Allahabad High Court RO Official Paper (Held On: 10 Dec, 2021 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The number of triangles in the give figure is shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 30 triangles.

Hence, “Option 2” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EFKL

Option 2) QRWX

Option 3) NOTU

Option 4) HIMN

Thus, out of all 'HIMN' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

J = 10

And,

JAR = 29

Similarly,

PICKLE = ___

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

Table is a type in furniture and bag is represented separately.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

CE : XV

Similarly,

GJ :     

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area represents students who are swimmers but not cricketers → 17

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Average of nine numbers → 40

Average of first five numbers → 38

Average of last five numbers → 50

Formula used: Sum of all observations = Average × Number of observations

Sum of all nine numbers → 40 × 9 = 360

Sum of first five numbers → 38 × 5 = 190

Sum of last five numbers → 50 × 5 = 250

5^th number → (250 + 190) - 360 = 80

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given Expression: P + R ÷ T – K × O × C

P + R → P is the brother of R

R ÷ T → R is the sister of T

T – K → T is the husband of K

K × O → K is the mother of O

O × C → O is the mother of C

Thus, P is O's paternal uncle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and son on.

So, the directions are rotating 135 degrees clockwise.

Thus, South will become North - East.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 115 → Composite number

Option 2) 127 → Prime number

Option 3) 108 → Composite number

Option 4) 112 → Composite number

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 6 is common on both the dice I and II, it is clear that 4, 2, 1 and 5 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e., 3 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

2 → 5

4 → 1

6 → 3

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "5".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

FIRST is written as URIHG​

Similarly,

HUMAN is written as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

According to the question:

Total students → 35

Aman’s rank from the top → 6^th

Raj is seven ranks below Aman, so Raj’s rank from the top → 6^th + 7 = 13^th

Raj’s rank from the bottom → Total students - Raj’s rank from the top + 1

→ 35 - 13 + 1 = 23^rd

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

8 : 27 → (³√8 + 1)³ = (2 + 1)³ ⇒ 3³ → 27

Similarly,

216 : 343 → (3√216 + 1)3 = (6 + 1)3 ⇒ 73 → 343

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

546 : 591 → 546 + 45 = 591

Similarly,

963 : __ → 963 + 45 = 1008

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option figure 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is :-

 → √441 + 5 = 21 + 5 ⇒ 26

And,

 → √576 + 7 = 24 + 7 ⇒ 31

Similarly,

 → √1156 + 9 = 34 + 9 ⇒ 43

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is :-

1^st Row → (20 + 18) × 2 = 38 × 2 ⇒ 76

And,

2^nd Row → (47 + 25) × 2 = 72 × 2 ⇒ 144

Similarly,

3^rd Row → (13 + 16) × 2 = 29 × 2 ⇒ 58

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

Given: 16 - 4 + 12 × 3 ÷ 5 = ?

16 - 4 + 12 × 3 ÷ 5 = ? ⇒ 16 × 4 - 12 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 16 × 4 - 12 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 16 × 4 - 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 64 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 69 - 4 = ?

⇒ 65 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, 'lemp' is coded as 'truth'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, 'timp' is coded as 'knowledge'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, 'bemp' is coded as 'seek'.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Tilapia : Fish → Tilapia is a type of fish. 

Similarly,

Teal : ___ → Teal is a type of duck (bird).

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - Structured primary key

Key Points

• Structured primary key
• In the context of Database Management Systems (DBMS), there is no formal definition or standard type known as a structured primary key.
• Database keys are categorized based on their functionality and the number of attributes they contain, such as Primary, Candidate, Foreign, Atomic, and Composite keys.
• A Primary Key must always contain unique values and cannot contain NULL values.

Additional Information

• Atomic primary key
• Refers to a Primary Key that consists of only a single attribute or column.
• It is called "atomic" because it cannot be decomposed into smaller components while maintaining its unique identifying property.
• Composite primary key
• A Composite Key is a Primary Key that consists of two or more attributes.
• It is used when a single column is insufficient to uniquely identify a record in a table.
• Candidate key
• A Candidate Key is a set of one or more columns that can uniquely identify a row in a table.
• From the set of Candidate Keys, the database designer selects one to be the Primary Key.
• Foreign key
• A Foreign Key is a column or group of columns used to establish a link between the data in two tables.
• It acts as a cross-reference between tables because it references the Primary Key of another table.

The correct answer is - Volatile

Key Points

• Volatile memory
• It is a type of computer memory that requires continuous power to maintain the stored information.
• The contents of Cache and Main Memory (RAM) are wiped clean as soon as the power supply is interrupted or turned off.
• Volatile storage is typically much faster than non-volatile storage, making it ideal for temporary data processing by the CPU.
• It serves as the primary workspace for the computer, holding data and applications currently in use.

Additional Information

• Non-volatile memory
• This type of memory retains its data even when the power is off.
• Common examples include ROM (Read-Only Memory), Hard Drives, SSD, and Flash drives.
• It is used for long-term storage of the operating system, files, and permanent instructions like the BIOS.
• Static vs. Dynamic RAM
• Static RAM (SRAM): Used in Cache memory; it is faster and does not need constant refreshing but is more expensive.
• Dynamic RAM (DRAM): Used in Main Memory; it stores data in capacitors that must be periodically refreshed to retain information.
• Cache Memory
• A very high-speed semiconductor memory that can speed up the CPU.
• It acts as a buffer between the CPU and the main memory to store frequently accessed data.

The correct answer is - A protocol identifier

Key Points

• Protocol Identifier
• Every URL (Uniform Resource Locator) must begin with a protocol identifier, which specifies the method used to exchange data over the internet.
• Common examples of protocols include HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), HTTPS (HTTP Secure), and FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
• The protocol is followed by a colon and two forward slashes (://) to separate it from the rest of the web address.
• It informs the web browser how to retrieve the resource from the server.

Additional Information

• Domain Name
• A URL also requires a resource name, which is typically the unique registered domain name (e.g., testbook.com).
• The DNS (Domain Name System) translates these human-readable names into numerical IP addresses.
• Optional Components
• The letters www (World Wide Web) are a subdomain and are not mandatory; many modern websites function correctly without them.
• Other optional parts include the port number, the path to a specific folder or file, and query parameters.
• URL Anatomy
• A complete URL is a standardized string of characters that refers to a specific resource on a network.
• It ensures that different systems can find and access the same web pages or files consistently.

The correct answer is - a high level language

Key Points

• Compiler
• A compiler is a translation program that converts the entire source code written in a high-level language (HLL) into machine language or object code at once.
• It checks the syntax of the whole program and generates a list of errors if the code does not follow the language rules.
• The primary purpose of a compiler is to create an executable file that the computer's processor can understand and run directly.
• Languages such as C, C++, and COBOL utilize compilers to transform human-readable code into binary format.

Additional Information

• High-Level Language
• These languages are machine-independent and use English-like words and mathematical notations, making them easier for humans to read and write.
• Interpreter
• An interpreter is another type of language processor that translates high-level instructions into machine code line-by-line during execution.
• If an error is found, the interpreter stops execution immediately, unlike a compiler which scans the full program first.
• Assembler
• An assembler is a translator specifically designed to convert assembly language (which uses mnemonics) into machine language.
• Machine Language
• This is the lowest-level programming language, consisting entirely of binary digits (0s and 1s), which is the only language a computer's central processing unit (CPU) can execute directly.

The correct answer is decimal number.

Key Points

• Numbers written with base 10 belong to the decimal number system.
• The decimal system uses 10 digits: 0 to 9.
• It is also called the denary system.
• This is the standard number system used in everyday arithmetic.

Additional Information

• Other Number Systems:
• Binary: Base 2 (0,1)
• Octal: Base 8 (0–7)
• Hexadecimal: Base 16 (0–9, A–F)
• Important Points:
• Base of decimal system = 10.
• Hexadecimal is base 16, so option 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is - TCP/IP

Key Points

• TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol)
• A protocol is defined as a set of digital rules that govern how data is exchanged between devices on a network.
• TCP/IP is the foundational suite of protocols used to interconnect network devices on the Internet.
• It provides end-to-end connectivity by specifying how data should be formatted, addressed, transmitted, and routed.
• The protocol suite was developed by the Department of Defense (DoD) to ensure data integrity and communication during network failures.

