Allahabad High Court RO 2019 Official Paper 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Fraternity.

Key Points

• The slogan "Liberté, Egalité, Fraternité" was initially used during the French Revolution and is a remnant of the Enlightenment.
• Despite being questioned numerous times, it was finally formed during the Third Republic.
• It is currently part of the French national heritage, having been incorporated into the 1958 Constitution. "Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity" was one of the numerous mottos used during the French Revolution.
• Maximilien Robespierre proposed that the words "The French People" and "Liberty, Equality, Fraternity" be put on uniforms and flags in a December 1790 speech on the establishment of the National Guards, but his suggestion was rejected.

Important Points

• The French Revolution was a period of significant political and societal change in France that began in 1789 with the founding of the Estates-General and ended in November 1799 with the formation of the French Consulate.

The correct answer is Allan Octavian Hume.

Key Points

• On the suggestion of retired Civil Service official Allan Octavian Hume, the Indian National Congress held its first session in Bombay from December 28 to December 31, 1885.
• In an open letter to graduates of the University of Calcutta in 1883, Hume presented his notion for a group representing Indian interests.
• Its goal was to give educated Indians a bigger say in government and to provide a forum for civic and political conversation with the British Raj.
• The French Revolution was a period of significant political and societal change in France that began in 1789 with the founding of the Estates-General and ended in November 1799 with the formation of the French Consulate.

Important Points

• The Indian National Congress is a broad-based political party in India.
• It was the first modern nationalist movement to develop in the British Empire in Asia and Africa, having been founded in 1885.
• Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, Congress became the primary leader of the Indian independence struggle in the late nineteenth century, particularly after 1920.

The correct answer is Lord Curzon.

Key Points

• Lord Curzon passed the Indian Universities Act in 1904, imposing stiff control over Indian Universities.
• The British government enacted severe legislation to regulate education and the media.
• In 1904, Lord Curzon, the British Viceroy, passed the Indian Universities Act, which tightened authority over Indian universities.
• Curzon was on a mission to quell India's budding nationalism. The partition of Bengal was declared by Curzon.

Important Points

• Lord Curzon announced the Indian Universities Act in 1904 in an attempt to modernize and elevate the Indian educational system.
• It all started with Lord Curzon convening a round table meeting in Simla in September 1901.
• This meeting was attended by all of India's educational ministers. After much deliberation, a commission led by Sir Thomas Raleigh was appointed on January 27, 1902, to investigate the state and prospects of universities in India.

The correct answer is Swadeshi.

Key Points

• Swadeshi means, made in our own country by our own people.
• Swadeshi is a Sanskrit word that combines two Sanskrit words: swa ("self" or "own") and desh ("country").
• It is a word that signifies "from one's own country."
• In India, the Swadeshi Movement has been described as fabric manufacture.
• It began in Bengal, where there were strong feelings about the closure of the home cloth business.
• By 1857, the East India Company had planned to undermine the native fabric industry by chopping the thumbs of spinners who used to spin fine muslin cloth (exceeding 200 counts) to make room for English cloth, which was not as fine as Indian hand-spun cloth.

Important Points

• The Swadeshi movement contributed to the growth of Indian nationalism as part of the Indian independence movement.
• Following the partition of Bengal, the Swadeshi movement was formally launched on August 7, 1905, from Town Hall in Calcutta, with the goal of reducing foreign imports by relying on native manufacture.
• It is the soul of swaraj, according to Mahatma Gandhi (self-rule).

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

• The usage of Swadeshi (made in India by Indians) commodities, business, national education, and Indian languages was encouraged.
• The terror of persecution, including imprisonment and brutal torture, was replaced by a new nationalist attitude of self-reliance.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first to recognize the relevance of boycotting as a weapon for paralyzing the entire British administrative apparatus in India.
• Swadeshi firms, such as textile mills, banks, hosiery, tanneries, chemical works, and insurance companies, were established as a result of the boycott and Swadeshi movements.

Important Points

• Swadeshi outlets have opened their doors. Volunteers delivered goods to each household's doorstep.
• The movement swept through all social classes and organizations. Women and children alike stepped forward to participate.

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar and Bipin Chandra Pal.

Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal were the three important leaders of the Radical Nationalists group.
• The Radical Reform Organization was a lobbying group inside the Liberal Party that was founded in 1952 to promote social liberalism and Keynesian economics.
• The Radical Reform Group thought that "the role of Liberals was not to withdraw from Social Liberalism but to offer methods in which the Welfare State's institutions and policies could be enhanced and expanded," according to Andrew Gamble.

Important Points

• Desmond Banks (later Lord Banks of Kenton) and Peter Grafton, the Liberal candidate for Bromley in the general election of 1950, were the two key players in the establishment of the Radical Reform Group. However, this plan failed, and the Group narrowly voted in 1955 to rejoin the Liberal Party.

Additional Information 

• Lala Lajpat Rai was an Indian nationalist who fought for independence. He was a key figure in the Indian independence struggle.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an Indian nationalist, educator, and freedom fighter. He was one of the Lal Bal Pal triumvirate's three members.
• During the Indian Independence Movement, Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian liberal political leader and social reformer.

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave a slogan 'Freedom is our birthright and we must have it.
• Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak roused the Indian people and injected fresh life into our liberation cause with his electrifying phrase, "Swaraj is my birth-right and I shall have it."
• Lokmanya Tilak was born in 1856, barely one year before the First War of Indian Independence, into a disappointed and sullen India, and following the defeat of the 1857 insurrection, into a swirl of sorrow and hopelessness.

Important Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak worked valiantly to aid the country's independence from British domination.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a member of the Lal-Bal-Pal troika, was dubbed the "Father of Indian Unrest" by British colonial rulers.
• Lokmanya Tilak founded and published two newspapers: the Marathi Kesari and the English The Mahratta. To criticize the colonial overlords, he used his pen as a weapon.

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Mistake Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak started working for the Home rule Movement in April 1916 at Belgaum.
• Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak started working for the Home Rule Movement in 1916.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a member of the Lal-Bal-Pal troika, was dubbed the "Father of Indian Unrest" by British colonial rulers.
• Lokmanya Tilak founded and published two newspapers: the Marathi Kesari and the English The Mahratta.

Important Points

• Home Rule Movement, led by stalwarts such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant, grew and flourished during the Indian independence movement, between 1916 and 1918.
• The goal of the home rule movement was to give India, like Canada and Australia, home rule or dominion status under the British Empire. The two home rule leagues were used to carry out this campaign.
• Annie Besant was an Irish socialist, author, and orator who advocated for Irish and Indian self-determination. In 1893, she came to India.

The correct answer is Lucknow Pact.

Key Points

• The Lucknow Pact was a combined conference of the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (AIML) conducted in Lucknow in December 1916 that resulted in an agreement between the two organizations.
• The two parties agreed to provide religious minorities participation in provincial legislatures as part of the agreement.
• Leaders of the Muslim League agreed to join the Congress-led push for Indian independence. This is an example of a consociational practice in Indian politics, according to scholars.
• The Congress was led by Ambika Charan Majumdar, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah (who was a member of both the Congress and the Muslim League in 1916) and Mahatma Gandhi were also there.

Important Points

• The Lucknow Pact was viewed as a ray of hope for Hindu–Muslim cooperation.
• It was the first time Hindus and Muslims had made a combined appeal to the British for political reform.
• As a result, there was a growing belief throughout British India that Home Rule (self-government) was a viable option. The accord also marked the pinnacle of Hindu-Muslim cooperation.

The correct answer is All India Muslim League.

Key Points

• The All-India Muslim League was a political party in British India that was founded in 1906. Its ardent advocacy, beginning in 1930, for the establishment of a distinct Muslim-majority nation-state, Pakistan, culminated in the British Empire's partition of India in 1947.
• The party developed from a literary movement that began at the Aligarh Muslim University and was founded in Dhaka (now Bangladesh) several years after the death of Syed Ahmad Khan, the university's founder. Until 1937, when the leadership began mobilizing the Muslim masses, the league remained an elitist institution.

Important Points

• The All-India Muslim League was abolished after India's partition in 1947. In the new India, the Indian Union Muslim League took its place. Under the Indian Constitution, the Indian Union Muslim League runs in general elections.
• The party has always had a presence in the Indian Parliament, although a little one.
• With the exception of the Second, where it had no members, and the Fourth, where it had three members, the party has had two members in every Lower House from the third through the sixteenth.
• In the 14th Lower House, the party only had one member. Currently, the party has four MPs in Parliament.

The correct answer is Dyarchy.

Key Points

• Montague-Chelmsford Reforms introduced Dyarchy which was a kind of double government in the provinces.
• The Montague–Chelmsford Reforms were enacted by the colonial government to gradually install self-governing institutions in British India.
• The amendments are named after Edwin Montague, Secretary of State for India from 1917 to 1922, and Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921.
• The Montague-Chelmsford Report, released in 1918, emphasized the reforms that were later incorporated into the Government of India Act of 1919.

Important Points

• The Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of State would now make up the Imperial Legislative Council.
• The Dual Government System, or dyarchy, was to be followed by the provinces.
• The review commission (Simon Commission) was led by Sir John Simon, who suggested further constitutional changes.

The correct answer is Jallianwalla Bagh.

Key Points

• On the 13th of April 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, occurred.
• The arrest of pro-Indian independence leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satya Pal drew a large but peaceful crowd to Amritsar's Jallianwala Bagh in Punjab.
• Although following British actions during the Mau Mau insurgencies in Kenya have led historian Huw Bennett to highlight that the new policy was not always followed, the massacre caused a re-evaluation by the British Army of its military role against civilians to use minimal force if possible.

Important Points

• The British government attempted to conceal the massacre's specifics, but news leaked across India, causing great indignation; the massacre's facts were not revealed in Britain until December 1919.
• World War I, sometimes known as the First World War, was a global conflict that began in Europe and lasted until November 11, 1918.

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• The states need the indicated minimal experience as a lawyer as a requirement for entry into the lowest rung of the judiciary.
• In this regard, it should be noted that under Article 233(2) of the Constitution, no person can be appointed a District Judge unless he has worked as an advocate or a pleader for at least seven years, whereas Articles 217(2)(b) and 124(3)(b) require at least ten years of experience as a High Court advocate for appointment to the posts of judge of the High Court.
• All States include three years of legal practice as one of the essential criteria for recruitment as a lower-level judicial officer.
• A candidate is not entitled to take the entire examination unless he has worked as a lawyer for at least three years at the time of his application to take the exam. Following that, the Apex Court reversed its earlier ruling, holding that three years of minimum experience as a lawyer was not required since, after three years of practice, outstanding law graduates were not attracted by the Judicial Service's circumstances.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The 404 members of the Legislative Assembly are elected for five-year periods.
• The Legislative Council is a 100-member permanent council, with 33 members retiring every two years.
• Uttar Pradesh is sometimes regarded as one of the most important states in Indian politics because it sends the most legislators to the national Parliament.
• The state contributes 80 seats to the Indian Parliament's lower chamber, the Lok Sabha, and 31 seats to the upper house, the Rajya Sabha.

Important Points

• The Governor is the constitutional head of the Uttar Pradesh government, which is democratically elected and appointed by the President of India for a five-year term.
• Rajasthan held its general election in 2014, with 25 seats up for grabs.
• Madhya Pradesh had 29 seats up for election in the 2014 Indian general election.
• Maharashtra had three general elections in 2014, the first on April 10, the second on April 17, and the third on April 24.

