.

Important Points

The Purvanchal Expressway is currently one of the longest expressways in India, surpassed by the Ganga Expressway (under construction) and the Mumbai-Nagpur Expressway.
The foundation stone for the project was laid by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on July 14, 2018, in Azamgarh.
The expressway features 18 flyovers, 7 major bridges, 7 railway overbridges (ROB), and 271 minor bridges to ensure an uninterrupted flow of traffic.
It plays a vital role in the Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor by improving logistics and transport efficiency for the manufacturing sectors.

198

Which one of the following is mismatched :

((a))
Jagnik Poet - Aalhacharit
((b))
Poet Vidyadhar - Chandrakanta
((c))
Vrindavan La Varma - Mrignayani
((d))
Maithilisharan - Saket

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Poet Vidyadhar - Chandrakanta

The correct answer is Poet Vidyadhar - Chandrakanta.

Key Points

Jagnik Poet - Aalhacharit: Jagnik was a famous folk-poet of the 12th Century and a contemporary of Chandbardai. He was the court poet of the Chandel king Parmardi Dev (also known as Parmal) of Mahoba. He composed the Alha-Khand, also popularly known as Aalhacharit or Parmal Raso, which describes the 52 battles and heroic exploits of the legendary brothers Alha and Udal. Hence, this match is correct.
Poet Vidyadhar - Chandrakanta: This is the mismatched pair. The famous fantasy/mystery novel Chandrakanta was actually written by Babu Devaki Nandan Khatri in the year 1888. It is considered one of the first works of prose in modern Hindi and is credited with popularizing the Devnagari script. Vidyadhar was a medieval poet whose verses are found in the Prakrita-Paingalam, but he is not the author of this novel. Hence, this match is mismatched.
Vrindavan Lal Varma - Mrignayani: Vrindavan Lal Varma was a prominent Hindi novelist and playwright, often referred to as the "Walter Scott of Hindi literature" for his historical novels. He published Mrignayani in 1950. The novel is a historical romance set in Gwalior, revolving around the lives of Raja Man Singh Tomar and his Gujari queen, Mrignayani. Hence, this match is correct.
Maithilisharan Gupt - Saket: Maithilisharan Gupt, honored with the title of Rashtrakavi, wrote the epic poem Saket, which was published in 1931. Saket is a masterpiece of the Dwivedi Era and retells the Ramayana from the perspective of Urmila, the wife of Lakshmana, who is often overlooked in traditional versions. Hence, this match is correct.

Additional Information

Babu Devaki Nandan Khatri: Born in 1861 in Muzaffarpur, Bihar, he is the pioneer of Tilism (fantasy) and Ayyari (spy) novels in Hindi. His work Chandrakanta Santati was so popular that many people reportedly learned the Hindi language specifically to read his books.
The Chandel Dynasty: The poet Jagnik belonged to the era of the Chandelas of Jejakabhukti. This dynasty is famous for building the Khajuraho Temples in Madhya Pradesh between 950 and 1050 AD. The martial folk-song style Alha is still sung in the Bundelkhand region during the monsoon season.
Vrindavan Lal Varma's Style: His writings are deeply rooted in the Bundelkhand geography and history. Apart from Mrignayani, his other notable works include Jhansi Ki Rani and Virata Ki Padmini. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1965.
Maithilisharan Gupt's Legacy: He was a pioneer of Khari Boli (plain dialect) poetry. He served as a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha. His other famous works include Bharat-Bharati (1912), which was a significant catalyst during the Indian Independence Movement.

Important Points

Literary Eras: The options represent different eras of Hindi Literature. Jagnik belongs to the Adikal (Early Period/Veergatha Kal), while Maithilisharan Gupt and Vrindavan Lal Varma belong to the Adhunik Kal (Modern Period).
Historical Context: The Alha-Khand is significant as it provides a cultural glimpse into the feudal society of Central India during the medieval period, emphasizing chivalry and sacrifice.
Genre of Chandrakanta: It is technically a romance filled with supernatural elements and magical illusions, set in the rival kingdoms of Vijaygarh and Naugarh.

199

In UP, the Ordnance factory is situated in :

((a))
Kanpur
((b))
Lucknow
((c))
Renukoot
((d))
Hazaratpur

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Kanpur

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

Kanpur is recognized as one of the major industrial hubs in Uttar Pradesh and is a significant center for defense production in India. It houses several key ordnance factories under the Ministry of Defence.
The Ordnance Factory Kanpur (OFC) was established in 1943 during World War II to meet the growing demand for military hardware and specialized equipment. It specializes in the manufacture of high-caliber shells, artillery equipment, and various types of ammunition components.
The Small Arms Factory (SAF), located in Kanpur, is one of the most vital units. It is responsible for producing specialized small arms such as rifles, carbines, and revolvers for the Indian Armed Forces and State Police forces.
Another major establishment is the Field Gun Factory (FGK), which was commissioned in 1979. This unit is dedicated to the production of heavy artillery guns and tank guns, playing a crucial role in the nation's defense preparedness.
Kanpur also hosts the Ordnance Equipment Factory (OEF), which focuses on the production of specialized defense textiles, leather goods, and combat uniforms, ensuring that the logistical needs of the soldiers are met with high-quality materials.