Additional Information

• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that ensures the reliable delivery of data.
• It breaks data into packets at the source and reassembles them in the correct order at the destination.
• It performs error-checking and requests retransmission if data packets are lost or corrupted.
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• IP is a connectionless protocol responsible for logical addressing.
• It determines the routing path for packets based on the destination IP address.
• Common versions include IPv4 (32-bit addresses) and IPv6 (128-bit addresses).
• TCP/IP Model Layers
• The conceptual model consists of four layers: Network Access, Internet, Transport, and Application.
• It serves as the practical implementation of the theoretical OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model.

The correct answer is - Floppy disk

Key Points

• Floppy disk
• A floppy disk is a removable storage medium composed of a thin, flexible disk of magnetic storage material.
• It is encased in a square or rectangular plastic shell to protect the magnetic disk from dust and physical damage.
• The data is accessed by the computer using a floppy disk drive (FDD).
• Historically, the 3.5-inch floppy disk was the most common version, typically holding 1.44 MB of data.

Additional Information

• Hard drive
• A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is a non-volatile magnetic storage device that uses rapidly rotating rigid platters.
• Unlike a floppy disk, it is generally fixed inside the computer casing and offers significantly higher storage capacity.
• Monitor
• A monitor is an output device that displays information in pictorial form.
• It does not have the capability to store data magnetically or otherwise; its primary function is visual display.
• Magnetic Storage Media
• This category includes devices like magnetic tapes, floppy disks, and hard drives.
• Data is stored by magnetizing particles on a storage medium, where the orientation of the magnetization represents binary bits (0s and 1s).

The correct answer is - Whole

Key Points

• Whole Disk Encryption (WDE)
• It is a security technology that encrypts every bit of data that goes onto a disk or disk volume.
• WDE protects the entire contents of the storage medium, including the operating system, registry files, and temporary files.
• The data is encrypted automatically before it is stored on the physical hardware, ensuring that unauthorized users cannot access the information without the correct key.
• It provides at-rest data protection, making it essential for securing sensitive information on portable devices like laptops.

Additional Information

• Full Disk Encryption (FDE)
• FDE is a term frequently used synonymously with Whole Disk Encryption.
• It often involves pre-boot authentication, requiring a password or smart card before the computer even begins to load the operating system.
• Software vs. Hardware Encryption
• Software-based encryption uses the computer's CPU to perform encryption; common examples include BitLocker (Windows) and FileVault (macOS).
• Hardware-based encryption is performed by a dedicated processor on the storage device itself, often found in Self-Encrypting Drives (SEDs).
• Disk vs. File Encryption
• Unlike file-level encryption, which encrypts individual files, Whole Disk Encryption eliminates the risk of leaving unencrypted "fragments" of data in temporary system directories.
• It ensures uniform security across the entire storage surface regardless of the file type.

The correct answer is - Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

Key Points

• Freeware
• It is software that is distributed at no monetary cost to the end-user.
• Unlike Open Source software, the source code of freeware is generally closed and cannot be modified by the user.
• Google Toolbar is a classic example of freeware, provided as a free browser extension to enhance search functionality.
• Most Instant messaging applications (like the early Yahoo Messenger or modern equivalents) are classified as freeware because they are free to download and use.

Additional Information

• Shareware
• Software provided for free on a trial basis only, such as WinZip.
• Users are typically required to pay a fee to continue using the full version after the trial period expires.
• Open Source Software
• Software where the source code is publicly available for anyone to inspect, modify, and enhance.
• Linux is a prominent example of an open-source operating system.
• Proprietary Software
• Also known as closed-source software, where the publisher retains intellectual property rights.
• Microsoft Word is a commercial product that requires a paid license for legal use.
• Public Domain Software
• Software that has no legal, copyright, or editing restrictions.
• It is free to use and modify without any permission from the original creator.

The correct answer is - Error reporting

Key Points

• ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
• It is primarily used by network devices, such as routers, to send error messages indicating that a requested service is not available or that a host or router could not be reached.
• ICMP is a Network Layer protocol used for diagnostics and management purposes within an IP network.
• Unlike TCP or UDP, ICMP is not typically used to exchange data between systems but rather to provide feedback about communication issues.
• It generates reports when an IP packet cannot be delivered, such as when the Time to Live (TTL) expires or the destination is unreachable.

Additional Information

• Common ICMP Tools
• Ping: Uses ICMP Echo Request and Echo Reply messages to test the connectivity and latency between two nodes.
• Traceroute: Uses ICMP Time Exceeded messages to identify the path and intermediate routers (hops) packets take to reach a destination.
• Protocol Characteristics
• ICMP messages are encapsulated within IP datagrams to ensure they can be routed across the network.
• It does not provide error correction; it only provides error reporting. Recovery from errors is the responsibility of higher-layer protocols like TCP.
• Comparison with Other Options
• Addressing: Handled by the IP (Internet Protocol) itself using IPv4 or IPv6 addresses.
• Forwarding: The process where a router moves packets from an input interface to an output interface based on a routing table.
• Multicasting: Managed by protocols like IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) to deliver data to a group of recipients.

The correct answer is - Input device

Key Points

• Optical Character Recognition (OCR)
• OCR is a technology used as an input device to convert different types of documents, such as scanned paper documents, PDF files, or images captured by a digital camera, into editable and searchable data.
• It functions by scanning the text character by character, analyzing the strokes, and translating them into machine-encoded text.
• Because it sends data from the physical world into the computer system for processing, it is categorized strictly as an input device.

Additional Information

• Input Devices
• These are hardware components used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system.
• Common examples include the Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, OMR (Optical Mark Recognition), and MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition).
• Output Devices
• These devices receive information from the computer and present it to the user in a human-readable form.
• Typical examples include the Monitor, Printer, Plotter, and Speaker.
• Storage Devices
• Used for storing data and instructions permanently or temporarily for later use.
• Examples include Hard Disk Drives (HDD), Solid State Drives (SSD), and Optical Discs like CDs and DVDs.

The correct answer is - CPU

Key Points

• CPU (Central Processing Unit)
• The CPU is the primary component of a computer system responsible for processing data into meaningful information.
• It is constructed using Integrated Circuits (ICs), where millions of microscopic transistors are etched onto a single silicon chip.
• It functions as the brain of the computer, executing instructions from software and managing the operation of all other hardware components.
• The speed and efficiency of a computer are largely determined by the processing power of its CPU.

Additional Information

• Integrated Circuits (IC)
• An IC is a compact electronic circuit fabricated on a small piece of semiconductor material (usually silicon).
• The invention of the microprocessor integrated the functions of a CPU into a single IC, leading to the development of personal computers.
• RAM (Random Access Memory)
• RAM is volatile memory used to store data and instructions that the CPU needs in real-time.
• It allows for high-speed read/write access but does not process the data itself; it only serves as a temporary workspace.
• Hard Disk
• A Hard Disk is a non-volatile secondary storage device used for permanent data storage.
• While it contains control circuitry, its primary purpose is storage rather than active data processing.
• ROM (Read Only Memory)
• ROM stores permanent instructions required to start the computer, such as the BIOS.
• Data in ROM is generally non-volatile and cannot be easily modified by the user or the system during normal operation.

The correct answer is - Creeper

Key Points

• Creeper
• Creeper is widely recognized as the first computer virus (or more specifically, a self-replicating worm).
• It was written in 1971 by Bob Thomas at BBN Technologies.
• The program was designed as an experiment to see if a self-replicating application could move between computers on the ARPANET.
• When it infected a system, it displayed the message: "I'm the creeper, catch me if you can!"
• It was not designed to be malicious; it simply hopped from one TENEX operating system node to another.