The correct answer is Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Key Points

• In matters pertaining to occupational safety, health, and welfare of those employed in mines, the Directorate General of Mines Safety, or DGMS for short, is the Regulatory Agency under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India (Coal, Metalliferous and oil-mines).
• The Central Government is responsible for the safety, welfare, and health of mine workers under the Indian Constitution (Entry 55-Union List-Article 246).
• The Mines Act of 1952, as well as the Rules and Regulations enacted under it, governs the goal.
• The Directorate-General of Mines Safety (DGMS), which is part of the Union Ministry of Labour and Employment, is in charge of these.

Important Points

• The Director-General of Mines Safety is in charge of the organisation, which is based in Dhanbad (Jharkhand).
• The Director-General is supported at the headquarters by specialists in mining, electrical and mechanical engineering, occupational health, law, survey, statistics, administration, and accounts.
• As a back-up support for the organisation, the headquarters also features a technical library and S&T laboratories.

The correct answer is Ayushman Bharat.

Key Points

• Ayushman Bharat Pradhan (Ayushman Bharat Pradhan): The Government of India's Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is a nationwide public health insurance fund that aims to provide low-income Indians with free health insurance coverage.
• This programme benefits around half of the country's population. Primary Health Care Center in the City of Nagpur's Ayushman Bharat Bidipeth.
• The programme is means-tested and is part of the Indian government's National Health Policy. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare introduced it in September 2018.
• The National Health Authority was eventually established by that ministry to handle the programme.

Important Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Matri Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), formerly known as the Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana, is an Indian government-run maternity benefits programme. It was first released in 2010 and was renamed in 2017.
• The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood initiative being undertaken under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) with the goal of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality among poor expectant women by encouraging institutional delivery.
• The National Pension System Trust is a specialised section of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority, which is under the Ministry of Finance's supervision.

The correct answer is National Housing Bank.

Key Points

• National Housing Bank is a subsidiary of RBI.
• The National Housing Bank (NHB) is India's apex regulatory authority for housing finance enterprises' overall regulation and licensing.
• It is governed by the Government of India's Ministry of Finance.
• The National Housing Bank Act of 1987 was established on July 9, 1988.
• The National Housing Bank (NHB) is the most important financial institution in the housing industry.
• NHB was founded with the goal of serving as a primary agency for promoting housing finance institutions at the local and regional levels, as well as providing financial and other support to such institutions and matters related to them.

Important Points

• The National Housing Bank Act of 1987 was revised by the Finance Act of 2019.
• The Reserve Bank of India gains regulatory authority over Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) as a result of the change.
• The NHB registers and oversees Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), conducts on-site and off-site surveillance, and collaborates with other regulators.

The correct answer is Prema Gopalan.

Key Points

• In India, the Social Entrepreneur Award-2018 was conferred to Prema Gopalan.
• Prema Gopalan was recognized for her efforts to encourage rural women to become businesswomen, engage in local governance, and act as resilient leaders, particularly in the face of climate change.
• In front of approximately 150 participants in New Delhi, Rajiv Kumar, Vice-Chairman, National Institution for Transforming India, NITI Aayog, Government of India, proclaimed the winner.
• Prema Gopalan of Swayam Shikshan Prayog (SSP) was named India Social Entrepreneur of the Year (SEOY) 2018 by the Schwab Foundation for Social Entrepreneurship in collaboration with the Jubilant Bhartia Foundation.

Important Points

• Prema Gopalan is a social activist from India. In 1984, she helped to form the Society for the Promotion of Area Resource Centers (SPARC).
• Swayam Shikshan Prayog (SSP), which supports underprivileged rural women in business projects, was started by her and she has been its executive director for over 20 years. She is also well-known in Bihar, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu for her disaster relief efforts.
• The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and the United Nations Development Programme have both given Gopalan awards.

The correct answer is Food Machinery.

Key Points

• Food Machinery is not a commodity listed under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
• The Necessary Commodities Act of 1955 does not contain a detailed definition of essential commodities.
• According to Section 2(A), an "essential commodity" is defined as a commodity included in the Act's Schedule.
• The Act gives the federal government the authority to add or remove commodities from the Schedule.
• In conjunction with state governments, the Centre can declare an item essential if it believes it is vital in the public interest.

Important Points

• The Schedule currently contains seven commodities, according to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, which implements the Act: drugs; fertilizers, whether inorganic, organic or mixed; foodstuffs, including edible oils; hank yarn made entirely of cotton; petroleum and petroleum products; raw jute and jute textiles; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables.

The correct answer is Dairy products.

Key Points

• In the 1970s, Operation Flood, also known as the White Revolution in India, was begun with the goal of making Indian milk self-sufficient.
• Dr. Verghese Kurien is regarded as the father of India's White Revolution.
• The White Revolution is linked to a significant increase in milk production. Operation Flood has aided dairy farmers in directing their own development, giving them ownership over the resources they generate.
• A National Milk Grid connects milk producers in India with customers in over 700 towns and cities, minimizing seasonal and regional price differences and guaranteeing that producers receive fair market rates on a consistent basis.

Important Points

• India produces more milk than any other country on the planet.
• Although India's milk output is lower than that of Western countries, it still ranks first among the world's largest milk producers due to the country's enormous cattle population.
• The biggest milk-producing states in India include Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana. India is also the world's largest producer of buffalo milk.

The correct answer is Udaipur.

Key Points

• In Udaipur, Rajasthan, the Mewar festival is held to celebrate the entrance of spring with zeal and dedication.
• The festival's spirit can be found throughout Rajasthan, but because Udaipur has always been the Mewar rulers' capital, the city of Udaipur bears the festival's identical essence.
• The Mewar Celebration in Udaipur is a renowned Rajasthani festival that is known throughout India for its vibrancy. During the festival days, the entire city of Udaipur is bathed in festive colors.

Important Points

• The city of Udaipur, commonly known as the "City of Lakes," is located in Rajasthan, India. In the erstwhile Rajputana Agency, it is the medieval capital of the kingdom of Mewar.
• It was constructed in 1559 by Udai Singh II of the Sisodia Rajput dynasty when he relocated his capital from Chittorgarh to Udaipur following the siege of Chittorgarh by Akbar.
• It remained the capital city until 1818 when it became a British princely state, and after that, when India got independence in 1947, the Mewar region became a part of Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Rumtek Monastery.

Key Points

• Rumtek Monastery, also known as the Dharma Chakra Centre, is a gompa in Sikkim, India, near the capital of Gangtok.
• It is the Gyalwang Karmapa's seat-in-exile, which was inaugurated by the 16th Karmapa in 1966.
• It is also a focal point for the 17th Karmapa controversy's sectarian conflicts within the Karma Kagyu school of Tibetan Buddhism.
• Rumtek was established in the mid-18th century under the leadership of Changchub Dorje, the 12th Karmapa Lama, and functioned as the major seat of the Karma Kagyu lineage in Sikkim for a period.
• The monastery, however, was in ruins when Rangjung Rigpe Dorje, the 16th Karmapa, arrived in Sikkim in 1959 after escaping Tibet.

Important Points

• Namgyal Monastery is currently located in Dharamsala, India, in Mcleod Ganj.
• The Gelukpa or Yellow Hat sect owns the ghum monastery, which is noted for its 15-foot-high Maitreya Buddha statue.
• Tawang Monastery is India's largest and the world's third-largest monastery, after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet. It is in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh, in the Tawang city in the Tawang district.

The correct answer is Literature.

Key Points

• Every year, the Bharatiya Jnanpith organisation bestows the Jnanpith Award on a writer from India.
• This award, which was established in 1961, is only granted to Indian writers who write in both Indian languages and English. Until 1982, the Jnanpith Award was only granted for a single work. After 1982, the Jnanpith award is granted for contributions to Indian literature over a lifetime.
• The Award considers English as well as other Indian languages.
• A cash prize of Rs. 11 lakh is awarded to the winner, as well as a bronze replica of Goddess Saraswati, the Hindu goddess of learning.
• In 1965, Malayalam novelist G Sankara Kurup received the award for his novel "Odakkuzhal" (The Bamboo Flute).

Important Points

• In 1976, Ashapoorna Devi, a Bengali writer, was the first woman to receive this honour.
• Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain, an industrialist and philanthropist, founded the organisation that gives out this prize in 1944.
• Bharatiya Jnanpith, a cultural organisation, sponsors the Jnanpith Award.
• Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain, an industrialist and philanthropist, founded the organisation that gives out this prize in 1944.

The correct answer is Fatehpur Sikri.

Key Points

• Fatehpur Sikri, Uttar Pradesh, India's Panch Mahal is a palace. Akbar commissioned the Panch Mahal, which means 'Five Level Palace.'
• This edifice is located adjacent to the Zenana quarters (Harem), implying that it was utilised for entertainment and relaxation.
• This is one of Fatehpur Sikri's most important structures. This is a remarkable construction that incorporates Buddhist Temple design characteristics; it is fully columnar, with four storeys of diminishing size organised asymmetrically on the ground floor, which comprises 84 columns.
• The entire building is supported by these columns, which originally had jaali (screens) between them.

Important Points

• There are 84 columns on the ground floor, 56 columns on the first storey, and 20 and 12 columns on the second and third stories, respectively.
• A chhattri is supported by four columns at the uppermost storey.
• There are a total of 176 columns, each of which is an artistically carved pillar with a distinct pattern.

The correct answer is IIT BHU.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Technology (BHU) Varanasi (IIT BHU) is a public technical and research institution in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The Banaras Hindu University Institute of Technology was founded in 1919 as the Banaras Engineering College and renamed the Institute of Technology, Banaras Hindu University in 1968.
• In 2012, it was recognised as an Indian Institute of Technology. There are 16 departments, three inter-disciplinary schools, and a Humanities and Social Sciences Section of the Indian Institute of Technology (BHU) in Varanasi.
• It is not associated with Banaras Hindu University, despite its location on the campus.

Important Points

• The Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee (abbreviated IIT Roorkee or IITR) is a public technical and research university in Roorkee, Uttarakhand, India, led by Director Ajit Kumar Chaturvedi.
• The Indian Institute of Technology Bhilai (IIT Bhilai) is a public technical and research institution in Bhilai, Chhattisgarh, India.
• The Indian Institute of Technology Mandi (IIT Mandi) is a public technical and research university in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is 1916.

Key Points

• Banaras Hindu University, located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, is a collegiate central university.
• It was founded in 1916 by the Maharaja of Darbhanga Rameshwar Singh, Maharaja of Banaras Prabhu Narayan Singh, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Sunder Lal, and British Theosophist and Home Rule League founder Annie Besant in collaboration with the Maharaja of Darbhanga Rameshwar Singh, Maharaja of Banaras Prabhu Narayan Singh, Madan Mohan Malaviya, It is Asia's largest residential university, with over 30,000 students living on site.
• The university's main campus, which spans 1,300 acres, was established on land granted by Banaras' hereditary monarch, Kashi Naresh Prabhu Narayan Singh.

Important Points

• BHU consists of six institutes, 14 faculties (streams), and around 140 departments. As of 2017, the university had 27,359 students enrolled from 48 different countries.
• It contains around 75 hostels for students who live there. Arts (FA - BHU), commerce, management studies, science, performing arts, law (FL-BHU), agricultural science, medical science, environment and sustainable development, as well as departments of languages, journalism, and mass communication, are among its faculties and institutes.
• In June 2012, the university's engineering institute was named an Indian Institute of Technology (IIT BHU).

The correct answer is Izzat Nagar Bareilly.