Additional Information

Lucknow: As the capital of Uttar Pradesh, it is not primarily known for traditional ordnance factories but is a major hub for Aeronautics. It houses the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) accessories division, which manufactures aircraft components and advanced systems.
Renukoot: Located in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh, this town is an industrial center famous for the Hindalco Industries aluminum plant. It is primarily associated with the metallurgical industry rather than defense ordnance.
Hazratpur: Situated in the Firozabad district, it is home to the Ordnance Equipment Factory (OEF) Hazratpur. This factory is specialized in the manufacture of parachutes, tents, and other textile-based equipment required by the Indian military and paramilitary forces.
Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor: To boost domestic defense production, the government has established a defense corridor with six nodes: Agra, Aligarh, Chitrakoot, Jhansi, Kanpur, and Lucknow. This initiative aims to make India self-reliant in defense manufacturing under the Atmanirbhar Bharat mission.

Important Points

Historical Context: The first ordnance factory in India was established in 1801 at Cossipore, Kolkata. The network has since expanded to include 41 factories across the country.
Restructuring of OFB: On October 1, 2021, the Government of India dissolved the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) and transformed the 41 ordnance factories into seven 100% government-owned Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
New Entities: Factories in Kanpur now operate under different DPSUs such as Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited (AWEIL), Troops Comforts Limited (TCL), and Munitions India Limited (MIL).
Significance of Kanpur: Due to its high density of defense and leather industries, Kanpur is often called the "Manchester of the East" and serves as the backbone of North India's industrial economy.

200

Which of the following inscriptions gives the information about two Ashvamedha Yajnas performed by the King Pushyamitra Shung :

((a))
Sarnath inscription
((b))
Besnagar inscription
((c))
Ayodhya inscription
((d))
Hathi gumpha inscription

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Ayodhya inscription

The correct answer is Ayodhya inscription.

Key Points

The Ayodhya Inscription, also known as the Dhanadeva-Ayodhya inscription, is a stone inscription found in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh. It belongs to the 1st century BC.
This inscription provides crucial historical evidence that King Pushyamitra Shunga, the founder of the Shunga Dynasty, performed two Ashvamedha Yajnas (horse sacrifices) to assert his imperial sovereignty. Hence, the Ayodhya inscription is the correct option.
The inscription was issued by Dhanadeva, who was the local king of Ayodhya and a descendant (specifically the sixth son or successor) of Pushyamitra Shunga. It describes Dhanadeva as the "Lord of Kosala".
The text is written in the Sanskrit language and the Brahmi script, marking one of the earliest instances where Sanskrit was used in epigraphy during the post-Mauryan era.
The mention of two Ashvamedha Yajnas highlights the revival of Vedic Brahmanism and traditional sacrificial rituals after the decline of the Mauryan Empire, which had largely patronized Buddhism.

Additional Information

Sarnath Inscription:
The Sarnath Inscription is primarily associated with Emperor Ashoka (the Lion Capital) and later Kushan kings like Kanishka.
It focuses on the propagation of Buddhism and monastic discipline rather than the Ashvamedha sacrifices of the Shunga kings. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Besnagar Inscription:
Located in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh, the Besnagar Inscription (Heliodorus Pillar) was erected by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador sent by Antialcidas.
It is dedicated to Lord Vasudeva (Vishnu) and mentions the Shunga King Bhagabhadra, proving the influence of Bhagavatism among Indo-Greeks. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Hathigumpha Inscription:
The Hathigumpha Inscription is located in the Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
It records the military achievements and reign of King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana Dynasty of Kalinga. It mentions his conflict with western powers but not Pushyamitra’s sacrifices. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Important Points

Pushyamitra Shunga came to power in 185 BC after assassinating Brihadratha, the last Mauryan ruler, during a military parade.
Historical and literary traditions, including the works of the grammarian Patanjali (who was a contemporary), suggest that Patanjali himself officiated as the chief priest for the Ashvamedha Yajnas performed by Pushyamitra Shunga.
The Shunga period is noted for the transition from Mauryan wood architecture to stone construction, as seen in the sculptural improvements of the Sanchi Stupa and the Bharhut Stupa railings.
The Ayodhya inscription serves as a vital chronological marker for the political history of North India during the 2nd and 1st centuries BC.

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