Additional Information

• The Reaper
• Reaper was the first anti-virus software created.
• It was developed specifically to find and delete the Creeper program as it moved through the network.
• Brain Virus
• The Brain virus, released in 1986, is considered the first virus for MS-DOS based personal computers.
• It was created by the Farooq Alvi Brothers in Pakistan to track and prevent illegal copies of their software.
• PARAM
• PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by C-DAC in India.
• PARAM 8000 was India's first supercomputer, launched in 1991, and is not a computer virus.
• Elk Cloner
• Created in 1982, Elk Cloner was the first virus to spread via floppy disks on Apple II computers.

The correct answer is - Herman Hollerith

Key Points

• Herman Hollerith
• He developed the Tabulating Machine, which is widely recognized as the first electromechanical machine designed for data processing.
• The machine was specifically created to speed up the processing of data from the 1890 United States Census.
• It utilized punched cards to record and store information, which were then read and counted by the machine using electrical contacts.
• Hollerith's invention led to the founding of the Tabulating Machine Company, which later became a core part of IBM.

Additional Information

• Howard Aiken
• He was the primary engineer behind the Harvard Mark I (IBM Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator), a pioneering electromechanical computer completed in 1944.
• Blaise Pascal
• A French mathematician who invented the Pascaline in 1642, which was an early mechanical calculator capable of performing addition and subtraction.
• John Napier
• A Scottish mathematician who invented logarithms and developed a manual calculating device known as Napier's Bones for multiplication and division.
• Punched Card Technology
• This technology served as the primary medium for data input and storage in early computing systems until the mid-20^th century.
• The concept was inspired by the Jacquard loom, which used cards to control textile patterns.

The correct answer is - Microcomputers

Key Points

• Microcomputers
• A microcomputer is a complete computer on a small scale, designed for use by one person at a time.
• These systems are characterized by the use of a microprocessor as their Central Processing Unit (CPU).
• Common examples include desktop computers, laptops, tablets, and smartphones.
• The term "micro" refers to the small physical size of the components compared to older computer architectures.

Additional Information

• Supercomputers
• These are the most powerful and expensive computers designed to perform complex calculations at extremely high speeds.
• They are used for specialized tasks such as weather forecasting, quantum mechanics, and molecular modeling.
• Performance is typically measured in FLOPS (Floating-point Operations Per Second) rather than MIPS.
• Mainframes
• Large, powerful systems used primarily by large organizations for critical applications and bulk data processing.
• They are designed to support thousands of users simultaneously and handle massive amounts of input and output.
• Key features include high reliability, security, and extensive input-output facilities.
• Minicomputers
• Mid-range computers that are more powerful than microcomputers but less powerful than mainframes.
• Historically used for scientific research, industrial process control, and as small business servers.
• In modern computing, many tasks previously handled by minicomputers are now performed by workstations or servers.

The correct answer is - RAM memory

Key Points

• RAM (Random Access Memory)
• It is the primary memory of a computer that serves as a temporary workspace for the CPU.
• RAM is where the computer loads the operating system, application programs, and data currently in use so the processor can access them quickly.
• It is volatile memory, meaning all data stored in it is erased when the power supply is turned off.
• The speed and performance of a system are often directly related to the amount of RAM installed.

Additional Information

• Cache memory
• A high-speed buffer memory used to store frequently accessed instructions and data.
• It is much faster than RAM and is located closer to or inside the CPU.
• ROM memory (Read Only Memory)
• It is non-volatile memory used to store permanent instructions like the BIOS.
• Data in ROM cannot be easily modified or deleted by normal computer operations.
• CPU (Central Processing Unit)
• Known as the brain of the computer, responsible for executing instructions and processing data.
• It fetches data from the RAM, processes it, and sends the output back to the memory or storage devices.

The correct answer is - Operating System

Key Points

• Operating System (OS)
• An operating system is the essential software that manages a computer's hardware, memory, and all of its software and processes.
• Booting is the process of powering on a computer and loading the operating system into the RAM (Random Access Memory).
• Without an operating system, the computer hardware cannot communicate with the user or execute any application programs.
• During the boot sequence, the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) identifies, tests, and initializes system devices before handing over control to the OS.

Additional Information

• Compiler
• A compiler is a translation program that converts high-level programming language into machine code so that the CPU can execute it.
• It is a developer tool and is not involved in the system booting process.
• Loader
• A loader is a part of the operating system that is responsible for loading programs and libraries into memory.
• While the "boot loader" is essential for starting the OS, the computer specifically cannot function or complete the boot cycle without the Operating System itself.
• Assembler
• An assembler is a program that translates assembly language (low-level code) into machine language.
• It is used during software development and does not play a role in the hardware boot sequence.
• BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)
• The BIOS is the firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process (Power-On Self-Test).
• Its main job is to locate the bootloader, which then starts the operating system.

The correct answer is - File allocation table

Key Points

• File allocation table
• The File Allocation Table (FAT) is a critical file system component that acts as a map or index for the operating system to locate files on a disk.
• In a DOS environment, if the FAT is corrupted by a virus or error, the system cannot identify which clusters belong to which files.
• Even if the physical data remains on the disk, the operating system cannot retrieve it because the logical links between data blocks are lost.
• It is stored at the beginning of a volume to ensure the system can access it immediately upon mounting the drive.

Additional Information

• Root Directory Area
• This area stores specific information about files such as filenames, extensions, file attributes, and the starting cluster number.
• While the Root Directory lists the file, the FAT is required to find the subsequent parts of the file if it spans multiple clusters.
• BAT Files
• A BAT file (Batch file) is a plain text file containing a sequence of commands to be executed by the command-line interpreter.
• Corruption of a BAT file affects the execution of scripts but does not prevent the operating system from retrieving other data from the disk.
• DOS (Disk Operating System)
• DOS refers to a family of disk-based operating systems, most notably MS-DOS, which used the FAT file system architecture exclusively for data management.
• It uses a command-line interface where users interact with the hardware through typed instructions.

The correct answer is - keyboard

Key Points

• Dumb Terminals
• A dumb terminal consists of a monitor (display) and a keyboard, serving as a basic interface for a remote computer system.
• It lacks local processing power (CPU), memory (RAM), and internal storage (hard drive).
• It is used primarily to send data to and receive data from a central host computer or mainframe.
• The primary function is input and output; the terminal itself does not execute applications or process data locally.

Additional Information

• Intelligent Terminals
• Unlike dumb terminals, intelligent terminals contain a built-in processor and memory.
• They can perform limited local data processing and formatting before sending information to the host server.
• Mainframe Architecture
• Dumb terminals were widely used in time-sharing systems where many users accessed a single powerful mainframe simultaneously.
• Communication between the terminal and the host is typically handled via serial ports or network connections.
• Thin Clients
• A thin client is a modern evolution of the dumb terminal concept, relying on a client-server architecture where most processing occurs on the server side.
• They are used in virtual desktop infrastructures (VDI) to provide a cost-effective and secure computing environment.

The correct answer is - Logical error

Key Points

• Logical error
• A logical error is a mistake in a program's source code that results in incorrect or unexpected behavior.
• It occurs when the algorithm is designed incorrectly, even though the code follows the correct syntax of the language.
• Unlike other errors, a program with a logical error will compile and execute without crashing, but it produces incorrect output.
• These errors are often the most difficult to identify because the compiler or interpreter cannot detect them automatically.

Additional Information

• Syntax error
• Refers to a mistake in the grammar or rules of the programming language.
• Common examples include missing semicolons, unmatched parentheses, or misspelled keywords.
• Programs with syntax errors will fail to compile or run.
• Runtime error
• An error that occurs during the execution of the program.
• It is typically caused by invalid operations such as division by zero or accessing an out-of-bounds array index.
• Unlike logical errors, runtime errors usually cause the program to terminate abnormally or crash.
• Compiler error
• A broad category of errors detected by the compiler during the translation of source code into machine code.
• It prevents the creation of an executable file and includes syntax and semantic errors.

The correct answer is - PDA

Key Points

• PDA (Personal Digital Assistant)
• A PDA is a compact, mobile device that functions as a personal information manager, designed to be held in one hand.
• It uses a handheld operating system specifically designed for mobile hardware with limited processing power and small screens.
• Common operating systems for these devices include Palm OS, Windows CE, and Pocket PC.
• PDAs were the precursors to modern smartphones, featuring touchscreens or buttons for navigation and data entry.