Key Points

• In Uttar Pradesh, the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) is located in Izatnagar, Bareilly.
• It is a cutting-edge research facility in veterinary medicine and related fields. Mukteshwar, Bangalore, Palampur, Pune, Kolkata, and Srinagar are among its regional campuses.
• It was renamed Imperial Veterinary Research Institute in 1925 after it was renamed Imperial Bacteriological Laboratory. Following independence, the institute was renamed Indian Veterinary Research Institute.
• The institute is currently under the administrative supervision of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi.

Important Points

• Izzatnagar is a neighborhood in Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The railway station it houses is one of North Eastern Railways' Divisional Headquarters.
• The Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), the Central Avian Research Institute (CARI), the Railway Mechanical Workshop [founded in 1913], the Diesel Loco Shed, and Hartmann College are all located in Izzatnagar. Izzatnagar is also home to the Indian Air Force's Trishul Air Base.

The correct answer is Shehnai, Bharat Ratna.

Key Points

• Bismillah Khan was an Indian musician who popularised the reeded woodwind instrument shehnai. Khan is recognised with boosting the shehnai's reputation and introducing it to the concert stage, despite the fact that it had long been revered as a folk instrument used largely in traditional ceremonies.
• In 2001, he received India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, making him the third classical musician to receive the honour after M. S. Subbalakshmi and Ravi Shankar.

Important Points

• The Bharat Ratna is the Republic of India's highest civilian honour.
• The award, which was established on January 2, 1954, is given in appreciation of excellent service/performance of the highest level, regardless of race, occupation, status, or sex.
• The award was once restricted to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public service, but in December 2011, the government broadened the requirements to include "any sphere of human endeavour."

The correct answer is Sarnath.

Key Points

• Chaukhandi Stupa is a Buddhist stupa in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, India, approximately 8 kilometers from Cantt Railway Station.
• Stupas are Buddhist shrines that emerged from burial mounds. They house a relic of the Buddha.
• The Archaeological Survey of India named the site a monument of national significance in June 2019.

Important Points

• The Chaukhandi Stupa was built as a terraced temple during the Gupta dynasty, during the 4th and 6th centuries, to commemorate the meeting of Buddha and his first pupils while traveling from Bodh Gaya to Sarnath.
• Later, Govardhan, the son of a Raja Todar Mal, renovated the stupa to its current shape by adding an octagonal tower to commemorate the visit of Mughal ruler Humayun.

The correct answer is G.B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology.

Key Points

• Pantnagar University, also known as G. B. Pant University of Agriculture, was India's first agricultural university.
• Jawahar Lal Nehru established the "Uttar Pradesh Agricultural University"(UPAU) on November 17, 1960.
• In 1972, the name was changed to "Govind Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture and Technology" in honour of Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, the first Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, statesman, and Bharat Ratna laureate.
• The university is located in Pantnagar, Uttarakhand's campus town, in the district of Udham Singh Nagar. The university is recognized as a forerunner of India's Green Revolution.

Important Points

• Banda University of Agriculture and Technology (BUAT) is a university in Banda, Uttar Pradesh, India, that specializes in agriculture.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology is an agricultural university in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, India. It was established in the year 2002.
• In Uttar Pradesh's Jhansi district, the Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University is a central agricultural university.

The correct answer is Narora.

Key Points

• Two PHWRs with a total capacity of 440MW are located at the Narora Nuclear Reactor in Uttar Pradesh, Northern India.
• The first unit was erected in January 1991, while the second was placed in July 1992.
• Despite a catastrophic fire in unit 1 in May 1993 and a month out of service in September 1999 due to an air-locking inner door malfunction, Narora is one of the safest nuclear facilities in the country, winning the Golden Peacock award for environmental management in 2000.

Important Points

• Two PHWR reactors with a total installed capacity of 440MW are located at the Kakarapar Atomic Power Plant in Gujarat, Western India.
• The Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS; also known as the Rajasthan Atomic Power Project - RAPP) is a nuclear power plant in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It is located in Rawatbhata.
• T.A.P.S. (Tarapur Atomic Power Station) is a nuclear power plant in Tarapur, Palghar, India. It was the country's first commercial nuclear power plant.

The correct answer is Renukoot

Key Points

• India's second-largest metallurgical industry is the aluminium industry.
• Because it is a light metal, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable, and becomes strong when mixed with other metals, aluminium has gained favour as a substitute for steel, copper, zinc, and lead in a variety of industries.
• Renukoot: Hindustan Aluminium Corporation Ltd. (HINDALCO). It was founded in 1958 at Renukoot, roughly 160 kilometres south of Mirzapur.
• It gets bauxite from Lohardaga (Jharkhand and Amarkantak region of Madhya Pradesh) and power from the Rihand Dam.

Important Points

• Hirakud's Indian Aluminium Company Ltd. (INDAL) began manufacturing in 1938 as a private company before becoming a public company in 1944.
• Jaykaynagar (near Asansol): The Aluminium Corporation of India began operations in 1942.

The correct answer is Oil Refinery.

Key Points

• Mathura Refinery, Indian Oil's sixth refinery, was built in 1982 with a capacity of 6.0 MMTPA to service the demand for petroleum products in the country's northwestern region, which includes the National Capital Region.
• The refinery is around 154 kilometers from Delhi on the Delhi-Agra National Highway.
• The Fluidised Catalytic Cracking Unit (FCCU), Vis-breaker Unit (VBU), and Bitumen Blowing Unit were the three principal secondary processing units provided (BBU).
• The original technology for these devices came from the former USSR, UOP, and other sources.
• In the year 1993, EIL's soaker drum technology was introduced at VBU.

Important Points

• The Indian Oil Corporation's Mathura Refinery is the company's sixth refinery, located in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The refinery processes Bombay High low-sulphur oil, Nigerian low-sulphur crude, and Middle Eastern high-sulphur crude.
• The refinery, which cost Rs.253.92 crores to construct, was inaugurated on January 19th.
• The refinery's construction began in October 1972. Indira Gandhi, India's former prime minister, laid the foundation stone.

The correct answer is Firozabad.

Key Points

• Firozabad, a small industrial town almost 200 kilometers from India's capital, New Delhi, is famous for its glass sector, especially its bangles.
• Traditional glass-making technologies are still widely used, and chimneys blazing black smoke from decaying glass factories show little trace of industrial modernization.
• Bangle-making is a family custom that has been passed down through the centuries.
• Firozabad has been producing glass bangles for over 200 years and is the world's largest glass bangle factory.

Important Points

• Revenue was brought into the city during Akbar's reign, but it was looted by the Afghans.
• Firoz Shah Mansab Dar led Akbar's soldiers to Chandrawar to establish a cantonment to collect taxes, and the city was renamed Firozabad after him.
• Firoz Shah's tomb is still standing today. It has featured glass and bangle works, as well as small-scale manufacturing, since the beginning.

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

• The UP Stock Exchange (UPSE) is a stock exchange based in Kanpur.
• It held a prominent position among India's stock exchanges.
• The Exchange was opened by then-Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on August 27, 1982.
• It had a significant impact on the growth of North India's capital market. It began with 350 members and has since grown to 540.
• The UPSE is the only stock market in Uttar Pradesh, and its membership is not limited to the state's borders. Members from outside Kanpur have made significant contributions to the creation of the equity cult in Uttar Pradesh.

Important Points

• The India International Exchange Limited (India INX) is a subsidiary of the Bombay Stock Exchange and India's first international stock exchange.
• It's in Gujarat's GIFT City, at the International Financial Services Centre.
• It is a BSE Limited subsidiary. On January 9, 2017, it was launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• On January 16, 2001, the trading operations commenced.

The correct answer is Meerut.

Key Points

• A mutiny of Company sepoys at the garrison town of Meerut, 64 kilometers northeast of Delhi, started the revolt on May 10, 1857.
• It eventually burst into further mutinies and civilian rebellions, primarily in the upper Gangetic plain and central India, though there were also incidences of insurrection in the north and east.
• The uprising constituted a significant danger to British dominance in the region, and it was only put down on June 20, 1858, when the rebels were defeated in Gwalior.
• The Indian rebellion of 1857 was a significant, but ultimately failed, rebellion in India between 1857 and 1858 against the British East India Company, which served as the royal power of the British Crown.

Important Points

• The uprising constituted a significant danger to British dominance in the region, and it was only put down on June 20, 1858, when the rebels were defeated in Gwalior.
• The British gave amnesty to those rebels who were not implicated in murder on November 1, 1858, however, they did not proclaim the war officially finished until July 8, 1859.
• The Sepoy Mutiny, also known as the Indian Mutiny, the Great Rebellion, the Revolt of 1857, the Indian Insurgency, and the First War of Independence, is a disputed name.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• In 2011, West Bengal's male-to-female ratio was 950 females per 1,000 males.
• West Bengal's male-to-female ratio increased from 905 females per 1,000 males in 1921 to 950 females per 1,000 males in 2011, expanding at a 0.56 percent annual pace.
• In 2011–2013, a population census using the Sample Registration System (SRS) found that India's sex ratio was 909 females per 1000 males.
• Since then, it has skewed lower, with 900 girls per 1000 males in 2013–2015 and 896 in 2015–17.
• Furthermore, the SRS survey revealed that Chhattisgarh had the greatest sex ratio of 961, while Haryana had the lowest at 831.

Important Points

• Kerala's sex ratio is 1084.
• Andhra Pradesh's sex ratio is 993.
• Chhattisgarh's sex ratio is 991.

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• As of 2011, India's decennial census had been held 15 times.
• The first comprehensive census was taken in 1881, after being conducted every ten years from 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
• It has been carried out by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India since 1949, under the Ministry of Home Affairs of the Government of India.
• Since 1951, all censuses have been conducted under the Census of India Act of 1948.
• House listing and population enumeration were the two parts of the 15th Indian Census.
• The house listing phase, which began on April 1, 2010, entailed gathering information about all buildings.

Important Points

• In the first phase, data for the National Population Register (NPR) was collected, which would be utilized by the Unique Identification Authority of India to give a 12-digit unique identification number to all registered Indian inhabitants (UIDAI).
• Between 9 and 28 February 2011, the second phase of population enumeration was carried out.
• India has been conducting censuses since 1872, but this is the first time biometric data has been collected.
• According to provisional reports provided on March 31, 2011, India's population climbed to 1.21 billion, representing a 17.70 percent decadal increase.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kerala has the highest population density among the given states.
• For more information, please refer to this official source - https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/data_files/india/Final_PPT_2011chapter7.pdf
• Let's look at the table given below:-

The correct answer is Auto Ecology.

Key Points

• Auto ecology, sometimes known as Species Ecology, is the study of how a single organism or species interacts with its environment's living and nonliving components.
• Auto ecology is mostly experimental, focusing on easily observable variables such as light, humidity, and accessible nutrients in order to better understand an organism's or species' requirements, life history, and behavior, and consider the concept of synecology.

Important Points

• Chemical ecology is the study of chemically mediated interactions between living species and their impact on the demography, behavior, and evolution of the animals involved.
• The study of the stability and expression of various genetic materials within abiotic environments is known as genetic ecology.
• The study of interactions between once-living animals and their environs is known as paleoecology.

The correct answer is Sun.

Key Points

• The Sun is the major source of energy for organisms and the ecosystems of which they are a part.
• Sunlight allows plants, algae, and cyanobacteria to use photosynthesis to convert carbon dioxide and water into organic compounds like carbohydrates.
• Plants are then eaten by primary consumers who are in turn eaten by secondary consumers, and so on.
• In each step, the energy that was originally emitted by the Sun is consumed, but that energy also dissipates with each step.
• Animals use up 90% of the energy contained in the foods they eat for their normal activities. This leaves just 10% of the original energy available for the next consumption.
• This is how the sun keeps the ecosystem stable.

The correct answer is Troposphere.

Key Points

• Troposphere
• It is the nearest layer of the atmosphere of the Earth.
• It is wider at the equator (10mi) than at the poles (5mi).
• It contains 99% of the water vapor in the atmosphere.
• The uneven heating of the regions of the troposphere by the sun causes convection currents, large-scale patterns of winds that move heat and moisture around the globe.
• Stratosphere
• It is located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
• The ozone layer helps protect us from ultraviolet radiation (UV) from the sun is found here.
• Temperatures in the stratosphere are highest over the summer pole and lowest over the winter pole.
• Mesosphere
• This is the region above the stratosphere.
• Here the temperature again decreases with height, reaching a minimum of about -90°C at the "mesopause".
• Thermosphere
• It lies above the mesopause.
• It is a region in which temperatures again increase with height.
• This temperature increase is caused by the absorption of energetic ultraviolet and X-Ray radiation from the sun.

The correct answer is Allopatric.

Key Points

• There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric, and artificial.
• Allopatric speciation
• It occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another.
• A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for species to breed with one another.
• The biological populations are physically isolated by an extrinsic barrier and evolve intrinsic (genetic) reproductive isolation, such that if the barrier breaks down, individuals of the population can no longer.
• Peripatric speciation
• It is a special version of the allopatric speciation mode and happens when one of the isolated populations has very few individuals.
• The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other.
• Parapatric speciation
• ​The species is spread out over a large geographic area in this.
• Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
• It sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
• These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing.
• Sympatric speciation
• ​It occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another.
• The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.

The correct answer is Biotic potential.

Key Points

• Biotic potential
• It indicates the capacity for a species to reproduce under environmental conditions that are ideal.
• It is the maximum reproductive capacity of an organism under optimum environmental conditions.
• It can also be expressed as the time it takes for a population to double in size.
• For example, insects can have thousands of offspring every year, while large mammals are not able to reproduce as abundantly.
• Genetic potential is the likelihood that a mutation to a gene coding for the currently favored phenotype will produce the intermediate or unfavored phenotype.
• There is not much clarity in the definition of Ecological potential and Multidirectional potential.

The correct answer is Dolphin.

Key Points

• Carnivores generally eat herbivores, but can eat omnivores, and occasionally other carnivores.
• Animals that eat other animals, like carnivores and omnivores are important to any ecosystem because they keep other species from getting overpopulated.
• Each food chain consists of several trophic levels, which describe an organism’s role in an ecosystem. Carnivores and omnivores occupy the third trophic level.
• Carnivores that have no natural predators are known as apex predators; they occupy the top of the food chain.
• Dolphins eat a variety of fish, squid, shrimps, jellyfish, and octopuses. Hence, dolphins are carnivores.
• The types of fish and other creatures dolphins eat depend on the species of dolphin, where the dolphins live, and the wildlife that shares their habitats.

The correct answer is Cultivation.

Key Points

• Urbanization is the process through which cities grow, and higher and higher percentages of the population come to live in the city.
• Nearly half of all people now live in urban areas. They are attracted by jobs in manufacturing and the professions, as well as by increased opportunities.
• Hence, industrialization plays a good role in providing opportunities.
• People also migrate to cities for acquiring education, availing better medical facilities, and seeking better employment opportunities.
• The urban area has better and various academic options to choose from.
• One can earn more in urban areas than in rural areas for the same job.
• By 2050, 68% of the world population is projected to live in urban areas.
• Cultivation is not the cause of urbanization. It is largely limited to rural areas.

The correct answer is Crime.

Key Points

• Urban populations interact with their environment. Urban people change their environment through their consumption of food, energy, water, and land.
• Some of the environmental impact of urbanization-
• Air Pollution: Episodes of high levels of sulfurous smog killed or sickened thousands in Donora in 1948, as well as in London in 1952. Other cities—primarily in the industrialized regions suffer from notoriously bad air quality. It is the result of very high emissions of sulfur dioxide, smoke, and other particles during stagnant, foggy weather conditions.
• Solid waste: Urbanization directly contributes to waste generation, and unscientific waste handling causes health hazards and urban environmental degradation.
• Flash flood: Removing vegetation and soil, grading the land surface, and constructing drainage networks increase runoff to streams from rainfall and snowmelt. As a result, the peak discharge, volume, and frequency of floods increase in nearby streams.
• Crime is not an environmental impact of urbanization.

The correct answer is It is a city composed of people from various cultural backgrounds.

Key Points

• Cosmopolitan cities are where people from different backgrounds live.
• The lifestyles in cosmopolitan cities are blends of various customs, cultures, and languages.
• The following are the basic characteristics of a cosmopolitan city-
• Diversity
• Sophistication
• Civility
• Economy
• Quality of Life
• Creativity
• Tourism

The correct answer is India and Sri Lanka.

Key Points

• Palk Strait
• The strait is between southeastern India and northern Sri Lanka.
• The southwestern portion of the strait is also called Palk Bay.
• The strait is named after Robert Palk, who was a governor of Madras during the Company Raj period.
• The strait is 40 to 85 miles (64 to 137 km) wide, 85 miles long, and less than 330 feet (100 meters) deep.
• It receives several rivers, including the Vaigai (India), and it contains many islands on the Sri Lankan side.
• The port of Jaffna, the commercial center for northern Sri Lanka, lies on the strait.

The correct answer is South Korea.

Key Points

• Busan Harbour
• It is located at the mouth of the Naktong River in South Korea.
• It is the fifth busiest container port in the world and the largest transshipment port in northeast Asia.
• Apart from Jeju City, the Port of Busan was the only city that was not occupied by North Korea during the Korean War (1950-1953).
• The city has become home to major industries including shipbuilding, automobiles, steel, electronics, chemicals, ceramics, and paper.
• It is developed, managed, and operated by the Busan Port Authority (BPA) which was established in January 2004.
• The Port uses state-of-the-art facilities to enable it to handle active exchange with 500 ports in 100 countries, including the latest generation high-speed container cranes.

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• Tropic of Cancer
• It is a parallel of latitude on the Earth, 23.5 degrees north of the equator.
• On the northern summer solstice/southern winter solstice (around the 21st of June each year), the Sun reaches its most northerly declination of +23.5 degrees. At this time, the Sun is directly overhead for an observer on the Tropic of Cancer.
• Excluding cooler highland regions in China, the climate at the Tropic of Cancer is generally hot and dry except for easterly coastal areas.
• The highest mountain on or adjacent to the Tropic of Cancer is Yushan in Taiwan.
• Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states including Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The Tropic of Cancer passes through 16 countries: Algeria, Niger, Libya, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, Taiwan, Mexico, Bahamas, Mauritania, and Mali.
• It also passes through Mexico (North America), Myanmar (Asia), India among many other countries/
• It does not pass through Brazil.

The correct answer is Sin Cowe.

Key Points

• Four main islands of Japan - Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, and Kyushu.
• Hokkaido
• It is the second largest, northernmost, and least developed of Japan's four main islands.
• Its weather is harsh in winter with lots of snowfall, below zero temperatures, and frozen seas.
• It is bordered by the Sea of Japan (East Sea) to the west, the Sea of Okhotsk to the north, and the Pacific Ocean to the east and south.
• Honshu
• It is Japan's largest island and contains most of the country's best-known cities and destinations.
• It's split into five regions (from the northeast to southwest): Tohoku, Chubu, Kanto, Kansai (also known as Kinki), and Chugoku.
• Shikoku
• It is the second-smallest main island after Okinawa.
• It is separated from Honshu by the Inland Sea (north) and the Kii Strait (east) and from Kyushu by the Bungo Strait (west).
• Sin Cowe is the seventh-largest Spratly island and the third largest of those occupied by Vietnam.

The correct answer is U.K and Argentina.

Key Points

• Falkland Island
• It lies about 300 miles (480 km) northeast of the southern tip of South America.
• The capital and major town: Stanley
• The islands’ vegetation is low and dense in a landscape with no natural tree growth.
• There are no longer any land mammals indigenous to the Falklands, the wild fox being extinct.

• The conflict
• It remains the subject of a sovereignty dispute between Britain and Argentina, who waged a brief but bitter war over the territory in 1982.
• Argentina says it has a right to the islands, which it calls the Malvinas because it inherited them from the Spanish crown in the early 1800s.
• Britain rests its case on its long-term administration of the Falklands and on the principle of self-determination for the islanders, who are almost all of British descent.

The correct answer is Narmada. 

Key Points

• Bay of Bengal
• It is a sea that is part of the northeastern Indian Ocean.
• This sea has played a pivotal role in the histories of the nations that surround it, including India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Indonesia.
• It is characterised by a broad U-shaped basin with its south opening to the Indian Ocean.
• The islands in the bay are very numerous, including the Andaman, Nicobar and Mergui groups.
• The monsoon currents regulate the climate of the Bay of Bengal and the regions around it.
• During the months of January to October, the current flows towards the north in a clockwise circulation pattern and is called the East Indian Current.
• A number of large rivers—the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri (Cauvery) on the west and the Ganges (Ganga) and the Brahmaputra on the north—flow into the Bay of Bengal.
• Narmada flows into the Arabian Sea.

The correct answer is Gurushikhar.

Key Points

• Guru Shikhar
• It is the highest point of the Aravalli Range.
• It rises to an elevation of 1,722 meters (5,650 ft).
• The famous Dattatreya Temple is located here.
• Dhupgarh
• It is the highest point in the Mahadeo Hills (Satpura Range), Madhya Pradesh, India.
• It is located in Pachmarhi in the Hoshangabad district.
• Pachmarhi
• It is a hill station in Madhya Pradesh.
• The landscape is characterized by rugged hills, forests, and deep ravines.
• It is popularly known as 'Satpura ki Rani' (Queen of Satpura).
• Anamudi
• It is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
• Since it is located in the subtropical region, the peak does not experience any snowfall.
• It hosts the endangered Asian elephants, Nilgiri Tahr and Gaur.

The correct answer is Srinagar.

Key Points

• The Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden is home to around 65 varieties of tulips.
• It is the largest tulip garden in Asia spread over an area of about 30 hectares. It is situated on the foothills of Zabarwan Range with an overview of Dal Lake.
• It is in Srinagar.
• The tulip garden was opened in 2007 with the aim of boosting floriculture and tourism in the Kashmir Valley by then Chief Minister Ghulam Nabi Azad.
• The garden is built on sloping ground in a terraced fashion consisting of seven terraces.
• Apart from tulips, many other species of flowers like hyacinths, daffodils, and ranunculus can be spotted here.

The correct answer is Junagarh.

Key Points

• Mount Girnar
• This sacred mountain also known as Revatak Parvata, rising dramatically from the plains, is covered with Jain and Hindu temples.
• It is in Junagarh, Gujarat.
• It is believed to be the Nirvana bhumi of 22nd Tirthankara Lord Neminatha.
• A temple that commemorates the Tirthankara was built in the 11th century.
• Locals of the area say that Paduka of Guru "Dattatreya" is resting on the uppermost tonk of the Girnar.
• As per the facts, Guru Dattatreya is the incarnation of the three Hindu gods Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva.
• Dattatreya Paduka is located on 9,999 steps of Girnar Hill.

The correct answer is Aluminium.