Additional Information

• Personal Computer (PC)
• A Personal Computer is intended for use by a single person at a fixed location.
• It runs desktop operating systems like Windows, macOS, or Linux, which require significant hardware resources.
• Laptop
• A Laptop is a portable computer that integrates all the components of a PC into a single unit.
• Despite being portable, it utilizes full-scale operating systems rather than specialized handheld systems.
• Mainframe
• A Mainframe is a large, powerful computer used primarily by large organizations for bulk data processing.
• It is designed for high-volume transactions and multi-user environments, not for handheld operations.

The correct answer is - Control, Alt

Key Points

• Modifier Keys
• The Control (Ctrl) and Alt (Alternate) keys are classified as modifier keys.
• They are designed to be used in combination with other keys to perform keyboard shortcuts or special tasks.
• These keys usually do nothing when pressed alone; they modify the normal action of another key.
• Common examples include Ctrl + S (Save), Ctrl + P (Print), and Alt + F4 (Close window).

Additional Information

• Shift Key
• The Shift key is also a modifier key used primarily to type capital letters and the symbols shown on the upper part of keys.
• Toggle Keys
• Keys like Caps Lock and Num Lock are called toggle keys because they switch a specific function on or off.
• Caps Lock: Toggles between uppercase and lowercase letters.
• Num Lock: Enables or disables the numeric keypad on the right side of most keyboards.
• Function Keys
• The keys labeled F1 through F12 are function keys.
• They are used to perform specific tasks depending on the software or operating system being used (e.g., F1 is commonly used for Help).
• Navigation Keys
• These include keys like Insert, Delete, Home, End, Page Up, and Page Down.
• They are used for moving around in documents or webpages and editing text.

The correct answer is: Taciturn.

Key Points

• The word "Gregarious" refers to someone who is sociable, outgoing, and enjoys the company of others. (समाजप्रिय)
• Example: She is a gregarious person, always surrounded by friends and engaging in lively conversations.
• "Taciturn" refers to someone who is reserved, uncommunicative, or speaks very little. (अल्पभाषी)
• Example: Unlike his gregarious brother, he is taciturn and prefers to keep to himself.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Gregarious' is 'Taciturn'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Taciturn.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Garrulous (बातूनी): Excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters.
• Example: He is so garrulous that it can be hard to get a word in during the conversation.
• Affable (मिलनसार): Friendly, good-natured, or easy to talk to.
• Example: The new teacher was very affable, making it easy for students to approach her with their concerns.
• Jaunty (प्रसन्नचित्त): Having or expressing a lively, cheerful, and self-confident manner.
• Example: He walked into the room with a jaunty step, exuding confidence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The error lies in part (I) of the sentence.
• The phrase "Not just" acts as a correlative conjunction here and must be paired properly with "but" or "but also / but even".
• The structure "Not just... even..." is grammatically incomplete. It needs to be corrected to "Not just... but even..." to establish the correct relationship between the two clauses.
• Therefore, inserting the conjunction "but" before "even working women" is required.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Not just housewives, but even working women do not have the financial independence as they end up giving their salaries to their husbands."

Additional Information

• (II): "the financial independence as they end up" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and logically follows the context.
• (III): "giving their salaries to their husbands." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and forms a meaningful clause.
• (IV): "no error" – This would be the correct option if there were no grammatical mistakes in the sentence, but there is a missing conjunction in part (I).

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Déjà vu.

Key Points

• The word Déjà vu refers to the phenomenon of feeling as though you have already experienced something that is happening for the first time. (पहले से अनुभव होने का एहसास)
• Example: As she walked into the room, she was overwhelmed by a sense of déjà vu, as if she had been there before.
• Déjà vu is commonly associated with situations that feel familiar but cannot be explained rationally or scientifically.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Déjà vu.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• De jure (कानूनी रूप से): Refers to something that exists by right or according to law.
• Example: The country has de jure independence, but in practice, it is heavily influenced by its neighboring power.
• De novo (नई शुरुआत): Means starting from the beginning or anew.
• Example: The judge ordered a de novo trial because the evidence was mishandled in the previous case.
• Detente (तनाव में कमी): Refers to the easing of strained relations, especially in a political context.
• Example: The two nations entered a period of détente after decades of conflict.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. develop; intrinsic.

Key Points

• "Develop" means to grow or cause to grow and become more mature, advanced, or elaborate. (विकसित करना)
• Example: Teachers help students develop their skills and confidence.
• "Intrinsic" refers to something that is inherent, essential, or naturally a part of something. (अंतरनिहित)
• Example: A sense of curiosity is intrinsic to human nature.
• In the given sentence, the Minister is emphasizing the importance of identifying and enhancing each student’s inherent (intrinsic) talents, which makes "develop" and "intrinsic" the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. develop; intrinsic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enlarge; dormant (बढ़ाना; सुप्त):
• "Enlarge" means to make something bigger or more extensive. (बड़ा करना)
• Example: They plan to enlarge the community center to accommodate more people.
• "Dormant" means inactive or in a state of rest but capable of being activated. (सुप्त)
• Example: The volcano has been dormant for centuries.
• Incorrect as the sentence talks about talents that need to be "developed" rather than "enlarged".
• Flourish; hidden (फूलना-फैलना; छुपा हुआ):
• "Flourish" means to grow or develop in a healthy or vigorous way. (फूलना-फैलना)
• Example: The business began to flourish after they implemented new strategies.
• "Hidden" means concealed or not visible. (छिपा हुआ)
• Example: She discovered hidden treasures in the attic.
• Incorrect as "flourish" refers to thriving, which doesn't align with the context of developing talents.
• Belittle; concealed (तुच्छ करना; छिपा हुआ):
• "Belittle" means to make someone or something seem less important. (तुच्छ करना)
• Example: It’s not fair to belittle someone’s efforts.
• "Concealed" means hidden or kept secret. (छिपा हुआ)
• Example: The criminal concealed the evidence from the authorities.
• Incorrect as "belittle" has a negative connotation, which is unsuitable for the context of encouraging talents.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'Adjective'.

Key Points

• The underlined word "Well" in the sentence “Well begun is half done” is used to describe or modify the verb "begun", indicating the manner in which the action is performed.
• It qualifies the verb and provides additional information about how the action was initiated, which is a characteristic of adjectives.
• In this context, “Well” functions as an adjective because it describes the quality of the action (how it was “begun”).
• Adjectives are often used to modify nouns or pronouns, but in certain contexts, like this, they can also modify verbs or verbal expressions, particularly when describing the manner of an action.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Adverb: An adverb modifies verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs by explaining how, when, where, or to what extent an action is performed. However, in this sentence, “Well” is not functioning as an adverb because it directly relates to the quality of the action, making it an adjective.
• Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. The word “Well” is not a noun in this context as it does not represent any of these entities.
• Interjection: An interjection is a word or phrase that expresses sudden emotion or reaction. The word “Well” is not being used in this way in the given sentence.

The correct answer is: 4) incompatible.

Key Points

• The word "incongruous" refers to something that is not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. (असंगत)
• Example: The modern furniture looked incongruous in the ancient castle.
• "Incompatible" means not able to exist or work together in harmony or agreement. (असंगत)
• Example: Their personalities were so incompatible that they decided not to work on the project together.
• Since "incongruous" and "incompatible" have similar meanings, the correct synonym is "incompatible."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 4) incompatible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inefficient (अक्षम): Someone or something that is not achieving maximum productivity or wasting time and resources.
• Example: The old machinery is inefficient and needs to be replaced.
• Abetted (उकसाया हुआ): To assist or encourage someone to do something wrong, especially a crime.
• Example: He was accused of having abetted the thief in his escape.
• Apposite (उचित): Something that is very appropriate or suitable to the situation.
• Example: His comment was particularly apposite for the current discussion.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The question asks to identify the correctly spelt word among the given options.
• Let us analyze the options:
• Option 1: APPROPRIATE - This word is correctly spelled. It means 'suitable or proper in the circumstances.' (उचित)
• Option 2: AMBITOUS - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'AMBITION' or 'AMBITIOUS.'
• Option 3: CONVENENTLY - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'CONVENIENTLY.'
• Option 4: EXAGERATE - This is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'EXAGGERATE.'
• Only 'APPROPRIATE' is spelled correctly among the given options.

Correct word: APPROPRIATE

Additional Information

Let’s understand the correct spellings and meanings of the other words:

• AMBITIOUS - having or showing a strong desire and determination to succeed (महत्त्वाकांक्षी)
• CONVENIENTLY - in a way that is easy, suitable, or comfortable for a particular purpose (सुविधाजनक ढंग से)
• EXAGGERATE - to represent something as being larger, better, or worse than it really is (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना)

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. harbinger of.

Key Points

• The word "harbinger" means a person or thing that announces or signals the approach of another. (सूचक / अग्रदूत)
• Example: The blooming flowers are a harbinger of spring.
• The correct word to use is "harbinger of" because "of" indicates the relationship between the harbinger and what it announces. (का सूचक)
• Example: Autumn is the harbinger of winter.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. harbinger of.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Harbinger to (सूचक के लिए): This is an incorrect usage because "to" does not fit grammatically with "harbinger."
• Example: This phrase is rarely used and is grammatically incorrect.
• Harbinger over (सूचक पर): This is incorrect because "over" does not convey the intended meaning of something signaling another.
• Example: This usage is not grammatically appropriate.
• Harbinger with (सूचक के साथ): This is not a standard usage as "with" does not align with the meaning of "harbinger."
• Example: The phrase "harbinger with" is not used in standard English.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. To apologize.

Key Points

• The idiom "Eat humble pie" means to admit one's mistake or wrongdoing and apologize for it. (गलती स्वीकार करना और माफी मांगना)
• Example: After realizing his mistake, John had to eat humble pie and apologize to his team for his rude behavior.
• Here, the phrase signifies a sense of humility required to accept one’s fault and make amends.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To apologize.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Very poor (बहुत गरीब): Refers to a state of extreme poverty or lack of resources.
• Example: The family was very poor and struggled to afford even the basic necessities.
• Complete failure (पूर्ण विफलता): Refers to the total inability to achieve success.
• Example: The project was a complete failure due to poor planning and execution.
• Out of elements (असहज स्थिति): Refers to being in an unfamiliar or uncomfortable situation.
• Example: Sarah felt out of elements during the formal dinner party as she wasn’t used to such settings.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. (V) (I) (III) (IV) (II)

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the imperative phrase "Please write," which is part (V).
• Next, we need the object of the verb. "The gist of" (I) followed by "the paragraph" (III) forms the complete object, creating the sequence (V-I-III).
• The final part of the sentence provides the constraint. "In not more" (IV) followed by "than fifty words" (II) completes the instruction logically.
• When combined, the sequence becomes: "Please write the gist of the paragraph in not more than fifty words."

Therefore, the correct answer is (V) (I) (III) (IV) (II).

Additional Information

• Option 1 (V-IV-II-III-I): "Please write in not more than fifty words the paragraph the gist of." This is incorrect because the object "the gist of" is placed at the end without a noun to follow it.
• Option 3 (V-III-IV-II-I): "Please write the paragraph in not more than fifty words the gist of." This structure is fragmented and fails to link "the gist" to the action of writing.
• Option 4 (V-I-IV-II-III): "Please write the gist of in not more than fifty words the paragraph." This is grammatically incorrect as the preposition "of" is separated from its object "the paragraph" by the word-count constraint.

‘निर्जन’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त समास का सही उत्तर है- बहुब्रीहि

Key Points

• 'निर्जन' का सामासिक विग्रह 'जहाँ कोई जन न हो' अर्थात एक 'विशेष स्थान' (एकांत या सुनसान जगह) होता है।
• यहाँ 'निर्' और 'जन' दोनों पद मिलकर किसी तीसरे अर्थ (सुनसान स्थान) की ओर संकेत कर रहे हैं, इसलिए यहाँ बहुब्रीहि समास है।
• बहुब्रीहि समास के अन्य उदाहरण: नीलकंठ (नीला है कंठ जिसका - शिव), दशानन (दस हैं आनन जिसके - रावण)।

Important Points 

 समास के मुख्य भेद-

1. अव्यय���भाव समास
2. तत्पुरुष समास
3. द्वंद्व समास
4. बहुब्रीहि समास
5. द्विगु समास
6. कर्मधारय समास

Additional Information

‘पितृण’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त संधि का सही उत्तर है- दीर्घ

Key Points

• 'पितृण' का सही संधि विच्छेद 'पितृ + ऋण' होता है।यहाँ 'ऋ' और 'ऋ' के मिलने से दीर्घ 'ऋ' हो गया है।
• जब दो सवर्ण (समान) स्वर पास-पास आते हैं तो मिलकर दीर्घ स्वर में बदल जाते हैं, इसे दीर्घ संधि कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण: होतृ + ऋकार = होतृकार, मातृ + ऋण = मातृण।
• अन्य उदाहरण: 
• वेद + अंत = वेदांत (अ+अ=आ)
• गिरि + ईश = गिरीश (इ+ई=ई)
• भानु + उदय = भानूदय (उ+उ=ऊ)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 स्वर संधि के मुख्य भेद-

1. दीर्घ संधि
2. गुण संधि
3. वृद्धि संधि
4. यण संधि
5. अयादि संधि

Additional Information

‘एक ही रट लगाना’ इस भाव को व्यक्त करने वाले मुहावरे का सही उत्तर है- सिर पर भूत सवार होना

Key Points

• 'सिर पर भूत सवार होना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है- एक ही रट लगाना अथवा किसी धुन में मग्न हो जाना।
• जब कोई व्यक्ति किसी एक ही विचार या कार्य को बार-बार दोहराता है, तब इस मुहावरे का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने सामान्य अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करता है।
• उदाहरण-

1. उसे हर समय मैच जीतने का भूत सवार रहता है।
2. परीक्षा के दिनों में उसके सिर पर पढ़ने का भूत सवार हो गया है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 मुहावरों के भेद-

1. सादृश्य पर आधारित मुहावरे
2. शारीरिक अंगों पर आधारित मुहावरे
3. प्रतीकात्मक मुहावरे

Additional Information

‘मेरे निमित्त ही’ वाक्यांश में प्रयुक्त कारक का सही उत्तर है- संप्रदान

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य में ‘मेरे निमित्त’ पद में संप्रदान कारक है क्योंकि यहाँ ‘निमित्त’ का प्रयोग ‘के लिए’ के अर्थ में किया गया है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए या कुछ दिया जाए, उसे संप्रदान कारक कहते हैं।
• इसके विभक्ति चिह्न 'के लिए' और 'को' हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त 'के निमित्त', 'के हेतु', 'के वास्ते' आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग भी इसी कारक में होता है।
• उदाहरण 1: राम के निमित्त लक्ष्मण वन गए।
• उदाहरण 2: छात्र पढ़ने के हेतु पाठशाला जाते हैं।

Important Points 

 कारक -

• ​संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से उसका सीधा संबंध क्रिया (काम) के साथ जाना जाता है, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• ये वाक्य में शब्दों के बीच संबंध जोड़ते हैं और उनके अर्थ को स्पष्ट करते हैं।
• हिंदी में कारक के 8 भेद (कर्ता, कर्म, करण, संप्रदान, अपादान, संबंध, अधिकरण, संबोधन) होते हैं,
• जिन्हें चिन्हों (विभक्ति) द्वारा पहचाना जाता है (जैसे: ने, को, से, के लिए)।

Additional Information

दिए गए विकल्पों में शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द नहीं होने का सही उत्तर है- कृत्यकृत्य