Key Points

• Bauxite
• It is a sedimentary rock with a relatively high aluminum content.
• It is a rock formed from a reddish clay material called laterite soil.
• It is primarily comprised of aluminum oxide compounds (alumina), silica, iron oxides, and titanium dioxide.
• In 1821, the French geologist Pierre Berthier discovered bauxite near the village of Les Baux in Provence, southern France.
• The ore must first be chemically processed to produce alumina (aluminum oxide).
• Alumina is then smelted using an electrolysis process to produce pure aluminum metal.
• Bauxites are typically classified according to their intended commercial application:  abrasive, cement, chemical, metallurgical, refractory, etc.

The correct answer is India and Bangladesh.

Key Points

• Farakka water-sharing treaty
• The Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna mega-basin is the second largest hydraulic region in the world, and one of the most densely populated regions.
• The Ganges Treaty between India and Bangladesh is an agreement to share surface waters at the Farakka Barrage near their mutual border. It was signed in 1996.
• The treaty is known as the Ganges Water-Sharing Treaty and regulates water distribution from Farakka Barrage over a thirty-year period.
• ​The Farakka Barrage was created by India in 1975 to divert water from the Ganges River system.
• The aim of the barrage was to maintain the navigability of the Kolkata port in the state of West Bengal.
• The barrage diverts water from one of the most populated basins in the world, the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin.

The correct answer is Rampura Agucha.

Key Points

• Rampura Agucha is the second-largest zinc mine in the world with a production of 3.9 million MT in FY 2020.
• The ongoing underground mine project is being developed with a vision of producing 5.0 million MT per annum ore production.
• Narora Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power plant located in Narora, Bulandshahar District in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the largest nuclear power plant in India, situated in Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu. The construction began in March 2002, but the launch was delayed due to protests by local fishermen. It became operational in 2013.
• The Kaiga Generating Station (KGS) is a nuclear power plant located in the Karwar district of Karnataka state in India. It is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL).

The correct answer is Economy.

Key Points

• Some of the characteristics of the computer system are-
• Speed- The time taken by computers for their operations is microseconds and nanoseconds.
• Accuracy- Computers perform calculations with 100% accuracy.
• Diligence- A computer can perform millions of tasks or calculations with the same consistency and accuracy.
• Versatility- It refers to the capability of a computer to perform different kinds of works with the same accuracy and efficiency.
• Reliability- It is reliable as it gives consistent results for a similar set of data i.e., if we give the same set of input any number of times, we will get the same result.
• Memory/Storage-  It has built-in memory called primary memory where it stores data.
• The economy is not a feature of computers.

The correct answer is Application software and system software.

Key Points

• There are four main types of software-
• Application Software
• It can be defined as end-user programs that help you perform tasks or achieve a desired outcome.
• Application software is installed on a computer or mobile device based upon a user’s need.
• Some examples of application software include internet browsers, a CRM tool like Hubspot, a photo-editing software like Adobe or Lightroom, or a word processing application like Microsoft Word.
• System Software
• It helps the user, the computer or mobile device, and an application all work together seamlessly.
• This makes system software crucial to running any kind of application software as well as the whole computer system.
• Programming Software
• It is designed for end-users, and system software is designed for computers or mobile devices, programming software is for computer programmers and developers who are writing code.
• These are programs that are used to write, develop, test, and debug other software programs.
• Driver Software
• It operates and controls devices that are plugged into a computer.
• These drivers make it possible for devices to perform their necessary functions.

The correct answer is Memory.

Key Points

• Memory is not a part of the instruction cycle.
• A program residing in the memory unit of a computer consists of a sequence of instructions.
• In a basic computer, each instruction cycle consists of the following phases:
• Fetch the instruction from memory.
• Decode the instruction.
• Read the effective address from memory.
• Execute the instruction.
• Fetch
• It is the first of two stages involved in computer processing.
• The processor operates by processing instructions in what is called the "fetch/execute cycle."
• The processor fetches (reads from memory) an instruction and then, depending on the instruction, executes it.
• Indirect addressing is a scheme in which the address specifies which memory word or register contains not the operand but the address of the operand.
• Execute
• It is a term that describes the process of running a computer software program, script, or command.
• For example, each time you open your Internet browser, you are executing the program.

The correct answer is Data bus, Address bus and Control bus.

Key Points

• System bus
• It is a single computer bus that connects the major components of a computer system.
• It is a pathway composed of cables and connectors used to carry data between a computer microprocessor and the main memory.
• It works by combining the functions of the three main buses: namely, the data, address, and control buses.
• The system bus combines the functions of the three main buses, which are as follows-
• The control bus carries the control, timing, and coordination signals to manage the various functions across the system.
• The address bus is used to specify memory locations for the data being transferred.
• The data bus, which is a bidirectional path, carries the actual data between the processor, the memory, and the peripherals.
• The design of the system bus varies from system to system and can be specific to a particular computer design or may be based on an industry standard.
• The size of a bus, also known as its width, determines how much data can be transferred at a time and indicates the number of available wires.
• A 32-bit bus, for example, refers to 32 parallel wires or connectors that can simultaneously transmit 32 bits.

The correct answer is Input - Store - Process - Output-Control.

Key Points

• All computer systems perform the following five basic operations for converting raw input data into useful information-

1. Inputting: Process of entering data and instructions into a computer system.
2. Storing: Saving data and instructions to make them readily available for initial or additional processing as and when required.
3. Processing: Performing arithmetic operations (add, subtract, multiply, divide, etc.) or logical operations (comparisons like equal to, less than, greater than, etc.) on data to convert them into useful information.
4. Outputting: Process of producing useful information or results for a user, such as printed reports or visual displays.
5. Controlling: Directing the manner and sequence in which the above operations are performed.

The correct answer is Multiprocessor.

Key Points

• Multiprocessor
• It is a computer system with two or more central processing units (CPUs) share full access to a common RAM.
• The main objective of using a multiprocessor is to boost the system’s execution speed, with other objectives being fault tolerance and application matching.
• A multiprocessor is regarded as a means to improve computing speeds, performance, and cost-effectiveness, as well as to provide enhanced availability and reliability.
• A symmetric Multiprocessor is a multiprocessor in which all processors are connected to each other with peer-to-peer relationship nature, it means no master & slave relation.
• Asymmetric Multiprocessor is a multiprocessor in which every processor is allotted predefined tasks, and the master processor has the power for controlling the entire system.
• Examples for Symmetric Multiprocessor – Windows NT, Solaris, Digital UNIX, OS/2 & Linux.
• Examples for Asymmetric Multiprocessor – SunOS Version 4, IOS

The correct answer is Algorithm.

Key Points

• The answer to this question can be Algorithm and Program too. However, the general consensus is that Algorithm is the right answer to this.
• Algorithm
• It is a well-defined procedure that allows a computer to solve a problem.
• It is also a step-by-step description of how to arrive at a solution to a given problem.
• Program
• It is a collection of instructions that can be executed by a computer to perform a specific task.
• Programs are created using specific programming languages such as C++, Python, and Ruby.
• These are high-level programming languages that are human-readable and writable.
• Software
• It comprises the entire set of programs, procedures, and routines associated with the operation of a computer system.
• Hardware
• It is the physical components that a computer system requires to function.
• It encompasses everything with a circuit board that operates within a PC or laptop.

The correct answer is Arithmetic logic unit.

Key Points

• Arithmetic logic unit
• It is a main component of the central processing unit.
• It performs arithmetic and logic operations.
• It has the ability to perform all processes related to arithmetic and logic operations such as addition, subtraction, and shifting operations, including Boolean comparisons.
• The actual instruction is executed during data processing.
• A Byte is the basic unit of information in computer storage and processing.
• A Memory unit is the amount of data that can be stored in the storage unit.
• After processing data, it is converted into a format that humans can understand. After conversion, the output units display this data to users.

The correct answer is 5th.

Key Points

• Second Generation
• It is a computer that uses discrete transistors instead of vacuum tubes.
• In this generation, transistors were used that were cheaper, consumed less power, more compact in size, more reliable, and faster than the first-generation machines made of vacuum tubes.
• Fifth Generation
• The period of fifth-generation is the 1980-till date.
• In the fifth generation, VLSI technology became ULSI (Ultra Large Scale Integration) technology, resulting in the production of microprocessor chips having ten million electronic components.
• This generation is based on parallel processing hardware and AI (Artificial Intelligence) software.
• Sixth Generation
• These computers are called intelligent computers based on artificial intelligence or artificial brains.
• Complex problem solving is possible and researches are ongoing to find ways to solve the problems more efficiently and easily.
• Third Generation
• It is marked by the use of Integrated Circuits (IC's) in place of transistors.
• In this generation, remote processing, time-sharing, multiprogramming operating systems were used.

The correct answer is Modem.

Key Points

• USB
• It is Universal Serial Bus.
• It is a standard type of connection for many different kinds of devices.
• USB ports and cables are used to connect hardware such as printers, scanners, keyboards, etc.
• Scanner
• It is a device that captures images from photographic prints, posters, magazine pages, and similar sources for computer editing and display.
• Printer
• It is an output device.
• It accepts text and graphic output from a computer and transfers the information to paper.
• Modem
• ​​The modem receives information from ISP through the phone lines, optical fiber, or coaxial cable in the home (depending on your service provider) and converts it into a digital signal.
• It is used to send digital data over a phone line.

The correct answer is the Binary number system.

• The computer system can store any kind of data in the form of 0's and 1's which is known as the Binary number system.

Key Points

• Binary number system a high is symbolically represented by a ‘1’ and a low is represented by a ‘0’.
• The 1s and 0s are known as binary digits, or in short ‘bits’.
• Computers always work with bits.
• Every bit can take one of two possible values, the total number of combinations possible, using eight bits, the computer can represent 256 different symbols.
• This is enough to cover our entire range of alphabets, numbers, and other special characters like $, @, +, etc.
• Such a combination of eight bits is called a byte.
• The basic elements of computers that can signal a 1 or 0 are called flip-flops.
• It is a simple electrical device and can either be a ‘0’ or a ‘1’, which means that the flow of current is either inward or outward.

The correct answer is Binary Coded Decimal.

• BCD stands for Binary Coded Decimal.

Key Points

• Binary Coded Decimal (BCD):
• BCD is the storage of numbers in which each decimal digit is converted into a binary number and stored in a single 8-bit byte.
• BCD uses more storage for numbers than binary encoding.
• The Binary Coded Decimal method codes each decimal digit in binary and stores it in its own byte.
• This encoding can be done in 4-bit or 8-bit (usually 4-bit is preferred).
• It is a fast and efficient system that converts decimal numbers to binary numbers as compared to the existing binary system.
• These are commonly used in digital displays where the manipulation of data is a lot of work.

The correct answer is Secondary Storage.

• Auxiliary memory is popularly known as Secondary Storage.

Key Points

• Auxillary memory:
• These units are among computer peripheral equipment.
• Many times they are also referred to as secondary storage.
• They have slower access rates for greater storage capacity and data stability.
• This memory holds programs and data for future use and it is nonvolatile.
• It is used to store inactive programs and to archive data.

Additional Information

• Primary storages are the key component of a computer system that enables it to function. Its examples are random access memory (RAM), read-only memory (ROM) and cache.
• The RAM is a read/write memory.
• The CPU can change the contents of the RAM at any time.
• RAM is volatile.
• Read-Only Memory (ROM) is non-volatile and retains its information even after the power is turned off.

The correct answer is Pen drive.

• Flash drive is popularly known as a pen drive.

Key Points

• A pen drive is also called a USB flash drive.
• It is a data storage device that includes flash memory with an integrated USB interface.

Additional Information

• The RAM is a read/write memory.
• The CPU can change the contents of the RAM at any time.
• RAM is volatile.
• Read-Only Memory (ROM) is non-volatile and retains its information even after the power is turned off.