Key Points

• विकल्प 'B' में दिया गया शब्द 'कृत्यकृत्य' वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है। इसका शुद्ध रूप 'कृतकृत्य' होता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण के अनुसार, वर्तनी का अर्थ शब्दों को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के क्रम से है।
• 'कृतकृत्य' का अर्थ होता है - जिसने अपना कार्य पूरा कर लिया हो या जो धन्य हो चुका हो।
• इसमें 'कृत्य' शब्द की पुनरावृत्ति न होकर 'कृत' और 'कृत्य' का मेल होता है।
• इसी प्रकार के अन्य उदाहरण: सकुशल (शुद्ध) - सकुलश (अशुद्ध), उपरोक्त (अशुद्ध) - उपर्युक्त (शुद्ध)।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 वर्तनी अशुद्धियों के मुख्य भेद-

1. स्वर संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: अ-आ, इ-ई की गलतियाँ)
2. व्यंजन संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: श-ष-स का भ्रम)
3. समास या संधि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ (जैसे: शब्दों को जोड़ते समय होने वाली त्रुटि)

Additional Information

वाक्य में प्रयोग की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- समर ने रोटी खाई।

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्यों में 'समर ने रोटी ��ाई' पूर्णतः शुद्ध है क्योंकि यहाँ क्रिया कर्म के लिंग के अनुसार प्रयुक्त हुई है।
• व्याकरणिक नियम के अनुसार, यदि भूतकाल की सकर्मक क्रिया में कर्ता के साथ 'ने' विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया जाता है,
• तो क्रिया का लिंग और वचन कर्ता के अनुसार न होकर कर्म (Object) के अनुसार होता है।
• चूँकि यहाँ 'रोटी' एक स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है, इसलिए क्रिया भी स्त्रीलिंग 'खाई' होगी।
• उदाहरण: 1. राम ने किताब (स्त्रीलिंग) पढ़ी। 2. सीता ने आम (पुल्लिंग) खाया।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 हिंदी में 'ने' विभक्ति के मुख्य नियम-

1. 'ने' का प्रयोग केवल सकर्मक क्रियाओं के साथ भूतकाल में होता है।
2. यदि कर्ता के साथ 'ने' और कर्म के साथ 'को' लगा हो, तो क्रिया सदैव पुल्लिंग, एकवचन और अन्य पुरुष में होती है।
3. अकर्मक क्रियाओं के साथ (कुछ अपवादों को छोड़कर) 'ने' का प्रयोग नहीं होता है।

Additional Informationलिंग व कारक अशुद्ध वाक्य-

'ऋ' के उच्चारण स्थान का सही उत्तर है- मूर्द्धन्य

Key Points

• 'ऋ' का उच्चारण स्थान मूर्द्धा है, इसलिए इसे मूर्द्धन्य वर्ण कहा जाता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण के नियमानुसार, जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण मुख के मूर्धा (कठोर तालु के ऊपरी भाग) से होता है, वे मूर्द्धन्य कहलाते हैं।
• इसके लिए संस्कृत का सूत्र है- 'ऋटुरषाणां मूर्धा'।
• इस नियम के अंतर्गत ऋ, ट-वर्ग (ट, ठ, ड, ढ, ण), र और ष वर्ण आते हैं।
• अन्य उदाहरण: ऋषि, ऋण।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 उच्चारण स्थान के मुख्य भेद-

1. कंठ्य (कंठ से)
2. तालव्य (तालु से)
3. मूर्द्धन्य (मूर्धा से)
4. दंत्य (दांतों से)
5. ओष्ठ्य (ओष्ठ से)
6. नासिका (नाक से)

Additional Information

‘बद्धाक्षर' का सही उदाहरण है- एक्

Key Points

• 'एक्' एक बद्धाक्षर है क्योंकि इसके उच्चारण के अंत में व्यंजन ध्वनि (क्) स्पष्ट है और वह स्वर रहित है।
• जिस अक्षर की अंतिम ध्वनि व्यंजन होती है, उसे बद्धाक्षर कहा जाता है। इसमें अक्षर के अंत में स्वर का लोप होता है या हलंत का प्रयोग होता है।
• बद्धाक्षर के अन्य उदाहरण: आप, नाम, सत आदि।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 ध्वनि के आधार पर अक्षर के भेद-

1. मुक्ताक्षर
2. बद्धाक्षर

Additional Information

'गो' शब्द के अनेकार्थी रूपों के आधार पर 'गो' का अर्थ नहीं है का सही उत्तर है- बादल

Key Points

• 'गो' एक अनेकार्थी शब्द है। हिंदी साहित्य और व्याकरण में 'गो' शब्द का प्रयोग अत्यंत व्यापक है, जिसका अर्थ संदर्भ के अनुसार बदल जाता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण के अनुसार अनेकार्थी शब्द वे शब्द होते हैं, जिनके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हों।
• 'गो' के अर्थों में गाय, पृथ्वी, दिशा, माता, वाणी, सरस्वती, आँख, स्वर्ग, बाण, जल, और इन्द्रिय शामिल हैं।
• विकल्पों में 'बादल' शब्द 'गो' का अर्थ नहीं है। बादल के समानार्थी शब्द मेघ, जलधर, ���ारिद आदि होते हैं।
• अन्य उदाहरण: अक्ष (धुरी, आँख, पासा), अंक (संख्या, गोद, नाटक का अध्याय)।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information अनेकार्थी शब्द के कुछ प्रमुख उदाहरण-

‘किला’ शब्द का सही उत्तर है- अरबी

Key Points

• 'किला' शब्द का उद्गम अरबी भाषा से हुआ है। इसका सामान्य अर्थ गढ़ या दुर्ग होता है।
• हिन्दी भाषा में वे शब्द जो विदेशी भाषाओं (जैसे- अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी आदि) के प्रभाव से आए हैं, उन्हें विदेशज या आगत शब्द कहते हैं।
• अरबी भाषा के अन्य उदाहरण: अदालत, मुसाफिर, औलाद, वकील, इलाज।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 उत्पत्ति के आधार पर शब्द के भेद-

1. तत्सम
2. तद्भव
3. देशज
4. विदेशज (आगत)
5. संकर

Additional Information

The correct answer is Parliament can declare any area as scheduled area.

Key Points

• According to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to declare an area as a Scheduled Area. The Parliament does not have the initial authority to declare such areas, although it can make laws regarding their administration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• As per Article 53(2) of the Constitution, the Supreme Command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President, and the exercise thereof is regulated by law. This makes the President the formal head of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is responsible for constituting a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. The President appoints the Chairman and four other members of the commission. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Article 339 provides that the President may at any time, and shall at the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution, appoint a commission to report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the States. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Fifth Schedule:
• It deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule).
• The President can also increase or decrease the area of a Scheduled Area, alter its boundary lines, or rescind any such order in consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.
• The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas must submit a report to the President annually regarding the administration of such areas.
• Military Powers of the President:
• The President appoints the Chief of the Army, the Chief of the Naval Staff, and the Chief of the Air Staff.
• The President can declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of the Parliament.
• The Finance Commission:
• The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body that gives recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States.
• The Chairman of the 15^th Finance Commission was N.K. Singh, and recently the government constituted the 16^th Finance Commission under the chairmanship of Arvind Panagariya in December 2023.

Important Points

• Constitutional Commissions:
• Apart from SCs and STs, the President can also appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes under Article 340.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article 338, while the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is established under Article 338A.
• Tribes Advisory Council:
• In states having Scheduled Areas, a Tribes Advisory Council must be established consisting of not more than 20 members, three-fourths of whom shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
• PESA Act, 1996:
• The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 was enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas.

The correct answer is Pichwal painting - Gujarat.