The correct answer is Write Once, Read Many.

• WORM stands for Write Once, Read Many.

Key Points

• WORM is an acronym for write once, read many.
• It is an optical disk technology that allows users to write data onto a disk just once.
• After writing the data, it becomes permanent and can be read any number of times.
• The data is stored on WORM devices.
• The data stored in these devices are in a non-rewritable format to prevent users from accidentally erasing or altering sensitive information.

The correct answer is a Syntax error.

• The syntax error is a compile-time error.

Key Points

• Compile Time Error:
• Those errors prevent the code from running due to an incorrect syntax such as a missing semicolon at the end of a statement or a missing bracket, class not found, etc.
• These are detected by the java compiler and an error message is displayed on the screen while compiling.
• They are sometimes also referred to as Syntax errors.
• These errors are easy to spot and rectify.
• Syntax errors represent grammatical errors in the use of the programming language.

Additional Information

• A logic error is an error in a program’s source code that leads to an unanticipated and erroneous behaviour of the program.
• An application error occurs when a web-based or desktop application fails to work according to plan.

Concept:

Decimal to binary: (Fractional part)

• Take the decimal numbers as the multiplicand.
• Multiply this number by 2 (2 is the base of binary so multiplier here).
• Store the value of the integer part of the result in an array (it will be either 0 or 1 because of multiplier 2).
• Repeat the above two steps until the number became zero.
• Write these resultant integer part

 

Calculation:

Here, decimal fraction: 0.8125

 

Now, write these resultant integer parts, this will be 0.1101 which is the equivalent binary fractional number of decimal fractional 0.8125

∴ 0.8125 can be written as 0.1101 in binary.

Important Points

Decimal to Binary:

• Take the decimal number as a dividend.
• Divide the number by 2.
• Get the integer quotient for the next iteration.
• Get the remainder (it will be either 0 or 1 because of divisor 2).
• Repeat the steps until the quotient is equal to 0
• Write the remainders in reverse order (which will be the equivalent binary number of a given decimal number).

The correct answer is 1367.

• The equivalent octal number of 759 is 1367.

Key Points

• To convert decimal number 759 to the octal following are the steps:
• Divide 759 by 8 keeping note of the quotient and the remainder.
• Continue dividing the quotient by 8 until you get a quotient of zero.
• Later, write out the remainders in the reverse order to get the octal equivalent of decimal number 759.
• 759 / 8 = 94 with remainder 7
• 94 / 8 = 11 with remainder 6
• 11 / 8 = 1 with remainder 3
• 1 / 8 = 0 with remainder 1
• Hence, the number is 1367.

The correct answer is COM.

• Data entry cannot be captured by COM.

Key Points

• Data entry cannot be performed by COM.
• The process of entering data into a computerized database or spreadsheet is called data entry.
• OCR, OMR, MICR, and Voice-recognition systems are used for data entry.
• Optical character recognition (OCR):
• It is a technology that recognizes text within a digital image, images like typed, handwritten, or printed text into machine-encoded text, whether from a scanned document, a photo of a document, a scene photo, or from subtitle text superimposed on an image.
• It is commonly used to recognize text in scanned documents and images.
• ​Optical mark recognition (OMR):
• It is the method of capturing human-marked data from document forms such as surveys and tests.
• Magnetic ink character recognition (MICR):
• It is a technology used primarily to identify and process cheques.

The correct answer is Bullets and Numbering.

• Bullets and Numbering feature of MS Word help to create a list in a document.

Key Points

• Bullets and Numbering are used to create a list in documents in MS word.
• To create a list in MS Word:
• Select the text required to format as a list.
• Click on the Bullets or Numbering drop-down option on the Home tab.
• Select the bullet or numbering style required, and it will appear in the document.
• 

 

Additional Information

• Word wrap is a word processing feature that automatically transfers a word that has no insufficient space from the end of one line of text to the beginning of the next.
• Scaling in MS Word is another text effect to make the text larger or smaller.
• WordArt is used to create decorative effects to the text styles

The correct answer is Climate change.

• The Kyoto Protocol is related to Climate change.

Key Points

• Kyoto Protocol:
• It is an international treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• It applies to 6 greenhouse gases i.e. carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, sulfur hexafluoride.
• It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan in December 1997.
• The protocol came into force in February 2005.
• Kyoto Protocol is an extension to the 1992 UNFCCC.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Stan Lee.

• Stan Lee, who created famous characters like Spiderman, Hulk, passed away recently at the age of 95.

Key Points

• Stan Lee was a comic book writer, editor, publisher, and producer.
• He created superheroes like Spider-Man, the X-Men, Iron Man, Thor, the Hulk, Ant-Man, the Wasp, the Fantastic Four, Black Panther, Daredevil, Doctor Strange, etc.
• He passed away on 12 November 2018 due to heart failure.

Additional Information

• Friz Freleng is an animator, cartoonist, director, producer, and composer.
• He is the creator of Looney Tunes.
• Matthew Abram Groening is a cartoonist, writer, producer, and animator.
• He is the creator of The Simpsons, Futurama, and Disenchantment.
• Walter Elias Disney was an entrepreneur, animator, writer, voice actor, and film producer. 
• He created Mickey Mouse.

The correct answer is Istanbul.

• In Istanbul, Turkey a big airport was inaugurated in 2018.

Key Points

• Istanbul Airport is the main international airport serving Istanbul, Turkey.
• It was inaugurated in October 2018.
• It is located in the Arnavutköy district.

Additional Information

• Turkey:
• Capital: Ankara
• Currency: Turkish lira
• President: Recep Tayyip Erdoğan.

The correct answer is Singapore.

• The 12th ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meet was held in Singapore In October 2018.

Key Points

• 12th ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meet:
• The meet was held in Singapore on October 19-20, 2018.
• India was represented by the then Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
• It was also the 5th ADMM-Plus meet.
• The meeting was also attended by the defence ministers from Australia, China, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, and the U.S.A.

Additional Information

• The 8th ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus meet was held in June 2021.
• India was represented by ​Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
• Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
• It is a regional organization that was established to promote political, social stability and peace among the Asia-Pacific’s post-colonial states.
• Its motto is “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”.
• 8th August is observed as ASEAN Day.
• The Secretariat of ASEAN is in Indonesia, Jakarta.

The correct answer is Turkey.

• Turkey is not a European Union (EU) country.

Key Points

• Countries in European Union are Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain and Sweden.
• Hence, Turkey is not a European Union (EU) country.

Additional Information

• The European Union is a political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe. The union has a total area of 4,233,255.3 km² and an estimated total population of about 447 million.
• Founded: 1 November 1993, Maastricht, Netherlands
• Founders: Germany, Italy, France, Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg
• Member states: 27 states

The correct answer is Nepal.

• In December 2018, Nepal banned Indian currency notes Rs 100 denomination.

Key Points

• The Government of Nepal banned Indian currency notes Rs 100 denomination.
• The Government also asked its citizens to refrain from keeping new Indian notes of Rs 2,000, Rs 500, and Rs 200 denominations.
• The Nepal government has not notified legalization of new Indian notes.

Additional Information

Indian currency and motifs

The correct answer is Ashok Gehlot.

• Ashok Gehlot was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan in the December 2018 Vidhan Sabha elections.

Key Points

• Ashok Gehlot was sworn in as the 14th Chief Minister of Rajasthan.
• He is a Member of Parliament from the Sardarpura constituency of Jodhpur.
• He replaced Vasundhara Raje as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• As in September 2021,
• Kamal Nath was the 18th Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• Shivraj Singh Chouhan is the current Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• K. Chandrasekhar Rao is the current Chief Minister of Telangana.
• Bhupesh Baghel is the current Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is V.V.S Laxman.

• V.V.S Laxman wrote his autobiography recently titled 281 and Beyond.

Key Points

• V.V.S Laxman:
• His full name is Vangipurapu Venkata Sai Laxman.
• His nickname is Very Very Special(VVS).
• He is popularly called the 'God of 4th Innings'.
• His autobiography is 281 and Beyond.

Additional Information

• The Test of My Life is the biography of Yuvraj Singh.
• Playing It My Way is the autobiography of Sachin Tendulkar.

The correct answer is Arvind Saxena.

• Arvind Saxena was appointed as the Chairman of UPSC in November 2018.

Key Points

• Union Public Service Commission:
• It comes under Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution.
• It consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
• The commission also consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.
• The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of 6 years or 65 years whichever is earlier.
• No qualifications have been prescribed for the Commission’s membership.
• Except for that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
• The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC.
• Arvind Saxena was appointed as the Chairman of UPSC in November 2018.

Additional Information

• Dr Manoj Soni is the current chairman of the UPSC (September 2022).

The correct answer is sixth.

• Marry Kom scripted history by clinching a record sixth World Championship Boxing Gold medal in the light flyweight 48 kg category.

Key Points

• M.C. Mary Kom:
• Her full name is Mangte Chungneijang Mary Kom Oly.
• She won her sixth World Championship Boxing Gold medal in the light flyweight 48 kg category, for which she defeated Ukraine’s Hanna Okhota.
• She is the only female boxer to have won a medal in each one of the first seven World Championships.
• She is the only boxer (both in the male and female category) to win eight World Championship medals.

Important Points

• Terminologies associated with Boxing are Knockout, Round, Ring Stoppage, Punch, Upper-cut, Kidney Punch, Timing, Foot Work, etc.

The correct answer is Donbass.

• Donbass won the Golden Peacock Award in the International Film Festival of India held in November 2018.

Key Points

• Donbass won the coveted Golden Peacock Award at the 49th International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
• The movie is directed by Sergei Loznitsa.

Additional Information

• 49th International Film Festival of India:
• The Film Festival was held in Goa.
• Two new sections such as Sketch on Screen, A Retrospective of Masters were inculcated.
• 212 films were being showcased during the event.
• Israel was the country of focus.
• Best Director award was given to Lijo Jose Pellissery for Ee.Ma.Yau.
• IFFI Best Actor Award (Male) Silver Peacock Award was given to Chemban Vinod Jose for Ee.Ma.Yau.
• IFFI Best Actor Award (Female): Silver Peacock Award was given to Anastasiia Pustovit for When the Trees Fall.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

• Himachal Pradesh is the first State to launch Pan India single emergency number "112", in November 2018.

Key Points

• Himachal Pradesh became the first state to launch a pan-India single emergency number '112'.
• All kinds of immediate help in urgent matters can be sought at this number.
• An Emergency Response Centre (ERC) has been established in Shimla along with 12 district command centers (DCCs) that cover the entire state.
• The ERC has been integrated with emergency services like police (100), fire (101), health (108), and women (1090) helpline numbers to provide emergency services through the emergency number 112.
• It also includes a 112 India mobile app that is integrated with a panic button for smartphones and state Emergency Response Support System (ERSS) websites for ease of citizen in availing immediate assistance.

Aahana was born on 18th of April, 1971, which was a Sunday.

The year she becomes exactly 10 years old = 1971 + 10 = 1981

Day she becomes exactly 10 years old = 18th of April, 1981

As an ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days.

So, day on:

18th of April, 1971 → Sunday 

18th of April, 1972 → Sunday + 2 = Tuesday

18th of April, 1973 → Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday

18th of April, 1974 → Wednesday + 1 = Thursday

18th of April, 1975 → Thursday + 1 = Friday

18th of April, 1976 → Friday + 2 = Sunday

18th of April, 1977 → Sunday + 1 = Monday

18th of April, 1978 → Monday + 1 = Tuesday

18th of April, 1979 → Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday

18th of April, 1980 → Wednesday + 2 = Friday

18th of April, 1981 → Friday + 1 = Saturday

Shortcut Method:

Number of odd days between 18th of April, 1971 to 18th of April, 1981 = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 13

13 when divided by 7, leaves 6 as remainder.

Sunday + 6 = Saturday

Hence, 'Saturday' is the correct answer.

According to the question:

BIGGEST → BGGST

KINGSTON → KNGSTN

TRICKS → TRCKS

To form the code of a word, the vowels are omitted from the words.

In the word CRYPTS, there are no vowels. Thus, the code of the word CRYPTS will be CRYPTS.

Hence, "CRYPTS" is the code for the word 'CRYPT'.

According to the question:

CONTROLLING → GNILLORTNOC

VOLLEYBALLS → SLLABYELLOV

To form the code of a word, the order of the letters of a word is reversed.

Thus, to get the code of SANCTUARIES, we would reverse the order of the letters of the word.

SANCTUARIES → SEIRAUTCNAS

Hence, "SEIRAUTCNAS" is the code for the word SANCTUARIES.

The position of letter according to the English alphabet series:

GODSENT → FNCRDMS

JOKING → INJHMF

The code of a word is formed by replacing each letter of the word with its predecessor as per the English alphabetical series.

Similarly,

we can get the code for the word BRAZENLY,

Hence, the correct answer is "AQZYDMKX".

The sun rises from the east. Thus, the shadow always falls in the west.

Now, Ranjeeta's shadow falls to her right, implies, she must be walking towards the south. It further implies that her back must be facing the north.

Hence, Ranjeeta's back is facing the "north".

Among the given numbers, except for 681400, all are perfect cubes as shown below:

1³ = 1

50³ = 125000

13³ = 2197

Hence, "681400" does not belong to the group as it is not a perfect cube.

According to the question,

BEASTLY = 84

GIVEAWAY = 93

The code is determined by adding the place value of the letters in the word as per the English alphabetical series.

B(2) + E(5) + A(1) + S(19) + T(20) + L(12) + Y(25) = 84

G(7) + I(9) + V(22) + E(5) + A(1) + W(23) + A(1) + Y(25) = 93

Similarly, to get the code for XEREXS

X(24) + E(5) + R(18) + E(5) + X(24) + E(5) + S(19) = 100

Hence, "100" is the code for the word XEREXS

According to the question, Shailendra is on his way to Delhi from the Mathura train. On the way, he sees a camel being mistreated by its handler.

Course of actions:

1) Continue with his journey and hope that the ill treatment of the camel shall be stopped → It is not correct as in this case, Shailendra is leaving everything to the camel's fate.

2) Pull the chain, stop the train, get down and hand over the handler to the nearby Police station → It is not correct as pulling the chain and stopping a train is an offense in itself.

3) Take out a procession after reaching Delhi against the way animals get treated in India → It is not correct as by the time Shailendra would reach Delhi, the camel would have suffered.

4) Call up the helpline for the organisation that deals with such mistreatment against animals, tell them the location and facts of the matter from his mobile phone with a resolve that he shall be ready to help in the matter once he completes his journey → It is correct as the organisation responsible for wildlife protection would have taken the appropriate action immediately based on Shailendra's call.

Hence, "option (4)" is correct.

According to the statements:

I) All weeks have seven days.

II) Wednesday lies in the middle of the week.

Implies, the week starts from Sunday and ends on Saturday. Thus, the order of days in the week are Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday (middle day), Thursday, Friday, and Saturday.

Conclusions:

I) The following week shall have six days → It is not true as every week has seven days as per the first statement.

II) Thursday shall not lie exactly in the middle of the following week → It is true as Wednesday lies in the middle of the week as per the second statement.

Hence, "only conclusion II follows".

Calculation:

The speed of the hour hand = 30º per hour

The speed of the minute hand = 360º per hour

At 12 O'clock in the night, both hands will be at 12.

The relative speed of both the hands = 360º - 30 = 330º per hour

These hands would meet again after = ${360 \over 330}$ hours

These hands would meet again after = ${12 \over 11}$ hours

Thus, the minute hand and hour hand meet each other after every ${12 \over 11}$ hours.

In 24 hours, they would meet x number of times where x is:

$x = {24 × 11 \over 12}$

x = 22 times

Hence, the minute and the hour hands would meet "22 times" in a day.

In standard dice, the sum of the numbers on the opposite faces are always 7.

The number that Catherine got is 5. 

5 + 2 = 7

Thus, the number on the opposite face must be 2.

Hence, "2" is the number opposite 5 in the dice.

According to the question, Ruchit is standing on the thirty-second position from the left.

Implies, there must be 31 people to the left of Ruchit. Also, as there are 48 people on the row, implies, there would be 16 people to his right.

Hence, Ruchit is the "17th person" from the right end.

The correct answer is Red Blood cells.

Key Points

• Red blood cells play an important role in our health to carry oxygen throughout the body.
• A protein called haemoglobin in the red blood cells carries the oxygen around your body.
• Blood brings oxygen and nutrients to all the parts of the body so they can keep working.
• Blood carries carbon dioxide and other waste materials to the lungs, kidneys, and digestive system to be removed from the body.

Important Points

• Red blood cells are also known as erythrocytes.
• White blood cells are also known as leukocytes.
• Platelets are also known as thrombocytes.

Additional Information

• A normal RBC count:
• men – 4.7 to 6.1 million cells per microlitre (cells/mcL)
• women – 4.2 to 5.4 million cells/mcL.
• The normal number of WBCs in the blood is 4,500 to 11,000 WBCs per microliter.

The correct answer is Joule.

• Joule is the standard unit of kinetic energy.
• Other units for energy include the newton-meter (Nm) and the kilogram meter squared over seconds squared (kg m²/s²).
• Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity, which means it only has a magnitude and not a direction.

Important Points

The seven SI base units, which are comprised of:

• Length - meter (m)
• Time - second (s)
• Amount of substance - mole (mole)
• Electric current - ampere (A)
• Temperature - kelvin (K)
• Luminous intensity - candela (cd)
• Mass - kilogram (kg)

The correct answer is Barometer.

• A barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
• It is also called barometric pressure.
• A simple barometer consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury.

Image: 

Important Points

• Sudden fall of barometer indicates storm and the slow falling of barometer reading indicates that the weather will be rainy weather.
• Barometer scale range between 28 and 31 inches Hg.

Additional Information

• Hertz is the unit of frequency.
• An anemometer is an instrument that measures wind speed.
• A decibel meter is a measuring instrument used to assess noise or sound levels by measuring sound pressure.

The correct answer is Friedrich Miescher.

Key Points

• Friedrich Miescher discovered nucleic acid.
• The Swiss scientist Friedrich Miescher discovered nucleic acids (DNA) in 1868.
• He also raised the idea that they could be involved in heredity.
• Friedrich Miescher isolated a new compound from the nuclei of white blood cells.
• This compound was neither a protein nor lipid nor a carbohydrate.

Important Points

• In 1889 Richard Altmann creates the term nucleic acid.
• The term nucleic acid is the overall name for DNA and RNA.
• In 1953 Watson and Crick presented the structure of DNA.

The correct answer is Food chain.

Key Points

• The food chain is a linear network of links, that starts from the producer organism and ends at apex predator species.
• A food chain also shows how organisms are related to each other by the food they eat.
• Producers, or autotrophs, make their own organic molecules.
• Consumers, or heterotrophs, get organic molecules by eating other organisms.
• In a food chain, each organism occupies a different trophic level, defined by how many energy transfers separate it from the basic input of the chain.

Pyramid of Food chain: 

Important Points

• Food webs consist of many interconnected food chains and are a more realistic representation of consumption relationships in ecosystems.
• Energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient—with a typical efficiency of around 10%.

Additional Information

• Apex predators are - lions, tigers, jaguar, etc.
• The primary source of energy is Sunlight in the food chain.

The correct answer is Organism.

Key Points

• The organism is not an abiotic component of the ecosystem.
• It includes plants, animals, and humans.
• Resources that are non-living are abiotic resources.
• These resources fall under the broader category of natural resources that exist naturally in the world and are not man-made or man-made.

Important Points

• Biotic influences live within the environment or once-living species.
• Light, Water, Soil all are non-living things, therefore these are abiotic components.

The correct answer is coal.

Key PointsRenewable resource:

• Renewable resources are replenished naturally and over relatively short periods of time.
• The five major renewable energy resources are solar, wind, water (hydro), biomass, and geothermal.

Non-renewable resources:

• Non-renewable resources are those which have limited stock.
• Once the stocks are exhausted it may take thousands of years to be renewed or replenished.
• Since this period is much more than human life spans, such resources are considered non-renewable.
• Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are some examples.

Important Point

There are basically two sources of energy:

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Thus, solar energy is a renewable resource.

The correct answer is Mesosphere.

Key Points

• The mesosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere among these all options.
• Among all layers of the earth's atmosphere Exosphere is the outermost layer.
• The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere, directly above the stratosphere and directly below the thermosphere.
• In the mesosphere, temperature decreases as altitude increases.

Image: 

Important Points

• The Ozone layer is in Stratosphere.
• Planes generally fly in Stratosphere.
• The stratosphere is about 5 kilometres from the ground.

Additional Information

• The asthenosphere is the highly viscous, mechanically weak, and ductile region of the upper mantle of Earth.
• The lithosphere is the rocky outer part of the Earth.
• The troposphere is the bottom-most layer of the Earth's atmosphere.

The correct answer is Geochronology.

Key Points

• Geochronology is the science of determining the age of rocks, fossils, and sediments using signatures inherent in the rocks themselves.
• Absolute geochronology can be accomplished through radioactive isotopes, whereas relative geochronology is provided by tools such as palaeomagnetism and stable isotope ratios.
• By combining multiple geochronological (and biostratigraphic) indicators the precision of the recovered age can be improved.

Important Points

• The founder of biogeochemistry is Vladimir Vernadsky.
• The father of Petrology is Sir James Hall.
• The father of Volcanology is Howel Williams.

Additional Information

• Biogeochemistry is the scientific discipline that involves the study of the chemical, physical, geological, and biological processes and reactions that govern the composition of the natural environment.
• Petrology is the study of rocks - igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary - and the processes that form and transform them.
• Volcanology is the study of the generation and movement of molten rock on Earth and other planetary bodies, primarily through volcanoes and volcanic eruptions.

The correct answer is Bacteria.

Key Points

• Bacteria is the causative agent of "Tuberculosis".
• Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
• The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine, and brain.
• Not everyone infected with TB bacteria becomes sick.

Important PointsSome important Virus, Fungus, Parasitic, Bacterial disease:

The correct answer is Future India: Science and Technology.

Key Points

• The theme of the 106^th Indian Science Congress is Future India: Science and Technology.
• The 106th Indian Science Congress (ISC-2019) has been inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Lovely Professional University (LPU) in Jalandhar, Punjab from 3rd January 2019.
• It is a 5 days event and approx 30,000 delegates, including 300 top scientists and Nobel Laureates from across the world are attending the congress.

Important Points

• Pune hosts the 108^th Indian Science Congress.
• The theme of the 108^th Indian Science Congress is “Science and Technology for Sustainable Development with Women Empowerment”.
• This will be the fourth time that the city will host the prestigious meet in the last 100 years.