Key Points

• Madhubani painting: This traditional art form, also known as Mithila art, is native to the Mithila region of Bihar and neighboring Nepal. It is characterized by complex geometrical patterns and is traditionally created by women. Hence, the pair Madhubani painting - Bihar is correctly matched.
• Phulkari Art: Literally translating to "flower work," this embroidery technique is the traditional craft of Punjab and Haryana. It involves intricate floral patterns embroidered on khaddar (hand-spun cotton) using silken threads. Hence, the pair Phulkari Art - Haryana is correctly matched.
• Pichwal painting: Also referred to as Pichwai, these are large devotional cloth paintings that depict Lord Krishna (specifically as Srinathji). This art form originated and is primarily practiced in Nathdwara, Rajasthan, not Gujarat. Hence, the pair Pichwal painting - Gujarat is not correctly matched.
• Kalamkari Art: This is an ancient style of hand-painting or block-printing on cotton textiles. It is predominantly practiced in the state of Andhra Pradesh, with two distinct styles: Srikalahasti (using a pen) and Machilipatnam (using blocks). Hence, the pair Kalamkari Art - Andhra Pradesh is correctly matched.

Additional Information

• Madhubani Painting Details:
• Location: Madhubani district and Mithila region of Bihar.
• Features: Artists use fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks. The dyes are extracted from natural sources like turmeric, indigo, and sandalwood.
• Themes: Predominantly features Hindu deities like Krishna, Ram, Shiva, Durga, and Lakshmi, along with elements of nature like the sun and moon.
• Phulkari Art Details:
• Origin: Mentioned in the famous Punjabi folklore Heer Ranjha in the 15^th century.
• Uses: Traditionally used for shawls, dupattas, and trousseau for weddings in Punjab and Haryana.
• Functions: It was a domestic craft practiced by women to celebrate significant life events like the birth of a child or marriages.
• Pichwai Painting Details:
• Location: Nathdwara in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan.
• History: Developed in the 17^th century when the idol of Srinathji was shifted from Mathura to Nathdwara.
• Applications: These paintings are hung behind the deity in temples to depict different moods, seasons, and festivals like Janmashtami and Holi.
• Kalamkari Art Details:
• Styles: The Srikalahasti style uses a tamarind pen for freehand drawing, while the Machilipatnam style relies on vegetable-dyed wooden blocks.
• Data/Facts: It received Geographical Indication (GI) tag protection for both its styles in Andhra Pradesh.
• Materials: Uses only natural dyes and involves a 23-step process of bleaching, softening, and painting.

Important Points

• Geographical Indications (GI): Many of these art forms are protected under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, which ensures the preservation of their origin-based identity.
• Artistic Evolution: While traditional arts were once restricted to walls and ritualistic spaces, they have now evolved into commercial art, found on saris, bags, and home decor items globally.
• Conservation: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Textiles and various handicraft boards, provides subsidies and training programs to artisans to keep these centuries-old traditions alive.

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, which includes the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian Air Force.
• Under Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is specifically vested in the President, and the exercise of this power is regulated by law.
• The President has the formal authority to appoint the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS), the Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS), and the Chief of the Air Staff (CAS).
• The Prime Minister (Option 1) leads the Cabinet Committee on Appointments (ACC), which discusses and recommends the names of the officers for these posts; however, the Prime Minister is not the official appointing authority. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• The President (Option 2) acts as the ceremonial and constitutional head of the state and performs the appointment based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. Hence, this statement is correct.
• The Defence Minister (Option 3) is the political head of the Ministry of Defence and handles administrative and policy matters, but the Defence Minister does not hold the constitutional power to appoint the service chiefs. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Chief of the Army Staff (COAS):
• The COAS is the professional head and the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Army.
• The tenure of the Army Chief is generally 3 years or until the age of 62 years, whichever occurs earlier.
• The officer holds the four-star rank of General.
• Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS):
• The CNS is the commander and the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Navy.
• The tenure and age limit are the same as the Army Chief: 3 years or 62 years of age.
• The officer holds the four-star rank of Admiral.
• Chief of the Air Staff (CAS):
• The CAS is the head of the Indian Air Force and serves as the chief military adviser to the government regarding aerial warfare.
• The officer holds the four-star rank of Air Chief Marshal.
• The age and tenure rules remain consistent with the other two service branches (3 years or 62 years).
• Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
• The post of CDS was created in December 2019 to provide "single-point military advice" to the Government of India.
• The CDS is a four-star officer who acts as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC) and heads the Department of Military Affairs.
• The first CDS of India was General Bipin Rawat, appointed in January 2020.

Important Points

• Role of the Ministry of Defence: The Ministry of Defence (MoD) provides the necessary resources and policy framework to the Armed Forces to discharge their responsibilities in the context of the Defence of the country.
• Cabinet Committee on Appointments (ACC): This committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes the Minister of Home Affairs. It decides the appointments of several top-tier civil and military positions, including the Service Chiefs.
• Constitutional Status: While the President is the Supreme Commander, the actual executive power resides with the Prime Minister and the Cabinet, as India follows a Parliamentary system of government.
• Selection Process: The selection is usually based on the principle of seniority-cum-merit, where the most senior Lieutenant General (Army), Vice Admiral (Navy), or Air Marshal (Air Force) is considered for the top post.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Din-e-Illahi (The Religion of God) was a syncretic religious movement propounded by the Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1582 AD.
• The primary intent behind this new faith was to merge the best elements of the various religions practiced in his empire, such as Islam, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, Christianity, Jainism, and Buddhism.
• The religion was based on the philosophy of Sulh-i-kul, which means "universal peace" or "absolute tolerance," aiming to bridge the religious divide among his subjects.
• Din-e-Illahi did not have a sacred scripture, a priestly hierarchy, or a temple/mosque for worship; it functioned more as an ethical and social code of conduct.
• The entry into this faith was voluntary, and it is recorded that very few people joined it. Birbal, one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) in Akbar's court, was the only Hindu to embrace the religion.

Additional Information

• Akbar (1556–1605):
• He was the third Mughal Emperor and is considered one of the greatest rulers in Indian history.
• He established the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575 to conduct theological discussions with scholars of different faiths.
• In 1579, he issued the Mahzarnama (Infallibility Decree), which authorized him to be the final arbiter in religious disputes.
• He is well-known for abolishing the Jizya tax (a tax on non-Muslim subjects) in 1564, demonstrating his secular outlook.
• Babur (1526–1530):
• He was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
• He wrote his autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburnama), in the Chaghatai Turkic language.
• Humayun (1530–1540 and 1555–1556):
• The son of Babur, he struggled against Sher Shah Suri and spent 15 years in exile.
• He built a new city in Delhi called Dinpanah. His tomb, Humayun's Tomb, is a major architectural precursor to the Taj Mahal.
• Jahangir (1605–1627):
• The son of Akbar, known for his Zanjir-i-Adal (Chain of Justice) installed at the Agra Fort.
• His reign is considered the Golden Age of Mughal Painting.

Important Points

• The Din-e-Illahi emphasized monotheism and prohibited vices like lust, sensuality, and pride.
• It encouraged virtues such as piety, prudence, abstinence, and kindness toward all living beings.
• The religion used symbols like the Sun and Fire as representations of divine light, a feature heavily influenced by Zoroastrian practices.
• Because it was centered heavily on the personality of Akbar, the movement lost its momentum and virtually disappeared after his death in 1605. Historians suggest that no more than 18 to 20 high-ranking officials ever formally adopted the faith.

The correct answer is Dr. Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

• Dr. Zakir Hussain served as the 3^rd President of India from 13 May 1967 until his death on 3 May 1969.
• He was the first Indian President to die in office, which necessitated the appointment of an Acting President for the first time in Indian history.
• Prior to his presidency, he served as the 2^nd Vice-President of India from 1962 to 1967 and the Governor of Bihar from 1957 to 1962.
• He was a renowned educationist and an intellectual, being one of the co-founders of Jamia Millia Islamia, serving as its Vice-Chancellor from 1926.
• In recognition of his service to the nation, he was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, in the year 1963. Hence, the option Dr. Zakir Hussain is correct.