Additional Information

• Dr Vijay Laxmi Saxena has been elected general president of the Indian Science Congress, 2021.
• The science congress had commenced in 1914 from then Calcutta with 105 members.
• Indian Science Congress Association Headquarters is in Kolkata, West Bengal.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The headquarter of the Indian Space Research Organisation is situated in Bengaluru.
• It operates under the Department of Space (DOS) which is directly overseen by the Prime Minister of India, while the Chairman of ISRO acts as the executive of DOS as well.
• It is one of six government space agencies in the world that possess full launch capabilities, deploy cryogenic engines, launch extraterrestrial missions and operate large fleets of artificial satellites.

Important Points

• ISRO was founded in 1969.
• The Chairman of ISRO is Dr. V. Narayanan​.
• Vikram Sarabhai is known as the Father of the Indian Space program.

Additional Information

• INCOSPAR is the preceding space agency of ISRO.
• The Primary spaceports of ISRO are:
• Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC/SHAR)
• Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS)
• Kulasekharapatnam

The correct answer is Yajur Veda.

• The fear of the Phallus worship was replaced in the Yajur Veda by its recognition as an official ritual.
• Harappans worshipped Mother Goddess but the female deities played a minor part in the Vedic religion.
• Aryans were said to provide spouses to their gods by later Vedic times.
• But the fear of the Phallus worship was replaced in the Yajur Veda by its recognition as an official ritual.

Additional Information 

• RigVeda:
• The oldest religious text in the world.
• It is the collection of hymns, composed around 1700 BC, contains 1,028 hymns and is divided into 10 mandalas.
• The third mandala contains the Gayatri Mantra.
• Samaveda:
• It is called the book of chants.
• It is a collection of melodies.
• The hymns of the Samaveda were recited by Udgatri at the Soma sacrifice.
• It contains Dhrupad Raga.
• Atharva Veda
• It is a book of magical formulas.
• Mentioned in the Gotra is found in Atharvaveda.

The correct answer is Maurya Dynasty.

• After the death of King Ashoka, the Maurya Dynasty declined rapidly.

Key Points

• The later Mauryas ruled from 232 BC-185 BC.
• Ashoka’s death was followed by the division of the Mauryan Empire into two parts– Western and Eastern regions.
• The Western part came to be ruled by Kunala (son of Ashoka) and the Eastern part came to be ruled by Dasaratha.
• The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha, was assassinated in 185 BC by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
• Causes for the Decline:
• Highly centralized administration.
• Pacific policy of Ashoka.
• Brahmanical reaction.
• The partition of the Mauryan Empire.
• Weak later Mauryan rulers.
• Pressure on Mauryan economy.
• Neglect of North-West Frontier.

Additional Information

• The founder of the Chola dynasty was Vijayalaya.
• Pulakesin I founded the Chalukya dynasty.
• The Gupta dynasty was founded by Sri Gupta.

The correct answer is Prithviraj III.

• The best-known Chahamana ruler was Prithviraj III (1168- 1192), who defeated an Afghan ruler named Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1191, but lost to him the very next year, in 1192.

Key Points

• Mohammad Ghori’s invasion (1175 AD-1206 AD):
• Mohammad Ghori invaded India and laid the foundation of Muslim domination in India.
• He is often considered the founder of Muslim rule in India.
• Battle of Tarain:
• In the first battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 the Ghori Forces were completely rooted out by Prithviraj Chauhan.
• The second battle of Tarain was fought in 1192 in which Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated by Ghori.

Additional Information

• The Cholas:
• From the Seventh Century AD to Twelfth Century AD, the ruling dynasty of a particular region wanted to control the other kingdoms.
• In order to gain control over Kanauj in the Ganga valley, rulers belonging to the Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and Pala dynasties fought for centuries.
• Since there were three “parties” involved in this long-drawn conflict, historians describe it as a “tripartite struggle”.

The correct answer is Dhamma.

• Dhamma is a set of edicts that formed a policy of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka Maurya, who succeeded to the Mauryan throne in modern-day India around 269 B.C.

Key Points

• Ashoka’s Dhamma
• The word Dhamma is the Prakrit form of the Sanskrit word Dharma.
• Dharma is not a particular religious faith or practice, or an arbitrary formulated royal policy whilst it is related to generalized norms of social behaviour and activities.
• Ashoka’s Dhamma cannot be regarded as a sectarian faith.
• Its broad objective was to preserve the social order it ordained that people should obey their parents, pay respect to Brahmans and Buddhist monks show mercy to slaves and servants.
• After the Kalinga War in 261 BC, Ashoka was moved by the massacre in this war and, therefore, abandoned the policy of physical occupation in favour of the policy of cultural conquest.
• Hence, Bherighosa was replaced by Dhammaghosa.
• He embraced Buddhism under Upagupta.
• Later, he sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Ceylon(Sri Lanka) as Buddhist missionaries with a sapling of the original peepal tree.

The correct answer is Kalinga war.

Key Points

• The last battle fought and won by king Ashoka was the Kalinga war.
• The Kalinga War was fought in ancient India between the Maurya Empire under Ashoka and the state of Kalinga, an independent feudal kingdom located on the east coast, in the present-day state of Odisha and northern parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is presumed that the battle was fought on Dhauli hills in Dhauli which is situated on the banks of the Daya River.

Important Points

• The founder of the Mauryan Empire was Chandragupta Maurya.
• The time period of the Mauryan Empire was 321 BC -185 BC.
• Capital of Mauryan Empire was Pataliputra.

The correct answer is Bindusara.

Key Points

• Emperor Ashoka was the son of Bindusara.
• Kunala is the son of Emperor Ashoka.
• Mauryan Empire was declined after about 50 years after Ashoka's rule and dissolved in 185 BCE with the assassination of Brihadratha by Pushyamitra Shunga and the foundation of the Shunga dynasty in Magadha.
• Emperor of Mauryan Empire: 
• 322–298 BCE - Chandragupta
• 298–272 BCE - Bindusara
• 268–232 BCE - Ashoka
• 232–224 BCE - Dasharatha
• 224–215 BCE - Samprati
• 215–202 BCE - Shalishuka
• 202–195 BCE - Devvarman
• 195–187 BCE - Shatadhanvan
• 187–185 BCE - Brihadratha

Important Points

• The founder of the Mauryan Empire was Chandragupta Maurya.
• The time period of the Mauryan Empire was 321 BC -185 BC.
• Capital of Mauryan Empire was Pataliputra.

The correct answer is Pushyamitra.

• Another view regarding the decline of Mauryas was that the coup of Pushyamitra was a peoples' revolt against Mauryans oppression and a rejection of the Maurya adoption of foreign ideas, as far as interest in Mauryan Art.

Additional Information

• The Mauryan empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya around 322 BCE.
• The Mauryan empire was the geographically extensive historical power belonging to the iron age.
• Three famous rulers of the Mauryan dynasty who took the glory of the Mauryan empire to peak were Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara and Ashoka.
• Political unity was achieved for the first time in Indian history under the Mauryas reign.
• With the conquest of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the empire was centralized.

The correct answer is Taxila.

• The converging point of trade routes was Taxila which was connected with the Silk Route passing through Central Asia.

Key Points

• Silk Route:
• Silk was first discovered in ancient China about 7000 years ago and it became famous in ancient times for its richness in silk.
• Silk in the West was imported mainly from China by the overland trade route called the Silk Route.
• It was between India or the West and China passing through Central Asia, better known as 'Ser India.
• The Kushanas controlled the famous silk route starting from China, passing through their empire on to Iran and Western Asia.
• Taxila acted as a focal point in these east-west routes.
• It acted as a gateway to India.
• All land routes from the west and north were passing through this city.

Additional Information

• The Kushanas:
• They replaced the Greeks and Parthians.
• The first Kushana dynasty was founded by Kujula Kadphises.
• Vima Kadphises gold coins in India.
• Kanishka founded the second Kushana dynasty.
• Their capitals were at Peshawar (Purushapura) and Mathura.
• The most famous Kushana ruler was Kanishka.
• He is also known as ‘Second Ashoka’.
• He started an era in 78 AD which is now known as the Saka Era and is used by the Government of India.
• The Kushanas were the first rulers in India to issue gold coins on a wide scale.

The correct answer is Kashyap.

Key Points

• Malavikagnimitram refers to Sungas as brahmins belonging to Kashyap gotra.
• The Malavikagnimitram is a Sanskrit play by Kalidasa.
• It is based on some events of the reign of Pushyamitra Shunga, it is his first play.
• Malavikagnimitram tells the story of the love of Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha, for the beautiful handmaiden of his chief queen.

Important Points

• Maharishi Bhrigu was one of the seven great sages, the Saptarshis, one of the many Prajapatis created by Brahma.
• Bhrigu is considered a Manasa Putra of Brahma.
• Atri or Attri is a Vedic sage, who is credited with composing numerous hymns to Agni, Indra and other Vedic deities of Hinduism

Additional Information

• Works of Kalidas includes - three plays, two epic poems, and two shorter poems.
• Other important work of Kalidas are - Kumarasambhavam, Abhijnanasakuntalam, Raghuvaṃsa, Meghaduta, Vikramorvasiyam.

The correct answer is Tomara Rajputs.

Key Points

• Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under the Tomara Rajputs.
• They were defeated in the middle of the twelfth century by the Chauhans ('Chahamanas) of Ajmer.
• It was under the Tomaras and Chauhans, Delhi became an important commercial centre.
• Many rich Jaina merchants lived in the city and constructed several temples.
• Coins minted here, called dehliwal, had a wide circulation.

Important Points

• Tomar Dynasty was founded by Anangapal Tuar in 736 CE.
• Tomars were displaced by the Chahamanas of Shakambhari in the 12th century.
• The Tomara territory included parts of present-day Delhi and Haryana.

The correct answer is Janapadas.

• The government of the Satavahana Kingdom was organized on the traditional lines where the kingdom was divided into Janapadas.

Key Points

• Satvahana Kingdom:
• Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty.
• It majorly comprised the present states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana.
• Their kingdom also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh.
• Administration under Satvahana:
• The government of the Satavahana kingdom was organized on the traditional lines.
• The kingdom was divided into Janapadas, which were further sub-divided into aharas.
• Amataya was the leader of each ahara.
• The basic unit of the ahara was the grama with the village headman called gramika.
• Provinces were maintained by central control.
• Princes were the viceroys.
• The kings were expected to maintain dharma.

The correct answer is Gram.

Key Points

• Janapadas were sub-divided into Gram.
• The Janapadas were the realms, republics (ganapada), and kingdoms (saamarajya) of the Vedic period on the Indian subcontinent.
• The Vedic period reaches from the Late Bronze Age into the Iron Age: from about 1500 BCE to the 6th century BCE.
• With the rise of sixteen Mahajanapadas ("great janapadas"), most of the states were annexed by more powerful neighbours, although some remained independent.

Important PointsList of Janapadas:

1. Udichya (Northern region)
2. Prachya (Eastern region)
3. Dakshina (Southern region)
4. Pratichya (Western region)
5. Madhya-Desha (Central region)

The correct answer is Phosphate fertilizers.

Key Points

• For Phosphate fertilizers, sulphuric acid is being used in a large amount.
• By far the largest amount of sulfuric acid is used to make phosphoric acid, used, in turn, to make the phosphate fertilizers, calcium dihydrogen phosphate, and ammonium phosphates.
• It is also used to make ammonium sulfate, which is a particularly important fertilizer in sulfur-deficient.

Additional Information

• Examples of naturally occurring organic fertilizers include manure, slurry, worm castings, peat, seaweed, and guano.
• Fertilizers that are high in potassium include burned cucumber skins, sulfate of potash magnesia, Illite clay, kelp, wood ash, etc.
• The nitrogenous fertilizer industry includes the production of synthetic ammonia, nitric acid, ammonium nitrate, and urea.