Additional Information

• Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
• He was the 1^st President of independent India, serving the longest tenure from 26 January 1950 to 13 May 1962.
• He was a lawyer by training and a pivotal figure in the Indian Independence Movement, having joined the Indian National Congress in 1911.
• He was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946, which drafted the Constitution of India.
• He did not die in office; he retired after his second term and passed away on 28 February 1963. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. Rajendra Prasad is incorrect.
• Dr. S. Radhakrishnan:
• He served as the 2^nd President of India from 1962 to 1967 and was the 1^st Vice-President of India from 1952 to 1962.
• He was a distinguished philosopher and statesman; his birthday on 5 September is celebrated annually as Teachers' Day in India.
• He completed his full term of five years and did not die in office. Hence, the statement regarding Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is incorrect.
• V.V. Giri:
• Varahagiri Venkata Giri served as the 4^th President of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974.
• He served as the Acting President following the death of Dr. Zakir Hussain in May 1969 but resigned to contest the presidential election as an Independent candidate.
• He was a prominent leader of the Labour Movement in India and served as the Union Minister of Labour.
• He completed his full term in 1974 and passed away later in 1980. Hence, the statement regarding V.V. Giri is incorrect.

Important Points

• Constitutional Vacancy: Under Article 62 of the Constitution of India, an election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of death, resignation, or removal must be held within six months from the date of occurrence.
• Succession: In the event of the death of the President, the Vice-President acts as the President as per Article 65. If the Vice-President is also unavailable, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) performs the functions. This occurred in 1969 when Justice M. Hidayatullah became the Acting President.
• Other Instances: Apart from Dr. Zakir Hussain, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the only other Indian President to die during his term. He served as the 5^th President from 1974 until his death on 11 February 1977.
• Eligibility: To become the President of India, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 35 years of age, and qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Vice President.

Key Points

• According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President, resign his office.
• Once the Vice President receives the resignation letter from the President, he is constitutionally mandated under Article 56(2) to communicate this information immediately to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• The President holds office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office, but can vacate the office earlier through resignation or the process of impeachment.
• The resignation must be a formal written document; a verbal announcement does not constitute a valid resignation under the Indian Constitution.
• In the event that the office of the President falls vacant due to resignation, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected, which must happen within 6 months of the vacancy.

Additional Information

• Article 52 to 62 of the Constitution of India deal with the President of India, who is the head of the Indian State and the formal executive head of the union.
• Eligibility and Age: To be eligible for election as President, a person must be a citizen of India, have completed the age of 35 years, and be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Election Process: The President is elected indirectly by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
• Location: The official residence of the President of India is the Rashtrapati Bhavan, located on Raisina Hill in New Delhi.
• Oath of Office: Before entering office, the President must take an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available, as per Article 60.
• Functions: The President exercises several powers including Executive (appointing the Prime Minister), Legislative (summoning Parliament), Financial (prior recommendation for money bills), and Judicial (power to grant pardons).

Important Points

• Impeachment: The President can be removed from office by the process of impeachment for the "violation of the Constitution" under Article 61. The charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
• Interim Roles: If both the offices of the President and the Vice President are vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court) performs the duties of the President. This occurred in 1969 when Justice M. Hidayatullah became the acting President.
• First President: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, serving from 1950 to 1962, and remains the only person to hold the office for two terms.
• Nominal Head: While the President is the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces, he is a nominal or titular executive, acting on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister as per Article 74.

The correct answer is French.

Key Points

• The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were inspired by the French Revolution. This revolution, which took place between 1789 and 1799, was a period of far-reaching social and political upheaval in France that fundamentally changed the course of modern history. Hence, the French revolution is the correct source.
• Liberty: It implies the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals and, at the same time, provides opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• Equality: This concept signifies the absence of special privileges to any section of society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity.
• Fraternity: This refers to a sense of brotherhood and a feeling that all people are children of the same soil, the same motherland. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship.
• The inclusion of these three words highlights the democratic and republican nature of the Indian state, emphasizing that the Constitution aims to establish a society based on social justice and individual dignity.

Additional Information

• Russian Revolution (1917): The ideals of Justice (Social, Economic, and Political) in the Preamble are borrowed from the Russian Revolution. This revolution aimed to create a classless society and eliminate exploitation. Hence, statement regarding Russian revolution being the source for Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity is incorrect.
• Irish Revolution/Constitution: India borrowed the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), the method of Election of the President, and the nomination of members to Rajya Sabha from the Irish Constitution. Hence, statement regarding Irish influence on these specific Preamble ideals is incorrect.
• American Revolution/Constitution: The United States provided the inspiration for the Preamble itself (starting with "We the People"), Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, Independence of Judiciary, and the impeachment of the President. Hence, statement regarding American revolution being the source for Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity is incorrect.
• British Constitution: Features like the Parliamentary form of government, the Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, Single citizenship, and Cabinet system were borrowed from the United Kingdom.

Important Points

• The Preamble was amended only once in 1976 by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
• The 42^nd Amendment added three new words to the Preamble: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
• The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution, drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13^th December 1946 and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22^nd January 1947.
• Legal experts like N.A. Palkhivala called the Preamble the "Identity card of the Constitution."
• In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided the Basic Structure is not altered.

The correct answer is Amjad Ali Khan - Sarod.

Key Points

• Amjad Ali Khan is a world-renowned Indian classical musician who is best known for playing the Sarod. Born in 1945 in Gwalior, he belongs to the Bangash lineage and is credited with reinventing the technique of playing the Sarod. This pair correctly identifies the artist with his instrument. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Zakir Hussain is an iconic Tabla player and a composer. He was born in 1951 in Mumbai and is the son of the legendary Ustad Alla Rakha. The option incorrectly associates him with the Sitar, which is a stringed instrument. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
• Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a legendary maestro of the Bansuri (Indian bamboo Flute) in the Hindustani classical tradition. Born in 1938 in Prayagraj, he has been awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2000. The option incorrectly matches him with the Tabla. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
• Pt. Ravi Shankar was a celebrated Sitar player and a composer who became the world's best-known proponent of Hindustani classical music in the 20^th century. He was born in 1920 in Varanasi and received the Bharat Ratna in 1999. The option incorrectly matches him with the Flute. Hence, the statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Sarod: It is a stringed musical instrument, used mainly in Hindustani music on the Indian subcontinent. Along with the Sitar, it is among the most popular and prominent instruments. It is known for a deep, weighty, introspective sound. Amjad Ali Khan received the Padma Vibhushan in 2001 for his contributions to this instrument.
• Tabla: This is a pair of twin hand drums from the Indian subcontinent. Since the 18^th century, it has been the principal percussion instrument in Hindustani classical music. Zakir Hussain has won multiple Grammy Awards, including three in 2024, showcasing the global reach of this instrument.
• Bansuri (Flute): It is a side-blown flute originating from the Indian subcontinent, made from a single hollow shaft of bamboo with six or seven finger holes. It is intimately linked to the love story of Krishna and Radha and is a symbol of divine music. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a member of the Senia Maihar Gharana.
• Sitar: A plucked stringed instrument used in Hindustani classical music, the Sitar flourished under the Mughal Empire. Pt. Ravi Shankar was instrumental in introducing Indian music to the Western world, notably through his association with George Harrison of The Beatles in the 1960s.

Important Points

• Gharanas: In Indian classical music, a Gharana is a system of social organization linking musicians or dancers by lineage or apprenticeship, and by adherence to a particular musical style. For example, Pt. Ravi Shankar belonged to the Maihar Gharana.
• Cultural Awards: Most of these maestros are recipients of India's highest civilian honors, such as the Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri, as well as the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, which is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
• Global Influence: These artists have performed at major international venues like Carnegie Hall and the United Nations, helping to establish Indian Classical Music as a respected genre globally. Zakir Hussain was also awarded the United States National Endowment for the Arts' National Heritage Fellowship in 1999.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• According to Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the President has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• These individuals are selected from among people who have special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
• The primary objective of this provision is to provide distinguished persons a place in the Upper House without them having to go through the process of elections.
• The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at a maximum of 250 members, out of which 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories, and 12 are nominated by the President.
• Currently, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members, which includes 233 elected members and 12 nominated members.

Additional Information

• Nature of the House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every second year.
• Tenure and Age: A member who is elected or nominated for a full term serves for a period of 6 years. To become a member of the Rajya Sabha, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age.
• Election Process: The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the respective states through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• Presiding Officers: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members to handle proceedings in the absence of the Chairman.
• Allocation of Seats: The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories is laid down in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution, based on the population of each state.